FUNDAMENTAL OF SOFTWARE ENGINEERING

This section includes software engineering MCQ questions from meaning and definition of
software engineering, various software development models such as serial or linear
sequential model, iteration model, increment model and parallel or concurrent development
model. It also covers objective questions from evolution of role of software, software
characteristics and software applications.

1. …………………. software resides only in read only memory and is used to control products
and systems for the consumer and industrial markets. A) Business
B) Embedded
C) System
D) Personal

2. …………………. software makes use of non numerical algorithms to solve complex problems
that are not amenable to computation or straightforward analysis.
A) Artificial Intelligence
B) Web-based
C) Embedded
D) Real time

3. …………….. is a sub discipline of computer Science that attempts to apply engineering

principles to the creation, operation, modification and maintenance of the software
components of various systems.
A) Computer Engineering
B) Hardware Engineering
C) Software Engineering
D) Component Engineering

4. The cost of software engineering includes approximately …………… of development costs

and …………. of testing costs.
A) 50%, 50%
B) 40%, 60%
C) 80%, 20%
D) 60%, 40%

5. Software maintenance refers to the support phase of software development which includes.
A) Correction
B) Adaption
C) Enhancement
D) All the above

6. The ……………… model stipulates that the requirements be completely specified before the
rest of the development can processed.
A) Waterfall
B) Rapid Application Development (RAD)
C) Iterative Development
D) Incremental Development

7. State whether True or False for Rapid Application Development (RAD).

i) RAD is not appropriate when technical risks are high.
ii) For large but scalable projects, RAD requires sufficient human resources to create the right
number of RAD teams.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

8. ………………… model couples the iterative nature of the prototyping with the controlled and
systematic aspects of the linear sequential model.
A) Spiral
B) Rapid Application Development (RAD)
C) Iterative Development
D) Incremental Development

9. ………………………. is a function of the number of failures experienced by a particular user of

that software.
A) Software Usability
B) Software reliability
C) Software performance
D) None of the above

10. Statistical testing is a software testing process in which the objective is to measure the
…………….. of the software rather than to discover software faults.
A) availability
B) reliability
C) reusability
D) all of the above

11. …………….. results in modification to the software to accommodate changes to its external
environment.
A) Adaptive maintenance
B) Perfective maintenance
C) Corrective maintenance
D) Standard maintenance
12. …………….. extends the software beyond its original functional requirements.
A) Adaptive maintenance
B) Perfective maintenance
C) Corrective maintenance
D) Standard maintenance

13. The ………….. model suggests a systematic sequential approach to software development
that begins at the system level and progresses through analysis, design, coding, testing and
support.
A) linear sequential development
B) rapid application development
C) incremental development
D) iterative enhancement

14. Which of the following activities includes in linear sequential model for software
development.
i) analysis    ii) design   iii) coding   iv) correction   v) test
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) ii, iii, iv and v only
C) i, ii, iii and v only
D) i, iii, iv and v only

15. ……………… is actually a multi-step process that focuses on four distinct attributes of a
program, data structure, software architecture, interface representations and procedural
detail.
A) Software analysis
B) Software design
C) Coding
D) Testing

16. The ……………….. assumes the requirement of a system which can be baseline before the
design begins.
A) linear sequential model
B) rapid application model
C) incremental model
D) iterative enhancement model

17. ……………… is a document driven process that requires formal documents at the end of
each phase.
A) Linear Sequential Development
B) Rapid Application Development
C) Incremental Development
D) Iterative Enhancement

18. …………………. is an incremental software development process model that emphasizes an

extremely short development cycle.
A) Linear Sequential Development
B) Rapid Application Development
C) Incremental Development
D) Iterative Enhancement

Answers
1.B) Embedded
2.A) Artificial Intelligence
3.C) Software Engineering
4.D) 60%, 40%
5.D) All the above
6.A) Waterfall
7.C) True, True
8.A) Spiral
9.B) Software reliability
10. B) reliability
11. A) Adaptive maintenance
12. B) Perspective maintenance
13. A) linear sequential development
14. C) i, ii, iii and v only
15. B) Software design
16. A) linear sequential model
17. A) Linear Sequential Development
18. B) Rapid Application Development

Set 2
the collections of solved MCQ questions on software engineering includes MCQ
questions on serial or linear sequential, rapid application development and
iterative development model along with the different phases involved in
developing a software. It also includes about iterative development model,
incremental development model, spiral model along with their task reasons
and parallel or concurrent development model.

1. Reliability in a software system can be achieved using which of the following strategies.
A) Fault avoidance
B) Fault tolerance
C) Fault detection
D) All the above

2. ………………. strategy assumes that residual faults remain in the system and can continue in
operation after some system failures have occurred.
A) Fault avoidance
B) Fault tolerance
C) Fault detection
D) None of the above

3. ……………… involves modifying the system so that the fault does not recur.
A) Failure detection
B) Damage assessment
C) Fault recovery
D) Fault repair

4. …………………… is an approach to program development whereby programmers assume

that there may be undetected faults or inconsistencies in their programs.
A) Defensive programming
B) Effective programming
C) Strong programming
D) Known programming

5. ……………… is a classification scheme, which shows how an object class is related to other
classes through common attributes and services.
A) Hierarchy
B) Inheritances
C) Taxonomy
D) None of the above

6. ……………. is a list of names used by the systems, arranged alphabetically.

A) Data Library
B) Data Dictionary
C) Name Dictionary
D) System Dictionary

7. The ………………….. model of system design is a distributed system model which show how
data and processing is distributed across a range of processors.
A) repository
B) client-server
C) abstract machine
D) None of the above

8. The main design activities in the software design process are

i) System specification      iii) Component design
ii) interface design            iv) algorithm design
A) ii, iii and iv only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

9. ……………………. is the process, which controls the changes made to a system, and manages
the different versions of the evolving software product.
A) Software management
B) Configuration management
C) Version management
D) Release management
10. The different types of software maintenance systems are
A) Corrective maintenance
B) Adaptive maintenance
C) Perspective maintenance
D) All the above
11. In ………………. phase  the information flow which would have been defined as part of the
business modeling phase is redefined into a set of data objects that are needed to support the
business.
A) business modeling
B) data modeling
C) process modeling
D) application generation

12. …………….. requires developers and customers who are committed to the rapid-fire
activities necessary to get a system complete in a much abbreviated time frame. A) Waterfall
B) Rapid Application Development (RAD)
C) Iterative Development
D) Incremental Development
13. The ………………. model counters the third limitation of the waterfall model and tries to
combine a benefit of both prototyping and waterfall model. 
A) Linear Sequential Development
B) Rapid Application Development
C) Incremental Development
D) Iterative Enhancement

14. The iterative enhancement model in software development encompasses which of the
following phases.
i) Analysis   ii) Design   iii) Coding   iv) Implementation
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

15. State whether the following statements about incremental development model used in
software development are True or False.
i) The incremental model combines elements of the linear sequential model with the iterative
of prototyping.
ii) When an incremental model is used, the first increment is core product.
A) True, True
B) False, True
C) True, False
D) False, False

16. …………………. model is particularly useful when staffing is unavailable for a complete
implementation by the business deadline that has been established for the project.
A) Linear Sequential Development
B) Rapid Application Development
C) Incremental Development
D) Iterative Enhancement

17. ……………… model couples the iterative nature of the prototyping with the controlled and
systematic aspects of the linear sequential model. A) Waterfall
B) Rapid Application Development (RAD)
C) Spiral
D) Incremental Development

18. Which of the following is NOT the phase consisting on spiral model of software
development.
A) Planning
B) Design
C) Engineering
D) Risk-Analysis

19. ……………. model can be represented schematically as a series of major technical activities,
tasks, and their associated states. A) Waterfall
B) Rapid Application Development (RAD)
C) Spiral
D) Concurrent Process 

20. Rapid Application Development (RAD) model in software development encompasses

which of the following phases. 
i) Business modeling    ii) Data modeling   iii) Process modeling  iv) Application generation
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Answers:
1. D) All the above
2. B) Fault tolerance
3. D) Fault repair
4. A) Defensive programming
5. C) Taxonomy
6. B) Data Dictionary
7. B) client-server
8. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
9. B) Configuration management
10. D) All the above
11. B) data modeling
12. B) Rapid Application Development (RAD)
13. D) Iterative Enhancement
14. C) i, ii and iv only
15. A) True, True
16. C) Incremental Development
17. C) Spiral
18. B) Design
19. D) Concurrent Process
20. D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Set 3
SOFTWARE DESIGN PRINCIPLES
This section covers software engineering MCQ questions on system models such as dataflow
models, semantic data models such as dataflow models, semantic data models, object models
and data dictionaries. Software design principles also include design process, design
methods, design strategies and design quality.

1. Which of the following is/are  the different types of system model, which might be
produced as part of the analysis process.
i) Data-processing model        ii) Composition model
iii) Classification model           iv) Process model
A) i, ii and iii only
B ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

2. …………… may be used to show the principal activities and deliverables involved in carrying
out some process.
A) Data-processing model  
B) Composition model
C) Classification model     
D) Process model

3. In a ……………… , entity-relation diagram may be used to show how some entities in a

system are composed of other entities.
A) data-processing model  
B) composition model
C) classification model     
D) process model

4. Within a ……………………., data flow diagrams may be used to show how data is processed at
different stages in the system.
A) data-processing model  
B) composition model
C) classification model     
D) process model

5. ………….. may be used to show how the system reacts to internal and external events.
A) Entity-relation diagram
B) Data flow diagram
C) Objects class diagram
D) State transaction diagram

6. ………….. may be used to show how entities have common characteristics.

