Aim 2021-1 Access e
Aim 2021-1 Access e
Aim 2021-1 Access e
TC-1006687
AERONAUTICAL
INFORMATION
MANUAL
Effective 0901Z, March 25, 2021 to 0901Z, October 7, 2021
TP 14371E
(2021-1)
1. Aeronautical Information Manual - AIM 2021-1
Effective 0901Z, March 25, 2021 to 0901Z, October 7, 2021
2. Next Edition:
AIM 2021-2 October 7, 2021
Printed in Canada
E-mail:................................................................ services@tc.gc.ca
4. © Her Majesty the Queen in Right of Canada, as represented by the Minister of Transport 2021
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system,
or transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording,
or otherwise, without prior written permission of the Department of Transport, Canada. Please
contact the Civil Aviation Communications Centre at 1-800-305-2059 (EST) for assistance.
The information in this publication is to be considered solely as a guide and should not be
quoted as or considered to be a legal authority. It may become obsolete in whole or in part at
any time without notice.
5. ISSN: 1715-7382
TP 14371E
(01/2021)
TC-1006687
TP 14371E
Transport Canada
Aeronautical Information Manual
(TC AIM)
MAP
(1) MAP 3.8 Runway Surface Condition (RSC)/
RSC NOTAM
The text was amended to reflect the implementation
of the Global Reporting Format (GRF) in Canada.
AIR
(1) AIR 1.6.4 Description of Canadian Runway Friction
Index (CRFI) Reporting Method
The text was amended to reflect the Regulations
Amending the Canadian Aviation Regulations
(Parts I and III — Airport Winter Maintenance):
SOR/2019-118.
(2) AIR 1.6.5 Aircraft Movement Surface Condition
Reports (AMSCR)
This entire chapter was reviewed and updated to
reflect the Regulations Amending the Canadian
Aviation Regulations (Parts I and III — Airport
Winter Maintenance): SOR/2019-118 and Global
Reporting Format (GRF) for Runway Surface
Condition Reporting (AC 300-019).
(3) AIR 4.8 Parachute Jumping/Skydiving
The contact information of the Canadian Sport
Parachuting Association (CSPA) was updated.
RPA
(1) RPA 2.0 Micro Remotely Piloted Aircraft
Systems (mRPAS)—Less Than 250 g
More information was added regarding additional
payload and the maximum weight limit of micro
remotely piloted aircraft (mRPAs).
(2) RPA 3.2.13.1 Types of Altitudes
The text was amended to clarify the units of
measurement to be used by RPA pilots.
(3) RPA 3.2.34 Transponders and Automatic Pressure-
Altitude Reporting Equipment
The text was amended to clarify surveillance
procedures for small RPAs (sRPAs) provided by air
navigation service providers (ANSPs).
(4) RPA 3.2.35 Operations at or in the Vicinity of an
Aerodrome, Airport, or Heliport
Information regarding RPA operations in the vicinity
of an airport or heliport located in uncontrolled
airspace was removed from this section. Refer to
RPA 3.4.5 for more information on this subject.
(5) RPA 3.2.37 Incidents and Accidents
The text was updated to explain in which
circumstances a report needs to be submitted to the
TSB following an occurrence.
(6) RPA 3.4.5 Operations at or in the Vicinity of an
Airport or Heliport—Established Procedure
The text was amended to clarify the procedures to
follow for RPA operations at or in the vicinity of an
airport or heliport in uncontrolled airspace.
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Table of Contents
GEN—GENERAL 1
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION .................................................................................................................................... 1
1.1 Aeronautical Information .............................................................................................................................................................................. 1
1.1.1 Aeronautical Authority ................................................................................................................................................................... 1
1.1.2 Aeronautical Information Management (AIM) ............................................................................................................................. 2
1.1.3 Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM) ................................................................................................. 2
1.1.4 Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM) Publication Information......................................................... 2
1.1.5 NOTAM .......................................................................................................................................................................................... 3
1.1.6 Aerodromes ..................................................................................................................................................................................... 3
1.2 Summary of National Regulations................................................................................................................................................................ 3
1.3 Differences with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards, Recommended Practices and Procedures......3
1.3.1 International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)’s Procedures for Air Navigation Services—Aircraft
Operations (PANS OPS) ................................................................................................................................................................. 3
1.4 Units of Measurement..................................................................................................................................................................................... 3
1.4.1 Other Units ...................................................................................................................................................................................... 3
1.4.2 Geographic Reference .................................................................................................................................................................... 4
1.5 Time System..................................................................................................................................................................................................... 4
1.5.1 Date-Time Group ............................................................................................................................................................................ 4
1.5.2 Morning and Evening Twilight Charts .......................................................................................................................................... 4
1.5.3 Time Zone ....................................................................................................................................................................................... 5
1.6 Nationality and Registration Marks ............................................................................................................................................................ 6
1.7 V–Speeds .......................................................................................................................................................................................................... 6
1.7.1 Conversion Tables ........................................................................................................................................................................... 6
1.7.2 RVR Comparative Scale–Feet to Metres ....................................................................................................................................... 7
2.0 SAFETY........................................................................................................................................................................ 8
2.1 Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Program ................................................................................................................................... 8
2.1.1 General ............................................................................................................................................................................................ 8
2.1.2 Refusal to Work in Dangerous Situations ...................................................................................................................................... 8
2.1.3 Delegated Labour Program Officials ............................................................................................................................................ 8
2.2 Aviation Safety Analysis ................................................................................................................................................................................ 8
2.2.1 General ............................................................................................................................................................................................ 8
2.2.2 Aviation Safety Research and Analysis ......................................................................................................................................... 9
2.2.3 Minister’s Observer and Technical Advisor Programs ................................................................................................................. 9
2.2.4 Safety Promotion ............................................................................................................................................................................ 9
i
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA—AERODROMES 47
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION ................................................................................................................................. 47
1.1 General ........................................................................................................................................................................................................... 47
1.1.1 Aerodrome Authority ................................................................................................................................................................... 47
1.1.2 International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Documents .................................................................................................. 47
1.1.3 Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) .................................................................................................................................... 47
1.1.4 Contaminated Runway Operations .............................................................................................................................................. 47
1.1.4.1 Canadian Civil Aerodromes ......................................................................................................................................................... 47
1.1.4.2 Department of National Defence Aerodromes ............................................................................................................................ 47
1.1.5 Wildlife Hazard ............................................................................................................................................................................ 47
1.2 International Airports ................................................................................................................................................................................. 47
1.2.1 International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Definitions .................................................................................................. 48
1.3 Aerodrome Directory ................................................................................................................................................................................... 48
1.4 Aeronautical Ground Lights ....................................................................................................................................................................... 48
iii
TC AIM March 25, 2021
iv
TC AIM March 25, 2021
10.5.2.7 Airport Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM)-Imposed Waiting Time and On-Time Performance ................................. 77
10.5.2.8 Pushback / Start-Up Approval...................................................................................................................................................... 77
10.5.2.9 Flight Crew Concerns About Meeting Constraints ..................................................................................................................... 77
10.5.2.10 De-icing Operations...................................................................................................................................................................... 77
10.5.3 General and Business Aviation Operations — Air Operator Procedures .................................................................................. 77
10.5.3.1 Prior Permission to Operate Required (Reservation) .................................................................................................................. 77
10.5.3.2 Requirement to Provide the Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) ..................................................................................................... 78
10.5.3.3 Pre-Departure Sequencing — Target Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) Generation................................................................. 78
10.5.3.4 Access to the Target Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) ............................................................................................................... 78
10.5.3.5 The Importance of Updating the Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) ............................................................................................. 78
10.5.3.6 Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) Update Limitations .................................................................................................................. 78
10.5.3.7 Method for Updating the Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) ......................................................................................................... 78
10.5.3.8 Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) and Target Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) Delivery Channels .......................................... 78
10.5.3.9 Access to the Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) ............................................................................................................................ 78
10.5.3.10 Access to the Target Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) ............................................................................................................... 78
10.5.3.11 Call Ready Procedure ................................................................................................................................................................... 78
