IX Sample Paper (Pre-Mid Term Examination)
IX Sample Paper (Pre-Mid Term Examination)
IX Sample Paper (Pre-Mid Term Examination)
OL
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
Pages : 10
HO
General Instructions:
1. The question paper is divided in two parts: A and B. All questions are compulsory.
SC
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Read these instructions very carefully and follow them.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answeringthe questions.
IC
OBJECTIVE PAPER – 40 MARKS
Section A (Reading - 20 marks)
A1 Read the following passage carefully:
Radio Revolution
BL
PU
India’s remote areas, rural areas and far flung hamlets remain connected to the rest of
the country through their radio sets or transistors. They remain in touch with news and
information. The people do not feel isolated. Where there is no TV, telephone or mobile
I
LH
devotional music etc. on their radio sets. It helps them keep abreast of the times by ears.
The people in remote areas spend most of their spare time glued to the radio sets.
N
Some even carry their transistors in fields, on bullock carts or while cycling away.
Today the radio sets are very cheap and transistors are so handy that they have caught
ER
the fancy of everyone - men, women and children. This friendly gadget has proved
bonanza to millions, both manufactures and the users. Broadcasts over radio have
OD
benefitted students, teachers, panchayat people, farmers, fishermen and soldier’s stations
in forward posts. Most of the developing countries including India are using radio broadcast
M
for long distance education and weather warnings. The radio has enabled the farmers to
grow three or four crops a year by listening to Kisan broadcast. They have better crops
and cattle since various problems related to them are discussed in broadcasts providing
useful tips on remedial measures.
OL
City people, who are prisoners of multiplexes, cable TV and internet cannot even imagine
how the humble radio-set is revolutionising the countryside.
HO
A1.1 Answer ANY TEN of the following questions by choosing right options:(10 marks)
1. People in remote areas keep themselves informed of the latest news by ........... .
a) radios b) transistors
SC
c) TV d) Both (a) & (b)
2. Which radio network broadcast programmes are beneficial for the farmers?
IC
a) Programmes on irrigation.
b) Programmes on cattle husbandry and better crops.
c)
d)
Programmes on seeds and manures.
All of these.
BL
PU
3. Which sections of people benefit most from the radio broadcasts?
a) Farmers b) Teachers
c) Students d) All of these.
I
LH
b) Radio is portable.
c) Rural folk are glued to TV sets.
d) All of these
OL
c) Radio /transistors is/are an extravagant expenditure.
d) None of the above.
9. Radio broadcasts are a blessing for agriculture as ................... .
HO
a) farmers get some entertainment
b) it connects the rural folk to the world
SC
c) rural folk listen to devotional music
d) Kisan broadcasts are helpful
10. People in remote areas are inclined towards radio as ..................... .
IC
a) it keeps them informed
b) it doesn’t make them feel isolated
c) they are updated about current affairs BL
d) All of these.
PU
11. Choose the correct synonym for the following word from the passage:
Huts
I
a) bonanza b) hamlet
LH
c) glued d) flung
12. Choose the correct antonym for the following word from the passage:
DE
Inexact
a) address b) engaged
c) abreast d) accurate
N
Ever since I saw a programme on ‘Heritage Toy Train of Darjeeling’ I was seized with a wish
to enjoy a ride on it. I saved money for the trip. One day, I was on the train to Jalpaiguri from
Delhi.
OD
From Jalpaiguri to Darjeeling it is 82 kms on the toy train. The very sight of the toy train
excited me and my eyes sparkled. Finally, I was in the dream toy. The experience indeed
M
was unforgettable as the train chugged through lush green and thick Terai forests. The
scenes all around me were just out of a fairy tale book. There were fascinating hills,
waterfalls and woolly clouds almost touching the ground. The mist filled valleys and hills
lent a dreamy touch to the journey. The tall trees of oak, pine and fir stood majestically
OL
but time flew as fast as it does in a dream, years and days compressed into a few seconds-
minutes.
The toy train passed through tiny villages or clusters of houses or buildings on both sides.
HO
The coaches ran so close to the shops that one could pick up goods from them or talk to
the shopkeepers in low voices. The school children ran along the toy coaches and giggled
SC
at the passengers. The train slowly climbed up the mountains. The people got on or off the
running train with ridiculous ease and safety. All along the track, innocent and happy faces
of mountain people smiled at the passengers. The women folk wore colourful woollen
IC
garments which made them look like mountain fairies. To ascend the mountain heights ,
the toy train ran on zig-zag track. I felt sorry when someone told me that the next station
BL
was the terminal station of Darjeeling. How I wished more of the toy train!
A2.1 Answer ANY TEN of the following questions by choosing right options:(10 marks)
PU
1. What is the destination of the author on the toy train?
a) Jalpaiguri b) Darjeeling
I
2. What trees are commonly seen along the Toy Train track?
a) banyan b) fir
DE
4. How much time does the one-way journey of Toy Train take from one end to the other?
a) 360 mins b) 2hrs
c) 4 hrs d) 250 mins
OD
5. What did the school children do when they saw the Toy Train?
a) Jumped inside b) Mocked at the passengers
M
OL
8. The coaches ran so close to the shops that one could ......................... .
a) pick up goods b) talk to the shopkeepers
c) hit the shops d) Both a&b
HO
9. Choose the option which is true:
a) The women folk wore dull clothes.
SC
b) The author was relieved to reach Darjeeling.
c) The train ran on meandering tracks.
d) The toy train was bound to Delhi.
IC
10. Choose the option which is false:
a) Jalpaiguri to Darjeeling is 82 kms on the toy train.
b) The author’s experience was heart-wrenching. BL
c) The mountain women folk looked like fairies.
PU
d) The author had watched the programme The Heritage Toy Train of Darjeeling.
11. Choose the synonym of the following word from the passage:
I
attractive
LH
a) fascinating b) dreamy
c) thrilling d) All of the above
DE
12. Choose the antonym of the following word from the passage:
leave
a) added b) seized
N
c) ascend d) pick
ER
the country and world come to visit Delhi. There c) ................................many historical
buildings here. Last year, I d) ................................ Delhi.
M
OL
to the Holmenkollen ski jump perch on ii) .............................
a hill top overlooking Oslo. Its offers iii) .............................
HO
a panoramic view of a city. iv) .............................
i) a) It’s-its b) fun-funny
c) make-made d) some -a
SC
ii) a) perch-perched b) to-at
c) jump-jumped d) on-in
iii) a) top-tops b) overlooking-overlooked
IC
c) its-it d) offers-offered
iv) a)
c)
view-views
a-the
b)
d)
BL of-about
none
B3 Choose the correct verb form from the given options. (2)
PU
(ANY TWO)
According to tourism officials, around 1200 tourists have poured into the valley . Daily
I
It is all due to the efforts iii) .............................. by the tourism department. The rush of
the tourists iv) .............................. the smiles back.
DE
OL
2) Name the poet of the poem.
a) Robert Frost b) Subramania Bharti
c) Coates Kinney d) Ruskin Bond
HO
3) What does the poet advise?
a) To build strong homes. b) To join the doors firmly.
SC
c) Practice to firm the body. d) All of these.
4) What does the line ‘he won’t do what you tell him’ mean?
a) He is stubborn. b) He is strong.
IC
c) He is arrogant. d) None of these.
5) Find a word from the extract that means ‘loyal’.
a) strong b) BL firmly
c) steadfast d) practice
PU
OR
B) I shall be telling this with a sigh
I
c) decision d) career
ER
OL
II Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY ONE by answering the questions
that follow : (5 marks)
A) Not surprisingly, Evelyn delights her audiences. In 1991 she was presented with the
HO
Royal Philharmonic Society’s Soloist of the Year Award says master percussionist James
Blades, ‘’God may have taken her hearing but he has given her back something
SC
extraordinary. What we hear, she feels-far more deeply than any of us. That is why she
expresses music so beautifully.’’