A) Entity-relation diagram
B) Data flow diagram
C) Objects class diagram
D) State transaction diagram

7. ……………. is a way of showing how data is processed by a system.

A) Data flow models
B) System models
C) Semantic data models
D) Objects models

8. ……………… are used to show how data flows through a sequence of processing steps.
A) Data flow models
B) System models
C) Semantic data models
D) Objects models

9. State whether the following statements about data flow model are True or False.
i) Data flow model shows how the order for the goods moves from process to process.
ii) Data flow diagrams are good way to describe sub-system with complex interfaces.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True

10. ……………….. always identify the entities in a database their attributes and explicit
relationship between them.
A) Data flow models
B) System models
C) Semantic data models
D) Objects models
11. ………….. have the advantage that unlike some other modeling notations, they are simple
and intutive.
A) Entity-relation diagram
B) Data flow diagram
C) Objects class diagram
D) State transaction diagram

12. The database schema derived from ……………….. are naturally in third normal form, which
is a desirable characteristic of relational schema.
A) data-processing model  
B) composition model
C) classification model     
D) entity-relationship model

13. ……………… developed during requirement analysis used to represent both system data
and its processing.
A) data-processing models       
B) object models
C) classification models          
D) entity-relationship models

14. State whether the following statements about the advantages of using the data dictionary
are True or False.
i) The data dictionary software can check for name uniqueness and tell requirements analysis
of name duplication.
ii) Data dictionary servers as store of organization information which can link analysis,
design, implementation and evaluation.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True

15. Which of the following is/are the activities used in the design process for large software
systems.
i) Architectural designs       ii) Abstract specification
iii) Code design                 iv) Interface design
A) i, ii and iii only
B ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

16. A/An ……………….. is one of the structured method  of software design, where the system
is modeled using the data transformations, which take place as it, is processed.
A) data-flow model     
B) structured model
C) classification model         
D) entity-relation model
17. A/An …………………. in structured methods is used to describe the logical data, structured
being used.
A) data-flow model      
B) structured model
C) classification model         
D) entity-relation model

18. A/An ……………… is one of the structured method of software design approach, where the
system components and their interactions are documented.
A) data-flow model      
B) structured model
C) classification model         
D) entity-relation model

19. In ……………… models, the system is decomposed into

functional models, which accept, input data and transform it in some
way, to output data.
A) object-oriented model
B) domain specific model
C) control model
D) data-flow model

20. In ………………… architectures, the common architectural structure can be reused when
developing new systems.
A) object-oriented model
B) domain specific model
C) abstract machine model
D) repository model

Answers
1. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
2. D) Process model
3. B) composition model
4. A) data-processing model
5. D) State transaction diagram
6. C) Objects class diagram
7. A) Data flow models
8. A) Data flow models
9. A) True, False
10. C) Semantic data models
11. B) Data flow diagram
12. D) entity-relationship model
13. B) object models
14. D) True, True
15. C) i, ii and iv only
16. A) data-flow model     
17. D) entity-relation model
18. B) structured model
19. D) data-flow model
20. B) domain specific model

1. The primary objective of ……………….. is to develop a modular program structure and

represent the control relationships between modules.
A) architectural design
B) object oriented design
C) function oriented design
D) interface design

2. ………………… transforms the analysis model created using object oriented analysis into a
design model that serves as a blueprint for software construction.
A) architectural design
B) object oriented design
C) function oriented design
D) interface design

3. A …………………. strategy relies on decomposing the system into a set of interacting

functions with a centralized system state shared by these functions.
A) architectural design
B) object oriented design
C) function oriented design
D) interface design

4. While designing large software system, ………………… provides the constraints under which
it must operate is produced.
A) abstract specification
B) architectural design
C) interface design
D) algorithm design

5. Which of the following  is NOT the notation used in design documents.

A) Graphical notations
B) Visual notations
C) Program description language (PDLS)
D) Informal text

6. ………………… used in design documents are used to display the relationships between the
components making up the design and to rotate the design to the real world system is
modeling.
A) Graphical notations
B) Visual notations
C) Program description language (PDLS)
D) Informal text

7. ……………… comes before detailed system specification, which should not include any
design information.
A) Architectural design
B) Interface design
C) Component design
D) Algorithm design

8. …………………. is the first phase of the architectural design activity which is usually
concerned with decomposing a system into a set of interacting sub-system.
A) Control structuring
B) System structuring
C) Control modeling
D) Modular decomposition

9. Within …………………… model, each sub-system maintains its own database and data is
interchanged with other sub-systems by passing message to them.
A) client server
B) abstract machine
C) shared repository
D) control

10. State whether the following statements about shared repository model are True or False.
i) It is an efficient way to share large amount of data.
ii) It is easier to distribute the repository over a number of machines.
iii) There is no need to transmit data explicitly from one sub-system to another.
A) i-True, ii-True, iii-False
B) i-True, ii-False, iii-False
C) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
D) i-False, ii-True, iii-True

11. The …………… is a distributed system model which show how data and processing is
distributed across a range of  processors.
A) client server model
B) abstract machine model
C) shared repository model
D) control model

12. State whether the following statements about client server model are True or False.
i) The client server approach can  be used to implement a repository-based system.
ii) The most important advantage  of the client-server model is that distribution is straight
forward.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True

13. Which of the following is/are the major components of client server architecture model.
i) A set of stand alone servers         ii) A set of clients
iii) A network                                 iv) Operating system
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
14. The ………………….. of architecture models the interfacing of sub-systems.
A) client server model
B) abstract machine model
C) shared repository model
D) control model

15. A well known example of ……………….. approach is the OSI reference model of network
protocols.
A) client server model
B) abstract machine model
C) shared repository model
D) control model

16. The ……………………… supports the incremental development of system.

A) client server approach
B) abstract machine approach
C) shared repository approach
D) layered approach

17. ……………… for structuring a system are concerned with how a system is decomposed into
sub-systems.
A) client server models
B) abstract machine models
C) shared repository models
D) control models

18. In a ………………….. model, one sub-system is designated as the system controller and has
responsibility for managing the execution of other sub-systems.
A) centralized
B) decentralized
C) event-based
D) structural
19.  …………….. are effective in integrating sub-systems distributed across different computers
on a network.
A) Broadcast models
B) Interrupt driven models
C) Event-based models
D) Centralized models

20. The advantages of the ………………… are objects are loosely coupled, the implementation
of objects can be modified without affecting other objects.
A) architectural model
B) object oriented model
C) function oriented model
D) domain specific model

Table of Contents
ANSWERS
1. A) architectural design
2. B) object oriented design
3. C) function oriented design
4. A) abstract specification
5. B) Visual notations
6. A) Graphical notations
7. A) Architectural design
8. B) System structuring
9. C) shared repository
10. C) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
11. A) client server model
12. D) True, True
13. A) i, ii and iii only
14. B) abstract machine model
15. B) abstract machine model
16. D) layered approach
17. D) control models
18. A) centralized
19. A) Broadcast models
20. B) object oriented model

Set 4
OBJECT ORIENTED DESIGN
This section includes software engineering MCQ questions on objects, object classes and
inheritance, object identification and object aggregation. It also includes service usage, object
interface design evolution, function-oriented design and structure decomposition.
1. Which of the following is/are the part of object oriented development where by an object-
oriented strategy is used through out the development process.
i) Object oriented analysis           ii) Object oriented design  
iii) Object oriented methods          iv) Object oriented programming
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) i, ii and iv only

2. ………………… concerned with developing an object-oriented model of a the application

domain.
A) Object oriented analysis        
B) Object oriented methods
C) Object oriented design       
D) Object oriented programming

3. ……………… concerned with developing an object-oriented model of a software system to

implement the identified requirements.
A) Object oriented analysis        
B) Object oriented methods
C) Object oriented design       
D) Object oriented programming

4. ……………. is concerned with realizing a software design using an object-oriented

programming language.
A) Object oriented analysis        
B) Object oriented methods
C) Object oriented design       
D) Object oriented programming

5. State whether the following statements about the characteristics of an object-oriented

design are True or False.
i) System functionality is expressed in terms of operations or services associated with each
object.
ii) Objects may be distributed and may execute either sequentially or in parallel.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

6. In order to identify objects, use ……………………. of a natural language description of a

system where objects and attributes are nouns, operators or services are verbs.
A) tangible entities
B) grammatical analysis
C) behavioral approach
D) scenario-base analysis

7. While identifying objects, use …………….. in the application domain such as aircraft, roles
such as manager, events such as request, interactions such as meetings, locations such as
offices, organizational units such as companies and so on.
A) tangible entities
B) grammatical analysis
C) behavioral approach
D) scenario-base analysis

8. Which of the following is/are the activities of function-oriented approach.

i) Data-flow design               ii) Structural decomposition
iii) System structuring           iv) Detailed design description
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

9. In function-oriented design, ……………….. should show how data passes through the system
and is transformed by each system function.
A) data-flow design            
B) structural decomposition
C) system structuring        
D) detailed design description

10. ………………… of function oriented design model how functions are decomposed into sub-
functions using graphical structure charts.
A) data-flow design            
B) structural decomposition
C) system structuring        
D) detailed design description