10.5.3.12 Start-Up Procedures ..................................................................................................................................................................... 78
10.5.3.13 Flight Crew Concerns About Meeting Constraints ..................................................................................................................... 79
10.5.3.14 De-icing Operations...................................................................................................................................................................... 79
10.6 Contingency Operations .............................................................................................................................................................................. 79
v
TC AIM March 25, 2021
vi
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.0 TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (TCAS) AND AIRBORNE COLLISION
AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (ACAS) .............................................................................................................................111
9.1 General ........................................................................................................................................................................................................ 111
9.2 Transport Canada (TC) Regulations on Traffic Alert And Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)/Airborne Collision
Avoidance System (ACAS) ......................................................................................................................................................................... 112
9.3 Use of the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) Outside of Canada ..................................................................... 113
9.4 Operational Approval ............................................................................................................................................................................... 113
9.5 Aircraft Certification Approval ............................................................................................................................................................... 113
9.6 Operational Considerations ...................................................................................................................................................................... 113
9.7 Pilot Action When Deviating From Clearances—Regulations and Information .............................................................................. 114
9.8 Mode S Transponder Approval and Unique Codes ................................................................................................................................ 115
9.9 Pilot/Controller Actions ............................................................................................................................................................................. 115
9.10 Pilot and Controller Phraseology ............................................................................................................................................................. 116
MET—METEOROLOGY 117
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION ................................................................................................................................117
1.1 General ......................................................................................................................................................................................................... 117
1.1.1 Meteorological Responsibility ....................................................................................................................................................117
1.1.2 Meteorological Services Available .............................................................................................................................................117
1.1.3 Aviation Weather Services .........................................................................................................................................................117
1.1.4 Weather Service Information ......................................................................................................................................................118
1.1.5 Weather Information from Air Traffic Service (ATS) ...............................................................................................................118
1.1.6 Pilot Reports ................................................................................................................................................................................118
1.1.6.1 Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs) .................................................................................................................................................118
1.1.6.2 Air Reports (AIREPs) .................................................................................................................................................................118
1.1.7 Applicable International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) and World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
Documents ...................................................................................................................................................................................118
1.1.8 Differences From International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 3 ........................................................................119
1.1.9 Pilot Responsibility......................................................................................................................................................................119
1.2 Meteorological Observation and Reports ............................................................................................................................................... 119
1.2.1 Type and Frequency of Observations .........................................................................................................................................119
1.2.2 Flight Weather Documentation ..................................................................................................................................................119
vii
TC AIM March 25, 2021
viii
TC AIM March 25, 2021
ix
TC AIM March 25, 2021
x
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.10 Aerobatic Flight (Canadian Aviation Regulations [CARs] 602.27 and 602.28).................................................................................. 189
1.11 Conservation................................................................................................................................................................................................ 190
1.11.1 Fur and Poultry Farms ................................................................................................................................................................ 190
1.11.2 Protection of Wildlife ................................................................................................................................................................ 190
1.11.3 National, Provincial and Municipal Parks, Reserves and Refuges ........................................................................................... 190
xi
TC AIM March 25, 2021
xii
TC AIM March 25, 2021
xiii
TC AIM March 25, 2021
xiv
TC AIM March 25, 2021
xv
TC AIM March 25, 2021
xvi
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.5.2 North Atlantic (NAT) Region—Very High Frequency (VHF) Coverage ................................................................................ 331
2.6 ARINC 424 Identifiers for Half-Degree Waypoints in the Gander Oceanic Control Area (OCA).................................................. 332
xviii
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AIR—AIRMANSHIP 379
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION ................................................................................................................................ 379
1.1 General ........................................................................................................................................................................................................ 379
1.2 Pilot Vital Action Checklists .................................................................................................................................................................... 379
1.3 Aviation Fuels ............................................................................................................................................................................................. 379
1.3.1 Fuel Grades ................................................................................................................................................................................ 379
1.3.2 Aviation Fuel Handling ............................................................................................................................................................. 379
1.3.3 Fuel Anti-Icing Additives .......................................................................................................................................................... 379
xx
TC AIM March 25, 2021
xxi
TC AIM March 25, 2021
xxii
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.0 MICRO REMOTELY PILOTED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (mRPAS)—LESS THAN 250 g ......................... 425
xxiv
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
344 Edmonton Street
Winnipeg MB R3C 0P6
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION Tel: .............................................................. 1-888-463-0521
Fax: ............................................................ 1-800-824-4442
1.1 AeronAuticAl informAtion Ontario Region
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
1.1.1 Aeronautical Authority 4900 Yonge Street, 4th Floor
Transport Canada is the responsible aeronautical authority Toronto ON M2N 6A5
in Canada.
Tel: .............................................................. 1-800-305-2059
Postal Address: Fax: ..............................................................1-877-822-2129
Assistant Deputy Minister
Quebec Region
Transport Canada, Safety and Security
330 Sparks Street Transport Canada Civil Aviation
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 700 Leigh-Capreol Place
Dorval QC H4Y 1G7
Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication
Network (AFTN): ..........................................CYHQYAYB Tel: .............................................................. 1-800-305-2059
Fax: ..............................................................1-855-633-3697
The Transport Canada, Aerodromes and Air Navigation Branch
is responsible for the establishment and administration of the Atlantic Region
Regulations and Standards for the provision of AIS in Canada. Transport Canada Civil Aviation
Enquiries relating to regulations and standards for AIS should 95 Foundry Street
be addressed to: PO Box 42
Moncton NB E1C 8K6
Postal Address:
Tel: .............................................................. 1-800-305-2059
Flight Standards (AARTA) Fax: ..............................................................1-855-726-7495
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
330 Sparks Street Figure 1.1—Transport Canada Regions
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
Tel.: ............................................................. 1-800-305-2059
Fax: ................................................................. 613-952-3298
E-mail:...TC.Flights.Standards-Normesdevol.TC@tc.gc.ca
Pacific Region
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
Suite 820
800 Burrard Street
Vancouver BC V6Z 2J8
Tel.: ............................................................. 1-800-305-2059
Fax: ............................................................. 1-855-618-6288
1
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.1.2 Aeronautical Information As much as possible, the rules of the air and ATC procedures
GEN
Management (AIM) have been incorporated into the TC AIM in plain language.
Where this was not possible, the CARs have been incorporated
NAV CANADA’s AIM group is responsible for the collection, verbatim. Editorial liberties have been taken in the deletion of
evaluation and dissemination of aeronautical information definitions not considered essential to the understanding of the
published in the state AIP and associated aeronautical charts. intent of the CARs. This has been done to enhance comprehension
In addition, the AIM group assigns and controls Canadian location of the rules and procedures essential to the safety of flight. The
indicators and aircraft operating agency designators. (For inclusion of these rules and procedures in this format does not
information on the dissemination of aeronautical information relieve persons concerned with aviation from their responsibilities
and aeronautical products, see the MAP chapter.) to comply with the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), the
The AIM group postal address is: Aeronautics Act and other regulations made under the Act.
Where the subject matter of the TC AIM makes reference to the
NAV CANADA
CARs, the relevant provisions are indicated.
Aeronautical Information Management
1601 Tom Roberts Avenue Care has been taken to ensure that the information contained in
PO BOX 9824 STN T CSC the TC AIM is accurate and complete. Any correspondence
Ottawa ON K1G 9Z9 concerning the content of the TC AIM is to be referred to:
Tel. (Toll free, North America only):......... 1-866-577-0247 TC AIM Co-ordinator (AARTT)
Tel. (Outside North America): ................... 1-613-248-4087 Transport Canada
Fax: ............................................................. 1-613-248-4093 330 Sparks Street
Email: ............................................ aimdata@navcanada.ca Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
Tel.: ................................................................. 613-993-4502
Comments on the Air Navigation System Fax: ..................................................................613-952-3298
Any errors, omissions, anomalies, suggestions or comments on E-mail:...................... TC.AeronauticalInformationManual-
the air navigation system can be submitted via any FIC. Manueldinformationaeronautique.TC@tc.gc.ca
To report any concerns about the safety or quality of services
provided by NAV CANADA, please contact the local 1.1.4 Transport Canada Aeronautical
NAV CANADA Site Manager or our Customer Service Centre Information Manual (TC AIM) Publication
at: Information
NAV CANADA Individual copies of the TC AIM may be purchased by logging
Customer Service onto the Transport Canada Publication Storefront Web site
77 Metcalfe Street at <https://www.tc.gc.ca/en/transport-canada/corporate/
PO BOX 3411 STN T publications.html>. All information with respect to purchases
Ottawa ON K1P 5L6 and subscriptions to the TC AIM will be available on this
Tel. (Toll-free, North America only): ........1-800-876-4693 Web site, or by contacting the Order Desk.
