R06 Time Value of Money 2017 Level I Notes: WWW - Ift.world
R06 Time Value of Money 2017 Level I Notes: WWW - Ift.world
R06 Time Value of Money 2017 Level I Notes: WWW - Ift.world
1. Introduction ............................................................................................................................... 3
2. Interest Rates: Interpretation ..................................................................................................... 3
3. The Future Value of a Single Cash Flow .................................................................................. 4
3.1. The Frequency of Compounding........................................................................................ 5
3.2. Continuous Compounding ................................................................................................. 7
3.3. Stated and Effective Rates.................................................................................................. 7
4. The Future Value of a Series of Cash Flows ............................................................................ 8
4.1. Equal Cash Flows – Ordinary Annuity .............................................................................. 8
4.2. Unequal Cash Flows......................................................................................................... 10
5. The Present Value of a Single Cash Flow .............................................................................. 10
5.1. Finding the Present Value of a Single Cash Flow ............................................................ 10
5.2. The Frequency of Compounding...................................................................................... 11
6. The Present Value of a Series of Cash Flows ......................................................................... 12
6.1. The Present Value of a Series of Equal Cash Flows ........................................................ 12
6.2. The Present Value of an Infinite Series of Equal Cash Flows – Perpetuity ..................... 15
6.3. Present Values Indexed at Times Other Than t = 0.......................................................... 16
6.4. The Present Value of a Series of Unequal Cash Flows .................................................... 16
7. Solving for Rates, Number of Periods, or Size of Annuity Payments .................................... 17
7.1. Solving for Interest Rates and Growth Rates ................................................................... 17
7.2. Solving for the Number of Periods .................................................................................. 18
7.3. Solving for the Size of Annuity Payments ....................................................................... 19
7.4. Review of Present and Future Value Equivalence ........................................................... 21
7.5. The Cash Flow Additivity Principle................................................................................. 21
This document should be read in conjunction with the corresponding reading in the 2017 Level I
CFA® Program curriculum. Some of the graphs, charts, tables, examples, and figures are
copyright 2016, CFA Institute. Reproduced and republished with permission from CFA Institute.
All rights reserved.
Required disclaimer: CFA Institute does not endorse, promote, or warrant the accuracy or quality
of the products or services offered by IFT. CFA Institute, CFA®, and Chartered Financial
Analyst® are trademarks owned by CFA Institute.
1. Introduction
Individuals often save money for future use or borrow money for current consumption. In order
to determine the amount needed to invest (in case of saving) or the cost of borrowing, we need to
understand the time value of money. Money has a time value, in that individuals place a higher
value on a given amount, the earlier it is received.
Let’s now look at the components that make up an interest rate from an investor’s perspective.
Interest rate = Real risk-free interest rate + Inflation premium + Default risk premium +
Liquidity premium + Maturity premium.
Real risk-free interest rate is the interest rate for a security with high liquidity and no
default risk. It assumes zero inflation.
Inflation premium reflects the expected inflation rate. Together, the real risk-free interest
rate and the inflation premium are known as the nominal risk-free interest rate.
Default risk premium compensates investors for the possibility that the borrower will fail to
make a promised payment at the pre-determined date. If there is no risk of default, as is often
the case with government bonds, the default risk premium is 0.
Liquidity premium compensates investors for the risk of loss relative to an investment’s fair
value, if the investment needs to be converted to cash quickly. For very liquid investments
the liquidity premium is 0. As investments become less liquid the liquidity premium
increases.
Maturity premium compensates investors for the increased sensitivity of the market value
of debt to a change in market interest rates as maturity is extended (holding all else equal).
Example: Bond A is a 5-year highly liquid government bond with no default risk. This bond has
an interest rate of 10%. Bond B is 5-year highly liquid corporate bond with an interest rate of
12%. What is Bond B’s default risk premium?
Solution: Both bonds have a liquidity premium of 0 because they are highly liquid. The maturity
premium for both bonds is the same because they have the same maturity (5 years). The real risk
free rate and the inflation premium is also the same for both bonds. Since Bond B is a corporate
bond with a risk of default, investors demand a higher return (12% versus 10%) for holding
Bond B. The difference in interest rates of 2% must be because of Bond B’s default risk
premium.