Read Also: MCQ On Configuration Management In Software Engineering

11. In function oriented design, ……………………. describe the entities in the design and their
interfaces.
A) data-flow design            
B) structural decomposition
C) system structuring        
D) detailed design description
12. In data-flow diagram, ………………… represent functions, which transform inputs to
outputs.
A) rounded rectangle
B) rectangles
C) circles
D) arrows

13. …………………. in data-flow diagram represent data stores, which should be given a
descriptive name.
A) rounded rectangle
B) rectangles
C) circles
D) arrows

14. ………………. in data-flow diagram represent user interactions with the system which
provide input or receive output.
A) rounded rectangle
B) rectangles
C) circles
D) arrows

15. In data-flow diagram, ……………….. show the direction of data flow and their name
describes the data flowing along that path.
A) rounded rectangle
B) rectangles
C) circles
D) arrows

16. ……………. are the transformations in the diagram, which are responsible for central
processing functions.
A) Input transformations
B) Output transformations
C) System-processing transformations
D) Storage transformations

17. Which of the following is/are the steps, which can be identified for transformation process
from data-flow diagram to structure chart.
i) Identify system-processing transformations
ii) Identify storage transformations
iii) Identify input transformations
iv) Identify output transformations
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

18. In structural decomposition, ……………….. are concerned with reading data, checking it,
removing duplicates and so on.
A) input transformations
B) output transformations
C) system-processing transformations
D) storage transformations

19. …………… are transformations, which prepare and format output or write it to the user’s
screen or other devices.
A) Input transformations
B) Output transformations
C) System-processing transformations
D) Storage transformations

20. ……………… in function oriented design describe the control structure of the design using a
program description language which includes conditional statements and looping constructs.
A) data-flow design            
B) structural decomposition
C) system structuring        
D) detailed design description

Answers
1. D) i, ii and iv only
2. A) Object oriented analysis          
3. C) Object oriented design 
4. D) Object oriented programming
5. C) True, True
6. B) grammatical analysis
7. A) tangible entities
8. C) i, iii and iv only
9. A) data-flow design  
10. B) structural decomposition
11. D) detailed design description
12. A) rounded rectangle
13. B) rectangles
14. C) circles
15. D) arrows
16. C) System-processing transformations
17. C) i, iii and iv only
18. A) input transformations
19. B) Output transformations
20. D) detailed design description

Set 5
CONFIGURATION MANAGEMENT
This section covers change management, version and release management, software
maintenance, software re-engineering and software re-factoring.

1. …………………. is the process, which controls the changes made to a system and manages the
different versions of the software project.
A) Software maintenance
B) Configuration management
C) Software re-engineering
D) Software refactoring

2. The process of changing a system after it has been delivered and is in use is called …………..
A) Software maintenance
B) Configuration management
C) Software re-engineering
D) Software refactoring

3. ………………. is concerned with taking existing legacy systems and re-implementing them to
make it more maintainable.
A) Software maintenance
B) Configuration management
C) Software re-engineering
D) Software refactoring

4. ……………….. is the process of factoring the design module, in which you should be able to
clearly understand to concept of configuration management.
A) Software maintenance
B) Configuration management
C) Software re-engineering
D) Software refactoring

5. The configuration management plan should include which of the following information.
i) The definition of what entities are to be managed and formal scheme for identifying these
entities.
ii) A description of the records of the configuration management process which should be
maintained.
iii) The configuration management policies, which are used for, change control and version
management.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
6. ……………… process involve technical change analysis, cost benefit analysis and change
tracking.
A) Release management
B) Version management
C) Change management
D)  Configuration management

7. ………………. is complicated by the fact that customers may not actually want a new release
of the system.
A) Release management
B) Version management
C) Change management
D) Configuration management

8. The first stage in the change management process is to complete a …………………….

A) change request form
B) change assessment
C) change costing
D) change control board

9. ………………….. is a formal document where the requester sets out the change required to
the system.  
A) change request form
B) change assessment
C) change costing
D) change control board

10. ………………. decides if the change is economically justified and if there are good
organizational reasons to accept the change.
A) change request form
B) change assessment
C) change costing
D) change control board

11. ……………….. decides if the change is economically justified and if there are good
organizational reasons to accept the change.
A) change request form
B) change assessment
C) change costing
D) change control board
12.  A release is not just an executable program or set of programs which usually includes.
i) System files which are needed for successful system operation.
ii) Electronic and paper document describing the system
iii) Configuration files defining how the release should be configured for particular
installations.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

13. ………………. involves managing large amounts of information and ensuring that system
changes are recorded and controlled.
A) Release management
B) Version management
C) Change management
D) Configuration management

14. ………………… means changing the software to some new environment such as a different
hardware platform or for use with a different operating system.
A) Adaptive maintenance
B) Corrective maintenance
C) Perfective maintenance
D) System maintenance

15. ……………………. involves implementing new functional or non-functional system

requirements.
A) Adaptive maintenance
B) Corrective maintenance
C) Perfective maintenance
D) System maintenance

16. The documents which may be produced to aid the maintenance process includes,
i) The requirements document and as associated rationale.
ii) A document describing the overall system architecture.
iii) For each component, a specification and design description.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

17. The principal technical and non-technical factors which affect maintenance are
i) module independence            ii) programming style
iii) software reliability               iv) staff stability
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
18. Which of the following is/are the technical factors that affect the maintenance process,
i) Module independence                ii) Programming style
iii) Program age                            iv) Program validation
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

19. ………………… of information systems is an activity that will absorb information technology
resources for many years.
A) Re-engineering
B) Re-structuring
C) Re-factoring
D) Re-programming

20. …………………………… is the process of factoring the design module, each modules factored
into the components, which is more readable and easier to understand.
A) Code restructuring
B) Forward Engineering
C) Data Structuring
D) Software Refactoring

Answers
1. B) Configuration management
2. A) Software maintenance
3. C) Software re-engineering
4. D) Software refactoring
5. D) All i, ii and iii
6. C) Change management
7. A) Release management
8. A) change request form
9. A) change request form
10. D) change control board
11. D) change control board
12. B) ii and iii only
13. B) Version management
14. A) Adaptive maintenance
15. C) Perfective maintenance
16. D) All i, ii and iii
17. C) i, ii and iv only
18. C) i, ii and iv only
19. A) Re-engineering
20. D) Software Refactoring
Set 6
SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT STRATEGIES
This section includes software engineering MCQ questions on the characteristics of software
development strategies, life cycle models and risk reduction models. It also includes the case
tools, object oriented model, and the reuse model. Different process improvement models
such as productivity driven dynamic process modeling, human factors in the development
model, capability maturity model and personal and team software development model
included here. You may also find about open source development model, agile software
development, rapid application development model, workflow application model and aspect
oriented development.
1. The ………….. was an impressed version of an earlier process model called the Nine-phase,
stage-wise models.
A) nine-phase model
B) waterfall model
C) incremental and iterative model
D) evolutionary development model

2. The ……………… was a one-directional, sequential model that was enhanced by the waterfall
model through the introduction of bi-directional relations between the successive model
stages.
A) nine-phase model
B) waterfall model
C) incremental and iterative model
D) evolutionary development model

3. ……………….. model also called phased development models that share the common
objective of reducing the cycle time for development.
A) Evolutionary Development Model
B) Incremental and Iterative Model
C) Prototyping Model
D) Spiral Model

4. The …………………………… models might be compared to depth-first and breadth-first

approaches.
A) nine-phase model
B) waterfall model
C) incremental and iterative model
D) evolutionary development model

5. In a …………………. approach, a new functional behavior of the system is implemented in

detail at each state.
i) depth-first                ii) breadth-first
iii) incremental           iv) iterative
A) i and iii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iv only
D) ii and iv only

6. In a ………………………, the set of functions is initially implemented in a broad but shallow

manner where many functions are included but only tentatively realized.
i) depth-first                ii) breadth-first
iii) incremental           iv) iterative
A) i and iii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iv only
D) ii and iv only

7. In ……………………. approach, increments of system capability are released with subsequent

stages of development based on user and developer experience with earlier releases.
A) Evolutionary Development Model
B) Incremental and Iterative Model
C) Prototyping Model
D) Spiral Model

8. The ……………………… fixes requirements, costs, and schedule at the earliest point in order
to be able to meet contractual restrictions.
A) waterfall approach
B) prototyping approach
C) spiral approach
D) incremental approach

9. The …………………….. usually involves building a small version of the intended system prior
to building a small version of the intended system prior to building the proposed completed
system.
A) waterfall approach
B) prototyping approach
C) spiral approach
D) incremental approach

10. Which of the following is/are the advantages of incremental development models for software
development.
i) Improved development team morale early solution of implementation problems.
ii) Improved maintenance
iii) Improved control of over-engineering or gold-plating measurement of productivity
estimation feedback smoother staffing requirement.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
11. ………………………. refers to the use of prototyping as a technique for gathering and
clarifying requirements.
A) Exploratory prototyping
B) Experimental prototyping
C) Evolutionary prototyping
D) Embedded prototyping
12. ………………………… is used to explore changing requirements incrementally and adapt a
system to them.
A) Exploratory prototyping
B) Experimental prototyping
C) Evolutionary prototyping
D) Embedded prototyping

13. ………………………….. is used to explore changing requirements incrementally and adapt a

system to them.
A) Exploratory prototyping
B) Experimental prototyping
C) Evolutionary prototyping
D) Embedded prototyping

14. …………………………….. refers to prototyping as a component of another software

development strategy.
A) Embedded prototyping
B) Horizontal prototyping
C) Vertical prototyping
D) Exploratory prototyping