Tel. (Outside North America): ....................1-613-563-5588 This edition of the TC AIM is designed to be as inexpensive as
Fax (Toll-free, North America only): ........ 1-877-663-6656 possible since it is intended primarily for student pilots and
Fax (Outside North America): ....................1-613-563-3426 foreign pilots for use over a short period of time.
E-mail:.............................................service@navcanada.ca
Regular hours of operation: ............ 08:00–18:00 EST/EDT The TC AIM is available on the TransportCanada Web site at:
<https://www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/publications/tc-aim.
html>.
1.1.3 Transport Canada Aeronautical
Information Manual (TC AIM) Amendment Service
The TC AIM provides flight crews with reference material useful This document is intended to provide users of Canadian airspace
for aircraft operation in Canadian airspace. It includes those with current information. A regular amendment service is
sections of the CARs that are of interest to pilots. established to advise individuals of changes to the airspace,
regulations or procedures. New editions of the TC AIM are
The TC AIM supplements the rules of the air and procedures
issued twice a year in phase with the ICAO AIRAC schedule.
for aircraft operation in Canadian airspace found in
Future issue dates are as follows:
AIP Canada (ICAO) (see MAP 2.1).
2021-1 – March 25, 2021 2021-2 – October 07, 2021
Throughout the TC AIM, the term “should” implies that TC
encourages all pilots to conform with the applicable procedure.
The term “shall” implies that the applicable procedure is
mandatory because it is supported by regulations.
2
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Each new edition of the TC AIM includes an explanation of 1.3 DifferenceS with the internAtionAl civil
GEN
changes section that highlights the most significant changes
made to the TC AIM and may provide a reference to detailed AviAtion orgAnizAtion (icAo) StAnDArDS,
information on the change. recommenDeD PrActiceS AnD ProceDureS
Distribution Differences with ICAO Annexes, which comprise international
standards, recommended practices and procedures, are listed in
To ensure uninterrupted service, rectify any distribution problems AIP Canada (ICAO), GEN 1.7.
or make a change of address, please contact the TC Publications
Order Desk using one of the methods listed below.
1.3.1 International Civil Aviation
Transport Canada Publications Order Desk
Operational Support Services (AAFBD)
Organization (ICAO)’s Procedures for Air
2655 Lancaster Road Navigation Services—Aircraft Operations
Ottawa ON K1B 4L5 (PANS OPS)
Tel. (toll-free in North America): ............... 1-888-830-4911 (See AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 1.7)
.........................................................................613-991-4071
Fax: ................................................................. 613-991-1653 1.4 unitS of meASurement
E-mail: .............................................. publications@tc.gc.ca
Web site: ..... www.tc.gc.ca/en/transport-canada/corporate/ The imperial system of units is used for all information contained
on aeronautical charts and publications.
publications.html
3
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Geographic coordinates are determined using the North American In the morning, civil twilight begins when the centre of the sun’s
Datum 1983 (NAD83). Canada has deemed NAD83 coordinates disc is 6° below the horizon and is ascending, and ends at sunrise,
to be equivalent to the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS-84) approximately 25 min later. In the evening, civil twilight begins
for aeronautical purposes. at sunset, and ends when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6° below
the horizon and is descending, approximately 25 min later.
1.5 time SyStem INSTRUCTIONS
Coordinated Universal Time, abbreviated UTC, Zulu (Z) or 1. Start at the top or bottom of the scale with the appropriate
spoken Universal, is used in Canadian aviation operations and date and move vertically, up or down to the curve of the
is given to the nearest minute. Time checks are given to the observer’s latitude.
nearest 15 seconds. The day begins at 0000 hours and ends at 2. From the intersection move horizontally and read the
2359 hours. local time.
3. To find the exact zone or standard time, ADD 4 minutes
1.5.1 Date-Time Group for each degree west of the standard meridian, or SUBTRACT
(See AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 2.1) 4 minutes for each degree east of the standard meridian.
The standard meridians in Canada are: AST-60W; EST-75W;
CST-90W; MST-105W; PST-120W
4
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
1.5.3 Time Zone Figure 1.4—Time Zone
Where daylight saving time is observed in Canada, clocks are
advanced one hour. Daylight saving time is in effect from 02:00
local time on the second Sunday in March to 02:00 local time
on the first Sunday in November. Locations that observe daylight
saving time are indicated in the CFS and the CWAS with the
abreviation DT or the symbol “‡”, in the Aerodrome/Facility
Directory, under the subheading REF (references).
5
TC AIM March 25, 2021
hPa/mb 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
INCHES
940 27.76 27.79 27.82 27.85 27.88 27.91 27.94 27.96 27.99 28.02
950 28.05 28.08 28.11 28.14 28.17 28.20 28.23 28.26 28.29 28.32
960 28.35 28.38 28.41 28.44 28.47 28.50 28.53 28.56 28.58 28.61
970 28.64 28.67 28.70 28.73 28.76 28.79 28.82 28.85 28.88 28.91
980 28.94 28.97 29.00 29.03 29.06 29.09 29.12 29.15 29.18 29.20
990 29.23 29.26 29.29 29.32 29.35 29.38 29.41 29.44 29.47 29.50
1000 29.53 29.56 29.59 29.62 29.65 29.68 29.71 29.74 29.77 29.80
1010 29.83 29.85 29.88 29.91 29.94 29.97 30.00 30.03 30.06 30.09
1020 30.12 30.15 30.18 30.21 30.24 30.27 30.30 30.33 30.36 30.39
1030 30.42 30.45 30.47 30.50 30.53 30.56 30.59 30.62 30.65 30.68
1040 30.71 30.74 30.77 30.80 30.83 30.86 30.89 30.92 30.95 30.98
1050 31.01 31.04 31.07 31.09 31.12 31.15 31.18 31.21 31.24 31.27
NOTE:
1 millibar (mb) = 1 hectopascal (hPa)
6
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
°C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F °C °F
-45 -49.0 -33 -27.4 -21 -5.8 -9 15.8 3 37.4 15 59.0 27 80.6 39 102.2
-44 -47.2 -32 -25.6 -20 -4.0 -8 17.6 4 39.2 16 60.8 28 82.4 40 104.0
-43 -45.4 -31 -23.8 -19 -2.2 -7 19.4 5 41.0 17 62.6 29 84.2 41 105.8
-42 -43.6 -30 -22.0 -18 -0.4 -6 21.2 6 42.8 18 64.4 30 86.0 42 107.6
-41 -41.8 -29 -20.2 -17 1.4 -5 23.0 7 44.6 19 66.2 31 87.8 43 109.4
-40 -40.0 -28 -18.4 -16 3.2 -4 24.8 8 46.4 20 68.0 32 89.6 44 111.2
-39 -38.2 -27 -16.6 -15 5.0 -3 26.6 9 48.2 21 69.8 33 91.4 45 113.0
-38 -36.4 -26 -14.8 -14 6.8 -2 28.4 10 50.0 22 71.6 34 93.2 46 114.8
-37 -34.6 -25 -13.0 -13 8.6 -1 30.2 11 51.8 23 73.4 35 95.0 47 116.6
-36 -32.8 -24 -11.2 -12 10.4 0 32.0 12 53.6 24 75.2 36 96.8 48 118.4
-35 -31.0 -23 -9.4 -11 12.2 1 33.8 13 55.4 25 77.0 37 98.6 49 120.2
-34 -29.2 -22 -7.6 -10 14.0 2 35.6 14 57.2 26 78.8 38 100.4 50 122.0
7
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.0 SAFETY will be addressed as soon as the aircraft is on the ground at its
GEN
next destination.