1) How do Evelyn’s audiences feel?
IC
a) obsolete b) delighted
c) chuffed d) all of these
2) Who was James Blades?
a) Evelyn’s father b)
BLHead of the Music Academy
PU
c) Master percussionist d) both b and c
3) Name the academy that she attended.
a) The Academy of London b) The Music Academy of London
I
OR
B) “What will I do if I have a nightmare?” she asked. “I often have nightmares and then
Grannie takes me into her bed - I can’t stay in the dark - it all gets ‘whispery’...”
OD
c) Mother d) Grandmother
2. Who is Grannie?
a) Kezia’s grandmother b) Kezia’s friend
c) Kezia’s cook d) Kezia’s mother
OL
4. What happens when the speaker has nightmares?
HO
c) She sleeps silently in her room. d) She goes to her mother.
SC
a) She is in her room. b) She is ill.
IC
Section B – Writing (10marks)
1.
BL
You saw a minor girl working as a maid. Write a diary entry, expressing your views on child
OR
PU
Recently, a new basketball coach joined your school. Your friends asked you to describe
2. Write a short story in 100 - 150 words that begins with the following words. (5 marks)
LH
Last night was hot and humid. I slept with the windows open. Around 2:00 p.m., I heard...
Or
DE
Write a short story in 150 to 200 words, on the theme As You Sow, So Shall You Reap.
(Mandatory to attempt 2 questions from BEE HIVE and 2 questions from MOMENTS)
(2X4=8)
OD
1. Why was Evelyn “nervous yet excited” as she waited for the train?
2. What does the poet want to signify when he says ‘the road bent in the undergrowth’?
3. What does ‘melancholy darkness’ signify in the poem ‘Rain on the Roof’?
M
6. Why did the disciple disregard the guru’s advice to leave the place?
OL
1. How was the real book different from the books that Margie and Tommy used?
HO
2. Apart from the regular concerts, where else did Evelyn perform and why?
3. Why did Einstein play by himself as a child?
4. When does the child realise that he has lost his way? How have his anxiety and insecurity
SC
been described?
5. How did Toto behave with his companions at the servant’s quarters?
IC
6. Who had gone to the king with a complaint? Explain the irony.
C3 Answer ANY ONE of the following questions in 100 to 120 words. (5 marks)
BL
Describe Kezia’s father as she saw him. Why do you think Kezia stammered in her
father’s presence?
PU
OR
What were some of Einstein’s scientific achievements?How can we say he was a man
above his achievements.
I
LH
C4 Answer ANY ONE of the following questions in 100 to 120 words. (5 marks)
Why does the lost child lose interest in the things that he had wanted earlier?
OR
DE
OL
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
HO
Pages : 9
General Instructions :
1. This question paper contains two parts : A and B.
SC
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.
Part-A :
1. It consists of two sections : I and II.
IC
2. Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section Il has 4 questions, of 4 marks each, on case study. Each case study has 5 case-
BL
based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-parts.
Part-B :
PU
1. It consists of three sections III, IV and V.
2. In section III, Question Nos. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer Type questions of 2 marks
each.
I
3. In section IV, Question Nos. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type questions of 3 marks each.
LH
4. In section V, Question Nos. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 1
question of 5 marks.
DE
PART - A
Section-I
N
3
Q.1 Simplest rationalising factor of 40 is –
a) 3
25 b) 3
5 c) 40 d) 5
OD
OR
6
is equal to –
M
12 3
1 2
a) b) c) 2 3 d) 6 3
3 3
OL
OR
If P(–2,2), Q(3,–5), R(2,–2), S(–3,–4) and T(–6, –3) are plotted on the graph paper, then
the point (s) in the fourth quadrant are –
HO
a) P and R b) Only T c) Q and R d) P and T
Q.3 The value of x in the given figure is –
SC
D
25°
x
IC
55°
40°
A B C
a) 65°
1
b) 95° c) BL 80° d) 120°
OR
LH
3 2
Degree of polynomial (x –2) (x +1) is –
a) 0 b) any natural number
c) 1 d) Not defined
Q.5 Which of the following is not a criterion for congruence of triangles?
DE
p
Q.7 Express 0.123 in the form , where p and q are integers and q = 0.
q
x 2x
OD
2 3 27
Q.8 Evaluate for x :
3 2 8
Q.9 A point P is on the positive direction of x-axis and 4 units from the origin. State its abscissa
M
B A
57°
OL
E
22° 145° F
35°
HO
C D
OR
In the given figure, BA || QP and BC || QR. Show that ABC PQR.
SC
IC
BL
PU
Q.14 PQR is an isosceles triangle in which PQ = PR. QX and RY are its two medians. Show that
QX = RY.
DE
th
2
Q.15 In ABC, AB AC, A 5x 20 and B ofA. Find x.
5
OR
N
B
OD
138° 116°
M
A C
Q.16 Find the area of a triangle, two sides of which are 9 cm and 12 cm and the perimeter is 36 cm.
OL
Q.17 Case study based 1
While performing an experiment, two mirrors were placed parallel to each other. A ray
strikes first mirror and reflected back by the second mirror as shown in the figure.
HO
P B Q
SC
D Y
X C
M A N
IC
1) If BAY 40 then the measure of ABX is –
a) 40 b) 50 c) 30 d) 60
2) If CAN 50 find the measure of BAM –
a) 40 b) 50 c)
BL
30 d) 60
PU
3) Which set of lines are parallel?
a) BA, CA, b) BX, AY
c) PQ, MN d) All of these
I
LH
c) square d) parallelogram
ER
that area. He gave a triangular portion of dimensions 8m, 8m and 13m to his elder son and
a triangular portion of dimensions 16m, 63m and 65m to his younger son. Based on the
above information answer the following:
M
OL
a) 504m2 b) 405m2 c) 510m2 d) 110m2
4) If two of the sides alloted to elder son were 16m and 20m. What could be the range of third side?
a) between 16 and 20 b) between 4 and 36
HO
c) between 16 and 36 d) can be any value
5. If both the sons were alloted equal area in the form of a triangle, then the s will be –
SC
a) congruent b) similar
c) non congruent d) none of these
IC
A figure is formed by plotting S(3, 0), T(0, 4), A(–3, 0), R(0, –4). Read the graph carefully
and answer the following questions:
BL
I PU
LH
DE
N
OL
a research, mostly accidents were occured due to
HO
traffic rules, Modern Delhi Public School initiates a step in
SC
board, indicating “SCHOOL AHEAD” on an equilateral
IC
1) If the perimeter of triangle is 180 cm, then find the side of the triangle –
a) 40 cm b) 60 cm c) 59 cm d) 70 cm
a) 70 cm b) 80 cm c)
BL
90 cm d) 180 cm
PU
3) If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle, then which of the following is correct –
a) s=a+b+c b) 3s = a + 2b + c
I
c) 2s = a + b + c d) 4s = 2a +2b + c
LH
1 2 3 2 3 2
a) a b) a c) a d) none of these
2 2 4
N
Part - B
ER
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.
Section-III
OD
OR
M
Q.22 Find some ordered pairs (x,y) such that 3x + 4y = 6 and plot them. How many such
A
D
65°
OL
E G 35°
H F
HO
B C
1 2 1 2 1 1
Q.24 Factorise : x y 1 xy y x
16 4 4 2
SC
OR
IC
2 1 1
Factarise : x x
6 6
BL
Q.25 In ABC , AD is a median and BP, CQ are perpendiculars drawn from B and C respectively
on AD and AD produced. If DP = 3.5 cm, then find the measure of PQ.