15. In …………………….., most of the system functions are at least nominally accessible, but
only a few are actually operational.
A) embedded prototyping
B) horizontal prototyping
C) vertical prototyping
D) exploratory prototyping

16. In …………………………, a narrow vertical slice of the system function is implemented.

A) embedded prototyping
B) horizontal prototyping
C) vertical prototyping
D) exploratory prototyping

17. ……………………….. gives the developer a better understanding of the user’s work problems
and needs and helps the users to clarify their requirements as well.
A) Embedded prototyping
B) Horizontal prototyping
C) Vertical prototyping
D) Exploratory prototyping

18. Which of the following is/are the shortcomings of the prototyping development model.
i) Leading users to overestimate the capabilities of a software product.
ii) Difficulties in project management and control.
iii) provide a tangible or visual expression of the proposed system.
iv) Difficulty in applying the technique to large systems design.
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv only

19. The …………………….. allows one to incorporate other process models in an inclusive
framework driven by project requirements and the dual objective of maximizing user
satisfaction while minimizing development uncertainty.
A) waterfall model
B) spiral model
C) prototyping model
D) evolutionary development model

20. The …………………….. illustrates how process models can be combined with one another to
good effects, such as by integrating prototyping in order to reduce risk.
A) waterfall model
B) spiral model
C) prototyping model
D) evolutionary development model

Answers
1. B) waterfall model
2. A) nine-phase model
3. B) Incremental and Iterative Model
4. C) incremental and iterative model
5. A) i and iii only
6. D) ii and iv only
7. A) Evolutionary Development Model
8. A) waterfall approach
9. B) prototyping approach
10. D) All i, ii and iii
11. A) Exploratory prototyping
12. B) Experimental prototyping
13. C) Evolutionary prototyping
14. A) Embedded prototyping
15. B) horizontal prototyping
16. C) vertical prototyping
17. D) Exploratory prototyping
18. C) i, ii and iv only
19. B) spiral model
20. B) spiral model

1. The ……………… uses a team oriented model that focuses on enforcing the use of
theoretically sound engineering processes and practices.
A) clean-room model
B) capability maturity model
C) prototyping model
D) spiral model

2. The ………………. focuses on  management of the entire development environment or

process in a team or organized context, emphasizing “process management and the principles
and practices associated with software process maturity”.
A) clean-room model
B) capability maturity model
C) prototyping model
D) spiral model

3. The testing process in ……………………. is intended to demonstrate the validity of the system
under expected usage, rather than to detect and remove defects.
A) clean-room model
B) capability maturity model
C) prototyping model
D) spiral model

4.  ……………………. diagrammatic models or tools are used to define the objects, their
properties and relations.
A) Static UML
B) Dynamic UML
C) UML sequence
D) Hybrid UML

5. …………………….. diagrammatic models or tools are used to define the states of the objects,
their state transitions, event handling and message passing.
A) Static UML
B) Dynamic UML
C) UML sequence
D) Hybrid UML

Read Also: MCQ Questions On Software Development Strategies Part-1

6. ……………….. diagrams are used to illustrate the interactions between objects visually.
A) UML collaboration
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

7. …………………. diagrams are used to illustrate the interactions between objects  arranged in
a time sequence and to clarify the logic of use cases.
A) UML collaboration
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

8. A ………………….. diagram is a visual illustration for the system responses in the use case for
a scenario, which describes the system operations triggered by a use case.
A) UML collaboration
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

9. ………………….. diagrams are used to understand the logic of use cases and business
processes.
A) Traditional state machine
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

10. ………………. diagrams illustrate the behavior of an object in response to events and as a
function of its internal state.
A) Traditional state machine
B) UML sequence
C) System sequence
D) UML activity

11. A/An …………………… makes a detailed review of all existing business applications with
respect to their longevity, size, maintainability and critically.
A) reverse engineering
B) forward engineering
C) inventory analysis
D) data engineering
12. …………………. refers to the attempt to extract and abstract design information from the
existing system’s source code.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Inventory analysis
D) Data engineering

13. ……………… refers to the use of the process results or products from the reverse
engineering phase to develop the new system.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation 
D) Data engineering

14. ………………… uses the information about the system’s scope and functionality provided by
the inventory analysis.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation 
D) Data engineering

15. …………………… refers to translation of the current model to the target data model.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation 
D) Data engineering

16. …………………… creates new system documentation from legacy documentation according
to an appropriate documentation standard.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation 
D)Re-structuring

17. ……………….. transforms the structure and source code for the system while preserving the
system’s external functional behavior.
A) Reverse engineering
B) Forward engineering
C) Re-documentation 
D)Re-structuring

18. State whether the following statements about re-engineering are True or False.
i) The advantage of re-engineering is that it can reverse aging symptoms.
ii) Re-engineered components can be constructed through the application of an externally
provided re-engineering service.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

19. The ……………………. phase of rational unified process model defines the vision of the
actual use end product and the scope of the project.
A) inception
B) construction
C) transition
D) elaboration

20. The ………………. phase of rational unified process model builds the product, modifying
the vision and the plan as it proceeds.
A) inception
B) construction
C) transition
D) elaboration

Answers
1. A) clean-room model
2. B) capability maturity model
3. A) clean-room model
4. A) Static UML
5. B) Dynamic UML
6. A) UML collaboration
7. B) UML sequence
8. C) System sequence
9. D) UML activity
10. A) Traditional state machine
11. C) inventory analysis
12. A) Reverse engineering
13. B) Forward engineering
14. A) Reverse engineering
15. D) Data engineering
16. C) Re-documentation 
17. D)Re-structuring
18. C) True, True
19. A) inception
20. B) construction

1. The ………………… refers to the often disappointing lack of improvement in software

development productivity despite the application of powerful new development techniques
and automated support like CASE tools.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open-source development model

2. ……………………….., closely and formally address the team and organizational context in
which a development process is embedded.
A) The human factor development model
B) Capability maturity model
C) The personal software process model
D) The open-source development model

3. …………………….. is the methodology used in the agile software development model.

A) Incremental development of working software
B) Internet communication and distribution
C) Rapid linear sequence development and reuse
D) Aspect-oriented software architecture

4. The …………………………… is a  multi-staged process definition model intended to

characterize and guide the engineering excellence or maturity of an organization’s software
development process.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open-source development model

5. The ………………………………. attempts to guide individual developers in sharpening the

discipline with which they approach software development.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open-source development model

6. …………………………… is a technological development that emerges from outside the

mainstream of scientific development and radically challenges the existing technological
paradigm.
A) System dynamics model
B) The human factor development model
C) The personal software process model
D) The open-source development model

7. A major advantage of the …………………… is that it

permits computerized, simulated controlled experiments to test the
impact of different development strategies.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open-source development model
8. ……………………………. are compatible with an agile approach, but they are certainly not
identical to agile models as they stand.
A) Agile development model
B) Evolutionary development model
C) The rapid application development model
D) The open-source development model

9. ……………………….. is based on iterative incremental delivery as a response to changing and

emergent requirements.
A) Agile development model
B) Evolutionary development model
C) The rapid application development model
D) The open-source development model

10. Which of the following is the methodology used in the rapid application development
model?
A) Incremental development of working software
B) Internet communication and distribution
C) Rapid linear sequence development and reuse
D) Aspect-oriented software architecture

11. The ………………………. is a model for identifying the

organizational processes required to ensure software process quality.
A) system dynamics model
B) capability maturity model
C) personal software process model
D) open-source development model

12. ………………….. workflows involve human actors collaborating on a goal, but with few of
any defined procedures for interaction.
i) Ad hoc       ii) Collaborative    iii) Administrative     iv) Production
A) i and iii only
B) ii and iv only
C) i and ii only
D) i and iv only

13. ………………… typically handle low business value activities such as scheduling an
interview.
A) Ad hoc workflows
B) Collaborative workflows
C) Administrative workflows
D) Production workflows
14. ……………………. workflows refer to how business value administrative domain chains of
activities such as purchase order processing.
A) Ad hoc
B) Collaborative
C) Administrative
D) Production

15. ……………… typically handle high business value activities like preparing product
documentation.
A) Ad hoc workflows
B) Collaborative workflows
C) Administrative workflows
D) Production workflows

16. ……………… refer to high-value core business process such as insurance claims handling or
loan processing in the case of a bank.
A) Ad hoc workflows
B) Collaborative workflows
C) Administrative workflows
D) Production workflows

17. ……………………………….. is a  design strategy that tries to address the design and
implementation complications associated with such inter-dependencies by explicitly
introducing aspects as system characteristics.
A) Agile development model
B) Evolutionary development model
C) The rapid linear sequence development model
D) Aspect-oriented development model

18. ………………….. tends to be susceptible to performance problems that are not recognized
until field tests, when they are finally ..
A) Workflow system development
B) Evolutionary development
C) Rapid linear sequence development
D) Aspect-oriented development

Answers
1. A) system dynamics model
2. B) Capability maturity model
3. A) Incremental development of working software
4. B) capability maturity model
5. C) personal software process model
6. D) Open source development model
7. A) system dynamics model
8. B) Evolutionary development model
9. A) Agile development model
10. C) Rapid linear sequence development and reuse
11. B) capability maturity model
12. C) i and ii only
13. A) Ad hoc workflows
14. C) Administrative
15. B) Collaborative workflows
16. D) Production workflows
17. D) Aspect-oriented development model
18. A) Workflow system development