Once an employee has indicated that they are refusing to work,
2.1 AviAtion occuPAtionAl heAlth AnD SAfety both they and their employer have specific roles and responsibilities
ProgrAm that have been established to assist them in working together to
find a solution. Sections 128 and 129 of the Code identify these
Employers have a general obligation or duty to ensure that the employee and employer roles and responsibilities as well as the
health and safety of all persons they employ are protected while role and responsibility of the delegated labour program official,
they are at work. Also, employers have specific duties in regard should their intervention become necessary.
to each workplace they control and every work activity under
their authority that occurs in a workplace that is beyond the To protect employees’ rights, section 147 of the Code states that
employer’s control. no employer shall take, or threaten to take, any disciplinary
action against an employee who has refused to work in a dangerous
No one knows a workplace better than the people who work in situation. It should also be noted that subsection 147.1(1) states
it, so Part II of the Canada Labour Code gives the workplace that after all the investigations and appeals have been exhausted
parties—employees and employers—a strong role in identifying by the employee who exercised their right to refuse dangerous
and resolving health and safety concerns. work, the employer may take disciplinary action against that
employee provided the employer can demonstrate that the
2.1.1 General employee has willfully abused their rights.
The TC Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Program began
in 1987. Its primary objective is to ensure the health and safety 2.1.3 Delegated Labour Program Officials
of employees working on board aircraft in operation. This goal The Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Program
is accomplished through the administration, enforcement, and Headquarters provides guidance and assistance to regional
promotion of Part II of the Canada Labour Code (the Code) and delegated labour program officials who conduct inspections,
the pursuant Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Regulations. investigations, and promotional visits to ensure that air operators
The purpose of Part II of the Code is “to prevent accidents and are committed to the health and safety of their employees.
injury to health arising out of, linked with or occurring in the
course of employment to which this part applies”. Delegated labour program officials may be reached during the
day at their workplace by using the “How to Reach Us” page on
The Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Program operates the TC Aviation Occupational Health and Safety Web site: <www.
as an extended jurisdiction from the Labour Program of tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/standards/commerce-ohs-reach_
Employment and Social Development Canada (ESDC) and is us-menu-2116.htm>.
administered by TC, Safety and Security by virtue of a
memorandum of understanding with Employment and Social To ensure 24-hr service to the aviation community, in urgent
Development Canada. situations or after working hours, a delegated labour program
official may be reached through the Aviation Operations
For additional information, see <www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/ Centre (AVOPS) at:<https://www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/
standards/commerce-ohs-menu-2059.htm>. opssvs/emergencies-incidentreporting-menu.htm>.
8
TC AIM March 25, 2021
For more information on the Policy and Regulatory Services contains provisions that permit a party of direct interest to
GEN
Branch and its activities, visit its Web site at <www.tc.gc.ca/eng/ participate as an observer in a TSB investigation if the Board
civilaviation/regserv/menu.htm>. determines that it is appropriate.
If the TSB decides not to investigate, in accordance with
2.2.2 Aviation Safety Research and Analysis subsection 14(2) of the CTAISB Act , TC can make a formal
One of the objectives of the Aviation Safety Research and request to the TSB to investigate. Subsection 14(4) of the CTAISB
Analysis unit is to produce safety intelligence. This is information Act also states:
about hazards in the National Civil Air Transportation System “Nothing […] prevents a department from commencing an
(NCATS) that allows managers in Civil Aviation to understand investigation into or continuing to investigate a transportation
the hazards and risks present in the elements of the system they occurrence for any purpose other than that of making findings
oversee. Aviation safety hazards and trends are proactively as to its causes and contributing factors, or from investigating
identified, analyzed, and evaluated in order to produce a mix of any matter that is related to the transportation occurrence and
special studies and routine standard products. This strategic that is not being investigated by the Board[…]”
analytical capability supports the development of mitigation and
In the event of an occurrence involving a Canadian civil aviation
prevention strategies necessary for managing risks. These
certificate holder, Civil Aviation must determine, on behalf of
strategies feed into policy development, regulatory framework,
the Minister, as quickly as possible, whether or not the certificate
and Civil Aviation operational areas.
holder continues to meet the certificate’s conditions of issue.
9
TC AIM March 25, 2021
10
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(h) a fuel shortage occurs that requires a diversion or requires The person making the report must send to the Board as soon
GEN
approach and landing priority at the destination of the as possible and by the quickest means available, all the information
aircraft, required that is available at the time of the occurrence; and the
(i) the aircraft is refuelled with the incorrect type of fuel or remainder of that information as soon as it becomes available
contaminated fuel, within 30 days after the occurrence.
3.5.1 How to Report to SECURITAS (f) unsafe cabin baggage stowage procedures, unsafe passenger
GEN
seating or cargo securing arrangements
SECURITAS is primarily concerned with unsafe acts and
conditions relating to commercial and public transportation (g) aircraft maintenance procedures not completed correctly
systems. When contacting SECURITAS, ensure the following but signed off
is included in your message: (h) shortcuts in following checklist procedures
(a) your name, address and phone number (i) crew scheduling problems: inadequate crew composition,
(b) your profession and experience unqualified crew, inadequate crew rest
(c) your involvement in the unsafe situation being reported (j) scheduling personnel who are not professionally or medically
qualified for the assigned duties
(d) where else you may have reported this unsafe situation or
safety concern (k) the use of unapproved parts, time-expired equipment
12
TC AIM March 25, 2021
TSB—Central
GEN
Regional Office Administration, TSB-AIR
335-550 Century Street
Winnipeg MB R3H 0Y1
Toll-free (within Canada):...........................1-800-387-3557
Toll: ................................................................204-983-5991
Fax: ................................................................ 204-983-8026
E-mail:................. airnotifications.winnipeg@tsb-bst.gc.ca
TSB—Ontario
Regional Office Administration, TSB-AIR
23 Wilmot Street East
Richmond Hill ON L4B 1A3
Toll-free (within Canada):...........................1-800-387-3557
Toll: ................................................................ 905-771-7676
E-mail:.................... airnotifications.toronto@tsb-bst.gc.ca
TSB—Quebec (Dorval)
Regional Office Administration, TSB-AIR
185 Dorval Avenue, Suite 403
Dorval QC H9S 5J9
Toll-free (within Canada):...........................1-800-387-3557
Toll: ................................................................514-633-3246
Fax: .................................................................514-633-2944
E-mail:..................airnotifications.montreal@tsb-bst.gc.ca
TSB—Atlantic
Regional Office Administration, TSB-AIR
150 Thorne Avenue
Dartmouth NS B3B 1Z2
Toll-free (within Canada):...........................1-800-387-3557
Toll: ............................................................... 902-426-8563
Fax: .................................................................902-426-5143
E-mail:............... airnotifications.dartmouth@tsb-bst.gc.ca
13
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting (ARFF).............AGA 8.0 Anti-icing Additives, Fuel ..................................... AIR 1.3.3
GEN
– Hours of Availability .......................................AGA 8.2 Appeals – Transportation Appeal Tribunal
– Classification System ......................................AGA 8.3 of Canada (TATC) ...............................................LRA 6.5
– ARFF Standby Request ...................................AGA 8.4 Approach
AIREP (Meteorological Report) .........MET 1.1.6, NAT 1.15 – Ban ...............................................................RAC 9.19.2
Airmanship ............................................................... AIR 1.1 – Contact .......................................................... RAC 9.6.1
