Pulpal Anatomy and Access Preparations: Appendix A
Pulpal Anatomy and Access Preparations: Appendix A
Pulpal Anatomy and Access Preparations: Appendix A
The illustrations in this appendix depict the size, shape, 2. The size and appearance of the access on anterior
and location of the pulp space within each tooth, as well teeth as viewed from the incisal surface
as the more common morphologic variations. Based on 3. The approximate size of the access opening
this knowledge of the shape of the pulp and its spatial 4. The location of canal orifices and their positions rela-
relationship to the crown and root, the correct outline tive to occlusal landmarks and to each other
form for access preparation is presented from the occlu- 5. The canal curvatures and the location of the apical
sal, lingual, and proximal views. From these illustrations, foramina
the following features can be observed: 6. The configuration of the chamber and cervical portion
of the canals after straight-line access preparation
1. The location of access on posterior teeth relative to
7. The root curvatures that are most common
occlusal landmarks such as marginal ridges and
cusp tips Each illustration gives the following information:
Original canal
orifice
Orifice after Floor of
straight- chamber
Access location line access
from facial
Location
of pulp Access
horns outline
In addition, the percentages of the more common demonstrate relative occurrences. The more common
morphologic variations of the roots and canals are given. root and canal curvatures are included. These are curva-
With many of the tooth groups, the percentages do not tures not readily identified on radiographs (i.e., toward
total 100%. The remaining percentage represents the less the facial and lingual aspects).
common variations not illustrated. Percentages are
approximate to give general information, primarily to Text continued on p. 432
419
420 Appendix A ■
Pulpal Anatomy and Access Preparations
* Midroot
*
L
Incisal
Cervical view
D M
1 canal: 100%
* Midroot *
L
Incisal
view
D M
1 canal: 100%
L
Incisal
view
1 canal: 100%
D M
L
B
Midroot
D M
L B L
B
B
57%
D M Cervical
16%
B
1 root
L
Midroot B
12%
B
L
D M
L
10%
B
*
1 canal:
53%
Midroot
D M B
B
1 root: 88%
2 canals,
1 foramen:
L 22%
D M
2 canals:
13%
Apical
L
D M
B
B
2 roots: 11% Midroot
11%
L
D M B
Cervical
L B L
*
*
D M D M
D M
* *
B
*
L
Midroot
MESIAL DISTAL
B L
Single
foramen:
80%
L
MESIOBUCCAL
B L B
Midroot section
Two
(mesiobuccal root)
foramina:
20%
2 canals: 60%
3 roots: 60%
*
* D M
D M
D M
L
midroot
MESIAL DISTAL
2 mesiobuccal
canals: 38%
Single
foramen: L
15%
B
Two
foramina:
10%
2 roots: 25% L
B
D M Midroot
FACIAL
MESIAL
FACIAL
B
Midroot section
1 root: 10%
L
B
Midroot section
D M
Central incisor: 25%
Lateral incisor: 30%
Incisal
view
*
B
L
Midroot
B
Central incisor: 5%
L Lateral incisor: 15%
* Midroot
D M
Incisal
view
*
20% B
L
Midroot
B
L
* 70%
Midroot
10%
L
Midroot
70%
D M
B
*
L
Midroot
B
* 4%
1 foramen:
74%
M D B
L
D M Midroot
B
25%
L
Midroot
2 foramina:
25%
D M B
85%
B L
Midroot
*
*
B
1 foramen:
97%
B
D M
12%
L
L Midroot
D M
3%
2 foramina: L
3%
Midroot
D M
M
M D D
* *
MESIAL DISTAL
70%
L
Midroot *
60%
B
20%
L
Midroot
40%
10%
D M
D
M M
D
*
*
MESIAL DISTAL
L 92%
40% Midroot
B
5%
35%
L
Midroot
25% 3%
D M
C-shaped canal D M
B B B B
Midroot variations
M D D M
D M
D M
D M
D M
D M D M
L
432 Appendix A ■
Pulpal Anatomy and Access Preparations
Examples of access openings prepared in extracted marks (marginal ridge and cusp tips) and (2) the size and
teeth are given here. It is important to recognize: (1) the shape of the access relative to the size and shape of the
location of the access relative to occlusal or lingual land- occlusal or lingual surface.
Appendix B contains a series of questions for each of the draw on several statements contained within the text.
chapters. These questions have been developed not only The review questions are available in two formats, print
to test the reader’s comprehension of the material, but or electronic on the accompanying DVD. This appendix
also to ensure that the important concepts from each includes a correct answer key. The DVD includes a ratio-
chapter are highlighted. In answering these questions, nale for the correct answer, as well as the page cross refer-
the reader will become acquainted with many of the ence in which those concepts and answers can be found
critical points of information contained within each in the book.
chapter. It is the authors’ intention that by completing this
The questions are set in a multiple choice format and exercise and understanding the answers, the reader will
are drawn from the chapters; however, a specific answer be able to organize the information into a basic under-
may not be immediately evident because a question may standing of endodontics.
434
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 435
7. Epithelial cell rests of Malassez are remnants of 15. Which of the following is not a type of pulp stones?
what? a. free
a. odontoblasts b. attached
b. cementoblasts c. embedded
c. epithelial root sheath d. floating
d. teeth of the deciduous dentition
CHAPTER 2
8. Why are lateral canals clinically significant?
a. Symptoms may persist if not treated.
Protecting the Pulp, Preserving the Apex
b. They allow pulp disease to extend to periodontal 1. What is a “pulp cap”?
tissues. a. an early stage of tooth development
c. They effectively block periodontal disease from b. capping the exposed pulp with a thin layer of
extending to the pulp. lining or base material
d. They contain the greatest amount of pulp tissue. c. capping exposed necrotic tissue by placing a layer
of mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA)
9. What morphological changes occur to the dental d. a method of isolation used during root canal
pulp over time? treatment
436 Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions
2. What is the effect on blood flow to the pulp when 9. Vital pulp therapies have variable rates of success.
anesthetics with vasoconstrictors are used during What is the most significant determinant of the
restorative procedures? success of vital pulp therapy?
a. reduced by 10% its normal rate a. periapical status before the procedure
b. reduced to less than half its normal rate b. periodontal status before the procedure
c. unchanged c. pulp status before the procedure
d. increased by 25% because of stress on the pulp d. type of restorative material to be used
tissue
10. Which of the following steps are used in step-wise
3. What is dentin “blushing”? evacuation of caries?
a. the color of newly erupted teeth due to large pulp a. removing all the caries in a single visit
chambers b. placing a calcium hydroxide base at the initial
b. use of a masking color during restorative visit
procedures c. placing a glass ionomer base at each visit
c. vascular hemorrhage of pulp tissue, often during d. removing only a superficial layer of caries at the
crown preparation first visit
d. an esthetic concern requiring laminate restorations
11. How does a direct pulp cap for an accidental mechan-
4. Why are deeper carious lesions more injurious to the ical pulp exposure differ from a direct pulp cap for an
dental pulp? exposure caused by caries?
a. increased dentin permeability in deeper areas a. Pulp is likely to be severely inflamed beneath a
b. increased length of the dentinal tubule in deeper deep carious lesion.
areas b. Long-term success for a mechanical exposure is
c. decreased density of dentinal tubules in deeper low.
areas c. Long-term success for a carious exposure is high.
d. decreased diameter of dentin tubules in deeper d. A mechanical exposure should be immediately
areas root canal treated.