Set 7
SOFTWARE TESTING TECHNIQUES AND STRATEGIES

Set 1
the collections of top 20 multiple choice questions on software testing techniques in software
engineering includes MCQ on software testing fundamentals and techniques for software test
case design. The software testing techniques include the definition of overriding objectives for
software testing and test case design focuses on a set of techniques for the creation of test
cases that meet overall testing objectives.
1. ………………….., sometimes called glass-box testing, is a test case design method that uses the
control structure of the procedural design to derive test cases.
A) White-box testing
B) Control structure testing
C) Black-box testing
D) Gray-box testing
2. While using white-box testing methods, the software engineer can derive test cases that
i) guarantee that all independent paths with in a module have been exercised at least once.
ii) exercise all logical decisions on their True and False sides.
iii) execute all loops at their boundaries and within their operational bounds.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii, and iii

3. ………………, also called behavioral testing which focuses on the functional requirements of
the software.
A) White-box testing
B) Control structure testing
C) Black-box testing
D) Gray-box testing
4. ……………. enables the software engineer to derive sets of input conditions that will fully
exercise all functional requirements for a program.
A) White-box testing
B) Control structure testing
C) Black-box testing
D) Gray-box testing

5. Black-box testing  attempts to find errors in which of the following categories.

i) incorrect or missing functions        ii) interface errors
iii) logical errors                              iv) behavior or performance errors
v) incorrect assumptions
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) iii, iv and v only
D) i, ii and iv only

6. While using black-box testing techniques, we drive a set of test cases that satisfy which of
the following criteria.
i) test cases that reduce, by a count that is greater than one.
ii) test cases that tell us something about the presence or absence of classes of errors.
iii) execute all loops at their boundaries and within their operational bounds.
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) i and iii
D) All i, ii and iii

7. ……………… is black-box testing method that divides the input domain of a program into
classes of data from which test cases can be derived.
A) Condition testing
B) Graph-based testing
C) Equivalence partitioning
D) loop testing

8. ……………. is the first step in black-box testing  in order to understand the objects that are
modeled in software and the relationships that connect these objects.
A) Condition testing
B) Graph-based testing
C) Comparison testing
D) loop testing

9. Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that complements …………………..

A) Condition testing
B) Graph-based testing
C) Equivalence partitioning
D) loop testing
10. The independent versions from the basis of a black-box testing technique are called
…………….
A) Condition testing
B) Graph-based testing
C) Comparison testing
D) loop testing

11. The ……………………. of documentation testing is the review and inspection, which
examines the document for editorial clarity.
A) first phase
B) second phase
C) third phase
D) fourth phase
12. The …………………. of documentation testing  is the live test, which uses the documentation
in conjunction with the use of the actual program.
A) first phase
B) second phase
C) third phase
D) fourth phase

13. A ………………… for documentation can be approached using techniques that are analogous
to many of the black-box testing methods.
A) loop test
B) live test
C) comparison test
D) review and inspection

14. ………………… can be used to define various classes and input and associated interactions.
A) equivalence partitioning and graph based testing
B) equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
C) condition testing and equivalence partitioning
D) graph based testing and boundary value analysis

15. The …………………. in the testing of real-time software is to test each task independently.
A) first step
B) second step
C) third step
D) fourth step

16. ……………….. tests are designed to validate functional requirements without regard to the
internal working of program.
A) White-box test
B) Control structure test
C) Black-box test
D) Gray-box test
17. …………………. divides the input domain into classes of data that are likely to exercise
specific software function.
A) Boundary value analysis
B) Graph-based testing
C) Equivalence partitioning
D) loop testing

18. ……………………. probes the programs ability to handle data at the limits of acceptability.
A) Boundary value analysis
B) Graph-based testing
C) Equivalence partitioning
D) loop testing

19. In ……………….., test cases are derived to ensure that all statements in the program have
been executed at least once during testing and that all logical conditions have been exercised.
A) White-box testing
B) Control structure testing
C) Black-box testing
D) Gray-box testing

20. In ………………….., once errors in individual tasks and in system behavior have been
isolated, testing shifts to time related errors.
A) Task testing
B) Inter task testing
C) Behavioral testing
D) System testing

Answers
1. A) White-box testing
2. D) All i, ii, and iii
3. C) Black-box testing
4. C) Black-box testing
5. D) i, ii and iv only
6. A) i and ii
7. C) Equivalence partitioning
8. B) Graph-based testing
9. C) Equivalence partitioning
10. C) Comparison testing
11. A) first phase
12. B) second phase
13. B) live test
14. B) equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
15. A) first step
16. C) Black-box test
17. C) Equivalence partitioning
18. A) Boundary value analysis
19. A) White-box testing
20. B) Inter task testing

Set 2
This set of solved MCQ on software testing in software engineering includes MCQ questions
on test verification and validation with their specific definitions. It also includes objective
questions on different test plan strategies like top-down testing, bottom-up testing, threaded
testing, stress testing and back-to-back testing.
1. In …………………..,internal and external interfaces are tested as each module is incorporated
into the structure.
A) functional validity
B) information content
C) interface integrity
D) performance

2. ……………………… tests designed to uncover functional errors are conducted.

A) functional validity
B) information content
C) interface integrity
D) performance

3. ……………….. tests designed to uncover errors associated with local or global data structures
are conducted.
A) functional validity
B) information content
C) interface integrity
D) performance

4. ………………………. tests the high levels of system before testing its detailed components.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

5. ………………………. testing is appropriate for

object-oriented systems in that individual objects may be tested using
their own test drivers they are then integrated and the object
collection is tested.
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Thread
D) Stress
6. The main disadvantage of ……………………….. is that test output may be difficult to observe.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

7. …………………… involves testing the modules at the lower levels in the hierarchy and then
working up the hierarchy or modules until the final module is tested.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

8. In ……………………….., the program is represented as a

single abstract component with sub components represented by stubs.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

9. ……………………. is a testing strategy, which was devised for testing real-time systems.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Back-to- back testing

10. ………………………….. testing may be used when more than one version of a system is
available for testing.
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Thread
D) Back-to- back
11. ………………………… is a testing strategy, which may be used after processes, or objects have
been individually tested and integrated into sub-systems.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Back-to- back testing
12. ………………….. usually involves  planning a series of tests where the load is steadily
increased.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Stress testing
D) Back-to- back testing
13. …………………….. is an event-based approach where tests are based on the events, which
trigger system actions.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Back-to- back testing

14. State whether the following statements about the functions of stress testing are True or
False.
i) It tests the failure behavior of the system.
ii) It stresses the system and may cause defects to come to light, which would not normally
manifest themselves.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True

15. ……………………… is particularly relevant to distributed systems based on a network of

processors.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Stress testing
D) Back-to- back testing

16. Back-to-back testing is only usually possible in which of the following situations.
i) When a system prototype is available.
ii) When reliable systems are developed using N-version programming.
iii) When different versions of a system have been developed for different types of computers.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

17. Which of the following is the correct order for the steps involved in back-to-back testing.
i) run one version then another version of the program.
ii) prepare a general-purpose set of test case.
iii) compare the files produced by the modified and unmodified program version.
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
D) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-i

18. In …………………………. , tests have to be designed to ensure that the system can process its
intended load.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

19. When using ……………………….. testing, test drivers must be written to exercise the lower-
level components.
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Thread
D) Back-to- back

20. Strict ………………………. is difficult to implement because of the requirement that program
stubs, simulating lower levels of the system, must be produced.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Stress testing

Answers: 
1. C) interface integrity
2. A) functional validity
3. B) information content
4. A) Top-down testing
5. B) Bottom-up
6. A) Top-down testing
7. B) Bottom-up testing
8. A) Top-down testing
9. C) Thread testing
10. D) Back-to- back
11. C) Thread testing
12. C) Stress testing
13. C) Thread testing
14. D) True, True
15. C) Stress testing
16. D) All i, ii and iii
17. C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
18. D) Stress testing
19. B) Bottom-up
20. A) Top-down testing

Set 3
This set of MCQ on software testing in software engineering includes collections of MCQ
questions on different testing methods and tools along with different software testing
strategies. It includes objective questions about black-box testing or functional testing, white-
box testing or glass-box testing, system testing, acceptance testing and regression testing. It
also includes about unit testing, top-down integration testing and bottom-up integration testing. 
1.In …………………. , test cases are designed using only the functional specification of the
software without any knowledge of the internal structure of the software.
A) white-box testing
B) black-box testing
C) system testing
D) acceptance testing

2………………… of software is predicated on close examination of procedural detail.

A) white-box testing
B) black-box testing
C) system testing
D) acceptance testing

3. ………………….. is sometimes performed with realistic data of the client to demonstrate the
software working satisfactorily.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

4. ……………….. testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been
conducted to ensure that changes have not propagated  unintended side-effects.
A) System
B) Acceptance
C) Regression
D) Unit

5. The ……………….. is white-box oriented, and the step can be conducted in parallel for
multiple components.
A) unit testing
B) top-down integration testing
C) bottom-up integration testing
D) regression testing

6. In …………………., processing required for components subordinate to a given level is always

available and the need for stubs is eliminated.
A) unit testing
B) top-down integration testing
C) bottom-up integration testing
D) regression testing
7. ………………. is a test case design method that uses the control structure of the procedural
design to derive test cases.
A) white-box testing
B) black-box testing
C) system testing
D) acceptance testing

8. ………………. is the activity that helps to ensure that changes do not introduce unintended
behavior or additional errors.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

9. State whether the following statements about regression testing are True or False.
i) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions.
ii) Additional tests that focuses on software functions that are likely to be affected by the
change.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) False, False
D) True, True

10. State whether the following statements about software testing are correct.
i) White box testing is also known as glass-box testing.
ii) Black-box testing is also known as functional testing.
iii) White-box testing is also called the structural testing.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
Read Also: MCQ On Software Development Strategies Part-1
11. Designing ……………… test cases requires thorough knowledge of the internal structure of
software.
A) black-box
B) white-box
C) acceptance
D) regression

12. ………………… is an incremental approach to construction of program structure. 