– Flight Operations .............................................. AIR 2.0 – From an Intermediate Fix ...............................RAC 9.16
– Low Flying........................................................ AIR 2.4 Lighting Systems
AIRMET ...................................................... .MET 1.3.6, 5.0 – ALSF-2, LIAL, ODALS, MALSF, MALS, MALSR,
Arrival Procedures – IFR........................................ RAC 9.0 SSALR, SSALS .......... AGA 7.5.1, 7.5.2, RAC 9.19.2.8
Airport – Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashers -
– ASDE (Surface Detection Equipment)........... COM 7.1 CAT II (ALSF - 2) ................ AGA 7.5.2, RAC 9.19.2.8
– Airport Radio (APRT RDO) ........................RAC 1.2.2 – PAPI ..............................................................AGA 7.6.3
– Airside Signs....................................................AGA 5.8 – PAR (Precision Radar) .................COM 7.1, RAC 9.8.4
– Bird Hazard................................................... AGA 1.1.5 – Position Reports – Controlled Airports .......... RAC 9.9
– Certificate ........................................................AGA 2.4 – Simplified Short Approach Lighting System
(SSALS) .................................AGA 7.5.1, RAC 9.19.2.8
– Certification ................................. AGA 2.3, 2.3.5, 2.3.6
– Simplified Short Approch Lighting System
– Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM) ...AGA 10.0 with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights (SSALR)
– Information Signs .........................................AGA 5.8.2 ............................................. AGA 7.5.2, RAC 9.19.2.8
– Operations........................................................RAC 4.0 – Straight-in ...................................................... RAC 9.15
– Controlled Airports, – Visual ............................................................ RAC 9.6.2
Departure Procedures..................................... COM 3.8 – Approach Procedures
– Snow Removal and Ice Control .................... AGA 1.1.4 with Vertical Guidance (APV) .................... COM 5.4.2
– Uncontrolled Aerodromes ...............................RAC 4.5 Apron Advisory Service ..................................... .RAC 1.2.4
– Zoning Regulations .........................................AGA 4.3 ARCAL (Aircraft Radio Control of
– Airspace Classification....................................RAC 2.8 Aerodrome Lighting) ......................................... AGA 7.14
– Advisory .......................................................RAC 2.8.6 Arctic Territories ................................................. .RAC 1.1.3
– Canadian Domestic/Northern and Area Navigation (RNAV)....................................... COM 5.0
Southern Domestic ............................RAC 2.2, Fig. 2.1 – Fixed RNAV Routes ................................... RAC 11.4.4
– Classification of ...............................................RAC 2.8 – Mandatory IFR Routes
– High- and Low-Level ......................................RAC 2.3 (Including RNAV) ...................................... RAC 11.4.3
Areas
– High-Level Controlled.....................................RAC 2.6
– Gander Oceanic Control .......................... .NAT Fig. 1.1
– Joint Use........................................................RAC 2.8.6
– Mountainous .................................. RAC 2.12, Fig. 2.11
– Low-Level Controlled ..................................... RAC 2.7
– RVSM Transition Area ...........................RAC Fig. 12.3
– NAT MNPSA (North Atlantic Minimum
Navigation Performance – Specifications) – Southern, Northern and Arctic
Between FL 285 and FL 420 .................... RAC Fig.1.2, Control Areas............................................RAC Fig. 2.4
– Other Divisions ................................................RAC 2.9 – Transition ...................................................... RAC 2.7.5
– Requirements and Procedures .........................RAC 2.0 Arresting Systems, Military Aircraft ..................... AGA 9.1
Arrival
– Restricted ......................................................RAC 2.8.6
– Procedures – Controlled Airports .................. RAC 4.4
– Southern, Northern and Arctic Control
Areas .........................................................RAC Fig. 2.4 – Traffic Circuit Procedures
Airways, low-level – LF/MF, VHF/UHF .............RAC 2.7.1 – Uncontrolled Aerodromes, VFR .................. RAC 4.5.2
Airworthiness – Report – Contents ....................................... RAC 3.12.1
– Aircraft ............................................................ LRA 5.0 ASDA (Accelerate Stop Distance Available) ........ AGA 3.10
ATC (Air Traffic Control)
– ANNEX ........................................................... LRA 5.8
– Assignment of Altitudes ..................................RAC 8.6
– Annual Airworthiness
Information Report .......................................... LRA 5.5 – Clearances, Instructions and Information....... RAC 1.7
– Flight Authority ............................................... LRA 5.3 – Flight Priority .................................................. RAC 1.8
Airworthiness Directives (ADs) ............................ .LRA 5.7 ATIS (Automatic Terminal
Information Service) ............................. RAC 1.3, 4.2.1
– Availability of ................................................LRA 5.7.2
– Broadcasts...........................................RAC 1.3, 7.2, 9.1
– Schedule and Compliance Records ...............LRA 5.7.3
AIS (Aeronautical Information Services) .............GEN 1.1.2 – METAR AUTO/SPECI AUTO Reports..........MET 8.5
AIM (Aeronautical Information Management) ... GEN 1.1.2 Automatic Flight Control Guidance System...... COM 4.11.7
Alcohol ..................................................................... AIR 3.9 Automatic Landing (Autoland) Operations ....... COM 4.11.7
Alerting Devices and Circuit Breakers ...................AIR 4.11 Aviation
ALR (Aircraft Load Rating) ................................. AGA 3.12 – Automated Reports – Other ............................MET 8.6
Alternate Aerodrome, Requirements for – Document Booklet ........................................... LRA 1.2
IFR Flight...................................................... RAC 3.14 – Fuels ................................................................. .AIR 1.3
Altimeter – Language Proficiency ...................................... LRA 1.3
Altitude – Medical Review Board ....................................LRA 2.4
– And Direction of Flight ............................... RAC 8.7.2 – METAR (Routine Weather Report) .............. MET 5.14
– Area Minimum Altitude (AMA).................. RAC 8.6.1 – Occurrence, Reporting an ...............................GEN 3.3
– Correction Chart ...................................... .RAC Fig. 9.1 – Recreational ...........................................AIR 4.7 to 4.10
– IFR Minimum........................................ RAC 8.5, 8.6.1 – Safety ...............................................................GEN 2.0
– Minimum Holding ......................................... RAC 10.7 – Weather Briefing Service (AWBS) .............. MET 1.1.3
– Report .............................................................NAT 1.16 – Weather Information Service (AWWS) ....... MET 1.1.3
15
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
Contact and Visual Approaches .............................. RAC 9.6 Drugs .......................................................................AIR 3.10
Contamination of Aircraft (Frost, Ice or Snow)
– In Flight ....................................................... AIR 2.12.3 E
– On Ground ................................................... AIR 2.12.2 ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter)................... SAR 3.0
Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA)........ AIR 2.17 – Accidental Transmissions.................................SAR 3.7
Control Transfer – Categories ........................................................ SAR 3.2
– IFR Units to Towers ...................................... RAC 9.10 – Downed Aircraft Procedures .......................... SAR 4.8
Controlled Airports – Flight Planning
– Approach Position Reports .............................. RAC 9.9 (Supplementary Information) ......................RAC 3.16.9
– Arrival Procedures ..........................................RAC 4.4 – Installation and Maintenance Requirements ........... SAR 3.3
– Initial Clearance ...........................................RAC 4.4.2 – Operating Instructions (Emergency Use) ....... SAR 3.5
– Landing Clearance........................................ RAC 4.4.3 – Operating Instructions (Normal Use) ............. SAR 3.4
– Operations on Intersecting Runways ........... RAC 4.4.9 – Schedule of Requirements to Carry an ELT............ SAR 3.9
– Private Advisory Stations ............................. RAC 1.2.3 – Signal, Maximizing the ................................... SAR 3.6
– Sequential Operations .................................. RAC 4.4.9 – Testing Procedures .......................................... SAR 3.8
– Simultaneous Operations ............................. RAC 4.4.9 Emergency
– Traffic Circuits ................................................RAC 4.3 – Action by the Pilot during Emergency
Controlled Airspace ................................................RAC 2.5 Conditions ....................................................... .SAR 4.2