FVN = PV (1 + r)N
where:
FVN = future value of the investment
N = number of periods
PV = present value of the investment
r = rate of interest
Financial Calculator
You must learn how to use a financial calculator to solve problems related to the time value of
money. CFA Institute allows only two calculator models during the exam:
Texas Instruments BA II Plus (including BA II Plus Professional)
Hewlett Packard 12C (including the HP 12C Platinum, 12C Platinum 25th anniversary
edition, 12C 30th anniversary edition, and HP 12C Prestige)
Unless you are already comfortable with the HP financial calculator, we recommend using the
Texas Instruments financial calculator. Explanations and keystrokes in our notes are based on the
Texas Instruments BA II Plus calculator. Before you start using the calculator to solve problems,
we recommend you set the number of decimal places to ‘floating decimal’. This can be
accomplished through the following keystrokes:
Here is an example of how to solve a simple future value question using the calculator. You
invest $100 today at 10% compounded annually. How much will you have in 5 years?
Notice that the calculator gives a negative number for the future value. This is because we
entered a positive number for the present value or investment. Simply put, this is the money that
is put into a project. The future value represents money that is taken out of the project. Since the
money is moving in opposite directions the signs for PV and FV should be different.
Remember compounding is a term associated only with future value. Many investments pay
interest more than once a year, so interest is not calculated just at the end of a year. For example,
a bank might offer a monthly interest rate that compounds 12 times a year. Financial institutions
often quote an annual interest rate that we refer to as the stated annual interest rate or quoted
interest rate. With more than one compounding period per year, the future value formula can be
expressed as:
FVN = ( )
where
rs = the stated annual interest rate in decimal format
m = the number of compounding periods per year
N = the number of years
Worked Example
You invest 80,000 in a 3-year certificate of deposit. This CD offers a stated annual interest rate
of 10% compounded quarterly. How much will you have at the end of three years?
Solution:
You can use Equation 2. PV is 80,000. The stated annual rate is 10% or 0.10. The number of
compounding periods per year is 4. The total number of periods is 4 x 3 = 12.
( ( ))
You can also solve this problem using a financial calculator. Plug the following values:
N = 12, I/Y = 2.5, PV = 80,000, PMT = 0. Compute FV = -107,591
Interpretation of the values entered in the calculator:
N is 12 because we have 12 compounding periods: 4 periods per year x 3 years.
When N is the number of periods, I/Y has to be the interest rate per period. In this example, I/Y
= 10/4 = 2.5. When we use the time value functions of the calculator, the rate must be entered as
a percentage. So, I/Y = 2.5 and NOT 0.025.
PMT is 0 because there are no intermediate payments in this example.
Signs of PV and FV: Notice that the calculator gives a negative number for future value (FV).
When using the TVM functions on the calculator, the sign of the future value will always be the
opposite of the sign of the present value (PV). The calculator assumes that if the PV is a cash
inflow then the FV must be an outflow and vice versa.
FVN = PVerN
where r = continuously compounded rate and N = the number of years
Worked Example
An investment worth $50,000 earns interest that is compounded continuously. The stated annual
interest is 3.6%. What is the future value of the investment after 3 years?
Solution:
PV = 50000; r = 0.036; N = 3
Using equation 3,
Worked Example
Assume the stated annual interest rate is 8%; compounding is semiannual. What is the effective
annual rate?
In this case, periodic interest rate = 4%. Using Equation 4, EAR = (1.04)2 – 1 = 8.16%. This
means that for every $1 invested, we can expect to receive $1.0816 after one year if there is
semiannual compounding.
The arrows extend from the payment date till t = 5. For instance, the first $1,000 deposit made at
t = 1 will compound over four periods. We add the future values of all payments to arrive at the
future value of the annuity which is $5,525.63. The future value of an annuity can also be
computed using a formula:
On the exam, it is strongly recommended that you use the financial calculator. Given below are
the keystrokes for computing the future value of an ordinary annuity.
Hence, the future value is $5,525.63. As explained earlier the calculator shows the future value
as a negative number because the payment has been entered as a positive number.
The future value is 5000 + 4000 * 1.05 + 3000 * 1.052 + 2000 * 1.053 + 1000 * 1.054
= $17,156
( )
where N = number of periods, r = rate of interest, FV = future value of investment
Some obvious deductions on present value and future value based on the above formula:
r > 0 which implies that 1/(1 + r) < 1
Present value of a cash flow is always less than the future value
Present value decreases as discount rate or number of periods increases.
Worked Example
Liam purchases a contract from an insurance company. The contract promises to pay $600,000
after 8 years with a 5% return rate. What amount of money should Liam most likely invest
today?
Solution:
FV = 600,000; N = 8; r = 5%
You can solve the same using a calculator by entering the following values:
N = 8, I = 5, PMT = 0, FV = $600,000. Compute PV = - 406,104.