5. Why does a blast of compressed air directed at freshly 12. When does apical closure occur in the developing
exposed dentin create a sensation of pain? root?
a. frightens the patient a. at the time of eruption
b. air is cold b. approximately 1 year after eruption
c. rapid outward movement of fluid in patent den- c. approximately 3 years after eruption
tinal tubules d. approximately 5 years after eruption
d. rapid inward movement of fluid in patent dentinal
tubules 13. If the pulp becomes necrotic before root growth is
complete, the resultant root is
6. What is the most important characteristic of any a. short with thick dentin walls
restorative material in determining its effect on the b. short with thin dentin walls
pulp tissue? c. normal length with thick dentin walls
a. heat generated by the material d. normal length with thin dentin walls
b. speed the material sets
c. ability to form a marginal seal 14. What is apexogenesis?
d. life expectancy of the restorative material a. induction of a calcific barrier across an open apex
b. removal of the necrotic pulp
7. What effect does orthodontic tooth movement have c. determination of corrected working length
to the dental pulp? d. continued physiological root formation
a. no clinically significant changes
b. continued reliability to electric pulp testing 15. Which of the following has not been demonstrated
c. extrusion reduces pulpal blood flow for a few with MTA when used in apexification?
minutes a. good biocompatibility
d. intrusive forces have no effect on pulpal blood b. good sealability
flow c. high pH value
d. adjacent zone of necrosis
8. Should bases be used to protect the pulp beneath
metallic restorations?
CHAPTER 3
a. Yes, a thin cement base should be used.
b. Yes, a thick layer of varnish should be used.
Endodontic Microbiology
c. No, a base is only necessary if the tooth is to be 1. Which of the following is not a main portal of entry
crowned. for microorganisms to enter the dental pulp?
d. No, additional thermal insulation is rarely a. dentinal tubules
needed. b. direct pulp exposure
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 437
15. If a patient is to be referred to an endodontist for 7. Periodontal inflammation resulting from primary
treatment, when is the most appropriate time for the endodontic disease may mimic periodontal disease by
referral? which of the following?
a. before beginning treatment a. generalized increase in probing depths in the
b. during treatment when expected difficulties affected quadrant
arise b. an apical radiolucency
c. before weekends or holidays c. a narrow deep solitary probing defect associated
d. after obturation when separated instruments are with an affected tooth
present d. all of the above
440 Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions
8. A patient presents with a chief complaint of pain 14. Treatment sequencing for primary endodontic
to cold temperatures. Examination and testing re- disease with secondary periodontal involvement
veal a maxillary left premolar exhibiting severe includes
lingering pain in response to cold. No caries or frac- a. scaling and root planing followed by endodontic
tures are noted. Periodontal probings are 6 to 9 mm treatment
around that specific tooth and 6 to 7 mm around the b. endodontic treatment followed by scaling and
other posterior teeth in the quadrant. The patient root planing
reports having a “deep cleaning” (root planing) three c. endodontic treatment followed by periodontal
times per year. What would the diagnosis in this case surgery
be? d. endodontic treatment followed by reevaluation of
a. primary endodontic disease with secondary peri- periodontal status in 2 to 3 months
odontal involvement
b. primary periodontal disease with secondary end-
odontic involvement
CHAPTER 7
c. separate and unrelated endodontic and periodon-
tal disease
Longitudinal Tooth Fractures
d. a true combined endodontic-periodontic (endo- 1. What category of longitudinal tooth fractures is most
perio) disease process severe?
a. craze lines
9. What will the long-term prognosis for the patient b. fractured cusp
described in question 8 primarily depend on? c. cracked tooth
a. successful periodontal treatment d. vertical root fracture
b. successful endodontic treatment
c. treatment sequencing 2. What clinical conditions or situations are often asso-
d. timing of treatment ciated with cusp fractures?
a. teeth with minimal caries
10. Which of the following best represents similarities b. strong support of the remaining cusps
between endodontic apical and periodontal c. missing marginal ridge
pathosis? d. occlusal composite restorations
a. Both are often the result of traumatic occlusion.
b. Both are usually symptomatic. 3. What is the common direction that fractures extend
c. Both are mediated by microorganisms. in cracked teeth?
d. Both are associated with loss of attachment. a. mesiodistal
b. faciolingual
11. The best description of the effect of moderate peri- c. apical to coronal
odontal disease (loss of attachment in the apical/ d. horizontal
middle third) on the underlying pulp is usually char-
acterized by 4. Which of the following is true as related to pulp tissue
a. no or slight regional inflammation involvement in a cracked tooth?
b. generalized acute inflammation a. The fracture always includes the pulp tissue.
c. generalized chronic inflammation b. The fracture never includes the pulp tissue.
d. necrosis c. The more centered the fracture, the greater chance
e. bacterial invasion through tubules into the pulp for pulp exposure.
d. The more facial or lingual oriented the crack, the
12. Which of the following is characteristic of the true greater the chance for pulp exposure.
combined endo-perio lesion?
a. It occurs much less frequent than the primary 5. Are pulp and periapical tests for cracked teeth consis-
endodontic lesion. tent and reliable?
b. It is usually the end result of a severe endodontic a. Both pulp and periapical testing are consistent.
lesion that causes loss of attachment. b. Pulp testing is consistent, but periapical testing is
c. It is usually the end result of a severe periodontal variable.
lesion. c. Pulp testing is variable, but periapical testing is
d. It is usually successfully managed with both end- consistent.
odontic and periodontal treatment. d. Both pulp and periapical testing are variable.