A) Unit testing
B) Top-down integration testing
C) Bottom-up integration testing
D) Regression testing
13. …………………. focuses verification effort on the smallest unit of software design, the
software component or module.
A) Unit testing
B) Top-down integration testing
C) Bottom-up integration testing
D) Regression testing

14. ……………….. may be conducted manually by re-executing a subset of all test cases or using
automated capture/playback tools.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

15. Using ………………….. methods, the software engineer can derive test cases that
i) Exercise all logical decisions on their true and false sides.
ii) Exercise external data structures to ensure their validity.
iii) Execute all loops at their boundaries.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

16. ………………. verifies that all elements mesh properly and that overall system
function/performance is achieved.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

17. …………………… is usually relied on to detect the faults, in addition to the faults introduced
during coding phase itself.
A) System testing
B) Acceptance testing
C) Regression testing
D) Black-box testing

18. In …………………… , modules are integrated by moving downward through t he control

hierarchy, beginning with the main control module.
A) unit testing
B) top-down integration testing
C) bottom-up integration testing
D) regression testing

Answers
1. B) black-box testing
2. A) white-box testing
3. B) Acceptance testing
4. C) Regression
5. A) unit testing
6. C) bottom-up integration testing
7. A) white-box testing
8. C) Regression testing
9.  D) True, True
10. D) All i, ii and iii
11. B) white-box
12. B) Top-down integration testing
13. A) Unit testing
14. C) Regression testing
15. C) i and iii only
16. A) System testing
17. B) Acceptance testing
18. B) top-down integration testing

Set 4
the collections of objective type questions on software testing fundamentals includes different
questions related to different test activities and main objectives of software testing. It also
includes MCQ questions from seven key principles of software testing, main activities of the
fundamental test process such as test planning control, test analysis and design and design,
test implementation and execution, evaluating exit criteria and reporting and test closure
activities along with the major tasks performed on each phase.
You May Also Read: Top 20 MCQ Questions On Software Testing Techniques
1. Which of the following test activities exist before and after test execution.
i) Planning and Control                 ii) Checking results
iii) Evaluating exit criteria            iv) Finalizing or completing closure
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

2. Which of the following is/are the main objective of software testing.

i) Finding defects                           ii) Gaining confidence about the level of quality
iii) Preventing defects                   iv) Making absence of defects
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
3. The main objective of ……………. is to cause as many failures as possible so that defects in
the software are identified and can be fixed.
A) component testing
B) acceptance testing
C) maintenance testing
D) operational testing

4. In ……………., the main objective may be to conform that the system works as expected.
A) component testing
B) acceptance testing
C) maintenance testing
D) operational testing

5. The main objective of …………. is to verify whether there is no new defects have been
introduced during development of the changes.
A) component testing
B) acceptance testing
C) maintenance testing
D) operational testing

6. During ……………, the main objective may be to access such as reliability or availability.
A) development testing
B) acceptance testing
C) maintenance testing
D) operational testing

7. State whether the following statements about software testing are True or False.
i) Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by defects.
ii) Debugging is the the development activity that finds, analyzes and removes the cause of
failure.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

8. State whether the following statements are True or False about the key principles of
software testing.
i) By using automated testing it is possible to test everything.
ii) It is normally impossible to test all input/output combinations for a software system.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False
9. State whether the following statements are True about the key principles of software
testing.
i) Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that there are no defects.
ii) With sufficient effort and tool support, exhaustive testing is feasible for all software.
iii) Testing is done differently in different contexts.
A) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
B) i-False, ii-False, iii-True
C) i-True, ii-False, iii-False
D) i-True, ii-True, iii-True

10. Which of the following are the main activities of fundamental test process.
i) Test planning and control                     ii) Test analysis and design
iii) Test implementation and execution iv) Test closure activities
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

11. …………… is the activity of defining the objectives of testing and the specification of test
activities in order to meet the objective and mission.
A) Test planning
B) Test control
C) Test analysis & test design
D) Test implementation

12. …………… is the ongoing activity of comparing actual progress against the plan and
reporting the status.
A) Test planning
B) Test control
C) Test analysis & test design
D) Test implementation

13. ………….. is the activity during which general testing objectives are transformed into
tangible test conditions and test cases.
A) Test planning
B) Test control
C) Test analysis & test design
D) Test implementation

14. Which of the following tasks would you expect to be performed during the test analysis
and design phase of the fundamental test process.
i) Reviewing the test basis ii) Evaluating testability
iii) Defining test objectives iv) Creating test suites from test procedures
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) i and iv only
15. Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement is performed during …………. phase of
the fundamental test process.
A) test planning
B) test analysis and design
C) test implementation and execution
D) test closure activities

16. …………. is the activity where test procedures or scripts are specified by combining the test
cases in a particular order.
A) Test planning
B) Test analysis and design
C) Test implementation and execution
D) Test closure activities

17. ………….. is the activity where test execution is assessed against the defined objectives.
A) Test planning
B) Evaluating exit criteria
C) Test implementation and execution
D) Test closure activities

18. Which of the following tasks would you expect to be performed during evaluating exit
criteria phase of the fundamental test process.
A) Defining test objectives
B) Creating test suites from test procedures
C) Writing test summary report for shake-holders
D) Reviewing the test basis

19. ……………. collect data from completed test activities to consolidate experience, testware,
facts and numbers.
A) Test planning
B) Evaluating exit criteria
C) Test implementation and execution
D) Test closure activities

20. Creating test suites from the test procedures for efficient test execution is performed
during …………… phase of the fundamental test process.
A) Test planning
B) Evaluating exit criteria
C) Test implementation and execution
D) Test closure activities
ANSWERS

1. D) All i, ii, iii and iv

2. A) i, ii and iii only
3. A) component testing
4. B) acceptance testing
5. C) maintenance testing
6. D) operational testing
7. C) True, True
8. B) False, True
9. A) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
10. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
11. A) Test planning
12. B) Test control
13. C) Test analysis & test design
14. A) i and ii only
15. D) test closure activities
16. A) Test planning
17. B) Evaluating exit criteria
18. C) Writing test summary report for shake-holders
19. D) Test closure activities
20. C) Test implementation and execution

Set 5
This set of Multiple Choice Questions includes collections of objective type questions on software

testing fundamentals contains different questions related to main activities of the fundamental test

process in software testing. It also includes MCQ questions from the major tasks performed on test

planning and control phase, analysis and design phase, test implementation and execution phase,

evaluating exit criteria and reporting phase and test closure activities.

1. Documenting the acceptance of the system is performed during ………….. phase of the

fundamental test process.

A) Test planning

B) Evaluating exit criteria

C) Test implementation and execution

D) Test closure activities

2. State whether the following statements about the fundamental test process are True or False.

i) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting should be done for each test level

ii) In test closure activities, we should check which planned deliverables have been delivered.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

3. Which of the following are the major tasks performed in the analysis and design phase?

i) Designing and prioritizing high-level test cases.

ii) Evaluating testability of the test basis and test objects.

iii) Comparing actual results with expected results.

A) i-True, ii-False, iii-False

B) i-False, ii-True, iii-True

C) i-True, ii-True, iii-False

D) i-False, ii-True, iii-False

4. Which of these tasks would you expect to be performed during the test implementation and

execution phase?

i) Finalizing, implementation and prioritizing test cases.

ii) Using the information gathered to improve the maturity

iii) Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

A) i-True, ii-False, iii-True

B) i-False, ii-True, iii-True

C) i-True, ii-True, iii-False

D) i-False, ii-True, iii-False

5 Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or in production. Which one of these

problems is a failure?

A) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.

B) One source code file included in the build has the FALSE version.

C) The computation algorithm used FALSE input variables.

D) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

6. ……… occur at project milestones such as when a software system is released, a test project is

completed, or a maintenance release has been completed.

A) Test planning

B) Evaluating exit criteria

C) Test implementation and execution

D) Test closure activities

7. State whether the following statements about software testing are True or False.

i) A certain degree of independence often makes the tester more effective at finding defects and

failures.

ii) Testers and developers are curious and focused on finding defects.
A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

8. The test designed by the persons who wrote the software under test has ………….. of independence.

A) low level

B) medium level

C) high level

D) All of the above

9. The test designed by a person from a different organization or company such as outsourcing or

certification by an external body has …………… of independence.

A) low level

B) medium level

C) high level

D) All of the above

10. Which of the following attributes, qualifications or actions would lead to problems (or conflict)

within mixed teams of testers and developers, when observed in reviews and tests.

A) Testers and developers are curious and focused on finding defects.

B) Testers and developers are sufficiently qualified to find failures and defects.

C) Testers and developers communicate defects as criticism of people, not as a criticism of the software

product.
D) Testers expect that there might be defects in the software product which the developers have not

found and fixed.

11. Which of the following is/are the ways to improve communication and relationships between

testers and others.

i) Remind every of the common goal of the better quality system.

ii) Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react as they do.

iii) Confirm that that other person has understood what you have said and vice versa.

