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12th Political Science Book Back Questions - New Book

1. Constitution of India
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution
a) Rajendra Prasad b) C. Rajagopalachari
c) Tej Bahadur Sapru d) B.R. Ambedkar
2. In the context of India, which of the following principles is / are implied institutionally in the
parliamentary government?
a) Members of Cabinet are Members of the Parliament
b) Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament
c) Cabinet is headed by the headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
3. 103rd Constitutional Amendments of India deals with
a) Goods and Service tax
b) 10% Reservation for Economically weaker sections
c) National Commission for Backward Classes
d) Reduce age for voting rights from 21 to 18.
4. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
a) About 6 months in 1949
b) About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
c) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
d) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946
5. When was the Madras state renamed Tamil Nadu ?
a) 1968 b) 1971
c) 1969 d) 1970
6. At which part of constitution declared that India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
Republic.
a) Fundamental Right b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Preamble d) Fundamental Duties
7. The term ‘We’ in preamble means
a) Indian Government b) Supreme Court
c) Indian Parliament d) The People of India
8. The order of following words seen in Preamble is
Democratic, Socialist, Sovereign, Secular, Republic
a) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
c) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 d) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
9. What is the actual strength of Rajya Sabha?
a) 250 b) 235 c) 240 d) 245
10. Bring out the extra constitutional body?
a) Finance commission b) Planning Commission
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c) UPSC d) Election Commission

11. The Indian Constituent assembly debate held between
a) 9th August 1946 to 24th January 1950
b) 10th December 1945 to 10th March 1950
c) 9th December 1946 to 24th January 1950
d) 15th August 1945 to 20th March 1950
12. The Rajya Sabha is also called as
a) Indian Council b) Council of States
c) Union of States d) Representation of States
13. Under Article ………… of the India Constitution, the Governor nominated ……… Member
representing from Anglo-Indian Community.
a) Article 333 and One Member b) Article 300 and Two Members
c) Article 280 and One Member d) Article 333 and Two Members
14. Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly consists of ………. elected Members.
a) 239 b) 234 c) 250 d)350
15. Assertion (A): The 42nd Constitution Amendment has been referred to as the ‘mini constitution’.
Reason (R): It was the bulkiest and most comprehensive amendment.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
16. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India is very flexible.
Reason (R): Since its inception, the Constitution has been amended 100 times.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
2. Legislature
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Legislature is ____________
a. The highest law-making body b. The High Court
c. Parliament d. Law Commission
2. National legislature is called ________________
a. The Supreme Court b. The High Court
c. Parliament d. Legislative Assembly
3. The Parliament in India consists of
a. The President, and the Prime Minister b. The President and Rajya Sabha
c. The President and Lok Sabha d. The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
4. Members of Lok Sabha is directly elected by the_______________
a. People of the Parliamentary Constituency b. MLAs of the State Assembly
c. Nominated by the President d. None of the above
5. The process of removal of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is called _________
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a. Impeachment b. Dismiss
c. Suspension d. Resignation
6. Who is the Head of the Lok Sabha?
a. Speaker b. The Prime Minister
c. The President d. The Vice-President
7. The Head of the Government is ____________
a. The President b. The Prime Minister
c. Speaker d. TheVice-President
8. The Head of the state is ____________
a. The President b. The Prime Minister
c. Speaker d. The Vice-President
9. The Rajya Sabha is an institution to protect the rights and interests of ___________
a. The Members of the Parliament b. The President
c. The states d. The Vice-President
10. The members of the Rajya Sabha is elected by ___________________
a. People b. MLAs of the respective state
c. Nominated by the parties d. Nominated by the President
11. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
a. The President of India b. The Vice-President of India
c. The Prime Minister of India d. The Speaker
12. Which house of the Parliament is known as Permanent House of the Parliament that never gets fully
dissolved?
a. The Lok Sabha b. The Rajya Sabha
c. The Ministerial Cabinet d. The Group of Ministers
13. Which house of the parliament has the power to pass the money bill?
a. The Lok Sabha b. The Rajya Sabha
c. The Ministerial Cabinet d. The Group of Ministers
14. What is the minimum age of the Member of Parliament in Lok Sabha?
a. 25 years b.30 years
c. 40 years d. 50 years
15. Indian Legislature system is called as
a. Unicameral b. Bicameral
c. Monarchy d. None of them
16. The Governor of the state is ______________
a. Constitutional Head of the state b. Head of the Government
c. Head of the Cabinet d. Head of the party
17. The Chief Minister of the state is _______________
a. Head of the state b. Head of the Government
c. Head of the Cabinet d. Head of the party
18. The Executive power of the state is vested with
a. The Chief Minister b. The Chief Secretary
c. The Governor d. The Chief Justice of High Court
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19. The governor of the State shall be appointed by

a. The Chief Minister b. The President
c. The Chief Justice of High Court d. The Prime Minister
20. Consider the flow chart given below:

