UNIT 1

1. The two main divisions of the central nervous system are:

A. nerves and neurons
B. cerebral cortex and cerebrospinal fluid
C. brain and spinal cord
D. spinal cord and nerves
E. cerebral cortex and brainstem

2. Which of the following divisions is NOT a part of the peripheral nervous system?
A. brainstem
B. sympathetic
C. parasympathetic
D. sensory
E. enteric

3. The cells within the nervous system that transmit action potentials are:
A. axons
B. glial cells
C. dendrites
D. neurons
E. astrocytes

4. The enteric nervous system is a network of neurons that function to:

A. control GI motility and secretions
B. regulate reproductive function in men and women
C. control micturition – the elimination of urine
D. adjust the heart rate and cardiac output to match the body’s needs
E. control voluntary movements
5. The thin, branched processes of a neuron, whose main function is to receive incoming signals,
are called:
A. terminals
B. cell bodies
C. axons
D. dendrites
E. synapses

6. Any drug that can act on the central nervous system must first pass through the blood– brain
barrier, which:
A. is the tough, outer sac that encloses the brain, spinal cord and cerebrospinal fluid
B. allows toxic substances and pathogens to reach brain tissue
C. maintains a uniform pressure within the cranium
D. separates blood from cerebrospinal fluid

7. How many lobes are in each cerebral hemisphere?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
E. seven

8. How many pairs of cranial nerves originate within the brain?

A. two
B. four
C. eight
D. twelve
E. sixteen
9. Impulses (action potentials) pass from one neuron to another at a microscopic gap, called a
synapse, where they trigger release of chemical signal molecules, called:
A. neurotransmitters
B. hormones
C. prostaglandins
D. second messengers
E. cytokines

10. Which of the following chemical substances is NOT an example of a neurotransmitter?

A. acetylcholine
B. glucose
C. dopamine
D. noradrenaline
E. serotonin

11. The function of the myelin sheath found on myelinated neurons is to:
A. nourish them
B. insulate them
C. protect them
D. support them
E. destroy them

12. A reflex action is a pathway that typically involves several neurons and mediates:
A. an action that has to be learned
B. an action that involves conscious thought
C. an action that is repeated
D. an involuntary response to a stimulus
E. an intention to make a voluntary movement
 13- The nervous system which consists of all the nerves arisen from the central
nervous system is called
A. hilus nervous system
B. peripheral nervous system
C. myelin nervous system
D. hyper nervous system

14- The coordinators of the central nervous system are

A. brain and spinal cord
B. pituitary glands
C. endocrine glands
D. skin and blood vessels

15- Considering the spinal and cranial nerves, the pathway which conducts
impulses to the central nervous system from receptors is classified as
A. temporal
B. parietal
C. sensory
D. motor

16- The quick involuntary response which is produced by the central nervous
system is called
A. autonomic response
B. flight response
C. reflex action
D. reflex arc

17- The system of motor pathways which is responsible for voluntary and
conscious actions is classified as
A. autonomic nervous system
B. somatic nervous system
C. reflexive nervous system
D. ventral nervous system
18. The entire nervous system is divided into two main regions: The _________
A) Brain and the spinal chord
B) CNS and the PNS
C) Neurons and the glial cells
D) Motor neurons and the sensory neurons

19. All the nervous tissue outside the brain and spinal cord is the ______ nervous system.
A) Peripheral
B) Autonomic
C) Somatic
D) Central

20. Which of the following is not one of the basic functions of the nervous system?
A) Formulate responses to sensory stimulation
B) Send signals rapidly between body parts
C) Produce major body fluids such as plasma and interstitial tissue fluid
D) Detect sense stimuli

21. The cells of nervous tissue that are not neurons but that assist neurons are called
A) Amyloid plaques
B) Fibroblasts
C) Leukocytes
D) Neuroglia

22- The white fatty substance that coats axons to increase signal speed is
A) Myelin
B) Microfibrils
C) Dendrites
D) Adipocytes
23- ____ neuron transmits signals from the PNS to the central nervous system.
A) Interneuron
B) Sensory
C) Motor
D) Ganglion

24) An involuntary response by the nervous system to a stimulus is a

A) Synapse
B) Reflex
C) Motor response
D) Smooth muscle

25. Which part of the brain has a blood-brain barrier?

a) anterior pituitary
b) posterior pituitary
c) pineal body
d) area postrema of the fourth ventricle