A) i and ii only

B) ii and iii only

C) i and iii only

D) All i, ii and iii

12. Which of the following statements are TRUE.

i) Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.

ii) Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the product.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

13. State whether the following statements are True or False.

i) Rigorous testing and fixing of found defects could help reduce the risks of problems occurring in an

operational environment.
ii) Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

14. State whether the following statements are True or False.

i) Testing removes faults, debugging identifies the causes of failures.

ii) Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures, debugging removes the failures.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False

15. Which of the following statements are TRUE.

i) Testing identifies the source of defects, debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention

activities.

ii) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects, debugging finds, analyzes and removes the

causes of failure in the software.

A) True, True

B) True, False

C) False, True

D) False, False
ANSWERS:

1. D) Test closure activities

2. A) True, True

3. C) i-True, ii-True, iii-False

4. A) i-True, ii-False, iii-True

5. A) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.

6. D) Test closure activities

7. B) True, False

8. A) low level

9. C) high level

10. C) Testers and developers communicate defects as criticism of people, not as a criticism of the

software product.

11. D) All i, ii and iii

12. A) True, True

13. B) True, False

14. D) False, False

15. C) False, Tru

Set 6
This set of multiple choice question on software testing through software life cycle includes the
collections of MCQ questions on different test levels such as component testing, integration
testing, system testing and acceptance testing. It also includes objective questions on different
test types such as functional testing, non-functional testing, structural testing, regression
testing and their characteristics. You will also get additional questions about maintenance
testing, black-box testing, component testing, confirmation testing etc.
1. State whether the following statements about the characteristics of good testing and applies
to any software development life cycle model are True or False.
i) Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.
ii) All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.
iii) For every development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity.
A) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
B) i-False, ii-True, iii-False
C) i-False, ii-False, iii-True
D) i-True, ii-True, iii-True
2. When working with software development models, what is it important to do?
A) If needed, adapt the models to project and product characteristics.
B) Choose the waterfall model, because it is a most proven model.
C) Start with v-model, and then move to either the iterative or the incremental model.
D) Change the organization to fit the model, not vice versa.

3. Which of the following is/are the typical test objects used in component testing?
i) components ii) programs
iii) workflows iv) database models
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

4. ………………. is also known as unit, module or program testing.

A) Functional testing
B) Component testing
C) System testing
D) Acceptance testing

5. ………….. tests interfaces between components, interactions with different parts of a system
such as operating system, file system and hardware and interfaces between system.
A) Integration testing
B) Component testing
C) System testing
D) Acceptance testing

6. Which of the following is/are the typical test objects used in integration testing?
i) Subsystems ii) System, user and operation manuals
iii) Infrastructure iv) Interfaces
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

7. …………….. occurs with access to the code being tested and with the support of a
development environment such as a unit test framework or debugging tool.
A) Integration testing
B) Component testing
C) System testing
D) Acceptance testing

8. State whether the following statements about different test levels are True or False.
i) One approach to component testing is to prepare and automate test cases before coding.
ii) At each stage of integration, testers concentrate solely on the integration itself.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

9. In ………………….., the test environment should correspond to the final target or production
environment as much as possible in order to minimize the risk of environment specific
failures not being found in testing.
A) Functional testing
B) Component testing
C) System testing
D) Acceptance testing

10. Which of the following is/are the typical test objects used in system testing?
i) System, user, and operational manuals.
ii) System configuration and configuration data
iii) Forms
iv) Use Cases
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) iii and iv only
D) i and iv only

11. The goal in ……………… is to establish confidence in the system, parts of the system or
specific non-functional characteristics of the system.
A) Functional testing
B) Component testing
C) System testing
D) Acceptance testing

12. State whether the following statements about acceptance testing are True or False.
i) Acceptance testing of the usability of a component may be done during component testing.
ii) Acceptance testing if a new functional enhancement may come before system testing.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False
13. ………….. is the repeated testing of an already tested program, after modification, to
discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the change.
A) Regression testing
B) Black box testing
C) Functional testing
D) Non-functional testing

14. …………….. is testing without reference to the internal structure of a system.

A) Regression testing
B) Black box testing
C) Functional testing
D) Non-functional testing

15. State whether the following statements about non-functional testing are True or False.
i) Non-functional testing is the process of testing to determine system compliance with
coding standards.
ii) Non-functional testing is testing system characteristics, such as usability, reliability or
maintainability.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

16. …………….. is the process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified
requirements.
A) Functional testing
B) Component testing
C) System testing
D) Acceptance testing

17. Which of the following statements about regression testing are True.
i) Regression testing is a good candidate for test automation.
ii) Regression testing is performed to uncover defects as a result of changes in the software.
iii) Regression testing should not be performed during integration testing.
A) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
B) i-False, ii-True, iii-False
C) i-False, ii-False, iii-True
D) i-True, ii-True, iii-False

18. ……………. is the repeated testing of an already tested program after modification, to
discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the change.
A) Regression testing
B) Component testing
C) Functional testing
D) Confirmation testing
19. State whether the following statements comparing component testing and system testing
are True.
i) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing
focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
ii) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically is
the responsibility of the users of the system.
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) None of the above

20. Which of the following is an example of maintenance testing?

A) To test corrected defects during the development of a new system.
B) To test enhancements to an existing operational system.
C) To handle complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.
D) To integrate functions during the development of a new system.

ANSWERS

1. C) i-False, ii-False, iii-True

2. A) If needed, adapt the models to project and product characteristics.
3. C) i, ii and iv only
4. B) Component testing
5. A) Integration testing
6. B) i, iii and iv only
7. B) Component testing
8. C) True, True
9. C) System testing
10. A) i and ii only
11. D) Acceptance testing
12. C) True, True
13. A) Regression testing
14. B) Black box testing
15. B) False, True
16. C) System testing
17. D) i-True, ii-True, iii-False
18. A) Regression testing
19. D) None of the above
20. B) To test enhancements to an existing operational system.

Set 7
Here are the collections of multiple choice question on reviews and static analysis in software
testing. It includes MCQ questions on dynamic and static testing techniques, review process
and static analysis tools. It also includes objective type MCQ questions on different types of
reviews such as informal review, walkthrough, technical review, and inspection. Additionally,
it includes questions and answers about the main activities performed on different phases of
formal review.
1. ……………… techniques rely on the manual examination and automated analysis of the code
or other project documentation without the execution of the code.
A) Static testing
B) Dynamic testing
C) Reviews
D) All

2. State whether the following statements about software review are True or False.
i) Reviews are a way of testing software work products and can be performed well before
dynamic text execution.
ii) The main manual activity of review is to examine a work product and make comments
about it.
A) False, True
B) True, False
C) True, True
D) False, False

3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are
i) requirement defects
ii) insufficient maintainability
iii) design defects
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

4. Which of the following describes the main phases of a formal review?

A) Initiation, backtracking, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow-up
B) Planning, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow-up
C) Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow-up
D) Individual preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow-up, root cause analysis

5. Which of the following main activities are performed in the planning phase of a formal
review?
i) Defining the review criteria         ii) Selecting the personal
iii) Distributing documents             iv) Allocating roles
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iv only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
6. Which of the following activities does not include within follow-up phase of formal review?
A) Checking that defects have been addressed
B) Gathering metrics
C) Fixing defects found
D) Checking on exit criteria

7. The activity of examining or evaluating and recording issues during any physical meeting
or tracking any group electronic communications will be done in …………….. phase of formal
review.
A) follow-up
B) review meeting
C) rework
D) kick-off

8. Explaining the objectives, process, and documents to the participants is the main activity
performed on ………. phase of formal review.
A) follow-up
B) review meeting
C) rework
D) kick-off

9. Which of the following are the major roles included in a formal review?
i) Manager                  ii) Moderator
iii) Producer               iv) Author
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iv only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

10. In a formal review process, …………….. is the person who leads the review of the document
or set of documents, including planning the review, running the meeting and following up
after the meeting.
A) moderator
B) manager
C) team leader
D) author

11. Which of the following are the common review types for reviewing any software products?
i) informal review        ii) walkthrough
iii) inspection               iv) technical review
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iv only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
12. The review type …………….. is used for reviewing safety-critical components in a software
project a more formal, documented review, based on rules and checklists needed.
A) informal review
B) walkthrough
C) inspection
D) technical review

13. ……………… may take the form of pair programming or a technical lead reviewing designs
and code.
A) Informal review
B) Walkthrough
C) Inspection
D) Technical review

14. Which of the following is the main purpose of an informal review?

A) inexpensive way to get some benefit
B) learning and gaining the understanding
C) solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications
D) finding defects

15. Discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives and finding defects are the main
purposes of ………….
A) Informal review
B) Walkthrough
C) Inspection
D) Technical review

16. State whether the following statements about tool-supported static analysis are True or
False.
i) Tool-supported static analysis can result in cost savings by finding defects early.
ii) Tool-supported static analysis is a good way to force failures into the software.
A) False, True
B) True, False
C) True, True
D) False, False

17. State whether the following statements about static analysis tools are True.
i) Static analysis tools analyze program code as well as generated output such as HTML &
XML.
ii) Static analysis tools are typically used by developers before and during component
integration testing.
iii) Static analysis tools may produce a large number of warning messages, which need to be
well-managed to allow the most effective use of the tool.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
18. Which of the following is typical defects can be discovered by static analysis tools?
i) Referencing a variable with an undefined value. ii) Security vulnerabilities
iii) Overly complicated constructs iv) Unreachable code
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iv only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

19. Which of the following are the main characteristics of inspection?

i) includes metrics gathering
ii) defined roles
iii) meeting led by author
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

20. The activity of noting defects, making recommendations regarding handling defects,
making decisions about the defects will be done on ………….. phase of formal review.
A) follow-up
B) review meeting
C) rework
D) kick-off

ANSWERS

1. A) Static testing
2. C) True, True
3. D) All i, ii and iii
4. C) Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow-up
5. B) i, ii and iv only
6. C) Fixing defects found
7. B) review meeting
8. D) kick-off
9. B) i, ii and iv only
10. A) moderator
11. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
12. C) inspection
13. A) Informal review
14. A) inexpensive way to get some benefit
15. D) Technical review
16. B) True, False
17. D) All i, ii and iii
18. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
19. A) i and ii only
20. B) review meeting

Set 8
Here are the collections of MCQ questions on test management and different objectives of test
management in software testing. It also includes objective type questions on test management,
test planning and estimation, test progress monitoring and control, configuration
management, risk-based testing and incident management.
1. Which of the following is a possible benefit of independent testing?
A) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
B) Independent testers do not need extra education and training.
C) Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.
D) Independent testers can work more than developers.