Which of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?

a) Ministers who are not members of parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either
House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
b) Not more than 20 nominated members
c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories
d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of
Parliament
3. Executive
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The President of India is
a.the real ruler of India
b.the constitutional head of the state
c.the head of the state as well as the government
d.the leader of the majority party which forms the government
2. The President of India can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term by
a. the Chief Justice of India b. the Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
c. the two Houses of the Parliament d. the Supreme Court of India
3. On the death of the President, the Vice President succeeds him as President for
a. the unexpired term b. a maximum period of six months
c. a maximum period of one year d. a maximum period of three years
4. Who decides the disputes regarding the election of the Vice-President?
a. The Chief Justice of India b. The Parliament
c. The President d. The Supreme Court
5. Which one of the following categories of ministers are members of cabinet?
a. Ministers with cabinet rank b. Ministers of State
c. Deputy Ministers d. All the above categories of Ministers.
6. The sole channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers is

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a. the Speaker of Lok Sabha b. the Prime Minister

c. the opposition leader d. the Vice-President
7. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where
a) there are no reserved constituencies
b) a two-party system has developed
c) the first-past-post system prevails
d) there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
8. The Commander-in-Chief of the defence forces is
a. the Defence Minister b. the President of India
c. the Prime Minister d. none of the above
9. The presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is known as
a. the Speaker b. the Chairman
c. the President d. presiding officer
10. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is
a. 200 members b. 250 members
c. 280 members d. 300 members
11. Under the Indian Constitution, the Lok Sabha enjoys
a. an inferior position b. a superior position
c. an equal position with Rajya Sabha d. none of the above
12. Which one of the following categories of emergency has not been declared so far?
a. National emergency
b. Emergency due to breakdown of constitutional machinery
c. Financial emergency
d. All the three equal number of times
13. The President nominates the members of Rajya Sabha from amongst persons who
a. have taken part in India’s freedom struggle
b. have retired from active politics
c. have rendered meritorious service to the country
d. have distinguished themselves in fine arts, literature,social service,etc
14. The Prime Minister is the head of
a. State b. Government
c. Both State and Government d. Neither State nor Government
15. The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
a. the Lok Sabha b. the Rajya Sabha
c. both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha d. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
4. Indian Judiciary
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following is not an organ of the government?
(a) Legislature (b) Bureaucracy
(c) Executive (d) Judiciary
2. Which of the following is described as the protector of the federation?
(a) Legislature (b) Executive
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(c) Judiciary (d) Cabinet

3.Who among the following was considered ‘the fountain of justice’ in Ancient India?
(a) Monarch (b) Senapathi
(c) Chief Minister (d) Chief Justice
4. Who among the following was the supreme judicial authority in Medieval India?
(a) Sultan (b) Qazi-ul-Quzat
(c) Chief Justice (d) Mufti
5. Which of the following was the Department of Justice established during the Mughal era?
(a) Nazim-e-Subah (b) Mahukma-e-Adalat
(c) Diwan-e-Subah (d) Qazi-e-Pargana
6. Which of the following punishments was imposed for cases relating to homicide?
(a) Hadd (b) Qisas
(c) Tazir (d) None of the Above
7. Which of the following Charter authorized the East India Company to exercise judicial authority over
Bombay?
(a) Charter of 1661 (b) Charter of 1813
(c) Charter of 1688 (d) Charter of 1853
8. Who among the following Charter applied only to the Madras Presidency with regard to the
establishment of a Mayor’s Court?
(a) Charter of 1687 (b) Charter of 1726
(c) Charter of 1813 (d) Charter of 1661
9. Which of the following empowered the Crown to establish the Supreme Court of Judicature in
Calcutta?
(a) Charter of 1774 (b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Cornwallis Code (d) Charter of 1726
10. In which year was the Federal Court inaugurated?
(a) 1937 (b) 1936
(c) 1935 (d) 1932
11. Which of the following refers to a theory of judgement that takes into account the spirit of the law and
the changing times?
(a) Judicial Review (b) Judicial Activism
(c) Judicial Restraint (d) None of the Above
12. Which of the following is an alternative dispute resolution mechanism in India?
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court
(c) District Courts (d) Lok Adalats
13. Which of the following Articles empowers the High Courts to issue writs?
(a) Article 226 (b) Article 227
(c) Article 228 (d) Article 229
5. Federalism in India
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The first federal constitution in the world belonged to
A) United States B) United Kingdom
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C) India D) Australia
2. Federalism was demanded in India for the first time by
A) Mountbatten Plan B) Nehru Report
C) Cabinet Delegation D) Rajaji Plan
3. When was federalism officially accepted by the Colonial government?
A) Minto Morley Reforms 1909 B) Mont Ford Reforms 1919
C) 1935 Government of India Act D) Cabinet Delegation
4. Bicameralism refers to the Parliament having
A) Three Houses B) One House
C) Four Houses D) Two Houses
5. The most important feature of a federal constitution is
A) Regional Governments B) National Governments
C) Decentralization of Powers D) Political Parties
6. The disputes between central government and state governments are adjudicated by
A) Parliament B) Supreme Court
C) High Court D) President
7. Who described Indian Constitution as Cooperative Federalism?
A) Granville Austin B) Dr.Ambedkar
C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Wheare
8. Article 262 of the constitution deals with
A) Inter State River Water Disputes B) Inter State Disputes
C) Centre-state Disputes D) International Disputes
9. Find out the correctly matched pair
A) Union List ------ List II B) State List ------ List I
C) Residuary List ------ List I D) Concurrent List ------ List III
10. Match the following
1) Sarkaria Commission a. Tamilnadu Govt.
2) Rajamannar Commission b. Akali Dal
3) Anandpur Sahib Resolution c. Supreme Court
4) BommaiJudgement d. Union Government
A) 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d B) 1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c
C) 1-a 2-d 3-c 4-b D) 1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a
11. What is false about the process of creation of the new states in India?
A) President must recommend the bill for creating new states
B) President will refer the bill to the concerned state
C) Parliament will pass a Constitutional Amendment Act for creating the new State
12. The commission that recommended the abolition of All India Services like Indian Administrative
Service (IAS) is
A) Punchchi Commission B) Sarkaria Commission
C) Venkatachaliah Commission D) Rajamannar Commission
13. Match the following
1. First Administrative Reforms Commission - a. VerrappaMoily.
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2. Second Administrative Commission - b. Morarji Desai

