B Com Semester 6 Auditing and Assurance Multiple Choice Questions

B COM SEMESTER 6
AUDITING AND ASSURANCE

Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following is not a kind of audit?
A. Statutory and private.
B. Government and continuous audit.
C. Interim audit.
D. None of these
2. This kind of audit is conducted generally between two annual audits.
A. Internal audit.
B. Interim audit.
C. Final audit.
D. Continuous audit.
3. Voucher relates to ______.
A. Cash receipt.
B. Cash payment.
C. Credit transactions
D. All of the above.
4. Auditing begins where _____ends.
A. Selling.
B. Inventory valuation.
C. Accounting.
D. Purchases.
5. In the case of a company in which not less than _______% of the subscribed share
capital is held whether singly or in combination by certain special institutions and
bodies, the appointment or re-appointment of auditors shall be made at each annual
general meeting by a special resolution.
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 20%
d. 15%
6. Which of the following persons is qualified to be a company auditor?
a) An employee of the company
b) A body corporate
c) A person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding Rs. 1000
d) A practicing-chartered accountant
7. When the auditor is an employee of the organization being audited, the audit is
classified as _____
a. Internal
b. External
c. Compliance
d. Both A&B
8. A company auditor can be removed before expiry of his term by
a) Shareholders
b) Board of Directors
c) Central Government
d) State Government
9. If there is capital loss, the auditor should
a) Not allow payment of dividend
b) Allow payment of dividends
c) Allow payment of dividends after making such losses good
d) None of the above
10. Auditor should see that amount received for premium on issue of shares should be
shown in ______
a) Subscribed capital
b) Capital Reserve Account
c) Share Premium account
d) Paid- up capital account
11. Sec.143 of Companies Act 20913 deals with _____
a) Powers and rights of an auditor
b) Removal of an auditor
c) Appointment of an auditor
d) Remuneration of an auditor
12. Internal auditor is appointed by______
a) Management
b) Shareholders
c) Government
d) Statutory body
13. Share premium account should be shown in the Balance sheet under
a) Paid-up capital
b) Subscribed capital
c) Reserves & surplus
d) Reserved capital
14. ______ is the medium through which an auditor expresses his opinion on the state of
affairs of the client’s business.
a) Audit report
b) Audit certificate
c) Audit programme
d) Audit planning
15. _______ is the specific guidelines and directions for efficient and effective
completion of the audit work on timely and daily basis, so as to minimise audit risk.
a) Audit planning
b) Audit report
c) Audit programme
d) Audit certificate
16. _______ is a method of organising the accounting system of a business concern or a
factory by which the duties of various clerks are arranged in such a way that the work
of one person is automatically checked by another.
a) Internal control
b) Internal check
c) Internal audit
d) All of the above
17. Internal check is a part of
a) Internal audit
b) Internal accounting
c) External audit
d) Internal control
18. Civil liability of an auditor implies liability for
a) Misappropriation of cash
b) Misappropriation of goods
c) Fraud
d) Misfeasance
19. If an auditor is not appointed at annual general meeting, he is appointed by the
a) The Central Government
c) Shareholders
d) Company Law board
20. The audit that is made compulsory under statute is called ________
a) Statutory audit
b) Partial audit
c) Complete audit
d) Continuous audit
21. Audit means _______.
a) Recording business transactions
b) Preparing final accounts
c) Examination of books, accounts or vouchers
d) Decision making
22. When a transaction has not been recorded in the books of account either wholly or
partially such errors are called _______.
a) Error of commission
b) Error of omission
c) Compensating error
23. The liabilities of an auditor can be ________.
a) Civil
b) Criminal
c) Civil & Criminal
d) Financial
24. Duties of an auditor is _______.
a) Statutory duties imposed by the Companies Act
b) Duties imposed by legal or court decisions
c) Duties arising out of professional etiquette
d) All of the above
25. Internal auditor of a company must be _______.
a) Cost accountant
b) Chartered accountant
c) ICWA
d) Need not possess any professional qualification
26. Sec.139 (7) provides that in the case of a Government Company or any other
company owned or controlled by the Central Government, or by any State
Government, the first auditor shall be appointed by _________
a) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
b) Central Government
c) State Government
27. Objectives of internal audit includes _________.
a) Proper control
b) Perfect accounting system
c) Asset protection
d) All of the above
28. Internal control includes ________.
a) Internal audit
b) Internal check
c) Both internal audit and internal check
d) Internal check and external audit
29. _______ is the examination of all documentary evidence which are available to
support the authenticity of transactions entered in the client’s records.
a) Accounting
b) Vouching
c) Internal check
30. Sec.140 of the Companies Act 2013 deals with ________.
a) Removal of an auditor
b) Appointment of an auditor
c) Remuneration of an auditor
31. Management audit otherwise called as _______.
a) Financial audit
b) Efficiency audit
c) Cost audit
d) Cash audit
32. Audit done by the employees of the business undertaking is called ______.
a) Final audit
b) Internal audit
c) Company audit
d) Statutory audit
33. Which of the following is not a kind of audit?
a) Statutory and private audit
b) Government and continuous audit
c) Final, Interim, management audit
34. Effective internal check system reduces
a) The liability of auditor
b) Work of auditor
c) Responsibilities of an auditor
35. Misappropriation of goods may be checked by
a) Proper supervision over stock
b) Checking of employees
c) Punishment of employees
36. Auditor has no lien on
a) Audit note book
b) Audit working papers
c) Books of accounts of clients
d) All of the above
37. Accounting standards are prepared by
a) SEBI
b) RBI
c) ASB
d) ITA
38. Cost auditor submits reports to the:
a) Shareholder
b) Board of directors
c) Employees
d) Creditors
39. Bonus shares are issued to _______.
a) New members
b) Existing share holders
c) Employees
40. Window dressing implies
a) Checking wastages
b) Under valuation of assets
c) Over valuation of assets
41. Internal check is suitable for _______.
a) Larger concerns
b) Smaller concerns
c) Petty-shop keepers
42. Final audit implies
a) Finally checking of accounts to reveal frauds
b) Audit for submitting report immediately at the end of the year
c) Audit of banking companies
d) Audit of accounts at the end of the year
43. Remuneration of an internal auditor is fixed by ______.
a) Management
b) Shareholders
c) Government
d) Statutory body
44. The objective of the audit planning is ________
a) To give appropriate attention to all important areas of audit
b) To identify potential problems
c) To coordinate work with other auditors and experts
d) All of the above
45. Audit papers are the property of ______.
a) Client
b) Auditor
c) Both the client and the auditor
d) The audit committee
46. The term “Audit” originated from the Latin word
a) Audire
b) Adhere
c) Adihere
47. Sole proprietary concerns are ______ to get their financial statements audited by
independent financial auditors.
a) Legally required
b) Not legally required
c) Ethically required
d) Not ethically required
48. The performance audit may be initiated by the organisation or by ____.
a) Government
b) Employees & Management
c) Shareholders
d) External interested parties
49. Balance sheet audit is also known as
a) Continues audit
b) Annual audit
c) Internal audit
d) Financial audit
50. ______ lays out the strategies to be followed to conduct an audit.
a) An action plan
b) An audit plan
c) An audit programme
d) All of the above
51. Auditor should determine the ______ and the timing of the audit report.
a) Nature
b) Actual
c) Nature & actual
d) Form
52. ______ followed by the enterprise affect the audit plan.
a) Accounting policies
b) Audit policies
c) Accounting and Audit policies
d) Management policies
53. While framing an audit plan auditor should ascertain his _____ cast by various
legislations on him.
a) Limitations
b) Duties and obligations
c) Rights and powers
d) Term of appointment & responsibilities
54. An audit programme is a set of _______ which are to be followed for proper
execution of audit.
a) Rules
b) Policies
c) Instructions
d) Actions
55. Audit programme provides instructions to the audit staff and reduces scope for
a) Understanding
b) Misunderstanding
c) Negligence
d) Liabilities
56. Audit programme helps in fixing the ______for the work done among the audit staff
as work done may be traced back to the individual staff members.
a) Remuneration
b) Liabilities
c) Negligence
d) Responsibility
57. On completion of an audit _______serves the purpose of audit record which may be
useful for future reference.
a) Audit programme
c) Audit plan
d) Audit notes
58. Audit programme is prepared by _____
a) The auditor
b) The client
c) The audit assistant
d) The auditor and his audit assistants
59. The auditor has to obtain _______ to substantiate his opinion on the financial
statements.
a) Internal evidence
b) External evidence
c) Internal and external evidence
d) Sufficient and appropriate evidence
60. The quality of information generated by the audited organization is directly related to
the strength of the organization’s ______
a) Internal check
b) Internal control
c) Internal audit
d) All of the above
61. _______ are the documents prepared or obtained by the auditors in connection with
the audit.
a) Audit notes
c) Audit report
d) All of the above
62. Working papers helps in proper _______ of audit.
a) Planning
b) Performance
c) Planning and performance
d) Execution
63. The Auditors Working Papers are divided into two parts
a) Permanent audit file and current audit file
b) Permanent audit file and temporary audit file
c) temporary audit file and current audit file
d) current audit file and transitory audit file
64. On appointment of subsequent auditors, the company must give intimation within 7
days of such appointment to ______
a) The board of directors
b) The registrar of companies
c) The auditor so appointed
d) The central government
65. In case the Board of Directors fails to appoint the first auditors within one month of
its incorporation the _______ may appoint the first auditors.
a) Chairman of the company
b) Managing directors
c) Members of the company in general meeting
d) Central government
66. Examples of casual vacancy are vacancy arising due to _______
a) Resignation of the auditor
b) Death of the auditor
c) Disqualification of the auditor
d) All of the above
67. If no auditors are appointed or re-appointed at the annual general meeting, the ______
may appoint a person to fill the vacancy.
a) Board of directors
b) Company in general meeting
d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C&AG)
68. Failure to give notice regarding filling of casual vacancy to the Central government is
an offence punishable with fine, who of the following are the persons on whom such
fine can be imposed.
a) Directors
b) Company
c) Every officer of the company
d) Company or every officer of the company
69. A statutory auditor-------- also as internal auditor of the company.
a) Can act
b) Cannot act
c) Though can act but ethically should not act
70. A person shall not be qualified to be appointed as an auditor of the company if he is in
the employment of ____
a) An officer of the company
b) An employee of the company
c) Both (a) and (b)
71. In case of insolvency or unsound mind, a person will automatically be disqualified for
appointment as an auditor, because
a) He is not a person of repute
b) He cannot take decision properly
c) He is not wealthy
d) He ceases to be a member of ICAI
72. The auditors have the right to attend
a) Board meeting
b) Annual general meeting
c) Extraordinary general meeting
d) Any general meeting
73. The retiring auditor does not have a right to______
a) To make written representation
b) Get his representation circulated
c) Be heard at the meeting
d) Speak as a member of the company
74. In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be
concerned with _______
a) Cost accounting system
b) Internal control system
c) Legal compliance
d) Accounting system
75. Whether the management can restrict the scope of work of an external auditor?
a) Yes
b) No
c) In some cases
d) If shareholders permit
76. It is the duty of the auditor to ________ to the members of the company on the
Accounts examined by him.
a) Give suggestions
b) Comment
c) Refer certain points
d) Make a report
77. Auditor’s report is the expert’s opinion expressed by the auditor as to the fairness
of_________
a) Financial position
b) General position
c) Financial statements
d) Balance sheet and profit and loss account
78. Auditor report is addressed to the members of the company and is considered at
the________ of the company.
a) Board Meeting (BM)
b) Annual General Meeting (AGM)
c) Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM)
d) All of the above
79. Due to lack of audit evidence, auditor issues a________
a) Qualified opinion
b) Unqualified opinion
c) Adverse opinion
d) Disclaimer of opinion
80. When auditor does not have any objection regarding the information under audit then
he issues an _________
a) Qualified opinion
b) Adverse opinion
c) Unqualified opinion
d) Negative opinion
81. Auditor has to report to_________
a) Management
b) Owners
c) Government
d) Appointing Authority
82. The auditor must have a thorough understanding of the entity, the client’s business
strategies, processes, and measurement indicators for critical success. This analysis
helps the auditor to.
a) Decide if they want to accept the engagement
b) Identify risks associated with the client’s strategy that could affect the financial
statements
c) Assess the level of materiality that is appropriate for the audit
d) Identify the potential for fraud in the financial reporting process
83. Which of the following are performed as risk assessment procedures?
a) Observation
b) Inquiry
c) Analytical Review
d) All of these
84. Proper segregation of duties reduces the opportunities in which a person would both
a) Establish controls and executes them
b) Records cash receipts and cash payments
c) Perpetuate errors and frauds and conceals them
d) Record the transaction in journal and ledger
85. Misstatements may result from ______.
a) An inaccuracy in gathering or processing data from which financial statements are
prepared
b) An omission of an amount or disclosure
c) An incorrect accounting estimates
d) All of above
86. Misstatements can arise from ______.
a) Error
b) Fraud
c) Both (a) and (b)
87. Sufficient audit evidence is a measurement of ______
a) Quality of audit evidence
b) Quantity of audit evidence
c) Both of (a) and (b)
d) None of these
88. Depending upon nature audit evidence can be classified as_______
a) Visual evidence
b) Oral evidence
c) Documentary evidence
d) All of these
89. Depending upon source audit evidence can be classified as
a) Internal audit evidence
b) External audit evidence
c) Both (a) and (b)
90. Which of the following is not internal audit evidence?
a) Bank Reconciliation Statement
b) Bank Statement
c) Copy of Sales Invoice
d) Voucher
91. Which of the following is not external audit evidence?
a) Bank Statements
b) Purchase Invoice
c) External Confirmation
d) Salary Sheet
92. Techniques to obtain audit evidence are
a) Inspection
b) Recalculation
c) External confirmation
d) All of these
93. The reliability of audit evidence is influenced by its
a) Source
b) Nature
c) Circumstances
d) All of the above
94. Which of the following item is not suitable for test checking?
a) Purchase transactions
b) Sale transactions
c) Balance Sheet items
d) All of above
95. A related party transaction may have the following features
a) A person or entity under common control
b) Owners who are close family members
c) Common key management
d) All of the above
96. The books of account etc. of the company shall be kept at the _________ of the
company.
a) Corporate office
b) Branch office
c) Registered office
d) Head office
97. Every company shall preserve in good order the books of account together with the
relevant vouchers. The time period of preservation shall be not less than______
financial years immediately preceding the relevant financial year.
a) 7
b) 5
c) 8
d) 9
98. If the financial statements do not comply with the accounting standards, the company
shall disclose in its financial statements.
a) The deviation from the accounting standards
b) The reasons for such deviation, and
c) The financial effects, if any, arising out of such deviation
d) All of these
99. The auditor’s report shall be attached to_________.
a) Annual report
b) Board report
c) Cost audit report, if any
d) Every financial statement
100. Propriety audit refers to
b) Verification of accounts
c) Examination accounts of propriety concerns
d) Enquiry against justification and necessity of expresses
e) Audit of Govt. companies
101. Joint audit implies
a) Audit of two concerns together
b) Audit of joint stock companies
c) Audit of joint sector companies
d) Audit by two firms of C.A
102. Systems audit implies
a) Systematic examination of accounts
b) Audit undertaken to improve auditing systems
c) Enquiring accounting and control systems
d) Checking the performance of management
103. Internal check is carried on by
a) Special staff
b) Internal auditor
c) Accountant
104. Errors of omission are
a) Technical errors
b) Error of principle
c) Compensating errors
105. Payment for goods purchased should be vouched with the help of
a) Creditors statement
b) Correspondence with suppliers
c) Cash memos
d) Ledger accounts
106. Investment should be vouched with the help of
a) Commission book
b) Brokers book
c) Sales deeds
d) Minute book
107. Object of verification of assets
a) Physical verification of assets
b) Checking value of assets
c) Examining the authority of their acquisition
d) All of the above
108. “Auditor is not valuer” was stated in
a) Kingston Cotton Mills case
b) London & General Bank case
c) Lee. V. Neuchatel Co. Ltd case
d) London oil Storage Co. case
109. Book debts should be verified with the help of
a) Balance sheet
b) Amount received from Debtors
c) Debtors schedule
d) Certificate from the management
110. A special auditor is appointed by the
a) Shareholders
d) C & A – G
e) Shareholders
f) Board of Directors
g) Central Government
h) State Government
112. An auditor of Government company has to submit his report to the
a) Shareholders
b) Central Government
c) C & A – G
d) Ministry concerned
113. While checking allotment of shares the auditor should see that it is made
within
a) 100 days of issue of prospectus
b) 120 days of issue of prospectus
c) 150 days of issue of prospectus
d) 80 days of issue of prospectus
114. A company can issue Redeemable Preference shares, if authorized by
a) Memorandum of association
b) Articles of association
c) Companies Act, 1956
115. Premium received on issue of shares, later forfeited, should be transferred to
a) Capital reserve
b) Shares forfeited Account
c) Capital Account
116. Special resolution means ________.

a) 1/3 majority
b) 2/3 majority
c) ½ majority
117. Auditor is an ________ of a shareholder
a) Owner
b) Agent
c) Employer
118. _______ audit is forward looking -
a) Financial
b) Cost
c) Tax
d) Final
119. The meeting held by the company with in a period of not less than one month
and not more than 6 months is called _______.
a) Statutory
b) Annual
c) General
120. __________ audit is not a statuary requirement
a) Management
b) Financial
c) Tax Audit
d) All of the above
121. Which among the following is not a function of the auditor?
a) Checking errors and frauds
b) Vouching with original documents
c) Preparing final Accounts
d) Both a&b
122. The scope of auditing does not cover.
a) Vouching
b) Checking arithmetical accuracy
Ledger posting
123. Which among the following is an example of intangible asset?
a) Goodwill
b) Patents
c) All of these
124. Investigation is required when
a) Fraud is suspected in business
b) On acquisition of running business
c) All of them
125. Preliminary expanses not written off are treated as
a) Fixed assets
b) Intangible assets
c) Fictitious assets
126. A fixed audit programme is also called a _____ programme
a) Tailor made
b) Man made
c) Auditor made
d) Skeleton
127. A progressive audit programme is also called a _____ programme
a) Tailor made
b) Man made
c) Auditor made
d) Skeleton
128. Current audit file consists of _________.
a) Matters of future importance
b) Matters relations to post years
c) Matters relating to the year of audit
129. Test checking is done when there is an effective system of ________.
a) Internal control
b) Internal audit
c) Internal check
d) External audit
130. Partial auditing is usually done by
a) Sole trading concern
b) Joint stock company
c) Govt. department
131. Balance remaining in the forfeited Account after reissue is transferred to
_______ account
a) General reserve
b) Capital reserve
c) Premium account
132. Criminal liability of an auditor implies liability for
a) Misstatement in prospectus
b) Failure to assist investigation
c) Failure to assist prosecution of guilty officers
d) All of the above
133. Statutory liabilities of an auditor include ________.
a) Liability under Companies Act 2013
b) Liability under the Indian Penal Code
c) Both a&b
134. Powers and rights of an auditor include ________.
a) Right of access to the books of account
b) Right to obtain information and explanation from officers
c) Right to attend general meeting
d) All of the above
135. ______ assets are those which may or may not materialise as assets in the
future.
a) Tangible assets
c) Contingent assets
136. Copy right should be revalued at the date of the ________.
a) Balance sheet
b) Audit report
c) Internal check
137. ______ assets are those assets which have no value but represent only
expenditure or loss
a) Wasting assets
b) Fictitious assets
c) Intangible assets
d) Circulating assets
138. _____ is the value which would be realised if a particular asset is sold when it
has become out of date or unserviceable.
a) Replacement value
b) Scrap value
c) Market value
d) Book value
139. Vouching is done ______.
a) End of the year
b) Throughout the year
c) Beginning of the year
140. The auditing standards consist of ________.
a) Basic postulates
b) General standards
c) Field standards
d) All of the above
141. ______ audit is the process of evaluating a firm’s various operating
procedures, code of conduct, and other factors to determine its effect on the society.
a) Cost audit
b) Performance audit
c) Social audit
d) Tax audit
142. ______ is an audit based on ownership
a) Financial audit
b) Secretarial audit
c) Trust audit
143. ______ is a method of obtaining audit evidence.
a) Observation
b) Inspection
c) Computation
d) All of the above
144. _______ determine whether the layout satisfies certain rules specified by the
fabrication team
a) Logical Equivalence Checking
b) Design Rule Check
c) Layout Versus Schematic
145. ______ is a type of voucher.
a) Template voucher
b) Adjustment voucher
c) Reversal voucher
d) All of the above
146. ______ is a method of valuing the assts on the basis of purchase price of the
assets.
a) Base stock method
b) Market value method
c) Cost method
147. What are the techniques of verification?
a) Inspection
b) Observation
c) Confirmation
d) All of the above
148. If the statutory time limit of _____ years is over, the money being in
Unclaimed Dividend Account is transferred to the Central Government with details of
shareholders who have not claimed the dividend.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 7
149. Total fixed deposits should not exceed ____% of paid up share capital and
free reserves.
a) 20
b) 25
c) 15
d) 10
150. Fixed deposits received along with accrued and due interest would be shown
under _______.
a) Unsecured loans
b) Secured loans
c) Doubtful debts
151. An auditor of a company has a right to be indemnified, out of the assets of the
company, for any liability incurred by him in defending himself against any civil or
criminal proceedings by the company, provided the judgment is in his favour.
a) True
b) False
152. Government have established the __________, a specialized, multi-
disciplinary organization to deal with cases of corporate fraud.
a) Fraud Investigation Office (FIO)
b) Serious Frauds Investigation Office (SFIO)
c) Corporate Frauds Investigation Office (CFIO)
153. Where the investigation is to be done on behalf of a limited company desiring
to buy another established concern, the investigator will be required to examine
________.
a) Corporate security
b) Goodwill
c) Human resources
154. An audit conducted throughout the year or at the regular intervals of time is
known as _________.
a) Continuous audit
b) Internal audit
c) Statutory audit
d) External audit
155. __________ is a risk that the practitioner expresses an inappropriate
conclusion when the subject matter information is materially misstated.
a) Assurance Engagement Risk
b) Assurance Relevance Risk
c) Assurance judgment Risk
156. _______ refer to specific accounting controls relating to particular transactions
and data in each computer-based application system.
a) General controls
b) Application controls
c) System control
157. The time spent by each worker should be correctly recorded in the _________.
a) Attendance card
b) Time record book
c) Time recording clock
158. Objective of internal check with regard to wages is __________.
a) To avoid inclusion of dummy workers in the list of workers
b) To avoid errors in the wage sheet
c) To ensure the correctness of time cards and piece work cards
d) All of the above
159. In big organizations, generally ___________ employed to push sales and to
collect debt.
a) Travelling agents
b) Marketing executive
c) Salesman
160. Cash sales can be done through ________.
a) Sales at the counter
b) Sales by travelling agents
c) Postal sales
d) All of the above
161. Payment for wages should be vouched with the help of
a) Piece work statement
b) Wage sheets
c) Minute book
d) Bank pass book
162. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Valuation is a part of verification
b) Verification is a part of valuation
c) Valuation has nothing to do with verification
d) Auditor is a valuer
163. Valuation of Fixed Assets is based on the concept
a) Going concern
b) Conservation
c) Money measurement
d) Dual aspect
164. Outstanding expenses should be verified with the help of
a) Cash book
b) Balance book
c) Journal proper
165. Investments in hand should be verified with the help of _______.
a) Schedule of investments
b) Balance sheet
c) Inspection of securities
d) Certificate from the bank
166. Application money should not be withdrawn unless
a) Allotment is made
b) Cash book has been prepared
c) Certificate to commence business obtained
d) Certificate of incorporation obtained
167. Divisible profit should not include
a) Interest on capital
b) Capital
c) Depreciation
168. The prime importance of investigation on behalf of an individual or firm intending to
purchase an existing business is to
a) Ascertain value of asset
b) Ascertain the earning capacity of the concern
c) Estimation of value of good will
d) Extend of liabilities
169. Auditor finds that there is change in the method of valuation of stock whether he
should
a) Allow
b) Disallow it
170. The duties of internal auditor are prescribed by
a) Companies act
b) Company law board
c) Management
171. Method of physical verification includes ___________.
a) Layout versus schematic
b) Design rule check
c) Logical equivalence checking
d) All of the above
172. Shareholders minute book should be vouched for
a) Payment to vendors
b) Payment to promoters
c) Issue of bonus shares
173. Floating assets are valued at
a) Cost
b) Market price
c) Cost price or market price whichever is less
d) Cost less depreciation
174. A continuous audit is specially needed for
a) Any trading concerns
b) Smaller concerns
c) Banking companies
d) Any manufacturing companies
175. Falsification of accounts is undertaken by
a) Auditors
b) Clerks
c) Accountants
d) Responsible officials
176. Auditor should be dutiful like a
a) A watch dog
b) A blood hound
c) A detective
d) An insurer
177. For checking that allotment of shares has been properly made, an auditor should refer
to _____.
a) Cash Book
b) Shares Ledger
c) Directors minutes book
d) Shareholders minutes Book
178. Auditor should see that amount received for premium on issue of shares should be
shown in
a) Subscribed capital
b) Capital Reserve Account
c) Share Premium account
d) Paid- up capital account
179. Divisible profit should not include
a) Interest on capital
b) Capital
c) Depreciation
180. Capital profits
a) Can be paid by way of dividends
b) Cannot paid by way of dividends
c) Can be paid by way of dividend under certain conditions
181. Investigation of books of accounts and records is:
a) Not legally compulsory
b) Compulsory
c) Compulsory as per companies act
d) Compulsory as Income Tax Act
182. Investigation is carries on behalf of
a) Manager
b) Employee
c) Client
d) On behalf of owner and third parties
183. Charging excessive provision for depreciation results in
a) Less profit
b) More profit
c) No change in profit
d) No change in loss
184. An invitation to the public to subscribe the shares of the company is called______.
a) Memorandum of association
b) Articles of association
c) Prospectus
d) Certificate of incorporation
185. Auditing around the computer is also known as ________.
a) Black box approach
b) Blue box approach
c) Green box approach
d) Red box approach
186. Manipulation of accounts is done by _______.
a) Responsible & senior officers
b) Owners
c) Directors of the business
d) All of the above
187. The term ________ implies an examination of accounts and rewards for some special
purpose.
a) Investigation
b) Internal check
c) Audit programme
188. Essentials of good audit report includes _______.
a) Simplicity
b) Clarity
c) Firmness
d) All of the above
189. ________ are the assets which may arise on the happening of an uncertain event.
a) Fixed assets
c) Contingent assets
d) Wasting assets
190. Unless a contingent liability is quite negligible, its existence should be disclosed by an
appropriate note in the _______.
a) Audit report
b) Balance sheet
c) Audit working note
191. Investment may be classified as ________.
a) Investment in Govt. securities
b) Investment in shares
c) Investment in immovable property
d) All of the above
192. The auditor has a right to _________.
a) Take legal & technical advice
b) Sign the audit report
c) Receive remuneration
d) All of the above
193. Compensating errors are also known as _______.
a) Offsetting error
b) Error of commission
c) Error of duplication
d) Error of principle
194. ________ is the cash purchase related voucher.
a) Cash bill
b) Cash memo
c) \Goods inward book
d) All of the above
195. The value or the reputation of the firm is represented in the form of _______.
a) Patent
b) Goodwill
c) Fictitious assets
196. _________ is a systematic process of obtaining and objectively evaluating the
evidence relating to performance of an organisation as reflected in the environment
statement.
a) Efficiency audit
b) Environmental audit
c) Occasional audit
d) Cost audit
197. _______ committee acts as a laison between the auditors of the company and its bord
of directors.
a) Audit committee
b) Internal check committee
c) Internal control committee
198. ______ contains information pertaining to financial history, memorandum of
association, articles of association of a company.
a) Permanent audit file
b) Current audit file
c) Test audit file
199. The auditor gives a ________ report when he is unable to give an opinion on the
financial statement taken as a whole, but he believes that he can express an opinion on
certain items in the statements.
a) Adverse report
b) Qualified report
c) Piecemeal report
d) Clean report
200. Approach to computer auditing is known as _______.
a) Auditing around the computers
b) Auditing with the computers
c) Internet auditing
d) Electronic auditing
ANSWER KEY
1. D 26. A 51. D 76. D 101. D 126. A 151. A 176. A