26. Which is the largest branch of the internal carotid artery?

a) ophthalmic artery
b) anterior cerebral artery
c) middle cerebral artery
d) striate artery

27. The brain stem does NOT include the:

a) diencephalons
b) midbrain
c) medilla oblongata
d) pons

28. Which cranial nerve lies in the junction between pons and medilla?
a) abducent nerve (VI)
b) facial nerve (VII)
c) vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
d) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

29. Which is the smallest cranial nerve?

a) olfactory nerve (I)
b) occulomotor nerve (III)
c) trochlear nerve (IV)
d) abducent nerve (VI)

30. Which midbrain cells are involved in general light reflexes?

a) red nucleus
b) superior colliculus
c) inferior colliculus
d) substantia nigra

UNIT II
31. The accessory digestive organs include all of the following, EXCEPT

a. tongue
b. liver
c. pancreas
d. stomach

32. What is the digestive system?

a. The body's breathing system

b. The body's system of nerves

c. The body's food-processing system

d. The body's blood-transporting system

33. Digestion begins in the mouth. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

a. The tongue aids in the digestion of the food.

b. The saliva changes some of the starches in the food to sugar.

c. The tongue keeps the food in place in the mouth while the food is being chewed.

d. The digestive juices can react more easily with the food when chewed.

34. Where does food pass through between the mouth and the stomach?

a. The gullet

b. The rectum

c. The Oesophagus

d. The large intestine

35. Our throat divides into two separate tubes: the windpipe and the gullet. What
prevents food from entering the windpipe?

a. The uvula

b. The tongue
c. The trachea

d. The epiglottis

36. What is the main function of the digestive system?

a. Hold and receive food
b. Control the chemical activities of the body
c. Break the food down to be used for energy
d. Remove excess water from the body

37. Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system?

a. Ingestion
b. Digestion
c. Absorption
d. Protection

38. The portions of the small intestines in anatomical order would be:
a. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum
b. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
c. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum
d. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

39. Which of the following is NOT a function of the large intestines?

a. Absorption of water
b. Absorption of nutrients
c. Production of vitamin K
d. Production of feces
40. What type of digestion begins in the mouth?
a. Fat
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Protein

41. List in order the structures food would pass through before exiting the body.
a. Pharynx – Stomach – Large intestines – Small Intestines
b. Stomach – Jejunum – Large intestines – Anus
c. Duodenum – Stomach – Large intestines – Anus
d. Rectum – Anus – Large intestines – Small intestines

42. How long is the small intestine in an adult?

a. 22 feet
b. 30 inches
c. 30 feet
d. 17 feet
43. What is the liver’s main role?
a. Produce digestive enzymes
b. Turn water into minerals for absorption
c. Assist the stomach with digestion
d. Remove harmful substances from the blood

44. When they reach the stomach, what do food particles combine with?
a. Gastric juices
b. Mucus
c. Bile
d. Enzymes

45. What tube moves food from your throat to your stomach and is posterior to the
trachea?
a. Epiglottis
b. Esophagus
c. Pharynx
d. Larynx

46. The long does the large intestine measure?

a. 1 foot long
b. 10 feet long
c. 100 feet long
d. 5 foot long

47. Where does the digestive process begin?

a. Stomach
b. Esophagus
c. Mouth
d. Pharynx

48. When the stomach is empty, it folds up into wrinkles called:

a. shincters
b. bolus
c. rugae
d. chyme

49. Gastric juices in the stomach:

a. kill bacteria.
b. work together to digest food.
c. include hydrochloric acid.
d. All of the above.
 50. By the time food leaves the stomach it is:
a. a creamy paste called chyme.
b. rolled into a bolus.
c. ready to be mixed with pepsin for protein digestion.
d. None of the above

51. How does digested food finally reach the bloodstream?

a. It passes through the gullet into the blood.

b. It is absorbed into the blood through blood vessels.

c. It is absorbed into the blood through the walls of the lungs.

d. It passes from the small intestine into the large

intestine, then into the blood.

52. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface

a. Pinocytic vesicles
b. Phagocytic vesicles
c. Zymogen granules
d. Microvilli

53. Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by

a. Enterokinase
b. Cholecystokinin
c. GIP
d. Gastrin

54. The hormone that stimulates the stomach to secrete gastric juice is

a. Gastrin
b. Renin
c. Enterokinase
d. Enterogasterone

55. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the conversion of

 a. Pepsinogen into pepsin
b. Trypsinogen into trypsin
c. Caseinogen into casein
d. Polysaccharides to Monosaccharides

56. Most of the digestion occurs in

a. Rectum
b. Stomach
c. Duodenum
d. Small intestine

57. Lactose is composed of

a. glucose + fructose
b. glucose + glucose
c. fructose + galactose
d. glucose + galactose

58. If pancreas is removed, the compound which remains undigested is

a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. All of these

59. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect

a. Production of somatostatin
b. Secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
c. Maturation of sperms
d. Smooth movement of food down the intestine

60. Which one of the following statement is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in
humans?

a. Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen

b. Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of
carrier ions like Na+
c. About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
 d. Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into
blood capillaries

Unit 3 (61-90)

61- The renal medulla is composed of tissue called ______.

a) Renal pyramids 
b) Nephrons 
c) Renal sinus 
d) Renal pelvis

62. Juxtaglomerular cells combine with _______ cells to form the juxtagomerular apparatus in
the kidney.

a) Macula densa 
b) Renal pelvis 
c) Nephron 
d) Renal sinus

63. Which of the following is not in the sequence of proper kidney blood flow? The starting
point is the renal artery and the finishing point is the renal vein.

a. Arciform artery 
b. Afferent arteriole 
c. Interlobar vein 
d. Arciform vein

64. Each kidney contains approximately ______ nephrons.

a) 10 million 
b) 1 million 
c) 100,000 
d) 10,000

65. Which of the following is not associated with the role of the kidneys?
 a) Release of erythropoietin (hormone) 
b) Release of renin (enzyme) 
c) Release of Vitamin E 
d) Activate Vitamin D

66. Which one of the following sequence of blood flow through the nephron ultrastructure is
correct?

a) Afferent arteriole → glomerular capillary → peritubular capillaries/vasa recta →

efferent arteriole
b) Efferent arteriole → glomerular capillary → afferent arteriole → peritubular
capillaries/vasa recta
c) Glomerular capillaries → afferent arteriole → efferent arteriole → peritubular
capillaries/vasa recta
d) Afferent arteriole → glomerular capillary → efferent arteriole → peritubular
capillaries/vasa recta 

67. Which of the following composes the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A.!proximal!and!distal!tubule! !
B.!loop!of!Henle!+!distal!
tubule!
C.!macula!densa!+!
juxtaglomerular!cells! D.!
afferent!artery!+!glomerulus
proximal!and!distal!tubule! !
B.!loop!of!Henle!+!distal!
tubule!
C.!macula!densa!+!
juxtaglomerular!cells! D.!
afferent!artery!+!glomerulus
.!Which!of!the!following!
composes!the!juxtaglomerular!
apparatus?!
A.!proximal!and!distal!tubule! !
B.!loop!of!Henle!+!distal!
tubule!
C.!macula!densa!+!
juxtaglomerular!cells! D.!
afferent!artery!+!glomerulus
a. proximal and distal tubule
 b. loop of hence and distal tubule
c. macula densa and juxtraglomerular cells
d. afferent artery and glomerulus

68. What is the function of ADH?

a) Controls sugar level in blood
b) Increases water absorption
c) Decreases water absorption
d) Synthesis of salt

69. Glucose is mainly reabsorbed in _______

a) Henle’s loop
b) DCT
c) PCT
d) Nephron
70. Part of nephron impermeable to salt is ____________
a) DCT
b) Collecting ducts
c) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
d) Descending limb of loop of Henle

71. In IgA nephropathy, which of the following does not indicate an increased risk of renal
failure?

a. Proteinuria
b. High blood pressure
c. Reduced glomerular filtration rate
d. Macroscopic haematuria

72. Polycystic kidney disease is thought to be primarily due to a genetic abnormality of:

a. Sodium transport
b. Cilial function
c. Tubular membrane structure
d. Epithelial permeability

73. Renal replacement therapy should be considered if the patient is experiencing:

a. Hyperkalemia
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Fluid overload
 d. All of the above

74. Condition of excessive urine output is called

a. Dysuria
b. Oliguria
c. Polyuria
d. Reflux nephropathy

75. Process of removing excess water, solutes, and toxins from the blood in people whose kidneys
can no longer perform these functions naturally.

a. Kidney Transplant
b. Dialysis
c. Nephrectomy
d. Bronchoscopy

76. Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR):

a. is measured in comfortable sitting position

b. is primarily determined by the amount of skeletal muscle in the body.
c. Is higher after weight gain because part of the excess weight is fat-free mass.
d. is not altered after weight loss.