3. Article 312 - c. Transfer of Subject to Concurrent List
4. Article 249 - d. All India Services
A) 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d B) 1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c
C) 1-a 2-d 3-c 4-b D) 1-b 2-a 3-d 4-c
14. The following question consists of two statements, one labeled the Assertion (A) and the other labeled
as the Reason (R). You are asked to examine the two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion
(A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of
the
Assertion. Select your answer to the question using the codes given below and
mark your answer sheet accordingly;
Assertion (A): The constitution excludes the Inter State River Water Disputes from the jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court and entrust them to article 262.
Reason (R): River Water disputes affect the livelihood of millions of people and
therefore they should be settled through negotiations among the concerned states. Codes;
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true
6. Administrative Machinery in India
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Who appoints the members of the All India Services?
a) The President
b) The Union Home Minister
c) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
d) The Attorney General of India
2. The Union Public Service Commission, which is concerned with the recruitment of civil services at the
Centre,
a) Was created through a presidential Ordinance in 1950
b) Was created by an executive resolution which was duly endorsed by the Parliament
c) Was provided in the Constitution
d) Was provided under the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
3. The Composition of the Union Public Service Commission has been
a) Laid down in the Constitution b) Determined by the Parliament
c) Determined by the president d) Determined by the Union Home Ministry
4. What is the chief function of the UPSC?
a) To conduct examinations for appointment to All India and Central Services
b) To advise the President regarding claims of civil servants for costs incurred in the course of
execution of duties
c) to advise the President regarding disciplinary action against a civil servant
d) All the above
5. Members of the UPSC can be removed from office before the expiry of their term by
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a) the Prime Minister

b) the Chairman of the UPSC
c) the President on the Recommendation of the Supreme court
d) The President on the recommendation of the Parliament
6. Which of the following has been wrongly listed at an All India Services?
a) India Police Service b) Indian Administrative Service
c) Indian Foreign Service d) Indian Economic Service
7. Which of the following is not a statutory functions of the UPSC?
a) To advise the government on the methods of recruitment, promotion and control of public services
b) To look after the interests and right of civil servants
c) To hear appeals from civil servants and redress their grievances
d) To act as a watchdog on the functioning of the state Public Service Commission
8. In India, new All India Services can be created
a) Through an amendment in the Constitution
b) By the Union Government in Consultation with the UPSC
c) By the Parliament
d) By the President on the Advice of the Union Council of Ministers
9. A member of a state Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehavior only
after an enquiry has been conducted by
a) A committee appointed by the President
b) The Supreme Court of India
c) The High Court of the State
d) A committee appointed by the governor of the state
10. Expenses incurred out of the Contingency Fund of India are
a) Subsequently recouped by transferring savings from other heads of budget
b) recouped through supplementary, additional or excess grants by Parliament
c) not recouped till the whole fund is exhausted
d) recouped by collecting contributions from various states
11. Which one of the following motions is related with the Union Budget
a) Adjournment motion b) Cut motion
c) Censure motion d) None of the above
12. Lok Sabha passes vote on account to
a) meet the expenditure during the period between the introduction of Budget and its passage.
b) to meet expenditure on secret service
c) to enable the government to met unexpected expenditure
d) none of the above
13. Which one of the following sets of Bills is presented to the Parliament along with the Budget?
a) contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
b) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
c) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
d) Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes Bill