2. B 27. D 52. C 77. C 102. C 127. D 152. B 177. C
3. D 28. C 53. D 78. B 103. D 128. C 153. B 178. C
4. C 29. B 54. C 79. A 104. A 129. A 154. A 179. D
5. A 30. A 55. C 80. C 105. A 130. A 155. A 180. C
6. D 31. B 56. D 81. D 106. B 131. B 156. B 181. A
7. A 32. B 57. A 82. B 107. D 132. D 157. B 182. D
8. A 33. D 58. A 83. D 108. A 133. C 158. D 183. C
9. B 34. B 59. D 84. C 109. C 134. D 159. A 184. C
10. C 35. B 60. D 85. D 110. C 135. C 160. D 185. A
11. A 36. C 61. D 86. C 111. A 136. A 161. B 186. D
12. A 37. C 62. C 87. B 112. B 137. B 162. A 187. A
13. C 38. B 63. A 88. D 113. B 138. B 163. A 188. D
14. A 39. B 64. C 89. C 114. B 139. B 164. C 189. C
15. A 40. C 65. C 90. B 115. D 140. D 165. C 190. B
16. B 41. A 66. D 91. D 116. B 141. C 166. C 191. D
17. D 42. D 67. C 92. D 117. B 142. C 167. D 192. D
18. D 43. A 68. D 93. D 118. B 143. D 168. B 193. A
19. A 44. D 69. B 94. C 119. A 144. B 169. C 194. D
20. A 45. B 70. C 95. D 120. A 145. D 170. C 195. B
21. C 46. A 71. D 96. C 121. C 146. C 171. D 196. B
22. B 47. B 72. D 97. C 122. C 147. D 172. C 197. A
23. C 48. D 73. D 98. D 123. C 148. A 173. C 198. A
24. D 49. D 74. B 99. D 124. C 149. B 174. C 199. C
25. D 50. A 75. B 100. C 125. C 150. A 175. D 200. A
T.Y.B.COM. - INDIRECT TAXES - GST
Manan Prakashan 1
CHAPTER - 1 : INTRODUCTION [S. 1]
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. GST Stands for

(a) Goods and Supply Tax (b) Government Sales Tax
(c) Goods and Services Tax (d) Good and Simple Tax
2. GST is levied in India on the basis of Principle.
(a) Origin (b) Destination
(c) Either a or b (d) Both a or b
3. The main objective of GST implementation is .
(a) To consolidate multiple indirect tax levies into single tax
(b) Overcoming limitation of existing indirect tax structure
(c) Creating efficiencies in tax administration
(d) All of above
4. Which of the following is not a bill passed by parliament for the implementation of GST in India?
(a) The Central GST Act, 2017 (b) The State GST Act, 2017
(c) The Integrated GST Act, 2017 (d) None of above
5. Petroleum products have been temporarily been kept out of GST..
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Five
6. In India, GST structure is in nature.
(a) Single (b) Dual
(c) Triple (d) (a) & (b) both
7. GST is not levied on which of the following ?
(a) Alcoholic Liquor for Human Consumption (b) Five Petroleum Products
(c) Immovable Property (d) All of above
8. GST is not levied on which of the following ?
(a) Motor Spirit (b) High speed diesel
(c) Natural gas (d) All of above
9. is levied on Intra-State Supply of goods and/or Services.
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) IGST (d) Both a & b
10. is levied on Inter State Supply of Goods and/or Services.
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) IGST (d) Both a & b
11. is levied on Intra State Supply of Goods and/or Services in Union Territory..
(a) SGST (b) IGST
(c) UTGST (d) GST is not levied
12. Goods and Services Tax is a tax levied on goods and services imposed at each point of .
(a) Sale (b) Service
(c) Supply (d) Manufacturing
13. GST is a national level tax based on .
(a) First point tax principle (b) Value Added principle
(c) Last point tax principle (d) All of the above
14. The following tax has been subsumed into Central GST.
(a) Central Sales Tax (b) Custom Duty
(c) Service Tax (d) All of the above
15. GST was introduced in India on
(a) 1-4-2017 (b) 1-5-2017
(c) 1-6-2017 (d) 1-7-2017
2 Indirect Taxes - Goods and Services Tax Act (T.Y.B.Com.: SEM-VI)
16. Indian GST model has tier rate structure.
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
17. What does ‘I’ stands for in IGST?
(a) International (b) Internal
(c) Integrated (d) Intra
18. Which of the following tax is not subsumed in GST ?
(a) VAT (b) Stamp Duty
(c) Entry Tax (d) Entertainment Tax
19. HSN Code Stands for
(a) Home Shopping Network (b) Harmonised System of Nomenclature
(c) Harmonised System Number (d) Home State Number
20. Alcoholic liquor for Human Consumption is subject to -
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) IGST (d) None of the above
21. Five petroleum products viz. petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high speed diesel, natural
gas and aviation turbine fuel have been kept out of GST .
(a) Permanently (b) Temporarily
(c) For one year (d) None of the above
22. The items which will be taxable both under Central Excise Law and the GST even after the
implementation of the GST Act.
(a) Motor spirit (b) Tobacco and Tobacco Products
(c) Alcoholic liquor for human consumption (d) Natural Gas
23. On Petroleum Crude, High Speed Diesel, Motor Spirit (commonly known as Petrol), Natural
Gas, and Aviation Turbine Fuel:
(a) GST will never be levied at all
(b) GST will be levied from a date to be notified on the recommendations of the GST Council
(c) GST will be levied, but it will be exempt
(d) None of the above
24. Supply of the following is not liable to GST .
(a) Alcoholic liquor for industrial consumption
(b) Alcoholic liquor for medicinal consumption
(c) Alcoholic liquor for human consumption
(d) Alcoholic liquor for animal consumption
25. GST is a comprehensive tax regime covering .
(a) Goods (b) Services
(c) Both goods and services (d) None of the above
26. Which of the following taxes have been subsumed under GST ?
(1) Central Excise Duty (2) Service Tax
(3) VAT (4) Luxury Tax
Select the correct answer from the options given below
(a) (1) & (2) etc. (b) (3), (1) & (2)
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above
27. GST is a comprehensive tax regime covering .
(c) Both goods and services (d) Goods, services and imports
28. Goods and Services Tax is a tax levied on goods and services imposed at each point of
(a) Demand (b) Cash sale
(c) Supply (d) Manufacturing
29. The CGST Act, 2017 extends to
(a) Whole of India excluding the State of Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Whole of India
(c) Whole of India excluding the State of Jammu & Kashmir and Union territories
(d) Whole of India excluding the State of Jammu & Kashmir but including Union territories
Manan Prakashan 3
ANSWERS
1. (c) 6. (b) 11. (c) 16. (b) 21. (b) 26. (c)
2. (b) 7. (d) 12. (c) 17. (c) 22. (b) 27. (c)
3. (d) 8. (d) 13. (b) 18. (b) 23. (b) 28. (c)
4. (b) 9. (d) 14. (d) 19. (b) 24. (c) 29. (b)
5. (d) 10. (c) 15. (d) 20. (d) 25. (c)
CHAPTER - 2 : DEFINITIONS [S. 2]
A. Recipient [Section 2(93)]

1. P Ltd. has a contract with X Ltd. to provide book keeping services to Q Ltd. Q Ltd. is a subsidiary
of P Ltd. The liability to discharge consideration for such book keeping service is of P Ltd. As per
the CGST Act, 2017, who will be the recipient of the above service?
(a) P Ltd. (b) Q Ltd.
(c) X Ltd. (d) Both (a) and (b)
B. Goods [Section 2(52)]
2. The definition of goods under section 2(52) of the CGST Act does not include-
(a) Grass (b) Money and securities
(c) Actionable claims (d) Growing crops
3. is not included in the term “Goods” under GST Law:
(a) Movable Property (b) Actionable Claim
(c) Securities (d) Growing Crops
4. Which of the following is not covered under the term “Goods” under GST ?
(a) Money (b) Actionable Claim
(c) Securities (d) Both (a) & (c)
5. As per the CGST Act, 2017, "business" includes :
(i) Adventure not for a pecuniary benefit
(ii) Any activity or transaction undertaken by the Central Government, a State Government or
any local authority in which they are engaged as public authorities.
(a) (ii) only (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Neither (i) nor (ii) (d) (i) only
6. Which of the following can be treated as "goods" under the CGST Act, 2017 ?
(i) Movable Property
(ii) Money and Securities
(iii) Actionable Claim
Select the correct answer from the options given below :
I II III
(a) ✔ ✕ ✔
(b) ✕ ✔ ✔
(c) ✕ ✔ ✕
(d) ✔ ✕ ✕
7. Securities are excluded from the definition of .
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
8. Money is .
(a) Specifically included in the definition of goods
(b) Specifically included in the definition of services
(c) Specifically excluded from the definition of goods as well as services
9. Actionable Claims are .
(a) Specifically included in the definition of goods
(b) Specifically included in the definition of services
(c) Specifically excluded from the definition of goods as well as services
(d) Specifically excluded from the definition of goods only
Manan Prakashan 5
C. Non-Taxable Supply [Section 2(78)]
10. Which of the following is a non–taxable supply under the CGST Act, 2017 ?
(a) Supply of goods not leviable to tax under the CGST Act, 2017
(b) Supply of services not leviable to tax under the CGST Act, 2017
(c) Supply which is neither a supply of good nor a supply of service.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
ANSWERS
1. (a) 3. (c) 5. (b) 7. (c) 9. (a)

2. (b) 4. (d) 6. (a) 8. (c) 10. (d)
CHAPTER - 3 : SCOPE OF SUPPLY [S. 7 - 8]
A. Scope of Supply (Section 7)

1. What are different types of supplies covered under the scope of supply?
(a) Supplies made with consideration (b) Supplies made without consideration
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
2. The activities to be treated as supply of goods or supply of services as referred to in of
CGST Act, 2017.
(a) Schedule I of CGST Act (b) Schedule II of CGST Act
(c) Schedule III of CGST Act (d) Section 7
3. Which of the following taxes will be levied on Imports?
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) IGST (d) None of the above
4. Which of the following is not a supply as per section 7 of the CGST Act ?
(a) Management consultancy services not in course or furtherance of business
(b) Import of service for consideration not in course or furtherance of business
(c) Both (a) and (b)
5. specifies the activities to be treated as supply even if made without Consideration
(c) Schedule III of CGST Act (d) All of the above
6. Which of the following activity is outside the scope of supply and not taxable under GST?
(a) Services by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment
(b) Services of funeral
(c) Actionable claims, other than lottery, betting and gambling.
(d) All of the above
7. Which of the following activities is a supply of services?
(a) Transfer of right in goods/ undivided share in goods without transfer of title in goods
(b) Transfer of title in goods
(c) Transfer of title in goods under an agreement which stipulates that property shall pass at a
future date
8. Supply includes import of services for a consideration .
(a) Only if in the course or furtherance of business
(b) Only if not in the course or furtherance of business
(c) Whether or not in the course or furtherance of business
9. specifies the activities which are neither to be treated as supply of goods nor a supply
of services.
(c) Schedule III of CGST Act (d) All of the above
10. Activities or transactions undertaken by the Central Government, a State Government or any
local authority in which they are engaged as public authorities, as may be notified by the
Government on the recommendations of the Council, shall treated as .
(a) Supply of goods (b) Supply of services
(c) Neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of services
(d) Either as a supply of goods or a supply of services
Manan Prakashan 7
11. Transfer of the title in goods shall be considered as .
12. Transfer of right in goods or of undivided share in goods without the transfer of title thereof shall
be considered as .
(a) Supply of goods
(b) Supply of services
13. Transfer of title in goods under an agreement which stipulates that property in goods shall pass
at a future date upon payment of full consideration as agreed shall be considered as .
(a) Supply of goods
14. Lease, tenancy, easement, licence to occupy land shall be considered as .
(a) Supply of goods
15. Lease or letting out of the building including a commercial, industrial or residential complex for
business or commerce, either wholly or partly shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
16. Any treatment or process which is applied to another person’s goods shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
17. Where goods forming part of the assets of a business are transferred or disposed of by or under
the directions of the person carrying on the business so as no longer to form part of those
assets, whether or not for a consideration, such transfer or disposal is a by the person.
(a) Supply of goods
18. Where, by or under the direction of a person carrying on a business, goods held or used for the
purposes of the business are put to any private use or are used, or made available to any person
for use, for any purpose other than a purpose of the business, whether or not for a consideration,
the usage or making available of such goods is a .
(a) Supply of goods
19. Renting of immovable property is .
(a) Supply of goods
20. Construction of a complex, building, civil structure or a part thereof, including a complex or
building intended for sale to a buyer, wholly or partly, except where the entire consideration has
been received after issuance of completion certificate, where required, by the competent authority
or after its first occupation, whichever is earlier, shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
21. Temporary transfer or permitting the use or enjoyment of any intellectual property right shall be
treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
22. Development, design, programming, customisation, adaptation, upgradation, enhancement,
implementation of information technology software shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
23. Agreeing to the obligation to refrain from an act, or to tolerate an act or a situation, or to do an act
is .
(a) Supply of goods
24. Transfer of the right to use any goods for any purpose (whether or not for a specified period) for
cash, deferred payment or other valuable consideration shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
25. Works contract as defined in section 2 (119) shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
26. Supply, by way of or as part of any service or in any other manner whatsoever, of goods, being
food or any other article for human consumption or any drink (other than alcoholic liquor for
human consumption), where such supply or service is for cash, deferred payment or other valuable
consideration is .
(a) Supply of goods
27. Supply of goods by any unincorporated association or body of persons to a member thereof for
cash, deferred payment or other valuable consideration shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
28. Services by an employee to the employer in the course of or in relation to his employment is
.
Manan Prakashan 9
29. Services by any court or Tribunal established under any law for the time being in force is .
(a) Supply of goods
30. The functions performed by the Members of Parliament, Members of State Legislature, Members
of Panchayats, Members of Municipalities and Members of other local authorities shall be treated
as .
(a) Supply of goods
31. The duties performed by any person who holds any post in pursuance of the provisions of the
Constitution in that capacity shall be considered as .
(a) Supply of goods
32. The duties performed by any person as a Chairperson or a Member or a Director in a body
established by the Central Government or a State Government or local authority and who is not
deemed as an employee before the commencement of this clause shall be considered as .
(a) Supply of goods
33. Services of funeral, burial, crematorium or mortuary including transportation of the deceased
shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
34. Actionable claims, other than lottery, betting and gambling shall be treated as .
(a) Supply of goods
35. Gifts not exceeding in value in a financial year by an employer to an employee shall not
be treated as supply of goods or services or both.
(a) 50,000 (b) 1,00,000
(c) 2,00,000 (d) 2,50,000
36. The shall be treated as supply even if made without consideration
(a) Permanent transfer or disposal of business assets where input tax credit has been availed
on such assets.
(b) Permanent transfer or disposal of business assets where input tax credit has NOT been
availed on such assets.
(c) Both of the above
37. The shall be treated as supply even if made without consideration
(a) Supply of goods by a principal to his agent where the agent undertakes to supply such goods
on behalf of the principal;
(b) Supply of goods by an agent to his principal where the agent undertakes to receive such
goods on behalf of the principal.
38. The shall be treated as supply even if made without consideration.
(a) Supply of goods by a principal to his agent where the agent undertakes to supply such goods
on behalf of the principal;
(b) Supply of goods by an agent to his principal where the agent undertakes to receive such
goods on behalf of the principal.
(c) Permanent transfer or disposal of business assets where input tax credit has been availed
on such assets
39. Import of services by a taxable person from a related person or from any of his other establishments
outside India, in the course or furtherance of business shall .
(a) Supply of services
(b) Not to be treated as supply of service
(c) Be treated as supply even when made without consideration
40. Which of the following is - the supply in which possession of the goods are transferred but the
title on the same will be transferred at the future date?
(a) Rent a car
(b) Hire Purchase
(c) Normal sale of goods
41. Which of the following is - the supply in which possession of the goods are transferred but the
title of the goods is not transferred at all and thereby attains the character of the supply of
service ?
(a) Rent a car (b) Hire Purchase
(c) Normal sale of goods (d) None of the above
42. Suppose XYZ Ltd has a license to operate a particular business venture but he refrains from
operating such business venture after an agreement with other business houses in the same
line of business against receiving certain amount. Is this a supply of service?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Exempted (d) None of the above
43. Which of the following is the supply even if made without consideration?
(a) Stock transfer out to another state
(b) Temporary application of business asset for a non-business needs
(c) Free transfer of business asset
B. Tax Liability on Composite and Mixed Supplies (Section 8)
44. What are the factors differentiating composite supply & mixed supply?
(a) Nature of bundling i.e. artificial or natural
(b) Existence of principal supply
45. What would be the tax rate applicable in case of composite supply?
(a) Tax rate as applicable on principal supply
(b) Tax rate as applicable on ancillary supply
(c) Tax rate as applicable on respective supply
46. What would be the tax rate applicable in case of mixed supply?
(a) Tax rate as applicable on supply attracting the lowest rate of tax
(b) Tax rate as applicable on supply attracting the highest rate of tax
(c) Tax @ 28%
Manan Prakashan 11
47. Which of the following supplies are naturally bundled?
(a) Rent deed executed for renting of two different floors of a building-one for residential and
another for commercial purpose to same person
(b) Pack of watch, tie and belt
(c) Package of canned food such as burger, chocolates, sweets, cake etc.
48. A supply comprising of two or more supplies shall be treated as the supply of that
particular supply that attracts highest rate of tax.
(a) Composite (b) Mixed
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
49. means a supply made by a taxable person to a recipient consisting of two or more
taxable supplies of goods or services or both, or any combination thereof, which are naturally
bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business, one of
which is a principal supply.
(a) Composite Supply (b) Principal Supply
(c) Mixed Supply (d) Inward Supply
50. means two or more individual supplies of goods or services, or any combination thereof,
made in conjunction with each other by a taxable person for a single price where such supply
does not constitute a composite supply.
(a) Mixed Supply (b) Principal Supply
(c) Inward Supply (d) Exempt Supply
ANSWERS
1. (c) 9. (c) 17. (a) 25. (b) 33. (c) 41. (a) 49. (a)
2. (b) 10. (c) 18. (b) 26. (b) 34. (c) 42. (a) 50. (a)
3. (c) 11. (a) 19. (b) 27. (a) 35. (a) 43. (d)
4. (a) 12. (b) 20. (b) 28. (c) 36. (a) 44. (c)
5. (a) 13. (a) 21. (b) 29. (c) 37. (c) 45. (a)
6. (d) 14. (b) 22. (b) 30. (c) 38. (d) 46. (b)
7. (a) 15. (b) 23. (b) 31. (c) 39. (c) 47. (d)
8. (c) 16. (b) 24. (b) 32. (c) 40. (b) 48. (b)
CHAPTER - 4 : LEVY AND COLLECTION OF TAX [S. 9]
A. Levy and Collection (CGST - Section 9)