13. What is the best means of differentiating endodontic 6. How can transillumination be used to distinguish
from periodontal pathosis? between a craze line and a crack line?
a. pulp vitality testing a. It cannot be used to distinguish between the two
b. percussion entities.
c. radiographs b. Transmitted light readily passes through the air
d. probing patterns space of a fracture.
e. location of swelling c. Transilluminated light is blocked by craze lines.
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 441
d. Transilluminated light is blocked by a cracked 2. Which of the following is not a component of the
tooth. psychologic approach to pain management?
a. control
7. After access preparation of a suspected cracked tooth, b. communication
the crack line is seen to extend through the chamber c. conservation
floor. In this case, what is the prognosis and recom- d. confidence
mended treatment?
a. Prognosis is favorable and continue with root 3. What is the effect of warming the anesthetic solution
canal treatment. on the amount of pain during the injection?
b. Prognosis is questionable, inform patient and con- a. Warmed anesthetic results in less pain during
tinue with treatment. injection.
c. Prognosis is hopeless, and extraction is b. Warmed anesthetic solution results in greater pain
recommended. during injection.
d. It does not change the original prognosis, and the c. There is no difference in pain perception regard-
treatment plan is not altered. less of warming.
b. For maxillary infiltrations, increasing the volume d. Another supplemental injection should not be
increases the depth of pulpal anesthesia. attempted first.
c. For maxillary infiltrations, increasing the volume
increases the duration of pulpal anesthesia. 15. What are the most difficult teeth to anesthetize with
d. For maxillary infiltrations, increasing the volume irreversible pulpitis?
has no effect on the success rate of pulpal a. maxillary molars
anesthesia. b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary anterior teeth
9. What additional anesthesia procedure should be d. maxillary premolars
administered if the classic signs of anesthesia
are present after a standard injection, but the 16. Why should an anesthetic agent not be injected
patient still has sharp pain when the bur enters the directly into a swelling before an incision for
dentin? drainage?
a. repeat the initial injection a. The anesthetic will cause a decreased flow of
b. wait an additional 15 minutes and attempt access exudate following incision.
again b. A direct injection will spread the infection.
c. repeat the injection using a different type of anes- c. There is an increased chance of aspirating
thetic solution blood.
d. use a supplemental injection technique for a d. The swelling has increased blood supply so the
second injection anesthetic is transported quickly into systemic cir-
culation, diminishing the effect.
10. What is a consideration of the intraosseous (IO)
injection?
a. It has not been proved effective. CHAPTER 9
b. It has been recommended as the primary injection Endodontic Emergencies and Therapeutics
technique.
c. It allows the anesthetic solution to be deposited 1. What is the difference between a true endodontic
directly into the pulp tissue of the tooth. emergency and urgency?
d. It allows the anesthetic solution to be deposited a. A true emergency is a condition requiring an
directly into the cancellous bone adjacent to the unscheduled office visit.
tooth. b. A true emergency may be rescheduled for conve-
nience of the patient.
11. What is the best site for an IO injection of a c. An urgency indicates a more severe problem.
premolar? d. An urgency may need to be seen after normal
a. mesial perforation and injection office hours.
b. apical perforation and injection
c. distal perforation and injection 2. How many teeth are usually involved in a true
d. site of injection not important emergency?
a. one tooth
12. What is an important requirement for effectiveness b. two teeth
when using a periodontal ligament (PDL) injection? c. often several teeth throughout the mouth
a. back-pressure during injection d. often teeth in only one quadrant
b. direction of the needle bevel toward the root
surface 3. Which of the following is not an important factor in
c. direction of the needle bevel away from the root assessing the quality and quantity of pain?
surface a. spontaneity
d. all four line angles receive the injection b. intensity
c. time of day of occurrence
13. Can a PDL injection be used for individual tooth d. duration
selective anesthesia as an aid in diagnosis?
a. PDL injection is useful for single tooth 4. Which of the following is not an immediate goal of
anesthesia. the emergency treatment plan?
b. PDL injection is not useful for single tooth a. pharmacotherapeutic management of swelling
anesthesia. b. reducing the irritant
c. reduction of pressure
14. Which of the following is an important consideration d. removal of the inflamed pulp or periradicular
of the intrapulpal injection (IP)? tissue
a. The injection should be given with
back-pressure. 5. What is the most critical factor in a pretreatment
b. It will take several minutes for the injection to take emergency?
effect. a. adequate health history
c. A long-acting anesthetic should be used. b. pain management
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 443
7. What information does the color change of the clini- b. The permanent successor is partially erupted.
cal crown provide? c. The intruded tooth appears foreshortened on the
a. There has been a pulp exposure. radiograph.
b. The initial change is gray in color, which always d. The intruded tooth appears elongated on the
indicates pulp necrosis. radiograph.
c. Discoloration may be reversed without
treatment.
CHAPTER 11
d. Calcific metamorphosis discoloration tends to be
yellow to brown and always indicates pulp
Endodontic Radiography
necrosis. 1. Diagnostic radiology is helpful in all of the following
except:
8. What factor should be considered that determines the a. identifying pathosis
treatment of an intrusive luxation injury? b. determining root anatomy
a. depth of intrusion c. determining pulp anatomy
b. stage of root development d. determining pulp responsiveness
c. availability of adjacent teeth for stabilization
d. amount of soft tissue injury 2. What are working length radiographs?
a. Radiographs made by removing the rubber dam.
9. Of the following, what is the best transport medium b. Radiographs placed using an XCP positioning
to use for transporting an avulsed tooth? device.
a. saliva c. Radiographs that help establish an estimated
b. distilled water working length.
c. wrapped in a tissue d. Radiographs determine the distance from the
d. milk radiographic apex to a reference point.
10. Which type of medication is indicated for patients
3. Radiographs are useful to evaluate the following qual-
with avulsed teeth?
ities of an obturation except which of the following?
a. narcotic analgesic
a. length
b. steroid
b. density
c. tetanus booster if more than 5 years since last
c. sealer thickness
administered
d. canal configuration
d. all of the above
11. What additional treatment should be used on the 4. Radiographs are useful in evaluating success and
root surface if an avulsed tooth is replanted after failure at recalls because they do which of the
more than 1 hour after avulsion? following?
a. thorough scrubbing with antimicrobial soap for a. record subjective symptoms
disinfection b. show pulp vitality
b. scaling of the root surface c. may show failures that often occur without adverse
c. soaking the tooth in 2.4% doxycycline for 5 to 20 signs or symptoms
minutes d. accurately diagnose apical pathosis
d. soaking the tooth in a 2.4% solution of sodium
fluoride for 5 to 20 minutes 5. The most accurate radiographs are made by doing
which of the following?