2. Which of the following are the drawbacks of independent testing?

i) Independent tester cannot verify assumptions people made during specification and
implementation of the system.
ii) Independent testers are isolated from the development team.
iii) Independent testers may be seen as a bottleneck or blamed for delays in release.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
3. Which of the following are the typical tasks should be performed by test leader?
i) Prepare and acquire test data
ii) Write or review a test strategy
iii) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing.
iv) Review and contribute to test plans
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) iii and iv only
D) i and iv only
4. State whether the following statements about different test positions are True or False.
i) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the tools and controls to be used.
ii) The test manager plans organize and control the testing activities while the tester specifies
and executes tests.
A) False, False
B) True, False
C) False, True
D) True, True

5. Which of the following are the tasks performed by the typical tester?
i) Review tests developed by others
ii) Decide on the implementation of the test environment
iii) Prepare and acquire test data
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

6. Which of the following are typical entry criteria for testing?

i) Test data availability
ii) Testable code availability
iii) Costs
iv) Test tool readiness in the test environment.
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) i, ii and iv only

7. Which of the following are typical exit criteria for testing?

i) costs
ii) Schedules such as those based on time to market
iii) Test environment availability and readiness
iv) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) i, ii and iv only

8. ………… are used for risk-based testing where testing is directed to areas of greatest risk.
A) Analytical approaches
B) Model-based approaches
C) Methodical approaches
D) Consultative approaches

9. ………… are used on stochastic testing using statistical information about failure rates or
usage.
A) Analytical approaches
B) Model-based approaches
C) Methodical approaches
D) Consultative approaches

10. …….. are used on those in which test coverage is driven primarily by the advice and
guidance of technology and/or business domain experts outside the test team.
A) Analytical approaches
B) Model-based approaches
C) Methodical approaches
D) Consultative approaches

11. ……………. describes any guiding or corrective actions taken as a result of information and
metrics gathered and reported.
A) Test control
B) Test monitoring
C) Test reporting
D) Configuration management

12. ……………. is concerned with summarizing information about the testing endeavor.
A) Test control
B) Test monitoring
C) Test reporting
D) Configuration management

13. The purpose of ……………… is to provide feedback and visibility about test activities.
A) Test control
B) Test monitoring
C) Test reporting
D) Configuration management

14. The purpose of …………………. is to establish and maintain the integrity of the products of
the software or system through the project and product lifecycle.
A) Test control
B) Test monitoring
C) Test reporting
D) Configuration management

15. Which of the following risk does NOT include product risks in software testing?
A) Failure-prone software delivered
B) Software that does not perform its intended functions
C) Low quality of the design and coding
D) Poor data integrity and quality

16. Select the risks that fall under project risks.

i) Problems in defining the right requirements.
ii) Test environment not ready on time
iii) Poor software characteristics
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
17. Details of the incident report include which of the following.
i) Date of issue, issuing organization and author
ii) Expected and actual results
iii) Priority to fix
iv ) Conclusions, recommendations and approvals
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

18. ……………. provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to
enable identification, isolation, and correction as necessary.
A) Incident report
B) Incident logging
C) Testing report
D) Risk report

19. In a risk-based approach, the risks identified may be used to

i) Determine the test techniques to be employed.
ii) Determine the extent of testing to be carried out.
iii) Prioritize testing in an attempt to find the critical defects as early as possible.
iv) Determine whether and testing activities could be employed to reduce risk.
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

20. For testing …………….. may involve ensuring all items of testware are identified, version
controlled, tracked for changes, related to each other and related to the development items,
so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process.
A) Test control
B) Test monitoring
C) Test reporting
D) Configuration management

ANSWERS:

1. A) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
2. B) ii and iii only
3. B) ii and iii only
4. C) False, True
5. C) i and iii only
6. D) i, ii and iv only
7. D) i, ii and iv only
8. A) Analytical approaches
9. B) Model-based approaches
10. D) Consultative approaches
11. A) Test control
12. C) Test reporting
13. B) Test monitoring
14. D) Configuration management
15. C) Low quality of the design and coding
16. A) i and ii only
17. D) All i, ii, iii and iv
18. A) Incident report
19. A) i, ii and iii only
20. D) Configuration management

Set 9
This set of top 20 MCQ questions on Software Testing Tools includes the collection of multiple-choice

questions on the different tools required for software testing. It includes objective type questions on the

uses and purposes of software testing tools, Test Management Tools, Requirements Management

Tools, Incident Management Tools, Configuration Management Tools, Static Analysis Tools,

Modeling Tools, Test Design Tools, Test Data Preparation Tools, Test Execution Tools, Dynamic

Analysis Tools, and Monitoring Tools.

Read Also: MCQ Questions On Test Management In Software Testing

1) Which of the following is/are the uses of software testing tools?

i. Test tools are used in reconnaissance.

ii. Test tools help in managing the testing process.

A. i only

B. ii only

C. Both i and ii

D. None of the above

2) Which of the following is/are the purposes of using software testing tools?

i. To improve the efficiency of test activities by automating repetitive tasks.

ii. To automate the activities that require significant resources when done manually.

iii. To automate the activities that cannot be executed manually.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

3) … provide interfaces for executing tests, tracking defects, and managing requirements along with

support for quantitative analysis and reporting of the test objects.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

4) … helps with identifying inconsistent or missing requirements.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

5) … store and manage defects, failure, change requests, or perceived problems and anomalies.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

6) … are necessary for storage and version management of testware and related software.

A. Requirements Management Tools

B. Test Management Tools

C. Incident Management Tools

D. Configuration Management Tools

7) … helps in planning or risk analysis by providing metrics for the code.

A. Review Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

8) … are used to validate software models by enumerating inconsistencies and finding defects.

A. Review Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

9) … are used to generate test inputs or executable tests.

A. Review Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

10) … manipulate databases, files, or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the

execution of tests.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Modeling Tools

D. Test Design Tools

11) … are used to record tests and usually support scripting languages or GUI-based configuration for

parameterization of data and other customization in the tests.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Test Execution Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Design Tools

12) … are used in component and component integration testing and when testing middleware.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Monitoring Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

13) … continuously analyze, verify, and report on the usage of specific system resources and give

warnings of possible problems.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Monitoring Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

14) Which of the following is/are the potential benefits of using tools for testing?

i. Reducing the repetitive work.

ii. Increasing consistency and repeatability.

iii. Over-reliance on the tool.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

15) State whether the following statements about the risk of using tools for testing are True or False.

i. There is a poor response from the vendor for support, upgrades, and defect fixes.

ii. There is a risk of suspension of the open-source or free tools project.

A. i-True, ii-False

B. i-False, ii-True

C. i-True, ii-True

D. i-False, ii-False

16) … execute test objects using the automated test scripts.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Monitoring Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

17) When … are applied to source code can enforce coding standards, but if applied to existing code

may generate a large number of messages.

A. Test Data Preparation Tools

B. Static Analysis Tools

C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

D. Test Execution Tools

18) What you should consider while selecting a tool for an organization?

i. Evaluating the training needs by considering the current test team’s test automation skills.

ii. Estimating the cost-benefit ratio based on a concrete business case.

iii. Providing training for new users.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

19) Which of the following is/are the main objectives of introducing the selected tool into an

organization with a pilot project?

i. To learn more detail about the tool.

ii. To evaluate how the tool fits with the existing process.
iii. To decide the standard ways of using, managing, sorting, and maintaining the tool.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

20) Which of the following are the success factors for the deployment of the tool within an

organization.?

i. Assessing whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost.

ii. Adapting and improving processes to fit with the use of the tool.

iii. Defining the usage guidelines.

A. i and ii only

B. ii and iii only

C. i and iii only

D. All i, ii and iii

Answers:

1. C. Both i and ii

2. D. All i, ii and iii

3. B. Test Management Tools

4. A. Requirements Management Tools

5. C. Incident Management Tools

6. D. Configuration Management Tools

7. B. Static Analysis Tools

8. C. Modeling Tools

9. D. Test Design Tools

10. A. Test Data Preparation Tools

11. B. Test Execution Tools

12. C. Dynamic Analysis Tools

13. B. Monitoring Tools

14. A. i and ii only

15. C. i-True, ii-True

16. D. Test Execution Tools

17. B. Static Analysis Tools

18. A. i and ii only

19. D. All i, ii and iii

20. B. ii and iii only