1. What are the taxes levied on an intra-State supply?
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) CGST and SGST (d) IGST
2. What is the maximum rate prescribed under CGST Act?
(a) 12% (b) 28%
(c) 20% (d) 18%
3. Who will notify the rate of tax to be levied under CGST Act?
(a) Central Government suo moto
(b) State Government suo moto
(c) GST Council suo moto
(d) Central Government as per the recommendations of the GST Council
4. Which of the following taxes will be levied on imports?
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) IGST (d) CGST and SGST
5. What is the maximum rate prescribed under UTGST Act?
(a) 14% (b) 28%
(c) 20% (d) 30%
B. Levy and Collection of Tax [IGST] (Section 5 to 6)
6. Supply shall attract IGST?
(a) Intra-State (b) Inter-State
(c) Both
7. Is there any ceiling limit prescribed on the rate under IGST?
(a) 14% (b) 40%
(c) 26% (d) 30%
8. What if an e-commerce operator having no physical presence in the taxable territory, does not
have a representative in the taxable territory?
(a) His will have to discharge his tax liability in foreign currency
(b) He will not be liable to tax
(c) He has to appoint a person in the taxable territory for the purpose of paying tax on his behalf
9. Unless and until notified, IGST shall not be levied on the inter-State supply of which of the
following:
(a) Industrial alcohol (b) Works contract
(c) Petroleum (d) None of the above
C. Reverse Charge
10. What are the supplies on which reverse charge mechanism would apply at present?
(a) Notified categories of goods or services or both under section 9(3)
(b) Inward supply of goods or services or both from an unregistered dealer under section 9(4)
(c) Both the above
11. Which of the following services are covered under Reverse Charge Mechanism of CGST Act,
2017?
(i) Legal Consultancy (ii) Goods Transport Agency
(iii) Manpower Supply (iv) Rent-a-Cab
Manan Prakashan 13
(a) i & iii (b) i & iv
(c) i & ii (d) All the above
12. In case of sponsorship services provided by Mr. A to M/s AB Ltd., liability to pay GST is on:
(a) Mr. A (b) M/s AB Ltd.
(c) Both (d) None of the above
13. In case of renting of land, inside an Industrial estate, by State Government to a registered
manufacturing company, GST is:
(a) Exempted (b) Applicable under Normal Charge
(c) Applicable under Reverse Charge (d) None of the above
14. In case of services by an insurance agent to Ms. ABC Insurance Co. Ltd., GST is to be paid by:
(a) Insurance Agent (b) ABC Insurance Co. Ltd.
(c) Both (d) None of the above
15. Sitting fees received by director of XYZ Ltd., is liable for GST in the hands of the
(a) Director (b) XYZ Ltd.
(c) Both of above (d) None of the above
16. Services by a recovery agent to M/s ZZZ Bank Ltd., are liable for GST in the hands of:
(a) M/s ZZZ Bank Ltd. (b) Recovery agent
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above
17. In case of lottery procured from State Government by a lottery distributor, GST is payable by:
(a) Lottery distributor (b) State Government
(c) Both the above (d) None of the above
18. Reverse charge under section 9(3) of the CGST Act is applicable:
(a) Only on notified services (b) Only on notified goods
(c) On Notified goods & services (d) On None of the above
19. If Tobacco leaves procured from an Agriculturist by a registered person, then:
(a) Reverse charge is applicable (b) Normal charge is applicable
(c) Joint charge is applicable (d) None of the above
20. In case M/s. PQR Ltd., a registered person, has availed rent-a-cab service from M/s ABC Travels
(Proprietor) service then which one of the following is true:
(a) Reverse charge is applicable as this is a notified service
(b) Reverse charge is applicable if ABC Travels is not registered
(c) Joint charge is applicable
21. Reverse charge is applicable:
(a) Only on intra-State supplies (b) Only on inter-State supplies
(c) Both intra-State and inter-State supplies (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1. (c) 4. (c) 7. (b) 10. (a) 13. (c) 16. (a) 19. (a)
2. (c) 5. (c) 8. (c) 11. (c) 14. (b) 17. (a) 20. (b)
3. (d) 6. (b) 9. (c) 12. (b) 15. (b) 18. (c) 21. (c)
CHAPTER - 5 : COMPOSITION LEVY [S. 10]
1. Which of the following persons can opt for composition scheme?

(a) Person making any supply of goods which are not leviable to tax under this Act
(b) Person making any inter-State outward supplies of goods and services (except restaurant
services)
(c) Person effecting supply of goods through an e-commerce operator liable to collect tax at
source
(d) Person providing restaurant services
2. What is the threshold limit of turnover in the preceding financial year for opting to pay tax under
composition scheme for States other than special category States?
(a) ` 20 lacs (b) ` 10 lacs
(c) ` 50 lacs (d) ` 1.5 crore
composition scheme for special category states?
(a) ` 25 lacs (b) ` 50 lacs
(c) ` 75 lacs (d) ` 1 crore
4. What is the rate applicable under CGST to a registered person being a manufacturer opting to
pay taxes under composition scheme?
(a) 2.5% (b) 1%
(c) 0.5% (d) No composition for manufacturer
5. What is the rate applicable under CGST to a registered person being a hotelier (providing
restaurant and accommodation services) opting to pay taxes under composition scheme?
(a) 1% (b) 0.5%
(c) 2.5%
(d) Not eligible for composition scheme thus liable to pay normal tax
6. Mr. Richard, a trader in Delhi has opted for composition scheme of taxation under GST. Determine
the rate of total GST payable by him under composition scheme:
(a) 0.5% CGST & 0.5% SGST (b) 2.5% CGST & 2.5% UTGST
(c) 5% IGST (d) 5% UTGST
7. Can a registered person opt for composition scheme only for one out of his 3 business places
having same Permanent Account Number?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, subject to prior approval of the Central Government
(d) Yes, subject to prior approval of the concerned State Government
8. Can composition scheme be availed if the registered person effects inter-State supplies?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, subject to prior approval of the Central Government
(d) Yes, subject to prior approval of the concerned State Government
9. Can a registered person under composition scheme claim input tax credit?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Input tax credit on inward supply of goods only can be claimed
(d) Input tax credit on inward supply of services only can be claimed
10. Can a registered person opting for composition scheme collect tax on his outward supplies?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, if the amount of tax is prominently indicated in the invoice issued by him
(d) Yes, only on such goods as may be notified by the Central Government
Manan Prakashan 15
11. Which of the following will be excluded from the computation of ‘aggregate turnover’?
(a) Value of taxable supplies
(b) Value of exempt Supplies
(c) Non-taxable supplies
(d) Value of inward supplies on which tax is paid on reverse charge basis
12. What will happen if the turnover of a registered person opting to pay taxes under composition
scheme during the year 2019-20 crosses threshold limit?
(a) He can continue under composition scheme till the end of the financial year
(b) He will be liable to pay tax at normal rates of GST on the entire turnover for the financial year
2019-20
(c) He will cease to remain under the composition scheme with immediate effect
(d) He will cease to remain under the composition scheme from the quarter following the quarter
in which the aggregate turnover exceeds threshold limit
(a) Person making any supply of goods which are not leviable to tax under this Act;
(b) Person making any inter-State outward supplies of goods;
(c) Person effecting supply of goods through an e-commerce operator liable to collect tax at
source
(e) None of the above
composition scheme for a trader in Mumbai?
(a) ` 30 lacs (b) ` 10 lacs
(c) ` 150 lacs (d) ` 75 lacs
15. For certain Special category States, the reduced limit of ` 75 lakhs for opting composition scheme
is available. The reduced limit of ` 75 Lakhs is not available for?
(a) Manipur (b) Meghalaya
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu & Kashmir
16. ABC Ltd is manufacturer of goods opting for Composition Scheme has effected turnover of ` 60
Lakhs during the financial year 2019-20. The CGST portion for composition tax payable by ABC
Ltd is
(a) ` 30,000 (b) ` 60,000
(c) ` 30,000 (d) ` 1,50,000
17. GST Ltd. has business places at Lucknow, UP and Kanpur, UP having the same PAN; and
Aggregate Turnover in the financial year not exceeding ` 75 lakhs. Can it opt composition levy
for Lucknow and normal levy at Kanpur?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Up-to an Aggregate Turnover of ` 75 lakhs at Lucknow only
(d) Subject to the approval of GST Council
CHECK YOUR ANSWERS
1. (d) 4. (c) 7. (b) 10. (b) 13. (e) 16. (a)

2. (d) 5. (d) 8. (b) 11. (d) 14. (c) 17. (a)
3. (c) 6. (a) 9. (b) 12. (c) 15. (d)
CHAPTER - 6 : EXEMPTION FROM TAX [S. 11]
A. Exemption
1. Which one of the following is true?
(a) Entire income of any trust is exempted from GST
(b) Entire income of a registered trust is exempted from GST
(c) Incomes from specified/defined charitable activities of a trust are exempted from GST
(d) Incomes from specified/defined charitable activities of a registered trust (u/s 12AA of Income
Tax Act)are exempted from GST
2. Select the correct statement?
(a) Transfer of a going concern wholly is not exempt from GST
(b) Transfer of a going concern is partly exempt from GST
(c) Transfer partly as going concern is exempted from GST
(d) Transfer of a going concern is exempt from GST
3. Service by whom, by way of any activity in relation to any function entrusted to a municipality
under Article 243 W of the Constitution, is exempted?
(a) Central Government or State Government or Union territory or Local authority
(b) Governmental authority
(c) Municipality under Article 243 W of the Constitution
(d) All of above
4. Which is a wrong statement?
(a) All services of Department of Post are exempted
(b) All services by State/Central Governments/local authorities in relation to an aircraft or a
vessel in a Port or an Airport are exempted
(c) All services by State/Central Governments/local authorities in relation to transport of
passengers are exempted
(d) All the above mentioned
5. Services to a single residential unit is, exempted if:
(a) It is pure labour service only
(b) It is works contract only
(c) It is a part of residential complex only
(d) It is on ground floor without further super structure
6. Which exemption option is right from the following?
(a) For letting out any immovable property
(b) For letting out any residential dwelling for use as residence
(c) For letting out any residential property irrespective of its use
(d) For none of the above
7. Services by a hotel, inn, guest house, club or campsite are exempted for residential / lodging
purposes -
(a) If the actual tariff for a unit of accommodation is below ` 10,000
(b) If the actual tariff for a unit of accommodation is below ` 1,000
(c) If the actual tariff for a unit of accommodation is exactly ` 1,000
(d) If the actual tariff for a unit of accommodation is above ` 1,000
8. Transportation of passengers exempted if -
(a) It is by air-conditioned stage carriage
(b) It is by air-conditioned contract carriage
(c) It is by non-air-conditioned stage carriage for tourism, charter or hire
Manan Prakashan 17
9. Transportation of passengers is exempted -
(a) In an air-conditioned railway coach
(b) In a vessel for public tourism purpose between places in India
(c) In a metered cab/auto rickshaw / e rickshaw
(d) In all the above mentioned
10. Transportation of goods is not exempted if it is -
(a) by a goods transport agency / courier agency
(b) by inland waterways
(c) by an aircraft from a place outside India upto the customs station of clearance in India
(d) by all the above mentioned
11. Transportation of agricultural produces, milk, salt and food grain including flour, pulses and rice,
‘relief materials meant for victims of natural or man-made disasters, calamities, accidents or
mishap’, newspaper or magazines registered with the Registrar of Newspapers - is exempted –
(a) If it is by a goods transport agency
(b) If it is by a rail - within India
(c) If it is by a vessel - within India
(d) If it is by all of the above
12. Which of the following is exempted –
(a) Services by way of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing of rice
(b) Services by way of loading and unloading of jute
(c) Services by way of packing and storage or warehousing of rubber
13. Core services of which organization is not exempted -
(a) Services provided by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India to insurers
(b) Services provided by the Securities and Exchange Board of India set up under the Securities
and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992) by way of protecting the interests of
investors
(c) Services by Port Trusts
(d) Services by the Reserve Bank of India
14. If the aggregate turnover of in F.Y. 2018-19 of M/s ABCD Enterprises, Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu,
India was ` 18 lakh, exemption is available for the following services rendered to ABCD Enterprises
(a) Arbitral Tribunal services
(b) Legal services by firm of advocates
(c) Legal services by senior advocate
15. Which of the following is exempted?
(a) All kinds of long term (30 or more years) leases of industrial plots
(b) Long term (30 or more years) leases of industrial plots or plots for development of infrastructure
for financial business by State Government Industrial Development Corporations or
Undertakings to industrial units
(c) Short term (up to 30 years) leases of industrial plots by State Government Industrial
Development Corporations or Undertakings to industrial units
(d) All kinds of short term (up to 30 years) lease of industrial plots
16. One of the following is exempted from GST -
(a) Any business exhibition (b) A business exhibition in India
(c) A business exhibition outside India (d) None of the above
17. Which of the following is not exempted -?
(a) Health care service to human beings by authorized medical practitioners / para medics
(b) Health care services to Animals/Birds
(c) Slaughtering of animals
(d) Rearing horses
18. Services by educational institution is exempted if the services are to -
(a) Any common man (b) Its own students, faculty / staff
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
19. Services by a Non-Profit entity (Registered or Unregistered) are exempted -
(a) If they are to its own members provided the contribution received is up to ` 7500 , per month
from a member
(b) If they are to its own members, provided the contribution received is up to ` 7500 per month
from a member towards sourcing goods/services from any third person for common use of
members
(c) If they are to its own members, provided the contribution is less than ` 7500 per month from
a member towards sourcing goods/services from any third person for common use of members
(d) If they are to its own members, provided the contribution is up to ` 7500 per month per
member for common use specified members
20. Which of the following are exempted services?
(a) Services by an artist by way of a performance in folk or classical art forms of music/ dance /
theatre with consideration therefor not exceeding ` 1 lakh
(b) Services by an artist by way of a performance in folk or classical art forms of music/ dance
with consideration therefor not exceeding ` 1.5 lakh
(c) Services by an artist by way of a performance in folk or classical art forms of music/ dance /
theatre with consideration therefor not exceeding ` 1.5 lakh
(d) Services by an artist as a brand ambassador by way of a performance in folk or classical art
forms of music/ dance / theatre with consideration therefor not exceeding ` 1.5 lakh
21. Transportation of passengers by are exempt from GST..
(a) Railway in first class (b) Railway in an air-conditioned coach
(c) Metro (d) All of the above
22. Transportation of by a GTA in a goods carriage is exempt from GST..
(a) Agricultural produce (b) Organic manure
(c) Milk (d) All of the above
23. What of the following services provided to an educational institution – Debo Public School- are
exempt from GST?
(a) Transportation of staff of the school
(b) Cleaning of the school
(c) Services relating to conduct of higher secondary exams
24. Transportation of passengers by are exempt from GST..
(a) air conditioned stage carriage (b) radio taxi
(c) air, terminating in Nagaland airport (d) All of the above
25. Which of the following services provided by Department of Posts are exempt from GST?
(a) Speed posts (b) Life Insurance
(c) Express parcel posts (d) None of the above
26. Distribution of electricity by a distribution utility is a:
(a) Non-taxable supply (b) Exempt Supply
(c) Nil Rated Supply (d) Neither supply of goods nor supply of services
B. Exempt Supply [Section 2(47)]
27. An exempt supply includes
(a) Supply of goods or services or both which attracts Nil rate of tax
(b) Non-taxable supply
(c) Supply of goods or services or both which are wholly exempt from tax under Section 11 of the
CGST Act or under Section 6 of IGST Act
ANSWERS
1. (d) 5. (a) 9. (c) 13. (c) 17. (d) 21. (c) 25. (d)
2. (d) 6. (b) 10. (a) 14. (d) 18. (b) 22. (d) 26. (b)
3. (d) 7. (b) 11. (d) 15. (b) 19. (b) 23. (d) 27. (d)
4. (d) 8. (d) 12. (a) 16. (c) 20. (c) 24. (c)
Manan Prakashan 19
CHAPTER - 7 : TIME OF SUPPLY [S. 12-14]
[A] TIME OF SUPPLY OF GOODS (SECTION 12)
A.1 Forward Charge

1. What is time of supply of goods, in case of forward charge?
(a) Date of issue of invoice
(b) Due date of issue of invoice
(c) Date of receipt of consideration by the supplier
(d) Earlier of (a) & (b)
2. The date on which the supplier receives the payment shall be
(a) the date on which the payment is entered in his books of account
(b) the date on which the payment is credited to his bank account
(c) the date on which the payment is entered in his books of account or the date on which the
payment is credited to his bank account whichever is earlier
(d) the date on which the payment is entered in his books of account or the date on which the
payment is credited to his bank account whichever is later
3. Mr. A sold goods to Mr. B. Determine the TOS in accordance with the provisions of Section 12 of
the CGST Act, 2017 in case supply involves movement of goods.
Date of removal - 1st Oct. 2019
Date of Invoice - 2nd Oct. 2019
Date when goods made available to the recipient - 3rd Oct. 2019
Date of receipt of payment - 15th Nov. 2019
(a) 1st Oct. 2019 (b) 2nd Oct. 2019
(c) 3rd Oct. 2019 (d) 15th Nov. 2019
4. Mr.A sold goods to Mr. B. Determine the TOS in accordance with the provisions of Section 12 of
the CGST Act, 2017 in case supply involves movement of goods.
Date of removal - 3rd Oct. 2019
Date of Invoice - 1st Oct. 2019
Date when goods made available to the recipient - 4th Oct. 2019
(a) 3rd Oct. 2019 (b) 1st Oct. 2019
(c) 4th Oct. 2019 (d) 25th Nov. 2019
5. Determine the Time of supply in accordance with provisions of Section 12 of the CGST Act,
2017 in case supply involves movement of goods.
Date of Invoice : 02-10-2019
Date goods made available to recipient : 03-10-2019
Date of receipt of payment : 15-11-2019
(a) Date of Invoice : 02-10-2019
(b) Date goods made available to recipient : 03-10-2019
(c) Date of receipt of payment : 15-11-2019
Date of Removal of goods : 03-10-2019
(a) Date of Removal of goods : 03-10-2019
(b) Date of Invoice : 01-10-2019
(c) Date goods made available to recipient : 04-10-2019
(d) Date of receipt of payment : 25-11-2019
Date of Removal of goods : 05-11-2019
(a) Date of Removal of goods : 05-11-2019
(b) Date of Invoice : 04-11-2019
(c) Date goods made available to recipient : 06-11-2019
(d) Date of receipt of payment : 01-10-2019
8. Mr. A sold goods to Mr. B. Determine the TOS in accordance with the provisions of Section 12 of
the CGST Act, 2017 in case supply does not involve movement of goods.
Date of delivery - 2nd Oct. 2019 (Date when the goods made available to the recipient)
Date of Invoice - 3rd Oct. 2019
(a) 2nd Oct. 2019 (b) 3rd Oct. 2019
(c) 15th Nov. 2019 (d) 1st Nov. 2019
9. Determine the Time of supply in case goods are supplied on approval basis
Removal of goods : 01-12-2019
Issue of Invoice : 15-12-2019
Accepted by recipient : 05-12-2019
Receipt of payment : 25-12-2019
(a) Removal of goods : 01-12-2019 (b) Issue of Invoice : 15-12-2019
(c) Accepted by recipient : 05-12-2019 (d) Receipt of payment : 25-12-2019
10. Where the supplier of taxable goods receives an amount upto in excess of the amount
indicated in the tax invoice, the time of supply to the extent of such excess amount shall, at the
option of the said supplier, be the date of issue of invoice in respect of such excess amount.
(a) 1,000 (b) 5,000
(c) 10,000 (d) 50,000
11. The time of supply to the extent it relates to an addition in the value of supply by way of interest,
late fee or penalty for delayed payment of any consideration shall be the date on which
(a) The supplier receives such addition in value
(b) The original invoice was issued
(c) The supplier issues revised invoice
(d) The original payment was received
A.2 Tax Invoice
12. Tax invoice must be issued by on supplies made by him.
(a) Every supplier
(b) Every taxable person
(c) Every Registered person not paying tax under composition scheme
(d) All the above
13. An invoice must be issued
(a) At the time of removal of goods
(b) On transfer of risks and rewards of the goods to the recipient
(c) On receipt of payment for the supply
14. In case of goods sent on sale on approval basis, invoice has to be issued
(a) While sending the goods; another Invoice has to be issued by the recipient while rejecting
the goods
(b) When the recipient accepts the goods or ten months from the date of supply whichever is
earlier
Manan Prakashan 21
(c) When the recipient accepts the goods or six months from the date of supply whichever is
earlier
(d) When the recipient accepts the goods or three months from the date of supply whichever is
earlier
15. Where the goods being sent or taken on approval for sale or return are removed before the
supply takes place, the invoice shall be issued
(a) before/at the time of supply (b) 6 months from the date of removal
(c) earlier of (a) or (b) (d) none of the above
16. GST a dealer has sent some goods to CST, another dealer, for Sales on Approval Basis. In
absence of any confirmation even after 6 months, it will be treated as
(a) Sales Return (b) Deemed Supply of Goods
(c) Purchase return (d) None of the Above
A.3 Reverse Charge
17. What is time of supply of goods liable to tax under reverse charge mechanism?
(a) Date of receipt of goods
(b) Date on which the payment is made
(c) Date immediately following 30 days from the date of issue of invoice by the supplier
(d) Earlier of (a) or (b) or (c)
2017 in case recipient of goods is liable to pay tax under reverse charge mechanism.
Date of receipt of goods : 15-10-2019
Date of payment in books : 10-10-2019
Date of debit of payment in Bank A/c : 12-10-2019
(a) Date of Invoice : 01-10-2019 (b) Date of receipt of goods : 15-10-2019
(c) Date of payment in books : 10-10-2019
(d) Date of debit of payment in Bank A/c : 12-10-2019
A.4 Vouchers
19. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to the voucher is identifiable?
(a) Date of issue of voucher (b) Date of redemption of voucher
(c) Earlier of (a) and (b) (d) (a) and (b) whichever is later
20. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to the voucher is not
identifiable?
21. What is date of receipt of payment?
(a) Date of entry in the books
(b) Date of payment credited into bank account
(c) Date of deposit of cheque into bank account
(d) Earlier of (a) and (b)
22. XYZ Ltd. has purchased for its employees 100 vouchers dated 24-02-2019 worth 1,000 each
from ABC Ltd. a footwear manufacturing company. The vouchers were issued by ABC Ltd. on
25-02-2019. The vouchers can be encashed at retail outlets of ABC Ltd. The same were given to
employees on 26-02-2019. The employees of XYZ Ltd. encashed the same on 01-03-2019.
Determine time of supply of vouchers.
(a) 24-02-2019 (b) 25-02-2019
(c) 26-02-2019 (d) 01-03-2019
[B] TIME OF SUPPLY OF SERVICES (SECTION 13)
B.1 Forward Charge