PU
A
P
B D C
I
LH
Q.26 The height of an equilateral triangle is 6cm. Find the area of the triangle.
DE
Take 3 1.732
OR
If the difference between the semi-perimeter ‘s’ and the sides ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ of ABC are
N
Section IV
Q.27 If both a and b are rational numbers, find the values of a and b in
OD
3 2
a 3b
5 3 5 3
3 2 3 2
M
2 2
Q.28 If x and y , then find the value of x xy y .
3 2 3 2
OR
1 2
If x 2 3 2 3 , show that x 3 6x 6 0 .
C (a, b) are in a relation such that 3 times of abscissa is equal to 2 times of its ordinate.
Write the co-ordinate of triangle ABC . Hence also write the co-ordinates of image of
OL
ABC . With respect to x-axis.
Q.30 Internal angle bisectors of of base angles of a ABC meet at point O, then prove that
HO
1
BOC A .
2
OR
SC
If two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, then prove that the quadrilateral formed
IC
1 3 1
2
Q.31 If x
x2
7, find the value of x x3 .
BL
Q.32 In the given figure, AB || CD || EF and GH || KL. Find reflex HKL .
PU
L
I
A K B
LH
C 25° D
DE
60° H
E F
G
N
ER
Q.33 The perimeter of a triangle is 50 cm, one side of a triangle is 4 cm longer than the smaller
OD
side and the third side is 6 cm less than twice the smaller side. find the area of triangle.
Section V
M
a b c 3x . (2)
OL
ii) Represent 3.4 on the number line. (3)
P
Q.36 i) In the given figure, PQRS is T
HO
a quadrilateral and T and U are points
Q S
respectively on PS and RS, such that PQ
SC
= RQ, PQT RQU and U
IC
ii) In the given figure, RT = TS, 1 22 and 4 23. Prove that RBT SAT . (2.5)
A
BL
B
1 4
PU
2 3
R S
I
OR
LH
ABC and DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC and vertices A and
D are on the same side of BC. If AD is extended to intersect BC and P, show that
DE
i) ABD ACD
N
OL
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
Pages : 9
HO
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
SC
(i) The question paper comprises four sections A, B, C and D. There are 36 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section —A : Question no. 1 to 20 - All questions and parts thereof are one mark each.
IC
These questions contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), Very Short Answer Type
Questions and Assertion - Reason type questions. Answers to these should be given in
one word or one sentence. BL
(iii) Section — B : Question no. 21 to 26 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
PU
each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
(iv) Section — C : Question no. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks
I
(v) Section — D : Question no. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks
each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vi) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
DE
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
N
SECTION-A
ER
OL
7. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five minutes.
What was the distance of the spaceship from the ground station? The signal travels at the
speed of light, that is, 3×108ms–1.
HO
8. Which of the following is true for displacement –
a) It cannot be zero.
SC
b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object.
OR
When will you say a body is in –
IC
a) uniform acceleration
b) non-uniform acceleration
9 BL
A body starting from rest accelerated by an applied force F acting on it. If the mass of the
object is ‘m’, find the expression of the total displacement covered by the body in ‘n’ seconds.
PU
Given the mass of the body as ‘m’.
OR
I
Plot a v-t graph for an object falling freely and bounce is back.
LH
OR
Which process in meristematic tissue convert it to permanent tissue?
12. Which type of conducting tissue conducts water and minerals vertically?
N
OR
ER
The following question consists of two statements – Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Answer
the following questions selecting the appropriate options given below.
M
OL
Reason: The genetic material of viruses is not a true nucleus but nucleoid.
16. Assertion: Parenchyma is a simple permanent tissue.
Reason: Parenchyma is the most primitive and abundant tissue of plants.
HO
Q. No 17-20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four
subparts in these questions.
SC
17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17(i) to 17(v) on the basis of
your understanding of the following paragraph and related studied concepts.3
Cell is the structural and functional unit of all living organisms. Cells fall into one of two
IC
broad categories – prokaryotic and eukaryotic based on the level of structural complexity.
A prokaryotic cell is a simple, single-celled (unicellular) organism that lacks a nucleus, or
BL
any other membrane bound organelle. A eukaryotic cell is a cell that has a membrane bound
nucleus and other membrane bound compartments or sacs, called organelles, which have
PU
specialized functions.
i) Which of the following is an example of prokaryotic cell?
I
a) Euglena b) Amoeba
LH
c) Salmonella d) Chlamydomonas
ii) In which of the following cells mitochondria would be found?
DE
a) Bacteria b) Yeast
ER
c) Virus d) Algae
iv) Cell wall is found in-
a) plant cell b) fungi.
OD
OL
c) ribosomes and cell membrane
d) nucleoid and nucleus.
18) Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v).
HO
Roshan was asked by his teacher to determine the
boiling point of a liquid. He set up the apparatus as
SC
shown in the figure. He recorded the boiling point
of the liquid as 140°C and reported the reading to
his teacher. The teacher asked him to repeat the
IC
experiment after dipping the bulb of the thermometer
in the liquid and also placing the beaker on a tripod
BL
stand covered with a wire gauze. After reading this
narration, answer the following questions:
PU
i) Was the reading taken by the roshan correct?
ii) What was the necessity of wire gauze?
I
iv) What will roshan observe if teacher adds some amount of salt into the water and then
asks him to boil?
DE
in uniform linear motion, i.e., not accelerating or rotating. The First Law states, "A body
ER
at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion unless it is acted
upon by an external force." This simply means that things cannot start, stop or change
direction all by themselves. It requires some force acting on them from the outside to cause
OD
such a change. While this concept seems simple and obvious to us today, in Newton's time
it was truly revolutionary. There are many excellent examples of Newton's first law involving
M
aerodynamics. The motion of an airplane when the pilot changes the throttle setting of the
engine is described by the first law. The motion of a ball falling down through the atmosphere,
or a model rocket being launched up into the atmosphere are both examples of Newton's
first law. The motion of a kite when the wind changes can also be described by the first law.
OL
ii) The inertia of a moving object depends on
a) mass of the object, b) momentum of the object
c) speed of the object d) shape of the object
HO
iii) When a balloon held between the hands is pressed, its shape changes. This happens
because,
SC
a) balanced forces act on the balloon
b) unbalanced forces act on the balloon
c) frictional force acts on the balloon
IC
d) gravitational force acts on the balloon
iv) Read the statements given below.
BL
Statement 1 : Newton's first law is the real law of motion.
Statement 2 : Newton's first law states that force is directly proportional to rate of change
PU
of momemtum.
Which of the following is correct?
I
a) 1 only b) 2 only
LH
20. Read the following and answer any four questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v).
ER
Automobiles are fitted with a device that shows the distance travelled. Such a device is
known as an odometer. A car is driven from Bhubaneshwar to New Delhi. The difference
between the final reading and the initial reading of the odometer is 1850 km.
OD
OL
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
(iv) Which of the following represents the uniform motion ?
HO
a) If equal displacement is covered in equal time interval
b) If equal distance is covered in equal interval of time in the same direction
SC
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
(v) If the distance covered by two objects are equal then choose the correct statement given
IC
below :
a) The displacement of both the objects will be equal
b)
c)
BL
The displacement of both the objects will be unequal
The displacement of both the objects may be equal
PU
d) Data sufficient
SECTION-B
21. Why is endocytosis found in animal cell only?
I
OR
LH
Why do plant cells have a large central vacuole? Give two reasons for it.
22. What is the role of epidermis in plants?
DE
(c) milk
(d) gem stone
ER
OR
State whether the given statements are true or false.
OD
(i) Although ice, water and water vapour all look different and display different physical
properties, they are chemically the same.
(ii) During dissolution of common salt, both physical and chemical changes take place.