12. Which of the following types of external resorption a. having the patient hold the film in place with
has not been identified with replanted avulsed their index finger
teeth? b. using a paralleling device
a. surface c. increasing/decreasing the vertical angulation to
b. inflammatory move superimposed objects out of the field of
c. refractory vision
d. replacement d. having the rubber dam in place for isolation
13. When is root canal treatment indicated in a mature 6. Use of a paralleling technique may not be feasible
avulsed, replanted tooth? when which of the following occurs?
a. at the time of replantation a. There is a high palatal vault.
b. within 7 to 10 days after replantation b. There are maxillary tori.
c. after 3 months if there is no response to pulp c. A fixed prosthesis is present.
testing d. There are exceptionally short roots.
d. when periapical pathosis is noted
7. F Speed film requires how much less exposure com-
14. A deciduous tooth that has suffered an intrusive luxa- pared to E Speed film?
tion should be extracted if what occurs? a. 10% to 15%
a. The child cries but is compliant. b. 20% to 25%
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 445
c. 30% to 35% 15. Digital radiography has not been proven to do which
d. 50% of the following?
a. provide superior image quality
8. What does the cone-image shift do? b. reduce radiation to the patient
a. It gives a clear 2-dimensional image. c. increase speed of obtaining an image
b. It superimposes facial and lingual structures. d. accurately and reliably be transmitted between
c. It assists in identifying superimposed canals. computers
d. It moves apical endodontic lesions away from the
root apex.
CHAPTER 12
9. What occurs as the cone position moves away from
parallel?
Endodontic Instruments
a. Objects on the film shift toward the direction of 1. What must an instrument do to completely clean the
the cone. canal space?
b. The facial or buccal object shifts less than the a. be deflected at the canal orifice
lingual object. b. be 2 to 3 mm short of the radiographic apex
c. The lingual object moves relatively in the same c. fit loosely into the canal
direction as the cone. d. contact all walls and surfaces
d. The buccal object moves relatively in the same
direction as the cone. 2. What motion is employed with a hand instrument to
clean and shape canal walls?
10. What is a disadvantage to the cone-image shift? a. pushing
a. Lingual objects become more distorted than buccal b. broaching
objects. c. reaming
b. There is excessive contrast between radiolucent d. vibration
and radiopaque objects.
c. It may superimpose normal anatomic structures 3. Nickel-titanium alloy has increased flexibility over
over the root apices. stainless steel. How does the modulus of elasticity for
d. It does not reveal additional canals within a nickel-titanium alloy compare to that of stainless
root. steel?
a. similar to stainless steel
11. Which of the following is a distinguishing charac- b. one-fourth to one-fifth that of stainless steel
teristic of a radiolucent lesion of endodontic c. half that of stainless steel
pathosis? d. 2 to 3 times that of stainless steel
a. Apical/radicular lamina dura is present and
intact. 4. What is a disadvantage as a result of the increased
b. A round ball shape is characteristic. flexibility of nickel-titanium instruments?
c. The radiolucency stays at the apex regardless of a. difficulty in negotiating curvatures
cone angulation. b. inability to rotate in the canals
d. There is no apparent cause of pulpal necrosis. c. cannot precurve the files to bypass ledges
d. tendency to bind in small canals
12. A radiolucency of endodontic origin is usually present
with what type of pulpal diagnosis? 5. According to ADA Specification No. 28, what is the
a. normal pulp rate of increase in file diameter per running millime-
b. reversible pulpitis ter of length for a K-type file from point D0 to point
c. irreversible pulpitis D16?
d. necrotic pulp a. 0.02 mm per running millimeter of length
b. 0.04 mm per running millimeter of length
13. What is the usual radiographic appearance of con- c. 0.06 mm per running millimeter of length
densing osteitis? d. parallel sided so no increase in diameter
a. diffuse radiopaque appearance
b. uniform smooth borders 6. What is torsional limit?
c. irregular moth-eaten appearance around the a. amount of apical pressure that can be applied to a
apex file to the point of breakage
d. presence of a radiolucent inflammatory lesion b. the beginning of plastic deformation of the
instrument
14. A mesial projection cone adjustment during working c. amount of rotational torque that can be applied
length radiographs is indicated for what? to a “locked” instrument to the point of
a. maxillary anterior teeth breakage
b. maxillary molars with a mesiolingual canal d. amount of force necessary so that a file does not
c. mandibular incisors return to its original shape upon unloading of the
d. mandibular molars with a second distal canal force
446 Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions
12. What are the characteristics of finger spreaders and 6. Calcifications encountered in the pulp space do which
pluggers compared to handled instruments when of the following?
used for lateral condensation? a. represent additional dentin formation
a. They are annealed to give them greater strength. b. can always be detected by radiograph
b. They are best suited for straight canals. c. are always attached to the chamber or canal
c. They are more rigid to access the canal orifice. walls
d. They have greater flexibility. d. often prevent instruments from negotiating
canals
13. Is pressure sterilization superior to dry heat steri-
lization for sterilization of sharp-edged instruments? 7. Which of the following is not associated with the
a. Both are equal and comparable and effective. radicular pulp?
b. Neither should be used for sterilization. a. lateral canals
c. Yes, pressure sterilization is superior. b. apical foramen
d. No, dry heat sterilization is superior. c. pulp horns
d. canal orifices
14. What are the time, temperature, and pressure neces-
sary for sterilization of gauze-wrapped instruments 8. Accessory canals are more common in the apical
using pressure sterilization? third, and more common in posterior teeth.
a. 10 minutes at 121ºC and 15 psi a. The entire sentence is true.
b. 10 minutes at 100ºC and 15 psi b. The first statement is true, the second is false.
c. 20 minutes at 121ºC and 15 psi c. The first statement is false, the second is true.
d. 20 minutes at 100ºC and 15 psi d. The entire sentence is false.
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 447
9. Which of the following are true regarding the apical c. The rubber dam protects the patient from swallow-
foramen? ing or aspirating instruments and materials.
a. The diameter remains constant throughout d. The rubber dam injures soft tissue from the pres-
life. sure of the clamp.
b. The position of the apical foramen is often visible
on radiograph. 2. What is the recommended rubber dam weight for
c. The foramen is most commonly located 0.5 mm endodontic procedures?
to 1.0 mm away from the anatomic root apex. a. light
d. None of the above. b. medium
c. heavy
d. extra heavy
10. Dens invaginatus (dens in dente) occurs most com-
monly in which teeth?
a. maxillary canines 3. Why are plastic rubber dam frames recommended
b. maxillary lateral incisors over metal frames?
c. maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors a. They are radiolucent.
d. mandibular first premolars b. They are easier to remove during exposure of
interim radiographs.
c. They are more comfortable for the patient.