23. What is the time of supply of service if the invoice is issued within 30 days from the date of
provision of service?
(a) Date of issue of invoice (b) Date on which the supplier receives payment
(c) Date of provision of service (d) Earlier of (a) and (b)
24. What is the time of supply of service if the invoice is issued within 30 days from the date of
supply of service?
(a) Date of issue of invoice by the supplier
(b) Date of receipt of payment or date of issue of invoice whichever is later
(c) Date of receipt of payment by the supplier
(d) Date of receipt of payment or date of issue of invoice whichever is earlier
25. What is the time of supply of service if the invoice is not issued within 30 days from the date of
supply of service and no advance payments are received?
(a) Date of issue of invoice by the supplier
(b) Date of completion of supply of service
(c) Date of receipt of payment by the supplier
(d) Date of receipt of payment or date of issue of invoice whichever is earlier
26. What is the time of supply of service for the supply of taxable services up to ` 1000 in excess of
the amount indicated in the taxable invoice?
(a) At the option of the supplier – Invoice date or Date of receipt of consideration
(b) Date of issue of invoice
(c) Date of receipt of consideration
(d) Date of entry in books of account
27. How is the date of receipt of consideration by the supplier determined?
(a) Date on which the receipt of payment is entered in the books of account
(b) Date on which the receipt of payment is credited in the bank account
(c) Earlier of (a) and (b)
(d) (a) and (b) whichever is later
28. Value of services rendered is ` 1,18,000. Date of issue of invoice is 5th Sept. 2019. Advance
received is ` 20,000 on 20th August 2018. Balance amount received on 7th Sept. 2019. What is
the TOS of service?
(a) 5th Sept. 2019 - ` 1,18,000
(b) 20th August 2019 - ` 1,18,000
(c) 20th August 2019 - ` 20,000 and 5th Sept. 2019 - ` 98,000
(d) 20th August 2019 - ` 20,000 and 7th Sept. 2019 - ` 98,000
29. Determine the TOS in accordance with provisions of CGST Act, 2017.
Date of actual supply of service - 10th Nov. 2019
Date of Invoice - 30th Nov. 2019
Date on which payment received - 15th Dec. 2019
(a) 10th Nov. 2019 (b) 30th Nov. 2019
(c) 15th Nov. 2019 (d) 10th Dec. 2019
30. Determine the TOS in accordance with provisions of CGST Act, 2017
Date of Invoice - 30th Nov. 2019
Date on which payment received - 15th Nov. 2019
(a) 10th Nov. 2019 (b) 30th Nov. 2019
(c) 15th Nov. 2019 (d) 10th Dec. 2019
Date of Invoice - 12th Dec. 2019
Date on which payment received - 30th April 2020
(a) 10th Nov. 2019 (b) 12th Dec. 2019
(c) 30th April 2020 (d) 10th Dec. 2019
Date of Invoice - 22th Dec. 2019
Date on which payment received - 12th Dec. 2019
(a) 10th Nov. 2019 (b) 22th Dec. 2019
(c) 12th Dec. 2019 (d) 10th Dec. 2019
Manan Prakashan 23
33. From the following information determine the reverse charge basis.
Date of completion of service : 30-1-2019
Date of payment by recipient : 10-2-2019
Entry for receipt of service in recipient’s books : 12-2-2019
(a) Date of Invoice : 30-1-2019
(b) Date of payment by recipient : 10-2-2019
(c) Entry for receipt of service in recipient’s books : 12-2-2019
B.2 Tax Invoice
34. If Supply of Services has ceased under a contract before the completion of supply:
(a) Invoice has to be issued within 30 days from the date of cessation
(b) Invoice has to be issued at the time of cessation to the extent of the supply effected
(c) Invoice has to be issued for the full value of the contract after deducting a percentage thereof
as prescribed
35. The tax invoice should be issued the date of supply of service.
(a) Within 30 days from (b) Within 2 months from
(c) Within 15 days from (d) On
36. In case of taxable supply of services, invoice shall be issued within a period of from the
date of supply of service.
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days
(c) 60 days (d) 90 days
37. Continuous supply of services” means a supply of services who provided, or agreed to be provided,
continuously or on recurrent basis, under a contract, for a period exceeding MONTHS
with periodic payment obligations and includes supply of such services as the Government may,
subject to such conditions, as it may, by notification, specify
(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Six (d) Twelve
38. In case of continuous supply of services, where due date of payment is ascertainable from the
contract, invoice shall be issued
(a) before or at the time when the supplier of service receives the payment
(b) on or before the due date of payment
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
39. In case of continuous supply of services, where due date of payment is not ascertainable from
the contract, invoice shall be issued
(a) before or at the time when the supplier of service receives the payment
(b) on or before the due date of payment
(c) either (a) or (b)
40. Minimum Service periods required to constitute a continuous supply of services with periodic
payment
(a) Exceeding 6 months (b) 6 months
(c) Exceeding 3 months (d) 3 months
B.3 Reverse Charge
41. What is the time of supply of service in case of reverse charge mechanism?
(a) Date of payment as entered in the books of account of the recipient
(b) Date immediately following 60 days from the date of issue of invoice
(c) Date of invoice
(d) Earlier of (a) and (b)
42. From the following information determine the TOS of goods where goods are taxed on reverse
charge basis
Date of issue of invoice by the supplier - 30th Nov. 2019
Date of receipt of goods - 30th Nov. 2019
Date of payment by the recipient - 10th Dec. 2019
Entry of receipt of services in the recipient’s BOA - 12th Dec. 2019
(a) 30th Nov. 2019 (b) 10th Dec. 2019
(c) 12th Dec. 2019 (d) 30th Dec. 2019
43. From the following information determine the reverse charge basis.
Date of completion of service : 30-1-2019
Date of payment by recipient : 15-1-2019
Entry for receipt of service in recipient’s books : 30-1-2019
(a) Date of Invoice : 30-1-2019 (b) Date of payment by recipient : 15-1-2019
(c) Either of the above (d) None of the above
B.4 Associates
44. What is the time of supply of service in case an associated enterprise receives services from the
service provider located outside India?
(a) Date of entry in the books of account of associated enterprise (recipient)
(b) Date of payment
(c) Earlier of (a) and (b)
(d) Date of entry in the books of the supplier of service
45. A Ltd. is located in India and W Ltd. located in USA are associated enterprises (as A Ltd. holds
51% of the shares of W Ltd.). W Ltd. provides some technical services to A Ltd. in India.
From the following details, determine the TOS for A Ltd. (as importation of services is the case of
RCM) Agreed Consideration - $ 10,000.
Date on which services are supplied on W Ltd. - 16th Dec. 2019
Date on which invoice is sent by W Ltd. - 19th Dec. 2019
Date of entry in the Books of Account of A Ltd. - 30th Dec. 2019
Date on which payment is made by A Ltd. - 23rd March 2020
(a) 16th Dec. 2019 (b) 19th Dec. 2019
(c) 30th Dec. 2019 (d) 23rd March 2020
B.5 Vouchers
46. What is the time of supply of vouchers in respect of services when the supply with respect to the
voucher is identifiable?
47. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to the voucher is not
identifiable?
[C] CHANGE IN RATE OF TAX (SECTION 14)
48. There was increase in tax rate from 20% to 24% w.e.f. 1.09.2019. Which of the following rate is
applicable when services are provided after change in rate of tax in September 2019, but invoice
issued and payment received, both in August, 2019 :
(a) 20% as it is lower of the two
(b) 24% as it is higher of the two
(c) 20% as invoice and payment were received prior to rate change
(d) 24% as the supply was completed after rate change
applicable when services provided, and invoice raised after change in rate of tax in September,
2019, but payment received in August 2019 :
Manan Prakashan 25
(c) 20% as payment (being one of the factors) was prior to rate change
(d) 24% as invoice was issued in the period during which supply is completed
applicable if the supplier has opted for composition levy and invoice was issued after change in
rate of tax in September, 2019 but payment received, and goods supplied in August, 2019 :
(c) 20% as payment was received in the period during which the supply was effected
(d) 24% as invoice being one of the factors was issued after rate change
ANSWERS
1. (d) 9. (b) 17. (d) 25. (b) 33. (b) 41. (d) 49. (d)
2. (c) 10. (a) 18. (a) 26. (a) 34. (b) 42. (a) 50. (c)
3. (a) 11. (a) 19. (a) 27. (c) 35. (a) 43. (b)
4. (b) 12. (c) 20. (b) 28. (c) 36. (a) 44. (c)
5. (a) 13. (a) 21. (d) 29. (b) 37. (a) 45. (c)
6. (b) 14. (c) 22. (b) 30. (c) 38. (b) 46. (a)
7. (b) 15. (c) 23. (d) 31. (a) 39. (a) 47. (b)
8. (a) 16. (b) 24. (d) 32. (a) 40. (c) 48. (c)
CHAPTER - 8 : NATURE AND PLACE OF SUPPLY

[S. 7 - 13 : IGST ACT]
A. Inter-State, Intra-State Supply

1. Which of the following is an inter-State supply?
(a) Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods is to an SEZ located in Delhi
(b) Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods in Jaipur
(c) Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods is to an SEZ located in
Chandigarh
(d) All the above
2. Which of the following is an intrastate supply?
(a) Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods SEZ located in Delhi
(b) Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods in Jaipur
(c) Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods in Delhi
(d) All the above
3. Which of the following transaction is inter-state supply of goods?
(a) Location of supplier is in Lucknow, UP and location of recipient is in Mumbai.
(b) Location of supplier is in Lucknow, UP and place of supply is Mumbai
(c) Location of supplier and place of supply is Lucknow, UP
4. Which of the following transaction is inter-state supply of goods involving movement of goods?
(1) Location of supplier is in Bangalore and location of recipient is in Mumbai and goods are
shipped to Kolkata
(2) Location of supplier is in Bangalore and place of supply is Mumbai
(3) Location of supplier and place of supply is Bangalore
(4) None of the above
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 4
5. Supply of goods in the course of import into the territory of India is
(a) Intrastate supply (b) Inter-State supply
(c) Export (d) Neither Export nor Import
6. Place of supply of a transaction in territorial waters is
(a) Location of the supplier
(b) Location of the recipient
(c) Coastal state where the nearest point of the appropriate baseline is located
7. is levied on inter-state supply of goods and services.
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) IGST (d) Both (a) and (b)
8. IGST means
(a) Inter-state GST (b) Integrated GST
(c) Import GST (d) International GST
9. supply shall attract IGST..
(a) Intra-State (b) Inter-State
(c) Intra state and inter-state (d) Local
10. Unless and until notified, IGST shall not be levied on the inter-State supply of which of the
following.
(a) Industrial alcohol (b) Works contract
(c) Petroleum (d) None of the above
Manan Prakashan 27
11. What is rate of tax of IGST?
(a) CGST rate (b) SGST rate
(c) CGST + SGST rate (d) VAT rate
12. is levied on imports of goods and services.
(a) SGST (b) CGST
(c) IGST (d) VAT
13. Import/Export is treated as in GST..
(a) Intra-state supply (b) Inter-state supply
(c) Non-taxable supply (d) Exempted supply
14. “Inter-State supplies” means
(a) Any supply where the location of the supplier and the place of supply are in the same state
(b) Any supply where the location of supplier and the place of supply are in the different states
(c) Any supply where location of the supplier and place of supply are outside the country
(d) None of these
15. “Import of services” means the supply of any service, where -
(a) The supplier of service is located outside India
(b) The recipient of service is located in India
(c) The place of supply of service is in India
16. Zero rated supply includes
(a) Export of goods or/and services
(b) Supply of goods or/and services to a SEZ developer or SEZ Unit
(c) Supply of goods or/and services by a SEZ developer or SEZ Unit
(d) Both (a) and (b)
17. The supply of goods to SEZ unit is treated as in the hands of the supplier for eligibility of
ITC.
(a) Exempt Supply (b) Deemed Taxable Supply
(c) Export of Supplies (d) Non-taxable supply
B. POS of Goods : Within India
18. Place of supply in case of installation of elevator is
(a) Where the movement of elevator commences from the supplier’s place
(b) Where the delivery of elevator is taken
(c) Where the installation of elevator is made
(d) Where address of the recipient is mentioned in the invoice
19. Place of supply of food taken on board at Delhi for an aircraft departing from Delhi to Bangalore
via Hyderabad is
(a) Address of the aircraft carrier mentioned on the invoice of the supplier
(b) Delhi
(c) Jaipur
(d) Hyderabad
20. What is location of supply in case of importation of goods?
(a) Customs port where the goods are cleared
(b) Location of the importer
(c) Place where the goods are delivered after clearance from customs port
(d) Owner of the goods
21. Place of supply of goods, other than supply of goods imported into, or exported from India, when
supply involves movement of goods is the
(a) Location of the goods at the time at which the movement terminates for delivery
(b) Location of the goods at the time at which the movement starts for delivery
(c) Location of the principal place of business of the recipient
(d) Location of the principal place of business of the supplier
22. Place of supply of goods, other than supply of goods imported into, or exported from India, when
supply does not involve movement of goods is the
(b) Location of the goods at the time of the delivery to the recipient
(c) Location of the goods at the time of purchase order
(d) Location of the recipient
23. Place of supply of goods, other than supply of goods imported into, or exported from India,
where the goods are assembled or installed is the
(a) Location of the agent of the recipient (b) Location of the recipient
(c) Location of the supplier (d) Place of the such assembly or installation
24. Place of supply of goods, other than supply of goods imported into, or exported from India,
where the goods are supplied on board a conveyance such as vessel, an aircraft, a train or
motor vehicle is the
(a) Location of the recipient
(b) Location of the supplier
(c) Location at which such goods are taken on board
25. Where will be the place of supply when the goods are supplied on the direction of the third
party?
(a) Location of the supplier (b) Location of the recipient
(c) Location of the third party (d) Any of the above
26. Where will be the place of supply of goods supplied in a train which is heading towards Delhi
from Chennai, if the goods are taken on board at Coimbatore?
(a) Delhi (b) Chennai
(c) Coimbatore (d) None of the above
27. In case of any ambiguity where the place of supply cannot be determined as provided in IGST
Act, 2016 who will determine place of supply?
(a) Central Government or State Government on the recommendation of the Council
(b) Central Government and State Government on the recommendation of the Council
(c) In a manner as may be prescribed
(d) Central Government
C. POS : Imports / Exports
28. The place of supply of goods imported into India shall be the
(a) Location of the importer (b) Location of the exporter
(c) Location of the agent of exporter (d) None of the above
29. The place of supply of goods exported from India shall be the
(a) Location of the importer (b) Location of the exporter
(c) Location of the agent of exporter (d) Location outside India
D. POS : Services
30. Real estate agent in Delhi charges brokerage fee to Company A located in Chandigarh for
assistance in getting a commercial property in Kolkata. Which is the place of supply in this case?
(a) Delhi (b) Chandigarh
(c) Kolkata (d) None of the above
31. What is the place of supply of service where a restaurant provides catering service at the premise
of the customer?
(a) Address of the restaurant from where the food is supplied
(b) Customer premise where catering service is provided
32. Mr. X a resident from Pune conducts training for employees of P Ltd. being a registered person
under GST based out in Chennai at a resort in Darjeeling. The place of supply in this case is:
(a) Chennai (b) Pune
(c) Darjeeling (d) None of the above
Manan Prakashan 29
33. If XYZ Ltd a company based out of Bangalore, awards online maintenance contract of its servers
located in Mumbai office to Y INC, a company based out of USA, and as per the terms of the
online maintenance Y INC shall be required to perform regular maintenance from USA using
Internet, then the place of supply is
(a) Bangalore (b) Mumbai
(c) USA (d) None of the above
34. Mr. Y residing in Ahmedabad appoints an architect in Delhi to provide Indian traditional home
design for his proposed construction at Los Angeles, the place of supply of service is
(a) Los Angeles (b) Ahmedabad
(c) Delhi (d) None of the above
35. If NM shipping Co. located in Chennai charges ocean freight charges for transport of goods to
California for a customer located in Bangalore, the place of supply of service will be
(a) Chennai (b) California
(c) Bangalore (d) None of the above
36. The default rule of place of supply of services made to a registered person shall be the
(a) Location of the registered person (b) Location of the service provider
(c) Location where the service is provided (d) Any of the above
37. The default rule of place of supply of services made to any person other than a registered
person if address on record exist shall be the
(a) Location where service is rendered (b) Location of the service provider
(c) Location of the recipient (d) Any of the above
38. The default rule of place of supply of services made to any person other than a registered
person if address on record doesn’t exist shall be the
(a) Location where service is rendered (b) Location of the service provider
(c) Location of the recipient (d) Any of the above
39. Place of supply of services of architects in relation to the design of office building shall be the
(a) Location of the supplier (b) Location of the recipient
(c) Location of such office building (d) Any of the above
40. Place of supply of services in relation to lodging accommodation shall be the
(c) Location at which the lodging accommodation is located
(d) Any of the above
41. ABC Ltd of Delhi has entered into a contract with KSM Training Ltd. of Mumbai for training and
performance appraisal of its employees. The services were performed at Nainital Training Centre
of KSM Training Ltd. Determine the place of supply of services in case ABC Ltd is not registered.
(a) Mumbai (b) Nainital
(c) Delhi (d) Any of the above
42. The place of supply of services provided by way of admission to a cultural, artistic, sporting,
scientific, educational, entertainment event or amusement park or any other place and services
ancillary thereto shall be the
(a) Place where the event is actually held (b) Location of the supplier of service
(c) Location of the recipient of service (d) Any of the above
43. The place of supply of services provided by way of transportation of goods, including by mail or
courier, to a person other than a registered person, shall be the
(a) Place at which such goods are handed over for their transportation
(b) Location of the supplier of service
(c) Location of the recipient of service
44. Place of supply of services in relation to mobile connection for pre-paid customers other than
through internet banking shall be the
(a) Location where such prepayment is received as such vouchers are sold
(b) Location of the supplier of service
(c) Location of the recipient of service
45. The place of supply of passenger transportation services to a person other than a registered
person, shall be the
(a) Location of the supplier of service
(b) Place where the passenger embarks on the conveyance for a continuous journey
(c) Place of destination of the journey
46. The place of supply of services on board a conveyance, including a vessel, an aircraft, a train or
a motor vehicle shall be the
(a) Location of the supplier of service
(b) Place where the passenger embarks on the conveyance for a continuous journey
(c) Location of the first scheduled point of departure of that conveyance for the journey
(d) Place of destination of journey
47. The place of supply of insurance services to a registered person, shall be the
(c) Location where the services are performed
ANSWERS
1. (d) 8. (b) 15. (d) 22. (b) 29. (d) 36. (a) 43. (a)
2. (c) 9. (b) 16. (d) 23. (d) 30. (c) 37. (c) 44. (a)
3. (b) 10. (c) 17. (b) 24. (c) 31. (b) 38. (b) 45. (b)
4. (a) 11. (c) 18. (c) 25. (c) 32. (a) 39. (c) 46. (c)
5. (b) 12. (c) 19. (b) 26. (c) 33. (b) 40. (c) 47. (b)
6. (c) 13. (b) 20. (b) 27. (c) 34. (a) 41. (b)
7. (c) 14. (b) 21. (a) 28. (a) 35. (b) 42. (a)
Manan Prakashan 31
CHAPTER - 9 : VALUE OF SUPPLY [S. 15]
A. Transaction Value [S. 15(1)]

1. The value of supply of goods and services shall be the
(a) Transaction value (b) MRP
(c) Market Value (d) None of above
(a) Transaction value (b) Retail sale price
(c) Wholesale price (d) None of above
3. When can the transaction value be rejected for computation of value of supply
(a) When the buyer and seller are related and price is not the sole consideration
(b) When the buyer and seller are related or price is not the sole consideration
(c) It can never be rejected
(d) When the goods are sold at very low margins
4. If the goods are supplied to related persons then how should the taxable person ascertain the
value of supplies?
(a) Seek the help of the GST officer
(b) Use the arm’s length price as required under the Income Tax law
(c) Refer the Rules which prescribed for this purpose
5. Persons shall be deemed to be “related persons” if any person directly or indirectly owns, controls
or holds or more of the outstanding voting stock or shares of both of them;
(a) 25% (b) 26%
(c) 51% (d) 0%
6. Persons shall be deemed to be “related persons” if
(a) such persons are officers or directors of one another’s businesses
(b) such persons are legally recognised partners in business
(c) such persons are employer and employee;
B. Inclusions [S. 15(2)]

7. The value of supply should include
(a) Any non-GST taxes, duties, cesses, fees charged by supplier separately
(b) Interest, late fee or penalty for delayed payment of any consideration for any supply of goods
or services
(c) Subsidies directly linked to the price except subsidies provided by the Central and State
Government
8. Which of the following shall not be included in value of supply?
(a) GST (b) Interest
(c) Late fee (d) Commission
9. The value of taxable supply should not include -
(a) Taxes levied under SGST Act, 2017
(b) Taxes levied under CGST Act, 2017
(c) Taxes levied under GST Compensation Cess Act, 2017
10. Interest or late fee or penalty for delayed payment of any consideration for any supply
(a) Shall be excluded from the value of taxable supply
(b) Shall be included from the value of taxable supply
(c) Shall require no adjustment
(d) Can be included or excluded from the value of the taxable supply
11. Subsidies provided by the Central / State Govt.
(a) Shall be excluded from the value of taxable supply
(b) Shall be included from the value of taxable supply
(c) Shall require no adjustment
(d) Can be included or excluded from the value of the taxable supply
12. The value of supply should include -
(a) Incidental expenses, including commission and packing, charged by the supplier to the
recipient of a supply
(b) Interest, late fee or penalty for delayed payment of any consideration for any supply
(c) Subsidies directly linked to the price except subsidies provided by the Central and State
Government
13. From the following information determine the value of taxable supply as per provisions of Section
15 of the CGST Act, 2017?
Contracted value of supply of goods (including GST @ 18%) 11,80,000
The contracted value of supply includes the following:
(1) Cost of primary packing 25,000
(2) Cost of protective packing at recipient’s request for safe transportation 15,000
(a) 10,00,000 (b) 11,80,000
(c) 11,55,000 (d) 11,40,000
14. From the following information determine the value of taxable supply as per provisions of Section
15 of the CGST Act, 2017?
Price (including GST @18%) 11,00,000
Other information :
(i) Commission paid to agent by recipient on instruction
of supplier not included in Price 5,000
(ii) Freight and insurance charges paid by recipient on
behalf of supplier not included in Price 75,000
(a) 11,00,000 (b) 11,80,000
(c) 10,00,000 (d) 11,75,000
C. Discount [S.15(3)]
15. What deductions are allowed from the transaction value
(a) Discounts offered to customers, subject to conditions
(b) Packing Charges, subject to conditions
(c) Amount paid by customer on behalf of the supplier, subject to conditions
(d) Freight charges incurred by the supplier for CIF terms of supply, subject to conditions
16. Discount given after the supply is deducted from the value of taxable supply, if –
(a) such discount is given as per the agreement entered into at/or before the supply
(b) such discount is linked to the relevant invoices
(c) proportionate input tax credit is reversed by the recipient of supply
(d) all of the above
17. When deductions are allowed from the Transaction Value?
(a) Discount offered to customers subject to conditions
(b) Freight charges
(c) Incidental expenses
(d) Amount paid by customer on behalf of the supplier.
Manan Prakashan 33
18. Determine the value of taxable supply as per Section 15 of the CGST Act; 2017 :
Contracted sale price of goods (including CGST and SGST @5%) 10,56,000
The contracted sale price includes the following elements of cost:
(i) Cost of drawings and design 5,000
(ii) Cost of primary packing 2,000
(iii) Cost of packing at buyer’s request 4,000
(iv) Fright and insurance from ‘place of removal’ to buyer’s premises 43,000
A discount of 6,000 was given by the supplier at the time of supply of goods. CGST and SGST is
levied @ 5%.
(a) 10,56,000 (b) 10,50,000
(c) 10,00,000 (d) 11,10,000
ANSWERS
1. (a) 4. (c) 7. (d) 10. (b) 13. (a) 16. (d)

2. (a) 5. (a) 8. (a) 11. (a) 14. (c) 17. (a)
3. (b) 6. (d) 9. (d) 12. (d) 15. (a) 18. (c)
CHAPTER - 10 : INPUT TAX CREDIT [S. 16, 18]
1. Whether definition of Inputs includes capital goods.