M
(iii) Both water and cooking oil are liquid but their chemical characteristics are different.
They differ in odour and inflammability.
(iv) It is the physical property of oil that makes it different from water.
chemical change.
OL
chalk powder respectively with water. Mention one point of difference that you would
HO
25. A hockey ball of mass 200 g travelling at 10m s-1 is struck by a hockey stick so as to return
it along its original path with a velocity at 5m s-1. Calculate the change of momentum occurred
SC
in the motion of the hockey ball by the force applied by the hockey stick.
26. A train is travelling at a speed of 90km h-1. Breaks are applied so as to produce a uniform
acceleration of -0.5ms-2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.
IC
OR
A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5m s-1. If the acceleration
BL
of the stone during its motion is 10 ms-2 in the downward direction, what will be the height
attained by the stone and how much time will it take to reach there?
PU
SECTION-C
I
(i) 20mL of acetone is added into 160mL water. What will be the percentage by volume of
(ii) 12 grams of potassium sulphate dissolves in 75g of water at 60 degree celcius. What will
(iii) 20mL of acetone is added into water to make total volume of 250mL. What will be the
ER
28. What do you understand by the term ‘evaporation’? Explain how it is a surface phenomenon
OD
27. How is the tissue system in plants different from that of the animals?
OR
OL
28. Draw the diagram of nucleus. Label any three parts in it.
29. Where are proteins synthesised in a cell? Which part of the cell modifies and dispatches
HO
proteins according to cellular requirement? Name two chemical substances in a cell which
SC
33. A bullet travelling at 360 m/s; strikes a block of soft wood. The mass of the bullet is 2.0g.
IC
a) Find the average force exerted by the wood.
SECTION-D BL
PU
34. (i) Differentiate between
a) force is applied and then removed on the plunger of the syringe containing air.
DE
c) a mixture of sodium chloride and ammonium chloride are heated simultaneously in a china
dish.
N
OR
ER
35. a) Give the chemical composition and functions of plasma membrane. (2)
b) How would a cell behave when placed in hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic
solutions? (3)
OL
36. A body of mass 2kg is at rest. A force of 5 N acts on it at t=0. The force acts for 4s and then
stops.
HO
a) What is the acceleration produced by the force on the body?
SC
c) Draw the V- t graph for the period t=0 to t=6s.
IC
OR
A 8000kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000kg, along a horizontal track. If the
BL
engine exerts a force of 40000N and the track offers a friction force of 5000N, then calculate:
PU
a) the net accelerating force;
OL
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
Pages : 8
HO
General Instructions:
i) The question paper comprises of four Sections - A, B, C and D. There are 35 questions in
the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
SC
ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 20 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 1 mark
each.
iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 28 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks
IC
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
iv) Section C – Question no. 29 to 34 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks
v) BL
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
Section D – Question no. 35 is Map Based, carrying 6 marks with two parts, 35 (a) from
History (2 marks) and 35 (b) from Geography (4 marks).
PU
vi) Answers should be brief and to the point - also the above word limit be adhered to as far as
possible.
vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
I
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
LH
SECTION – A
1. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below:
DE
N
ER
OD
M
Which revolution resulted from the division of society shown in this diagram?
a) Puritan (1642) b) French (1789)
c) Mexican (1910) d) Russian (1917)
Greater Faridabad (Haryana) Contact # 0129-2229277/377, 9971794077, 9871120377 (29)
Sample Paper IX (Pre-Mid Term Examination) Modern Delhi Public School
2. Correct the statement and rewrite
France was demilitarized after signing Peace Treaty of Versailles after First World War.
OR
OL
British Military Tribunal was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at the end of
World War-II.
3. Match the items of Column A with those of Column B.
HO
Column A Column B
A) Meghalaya i. Dispur
B) Manipur ii. Shillong
SC
C) Assam iii. Agartala
D) Tripura iv. Imphal
IC
a) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
OR
Adolf Hitler was born in1889 at ................................. .
a) Russia b) Turkey
c) Germany d) Austria
OL
c) Punjab d) Arunachal Pradesh
7. Choose the incorrect option with reference to the seven largest countries in the world.
a) Canada has the second largest area in the world
HO
b) China is smaller than USA
c) Brazil is the fifth largest country in the world
d) India is bigger than Australia in area
SC
8. He overthrew a democratically elected government and declared himself the ‘Chief
Executive’ of the country. Later he changed his designation to President in 2002. Which
President of Pakistan was this?
IC
a) General Pervez Musharraf b) Muhammad Zia-ul-Haq
9.
c) Farooq Leghari
What is the Chinese Parliament called?
d)
BLMuhammad Mian Soomro
2000.
LH
OR
What is the most common form of democracy in modern world?
DE
12. Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?
a) Primary sector b) Tertiary sector
c) Secondary sector d) Private sector
OD
13. Here two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R).
Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
M
OL
explanation of Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
HO
14. Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
15. Minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is –
a) 180 b) 290 c) 300 d) 120
SC
16. ‘The workforce population includes people from 16 years to 60 years.’ State true or false.
17. A farmer who works on a piece of 1 hectare of land is treated as:
a) Medium farmer b) small farmer
IC
c) large farmer d) none of the above
18. Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:
a)
b)
Increase in life expectancy
Increase in GNP
BL
PU
c) Good health conditions in a country
d) Increase in number of colleges in a country
19. State which of these activities is an economic activities:
I
d) lack of income
Section B
OD
21. Describe the promises made by Hitler to win the elections in Germany in 1932.
OR
Explain the consequences of French Revolution of 1789 in France.
M
Source A
The Jacobin government in France was based on extreme measures. The period from
OL
1793-1794 is referred to as the reign of terror. Robespierre followed a policy of severe
HO
Source B
All those he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic-nobles and clergy, members of other
SC
political parties, even members of his own party who did not agree with his methods-were
arrested, imprisoned and guillotined. This led to chaos and resentment among the people.
IC
Source C
The Jacobin government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices.
BL
Meat and bread were rationed. Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities
and sell it at prices fixed by the government. This led to a feeling of resentment against the
PU
Jacobins. Peasants began opposing them. Robespierre’s government ordered shut down
of churches and converting church buildings into barrack or offices. Thus the clergy turned
I
against the Jacobin regime and hastened its fall. Robespierre pursued his policies so
LH
relentlessly that even his supporters turned against him. They began to demand moderation
and a middle path. Finally, he was convicted by a court in July 1794, arrested and guillotined.
DE
a) The period from 1793 to 1794 b) The period from 1789 to 1794
N
c) The period from 1789 to 1799 d) The period from 1793 to 1795
ER
a) A device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded
OD
d) An electric chair
M
23.3 Which group of people did not join the Jacobin club?
a) Artisans b) Shopkeepers
OL
25. What are the drawbacks of a democracy?
26 Why has India not experienced a famine as severe as that of China in 1958-61?
HO
28. What problems were faced by the farmers in the village Palampur?
OR
SC
Highlight the role of education in economic growth of a nation.
Section C
IC
29 Elaborate the role of philosophers to inspire the French people before the beginning of
French Revolution in 1789. Mention the books written and new ideas explained by them in
these books. BL
30. Read the following extract and answer the following questions:
PU
India is a vast country. Lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere the main land extends
between latitudes 8*4’N and 37*6’N and longitudes 68*7É and 97*25É. The Tropic of Cancer
I
(23*30’N) divides the country into almost two equal parts. To the southeast and southwest
LH
of the mainland, lies the Andaman and Nicobar islands and Lakshadweep islands in Bay of
30.2 Which tropic divides the India into almost two equal parts? Mention degree too.
N
31. Describe any three divisions of the Himalayas that have been demarcated by the rivers
ER
32. What does ‘one person, one vote, one value’ mean? Name the countries who deny the
OD
33. Pakistan under General Pervez Musharraf is not called a democracy. Why? Give any five
M
OR
Unemployment
In India, we have unemployment in rural and urban areas, though the nature of unemployment
OL
differs in rural and urban areas. In rural areas, unemployment is seasonal and disguised
HO
is a serious social and economic issue that results in a tremendous impact on everything
SC
a) Define disguised unemployment.