11. The lingual groove defect is (1) found most frequently d. They are easier to place.
in maxillary central incisors and (2) has a poor prog-
nosis for treatment.
4. Which of the following clamps is designed for an
a. Statements 1 and 2 are true.
anterior tooth?
b. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false.
a. No. 8
c. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true.
b. No. 212
d. Statements 1 and 2 are false.
c. No. 0
d. No. 24/25
12. A C-shaped canal is characterized by which of the
following? 5. What is an advantage of a provisional crown used to
a. has complex internal anatomy replace missing tooth structure before root canal
b. is most commonly found in Asian populations treatment?
c. usually occurs in mandibular second molars a. It accurately reproduces tooth anatomic
d. should be referred to an endodontist for landmarks.
treatment b. It maintains tooth orientation for access and canal
e. all of the above location.
c. It is easily removed and replaced during root canal
13. Of the following, which tooth or root is the most treatment appointments.
likely to have two canals? d. It increases visibility of the root canal chamber.
a. Maxillary second premolar
b. Mandibular first molar mesial root 6. What is the preferred method for rubber dam place-
c. Mandibular lateral incisor ment on molars?
d. Maxillary first molar mesiobuccal root a. placement as a unit
b. placement of a clamp and rubber dam, followed
by attachment of the frame
14. The lingual root of the maxillary first molar often has
c. placement of a clamp, followed by the dam and
a curvature in the apical third to which of the
then the frame
following?
d. placement of the rubber dam and frame, followed
a. buccal
by placement of the clamp
b. lingual
c. mesial
d. distal 7. What is a major objective of the access opening?
e. none of the above, the root is usually straight a. Locate the primary or largest canal.
b. Achieve unimpeded straight-line access of the
instruments to the first canal curvature or apical
one third.
CHAPTER 14
c. Expose the pulp horns.
Isolation, Endodontic Access, and Length d. Remove all restorative materials.
Determination
1. What is true of the rubber dam? 8. Outline form for access is described best by which of
a. The rubber dam is elective for endodontic the following?
treatment. a. It mimics the shape of the canal or canals.
b. The rubber dam allows irrigating solution to b. It is toward the distal in the occlusal surface in
contact and disinfect surrounding soft tissues. molars.
448 Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions
14. To obtain an accurate measurement, how should the 6. Which of the following is the most widely used irrig-
working length radiographs be made? ant solution?
a. They should be made with a loosely fitting file in a. sodium hypochlorite
place. b. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
b. They should be made with a minimum of a No. c. MTAD
20 file. d. saline
c. They should be made with a positioning device
and a parallel technique. 7. The best description of a difference between nickel-
d. They should be made with the rubber dam removed titanium and stainless steel instruments is which of
for visibility and access. the following?
a. Nickel-titanium tends to result in better shaping
15. An apex locator is helpful in patients with which of (less transportation) in curved canals.
the following? b. Nickel-titanium usually results in better
a. with high palatal vaults debridement.
b. with implanted cardiac pacemakers c. Nickel-titanium can usually be reused many more
c. with missed canals times than stainless steel.
d. with a strong gag reflex d. Nickel-titanium has sharper cutting edges.
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 449
8. What is the primary purpose of an irrigant such as a. inadequate cleaning and shaping of the canals
sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)? b. inadequate obturation of the root canal system
a. kill bacteria c. restorative factors
b. dissolve tissue remnants d. vertical root fracture
c. flush out debris
d. lubricate instruments 2. How does the survival rate for a tooth restored with
cusp protection compare to a tooth without cusp
9. A major advantage to using a lubricant during clean- protection?
ing and shaping is: a. about the same
a. It ensures that canal transportation will not b. a tooth with protected cusps has an enhanced
occur. survival rate
b. It reduces torsional force on the instrument, c. a tooth without protected cusps has an enhanced
decreasing the possibility of fracture. survival rate
c. It minimizes debris production. d. restorations have no effect on tooth survival
d. It reduces operator fatigue. rates
10. Removal of the smear layer after cleaning and shaping 3. Dentin becomes more brittle following the endodon-
does which of the following? tic treatment due to loss of moisture content.
a. promotes coronal leakage a. True
b. decreases dentin permeability b. False
c. allows better adaptation of obturating materials to
canal walls
4. The greatest contributing factor to reduced cuspal
d. forces bacteria into dentinal tubules
stiffness (strength) that predisposes to fracture is
which of the following?
11. EDTA is most effective for which of the following
a. occlusal access opening
uses?
b. loss of one or both marginal ridges
a. decalcifying small canals to allow instruments to
c. an amalgam restoration placed after root canal
negotiate to length
treatment
b. lubricating canals to facilitate instrumentation
d. a bonded composite restoration placed after root
c. bacterial elimination in canals
canal treatment
d. removing smear layer after cleaning and shaping
5. Which of the following describes a definitive restora-
12. How does the “crown-down” technique differ from
tion after root canal treatment?
the “step-back” technique?
a. It should be placed at the time of obturation.
a. It creates a funnel-shaped preparation.
b. It should allow cuspal flexure to absorb occlusal
b. It facilitates tissue removal.
forces.
c. It requires fewer instruments.
c. It should provide a coronal seal.
d. It creates coronal flare early, reducing torsional
d. It should always be a full-coverage crown on pos-
stress on the instruments.
terior teeth.
13. Recapitulation is defined as:
a. The removal of accumulated debris using a small 6. Exposure of obturating materials to oral fluids can be
file at the corrected working length. described by which of the following?
b. Confirmation of working length after completing a. It is not a factor if a sealer is properly used during
cleaning and shaping. obturation.
c. The last irrigation before drying the canal. b. It is a major cause of failure.
d. Verifying the master apical file after cleaning and c. It leads to rapid failure.
shaping. d. It may cause pain to thermal changes.
14. Of the following, which is the most important con- 7. Which of the following describes a definitive
sideration of a temporary restoration? restoration?
a. antimicrobial a. It should be placed as soon as practical.
b. placed over a cotton pellet b. It should be placed at the 6-month recall visit to
c. resistant to acids assure symptoms do not recur.
d. at least 4 mm thick c. It should be placed when radiographic evidence of
healing becomes evident.
d. It should be delayed if there is a questionable
prognosis.