– Area Extensions ............................................ RAC 2.7.2 – Assistance ........................................................ SAR 4.0
– Clearances – Communications and Security ........ COM 1.4.2, RAC 2.13
– Leaving or Entering ......................................RAC 8.8 – Declaring an...................................RAC 6.3.1, SAR 4.1
– Control Zones ............................................ RAC 2.7.3 – Lighting, Aerodrome ..................................... AGA 7.13
– High-Level ....................................................RAC 2.6 – Locator Transmitter ......................................... SAR 3.0
– Low-Level .................................................... .RAC 2.7 – Monitoring of Emergency Frequency
– Low-Level Airways – LF/MF, VHF/UHF .. RAC 2.7.1 121.5 MHz.................................................. COM 1.12.2
– Transition Areas ....................................... .RAC 2.7.5 – Procedures, Downed Aircraft ......................... SAR 4.8
– Use of Controlled Airspace by – Procedures for Signaling Vessels .................... SAR 2.4
VFR Flights .....................................................RAC 2.5.1 – Radio Frequency Capability ........................... .SAR 4.6
Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) ................. AIR 2.17.1 – Transponder Alerting ...................................... SAR 4.4
Controlled VFR (CVFR) Procedures...................... RAC 5.6 Emergency Equipment
Conversion Tables .................................................GEN 1.7.2 – Flight Planning (Supplementary Information)
CRFI ...................................................... AGA 1.1.3, AIR 1.6 ....................................................................RAC 3.16.9
– Operations Over Sparsely Settled Areas........ AIR 2.14
Cross Country Instrument Training Flights ......... RAC 3.11 – Operations Over Water .................................AIR 2.11.3
Crosswind Landing Limitations English, Use of in Communications ...................... COM 1.3
– Light Aircraft ....................................................AIR 2.2 En-Route Procedures – VFR................................... RAC 5.0
Cruising Altitudes and Flight Levels .................. RAC 2.3.1 Equipment
– COM/NAV .................................................. RAC 3.16.4
D – RNAV ........................................................... RAC 9.2.2
Dangerous Goods – Surveillance (SSR) (Canadian and ICAO).......... RAC 3.16.4
– Transportation by Air .......................RAC ANNEX 3.0 Evaluation, Aeronautical .........................................AGA 6.3
Dangerous Situations Examinations, Use of Hand-held Calculators
– Refusal to Work ............................................ GEN 2.1.2 or Computers for Written .................................... LRA 3.3
Date – Time Group ............................................... GEN 1.5.1 Exhaust Plumes ....................................................AIR 4.16.1
Day Markings of Obstructions................................AGA 6.4 Experimental Test Flights, Conduct of .................... AIR 4.2
Declared Distances ................................................ AGA 3.10 Explosions and Fires.............................................. AIR 1.3.4
Decompression Sickness .......................................... AIR 3.5 Export of Aircraft .................................................... LRA 4.7
– Defence – ADIZ (Air Defence Eye Reference Point, Design .................................. AIR 4.12
Identification Zone) ................................RAC 2.13, 3.9,
– Flight Plans ...................................................... RAC 3.9 F
Departure(s) Fan Blade Ice Shedding Procedure ...................AIR 2.12.1.1
– Approach and Alternate Minima ...................RAC 9.18 FANS 1/A ADS WPR............................................COM 3.10
– Non-radar ...................................................... RAC 4.1.1 Fatigue .....................................................................AIR 3.10
– Procedures – Controlled Airports .................. COM 3.8 FD (Upper Level Wind
– RONLY Aircraft ......................................... RAC 4.2.12 and Temperature Forecasts) .................................MET 9.0
– Radar............................................................. RAC 4.1.1 Final Approach Fix (FAF) ...................................RAC 9.19.2
Design Eye Reference Point .................................. .AIR 4.12 FIR (Flight Information Regions) .............RAC Fig. 2.3, 2.4
Designated Mountainous Regions Fire Extinguishers
in Canada ............................................... RAC Fig. 2.11 – For Use in Aircraft............................................ AIR 1.4
Dial-up RCO ......................................................... RAC 1.1.4 – Types of.......................................................... AIR 1.4.3
Disorientation ........................................................... AIR 3.7 Fire Fighting, Aircraft Rescue and (ARFF)............AGA 8.0
Displaced – ARFF Hours of Availability ............................AGA 8.2
– Threshold Lighting .......................................AGA 7.8.3 – Classification System ......................................AGA 8.3
– Thresholds .......................................................AGA 3.5 – ARFF Standby Request ...................................AGA 8.4
– Threshold Markings .................................... .AGA 5.4.1 – Discreet Communication .................................AGA 8.5
Ditching ................................................................AIR 2.11.2 Fires and Explosions.............................................. AIR 1.3.4
DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) ............... .COM 4.7 Fires, Classification of........................................... AIR 1.4.2
– Intersections, Minimum En-Route First Aid Kits on Privately Owned
– Altitude .......................................................RAC 8.6.1.1 and Operated Aircraft......................................... AIR 4.13
– Procedures (Holding Patterns) ...................... RAC 10.8 Fitness
DME-DME (RHO-RHO) System .........................COM 5.14 – Medically Fit ................................................ LRA 1.9.2
Downed Aircraft Procedures .................................. SAR 4.8 – Unfit Assessment .......................................... LRA 1.9.4
17
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Flight Level Allocation Scheme (FLAS), .......... NAT 1.20.3 – Type of Flight and Flight Rules ................. .RAC 3.16.2
GEN
Flight(s) – VFR Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary ..............RAC 3.7.1
– Aerobatic.........................................................RAC 1.11 Flight Operations...................................................... AIR 2.0
– Airmanship ....................................................... AIR 1.0 – At night .......................................................... .AIR 2.16
– Authority .......................................................... LRA 5.3 Flight Planning ........................................................ RAC 3.0
– Avoid flight in the vicinity of Flying Low, Hazards of ............................................ AIR 2.4
exhaust plumes .............................................AIR 4.16.1 Forecast
– Definitions flight experience .......................... LRA 1.5 – Aerodrome Forecasts from AWOS Sites .........MET 7.5
– Experimental Test ............................................ AIR 4.2 – Area (GFA).......................................................MET 4.0
– Fuel Requirements ........................................ RAC 3.13 – Aviation, Abbreviations.................................MET 15.0
– Fuel, Sufficient Amount, – Charts (PROG) .............................................. MET 11.2
IFR/VFR Flights ............................. RAC 3.13.1, 3.13.2 – Significant Weather Prognostic Charts
– In Rain ..............................................................AIR 2.5 – CMC...............................................................MET 12.1
– Information Regions (FIR) ....... RAC Fig.2.3, RAC 2.4 – RAFC .............................................................MET 12.2
– Information Service............................. RAC 1.1.1, 1.1.2 – TAF (Aerodrome) ............................................MET 7.0
– Itineraries ......................................................... RAC 3.6 – Upper Level Charts – PROG .................MET 11.0, 11.2
– Itinerary form, Composite IFR/VFR/ – Upper Level Wind and Temperature (FD)
IFR Sample ............................................... RAC Fig. 3.1 ...............................................................MET 1.1.3, 9.0
– Military Flight Advisory Unit (MFAU) ....... RAC 1.1.6 – Winds and Temperatures Aloft Network,
– Mountainous Regions ................... RAC 2.12, AIR 2.13 Canadian .......................................................... MET 9.1
– Operations – Airmanship ................................. AIR 2.0 French, Use of in Communications........................ COM 1.3
– Operations in Volcanic Ash............................. .AIR 2.6 Frequency
– Operations in Winter ...................................... AIR 2.12 – Mandatory (MF), Use of .................... RAC 4.5.4, 4.5.6