77. What ultimately occurs during respiration is

a. Electron transport
b. break down of ATP
c. capture of solar energy
d. Synthesis of ATP

78. Opening to the trachea is covered by a small flap of tissues termed as the?
a. Epiglottis
b. Trachea
c. Larynx
d. Glottis

79. The exchange of gases between inhaled air and blood is referred as?

a. Circulatory respiration
b. External respiration
c. Internal respiration
 d. Cellular respiration

80. The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called

a. Vital capacity
b. Tidal volume
c. Inspiratory capacity
d. Total lung capacity

81. The trachea divides into two smaller tubes which are?

a. Bronchi
b. Trachea
c. Eustachian tubes
d. Microtrachea

82. Which one of the followings is correct regarding larynx

a. It prevents foreign objects from entering the trachea
b. It houses the vocal cords
c. It is an organ made of cartilage and connects the pharynx to the trachea
d. All of these are correct.

83. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by

a. Squamous epithelium
b. Cubical epithelium
c. Ciliated epithelium
d. Columnar epithelium

84. Which of this statement is TRUE for pulmonary respiration?

a. Exchange of gases between alveoli of lungs and the blood

b. Exchange of gases between blood and tissue cells
c. Breathing between the atmosphere and the alveoli of the lungs
d. Production of ATP

85. What is reabsorbed through loop of Henle?

a. Glucose
b. CO2
c. Potassium
d. Water
86. When the infection invades the urinary bladder, it is called

a. Cystitis
b. Urethritis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Hemodialysis

87. Which of the following hormones is involved in regulating the water-salt balance of the
blood?

a. Cortisone
b. Aldosterone
c. ADH
d. ANH

88. Which of the following hormones promotes the excretion of potassium ions and the
reabsorption of sodium ions?

a. Aldosterone
b. Aldosterone
c. ADH
d. None of these

89. Which of the following leads to the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?

a. Chymotrypsin
b. Trypsin
c. Renin
d. None of these

90. Which of the following structures facilitates easy passage of small molecules to the
glomerular capsule?

a. Loop of the nephron

b. Peritubular capillary
c. Convoluted tubule
d. Glomerulus
Unit 4: 91-120 Questions

91. Name the pea-sized gland that plays a major role in regulating vital body functions
and general wellbeing

a. Thyroid
b. Adrenal
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas

92. Following is a hormone of posterior pituitary

a. Growth hormone (GH)

b. Oxytocin
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Prolactin (PRL)
93. _____________ is an S a butterfly-shaped gland that sits low on the front of the neck.

a. Thyroid
b. Pineal
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas

94. What are the hormone secreted by Hypothalamus for stimulating pituitary to release
Growth Hormone?

a. GHRIH (Growth hormone releasing inhibitory hormone)

b. GHIH (Growth hormone inhibitory hormone)
c. GHRAH (Growth hormone releasing adrenalin hormone)
d. GHRH (Growth hormone releasing hormone)

95. Inflammation of the thyroid, usually from a viral infection or autoimmune condition

a. Goiter
b. Thyroiditis
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Graves’ disease

96. _______________ is an excess of parathyroid hormone in the bloodstream due to

overactivity of one or more of the body's four parathyroid glands.
a. Hypoparathyroidosm
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hyporthyroidism

97. The primary functional cells of the parathyroid glands are the _________ cells.

a. zymogenic cells
b. chief cells
c. oxyntic cells
d. parotid cells

98. These epithelial cells in parathyroid glands produce and secrete the __________
hormone.

a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

b. Adrenalin
c. Calcitonin
d. Thyroxine

99. You have ___________ number of adrenal glands.

a. Three
b. Four
c. Two
d. One
100. Disorders of adrenal glands are __________

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Kidney stones
c. Osteoporosis
d. Addison’s disease

101. The _________ is a gland organ. It is located in the abdomen. It is part of the
digestive system and produces insulin 

a. Thyroid
b. Adrenalin
c. Liver
d. Pancreas

102. Pancreatic beta cells release __________

a. Glucagon
b. Glucose
c. Insulin
d. Inulin

103. _________ refers to an acute or chronic inflammation of the pancreas.

a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Diabetes Insipidus
c. Pancreatitis
d. Appendix

104. The _________ gland also plays a role in the regulation of female hormone levels,
and it may affect fertility and the menstrual cycle.