CHAPTER 16
Preparation for Restoration 8. What is the only reason to delay the definitive
1. What is the leading cause for loss of endodontically restoration?
treated teeth? a. to maximize the patient’s insurance benefits
450 Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions
9. Which of the following is an advantage of gutta- b. the possible procedures that may be necessary for
percha? correction
a. adhesiveness to dentin c. how this might affect the outcome
b. slight elasticity and rebound effect d. the root canal treatment will be completed free of
c. expansion on cooling of warmed gutta-percha charge
d. adaptation to canal irregularities with
compaction 2. Which of the following is not a common cause of a
perforation during access preparation?
10. What have recent studies shown synthetic polyester a. mandibular molar with a lingual axial inclination
resin-based polymers to be? of the tooth
a. adhesive to canal walls throughout their length b. searching for canals through an under-prepared
b. inflammatory to tissues access opening
c. mutagenic c. directing the bur parallel to the long axis of the
d. no difference in leakage when compared to gutta- tooth
percha d. presence of a misaligned cast restoration
11. Which of the following have semisolid obtu- 3. What measures are used to prevent perforation during
ration materials (pastes or cements) been shown to access preparation?
do? a. relating tooth angulations independent of the
a. They provide easy control of obturation length. adjacent tooth
b. They exhibit no shrinkage upon setting. b. using only straight-on radiographs
c. They provide an unpredictable and inconsistent c. always having a rubber dam in place before begin-
apical seal. ning access preparation
d. They are biocompatible and nonirritating to peri- d. having a thorough knowledge of both surface and
apical tissues. internal tooth anatomy
15. What is a disadvantage of finger spreaders as com- 7. What is a common cause of ledge formation?
pared to standard long-handled spreaders? a. straight-line access into the canal
a. tactile sensation b. excess irrigating solution
b. instrument length control c. overenlargement of a curved canal with files
c. fracture potential in curved canals d. constant recapitulation and irrigation into the
d. dentin stress during obturation apical portion of the canal
9. What is a possible etiology for an apical (zipping) root a. A large well-fitting post and core is present.
perforation? b. There is a separated instrument present that cannot
a. inability to negotiate canals with ledges be retrieved.
b. working length determination with radiographs c. External resorptive root defects are present.
only d. A negotiable canal was not initially treated.
c. trying to locate canals in a small chamber
d. failure to adjust working length after curved canals 2. Which of the following is not a potential contraindi-
are straightened during cleaning and shaping cation for nonsurgical root canal retreatment?
a. post and core restorations
10. What type of perforation has the poorest long-term b. ledges in the root canal walls
prognosis? c. amalgam core restorations into the chamber
a. zipping (apical third) root perforation d. separated root canal instruments
b. stripping perforation in the apical third of the
root 3. Which of the following is not a potential risk associ-
c. stripping perforation in the coronal third of the ated with nonsurgical root canal retreatment?
root below the crest of bone a. thinning and weakening of the root canal
d. direct floor to furcation perforation in a multi- walls
rooted tooth b. inability to remove the initial root canal obtura-
tion material
11. Which of the following is not a common cause of file c. creating a compromised crown-root ratio
separation? d. loosening of a well-fitting fabricated crown
a. limited flexibility
b. manufacturing defects 4. Which of the following describes removal of coronal
c. amount of use restorations before nonsurgical retreatment?
d. amount of force applied a. Removal may prolong retreatment procedures.
b. Removal complicates removal of post and core
12. What approaches may be used to treat a case with a restorations.
separated instrument? c. Removal may be necessary to assess restorability.
a. attempt to remove d. Removal should never be done if the previous
b. attempt to bypass restoration is a full-coverage crown.
c. prepare and obturate to the level of the segment
d. all of the above 5. What steps are involved in retrieval of a prefabricated
post during retreatment?
13. Which of the following scenarios yields the most a. Section and remove the core material and the post
favorable prognosis in cases with a separated at the level of the chamber floor.
instrument? b. An ultrasonic activated tip is used for 3 to
a. a small instrument short of the working length 5 minutes each at several locations circumferen-
b. a small instrument beyond the apical foramen tially around the post, without water for
c. a large instrument at an early stage of visibility.
instrumentation c. Grasp the post with a hemostat or Steiglitz pliers
d. a large instrument close to the working length to rock it back and forth to break the cement
seal.
14. Which of the following causes extrusion of sodium d. Use ultrasonics, then grasp a threaded screw type
hypochlorite (NaOCl) irrigating solution into periapi- post with a hemostat or small-tipped forceps to
cal tissues? unscrew it from the canal.
a. Fitting irrigation needle loosely in the canal
space. 6. The following steps are used to attempt removal of a
b. Wedging irrigation needle in the canal space. canal ledge during nonsurgical retreatment except
c. Using perforated needles during irrigation. which one?
d. Using regular needles during irrigation. a. remove all obstructions coronal to the ledge
b. bypass the ledge with a flexible nickel-titanium
15. Which of the following occurs after minor extrusion hand file
of obturation materials into the periapical tissue? c. file in a circumferential motion after bypassing the
a. It results in significant swelling ledge
b. It results in significant symptoms. d. proceed from small-size files to larger size files
c. It causes some tissue inflammation.
d. It causes more apical leakage. 7. Which of the following is not a factor that may affect
the successful removal of a separated instrument
fragment?
CHAPTER 19
a. size of the instrument separated
Nonsurgical Retreatment b. length of the separated fragment
1. Nonsurgical retreatment should be the first treatment c. location of the fragment within the canal
option for correction when d. length of time the fragment has been in place
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 453
8. What method or methods have been used to success- c. Flare-ups occur less frequently if irrigation is kept
fully remove gutta-percha from root canals? to a minimum.
a. heat d. High incidence dictates that retreatment should
b. ultrasonics generally be treated in two visits rather than one
c. rotary instruments visit.
d. all of the above
15. The prognosis for nonsurgical root canal retreatment
9. When should Hedstrom hand files or regular hand is which of the following?
reamers be the instruments of choice for gutta-percha a. It is increased with periapical lesions.
removal, without the addition of solvents? b. It has the lowest rate of success without a periapi-
a. The root canal is well sealed with gutta-percha. cal lesion.
b. The gutta-percha is well adapted to canal walls. c. It is similar to initial root canal treatment success
c. A space can be created between the gutta-percha rates.
and the root canal. d. It is best if the etiology of failure can be
d. Gutta-percha fills the root canal chamber. identified.