– Operations – Mountainous Regions – Monitoring 126.7 MHz .................................... RAC 5.1
..................................................... RAC 2.12, AIR 2.13 – Release from Tower ......................................RAC 4.2.9
– Operations on Water ...................................... .AIR 2.11 FSS (Flight Service Stations) ............................... RAC 3.4.1
– Other Information....................................... RAC 3.16.8 Fuels
– Permit............................................................ LRA 5.3.4
– Planning ............................... RAC 3.0, 12.5.4, SAR 2.0 – Anti-icing Additives ...................................... AIR 1.3.3
– Priority ............................................................ .RAC 1.8 – Aviation............................................................. AIR 1.3
– Temporary Restrictions – Forest Fires ......... RAC 2.9.2 – Dumping ....................................................... RAC 6.3.4
– Time / Air Time ................................................ AIR 4.1 – Fires and Explosions ...................................... AIR 1.3.4
– Transoceanic, General Aviation Aircraft ................ NAT 1.2 – Grades ............................................................ AIR 1.3.1
Flight Plan/Itinerary – Handling ........................................................ AIR 1.3.2
– Minimum Fuel Advisory .............................. RAC 1.8.2
– Aerodrome, Departure and Time .............. RAC 3.16.5 – Requirements ................................................. RAC 3.13
– Aerodrome, Destination, Total Estimated – Sufficient Amount, IFR/VFR Flights
Elapsed Time, SAR Time (Canadian only) ........................................................ RAC 3.13.1, 3.13.2
and Alternate Aerodrome(s) ........................RAC 3.16.7 Fuel and Oil Weights ............................................ RAC 3.5.2
– Aircraft Identification .................................RAC 3.16.1
– Alternate Aerodrome for IFR Flight ............. RAC 3.14
– Canadian ..................................................... RAC 3.15.2 G
– Changes to the Information ............................. RAC 3.7 Gander Oceanic Transition Area (GOTA) .............. NAT 1.4
– Closing ........................................................... RAC 3.12 Gander Radio........................................................ NAT 2.5.1
– Closing of a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary Geographic Reference/Coordinates ..................... GEN 1.4.2
Prior to Landing.......................................... RAC 3.12.2 Glassy Water and Landing Seaplanes ..................AIR 2.11.4
– Composite, VFR and IFR ................................ RAC 3.8 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) ....COM 5.1, 5.2
– Contents ......................................................... RAC 3.16 – Approach Procedures .................................. COM 5.4.2
– Cross Country Instrument Training Flights ......... .RAC 3.11 – Approach Procedures with Barometric Vertical
– Cruising Speed, Altitude/Level Navigation (baro-VNAV) ......................... COM 5.4.2.4
and Route .................................................... RAC 3.16.6 – Approach Procedures with
– Defence VFR (DVFR) and Defence Vertical Guidance (APV) ............................ COM 5.4.2
Flight Itineraries .............................................. RAC 3.9 – Approaches at
– Equipment (Canadian and ICAO).............. .RAC 3.16.4 Alternate Aerodromes ......................COM 5.9, 5.9.1, 5.9.2
– Filing (CAR 602.75) ..................................... RAC 3.6.2 – Avionics Databases.....................................COM 3.15.8
– Flight Rules and Type of Flight ................. .RAC 3.16.2 – Augmentation Systems
– Flights Along or Outside Designated (ABAS, SBAS, GBAS) ................................... COM 5.3
ATS Routes ................................................. RAC 3.16.6
– Forms, Completion of ................................... .RAC 3.15 – GNSS Vulnerability
– Fuel Requirements ......................................... RAC 3.13 – Interference, Anomaly Reporting ..............COM 5.10
– Fuel, Sufficient Amount, IFR/VFR Flights – NOTAMs ..................................................... COM 5.5.2
........................................................ RAC 3.13.1, 3.13.2 – Proper use of ..................................................COM 5.11
– ICAO ............................................. RAC 3.15.3, Fig. 3.2 – User Comments ............................................ COM 5.12
– IFR ................................................................. RAC 3.15 Glossary of Aeronautical Terms ............................. GEN 5.1
– IFR Flight Plan ............................................. RAC 3.7.2 GOTA ...................................................................... NAT 1.4
– Intermediate Stops ......................................... RAC 3.10 Graphic Area Forecast (GFA) .................................MET 4.0
– Number and Type of Aircraft Gross Navigation Errors, Monitoring of .............NAT 1.19.6
and Wake Turbulence Category ................. RAC 3.16.3 Ground-to-Air Signals ..........................................SAR 4.8.1
– Other Information....................................... RAC 3.16.8
– –....................................... Opening a VFR Flight Plan
or Flight Itinerary ......................................... RAC 3.6.4
H
Hang Glider Operations ....................................... . AIR 4.15
– Requirements – Flights Between Canada Health and Safety Program, Transport Canada
and a Foreign State ....................................... RAC 3.6.3 Aviation Occupational (A-OH&S) ...................... GEN 2.1
Sample – Composite IFR/VFR/ IFR Heaters, Portable Combustion – Danger of ............. AIR 3.3
– Flight Itinerary.......................................... RAC Fig. 3.1 Helicopter Operations .................................. .RAC 4.5.3, 4.6
– IFR (ICAO) ...............................................RAC Fig. 3.2 – At Controlled Airports ....................................RAC 4.6
– VFR...........................................................RAC Fig. 3.3 – Takeoff, Landing and Safety Areas .............. AGA 3.12
18
TC AIM March 25, 2021
– Vortices ............................................................. AIR 2.9 –Corrections for Temperature ..........RAC 9.17.1, Fig. 9.1
GEN
Heliports ..................................................................AGA 5.5 – Cross Country Training Flight .................... RAC 3.11
– Arrival and Departure Hover Area ...................... AGA 3.13 –Departure,Approach and Alternate Minima. .RAC 9.18
– Final Approach and Take-Off Area (FATO) –Departure Procedures...................................... RAC 7.0
................................................................... AGA 7.12.2 –Departure from Uncontrolled Aerodromes ............. RAC 7.9
–Descent Out of Controlled Airspace ............... RAC 9.4
– Lighting.......................................................... AGA 7.12 –DME Holding Procedures ............................. RAC 10.8
– Markers and Markings .............AGA 5.5.1, 5.5.2, 5.5.3, –Emergencies and Equipment Failures .............RAC 6.3
...................................................... .5.4, 5.5.5, 5.5.6, 5.6 –En Route Procedures .......................................RAC 8.0
– Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) ...... AGA 7.12.1 –En Route – Uncontrolled Aerodromes
High Altimeter Settings ........................................ AIR 1.5.9 (Class–“G” Airspace) .................................... RAC 8.10
High Altitude Flight in Aircraft with – Flight – Two-Way Communications Failure.........RAC 6.3.2
Unpressurized Cabins........................................... AIR 3.4 – Flight Plan .................................................... .RAC 3.7.2
High Intensity Approach Lighting (HIAL) .....RAC 9.19.2.8 – Flight Plan – Completion of ......................... .RAC 3.15
High Intensity Runway Operations (HIRO) ...... RAC 4.4.10 – Flight, “1 000-Ft-on-Top” ................................ RAC 8.7
Hijack (Unlawful Interference) ............................ RAC 1.9.8 – Flights in VMC ................................................RAC 6.2
Holding – General.............................................................RAC 6.0
– Holding Clearance ......................................... RAC 10.2
– Clearance ....................................................... RAC 10.2 – Holding Entry Procedures ............................. RAC 10.5
– DME Procedures .......................................... RAC 10.8 – Holding Pattern, Speed Limitations .............. RAC 10.7
– Pattern, Entry Procedures ............................ RAC 10.5 – Holding Pattern, Timing................................ RAC 10.6
– Pattern, Non-Standard ................................. . RAC 10.4 – Holding Procedures ....................................... RAC 10.0
– Pattern, Speed Limitations, DME Procedures, – ILS, Category II Minima.............................RAC 9.18.1
Shuttle Procedure ......................... RAC 10.7, 10.8, 10.9 – Initial Contact at Uncontrolled Aerodromes ..........RAC 9.11
– Pattern, Standard ........................................... RAC 10.3 – Initial Contact with Tower ........................ RAC 7.3, 9.9
– Pattern, Timing .............................................. RAC 10.6 – Instrument Procedures, Development of ........RAC 6.6