a. Pineal
b. Adrenalin
c. Thyroid
d. Pancreas

105. If you have a sleep disorder, it could be a sign that your pineal gland is not
producing the correct amount of ______

a. Calcitonin
b. Melanin
c. Melatonin
d. Insulin
106. The ___________________ gland is a small organ behind the breastbone that plays
an important function both in the immune system

a. Thyroid
b. Thymus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pineal

107. ____________ cells are present within the thymus gland

 a. Hepatic stellate cells (HSCs)
b. Hepatocytes (HCs)
c. Kupffer cells (KCs)
d. Kulchitsky cells

108. Macrophages are known for the _________________

a. secretions
b. immunity
c. nutrition
d. absorption

109. T cells in the thymus differentiate into three primary type’s __________

a. Cytotoxic T cells, Helper T cells, Regulatory T cells.

b. Cytotoxic T cells, Oxyntic cells, Helper T cells
c. Cytotoxic T cells, B cells, Histamines
d. Cytotoxic T cells, two progenitor cells, Helper T cells

110. The thymus gland produces several hormones including __________

a. Thymus
b. Somatostatin
c. Thyrotrophin-releasing hormone.
d. Thymopoietin

111. Addison’s disease is related to the following gland.

a. Pancreas
 b. Adrenal
c. Parathyroid
d. Thyroid

112. The effects of excess GH include _____________

a. low blood pressures

b. thinning of enlargement of internal organs

c. enlargement of internal organs

d. thickness of internal organs

113. _______________ is a condition there is panhypopituitarism but the main features are
associated with deficiency of GH, FSH and LH

a. Ischaemic necrosis
b. adenoma
c. Fröhlich’s syndrome
d. Graves’ disease

114. Deficiency of T3 and T4 in adults results in an abnormally __________ metabolic rate

and other effects.

a. High
b. Low
c. 10 times
d. 2 times

115. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids _________________

a. Addison’s disease
b. Addisonian crisis
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Phaeochromocytoma

116. Addison’s disease is related to the following gland.

a. Pancreas
b. Adrenal
c. Parathyroid
d. Thyroid

117. The effects of excess GH include _____________

a. low blood pressures

b. thinning of enlargement of internal organs
c. enlargement of internal organs
d. thickness of internal organs

118. _______________ is a condition there is panhypopituitarism but the main features

are
associated with deficiency of GH, FSH and LH

a. Ischaemic necrosis
b. adenoma
c. Fröhlich’s syndrome
d. Graves’ disease

119. Deficiency of T3 and T4 in adults results in an abnormally __________ metabolic

rate
and other effects.
a. High
b. Low
c. 10 times
d. 2 times

120. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids _________________

a. Addison’s disease
b. Addisonian crisis
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Phaeochromocytoma
Unit 5- 121-150

121. _________ is the loose pouch-like sac of skin that hangs behind and below the penis

a. Penis
b. Semen
c. Scrotum
d. Testicles

122. About __________ seminiferous tubules in each testis conduct spermatogenesis

a. 1
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000

123. Prostate gland: secretes a slightly _______, milky white fluid that makes up about
30% of semen volume; this fluid helps neutralize the pH of semen and vaginal secretion

a. slightly acidic
b. slightly alkaline
c. neutral
d. highly alkaline
124. ___________ is an expanded tubule from the rate testis where sperm is stored (for
about 3 days), matured and become fully functional

a. Testicles
b. Urethral gland
c. Vas deferens
d. Epididymis

125. Internal temperature of scrotum is always about _______ below body temperature

a. 3 ˚C
b. 3 ˚F
c. 5 ˚F
d. 4 ˚C

126. The_________ is a hollow organ located centrally in the pelvis.

a. Vulva
b. Uterus
c. Clitoris
d. Cervix

127. The process of ___________ of an egg by a sperm cell typically happens in the
Fallopian tubes

a. Fertilization 
b. Intercourse
c. Maturation
d. Movement

128. The _______ is the organ that produces ova (singular, ovum), or eggs.

a. ovarian follicle
b. ova
c. ovary
d. ovule
129. The wall of the uterus consists of the following _______ layers

a. five
b. two
c. seven
d. three

130. The ______is a small mass of erectile and nervous tissue located above the vestibule

a. ovary
b. fallopian tube
c. vulva
d. clitoris

131. ____________ is necessary for sperm production (spermatogenesis)

a. GHRH
b. ADH
c. LH
d. FSH

132. _________ are the Yellow-brown pigment granules composed of lipid-containing

residues of lysosomal digestion

a. azurophil
b. Lipofuscin
c. Fuscin
d. secondary pigment cells (SPC)