(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Certain capital goods only (d) None of the above
2. Is it mandatory to capitalize the capital goods in books of Accounts?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Optional (d) None of the above
3. Whether credit on capital goods can be taken immediately on receipt of the goods?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) After usage of such capital goods (d) After capitalizing in books of Accounts
4. The term “used in the course or furtherance of business” means?
(a) It should be directly co-related to output supply
(b) It is planned to use in the course of business
(c) It is used or intended to be used in the course of business
(d) It is used in the course of business for making outward supply
5. Under section 16(2) of CGST Act how many conditions are to be fulfilled for the entitlement of
credit?
(a) All four conditions (b) Any two conditions
(c) Conditions not specified (d) None of the above
6. Whether credit on inputs should be availed based on receipt of documents or receipt of goods
(a) Receipt of goods (b) Receipt of Documents
(c) Both (d) Either receipt of documents or Receipt of goods
7. In case supplier has deposited the taxes but the receiver has not received the documents, is
receiver entitled to avail credit?
(a) Yes, it will be auto populated in recipient monthly returns
(b) No as one of the conditions of 16(2) is not fulfilled
(c) Yes, if the receiver can prove later that documents are received subsequently
8. Input tax credit on capital goods and Inputs can be availed in one installment or in multiple
installments?
(a) In thirty-six installments (b) In twelve installments
(c) In one installment (d) In six installments
9. The tax paying documents in section 16(2) is
(a) Bill of entry, Invoice raised on RCM supplies, etc.
(b) Acknowledged copy of tax paid to department
(c) Supply invoice by the recipient
10. The time limit to pay the value of supply with taxes to avail the input tax credit?
(a) Three months (b) Six Months
(c) One hundred and eighty days (d) Till the date of filing of Annual Return
11. What is the time limit for taking input tax credit by a registered taxable person?
(a) No time limit
(b) 1 year from the date of invoice
(c) Due date of furnishing of the return under section 39 for the month of September following
the end of financial year to which such invoice or invoice relating to such debit note pertains
(d) Due date of furnishing of the return under section 39 for the month of September following
the end of financial year to which such invoice or invoice relating to such debit note pertains
or furnishing of the relevant annual return, whichever is earlier
Manan Prakashan 35
12. Can the recipient avail the Input tax credit for the part payment of the amount to the supplier
within one hundred and eighty days?
(a) Yes, on full tax amount and partly value amount
(b) No, he can’t until full amount is paid to supplier
(c) Yes, but proportionately to the extent of value and tax paid
13. Whether credit can be availed without actual receipt of goods where goods are transferred
through transfer of document of title before or during the movement of goods?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, in specific instances
(d) Can be availed only after transfer of document of title after movement of goods
14. Whether depreciation on tax component of capital goods and Plant and Machinery and whether
input tax credit is Permissible?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Input tax credit is eligible if depreciation on tax component is not availed
15. What is the maximum time limit to claim the Input tax credit?
(a) Till the date of filing annual return
(b) Due date of September month which is following the financial year
(c) Earliest of (a) or (b)
(d) Later of (a) or (b)
16. An assessee obtains new registration, voluntary registration, change of scheme from composition
to regular scheme and from exempted goods/ services to taxable goods/services. It can avail
credit on inputs lying in stock. What is the time limit for taking said credit?
(a) 1 year from the date of invoice (b) 3 years from the date of invoice
(c) 5 years from the date of invoice (d) None of the above
17. Credit on Input services or capital goods held in stock can be availed in case of new Registration/
Voluntary Registration
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Yes, on Input services only (d) Yes, on capital goods only
18. In case of Compulsory registration, input tax credit can be availed on
(a) stocks held on the day immediately preceding the date from which he becomes liable to pay
tax under the provisions of this Act, provided application for registration is filed within 30
days from the due date
(b) stocks held on the day immediately preceding the date of grant of registration under the
provisions of this Act
(c) stocks held on the day immediately preceding the date of application of registration under
the provisions of this Act
19. In case of Voluntary registration input tax credit can be availed
(a) on stocks held on the day immediately preceding the date from which he becomes liable to
pay tax under the provisions of this Act
(b) on stocks held on the day immediately preceding the date of grant of registration under the
provisions of this Act
(c) on stocks held on the day immediately preceding the date of application of registration under
the provisions of this Act
20. Eligibility of credit on capital goods in case of change of scheme from Composition scheme to
Regular scheme
(a) Eligible during application for Regular scheme
(b) Not eligible
(c) Yes, immediately before the date from which he becomes liable to pay tax under the Regular
scheme
21. Can the unutilized input tax credit be transferred in case of change in constitution of business?
(a) Not possible
(b) No, it will be exhausted
(c) Yes, it will be transferred only if there is provision for transfer of liabilities
(d) It will be transferred only if it is shown in books of Accounts of transferror
22. Is Input tax fully restricted in case of switchover from taxable to exempt supplies
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Proportionately restricted (d) Not restricted
23. Is Input tax to be paid in case of switchover from taxable to exempt supplies
(a) Yes, equivalent to the credit in respect of inputs held in stock (including semi- finished and
finished goods) and on capital goods held in stock
(b) No
(c) Yes, full credit
(d) No, should be debited to electronic credit ledger
24. Is Input tax to be reversed in case of supply of capital goods
(a) Yes fully
(b) No
(c) Yes, to extent of credit taken as reduced by prescribed percentage or tax on transaction
value whichever is higher
(d) Yes, to the extent of transaction value of such goods
25. ITC can be taken on goods if goods not received by registered person but
(a) By his agent on his direction (b) By the job worker on his instruction
(c) By any other person on his direction (d) Any of above
26. ITC can be availed on
(a) Possession of prescribed invoice/ debit note
(b) Receipt of goods/services
(c) Tax on such supply has been paid to government and return being furnished by the supplier
(d) Fulfilling all the above conditions
27. Maximum time limit for availing ITC is
(a) The date of filing of annual return
(b) Due date of filing return u/s 39 for the month of September
(c) Earliest of above two
(d) Later of above two
28. ITC can be claimed by a registered person for
(a) Taxable supplies for business purpose (b) Taxable supplies for non-business purpose
(c) Exempted supplies (d) Non-taxable supplies
(e) All of above
ANSWERS
1. (b) 5. (a) 9. (a) 13. (c) 17. (b) 21. (c) 25. (d)
2. (a) 6. (c) 10. (c) 14. (c) 18. (a) 22. (a) 26. (d)
3. (a) 7. (b) 11. (d) 15. (c) 19. (b) 23. (a) 27. (c)
4. (c) 8. (c) 12. (c) 16. (a) 20. (c) 24. (c) 28. (a)
Manan Prakashan 37
CHAPTER - 11 : REGISTRATION UNDER

GST LAW [S. 22 - 30]
1. How the aggregate turnover of ` 20 lakh is calculated ?

(a) Aggregate value of all taxable supplies (excluding the value of inward supplies on which tax
is payable by a person on reverse charge basis), exempt supplies, export of goods/services
and interstate supplies of a person having same PAN computed on all India basis.
(b) Aggregate value of all taxable supplies (excluding the value of inward supplies on which tax
and interstate supplies of a person computed for each state separately.
(c) Aggregate value of all taxable intrastate supplies, export of goods/services and exempt
supplies of a person having same PAN computed for each state separately.
(d) Aggregate value of all taxable supplies (excluding the value of inward supplies on which tax
and interstate supplies of a person having same PAN computed on all India basis and excluding
taxes if any charged under CGST Act, SGST Act and IGST Act.
2. Whether all persons are mandatorily required to obtain registration?
(a) Yes
(b) Not required if he is an agriculturist or person exclusively engaged in supplying exempt
goods or services, if specified threshold limit does not exceed in a financial year.
(c) Not required if he is an agriculturist or person exclusively engaged in supplying exempt
goods or services.
(d) No, only if specified threshold exceeds in a financial year then only need to obtain.
(a) A person can’t collect tax unless he is registered.
(b) Registered person not liable to collect tax till his aggregate turnover exceeds ` 20 lakhs /
` 10 Lakhs as the case may be.
(c) A person can collect the tax during the period of his provisional registration.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
4. Which of the following forms are used for registration?
(a) Form GSTR-1 (b) Form GSTAPL-01
(c) Form GST REG-01 (d) Form GST RFD-01
5. Within how many days a person should apply for registration?
(a) Within 60 days from the date he becomes liable for registration.
(b) Within 30 days from the date he becomes liable for registration.
(c) No Time Limit
(d) Within 90 days from the date he becomes liable for registration.
6. A person having business verticals in a State obtain a separate registration for
each business vertical.
(a) Single, shall (b) Multiple, shall
(c) Multiple, may (d) Single, May
7. Which one of following statements is correct?
(a) Voluntary registration is not possible under GST.
(b) Voluntarily registered person not liable to comply with all the provisions of the GST.
(c) A person may get himself registered voluntarily and shall comply with all the provisions of
GST.
(d) None of the above.
8. PAN issued under the Income Tax Act is mandatory for grant of registration.
(a) It is one of the documents listed.
(b) Yes, but non-resident taxable person may be granted registration on the basis of any other
document.
(c) No
(d) Yes, even for non-resident taxable persons
9. An E-commerce operator should get registered?
(a) Yes, irrespective of threshold limit
(b) No, required to register only if his aggregate turnover exceeds the threshold limit.
(c) Yes, if he is located in North-western states.
(d) He is required to register if he is liable to collect tax at source and /or his aggregate turnover
exceeds the threshold limit
10. What is the validity of the registration certificate?
(a) One year (b) No validity
(c) Valid till it is cancelled (d) Five years
11. What is the validity of the registration certificate issued to casual taxable person and non-resident
taxable person?
(a) 90 days from the effective date of registration
(b) Period specified in the application for registration
(c) Earliest of (a) or (b) above
(d) 180 days from the effective date of registration
12. When can a voluntarily registration be cancelled?
(a) If the person does not start business within six months from the date of registration.
(b) Business has been discontinued or transferred for any reason.
(c) Non-filing of returns for a continuous period of six months or for three consecutive tax period
in case of composite dealer.
13. What are the consequences of obtaining registration by misrepresentation?
(a) Liable to cancellation of registration by proper officer.
(b) Liable to a fine not exceeding ` 10,00,000/-
(c) Imprisonment for a period of 6 months to 3 years.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
14. Does cancellation of registration under CGST affect the liability under SGST/IGST for period
prior to cancellation of registration?
(a) Cancellation of registration will immune his liability under CGST only.
(b) Cancellation of registration will immune his liability under IGST only.
(c) Cancellation of registration will immune his liability under SGST and CGST but not under
IGST.
(d) Cancellation does not affect the liability of taxable person to pay tax and other dues under
CGST/SGST/IGST Act.
15. Within how many days an application for revocation of cancellation of registration can be made?
(a) Within 7 days from the date of service of the cancellation order.
(b) Within 15 days from the date of issue of the cancellation order.
(c) Within 45 days from the date of issue of the cancellation order.
(d) Within 30 days from the date of service of the cancellation order.
16. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Revocation of cancellation of registration under CGST/SGST Act shall be deemed to be a
revocation of cancellation of registration under SGST/CGST Act.
(ii) Cancellation of registration under CGST/SGST Act shall be deemed to be a cancellation of
registration under SGST/CGST Act.
(iii) Revocation of cancellation of registration under CGST/SGST Act shall not be deemed to be
a revocation of cancellation of registration under SGST/CGST Act.
(iv) Cancellation of registration under CGST/SGST Act shall not be deemed to be a cancellation
of registration under SGST/CGST Act.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
Manan Prakashan 39
17. Who can submit application for registration in Form GST REG-09?
(a) Non- Resident taxable person (b) Input service distributor
(c) Person deducting tax at source (d) Person collecting tax at source
18. Where the application for grant of registration has been approved, a certificate of registration in
shall be made available to the applicant on the
(a) FORM GST REG-06, Common Portal (b) FORM GST CER-06, Common Portal
(c) FORM GST CER-06, Jurisdictional office (d) FORM GST REG-10, Company portal
19. An Unique Identity Number will be allotted to the following persons upon submitting an application:
(a) All the taxable persons can apply.
(b) Only unregistered persons can apply.
(c) Specialized agency of the UNO or any multilateral financial institution or consulate or embassy
of foreign countries.
(d) No such concept under CGST/SGST Act.
20. Every registered taxable person shall display his certificate of registration in a prominent location
at his principal and at every other place of business also GSTIN shall be displayed on the name
board at the entry of such places.
(a) No, certificate of registration to be displayed only at a registered place of business and
GSTIN need not be displayed on the name board.
(b) Yes, above statement is correct.
(c) No, GSTIN to be displayed only on the invoices.
(d) Above statement is correct subject to certificate of registration to be displayed only at registered
place of business.
21. Under what circumstances physical verification of business premises is mandatory?
(a) Physical verification of business premises is a discretionary power of proper officer.
(b) If additional information for registration asked by the proper officer is not submitted within
specified time.
(c) If certificate of registration is obtained on misrepresentation of facts.
(d) If photograph of the business premise is not uploaded in the common portal within specified
time.
22. Business which has centralized registration under erstwhile Act
(a) Shall obtain a centralized registration under GST Law
(b) Shall obtain separate registration in each state from where it is making taxable supplies
(c) Shall obtain registration on temporary basis
(d) No need to apply for registration under GST
23. Every person registered under any of the existing laws, who is not liable to be registered under
the Act may, on or before , at his option, submit an application in FORM GST REG-29 for
the cancellation of registration granted to him
(a) September 30, 2018 (b) October 31, 2018
(c) November 30, 2018 (d) March 31, 2019
24. Who will take registration on services in relation to transportation of goods (including used
household for personal use) if, GTA avails ITC on supplies made by him
(a) GTA, forward charge (b) GTA, RCM
(c) Service receiver, forward charge (d) Service receiver, RCM
(a) A person can’t collect tax unless he is registered.
(b) Registered person not liable to collect tax till his aggregate turnover exceeds ` 20 lakhs/ ` 10
lakhs as the case may be.
(c) A person can collect the tax during the period of his provisional registration.
26. An E-commerce operator should get registered irrespective of his threshold limit?
(a) Yes
(b) No, required to register only if his aggregate turnover exceeds the threshold limit.
(c) He is required to register if he is liable to collect tax at source and his aggregate turnover
exceeds the threshold limit.
27. Which of the following require compulsory registration, irrespective of threshold limit ?
(a) Casual taxable person (b) Non Resident taxable person
(c) Person liable to pay under Reverse Charge Mechanism
28. A person not required to obtain registration if he is required to pay tax under reverse charge and
there are no taxable supplies made by him.
(a) Incorrect, if person who are required to pay tax under reverse charge, irrespective of threshold
shall obtain registration.
(b) Incorrect, if person who are required to pay tax under reverse charge obtain registration only
if such value of supplies under reverse charge exceeds the threshold limit.
(c) Above statement is correct
(d) A person is required to obtain registration if he is required to pay tax under reverse charge
and also he is also making taxable supplies irrespective of the threshold limit.
29. Mr. A has started supply of goods and services in Delhi. He is required to obtain registration, if
his aggregate turnover exceeds during a financial year..
(a) ` 10 lakh (b) ` 20 lakh
(c) ` 30 lakh (d) ` 50 lakh
30. Aggregate turnover includes
(a) Taxable supplies (b) Exempt supplies
(c) Exports (d) All of the above
31. Which of the following persons are compulsorily required to obtain registration?
(a) Persons making any inter-State taxable supply
(b) Non-resident taxable persons making taxable supply
(c) Casual taxable persons making taxable supply
32. Which of the following persons are not liable for registration?
(a) Any person engaged exclusively in supplying services wholly exempt from tax
(b) Casual Taxable Person
(c) Both (a) and (b)
33. Rohan Toys is a registered supplier of goods in Delhi. It intends to attend a 7 days’ Business Fair
organised in Mumbai (next month) where it does not have a fixed place of business. Examine
which of the following statements are true for Rohan Toys:
(a) Rohan Toys is not required to obtain registration in Mumbai for attending a 7 days’ Business
Fair.
(b) Rohan Toys has to obtain registration as a casual taxable person for attending the Business
Fair.
(c) Rohan Toys has to obtain a Unique Identification Number for attending the Business Fair.
34. Every supplier shall be liable to be registered under this Act in the State or Union Territory, other
than Special Category States, from where he makes a taxable supply of goods or services or
both, if his aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds
(a) 10 lakhs (b) 25 lakhs
(c) 1.5 crores (d) 20 lakhs
35. Where a person makes taxable supplies of goods or services or both from any of the Special
Category States, he shall be liable to be registered if his aggregate turnover in a financial year
exceeds
36. The calculation of aggregate turnover to decide the registration limit will be based on
(a) State wise Turnover (b) State wise Turnover excluding Export
(c) All over India Turnover (d) All over Turnover excluding Export
37. Taxable minimum turnover limit in GST that is applicable to the State of Maharashtra
Manan Prakashan 41
38. The dealers who are not eligible for any threshold limit for registration under GST law are?
(a) Input Service Distributors and Dealers making supply through Electronic Commerce Operator
(b) Casual Dealers and Non-resident Taxable Persons
(c) Dealers making inter-state supplies and those having Reverse Charge Liability
39. Suppose a dealer who is a resident of Delhi has business places both at Delhi and Uttar Pradesh.
From where does he have to take GST registration?
(a) From Delhi only
(b) From Uttar Pradesh only
(c) He has to take separate GST registration both at Delhi and Uttar Pradesh with the same PAN
(d) From either of the states
40. Suppose one Multi National Company (MNC) has places of business all over India. Can such an
MNC take a single centralised GST registration?
(a) Yes
(b) No (it has to take registration in all the states from where it makes supplies of goods or
services)
(c) Registration only from the state in which its Head Office in India is situated
(d) Either (a) or (c)
41. Are all suppliers mandatorily required to obtain registration?
(a) Yes
(b) Not required if he is an agriculturist or person exclusively engaged in supplying exempt
goods or services
(c) Not required if he is an agriculturist or person exclusively engaged in supplying exempt
goods or services and for others if the specified threshold exceeds in any financial year
(d) No only if the specified threshold exceeds in any financial year
42. The supply of goods after the completion of the Job work from the registered place of business
place of a Job worker
(a) The Principal who despatched the goods for Job work
(b) The Job worker
(c) Either of the party
(d) Deemed supply of the Job worker
43. Where a business carried on by a taxable person registered under this Act is transferred to
another person as a going concern,
(a) Transferror’s registration shall be taken as transferee’s registration
(b) The transferee shall be liable to be registered w.e.f. the date of transfer
(c) Both transferor and transferee are required to obtain fresh registration
44. Shall a dealer making the exclusive supply of Liquor or Petrol, Diesel and Crude Oil have to take
registration under the GST Act?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Optional (d) Either (a) or (c)
45. Who is called a Deemed supplier of Services?
(a) Input Service Distributor (b) Job Worker
(c) Agent (d) Subsidiary Company
46. Threshold limit of registration is applicable to the following persons
(a) Input Service Distributor, whether or not separately registered under this Act
(b) Non-resident taxable persons making taxable supply
(c) Every Electronic Commerce Operator
47. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Voluntary registration is not possible under GST
(b) Voluntary registered person not liable to comply with all the provisions of the GST
(c) A person may get himself registered voluntary and shall comply with all the provisions of the
Act
ANSWERS
1. (d) 8. (b) 15. (d) 22. (b) 29. (b) 36. (c) 43. (b)
2. (c) 9. (d) 16. (a) 23. (d) 30. (d) 37. (d) 44. (b)
3. (a) 10. (c) 17. (a) 24. (a) 31. (d) 38. (d) 45. (a)
4. (c) 11. (c) 18. (a) 25. (a) 32. (a) 39. (c) 46. (d)
5. (b) 12. (d) 19. (c) 26. (a) 33. (b) 40. (b) 47. (c)
6. (c) 13. (a) 20. (b) 27. (d) 34. (d) 41. (c)
7. (c) 14. (d) 21. (a) 28. (a) 35. (a) 42. (a)
Manan Prakashan 43
CHAPTER - 12 : PAYMENT OF TAX [S. 49]
1. Which of these registers/ledgers are maintained online?