( )
where
m = number of compounding periods per year
rs = quoted annual interest rate or discount rate
N = number of years
When using the calculator, we set N as the number of periods. The interest rate should be set as
the per-period rate. For example, if you will receive $100 after one year and the stated annual
rate is 12%, compounded monthly, and then input the following values:
N = 12, I = 1, PMT = 0, FV = 100. Compute PV = -88.74
The first method is illustrated in the figure below for a $1,000 five year ordinary annuity with a
discount rate of 5%. Summing the present value of each individual payment will give you
$4,329.48.
The second method calculates the present value using the formula below:
(( )
( ) )
where
A = annuity amount
r = interest rate per period corresponding to the frequency of annuity payments
N = number of annuity payments.
Worked Example
Quentin buys a financial asset. In accordance to the terms, the asset pays $5000 at the end of
each year for the next 7 years. Assume a required rate of return of 6.4%. What is the payment for
this asset today?
Solution:
( )
A = 5000; r = 6.4%; N = 7. Using Equation 8: ( ( ) )
The third method is to use the time value of money functions on the financial calculator. We
strongly recommend this method because it is fast and does not require you to memorize the
annuity formula.
Keystrokes Explanation Display
[2nd] [QUIT] Return to standard calc mode 0
[2nd] [CLR TVM] Clears TVM Worksheet 0
At times you might be asked to find the present value at t = 0, of an annuity which starts in the
future. Consider a $1,000, 5-year annuity where the first payment is received three years from
today. The discount rate is 5%. To solve this problem first compute the present value of the
annuity at t = 2, and then discount to t = 0. The present value of the five year annuity at t = 2 is
4,329. Note that this value was calculated earlier as the present value at t = 0 for an annuity
where the first cash flow is at t = 1. In this example, the first cash flow is at t = 3 so the present
value is at t = 2. Having 4,329 at t = 2 is equivalent to five cash flows of 1,000 starting at t = 3.
Now we simply need to discount 4,329 back two periods to get the present value at t = 0. This
value is 4,329 / 1.052 = 3,927.
Keeping track of the actual calendar time brings us to a specific type of annuity with level
payments: the annuity due. An annuity due has its first payment occurring today (t = 0). In other
words, payments occur at the start of every period. (Remember that t = 0 can be thought of as
the start of Period 1.) Suppose there is an annuity due which makes four payments of $100. The
cash flows are shown in the figure below (drawing a timeline makes it easier to understand when
the cash flows occur):
We can view the four-period annuity due as the sum of two parts:
A $100 lump sum today, and
An ordinary annuity of $100 per period for three periods. This must be adjusted for time
value by determining the present value at t = 0.
Assuming an interest rate of 12%, the present value of the ordinary annuity with three payments
can be calculated as:
N = 3, I/Y = 12, PMT = 100, FV = 0.
Compute PV = - 240.
Hence, the present value of the annuity due is 100 + 240 = 340. The cash flow of 100 at t = 0 is
already in present value terms, so it is added as is.
Set the calculator to BGN mode. This tells the calculator that payments happen at the start of
every period. (The default calculator setting is END mode which means that payments happen at
the end of very period). The keystrokes are shown below:
Note: Remember to reset the calculator to END mode after performing the calculations.
6.2. The Present Value of an Infinite Series of Equal Cash Flows – Perpetuity
If an ordinary annuity extends indefinitely, it is known as perpetuity (a perpetual annuity). In
other words, it is a constant cash flow that occurs at periodic intervals forever. The present value
of perpetuity can be calculated by using the following formula:
where
A = annuity amount
r = discount rate
Worked Example 5
Will Graham is willing to pay for a perpetual preferred stock that pays dividends worth $100 per
year indefinitely. The first payment Mr. Graham will receive would be at t = 5. Given that the
required rate of return is 10% per annum, compounded annually, how much should Mr. Graham
pay today?
Solution:
( )
( )
4 200
5 250
This method is tedious if we have several cash flows. Hence, the preferred strategy is
to use the cash flow register on your financial calculator. Here are the keystrokes:
Practice this a few times so you are comfortable with the keystrokes. If you need more help, refer
to the calculator tutorial on our website: www.ift.world
g = (FVN /PV)1/N – 1
where
FV = future vale
PV = present value
N = number of years
Consider the following scenario: The population of a small town is 100,000 on 1 Jan., 2000. On
31 Dec., 2001 the population is 121,000. What is the growth rate?
We can also use the calculator: N = 2, PV = 100,000, PMT = 0, FV = -121,000 (remember that
PV and FV should have different signs). Compute I/Y = 10. I/Y represents the growth rate and is
given as a percentage.