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14. Under the Constitution, the Central Government collect various types of taxes, which it has to share
with the state governments. Which of the following enjoys Constitutional authority to decide the share
of the states in the taxes?
a) The Union Finance Minister
b) The Finance Commission
c) The Planning Commission
d) The Union Cabinet in consultation with the President
15. When an advance grant is made by the Parliament pending regular passage of the Budget, it is called
a) Vote on Account b) Token Grant
c) Supplementary Grant d) Vote on Credit
16. The Parliament exercises control over finances through several methods. Which one of the following
has been wrongly listed?
a) It prepare and passes central Budget
b) It levies and collects the taxes
c) It sanctions the amounts spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India
17. The parliament of India generally holds three sessions. Which one of the following has been wrongly
listed as a session of Parliament?
a) Budget Session b) Monsoon Session
c) Spring Session d) Winter Session
18. The Lok Sabha is superior to the Rajya Sabha because
a) it is a directly elected house
b) the Council of Ministers is accountable to it
c) it controls the budget
d) of all the above reasons
19. A Joint Public Service Commission for two or more states
a) cannot be constituted under any circumstances
b) can be constituted by the Parliament on its own
c) can be constituted by the Parliament after a resolution to this effects is passed by the
legislatures of the concerned states
d) can be constituted by the president on the recommendation of the Chairmen
of the concerned State Public Service Commission
20. When was the Public Service Commission, a forerunner of Union Public Service Commission, was
first of all set up in India?
a) 1926 b) 1938 c) 1947 d) 1950
21. Assertion(A): A Secretary is the chief advisor to thr minister on all aspects of policy and
administrative affairs.
Reason (B) : Cabinet Secretary is head of the civil service.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.
22. Match the following
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A. Additional Secretary 1. Section

B. Under Secretary 2. Division
C. Deputy Secretary 3. Department
D. Secretary 4. Branch
5. Wing
ABCD ABCD
a) 5 4 2 3 b) 1 2 3 5
c) 2 1 3 5 d) 3 4 5 2
23. Assertion(A): India adopted a model of development based on five year plans.
Reason(R): In all the five year plans the approach was to fix a goal and employ
the bureaucracy to work towards achieving that goal
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.
7. Challenges of Nation Building
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. What did the highest honour, the 21 gun salute granted to a royal member of a Princely State, indicate
during the Colonial period?
a. The Princely State has the strongest armed forces
b. The Royal Member is the ruler of the largest Princely State
c. The Princely State actively collaborates with the East India Company
2. Who is the author of “India’s Struggle for Independence?”
a. Hridayanath Kunzru
b. Prof. Bipan Chandra
c. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
3. Choose the States that were formed once the State Reorganisation Act was passed by the Parliament in
1956
a. Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, Manipur, Tripura
b. Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
c. Andhra Pradesh, Laccadive, Odisha, West Bengal
d. Andhra Pradesh, Tripura, West Bengal, Madras
4. How should Industrial Land Acquisition be processed and compensated ?
a. i. Obtain the consent of the local people
ii. Compensate with welfare measures
b. i. Obtain approval from the government
ii. Compensate the displaced tribal people
c. i. Obtain consent to set up the industry from the government
ii. Compensate the government for providing land to set up the industry
5. Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy’s ‘Self-Respect Movement’ triggered which of the following:
a. Formation of the State of Tamil Nadu
b. Abolition of Madras Presidency
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c. Inculcation of Tamil nationalism consciousness

6. What is the reason for State governments to seek foreign or private investment? Check more than one
reason
a. Private investments provide more funding
b. Uneven distribution of funding among States by the Central government
c. Increasing unemployment
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
7. In 1956, Jawaharlal Nehru was forced to declare Andhra Pradesh as an independent
State on linguistic grounds, owing to mass protests turned violent after:
a. Resistance by the Nizam of Hyderabad to concede to the demands of India
b. Hunger strike by Potti Sriramulu resulting in his death
c. Protests by Vishalandhra movement
8. In 1950, how many languages were recognised?
a. 26 b. 22 c. 12
9. What were the offers made to Maharaja Hanvant Singh of Jodhpur to join either Pakistan or India?
(Answer any two)
a. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
i. Free access to Karachi port
ii. Rail connectivity between Jodhpur and Kathiawar
b. Muhammed Ali Jinnah
i. Arms manufacturing
ii. Supply of grains to farmers during a famine
c. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
i. Permission to import arms
ii. Supply of grains to farmers during famine
d. Muhammed Ali Jinnah
i. Free access to Karachi port
ii. Arms manufacturing and importing them

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