(a) Tax liability register (b) Credit ledger
(c) Cash ledger (d) All of them
2. Payment made through challan will be credited to which registers/ledgers?
(a) Electronic Tax liability register (b) Electronic Credit ledger
(c) Electronic Cash ledger (d) All of them
3. What is deemed to be the date of deposit in the electronic cash ledger?
(a) Date on which amount gets debited in the account of the taxable person
(b) Date on which payment is initiated and approved by the taxable person
(c) Date of credit to the account of the appropriate Government
(d) Earliest of the above three dates
4. What gets debited to the electronic credit ledger?
(a) Matched input tax credit (b) Provisionally input tax credit
(c) Unmatched input tax credit (d) All of them
5. Balance in electronic credit ledger can be utilized against which liability?
(a) Output tax payable (b) Interest
(c) Penalty (d) All of them
6. Balance in electronic credit ledger under IGST can be used against which liability?
(a) IGST Liability only (b) IGST and CGST liability
(c) IGST, CGST and SGST liability (d) None of them
7. Balance in electronic credit ledger under CGST can be used against which liability?
(a) CGST Liability only (b) CGST and IGST liability
(c) CGST, IGST and SGST liability (d) None of them
8. Balance in electronic credit ledger under SGST can be used against which liability?
(a) SGST Liability only (b) SGST and IGST liability
(c) SGST, IGST and CGST liability (d) None of them
9. What should the taxable person do if he pay’s the wrong tax i.e. IGST instead of CGST/SGST or
vice versa?
(a) Remit tax again and claim refund (b) It will be auto-adjusted
(c) It will be adjusted on application/request (d) None of the above
10. What should the taxable person do if he pay’s tax under wrong GSTIN?
(a) Pay again under right GSTIN and claim refund
(b) Auto-adjustment
(c) Adjustment on application/request
(d) Raise ISD invoice and transfer
11. Taxable person made an online payment of tax. Due to technical snag CIN was not generated
but my bank account is debited. What should he do?
(a) Wait for 24 hours for re-credit (b) Approach bank
(c) File application with department (d) File return without challan
12. What is the due date for payment of tax?
(a) Last day of the month to which payment relates
(b) Within 10 days of the subsequent month
(c) Within 20 days of the subsequent month
(d) Within 15 days of the subsequent month
13. A Company has head office in Bangalore and 4 branches in different states, all registered under
GST and one ISD registered unit in Delhi. How many electronic cash ledgers will the company
have?
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
14. What is the validity of challan in FORM GST PMT-06?
(a) 1 day (b) 5 days
(c) 15 days (d) Forever
15. Input Tax credit as credited in Electronic Credit ledger can be utilized for
(a) Payment of Interest (b) Payment of penalty, fine
(c) Payment of late fees (d) Payment of Taxes
16. Deposits towards tax, penalty, interest, fee or any other amount are credited into the of
a taxable person.
(a) Electronic Credit Ledger (b) Electronic Tax Liability Ledger
(c) Electronic Cash Ledger (d) All of the above
17. The Input Tax Credit as self-assessed by a taxable person is credited into the
(a) Electronic Credit Ledger (b) Electronic Tax Liability Ledger
(c) Electronic Cash Ledger (d) All of the above
18. Cross-Utilization of credit of available IGST after utilization towards payment of IGST is done in
the following chronological order :
(a) CGST then SGST/UTGST (b) SGST/UTGST then CGST
(c) CGST, UTGST and SGST simultaneously (d) Only IGST
19. Which of the following Statements is true?
(a) ITC of CGST is first utilized for payment of CGST and the balance is utilized for payment of
SGST/UTGST
(b) ITC of SGST is first utilized for payment of SGST and the balance is utilized for payment of
CGST
(c) ITC of CGST is first utilized for payment of CGST and the balance is utilized for payment of
IGST
(d) All of the Above
20. A Company has head office in Bangalore and 4 branches in different states, all registered under
GST and one ISD registered unit in Delhi. How many electronic cash ledgers will the company
have?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 6
21. Over the Counter Payment can be made in branches of Banks Authorized for deposits up to
` per challan per tax period?
(a) 5,000 (b) 10,000
(c) 20,000 (d) 40,000
22. Which of the following shall be discharged first, while discharging liability of a taxable person?
(a) All dues related to previous tax period (b) All dues related to current tax period
(c) Additional demand raised (d) No such condition is mandatory
23. Cross utilization of ITC is not allowed between :
(a) CGST and SGST (b) SGST and IGST
(c) IGST and CGST (d) None of the above
24. Tax paid on goods and services under Act is allowable both under SGST Act and CGST
Act?
(a) IGST (b) CGST
(c) SGST (d) VAT
25 ITC includes tax payable also.
(a) VAT (b) Reverse Charge
(c) Excise (d) Custom laws
26. The amounts can be credited in E-Cash ledger by
(a) Internet Banking (b) Using Credit cards or Debit Cards
(c) NEFT or RTGS (d) Any of the above
Manan Prakashan 45
27. Suppose Mr. X has a SGST credit of ` 10 lakhs in his ITC ledger and at the same time, he has a
CGST output liability of ` 7 lakhs. What an amount should be deposited by Mr. X to his E-Cash
ledger maintained at the GSTN portal
(a) No deposit is required (b) ` 2 Lakhs
(c) ` 5 Lakhs (d) ` 7 Lakhs
28. Suppose Mr. Y has a IGST credit of ` 14 lakhs in his ITC ledger and at the same time, he has a
IGST liability of ` 7 lakhs, CGST liability of ` 8 lakhs and SGST liability of ` 5 lakhs. What an
amount should be deposited by Mr.Y to his E-Cash ledger maintained at the GSTN portal?
(a) ` 6 lakhs (` 1 lakhs to SGST + ` 5 lakhs to CGST)
(b) ` 6 lakhs (` 1 lakhs to CGST + ` 5 lakhs to SGST)
(c) ` 6 lakhs (` 1 lakhs to IGST + ` 5 lakhs to SGST)
(d) ` 6 lakhs (` 2 lakhs to IGST + ` 4 lakhs to SGST)
29. Suppose Mr. Z has a credit of ` 15 lakhs in his ITC ledger and at the same time, he has an
interest arrears dues of ` 16 Lakhs and penalty dues of ` 12 lakhs. If so, how much Mr. Z has to
deposit to settle the above interest and penalty dues?
(a) ` 16 Lakhs (b) ` 28 Lakhs
(c) ` 12 Lakhs (d) ` 15 Lakhs
30. A taxable person failed to pay tax and / or file returns on time. He should pay interest on ?
(a) Gross tax payable
(b) Gross tax payable and input credit claimed
(c) Net tax payable i.e. amount to be paid after ITC set off
(d) No interest payable, if reasonable cause is shown
31. What is the rate of interest in case of belated payment of tax ?
(a) 1% (b) 10%
(c) 18% (d) 24%
32. What is the rate of interest in case of undue or excess claim of ITC ?
(a) 18% (b) 24%
(c) 30% (d) 40%
33. Mr. A was liable to pay GST of ` 10,000 on 20-8-2019 but he failed to pay. Later he decided to
pay tax on 26-10-2019. What would be the period for which interest has to be paid by him ?
(a) 66 days (b) 67 days
(c) 68 days (d) 70 days
34. What is the date for applicability of TDS provisions ?
(a) 1-7-2017 (b) 1-1-2018
(c) 1-9-2018 (d) 1-10-2018
35. GST TDS provisions can apply where total value of such supply, under a contract, exceeds
rupees .
(a) 1 lakh (b) 1.5 lakhs
(c) 5 lakhs (d) 2.5 lakhs
36. On what value TDS needs to be deducted ?
(a) Contract value (b) Contract value excluding tax
(c) Invoice value including tax (d) Invoice value excluding tax
37. The amount deducted as tax (TDS) shall be paid to the credit of the Government by the deductor
within .
(a) Last day of the month to which payment relates
(b) 10 days from the relevant period
(c) 15 days from the relevant period
(d) 20 days from the relevant period
38. What is the rate of tax for tax collected at source ?
(a) 0.5% each CGST and SGST (b) 2% of IGST
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
39. What is the threshold limit for applying the provisions of Section 52 for collecting tax at source ?
(a) If net value of taxable supplies exceeds ` 2,50,000
(b) If net value of taxable supplies exceeds ` 5,00,000
(c) If net value of taxable supplies exceeds ` 10,00,000
(d) No such limit prescribed
40. Can a supplier take credit of the TCS ?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, on the basis of the valid return filed
(d) Yes, on the basis of a valid return filed by the e-commerce operator and there is no discrepancy
in the returns
41. Which section deals with the TDS provisions in GST ?
(a) Section 51 (b) Section 52
(c) Section 53 (d) Section 54
42. Which section deals with the TCS provisions in GST ?
(a) Section 51 (b) Section 52
(c) Section 53 (d) Section 54
43. the table supplies returned to the supplier on the electronic commerce is as a
deduction while calculating the net value.
(a) No, not allowed (b) Yes, allowed
(c) Yes, not allowed (d) No, allowed
44. No TDS shall be made when
(a) Location of supplier and place of supply is in a State or Union Territory which is different from
the State / UT of registration of the recipient
(b) Location of supplier and place of supply is in same state and location of recipient is in same
state
(c) Location of supplier and place of supply is in different state and location of recipient is in
different state
ANSWERS
1. (d) 8. (b) 15. (d) 22. (a) 29. (b) 36. (d) 43. (b)
2. (c) 9. (a) 16. (c) 23. (a) 30. (a) 37. (b) 44. (a)
3. (c) 10. (a) 17. (a) 24. (a) 31. (c) 38. (a)
4. (d) 11. (c) 18. (a) 25. (b) 32. (b) 39. (d)
5. (a) 12. (c) 19. (c) 26. (d) 33. (b) 40. (d)
6. (c) 13. (c) 20. (c) 27. (d) 34. (d) 41. (a)
7. (b) 14. (c) 21. (b) 28. (b) 35. (d) 42. (b)
Manan Prakashan 47
CHAPTER - 13 : COMPUTATION OF LIABILITY AND TAX
A. ICSI Inter, December 2017

1. A service would be called as “continuous supply of service”, if the service under a contract is
provided continuously or on recurrent basis exceeding:
(a) One year (b) 6 months
(c) 3 months (d) 1 month
2. Which law will govern the inter-state supply of goods or services?
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) UTGST (d) IGST
3. Which of the following has been kept out of the GST Levy?
(a) Generator (b) Computer
(c) Jewellery (d) Electricity
4. Threshold limit of turnover for levy of GST in the case of a person having business (supply of
goods and services) in Gujarat is
(a) ` 10 lakhs (b) ` 20 lakhs
(c) ` 30 lakhs (d) ` 40 lakhs
5. Abhijit Sen is engaged in running a textile showroom at Gangtok (Sikkim). In order to avail
composition scheme under GST law, his “aggregate turnover” in the preceding financial year
should not have exceeded:
(a) ` 10 lakhs (b) ` 20 lakhs
(c) ` 50 lakhs (d) ` 75 lakhs
6. When employer gifts goods to his employees, it will not be considered as taxable supply for the
purpose of GST if the value of supply to an employee does not exceed:
(a) ` 5,000 (b) ` 20,000
(c) ` 50,000 (d) ` 1,00,000
7. Which of the following incomes/activities is liable for GST?
(a) Salary (b) Salary and allowances of MPs
(c) Services by Court (d) Sale of jewellery
8. Which of the following represents composite supply?
(a) Doctor’s service with medicines
(b) Package with fruits and chocolates
(c) Coaching centre with monthly excursions on trekking
(d) Supply of computer printer and laptop
9. Mr. Ram supplied goods to Mr. Laxman. The invoice is dated 30.7.2019. Payment was received
for the supply on 30.10.2019. The goods were dispatched on 5.8.2019. What is time of supply
under GGST Act?
(a) 5.8.2019 (b) 30.7.2019
(c) 30.10.2019 (d) None of the-above
10. Which of the following though shown in Bill will not be included in determining the value of
supply for the purpose of GST?
(a) Packing (b) Discount
(c) Interest for late payment (d) Installation charges
11. Madhan is located in Chennai. He has a branch office in Cochin. He wants to transfer goods. His
turnover was always below ` 10 lakhs. His registration under GST is
(a) Voluntary
(b) Compulsory
(c) Compulsory only when turnover exceeds 20 lakhs
(d) As and when deemed by the Revenue
12. A taxable person whose registration has been cancelled or surrendered must file the final return
of GST within
(a) 6 months of the cancellation
(b) 6 months after the end of the financial year
(c) 3 months after the end of the financial year
(d) 3 months after the date of cancellation
13. Refreshments were supplied on board in an aircraft proceeding from Chennai to Delhi. It had a
stop at Hyderabad. The refreshments were taken on board at Hyderabad. The place of supply is
(a) Delhi (b) Chennai
(c) Hyderabad (d) None of the above
14. For the purpose of calculating the compensation payable to the States under the Goods and
Service Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 the base year for reckoning the Revenue is :
(a) 31.3.2014 (b) 31.3.2015
(c) 31.3.2016 (d) 31.3.2017
15. Which of the following GST model is adopted in India?
(a) Australian model (b) Bagchi-Poddar model
(c) Dual model (d) American model
16. For the purpose of deciding “aggregate turnover” in order to determine the GST payable under
composition scheme, which of the following is to be excluded?
(a) Exemption supply (b) Export of goods
(c) Inter-state branch transfer (d) CGST
17. Export of service does not include:
(a) the supplier of service located outside India
(b) the recipient of service located outside India
(c) the place of supply of service is outside India
(d) the supplier of service is located in India
B. ICSI Inter, June 2018
18. GST Council comprises of various persons from Union and States and is being headed by a
Chair Person who is
(a) Finance Secretary to Government of India
(b) Union Finance Minister
(c) Any State Finance Minister
(d) Union Revenue Minister
19. Construction of a complex, building, civil structure or the part thereof including a complex or
building intended for sale to a buyer, wholly or partly except where the entire consideration has
been received after issuance of completion certificate, where required, by a competent authority
or after its first occupation, whichever is earlier for the purpose of taxability under the CGST Act,
2017 shall be treated as supply of:
(a) Goods (b) Both goods and services
(c) Services (d) Contract work
20. The following categories of registered persons are not being eligible for the Composition Scheme
under the CGST Act, 2017:
(i) Supplier of the Restaurant Services
(ii) Manufacturer of notified goods
(iii) Non-resident taxable persons
(iv) Casual taxable person
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
21. Section 2(62) of the CGST Act, 2017 specifies input tax in relation to a registered person to
mean Central Tax, State Tax, Integrated Tax or Union Territory Tax charged on any supply of
goods or services or both and also include:
(i) Integrated goods and services, tax charged on import of goods
(ii) Tax under the provisions of section 9(3) and 9(4)
(iii) Tax paid under composition levy
(iv) Tax under Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Act
Manan Prakashan 49
(a) All the above four (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
22. Mr. Pankaj of Delhi supplied goods to Mr. Krishna of Delhi for ` 1 lakh, on which total GST was
charged @ 12%. Mr. Krishna, after purchase of goods, added 20% margin of profit (on cost) and
sold the entire goods to Mr. Ravi of Delhi. The total amount of tax payable after claiming input
tax on such transaction by Mr. Krishna is:
(a) ` 12,000 (b) ` 14,400
(c) ` 2,400 (d) None of the above
23. Raj & Co., applied for voluntary registration under CGST Act, 2017 on 5th July, 2019 and the
registration was granted on 15th July, 2019. Raj & Co., was having the stock available against
the invoices for a period of 3 months old. Raj & Co., shall be eligible for input tax credit on such
stock as held as on:
(a) 30th June, 2019 (b) 05th July, 2019
(c) 15th July, 2019 (d) 14th July, 2019
24. A casual taxable person or a non-resident taxable person shall be required to apply for registration
at least days prior to the commencement of business.
(a) 30 (b) 5
(c) 15 (d) 7
25. Mr. Bala has made supply (within State) of taxable goods to the tune of ` 17 lakh, export supplies
of ` 3 lakh and intra-State supply of exempt services of ` 4 lakh. His aggregate turnover as per
section 2(6) of the CGST/ SGST Act, 2017 is
(a) ` 17 lakh (b) ` 20 lakh
(c) ` 24 lakh (d) None of the above
26. A supply made by a taxable person to a recipient consisting of two or more taxable supply of
goods or services of both or any combination thereof which are only bundled and supplied in
conjunction with each other in the ordinarily course of business out of which one is a principal
supply has been defined u/s 2(3) of CGST Act, 2017 to mean
(a) Mixed supply (b) Composite supply
(c) Bundled supply (d) Both (A) and (B)
27. Tax on inter-State supplies, import into India, supplies made outside India and supplies made in
SEZ shall be charged to
(a) CGST and SGST (b) CGST and UTGST
(c) CGST and IGST (d) IGST
28. Provision for levy and collection of tax on intra-State supply of goods or services or both by the
Union Territory and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto are being enumerated
in
(a) CGST Act, 2017 (b) IGST Act, 2017
(c) UTGST Act, 2017 (d) None of the above
29. The highest enabling limit of tax rate of IGST has been prescribed at
(a) 20% (b) 14%
(c) 28% (d) None of the above
30. Special purpose vehicle to cater the IT needs of GST is called
(a) HSN (b) GSTN
(c) IGSTN (d) SGSTN
31. GST in India is levied on the basis of
(a) Consumption principle
(b) Set-off against that payable principle
(c) Destination base principle
(d) Both consumption and destination base principle
32. The tax under GST legislation in India is being levied:
(a) Exclusively by Union and State Laws (b) Simultaneously by Union and State Laws
(c) Only by Union Laws (d) Only by State Laws
C. ICWA-Inter, June 2018
33. GST has replaced the following law(s)
(a) Customs (b) VAT
(c) Central excise (d) Both (b) and (c)
34. GST is a based tax.
(a) Origin (b) Destination
(c) Territory (d) None of the above
35. In IGST, I stands for
(a) Integrated (b) International
(c) Inter-State (d) Indian
36. The Chairperson of GST Council is
(a) Prime Minister of India (b) Finance Minister of India
(c) Minister of State for Finance (d) None of the above
37. Under GST law the phrase 'Goods' does not include
(a) Actionable claim
(b) Growing crops on the land agreed to be severed before supply
(c) Money and Securities
38. The scope of supply of goods or services or both includes
(a) Sale (b) Exchange
(c) Lease (d) All of the above
39. Sasta Bazar offers a free bucket with detergent purchased. It is a
(a) Composite supply (b) Mixed supply
(c) Principal supply (d) None of the above
40. Which of the following is not a feature of indirect taxes ?
(a) Regressive nature
(b) Supply based taxes
(c) Rate of taxes are different from person to person
(d) No previous year and assessment year concept
41. Goods and Services Tax (GST) has been implemented in India w.e.f.
(a) 1st July, 2017 (b) 1st June, 2017
(c) 1st September, 2017 (d) 1st April, 2017
42. Mr. T, a thief has stolen motorbike and sells the motorbike to Mr. Q. It is illegal to steal a motorbike.
Sale of motorbike will be considered as
(a) supply and liable to be taxed (b) supply but not liable to be taxed
(c) not at all supply (d) none of the above
43. Mr. A booked a Rajdhani train ticket, which includes meal. It is
(c) Not at all supply (d) None of the above
44. Which of the following agricultural activity is exempted from GST ?
(a) Cultivation (b) Supply of farm labour
(c) Renting of agro machinery (d) All of the above
45. GT Jewellers Ltd. paid ` 50 lakhs for sponsorship of Miss India beauty pageant in Mumbai to
Stylist & Co. a partnership firm. GST is liable to be paid by
(a) GT Jewellers Ltd. (b) Miss India beauty pageant
(c) Stylish & Co. (d) Exempted Supply
46. In case of inter-state stock transfer
(a) CGST will be levied (b) IGST will be levied
(c) CGST and SGST will be levied (d) No tax will be levied, as there is no supply
D. ICWA Final, June 2018
47. GST is a based tax.
(a) Territory (b) Origin
(c) Destination (d) None of the above
Manan Prakashan 51
48. A new supplier has taxable intra-State sales, exempt intra-State sales and export sales of goods.
He should get himself registered under GST law, where
(a) the aggregate value of taxable intra-State goods exceeds ` 20 lakhs
(b) the aggregate value of taxable as well as exempt intra-State goods exceeds ` 20 lakhs
(c) the aggregate value of all the three items exceeds ` 20 lakhs
(d) the aggregate value of taxable intra-State goods as well as export sales exceeds ` 20 lakhs
49. Following is an intra-State supply
(a) Goods sent from Delhi to another dealer in Delhi
(b) Goods sent from Delhi to a SEZ in Noida, Uttar Pradesh
(c) Goods sent from Delhi to Chandigarh branch (Haryana) of the same supplier
50. A casual taxable person is required to obtain registration where he makes
(a) Taxable inter-State supply
(b) Taxable inter-State or intra-State supply
(c) Taxable inter-State or intra-State supply whose proposed value exceeds ` 20 lakhs
(d) In none of the above situations
51. Subbu, a registered supplier based at Erode coached the staff of a software company in
Hyderabad, which is registered. The classes were held at Erode. The place of supply is
(a) As mutually agreed upon (b) Hyderabad
(c) Erode (d) Bengaluru
52. Which of the following central taxes has been subsumed in the ambit of GST ?
(a) Central Excise duty (b) Service Tax
(c) CVD on import (d) All of the above
53. GST is payable on the services provided by the employee to the employer in the course of
employment on
(a) Regular basis
(b) Contract basis as employed by the company
(c) Contract basis as employed by a contractor
54. If a person, opting for composition scheme is liable to be registered on 1st October, 2019 and he
has applied for registration on 17th November, 2019 and registration granted on 20th November,
2019 then the effective date of registration will be
(a) 20th November, 2019 (b) 1st October, 2019
(c) 17th November, 2019 (d) 1st April, 2020
55. In case of transport of goods by rail within India, which of the following item is an exempted
supply ?
(a) Transport of postal mails and postal bags (b) Transport of defence and military equipments
(c) Transportation of household effects (d) Transport of alcoholic beverages
56. Mr. C of Chennai supplied goods to M/s Smart Jet Airlines of Chennai flying between Delhi-
Mumbai. The goods are loaded in the aircraft in Delhi. The place of supply of goods will be
(a) Chennai (b) Delhi
(c) Mumbai (d) None of the above
57. Gifts not exceeding in value in a financial year by an employer to an employee shall not
be treated as supply of goods or services or both.
(a) ` 20,000 (b) ` 25,000
(c) ` 50,000 (d) ` 1,00,000
58. Hospital charging room rent per day per room ` 1,200 on rooms provided to in-patients. It is
(a) Exempted supply (b) Taxable supply
(c) Not at all supply (d) None of the above
59. In cases of change in rate of tax and amount is credited to the bank account after 4 working days
from the date of change in rate of tax, the date of receipt of payment will be
(a) Date of book entry or date of bank entry, whichever is earlier
(b) Date of bank entry
(c) Date of book entry
(d) Date of book entry or date of bank entry, whichever is later
60. Who is the person allowed to cancel a GST registration ?
(a) The registered person himself (b) The GST officer
(c) The legal heir of the registered person (d) All of the above
61. Where the application of registration is found to be deficient for any reason and the Proper
Officer requires any further information then he shall intimate to the applicant in form
(a) GST REG-01 (b) GST REG-02
(c) GST REG-03 (d) GST REG-04
62. Aminpur Post Office provided basic mail services of ` 2,50,000 and speed post services of
` 3,00,000. The value of taxable services will be
(a) ` 2,50,000 (b) ` 3,00,000
(c) ` 5,50,000 (d) None of the above
63. An individual acts as a referee in a football match organised by Sports Authority of India. Which
one of the following is correct ?
(a) The individual is liable to pay GST (b) Sports Authority of India is liable to pay GST
(c) Exempted from GST (d) Outside the scope of supply
64. Goods under CGST Act excludes
(a) Securities
(b) Unsecured debts
(c) Right to participate in the draw to be held in a lottery
(d) Growing crops
65. A famous actress went to London and availed cosmetic or plastic surgery for her nose. Whether
GST is liable to be paid ?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) No supply at all (d) None of the above
66. In relation to a registered person, input tax means the Central tax, State tax, Integrated tax or
Union Territory tax charged on any supply of goods or services or both made to him and includes
(a) The integrated goods and services tax charged on import of goods
(b) The tax payable under Reverse Charge Mechanism as per SGST Act
(c) The tax payable under Reverse Charge Mechanism as per UTGST Act
(d) The tax payable under the composition levy
E. ICSI-Inter, December 2018
67. A supply made by a taxable person to a recipient of goods being buyer consisting of two or more
taxable supplies of goods or services or of both or any combination thereof which are only
bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinarily course of business out of
which one is a principal supply has been defined u/s 2(3) of CGST Act, 2017 as
(c) Higher rate tax supply (d) Bundled supply
68. The payment of tax by electronic operator who does not have physical presence in taxable
territory in India be made by
(a) e-commerce operator himself (b) his appointed representative in India
(c) the person who receives supply (d) either (a) and (b)
69. The time of supply "where goods or services or both have been supplied in a situation where the
invoice issued before the change in the rate of tax but payment received after the change in rate
of tax" as per section 14 of the CGST Act, 2017 shall be
(a) Date of issue of invoice
(b) Date of receipt of payment or the date of issue of invoice whichever is earlier
(c) Date of receipt of payment
70. Which of the following called the Union territory as being covered under Union Territory Goods
and Service Tax Act, (UTGST), 2017 ?
(a) Sikkim (b) Puducherry
(c) Daman and Diu (d) None of the above
Manan Prakashan 53
71. Subsidy given by the Central Government or a State Government while determining value of
taxable supply under Goods and Services Tax (GST) as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017
(a) included in the transaction value i.e. (value of taxable supply)
(b) just ignored no treatment
(c) shall not be included in transaction value i.e. (value of taxable supply)
(d) deducted from the transaction value i.e. (value of taxable supply)
72. Patel of Surat, Gujarat supplied good to Patil of Mumbai, Maharashtra for ` 1,20,000 (excluding
GST) but after adding 30% profit margin (on cost). Patil is also a taxable person. IGST rate is
18%. The amount of input tax credit that can be availed and the maximum time limit for availing
such input tax credit by Patil of Mumbai, Maharashtra as per CGST Act, 2017 is
(a) ` 28,080 and within 6 months from the date of issue of tax invoice
(b) ` 7,020 and within next quarter from the date of issue of tax invoice
(c) ` 21,600 and within 1 year from the date of issue of tax invoice
73. Find out the following, who are the persons not liable for registration under the CGST Act, 2017.
(a) Non-resident making taxable supply
(b) Person supplying exempted goods and services or goods or services which are not liable for
tax under GST
(c) An agriculturist, to the extent of supply of produce out of cultivation of land
(d) Both (b) and (c)
74. Who is authorised under Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST) Act, to levy tax ?
(a) State (b) Centre
(c) Union Territory (d) Both (a) and (b)
75. The available balance of input tax credit in the electronic ledger of the registered person on
account of Union territory tax shall be utilised as per section 9 of UTGST Act, 2017
(a) first towards payment of central tax
(b) first towards payment of integrated tax
(c) first towards payment of union territory tax and the amount remaining, if any towards payment
of integrated tax
76. Exempt supply means supply of any goods or services or both which may be wholly exempt from
tax under section 11 or under section 6 of the IGST Act and includes
(i) non-taxable supply (ii) zero rated supply
(iii) supply having nil rate of tax (iv) composite supply
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All the four above
77. The exception to the general rule that "normally, the supplier of goods and services is liable to
pay tax on supply, even if he does not collect from his customer i.e. recipient of supply of goods
and services" shall be applicable where there are
(a) supply from an unregistered dealer to registered dealer
(b) specified services through an e-commerce operator
(c) both (a) and (b)
F. ICSI-Inter, June 2019
78. Power to declare certain activities / transactions as neither supply of goods nor of services is
given in
(a) Schedule IV (b) Schedule III
(c) Schedule II (d) Schedule I
79. The proper officer may cancel the GST registration, if any registered person other than a person
paying tax under section 10 of CGST Act, 2017 has not furnished the returns for a continuous
period of
(a) 12 months (b) 9 months
(c) 6 months (d) 3 months
80. ABC Ltd. of Mumbai supplied goods to XYZ Ltd. of Delhi under a contract for the goods to be
delivered at the factory of the buyers. Goods removed from the factory of ABC Ltd. on 9-8-2019
and were delivered in the factory of XYZ Ltd. of Delhi on 16-8-2019. Invoice for the suppliers
was raised by ABC Ltd. on 18-8-2019. Payment of the bill was received on 20-9-2019. The time
of supply in this case under GST be taken as
(a) 9-8-2019 (b) 16-8-2019
(c) 18-8-2019 (d) 20-9-2019
81. Section 24 of the CGST Act, 2017 lists categories of persons who are required to take registration
even if they are not covered under section 22 of the Act. Find out from the following categories
of persons who are being required to take registration as per section 24 of the CGST Act, 2017:
(i) Casual taxable person
(ii) Non-resident taxable person
(iii) Recipient of service under Reverse Charge
(iv) Inter-state supplier
(v) Input service distributor
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (v) (d) All the 5 in (i) to (v)
82. Section 2(6) of the CGST / SGST Act, 2017 defines aggregate turnover which is being computed
on all India basis excluding the taxes charged under CGST Act, SGST Act, UTGST Act and
IGST Act. Aggregate turnover shall include all supplies made by a taxable person comprising of
(i) Taxable supply
(ii) Exempt supply
(iii) Export of goods and services
(iv) All inter-state supply of person having same PAN
(v) Supply on which tax is levied on reverse charge basis
(vi) Value of all inward supply
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) (b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(c) All the above in (i) to (vi) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
83. Decision of the GST Council will be adopted when it has the support of
(a) one-third majority (b) two-third majority
(c) three-fourth majority (d) simple majority
84. The compensation to states for loss of revenue on account of implementation of GST is for
years.
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 10
85. When agriculturist supplies tobacco leaves to a factory, registered under GST, the liability to pay
GST is on
(a) tobacco leaves seller (b) the buyer under reverse charge
(c) the agriculturist (d) consumer of tobacco leaves
86. When an unregistered dealer supplied goods to a registered dealer, the time of supply under
reverse charge shall be earliest of the
(a) date of receipt of goods (b) date of supply of goods
(c) date of loading of goods in transport (d) date of intimation of supply of goods
87. Composition scheme is not applicable to service providers except the following.
(a) Consultancy Service (b) Restaurant Service
(c) Beauty Parlours (d) Cleaning Work
88. To avail input tax credit, which of the following factors is not relevant ?
(a) Tax invoice (b) Furnishing of return by supplier
(c) Receipt of goods and services (d) Payment by buyer for supply received
89. Input tax credit cannot be availed after the expiry of from the date of issue of tax invoice
of supply.
(a) 6 months (b) 3 months
(c) 1 year (d) 2 years
Manan Prakashan 55
90. When goods are packed and transported with insurance, the supply of goods, packing materials,
transport and insurance as per provisions of CGST Act, 2017, is called as
(a) Mixed Supply (b) Uniform Supply
(c) Complex Supply (d) Composite Supply
91. A service shall be a continuous supply of service agreed to be provided continuously or on
recurrent basis under a contract when the period of service exceeds
(a) 1 month (b) 3 months
(c) 6 months (d) 1 year
92. Which of the following is not liable to be registered as per provisions of CGST Act, 2017 ?
(a) Person supplying exempted goods (b) Non-resident making taxable supplies
(c) Deductor of tax at source (d) Supplier on behalf of other person
G. CA-Inter-RTP, November 2019
93. Miss. Raksha is engaged in providing private coaching services in Noida, Uttar Pradesh and is
not registered under GST till 25 Sept. 2019. Her aggregate turnover is ` 19,00,000 on 30 Sept.
2019. She got GT registration on 30 Sept. 2019. Which of the following options are available to
her ?
(a) She can pay tax @ 18%, charge it from customer and avail full input tax credit on procurements
made.
(b) She can pay tax @ 6% under exemption scheme for service providers but she cannot charge
GST from customer and also cannot avail input tax credit.
(c) She is not liable for registration since her aggregate turnover is less than ` 40,00,000
(d) Either (a) or (b)
94. Mr. Arun, a registered supplier, is engaged in selling sweets. The sweets are sold in boxes and
the cost of each sweet box is ` 500. In order to increase his turnover, he purchased certain juice
cans @ ` 20 each and added juice can with every sweet box as a gift. A sweet box along with
free juice can is sold at ` 500 each.
Which of the statements is correct ?
(a) He is liable to pay tax on ` 520 and eligible to claim input tax credit on purchase of juice cans
(b) He is liable to pay tax on ` 500 and not eligible to claim input tax credit on purchase of juice
cans
(c) He is liable to pay tax on ` 500 and also eligible to claim input tax credit on purchase of juice
cans
(d) Either (a) or (b)
95. Which is not considered as supply under GST Law ?
(a) Stock transferred from one establishment in Delhi to another establishment in Gurgaon,
Haryana registered under same PAN.
(b) CA Ram supplies accounting services to CA Radha in lieu of taxation services received from
CA Radha.
(c) A Health club supplies lunch to its members at its annual meeting against a nominal charge
(d) Mr. A sells a flat to Mr. B
(i) Date of completion certificate - 31-1-2020
(ii) Date of agreement with buyer - 1-2-2020
(iii) Consideration received - 5-2-2020
96. With reference to the provisions relating to transaction value under section 15 of the CGST Act,
2017, which of the following is not correct ?
(a) Central excise duty will not be included in transaction value for supply of tobacco.
(b) Municipal taxes paid by tenant will be included in transaction value for supply of renting
service.
(c) Entertainment tax included in movie ticket will form part of transaction value
(d) Customer makes payment of freight which is payable by the supplier, directly to the service
provider. However, supplier does not include this amount in this invoice. Such amount will be
included in transaction value of the supplier.
97. Which of the following services are notified under section 9(3) of CGST Act, 2017 or section 5(3)
of IGST Act, 2017 the tax on which shall be paid on reverse charge basis by the recipient of such
supply ?
(i) Supply of security services provided by a person other than a body corporate to a composition
tax payer
(ii) Services supplied by an insurance agent to insurance company located in taxable territory
(iii) Supply of services by way of renting of hotel accommodation through e-commerce operator.
(iv) Supply of notified categories of goods or services or both by a supplier, who is not registered,
to specified class of registered persons.
Choose from the following options :
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
98. Mr. Dev Anand is engaged in providing services of facilitating sale and purchase of securities to
various clients. He is also engaged in trading of securities. His turnover details are as follows :
Trading of securities - ` 40,00,000
Brokerage on account of facilitating transactions in securities - ` 30,00,000
You are required to ascertain aggregate turnover of Mr. Dev Anand under GST :
(a) ` 30,00,000 (b) ` 40,00,000
(c) ` 70,00,000 (d) Nil
99. Mr. Pappu Singh, commenced his business in Feb. 2019. He has established following units :
(i) Unit A (in SEZ) and Unit B (non-SEZ) in the State of Maharashtra
(ii) Unit C in Delhi
(iii) Unit D and E in the State of Goa
Mr. Pappu Singh has approached you to help him in determining the states and number
registrations he is required to take under GST (presuming the fact that he is making taxable
supply from each state and his aggregate turnover exceeds the threshold limit) :
(a) Maharashtra - 2 : Delhi - 1, Goa - Optional 1 or 2
(b) Maharashtra - Optional 1 or 2 : Delhi - 1, Goa - Optional 1 or 2
(c) Maharashtra - 1 : Delhi - 1, Goa - 1
(d) Maharashtra - 2 : Delhi - 1, Goa - 2
100. A non-resident taxable person is required to apply for registration
(a) within 30 days from the date on which he becomes liable to registration
(b) within 60 days from the date on which he becomes liable to registration
(c) at least 5 days prior to the commencement of business
101. Which of the following activity shall be treated neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of
services ?
(i) Permanent transfer of business assets where input tax credit has been availed on such
assets
(ii) Temporary transfer of intellectual property right
(iii) Transportation of deceased
(iv) Services by an employee to the employer in the course of employment
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
H. TYBAF, November 2018
102. Indirect Tax is a .
(a) Regressive tax (b) Progressive tax
(c) Tax on tax (d) Value added tax
103. is levied on Inter-State supplies of goods or services or both.
(a) CGST (b) SGST
(c) IGST (d) Both (a) and (b)
104. The liability to pay tax on goods shall arise at the .
(a) Dispatch of goods (b) Time of supply
(c) Removal of goods (d) Delivery of goods
105. Input Tax Credit of CGST can be first utilised to pay output liability of .
(a) SGST (b) CGST
(c) IGST (d) UTGST
Manan Prakashan 57
106. The first 2 digits of GSTIN represent .
(a) Entity code (b) Country code
(c) State code (d) Check sum character
107. of supply is the amount upon which tax is levied and collected.
(a) Value (b) Cost
(c) Turnover (d) Gross value
108. Input tax does not include .
(a) IGST on import of goods (b) SGST and UTGST
(c) Tax paid under composition levy (d) Tax payable section 9(3) and 9(4)
ANSWERS
1. (c) 17. (a) 33. (d) 49. (a) 65. (b) 81. (d) 97. (b)
2. (d) 18. (b) 34. (b) 50. (b) 66. (d) 82. (d) 98. (a)
3. (d) 19. (c) 35. (a) 51. (b) 67. (a) 83. (c) 99. (a)
4. (b) 20. (a) 36. (b) 52. (d) 68. (b) 84. (b) 100. (c)
5. (c) 21. (b) 37. (c) 53. (c) 69. (a) 85. (b) 101. (d)
6. (c) 22. (c) 38. (d) 54. (a) 70. (b) 86. (a) 102. (a)
7. (d) 23. (d) 39. (b) 55. (b) 71. (c) 87. (b) 103. (c)
8. (a) 24. (b) 40. (c) 56. (b) 72. (c) 88. (d) 104. (b)
9. (b) 25. (c) 41. (a) 57. (c) 73. (d) 89. (c) 105. (b)
10. (b) 26. (b) 42. (a) 58. (a) 74. (b) 90. (d) 106. (c)
11. (b) 27. (d) 43. (a) 59. (b) 75. (c) 91. (b) 107. (a)
12. (d) 28. (c) 44. (d) 60. (d) 76. (c) 92. (a) 108. (c)
13. (c) 29. (d) 45. (a) 61. (c) 77. (c) 93. (d)
14. (c) 30. (b) 46. (b) 62. (b) 78. (b) 94. (c)
15. (c) 31. (d) 47. (c) 63. (c) 79. (c) 95. (d)
16. (d) 32. (b) 48. (c) 64. (a) 80. (a) 96. (a)
T. Y. B. COM. SEMESTER VI DIRECT & INDIRECT TAXES (GST)
SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS SEPT 2020
1. Which of the following taxes will be levied on imports ?