10. What solvent has been shown to be the most efficient CHAPTER 20
(fastest) in softening gutta-percha? Endodontic Surgery
a. chloroform
b. halothane 1. What is the purpose of incision for drainage?
c. methylchloroform a. to evacuate exudates from a soft tissue swelling
d. xylene b. to obtain a biopsy specimen
c. to prevent a postoperative swelling
11. During the removal of a carrier-based gutta-percha d. to avoid emergency cleaning and shaping
obturator which of the following should occur?
a. The first step is to remove the solid core 2. Profound anesthesia is difficult to attain before inci-
material. sion for drainage. What is a preferred approach for a
b. A combination of techniques for removal of gutta- maxillary cuspid with extensive swelling?
percha, silver cones, and posts is employed. a. Start with an infraorbital block and then infiltrate
c. A small rotary file may be used to engage and at the margins of the swelling.
remove the plastic carrier. b. Start with posterior superior alveolar block and
d. Different solvents are used that would routinely then use refrigerant spray.
be used to remove gutta-percha alone. c. Inject buffer and anesthetic directly into the
swelling.
12. What is the key to success in the retrieval of silver d. Use topical anesthetic and then refrigerant spray.
points? No anesthetic is needed.
a. The key is to engage the silver point with the
ultrasonic tip. 3. Which of the following is not an indication for peri-
b. The key is to remove the silver point and core apical surgery?
material simultaneously. a. a nonnegotiable or blocked canal associated with
c. The key is to retain as much of the coronal extent symptomatic periradicular pathosis
of the point as possible. b. gross overextension of obturating material
d. The key is to remove the core material and silver c. obtain a biopsy
point to the level of canal orifices first. d. to resolve any endodontic treatment failure
13. Which of the following is not true regarding the 4. Which of the following would contraindicate periapi-
removal and retreatment of hard-setting pastes? cal surgery?
a. They are more difficult to remove than a soft 1. anatomical structures in the area
paste. 2. medical complications
b. They may be impossible to remove. 3. lip paresthesia
c. Solvents have been shown to soften hard-setting 4. previous malignancies
pastes. 5. unidentified cause of treatment failure
d. Use of ultrasonics is the most predictable a. 1, 2, and 3
method. b. 1, 3, and 5
c. 1, 2, and 5
14. Which of the following is true regarding interap- d. 2, 3, and 4
pointment flare-ups with nonsurgical root canal e. all of the above
retreatments?
a. Flare-ups occur less frequently when compared to 5. Which of the following is true regarding an incision
initial root canal treatments. over a bony defect?
b. Flare-ups occur frequently, even when debris and a. It should be avoided.
microorganisms are confined to the canals. b. It may cause a postsurgical fenestration.
454 Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions
10. Which of the following cell types are important in 5. To make valid comparisons between radiographs to
the healing process after periapical surgery? assess healing, which of the following describes how
1. epithelial cells films should be made?
2. macrophages a. in a reproducible manner
3. dendritic cells b. 6 months apart
4. fibroblasts c. at different angles
5. osteocytes d. by the same person to ensure consistency
a. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
b. 1 and 2 only 6. Which of the following criteria is not considered to
c. 1, 2, and 5 only be a predictor of success or failure?
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 a. the patient’s medical history
e. 1, 3, and 4 only b. apical pathosis
c. quality of the coronal restoration
11. With root amputation, the factor that most affects d. extent and quality of obturation
success is which of the following?
a. occlusal force patterns 7. The most common preoperative cause of endodontic
b. the type of restoration treatment failure includes all of the following except
c. the length of the root which one?
d. the patient’s oral hygiene a. misdiagnosis
b. leaking coronal restoration
12. All of the following procedures should be referred to c. poor case selection
a specialist with specific training in endodontic d. error in treatment planning
surgery except which one?
a. root-end resection/root-end filling 8. The most common postoperative cause of endodontic
b. incision for drainage treatment failure is which of the following?
c. root amputation a. overextension of obturating material
d. perforation repair b. a separated instrument
Appendix B ■
Chapter Review Questions 455
CHAPTER 13 CHAPTER 18
1. b 4. b 7. c 10. b 13. b 1. d 4. a 7. c 10. c 13. d
2. d 5. d 8. a 11. c 14. a 2. c 5. a 8. a 11. b 14. b
3. c 6. a 9. c 12. e 3. d 6. b 9. d 12. d 15. c
CHAPTER 19
CHAPTER 14
1. d 4. c 7. d 10. a 13. c
1. c 4. b 7. b 10. b 13. c
2. c 5. d 8. d 11. b 14. d
2. b 5. c 8. c 11. b 14. b
3. c 6. b 9. c 12. c 15. d
3. a 6. a 9. d 12. b 15. d
CHAPTER 20
CHAPTER 15 1. a 4. c 7. d 9. c 11. d
1. b 4. b 7. a 10. c 13. a 2. a 5. d 8. b 10. a 12. b
2. d 5. c 8. c 11. d 14. d 3. d 6. c
3. c 6. a 9. b 12. d
CHAPTER 21
CHAPTER 16 1. b 3. d 5. a 7. b 9. a
1. c 4. b 7. a 10. a 13. c 2. c 4. a 6. a 8. c
2. b 5. c 8. d 11. d 14. d CHAPTER 22
3. b 6. b 9. c 12. a 15. d 1. c 3. d 5. d 7. a 9. c
2. d 4. b 6. b 8. d 10. d
CHAPTER 17
1. c 4. b 7. a 10. d 13. d CHAPTER 23
2. b 5. d 8. b 11. c 14. c 1. c 3. b 5. d 7. a 9. b
3. b 6. d 9. d 12. c 15. c 2. c 4. a 6. e 8. d 10. b
INDEX
A Anatomic difficulties
Abscess and case referral, 90f
apical contraindicating periapical surgery, 362
acute, 41f, 61–62, 84, 158f as indication for periapical surgery, 359–360
chronic, 62–63, 84 Anesthesia
localized fluctuant, 156f conventional, 132
periodontal, 152f difficulty with, 86, 134–135
Access cavities factors affecting, 129–130
overextended, 383 for incision for drainage, 358
perforations during access preparation, 322–328 local. See Local anesthesia
routine, 280–281 in older patients, 412–413