IC
c) Suggest any two measures how this problem of unemployment can be solved.
Section D
35. (A)
BL
Two places A and B are marked on the given political outline map of France. Identify
these places with the help of the following information and write their correct names
PU
on the lines marked near them
places with the help of the following information and write the answer in the answer
sheet.
OL
A) A Himalayan River B) A Mountain Peak
HO
SC
IC
BL
I PU
LH
DE
N
ER
OD
M
OL
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
Pages : 5
HO
General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains two parts A and B. Each part is compulsory.
2. Part A carries 20 marks while part B carries 30 marks.
SC
3. Part-A consists very short answer and case based Multiple Choice Questions and
Part-B is a Descriptive Paper.
IC
4. Both Part A and Part B have choices.
Part – A:
1.
2.
It consists two sections- I and II.
BL
Section I has 13 questions of very short answer type. An examinee is to attempt
PU
any 10 out of 13 questions each carrying 1 mark.
3. Section II has two case studies. Each case study has 7 case-based sub-parts. An
examinee is to attempt any 5 out of 7 sub-parts and each part carries 1 mark.
I
Part – B:
LH
1. Question No. 16 to 20 are short answer Type (SA-I) questions of 2 mark each.
2. Question No 21 to 25 are Short Answer Type (SA-II) questions of 3 marks each.
DE
PART A – SECTION I
ER
This section consists of 13 questions of very short answer type. Question no. 4 to
8 are of ‘fill in the blank’ type. Fill the blank with the most appropriate answer. Attempt
any 10 questions from question no 1 to 13.
OD
7. MS Word appends …………. extension name to the files created using it. (1)
8. ‘Info’ option in the backstage view accessed through ‘File’ tab displays ……………. such
OL
as size, pages, words, author etc. for the active document. (1)
HO
10. What is the keyboard shortcut to center align the selected text? (1)
SC
12. Define the term microprocessor. (1)
13. Which feature of table helps to create table heading in MS Word? (1)
Section-II
IC
Both the Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 5 questions
Formatting text in Microsoft Word refers to controlling how text appears in your document.
PU
This includes the size, color, font of the text and much more. It also covers text alignment,
spacing, and letter case. Microsoft Word styles make it easy to change and apply styles
I
throughout a document. The formatting may apply to character, paragraph, page and section.
LH
It not only enhances the appearance but also makes text more meaningful and enables us
to highlight important text. The formatting features can be creatively applied to our documents.
DE
(ii) Left, right , center and justify are options for paragraph ……………… . (1)
a) spacing b) indentation
OD
a) page b) paragraph
OL
c) either (a) or (b) d) none of these
(vi) Formatting applied to text can be removed using ……………………………. . (1)
a) Delete key b) Backspace key
HO
c) Clear format option d) Remove format option
(vii) Artistic borders can be applied to …………………. in a Word document. (1)
SC
a) selected text b) paragraph
c) page d) all of these
15. Random Access Memory
IC
Random Access Memory or RAM is the main memory. It is the place where the operating
system, application programs and the data, in current use, are kept so that they can be
BL
accessed by the CPU. RAM is a read/write memory which stores data until the computer
system is on. All the data and instructions will be erased from RAM as soon as the power
PU
of a computer system is turned off. That is why, it is also known as volatile memory as it
is dependent on power and cannot hold data when the power is turned off. RAM can be
I
OL
Part –B
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone.
16. Explain the four basic functions of computer. (2)
HO
17. With reference to the figure given below, answer the following questions. (2)
SC
IC
BL
I PU
LH
20. Name the four pasting options for the text selected for cut/copy operations. (2)
OR
ER
22. What is a list? Explain different types of lists that can be created in MS Word. (3)
23. Define the following terms. (3)
(i) Footnote (ii) Comment (iii) Shapes
24. Explain the three ways to insert table in a document. (3)
OL
26. Observe the following and answer the questions thereafter.
HO
SC
IC
i)
ii)
BL
Which formatting features have been applied in figure (i)?
How do you interpret th text ‘DRAFT’ in figure (ii)?
(2)
(1)
I PU
LH
DE
N
iii) Using which image formatting/editing features can you tranform figure (iii) Into figure(iv)?
(2)
ER
OR
Answer the following questions.
OD
OL
le; % 3 ?kaVs vf/kdre vad% 80
i`"B % 4
HO
funsZ’ k%
1- bl iz’u i= ds pkj [kaM gSa & d ¼10 vad½] [k ¼16 vad½] x ¼28 vad½ vkSj
?k ¼26 vad½A
SC
2- pkjksa [kaMksa ds iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsuk vfuok;Z gSA
3- ;FkklaHko izR;sd [kaM ds mÙkj Øe’k% nhft,A