Method 1:
FV = PV (1 + r) N
7,500 = 2,500 (1 + 0.06) N
1.06N = 3
N x ln 1.06 = ln 3
N=( ) = 18.85
Method 2:
Using the calculator: I/Y = 6, PV = 2,500, PMT = 0, FV = -7,500. Compute N = 18.85.
Worked Example 6
Wally Hammond is planning to buy a house worth $300,000. He will make a 20% down
payment and borrow the remainder with a 30-year fixed rate mortgage with monthly payments.
The first payment is due at t = 1. The current mortgage interest rate is quoted at 12% with
monthly compounding. Calculate the monthly mortgage payments.
Solution:
Amount borrowed = 80% of 300,000 = 240,000. This represents the present value. We need to
determine the 360 (30 years * 12 periods/year) equal payments which have a present value of
240,000 given a periodic interest rate of 1% (12% per year means 12/12 = 1% per period).
While this can be solved using the annuity formula, it is much easier to use the calculator:
N = 360, I/Y = 1, PV = 240000, FV = 0. CPT PMT = -246.87.
This means that 360 level payments of 246.87 is equivalent to a present value of 240,000, given
an interest rate of 1% per period.
Worked Example 7
Your client is 25 years old (at t = 0) and plans to retire at age 60 (at t = 35). He wants to save
$3,000 per year for the next 10 years (from t = 1 to t = 10). He would like a retirement income of
100,000 per year for 21 years, with the first retirement payment starting at t = 35. How much will
you advise him to save each year from t = 11 to t = 34? Assume a return of 10% per year on
average.
Solution:
First set up a timeline. The time periods are shown above the line. Each number represents the
end of that period. So 1 means the end of period 1 and so on. The cash amounts are shown in
Your client wants an annuity payment of 100,000 starting at t = 35 and lasting till t = 55.
Step 1: Calculate how much the client must have at t = 34 when retirement begins.
The present value of annuity payments of 100,000 (retirement income every year) at t = 34 can
be computed using the calculator:
This means that having $851,356 at the end of year 34 is equivalent to receiving 100,000 for 21
years starting at t = 35.
Step 2: Calculate the future value of current savings of $3,000 every year at the end of 10
years.
The client will save 3,000 every year for 10 years. Use the calculator to determine how much he
will have at the end of 10 years:
Step 3: Calculate how much he must save every year for the next 24 years to make up for
the shortfall.
Your client will have to contribute $4,299 every year from t = 11 to t = 34 in order to meet his
retirement objective.
Here is a simple example to illustrate how a lump sum can generate an annuity. Suppose that we
place $4,329.48 in the bank today at 5% interest. We can calculate the size of the annuity
payments:
N = 5, I/Y = 5, PV = 4329.48, FV = 0. CPT PMT = 1000. Hence, an amount of $4,329.48
deposited in the bank today can generate five $1,000 withdrawals over the next five years.
Now consider another scenario. Invest 4,329.48 today at 5%. How much will we have at the end
of 5 years? Using the calculator: N = 5, I/Y = 5, PV = 4,329.48, PMT = 0. CPT FV = -5,526. In
other words, we will have $5,526 at the end of 5 years.
Here is the final scenario. We invest 1,000 per year for 5 years. How much will we have at the
end of 5 years? Using the calculator: N = 5, I/Y = 5, PV = 0, PMT = 1000. Compute FV = -
5,526. Here again we will have $5,526 at the end of 5 years.
To summarize: A lump sum can be seen as equivalent to an annuity, and an annuity can be seen
as equivalent to its future value. Thus, present values, future values, and a series of cash flows
can all be considered equivalent as long as they are indexed at the same point in time.
First, let’s take a simple example. There are two cash flows: $50 occurring today, and $100 at the
end of period 1. What is the value of this cash flow?
Is this correct? 50 (today) + 100 (after one year) = 150
No. Because these cash flows are at two different points in time, so they are not additive. There
are two options to make them additive:
Present value: 50 + PV (100)
Future value: FV(50) + 100
We will look at a comprehensive example now. Consider two series of cash flows A and B as
shown below.
If we assume the annual interest rate is 2%, we can find the future value of each series of cash
flow as follows.
Future value of series A: $100 (1.02) + $100 = $202.
Future value of series B: $200 (1.02) + $200 = $404.
The future value of (A + B) is, therefore, $606.
The alternative way to find the future value is to add the cash flows of each series, A and B (call
it A + B), and then find the future value of the combined cash flow. $300(1.02) + 300 = $606.
Both methods give the same result which illustrates the cash flow additivity principle.