Access errors previously unsuccessful, 130
excessive removal of tooth structure, 250–252 profound, in emergencies, 152
inadequate preparation, 248–250 selective, 82
resulting in stripping perforations, 268f supplemental, 135–142
Access openings when to anesthetize, 131–132
burs, 238f Angled radiographs, 252, 254–255
and canal location, 239–248, 413 Angulation of radiographs, 188, 191f
canal morphologies, 236 Ankylosis-related resorption, 178–179, 180f
general principles, 236 Anterior teeth, retention and core systems, 294
preoperative radiograph assessment, 236 Antibiotic prophylaxis, 71, 279b
prepared in extracted teeth, 432f–433f inappropriate use of, 153–154
removal of restorative materials, 237 for pulp necrosis with diffuse swelling, 157
through crowns, 239 Anticurvature filing, 268, 270, 271f
use of fissure bur, 236–237 Anxiety, 130
Accessory canals, 95, 222 Apex
Accidents anatomy, 222–223
procedural, 90–91, 322–338, 360 closed, replantations, 177–179
with sodium hypochlorite during treatment, 264f locator, 243f, 255–256
Acellular afibrillar cementum, 18 open. See Open apex
Acid etching of dentin, 25 Apexification, 33–34
Actinomycosis, apical, 41f Apexogenesis, 31–32
Adhesive Apical abscess
intraoral, 130–131 acute, 41f, 61–62, 84, 158f
quality of sealer, 306 chronic, 62–63, 84
Adult-onset tetracycline discoloration, 393 Apical canal preparation
Advantages apical patency, 262
of cone-image shift, 191–192 degree of apical enlargement, 261
of lateral compaction, 308 elimination of etiology, 261–262
of pastes, 305 termination of cleaning and shaping, 260–261
of vertical compaction, 314–315 Apical constriction, 6, 223
Afferent blood vessels, 11 Apical foramen
Age, discoloration and, 392–393 anatomy, 222
Age-related changes communication via, 96
in dentin formation, 219 formation of, 4–5
in pulp and dentin, 17 size and location of, 5
in pulp response, 407 variability in, 414f
Aldehydes, 279b Apical patency, 262
Alveolar bone, 4f, 19–20 Apical perforations, 266, 332, 336f
Alveolar nerve block, 134 Apical periodontitis
Alveolar process fracture, 164b, 180, 181 asymptomatic, 59–61, 84
Amalgam microbial causation of, 38, 39f
microleakage with, 27 persistent, 45t
retaining pins for, 25 symptomatic, 58–59, 153–154
Amputation, root, 369–372 Apical seal, 299
Anachoresis, 39–40 Archaea, in endodontic infections, 42
Analgesia, strategy for drug selection, 154f Arterioles, 11
periodontium, 19
Articaine, 133–134, 139
Page numbers followed by f indicate figures; t, tables; b, boxes. Artificial canal creation, 330–331
458
Index 459
G Healing (Continued)
Gates-Glidden burs, 348, 350f failure, 91
Gates-Glidden drills, 209–210, 268, 270, 272f in older adults, 408, 415
Gender differences, in pain, 131 periapical lesions after root canal treatment, 63–64
Geriatric endodontics after periapical surgery, 368–369
bleaching, 415–416 after retreatment, prognosis, 353–354
coronal seal, 416 Health history
diagnostic procedure, 409–410 dental, 71
differential diagnosis, 410–411 health and medical, 69–71
difficult-to-restore dentitions, 406f history of present complaint, 71–72
endodontic surgery, 415 Heat
healing, 408 pain due to, 54
impact of restoration, 414–415 produced during cavity/crown preparation, 23–24
medically compromised patients, 408–409 on setting of luting cements, 26
overdenture abutments, 416 testing with, 77
periradicular response, 408 Heating device for plugger, 316f
pulp response, 407–408 Hedstrom file, 207f, 347f
radiographic findings, 410 Hemisection, 369–372, 372f
retreatment, 415 Hemorrhage, 324–325
root canal treatment, 412–414 intrapulpal, as cause of discoloration, 392
trauma, 416–417 Hemostat, for grasping film, 198f
treatment planning and case selection, 411–412 Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath, 3, 4f
Giant cells, 60f High fever, and tooth discoloration, 394
Gingiva clamping, 233 High pulp horns, 224
Gingivectomy, 233–234 Histologic examination, 379
Glass ionomer History of present illness, 71–72, 164
cements, 27 Horizontal root fractures, 173f, 362
gutta-percha impregnated with, 317–318 Hyaline layer of Hopewell-Smith, 3–4
sealers, 307 Hydrochloric acid-pumice microabrasion, 402–403
Glick No. 1, 205f Hydrogen peroxide, 396–397
Gram-negative bacteria, 41–42 Hygroscopy, desiccation by, 26
Gram-positive bacteria, 42 Hyperplastic pulpitis, 55f
Granulation tissue, 169f Hypersensitivity
Granuloma, periapical, 59 dentin, 16–17
Greenstick fracture, 114f postrestorative, 25
Grossman’s formulation, 307 I
Ground-twisted instruments, 207f
Guide sleeve, in intraosseous injection, 137f Iatrogenic discolorations, 394
Gutta-percha Iatrogenic effects on pulp
advantages of, 303 amalgam, 27
carrier-based systems, 317 cavity/crown preparation, 23–25
composition and shapes, 302–303 dental materials, 25–26
lateral compaction, 308–311 depth of preparation, 26
master cone radiograph, 189 glass ionomer cements, 27
methods of placement, 303–304 local anesthesia, 22–23
new techniques and materials, 317–318 polycarbonate cement, 27
removal of, 292, 347–349 restorative resins, 27
sealability, 303 ZnOE, 26
selection of technique, 308 ZnOP, 26–27
solvent-softened custom cones, 311–314 Ice test. See Carbon dioxide ice testing
vertical compaction, 314–317 Immune complexes in periapical lesions, 58f
Immune system
cells of, 10
H
responses to pulpal pathoses, 52–53
Halides, 279b Immunoglobulins
Hand-operated instruments, 205, 206f IgE, 52
clinical use, 207 IgM, 53f
ground-twisted, 206 in inflamed periapical lesions, 58
intracanal usage, 210–211 Impact injuries, 51
machined, 206 and referral of cases, 88
in removal of silver cone, 351f Impedance apex locator, 255f
Hard pastes, removal of, 349, 352 Implants
Hard tissue endosseous, 387f
changes, caused by pulpal inflammation, 55–56 issue of success for, 388
healing, after periapical surgery, 368–369 single tooth, 385, 388
Healing success rates, 381t
compromised, 340 Impressions, 25
evaluating, 187 Inadequate access preparation, 248–250
Index 465
W
Walking bleach technique, 213, 396f, 398, 399b
Warming of anesthetic solution, 131
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