IC
[kaM ^d* & v/;;u ¼10 vad½
iz- 1 BL
fuEufyf[kr vifBr xn~;ka’k dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr iz’uksa ds mRrj fyf[k,&
ekuo thou dh uhjlrk dks R;ksgkj vkuan vkSj mYykl ls Hkj nsrs gSaA R;ksgkjksa ds vHkko esa
PU
ekuo e'khuh&ekuo cu dj jg tkrkA R;ksgkjksa ds n~okjk ge viuh lkaL—frd fojklr vkSj
lkekftd ewY;ksa ls ifjfpr gksrs gSa ijarq ifjorZu iz—fr dk 'kk'or fu;e gSA cnyrs le; vkSj
ns'kdky dh rkRdkfyd ifjfLFkfr;ksa ds izHkkoLo:i bu R;ksgkjksa ,oa ioksZa ds Lo:i] ekU;rkvksa
I
vkSj muds eukus ds rkSj&rjhdksa esa i;kZIr cnyko vk x;k gSA igys yksx bUgsa ,drk] ijLij
LH
lkSgknZ] izse] HkkbZpkjk vkSj ln~Hkkouk ds izsjd :i esa ekurs Fks] ijarq vc dqN yksx bl volj
ij viuk oSeuL; fudkyrs gSa vkSj budks lkaiznkf;d :i ns cSBrs gSaA jk[kh ds ifo= ,oa ea=
DE
ls vfHkflafpr /kkxksa dh txg ckt+k: jkf[k;k¡ fcdus yxh gSaA fnyksa ds eSy feVkus] g"kksZYykl
QSykus okys R;ksgkj nhikoyh ds nhiksa dh txg fctyh dh cfRr;k¡ vkSj iznw"k.k QSykrs iVk[kksa
us ys yh gSA yksx bl jkr tqvk [ksyuk ugha Hkwyrs gSaA jaxksa dk R;ksgkj gksyh vc dhpM+]
N
dkfy[k vkSj xans isaV rd lhfer gks x;k gS] ftlls eu esa xk¡B vkSj iM+ tkrh gSA euq"; dks
ER
bu R;ksgkjksa dks fo—r gksus ls cpkuk pkfg,] ftlls bu R;ksgkjksa esa fufgr lans'k ,oa
dY;k.kdkjh mn~ns'; cuk jgs rFkk gekjh lkaL—frd xfjek Hkh cuh jgsA
d½ R;ksgkj uhjlrk dks fdlesa cny nsrs gSa\ R;ksgkjksa ds vHkko esa ekuo D;k cu tkrk gS\ ¼2½
OD
?k½ R;ksgkjksa dks fo—r gksus ls cpkuk D;ksa vko';d gS\ ¼2½
³½ bl xn~;ka'k ds fy, mi;qDr 'kh"kZd fyf[k,A ¼1½
p½ nhikoyh ;k gksyh dk fo—r :i dSlk gS\ ¼1½
OL
d½ ?kVk
[k½ ifMr
HO
vk½ fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa esa mfpr LFkku ij vuqukfld dk iz;ksx dhft,& ¼1½
d½ pknuh
[k½ igqpuk
SC
iz- 4 fuEufyf[kr ds funsZ'kkuqlkj mRrj fyf[k,& ¼4½
d½ *vi* ;k *ful~* milxZ yxkdj nks 'kCn cukb,A
IC
[k½ *rk* ;k *Ro* izR;; ls nks 'kCn cukb,A
x½ *ifjdYiuk* esa ls milxZ ,oa ewy 'kCn dks vyx dhft,A
iz- 5
BL
?k½ *cpiu* esa ls ewy 'kCn ,oa izR;; vyx dhft,A
v½ fuEufyf[kr JqfrlefHkUukFkZd 'kCnksa ds vFkZ fyf[k,& ¼6½
PU
d½ dVd & daVd
[k½ b= & brj
vk½ fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa ds nks&nks i;kZ;okph 'kCn fyf[k,&
I
d½ dks;y
LH
[k½ panzek
b½ fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa ds foykse 'kCn fyf[k,&
DE
d½ ?k`.kk
[k½ ljy
iz- 6 funsZ'kkuqlkj okD; ifjorZu dhft,& ¼2½
N
iz- 7 fuEufyf[kr iz’ uksa ds mRrj 25&30 'kCnksa es Li’kZ ds xn~; [kaM ds vk/kkj ij
fyf[k,&
M
OL
lans'k fn;k x;k gS\
iz- 9 fuEufyf[kr iz’ uksa ds mRrj 25&30 'kCnksa es Li’kZ ds in~; [kaM ds vk/kkj ij
fyf[k,&
HO
d½ bZ'oj dk uke ysdj dkSu&dkSu rj x, gSa\ *jSnkl ds in* ds vk/kkj ij fyf[k,A ¼2½
[k½ jSnkl us vius izHkq dks fdu&fdu ukeksa ls iqdkjk gS\ ¼2½
SC
x½ Hkxoku jke dks fp=dwV D;ksa tkuk iM+k\ ¼2½
iz-10 jghe ds nksgksa dh Hkk"kkxr fo'ks"krk,¡ fyf[k,A ¼5½
vFkok
IC
jSnkl us vius vkSj vius izHkq dh rqyuk dkSu&dkSu ls mnkgj.k nsdj dh gS\
iz-11 fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa ls fdUgha nks ds mRrj lap;u ds vk/kkj ij 45&50 'kCnksa esa
fyf[k,& BL ¼3×2=6½
d½ egknsoh oekZ us fxYyw dh thou&j{kk fdl izdkj dh\
PU
[k½ ys[kd xgjs dq,¡ esa D;ksa vkSj fdl izdkj mrjk\
x½ fxYyw us viuk fiz; vkgkj Hkh D;ksa ugha [kk;k\ bl ckr ls mlds pfj= dh dkSu&lh fo'ks"krk
izdV gksrh gS\
I
LH
le; dk egRo
ER
dkj.k
lek/kku
M
OL
dk;Zjr gSaA mudh ljkguk djrs gq, i= fyf[k,A
iz-14 is;ty ladV ,oa mlds lap; fo"k; ij 15&20 'kCnksa esa ukjk fyf[k,A ¼5½
vFkok
HO
gsyesV iguuk vko';d fo"k; ij 15&20 'kCnksa esa ukjk fyf[k,A
iz-15 tUefnu ij vius fe= dks 'kqHkdkeuk nsus ds fy, 40&50 'kCnksa esa lans'k fyf[k,A¼5½
SC
vFkok
;w-ih-,l-lh- dh ijh{kk esa igys gh iz;kl esa izFke LFkku izkIr djus ij cM+s HkkbZ ds
uke c/kkbZ lans'k dks 40&50 'kCnksa esa fyf[k,A
IC
iz-16 oksV ek¡xus vk, usrk vkSj xk¡o ds ;qodksa ds e/; gq, laokn dks 70&80 'kCnksa esa
fyf[k,A ¼5½
vFkok BL
cnyh f'k{kk uhfr ls izlUu nks vfHkHkkodksa ds e/; gq, laokn dks 70&80 'kCnksa esa
PU
fyf[k,A
I
LH
DE
N
ER
OD
M
OL
fu/kkZfjr le; % gksjk=;e~ iw.kkZad % 80
i`"B % 8
HO
funsZ’ kk%
1- iz’ui=s Hkkx};a Lr%A
^v*& Hkkx% ¼cgqfodYikRedk% iz’ uk%½ 40 v³~dk%
SC
vuqiz;qDr & O;kdj.ke~ 25 v³~dk%
ifBrkocks/kue~ 15 v³~dk%
IC
^vk*& Hkkx% ¼o.kZukRedk% iz’ uk%½ 40 v³~dk%
vifBr & vocks/kue~ 10 v³~dk%
jpukRed & dk;Ze~ BL 15 v³~dk%
ifBr & vocks/kue~ 15 v³~dk%
PU
2- losZ iz’uk% vfuok;Z%A
3- iz’ula[;k iz’ui=kuqlkje~ vo’;eso ys[kuh;kA
I
OL
d½ firq% [k½ firk x½ firje~
iv½ -------------------------------- i=kf.k irfUrA
d½ o`{ke~ [k½ o`{kkr~ x½ o`{ks
HO
iz- 3 iznÙkfodYisH;% mfpra /kkrq:ia fpRok fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;rA ¼1×4=4½
i½ vga iqLrda --------------------------------A
SC
d½ iBfl [k½ iBr% x½ iBkfe
ii½ v= vusds Nk=k% --------------------------------A
d½ Lr% [k½ vfLe x½ lfUr
IC
iii½ Roa ekrqyL; x`ga xRok --------------------------------A
d½ vØhM~r [k½ vØhMrke~ x½ vØhM%
iv½ l% u`i% --------------------------------A BL
d½ Hkfo";fr [k½ Hkfo";lh x½ Hkfo";fUr
PU