133. Testosterone is a _______ hormone produced primarily in the male testes and
responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics.

a. Peroxide
b. Histamine
c. Steroid
d. NSAID

134. The male reproductive system also produces sex hormones, which help a boy
develop into a sexually mature man during ____________
a. Menopause
b. Puberty
c. Maturation
d. Birth

135. The seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland produce seminal fluid
that accompany and _________ the sperm

a. Nourish
b. Grow
c. Increase Count
d. Remove

136. The ________ is a set of predictable changes in a female’s oocytes and ovarian

follicles.

a. zoocyte cycle
b. fallopian cycle
c. uterus cycle
d. ovarian cycle 

137. The growth and development of ovarian follicles is termed as _____________

a. oogenesis
b. folliculogenesis
c. endogenesis
d. androgenesis

138. The smaller cell, called the first __________, may or may not complete meiosis

a. uterine body
b. follicle body
c. polar body
d. cell body

139. From then on, throughout a woman’s reproductive years, ovulation occurs
approximately once every _________ days

a. 28
b. 21
c. 30
d. 26

140. ___________ of a secondary oocyte is completed only if a sperm succeeds in

penetrating its barriers.

a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Cytoplasmic Division
d. DNA division

141. __________is the hormone responsible for the development of male sexual
characteristics

a. Luteinizing Hormone
b. Testosterone
c. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
d. GnRH

142. The brain and ________ gland control testosterone levels

a. testes
b. thalamus
c. adrenal
d. pituitary

143. Females produce testosterone, in ______ amounts.

a. smaller
b. large
c. once in every cycle
d. zero

144. The ovaries, adrenal glands, and placenta produce the hormone ________.
_______ levels increase during ovulation and spike during pregnancy.

a. FSH
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. LH
145. At _________, testosterone promotes the maturation and growth of the male sex
organs

a. puberty
b. birth
c. menopause
d. childhood

146. The __________ phase begins with the formation of the corpus luteum stimulated
by FSH and LH

a. Ovulation
b. Luteal
c. Follicular
d. Menstrual

147. The ______ germinal cells of the ovary with diploid number of chromosomes (2n)
divide several times mitotically so as to form a large number of daughter cells known as
oogonia

a. secondary
b. tertiary
c. non-polar
d. primary

148. The secondary membrane called __________ is formed from ovarian follicle cells.

a. sheath
b. amnion
c. chorion
d. membrane

149. The menstrual cycle begins with the maturation of oocytes through the process of
______

a. Oocytogenesis
 b. Oogenesis
c. Folliculogenesis
d. Maturation

150. Immediately after meiosis I, the haploid secondary oocyte initiates ______

a. meiosis II
b. cytokinesis
c. karyokinesis
d. degenration

Answers:
1-c
2- a
3- d
4- a
5- d
6- d
7- c
8- d
9- a
10- b
11- b
12- d
13- b
14- a
15- c
16- c
17- b
18- b
19- a
20- c
21- d
22- a
23- a
24- b
25- A
26- c
27 -a
28 -a
29- c
30- b
31-d
32- c
33 a
34- a,c
35- d
36- c
37- d
38- d
39- b
40- c
41- b
42- a
43- d
44- a
45- a
46- d
47- c
48- c
49 – d
50 –a
51- b
52- d
53- b
54- a
55- b
56- d
57- d
58- d
59- d
60- d
61- a
62- a
63- c
64- b
65- c
66- d
67- c
68- b
69- a
70- d
71- d
72- b
73- d
74- c
75- b
76- c
77- d
78- a
79- b
80- d
81- a
82- d
83- c
84- a
85- d
86- a
87- b
88- a
89- b
90- d
91 - c
92- b
93- a
94- d
95- b
96- c
97- b
98- a
99- c
100-d
101-d
102-c
103- c
104- a
105- c
106- b
107- d
108- b
109 -a
110 -d
111- b
112- c
113- c
114- b
115- c
116 - b
117- c
118- c
119- b
120- c
121 c
122 c
123 a
124 d
125 b
126 b
127 a
128 c
129 d
130 d
131 d
132 b
133 c
134 b
135 a
136 d
137 b
138 c
139 a
140 b
141 b
142 d
143 a
144 b
145 a
146 b
147 d
148 c
149 b
150 a