a) CGST b) SGST
c) IGST d) None of the above
2. Which of the following activity is outside the scope of supply and not taxable under
GST ?
i. Services by an employee to the employer In the course of or in relation to
this employment.
ii. Services of funeral
iii. Actionable claims, other than lottery, betting and gambling.
iv. All of the above.
3. Renting of immovable property is __________

a) Supply of goods b) Supply of services
c) Neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of services.
d) Either as a supply of goods or a supply of services.
4. Works contract as defined in section 2 (119) shall be treated as _________

i. Supply of goods
ii. Supply of Services
iii. Neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of services.
iv. Either as a supply of goods or a supply of services.
5. Gifts not exceeding ______ in value in a financial year by an employer to an

employee shall not be treated as supply of goods or services or both.
a) 50,000 b) 1,00,000
c) 2,00,000 d) 2,50,000
6. The ________ shall be treated as supply even if made without consideration.

i. Supply of goods by a principal to his agent where the agent undertakes to
supply such goods on behalf of the principal.
ii. Supply of goods by an agent to his principal where the agent undertakes to
receive such goods on behalf of the principal.
iii. Permanent transfer or disposal of business assets where input tax credit has
been awaited. On such asserts.
iv. All of the above.
7. Which of the following is – the supply in which possession of the goods are
transferred but the title on the same will be transferred at the future date ?
a) Rent a car b) Hire Purchase
c) Normal sale of goods d) None of the above.
8. What would be the tax rate applicable in case of composite supply ?
i. Tax rate as applicable on principal supply
ii. Tax rate as applicable on ancillary supply
iii. Tax rate as applicable on respective supply
iv. None of the above
9. ________ means two or more individual supplies of goods or services, or any

combination thereof, made in conjunction with each other by a taxable person for a
single price where such supply does not constitute a composite supply.
a) Mixed supply b) Principal supply
c) Inward supply d) Exempt supply
10. What is the threshold limit of turnover in the preceding financial year for opting to
pay tax under composition scheme for states other than special category states ?
a) Rs. 20 lacs b) Rs. 10 lacs
c) Rs. 50 lacs d) Rs. 1.5 crore.
11. Can composition scheme be availed if the registered person effects inter-state
supplies ?
i. Yes
ii. No
iii. Yes, subject to prior approval of the Central Government.
iv. Yes, subject to prior approval of the concerned State Government.
12. Which of the following will be excluded from the computation of aggregate
turnover?
i. Value of taxable supplies
ii. Value of exempt supplies
iii. Non taxable supplies
iv. Value of inward supplies on which tax is paid on revere charge basis.
i. Person making any supply of goods which are not leviable to tax under this
act.
ii. Person making any inter-state outward supplies of goods.
iii. Person effecting supply of goods through an e-cxommerce operator iable to
collect tax at source.
iv. None of the above
14. Services to a single residential unit is, exempted if :

i. It is pure labour service only
ii. It is works contract only
iii. It is a part of residential complex only
iv. It is on ground floor without further super structure.
15. Services by educational institution is exempted if the services are to –
a) Any common man b) Its own student, faculty / staff
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
16. Transportation of passengers by ________ are exempt from GST

a) Railway in first class b) Railway in an air-conditioned coach
c) Metro d) All of the above.
17. What is time of supply of goods in case of forward charge ?

i. Date of issue of invoice
ii. Due date of issue of invoice
iii. Date of receipt of consideration by the supplier
iv. earlier of a & b
18. Mr. A sold goods to Mr. B. Determine the TOS in accordance with the provisions of
section 12 of the CGST Act, 2017 in case supply involves movement of goods.
i. Date of removal – 1st Oct 2019
ii. Date of invoice – 2nd Oct 2019
iii. Date when goods made available to the recipient – 3rd Oct 2019
iv. Date of receipt of payment – 15th Nov., 2019
a) 1st Oct, 2019 b) 2nd Oct 2019
c) 3rd Oct 2019 d) 15th Nov 2019
19. Tax invoice must be issued by ________ on supplies made by him.

a. Every supplier
b. Every taxable person
c. Every registered person not paying tax under composition scheme
d. All the above.
20. Where the goods being sent or taken on approval for sale or return are removed
before the supply takes place, the invoice shall be issued
a) before/at the time of supply b) 6 months from the date of removal
c) earlier of (a) & (b) d) none of the above.
21. What is time of supply of goods liable to tax under reversed charge mechanism ?
a. Date of receipt of goods
b. Date on which the payment is made
c. Date immediately following 30 days from the date of issue of invoice by the
supplier.
d. Earlier of (a) or (b) or (c)
22. What is date of receipt of payment ?

a. Date of entry in the books.
b. Date of payment credited into bank account
c. Date of deposit of cheque into bank account.
d. Earlier of (a) and (b)
23. Value of services rendered is Rs. 1,18,000. Date of issue of invoice is 5 th Sept, 2019.
Advance received is Rs. 20,000 on 20th August, 2018. Balance amount received on
7th Sept 2019. What is the TOS of service ?
a. 5th sept, 2019 – Rs. 1,18,000
b. 20th August, 2019 – Rs. 1,18,000
c. 20th August, 2019 – Rs. 20,000 and 5th Sept., 2019 – Rs. 98,000
d. 20th August, 2019 – R. 20,000 and 7th Sept., 2019 – Rs. 98,000
24. In case of taxable supply of services, invoice shall be issued within a period of
______ from the date of supply of serice.
a) 30 days b) 45 days
c) 60 days d) 90 days.
25. Continuous supply of services means a supply of services who provided, or agreed
to be provided, continuously or on recurrent basis, under a contract, for a period
exceeding ______ Months, with periodic payment obligations and includes supply of
such services as the Government may subject to such conditions, as I may, by
notification, specify
a) Three b) Four
c) Six d) Twelve
26. What is the time of supply of service in case of reverse charge mechanism ?
a. Date of payment as entered in the books of account of the recipient
b. Date of immediately following 60 days from the date of issue of invoice
c. Date of invoice
d. Earlier of (a) or (b).
27. There was increase in tax rate from 20% to 24% w.e.f. 01.09.2019. which of the
following rate is applicable when services are provided after change in rate of tax in
September, 2019 but invoice issued and payment received, both in August, 2019 :
a. 20% as it is lower of the two
b. 24% as it is higher of the two
c. 20% as invoice and payment were received prior to rate change.
d. 24% as the supply was completed after rate change.
e.
28. Which of the following is an inter-state supply ?

a. Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods I to an SEZ located
in Delhi.
b. Supplier of goods located in Delhi and place of supply of goods in Jaipur.
c. Supplier of goods loacated in Delhi and place of supply of goods is to an SEZ
located in Chandigarh.
d. All the above
29. _________ is levied on inter-state supply of goods and services.
a) CGST b) SGST
c) IGST d) Both (a) and (b)
30. IGST menas

a) Inter-state GST b) Integrated GST
c) Import GST d) International GST
31. Place of supply of goods, other than supply of goods imported into, or exported
from India, when supply involves movement of goods, is the
a. Location of the goods at the time at which the movement terminates for
delivery.
b. Location of the goods at the time at which the movement starts for delivery
c. Location of the principal place or business of the recipient
d. Location of the principal place of business of the supplier.
32. Where will be the place of supply when the goods are supplied on the direction of
the third party ?
a) Location of the supplier b) Location of the recipient
c) Location of the tghird party d) Any of the above.
33. Where will be the place of supply of goods supplied in a train which is heading
towards Delhi from Chennai, if the goods are tken on board at Coimbatore ?
a) Delhi b) Chennai
c) Coimbatore d) None of the above.
34. Real estate agent in Delhi charges brokerage fee to Company A located in
Chandigarh for assistance in getting a commercial property in Kolkata. Which is the
place of supply in this case ?
a) Delhi b) Chandigarh
c) Kolkata d) None of the above.
35. The default rule of place of supply of services made to a registered person shall be
the
a) Location of the registered person b) Location of the service provider
c) Location of the recipient d) Any of the above
36. The place of supply of services on board a conveyance, including a vessel, an

aircraft, a train or a motor vehicle shall be the
a) Location of the supplier of service
b) Place where the passenger embarks on the conveyance for a
continuous journey.
c) Location of the first scheduled point of departure of that conveyance
for the journey
d) Any of the above.
a) Transaction value b) MRP
c) Market Value d) None of above
38. The value of supply should include

a) Any non-GST taxes, duties, cesses, fees charged by supplier separately.
b) Interest, late fee or penalty for delayed payment of any consideration
for any supply of goods or services.
c) Subsidies directly linked to the price except subsidies provided by the
Central and State Government
d) All of the above.
39. Which of the following shall not be included in value of supply ?

a) GST b) Interest
c) Late fee d) Commission
40. Whether credit on inputs should be availed based on receipt of documents or

receipt of goods
a) Receipt of goods b) Receipt of Documents
c) Both d) Either receipt of documents orreceipt of goods.
41. The time limit to pay the value of supply with taxes to avail the input tax credit ?
a) Three months b) Six months
c) One hundred and eighty days d)Till the date of filling of Annual Return
42. Whether depreciation on tax component of capital goods and plant and Machinery
And whether input tax credit is permissible ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Input tax credit is eligible if on tax component is not availed.
43. Can unutilized input tax credit be transferred in case of change in constitution of
business?
a. Not possible
b. No, it will be exhausted
c. Yes, it will be transferred only if there is provision for transfer of liabilities
d. It will be transferred only if it is shown in books of accounts of transferor
44. ITC can be claimed by a registered person for
a. Taxable supplies for business purpose
b. Exempted supplies
c. Non-taxable supplies
d. All of above
45. Whether all persons are mandatorily required to obtain registration ?

a. Yes
b. Not required if he is an agriculturist or person exclusively engaged in supplying
exempt goods or services, if specified threshold limit does not exceed in a
financial year.
c. Not required if he is an agriculturist person exclusively engaged in supplying
exempt goods or services
d. No, only if specified threshold is exceeded in a calendar year, only then liable for
registration.
46. Which one of following statements is correct ?
a) Voluntary registration is not possible under GST.
b) Voluntarily registered person not liable to comply with all the provisions of the
GST.
c) A person may get himself registered voluntarily and shall comply with all the
provisions of GST.
47. Which of the following require compulsory registration, irrespective of threshold

limit?
a) Casual taxable person
b) Non Resident taxable person
c) Person liable to pay under Reverse Charge Mechanism
48. Mr. A has started supply of goods and services in Delhi, He is required to obtain
registration of his aggregate turnover exceeds ______ during a financial year.
a) Rs. 10 lakh b) Rs. 20 lakh
c) Rs. 30 lakh d) Rs. 50 lakh
49. Aggregate turnover includes

a) Taxable supplies b) Exempt supplies
c) Exports d) All of the above
50. Which of these registers/ledgers are maintained online ?
a) Tax liability register b) Credit ledger
c) Cash ledger d) All of them
51. Balance in electronic credit ledger can be utilized against which liability ?
a) Output tax payable b) Interest
c) Penalty d) All of them
52. Balance in electronic credit ledger under IGST can be used against which liability ?
a) IGST liability only b) IGST and CGST liability
c) IGST, CGST and SGST liability d) None of them
53. Which of the following statements is true ?

a) ITC of CGST is first utilized for payment of CGST and the balance is utilized for
payment of SGST/UTGST
b) ITC of SGST is first utilized for payment of SGST and the balance is utilized for
payment of CGST
c) ITC of CGST is first utilized for payment of CGST and the balance is utilized for
payment of IGST
d) All of the above
DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI,PUNE - 45
SUBJECT CODE: 304 SUBJECT NAME: AUDITING AND TAXATION
Section I – Auditing Unit 1 : Introduction Principles of Auditing and Audit Process.