iz- 4 miinfoHkDR;uqlkja fodYisH;% mfpra ina fpRok fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;r& ¼1×4=4½
i½ -------------------------------- ifjr% jktiFka orZrsA
d½ fo|ky;s [k½ fo|ky;e~ x½ fo|ky;L;
I
LH
OL
ii½ m|kus -------------------------------- ¼35½ iq"ikf.k lfUrA
d½ iapf=a’kr~ [k½ ia==ha’kr x½ iappRokf’kar
HO
iii½ ee d{kk;ke~ --------------------------------¼22½ Nk=k% lfUrA
d½ }kfoa’kfr% [k½ }sfoa’kfr% x½ }kpRokfja’kr~
iz- 7 js[kkafdr 'kCnkuka fodYisH;% mfpra milxZa fpuqr & ¼1×2=2½
SC
i½ ekrk v= vkxPNfrA
d½ vk [k½ vkx x½ xPN
ii½ lR;a lnk fot;rsA
IC
d½ t; [k½ fo x½ fot
ifBr&vocks/kue~ ¼15&v³~dk%½
iz- 8 BL
js[kkafdrinkfu vk/k`R; iz'ufuekZ.ka fodYisH;% fpuqr& ¼1×5=5½
i½ Roa uohuka oh.kka fuukn;A
PU
d½ dsu [k½ de~ x½ dke~
ii½ ckfydk fu/kZuekrq% nqfgrk vklhr~A
d½ ds"kq [k½ dL;k% x½ fde~
I
LH
OL
d½ o`Ùka [k½ ;Rusu x½ laj{ksr~
iii½ *l% thewrokgu% egku~ nkuohj% vklhr~*] v= dr`Zina fde~\
HO
d½ nkuohj% [k½ thewrokgu% x½ egku~
iv½ *thoua Hkaxqja loZe~* v= fo'ks";ina fde~\
d½ thoua [k½ loZe~ x½ Hkaxqje~
SC
v½ *gLrfufeZrkfu eksndkfu* vu;ks in;ks% fo'ks"k.kina fde~\
d½ ine~ [k½ gLrfufeZrkfu x½ eksndkfu
IC
vi½ *fofp=% dkd%* v= fo'ks"k.kina fde~\
d½ v= [k½ fofp=% x½ dkd%
BL
vk&Hkkx% ¼o.kZukRedk%&iz’uk%½ 40 v³~dk%
vifBr&vocks/kue~ ¼10 v³~dk%½
PU
iz-11 v/kksfyf[kra vuqPNsna ifBRok iznÙk iz’ukuke~ mÙkjkf.k laLÑrs fy[krA
,dfLeu~ xzkes ,d% O;k/k% olfr LeA rL; uke HkSjo% vklhr~A l% thfodkFkZe~ Ik’kwu~ gRok uxjs
I
foØh.kkfr LeA ,dnk l% vk[ksVk; ¼f’kdkjk;½ oue~ vxPNr~A r= rsu ,d% e`x% n`"V%A l% ra
LH
e`xe~ vekj;r~ ra p uhRok x`ga izfr vpyr~A ekxsZ l% ,da flage~ vi’;r~A ra flaga n`"V~ok l%
vfpUr;r~&;fn ,"k% flag% vfi izkIr% Hkosr~ rfgZ vga vfr/kua izkIR;kfeA rL; eufl yksHk%
DE
vkxPNr~A ija ;kor~ l% flagL; lehia vxPNr~] flag% vfi O;k/ke~ vØkE;r~A l% O;k/k% e`R;qa
vizkIR;r~A
I½ ,dinsu mÙkjr& ¼1×2=2½
N
i½ ^rL; uke HkSjo% vklhr~*A vfLeu~ okD;s ^rL;* ina dLeS iz;qDre~\
ii½ ^gfj.k%* bfr inL; i;kZ;ina fde~\
iii½ ^vusd%* bfr inL; foykseina fde~\
OL
JheUr%
iz/kkukpk;Z% ¼1½ -------------------------------------
HO
dsUnzh;% ¼2½ -------------------------------------
t;iqjuxje~
SC
fo"k; % ¼3½ ------------------------------------- izkFkZuki=e~A
egksn;%]
lfou;a ¼4½ ------------------------------------ vfLr ;r~ vga Hkor% fon~;ky;s ¼5½ -------------------------------------
IC
d{kk;k% Nk=% vfLeA ee firk ,d% Jfed% ¼6½ ------------------------------------------A rL; ekfld osrua
BL
¼7½ --------------------------------------------------------------- :I;dkf.k vfLrA vLekda ifjokjL; fuokZg% vrho
¼8½ ------------------------------------- HkofrA vr% 'kqYd{kekiukFkZa ;kpsA
PU
¼9½ -------------------------------------A
Hkonh;% ¼10½ -------------------------------------A
I
d [k x
LH
iz-13 fp=a n`"V~ok iznÙkinkuka lgk;r;k laL—rs iap okD;kfu fy[kr& ¼5½
N
ER
OD
M
eat w" kk lw;Z%] dU;k] fp=s] es?kk%] tye~] pVdk%] x`ge~] o`{k%] lqUnje~
OL
izÑrs] 'kksHkko/kZdk%] i;kZoj.kL;] j{kdk%] ;PNfUr] izk.kok;qe~] vkS"k/ke~]
Ekatw" kk
dk"Be~] Qykfu] iq"ikf.k] lgk;dk%] Nk;ke~] fogxkuke~] vkJ;LFkye~
HO
iz-14 laLÑrHkk"kk;ke~ vuqokne~ dq#rA ¼1×5=5½
i½ eSa fnYyh uxj tkrk gw¡A
ii½ ge lc lw;Z dks iz.kke djrs gSaA
SC
iii½ laL—r fiz; Hkk"kk gSA
iv½ ge nksuksa ?kj tk,¡xsA
IC
v½ jke us Qy [kk;kA
ifBr&vocks/kue~ ¼15&v³~dk%½
BL
iz-15 v/kksfyf[kra x|ka’ ka ifBRok iznÙkiz’ukuke~ mÙkjkf.k laLÑrs fy[krA
bR;qDRok dkd% d{kkH;Urjkr~ frlz% eatw"kk% fuLlk;Z rka izR;onr~& **ckfyds! ;FksPNa x`gk.k
eatw"kka ,dke~A y?kqreka eatw"kka izx`g~; ckfyd;k dfFkre~ & **b;r~ ,o enh;r.Mqykuka ewY;e~A**
PU
x`gekxR; r;k eatw"kk leqn~?kkfVrk] rL;ka egkgkZf.k ghjdkf.k foyksD; lk izgf"kZrk rn~fnuk)fudk
p latkrkA
I
OL
nsfgA
pUnu% & lk/kqA ija ewY;a rq nqX/ka foØh; ,o nkrqa 'kD;rs\
nsos'k% & {kE;rka iq=! ewY;a fouk rq ,defi ?kVa u nkL;kfeA
HO
efYydk & ¼LokHkw"k.ka nkrqfePNfr½ rkr! ;fn v/kquSo ewY;e~ vko';da rfgZ] x`gk.k
,rr~ vkHkw"k.ke~A
SC
nsos'k% & iqf=ds! ukga ikideZ djksfeA dFkefi usPNkfe Roke~ vkHkw"k.kfoghuka drqZe~A
u;rq ;FkkfHkyf"krku~ ?kVku~A nqX/ka foØh; ,o ?kVewY;e~ nnkrqA
mHkkS & /kU;ks·fl rkr~A /kU;ks·flA
IC
I½ ,dinsu mÙkjrA ¼0.5×2=1½
i) d% LokHkw"k.ka nkrqe~ bPNfr\
ii) pUnu% dfr ?kVku~ bPNfr\ BL
II ½ iw.kZokD;su mÙkjrA ¼1×2=2½
PU
i) nsos'k% efYydka fda onfr\
ii) nsos'k% ewY;a fouk rq fdefi u nkL;fr\
iz-18 eat w"kk;k% lgk;r;k fjDrLFkkukfu iwjf;Rok 'yksd kUo;a fy[krA ¼0.5×4=2½
I
LH
vFkok
ER
Hkofr rfgZ fdefi u gh;rs ijUrq ;fn vkpj.ksu ghu% Hkofr rnk rq rL; thoueso fujFkZda
¼4½ ------------------------------------] l% rq thfor% ,o e`r% bo HkofrA
eatw"kk% & Hkofr] vkpj.kL;] thous] ghu%
Greater Faridabad (Haryana) Contact # 0129-2229277/377, 9971794077, 9871120377 (52)
Sample Paper IX (Pre-Mid Term Examination) Modern Delhi Public School
OL
ii)
HO
iv) izgf"kZrk ckfydk funzkefi u ysHksA
v) enh;k ekrk fu/kZuk orZrsA
dkd% vonr~& vga rqH;a r.MqyewY;a nkL;kfeA
SC
vi)
IC
viii)
BL
I PU
LH
DE
N
ER
OD
M
OL
Time Allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
Pages : 7
HO
General Instructions:
1. This paper has two parts- Part-A: Objective paper and Part-B: Subjective paper.
2. Objective paper is divided into four sections:
SC
Section 1 : Culture and Civilisation 10 Marks
Section 2 : Expression écrite 10 Marks
Section 3 : Grammaire 15 marks
IC
Section 4 : Compréhension 5 marks
3. Subjective paper is divided into four sections:
Section 1
Section 2
:
:
Culture and Civilisation
Expression écrite
BL 10 Marks
7 Marks
PU
Section 3 : Grammaire 18 marks
Section 4 : Compréhension 5 marks
4. Read carefully the instructions given with each question.
I
OL
3. Napoléon Bonaparte est né en Corse.
4. ONU c’est l’organisation mondiale de la santé.
5. La tour Eiffel est le monument en fer.
HO
6. David Beckham joue au tennis.
7. L’entrée est un plat servi au début d’un repas.
SC
SECTION 2 (Expression écrite) (10 Marks)
Q.1 Faites des questions suivantes: (2 au choix)
A) Complétez le courriel à l’aide des mots suivants: (5 Marks)
IC
De : Avanika Anirudh : Avanikaan@a-to-z.com
Date : le 20 mars
À : Aneesh Kumar : «aneeshl@club-net.fr» BL
Sujet : l’invitation
PU
Salut Aneesh !
(1) ................................... pour ton mèl. Mes examens ont fini et nous avons les vacances
I
mère. On va (3) .......................... tous les cousins, tantes, oncles et ses amis. Nous
allons être très (4) ....................... si tu viens. Essaie de venir s’il te plaît ! J’espère qu’on
DE
peut se voir bientôt pour la fête. Embrasse Sneha (5) ................................. moi!
À bientôt!
Avanika
N
1. a) salut b) merci
ER
2. a) maintenant b) hier
3. a) demander b) inviter
4. a) malheureux b) heureux
OD
5. a) pour b) avec
B) Complétez le texte à l’aide des mots suivants: (5 Marks)
M
Lyon est une (1) ………….. ville célèbre pour l’industrie de soie et la gastronomie. C’est
l’ancienne capitale de la Gaule. Hier, nous sommes allés (2) ……………. un restaurant
et nous avons mangé de bons plats Lyonnais. Hier, j’ai (3) ……………….visité le musée et
j’ai acheté des (4) …………….. postales et des souvenirs. Ma sœur n’est pas venue au
OL
2. a dans b) dehors
3. a) beaucoup b) aussi
4. a) livres b) cartes
HO
5. a) semaine b) mois
C) Choisissez le bon ordre de ce dialogue :
SC
Ishaan: Oui, bien sûr
Yuvan : L’année dernière, je suis allé en Grèce. Cette année, je vais aller en Allemagne.
Ishaan : Quels sont tes projets de vacances ?
IC
Yuvan : L’Inde, que c’est beau ! Vas-tu visiter le Taj Mahal ?
Ishaan: Cette année, je vais en Inde chez mes grands-parents.
Yuvan : Et toi ? Où vas-tu ? BL
Ishaan : L’Allemagne, c’est un très beau pays. On doit visiter l’Allemagne.
PU
Yuvan : Tu as de la chance.
a) 8, 2, 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 7 b) 7, 2, 1, 6, 5, 4, 3, 8
I
c) 7, 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 8
LH
OL
a) ai pris b) as pris c) a pris
Q.3 Choisissez la bonne réponse : Conjugaison au futur simple (3 au choix) (3 Marks)
HO
1. Il ne _________ (vouloir) pas attendre ses amis.
a) voudra b) veut c) voudrai
2. Quand _________ (partir) – nous?
SC
a) partons b) partirons c) partirions
3. Tu _________ (être) de bon humeur.
IC
a) est b) sera c) seras
4. Nous _________ (faire) du ski.
Q.4
a) faisons b) ferons BL c)
Choisissez la bonne réponse : Les Participes passés (3 au choix)
faites
(3 Marks)
PU
1. Pouvoir
a) pu b) pouvu c) pourra
2. Devoir
I
LH
a) devu b) dû c) due
3. Mettre
DE
Paris, le 20 septembre
OL
Mes chers papa et maman,
Comment allez-vous? Ici, mes études se passent bien. Je dois passer plus de deux heures
HO
et demie chaque jour à faire mes devoirs. J’étudie sérieusement.
Depuis la semaine dernière, j’habite dans une famille française. C’est la famille de mon
SC
meilleur ami Alain. Son père est professeur de mathématiques à l’université et sa mère est
avocate. Alain a un frère aîné et une sœur cadette. Je partage la chambre d’Alain. Il a une
chambre assez grande à deux lits. Il a une chaîne stéréo et des disques anglais et français.
IC
Vous savez que j’aime la musique. Pendant la nuit, nous écoutons de la musique. Je suis content
BL
d’être avec une famille française. La mère d’Alain prépare de bon repas français. Tous
sont si gentils.
Jean
I
1. La secrétaire travaille…………………. .
LH
3. Le contraire de «première»
N
OL
1. Qu’est-ce que c’est la Manche ?
2. Qu’est-ce que c’est la Corse? Où se trouve la Corse ?
3. Nommez quatre villes françaises.
HO
4. Comment célèbre-t-on la Fête de la Musique ?
5. Qu’est-ce que le tour de France ?
SC
6. Nommez quatre pays voisins de la France.
7. Pourquoi Paris est le centre culturel, intellectuel et artistique du monde ?
SECTION 6 (Expression écrite) (7 MARKS)
IC
Q.1 Écrivez une lettre de 80 mots (1 au choix) (7 Marks)
à votre ami(e) lui décrivant comment vous avez fêté votre anniversaire.
OU BL
à votre ami(e) lui décrivant un voyage que vous ferez pendant les vacances d’été.
PU
SECTION 7 (Grammaire) (18 MARKS)
Q.1 Complétez avec les adjectifs démonstratifs (ce/cet/cette/ces): (3 au choix) (3 Marks)
I
OL
3. Il vient du Canada.
4. La fille fait du gâteau pour son frère.
Q.5 Complétez avec les prépositions de lieux (à/au/aux/en/du/de/d’/des): (3 au choix)
HO
(3 Marks)
1. Ce train vient ____________ Europe.
2. Je vais ____________ Afghanistan.
SC
3. Amsterdam se trouve ____________ Pays-Bas.
4. Vous êtes ____________Sénégal.
IC
Q.6 Changez les phrases à l’impératif: (3 au choix) (3 Marks)
1. Tu entres dans la classe.
2.
3.
Tu as du courage.
Vous vous levez vite.
BL
PU
4. Nous savons la vérité.
SECTION 8 (Compréhension) (5 MARKS)
Q.1 Lisez bien le texte et répondez aux questions : (5 au choix) (5 Marks)
I
Lundi dernier je suis allée à Paris. Mes parents ne sont pas venus avec moi car je suis
LH
partie en France avec des copains de ma classe et mon prof. Le matin nous avons visité le
musée d’Orsay. J’ai vu beaucoup de tableaux célèbres mais je n’ai pas pris de photos
DE
parce que c’est interdit ! Puis nous sommes allés à pied aux Champs-Elysées. L’après-
midi nous avons fait une promenade en bateâu-mouche. Nous sommes passés à côté de
Notre Dame,du Louvre et de la tour Eiffel mais nous n’avons pas vu l’Arc de Triomphe.
N
Nous ne sommes pas restés assez longtemps. Nous sommes repartis à 20h et j’ai dormi
dans le train car j’ai beaucoup marché! Paris c’est fatigant mais c’est bon.
ER
3. Nommez deux monuments que la narratrice ont visité à Paris avec ses amis.
4. Comment sont-ils allés aux Champs-Elysées ?
5. Pourquoi a-t-elle dormi dans le train?
M