1. An independent audit is important to readers of financial statements because it
a) Provides a measure of management's stewardship function.

b) Measures and communicates the financial data included in financial
statements.
c) Objectively examines and reports on management's financial statements.
d) Reports on the accuracy of information in the financial statements.
2. The evidence available to auditor is _______ in nature, rather _______ in nature.
a) pervasive, conclusive
b) Conclusive, pervasive
c) limited, unlimited
3. Compliance with the Standard of Auditing is the responsibility of
a) Management
b) Those charged with governance
c) Auditor
d) Audit committee
4. An auditor is required to determine the ____ of his audit procedures according to the
requirements of Standards of Auditing.
a) Conduct
b) Nature ,timing and extent
c) Limitation
d) Planning
5. The main object of an audit is
a) Expression of opinion
b) Detection and Prevention of fraud and error
c) Both (1) and (2)
d) Depends on the type of Business
PROF . MUBINA ATTARI www.dacc.edu.in

6. The audit process is
a) special application of the scientific method of inquiry.

b) Regulated by the PICPA .c.
c) The only service a CPA is allowed to perform by law.
d) Performed only by CPAs
7. Appropriateness means _______ of audit evidence.
a) Quantity.
b) Quality.
c) Appropriateness.
d) Sufficient.
8. Professional judgment means a judgment taken by the auditor out of his ______
in an audit situation
a) Past experience.
b) Relation with the management
c) Professional experience.
d) Work experience.
9. A sale of Rs. 50.000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of _
a) Error of omission.
b) Error of commission.
c) Compensating error.
d) Error of principle.
10. Goods sent on approval basis’ have been recorded as ‘Credit sales’. This is an
example of……………………..
a) Error of principle.
b) Error of commission.
c) Error of omission.
d) Error of duplication.
11. What is the main objectives of Auditing?
a) To give an opinion as to the truth and fairness of Financial statement.

b) To finds errors.

c) To help taxation departments.

d) To help customers.
12. Meaning of Interim Audit:
a) Audit of 12 months
b) Audit for more than 12 months.
c) Audit for less than 12 months.
d) Audit for long period.
13. Internal Audit is conducted by :
a) Employees of an Organization.
b) Customers
c) Government
d) Employees of other Organization.
14. Audit Evidence is obtained by:

a) Inspection.
b) Observation.
c) Inquiry and Confirmation.
15. Which Audit is conducted to check the cost records of the company?
a) Financial Audit.
b) Operational Audit.
c) Management Audit.
d) Cost Audit
Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C A C B D A B C B A A C A D D

Section I – Auditing Unit 2 : Checking, Vouching and Audit Report
Fill in the blanks

1. The evidence available to auditor is _______ in nature, rather _______ in nature.
2. Standards issued by the Auditing and assurance standards boards under the
authority of the council are collectively known as ______.
3. The person who is assigned the responsibility for the firm’s quality control system
by the managing partner should possess sufficient and appropriate ________
and the necessary authority to assume that responsibility.
4. The firm’s ______ should assume ultimate responsibility for the firm’s system of
quality control.
5. Professional judgment means a judgment taken by the auditor out of his ______
in an audit situation
6. Appropriateness means _______ of audit evidence
7. Whether sufficient appropriate audit evidence has been obtained to reduce audit
risk to an acceptable low level, and thereby enable the auditor to draw
reasonable conclusion on which to base the auditor’s opinion, is a matter of
________.
8. Sufficiency is the measure of the _____ of audit evidence.
9. The audit firm should implement _________ policies to ensure all audits are
conducted in accordance with Audit and Assurance Standards.
10 . Engagement Team means all personnel performing ______.

1 Audit of a bank is generally conducted through:
a) Routine checking
b) Couching
c) Balance sheet audit
d) Profit & Loss.
2. An auditor is liable for his annual audit of accounts o:

a) Creditors
b) Bankers
c) Owners
d) Debtors.
3. Which of the following is not true about opinion on financial statements?

a) Auditor should express an opinion on financial statements.
b) His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of business
c) He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in
financial statements
d) He should examine whether recognised accounting principle have been
consistently

4. Auditing standards differ from audit procedures in that procedures relate to

a) Audit assumptions
b) acts to be performed
c) quality criterion
d) methods of work.
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate potential reaction of the

auditor to his assessment that the risk of material misstatement due to fraud
is high in relation to existence of inventory?
a) Visit location on surprise basis to observe test counts
b) Request inventory count at a date close to year end
c) Vouch goods sent on approval very carefully
d) Perform analytical procedures.
6. An auditor who accepts an audit but does not possess the industry expertise
of the business entity should
a) engage experts
b) obtain knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of entity’s
business
c) inform management about it
d) take help of other auditors.
7. Audit in depth is synonymous for

a) Complete audit
b) Completed audit
c) Final audit
d) Detailed audit.
8.Which of the following statements is, generally, correct about the

reliability of audit evidence?
a) To be reliable, evidence should conclusive rather than

persuasive
b) Effective internal control system provides reliable audit evidence
c) Evidence obtained from outside sources routed through the client
d) All of the Above.
9. When is evidential matter, generally, considered sufficient?

a) When it constitutes entire population
b) When it is enough to provide a basis for giving reasonable
assurance regarding truthfulness
c) When it is objective and relevant
d) When auditor collects and evaluates it independently.

10. For what minimum period should audit working papers be retained by audit firm?
a) For the time period the entity remains a client of the audit firm.
b) For a period of ten years
c) For a period auditor opines them to be useful in servicing the client
d) For the period the audit firm is in existence.
ANSWER KEY
Multiple Choice
Questions Fill in the blanks
1 2 3 4 5 1 persuasive , conclusive 6 quality
A C A B A 2 Engagement Standards 7 professional judgement
6 7 8 9 10 3 experience 8 quantity
A D B B C 4 managing partner 9 quality control
5 professional experience 10 engagements.

Section I – Auditing Unit 3: Company Auditor

1. Who is responsible for the appointment of statutory auditor of a limited company
?
a) Directors of the company.
b) Members of the company.
c) The Central Government.
2. Which of the following sections deal with qualifications of the auditor ?

a) Section 226 (1) and section 226(2).
b) Section 224 (1) and section 224 (2).
c) Section 226 (3) and section 226(4).
d) Section 224(3) & Sec.224.
3. Which of the following statement is not true?

a) A partnership firm can be appointed as a statutory auditor of limited company.
b) Appointment can be made in the name of the firm.
c) Majority of the partners should be practicing in India.
d) All partners should be chartered accountants.
4. As per the requirements of section 226(3) and 226(4) a person is disqualified

from being appointed as a statutory auditor if he holds………………
a) Equity shares or debentures of the company.
b) Equity shares carrying voting of the company.
c) Shares carrying voting rights of the company.
d) Security carrying voting rights of the company.
5. The board of directors shall appoint first auditor of a company.

a) With in one month of completion of capital subscription state of the company.
b) With in one month of the promotion of the company.
c) With in one month of the commencement of the business of the company.
d) With in one month of incorporation of the company.
6. The term of the auditor ship of first auditor would be from the date of appointment
till………………………….
a) the conclusion of statutory meeting.
b) the conclusion of first annual general meeting.
c) the conclusion of next annual general meeting.
d) the date of removal.
7. In case the directions fail to appoint first auditor (s), the shareholders shall
appoint them at…..by passing a resolution

a) a general meeting.
b) first annual general meeting.
c) statutory meeting.
d) annual general meeting.
8. Life Insurance Corporation of India holds twenty five percent of subscribed

capital of XYZ Ltd. The appointment of statutory auditor in XYZ Ltd. Would be
by…………………..
a) ordinary resolution.
b) special resolution.
c) (a) or (b).
d) none of the above.
9. Which of the following statement is not true regarding appointment of statutory

auditor by the Central Government?
a) Such powers have been conferred upon it by section 224(3).
b) If a company fails to appoint an auditor at a general meeting.
c) If an auditor refuses to accept appointment, the powers of the Central
Government can be exercised.
d) None of the above.
10. The auditor’s _________ safeguards the auditor’s ability to form an audit opinion
without being affected by any influences.
(a) Objectivity.
(b) Independence.
(c) Confidentiality.
(d) Integrity.
Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A C D D B A B B D

Section I – Auditing Unit 4: Tax Audit

1. A continuous audit is specially needed for
a) Any trading concern
b) Smaller concerns
c) Banking companies
d) Any manufacturing companies
2. Propriety audit refers to

a) Verification of accounts
b) Examination accounts of propriety concerns
c) Enquiry against justification and necessity of expresses
d) Audit of Govt. companies
3. Final audit implies

a) Audit of accounts at the end of the year
b) Finally checking of accounts to reveal frauds
c) Audit for submitting report immediately at the end of the year
d) Audit of banking companies
4. Management audit means

a) Audit undertaken on behalf of the management
b) Evaluating performance of various management processes and
functions
c) Audit undertaken on behalf of Govt. to punish management
d) Compulsory audit
5. A special auditor is appointed by the

a) Shareholders
d) C & A – G
6. A government Co. auditor may be appointed by the

a) C & A – G
b) Shareholders

a) Shareholders

d) State Government
8 Auditor should be dutiful like a

a) A watch dog
b) A blood hound
c) A detective
d) An insurer
9 --------------- audit is forward looking –

a) Financial
b) Cost
c) Tax
10. Audit under any statute in a country is called ------------------

a) Final audit
b) Internal audit
c) Statutory audit
11. -------------------- audit is not a statuary requirement

a) Management
b) Financial
c) Tax Audit
12. ---------------- audit is compulsory for joint stock companies

a) Statutory
b) Final
c) Continuous
13. Deduction under section 80-HHE is related to :

a) Export of computer software, technical services outside India.
b) Foreign projects.
c) Business of exports.
d) Backwards industries
14. Form 3-CB is used for :

a) Truth and fairness of Accounts.
b) Filled in the case of compulsory Audit.
c) Filled by Special Business.
d) Filled by government organizations.
15. Deduction under section 35-D is related to:

a) Preliminary Expenses
b) Foreign projects.
c) Business of exports.
d) Backwards industries.
Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

C C A B C A A A B C A A A A A
Section I – Auditing Unit 5: Audit of Computerized Systems

1.Types of EDP Accounting System:
a. Batch Processing .
b. Real – time Processing system.
c. Only A
d. Both A and B .
2.Full form od CAAT .

a) Computer Application Audit Techniques.
b) Computer Audit Assisted Techniques.
c) Computer Audit Application Techniques.
d) Computer Assisted Audit Techniques.
3.Problems encountered in an EDP Enviroment:

a) Absence of voucher.
b) Computer virus.
c) Coding Problem.
4.What is EDP?
a) Emergency Data Program
b) Electronic Data parity
c) Electronic Data Processing
d) Emerging Data Processing.
5.Full form of GAS:

a) General Audit System
b) Generalized Audit Software
c) Generalized Audit System.
d) General Assistant System.
Answer key
1 2 3 4 5
D D D C B

Section II – Taxation Unit 1: Income Tax Act-1961 (Meaning, Concept and Definitions)
Fill in the blanks
1) Income Tax Act came into force on………………
2) Residential status is determined for ……………………………
3) ………………………………heads of income are there to compute Gross total
income.
4) Deduction of tax at source made for incomes which can be calculated in
advance is called .........
5) The number allotted by income tax authorities to assesses for identification
and which should be quoted in all documents and correspondence
is……………………
6) Under the income- tax act, the incidence of taxation depends on ....................
7) Income by way of rent of agricultural land is ……………………
8) Direct Tax is getting from………………………
9) CBDT is controlled by……………………………………………
10) Previous year starts from……………….
State whether the following statements are True or False

1. All interest paid to a taxpayer must be included in gross income.
2. A taxpayer’s filing status determines the basic standard deduction allowed.
3. All states have state income tax
4. Income tax is paid on only income earned through working from pay.
5. Everyone pays the same amount of taxes.
6. A corporation is a "legal person" that can be sued
7. A person may not have assessable income but may still be assesses.
8. In some cases assessment year and previous year can be same financial
year.
9. A.O.P should consist of Individual and Persons other than individual only.
10. Body of individual should consist of Individual and Persons other than
individual only.
ANSWER KEY
True or False Fill in the blanks
1 2 3 4 5 1 1961 6 Residential status
F T F F F 2 Incidence of tax 7 Taxable
6 7 8 9 10 3 five 8 income
F T T T F 4 TDS 9 Finance Ministry
5 PAN 10 1st April

Section II – Taxation Unit 2: ( Computation of Taxable Income under the different

Heads of Income)

1.Surcharge of 10 per cent is payable by an individual where the total income exceeds:
a) Rs.7,50,000
b) Rs.8,50,000
c) Rs.10,00,000
d) None of the three
2.For an employee in receipt of hostel expenditure allowance for his three children, the
maximum
annual allowance exempt under section 10(14) is
a) Rs.10, 800
b) Rs.7,200
c) Rs.9,600
d) Rs.3,600
3.Calculate the Gross Annual value from the following details:

Municipal Value - Rs. 45,000 Fair rental value - Rs. 50,000 Standard rent -
Rs. 48,000 Actual Rent - Rs. 42,000
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs. 48,000
c) Rs. 45,000
d) Rs. 42,000
4.M took a loan of Rs. 6,00,000 on 1.4.2011 from a bank for construction of a house.
The loan carries an interest @ 10% p.a. The construction is completed on 15.6.2013.
The entire loan is still outstanding. Compute the interest allowable for the assessment
year 2020- 21
a) Rs. 60,000
b) Rs. 1,80,000
c) Rs. 84,000
d) Rs. 24,000
5.Deduction under section 80C to 80U cannot exceed:

a) Gross Total Income
b) Total Income
c) Income from business or profession
d) Income from house property
6.The first income tax act was introduced in the year

a) 1918

b) 1861
c) 1860
d) 1886
7.Income received or deemed to be received in India (whether accrued in or outside

India) is taxable in case of
a) Resident
b) Not Ordinarily Resident
c) Non Resident
d) All of the above
8.Pension is _______________ under the salary head.

a) Fully taxable
b) Partially taxable
c) Not taxable
9.The salary, remuneration or compensation received by the partners is taxable under

the head _______________.
a) Income from Other Sources
b) Income from Business
c) Salary
10.Rent Free Accommodation given to an employee by the employer is a

____________.
a) Allowance
b) Perquisite
c) Profit in lieu of salary
Fill in the blanks

1. The Payment of Gratuity Act came into force in
2. The entertainment allowance is applicable to………
3. _______ is the rent fixed under Rent control Act.
4. Under the Head Income from House Property, the basis of charge is the
______________ of property
5. Mr. Ram owns a house property. He lent it to Laxman at`10,000 p.m.
Laxman sublet it to Mr. Maruti on monthly rent of`20,000 p.m. Rental
income of Laxman is taxable under the head
6. Mr. Ram owns a house property. He lent it to Laxman at`10,000 p.m.
Laxman sublet it to Mr. Maruti on monthly rent of`20,000 p.m. Rental
income of Ram is taxable under the head
7. Deduction from annual value is allowed under……………
8. For computation of Gross Annual Value, if actual rent is more than expected
rent, then we select the……………………
9. Under the Income Tax Act, 1961, depreciation on machinery is charged
on……………………….
10. Payment of LIC premium can be claimed as deduction u/s ………………

ANSWER KEY
Multiple Choice
Questions Fill in the blanks
1 2 3 4 5 1 16-Sep-72 6 Income from other source
C B B C A 2 government employees 7 section 24
6 7 8 9 10 3 Standard rent 8 Actual rent
B A B C A 4 annual value 9 WDV
5 income from house property 10 80C

Section II – Taxation Unit 3: Computation of Total Taxable Income of an Individual
Fill in the blanks

1. Maximum limit for the deduction of Life insurance premia from the gross total
income is…………………………….
2. In Income Tax Act, 1961, deduction under sections 80C to 80U cannot
exceed Gross total income _______________.
3. The maximum aggregate amount of deduction under sections 80C, 80CCC
and 80CCD cannot exceed………………………
4. Deduction in respect of contribution to political party
will…………………………. if payment made in cash
5. Maximum amount of deduction in case of a person with severe disability
under section 80U will be……………………………………
6. Deduction in respect of contribution to pension scheme of central government
comes under _______________ of Income Tax Act, 1961
7. Section …………………is a section related to clubbing of income.
8. Rate of education cess on total income is………………
9. …………………………… deals with PAN.
10. Amount of deduction in case of a person with severe disability under section
80U will be……………
Answer key
Fill in the blanks
1 150000 6 section 80CCD
2 150000 7 section 60-64
3 150000 8 2%
4 not be allowed 9 139A
5 50000 10 125000

Section II – Taxation Unit 4: Miscellaneous
1. Mr. X made payment to Mr. Y on which Mr. X failed to deduct the TDS. Mr. Y
(Resident) fulfilled the following requirements so that Mr. X should not be deemed to be
an assesses in default. Which of the following was wrongly complied by Mr.Y because
of which Mr. X was treated as assesses in default?
a) Furnished his return u/s 139.

b) Offered the income in return on which TDS should have been done by Mr. X.
c) Paid the Tax Due on the income declared by him in such return of Income.
d) Furnished a Certificate to this effect from C.A. in Form 27BA.
e) None of the Above.
2. Because of Death of his Son Mr. Salman could not file Quarterly statement for TDS
Deducted. As there is a reasonable cause for such failure which of the following will not
be levied:
a) Penalty
b) Fees
c) Both
3. Mr.Marshal owned network of telecom towers and infrastructure services. He let out
these to major telecom operators of the country. He applied u/s. 197 for obtaining a
certificate of lower deduction of tax. As per the Judgment of Indus Towers Ltd. Vs CIT
(2014)(Del.) at what rate Tax shall be deducted
a) 1% u/s 194C
b) 10% u/s 194I
c) 2% u/s 194I
d) 0.5% u/s 194C
4. State Government pays commission of Rs.20, 000/- to one of its agent on sale of
Lottery Tickets.
a) TDS is required to be made @ 5% on any amount paid as commission for sale

of lottery tickets
b) TDS is required to be made @ 5% if commission to a single person in a F.Y.
exceeds 15,000/-
c) TDS is required to be made @ 5% if commission to a single person in a F.Y.
exceeds 30,000/-
d) TDS shall not be deducted as payment is made by State Government
5.Taxpayers opting for presumptive taxation scheme of Section 44AD are required to
pay up to of advance tax by 15th June?

(a) 15%
(b) 45%
(b) 75%
(d) Nil
6. Full form of TDS is :

a. Tax Deducted at source.
b. Tax sources.
c. Tax Challan
d. Tax Deposited at source
7. ITR -5 is related to :
a. For Individuals
b. For HUF.
c. For Firms, AOPs And BOIs.
d. For Companies.
8. Challan No……………. is used by all categories of tax payers for payment of income
tax.
a. Challan no.280
b. Challan no.282
c. Challan no.281
d. Challan no.281(A)
9………………….is responsible to deduct tax at source.

a) Assessee
b) Payee
c) Payer
d) Agencies.
10.Tax refund has to be claimed within :

a. Five years
b. Same year
c. One year
d. Next year
11.In the case of companies, income tax return is signed by:

a. Manager
b. Board of Directors.
c. 3.General Manager.
d. Managing Director
12.In the absence of the individual assesses, return of income can be signed by
…………………
a. Legal Heir
b. Spouse.
c. Any Person.
d. Authorized person
13.The filing of return of loss in case of a person other than a company or firm is:

A. mandatory
B. not mandatory
C. mandatory if the assesses has to carry forward the loss which are allowed
to be carried forward & set off
Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
D B C B A A C A C C D D A

Section II – Taxation Unit 5: Income Tax Authorities

1. ITAT all decisions are taken by majority of member’s, if the Members are equally
divided then the final vote will have of
a) President
b) Chairman
c) Assessing officer
d) Majority Of member
2. For ITAT special powers of stay is available and stay will automatically Get vacated if
matter is not decided in time of.
a) 6 months
b) 9 months
c) 12 months
d) 18 months
3.Assessment under following section is termed as scrutiny assessment
a) 143(3)
b) 144
c) Both of the above
4.An appeal to the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) shall be filed in Form No.
________.
a) 35
b) 36
c) 34C
d) 35B
5.Section ________ specifies the orders against which an appeal can be filed before
the Commissioner of Income tax (Appeals).
a) 246A

b) 260A
c) 253
d) 261
6.The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) is the ________ appellate authority
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
7.There are certain specified financial transactions in which quoting of PAN is

mandatory. If a person intending to enter into such transaction does not hold PAN then,
he has to furnish;
a) Form 60
b) Form 49A
c) Form 49C
d) Form 49AA
8.Mr. A is not a citizen of India. He wants to apply for PAN in India and he has consulted
you to provide him the applicable form for application of PAN. What would be correct
Form;
a) Form 49A
b) Form 49B
c) Form 49AA
d) None of above
9.Which of the following can be corrected while processing the return of income under
section 143(1)?
a) any arithmetical error in the return

b) any error in the return of income
c) any mistake in the return of income
d) any claim by the taxpayer which is against law
10.E-filing of return in case of an office of the Government/company and a firm whose

accounts are liable to be audited is:

a) mandatory
b) optional
c) mandatory when its income exceeds Rs. `5,00,000
d) mandatory when its income exceeds Rs. 10,00,00
Answer key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A A A A A A C A A

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B COM SEMESTER 6

AUDITING AND ASSURANCE

116. Special resolution means ________.

1. D 26. A 51. D 76. D 101. D 126. A 151. A 176. A

CHAPTER - 1 : INTRODUCTION [S. 1]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. GST Stands for

CHAPTER - 2 : DEFINITIONS [S. 2]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

A. Recipient [Section 2(93)]

1. (a) 3. (c) 5. (b) 7. (c) 9. (a)

CHAPTER - 3 : SCOPE OF SUPPLY [S. 7 - 8]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

A. Scope of Supply (Section 7)

CHAPTER - 4 : LEVY AND COLLECTION OF TAX [S. 9]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

A. Levy and Collection (CGST - Section 9)

CHAPTER - 5 : COMPOSITION LEVY [S. 10]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following persons can opt for composition scheme?

CHECK YOUR ANSWERS

1. (d) 4. (c) 7. (b) 10. (b) 13. (e) 16. (a)

CHAPTER - 6 : EXEMPTION FROM TAX [S. 11]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

CHAPTER - 7 : TIME OF SUPPLY [S. 12-14]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

[A] TIME OF SUPPLY OF GOODS (SECTION 12)

A.1 Forward Charge

B.1 Forward Charge

CHAPTER - 8 : NATURE AND PLACE OF SUPPLY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

A. Inter-State, Intra-State Supply

CHAPTER - 9 : VALUE OF SUPPLY [S. 15]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

A. Transaction Value [S. 15(1)]

B. Inclusions [S. 15(2)]

1. (a) 4. (c) 7. (d) 10. (b) 13. (a) 16. (d)

CHAPTER - 10 : INPUT TAX CREDIT [S. 16, 18]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Whether definition of Inputs includes capital goods.

CHAPTER - 11 : REGISTRATION UNDER

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. How the aggregate turnover of ` 20 lakh is calculated ?

CHAPTER - 12 : PAYMENT OF TAX [S. 49]

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of these registers/ledgers are maintained online?

CHAPTER - 13 : COMPUTATION OF LIABILITY AND TAX

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

A. ICSI Inter, December 2017

1. Which of the following taxes will be levied on imports ?

3. Renting of immovable property is __________

4. Works contract as defined in section 2 (119) shall be treated as _________

5. Gifts not exceeding ______ in value in a financial year by an employer to an

6. The ________ shall be treated as supply even if made without consideration.

9. ________ means two or more individual supplies of goods or services, or any

14. Services to a single residential unit is, exempted if :

16. Transportation of passengers by ________ are exempt from GST

17. What is time of supply of goods in case of forward charge ?

19. Tax invoice must be issued by ________ on supplies made by him.

2. The evidence available to auditor is _ in nature, rather _ in nature.