– Patterns Depicted on En Route – Landing Minima ..........................................RAC 9.19.3
and Terminal Charts .................................... RAC 10.10 – Mach Number ..................... RAC 8.3.1, 12.1, NAT 1.13
– Positions, Taxi...............................................RAC 4.2.6 – Minimum Altitudes .........................................RAC 8.5
– Procedures – Missed Approach Procedures........................ RAC 9.26
– IFR .............................................................. RAC 10.0 – Missed Approach Procedures – Visual ......... RAC 9.25
– VFR............................................................RAC 4.4.2 – Noise Abatement Procedures – Departure...... RAC 7.6
– Speed Limitations .......................................... RAC 10.7 – Non-Standard Holding Pattern ...................... RAC 10.4
Hover – Obstacle and Terrain Clearance ..................... .RAC 7.7
– Approach and Take-Off Direction – Outbound Report ............................................RAC 9.14
– Markings .......................................................AGA 5.5.6 – PAR (Precision Radar Approaches)
– Taxi ..................................................................RAC 4.6 .....................................................COM 7.1, RAC 9.8.4
– Hydroplaning ................................................. AIR 1.6.5 – Position Reports............................................... RAC 8.1
Hyperventilation.................................................... AIR 3.2.2 – Mandatory Routes .......................... .RAC 3.16.6, 11.4.3
– Mandatory IFR Routes (Including RNAV) ........ RAC 11.4.3
Hypothermia and Hyperthermia .............................AIR 3.17 – Procedure Altitudes ........................................RAC 9.17
Hypoxia ................................................................. AIR 3.2.1 – Procedures – Uncontrolled Aerodromes/Airspace
.............................................................RAC 4.5.2, 9.14
I – Published Holding Patterns ......................... RAC 10.10
– Radar Arrivals ................................................. RAC 9.7
ICAO
– Applicable ICAO and WMO Documents ............ MET 1.1.7 – Release from Tower Frequency ....................... RAC 7.8
ICAO Flight Plan Form, Sample ......................RAC Fig. 3.2 – Remote Altimeter Setting............................RAC 9.17.2
– Reporting of Equipment Malfunction ..........RAC 6.3.3
ICAO Type A Charts ........................................... MAP 4.2.1 – Reporting Procedures
Ice Control and Snow Removal............................ AGA 1.1.4 – Uncontrolled Aerodrome ............................... RAC 9.12
Ice – Required Visual Reference..........................RAC 9.19.3
– Aircraft Contamination on the Ground, – Runway Visual Range (RVR) ....................... RAC 9.20
and in Flight ..................................... AIR 2.12.2, 2.12.3 – Separation ........................................................RAC 6.4
– Accumulation...................................................MET 2.4 – Shuttle Procedure .......................................... RAC 10.9
– Types of Ice ................................................AIR 2.12.3.1 – Simultaneous Approaches ............................. RAC 9.27
– Aerodynamic Effects of Airborne Icing .......... AIR 2.12.3.2 – Speed Adjustment – Radar Controlled Aircraft
– Roll Upset ................................................. AIR 2.12.3.3 ..................................................................... RAC 9.8.3
IFR – Standard Holding Pattern .............................. RAC 10.3
– Advance Notice of Intent ................................. RAC 9.5 – Standard Instrument Departure (SID) ............ RAC 7.5
– Air Traffic Control Clearance ......................... RAC 6.1 – Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)....... RAC 9.2, 9.2.3
– Aircraft Categories ........................................ RAC 9.21 – Straight-in Approach ..................................... RAC 9.15
– Altitude Reports ..............................................RAC 8.3 – Straight-in Landing Minima ......................... RAC 9.22
– Application of Takeoff Minima...................RAC 9.19.1 – True Airspeed (TAS) ....................................RAC 8.2.2
– Approach Ban ..............................................RAC 9.19.2 – Uncontrolled Airspace.................................. .RAC 9.13
– Approach Clearance ........................................ RAC 9.3 – Visual Approach .......................................... .RAC 9.6.2
– Approach Position Reports – Controlled Airports .... RAC 9.9 ILS (Instrument Landing Systems) ......................COM 4.11
– Arrival Procedures .......................................... RAC 9.0 – Automatic Landing (Autoland) Operations
– Uncontrolled Aerodromes/Airspace.............RAC 9.12, 9.13 ................................................................... COM 4.11.7
– ATC Assignment of Altitudes .........................RAC 8.6 – Categories ...................................................COM 4.11.5
– Circling .......................................................... RAC 9.23 – Glide Path ...................................................COM 4.11.2
– Procedures ..................................................... RAC 9.24 – Glide Path Fluctuations .............................. COM 4.11.7
– Clearance with VFR Restrictions ................ RAC 6.2.1 – Localizer .....................................................COM 4.11.1
– Clearances........................................................ RAC 7.4 – Minima, Category II ....................................RAC 9.18.1
– Clearances – Leaving or Entering Importation of
Controlled Airspace.........................................RAC 8.8 – Aircraft into Canada ........................................ LRA 4.6
– Climb or Descent .............................................RAC 8.4
– Contact and Visual Approaches ...................... RAC 9.6 Index
– Aerodrome Obstacle Charts
19
TC AIM March 25, 2021
20
TC AIM March 25, 2021
– Heliport Takeoff and Landing Area Marking – Locations – Aerodrome Forecast .................... MET 7.1
GEN
..................................................................... AGA 5.5.1 – METAR (Aerodrome Routine Meteorological
– Holding .........................................................AGA 5.4.3 Report) ............................................ MET 1.2.1, 3.2, 8.0
– Hover Area....................................................AGA 5.5.4 – Observations and Reports .............................. MET 1.2
– Obstruction ......................................................AGA 6.0 – Pilot Report (PIREP)
– Power Line Crossings ......................................AGA 6.7 ..........................MET 1.1.3, 1.1.6, 2.0, 2.2.1, RAC1.1.3
– Preferred Approach and Departure Path......AGA 5.5.6 – Report (AIREP) ...........................MET 1.1.6, NAT 1.15
– Runway ............................................................AGA 5.4 – Reports, Forecasts and Charts .................. MET 3.1, 3.2
– Standards .........................................................AGA 6.2 – Responsibility ............................................... MET 1.1.1
– Taxiway Exit and Holding ............................AGA 5.4.3 – Services Available ........................................ MET 1.1.2
– Unserviceable Area ......................................... AGA 5.7 – SIGMET................................................. MET 1.1.3, 6.0
Marshalling Signals.................................................. AIR 1.8 – Space Weather ........................... MET 14.0, COM 5.5.4
Measurement, Units of ............................................ GEN 1.4 – SPECI (Special Weather Reports)
Medical ....................................................... MET 1.2.1, 8.4, 8.5
– Aeromedical Factors ......................................... AIR 3.2 – Special VFR Weather Minima .................RAC Fig. 2.8
– Assessment Process ......................................... LRA 2.1 – Surface Weather Maps ..................................MET 10.0
– Aviation Medical Review Board .....................LRA 2.4 – Symbols
– Examination Requirements .............................LRA 2.2 – Significant Weather .......................................MET 12.1
– Fitness for Permits and Licences ..................... LRA 1.9 – Surface Weather Maps ..................................MET 10.0
– Periodic Medical Exam Categories 1, 2 3 – TAF (Aerodrome Forecast).....................MET 1.1.3, 7.0
Medically Fit ....................................................LRA 2.3 – Turbulence Reporting Criteria Table........... MET 2.2.2
– Unfit Assessment .............................................LRA 2.5 – Upper Level Charts, analysed (ANAL)......... MET 11.1
– Upper Level Wind and Temperature
Medical Information ................................................ AIR 3.0 Forecasts .................................................MET 1.3.7, 9.0
– Alcohol.............................................................. AIR 3.9 – VOLMET .........................................NAT 2.2, MET 1.4
– Anesthetics ..................................................... AIR 3.13 – Weather Charts ................................................MET 3.3
– Blood Donation ................................................AIR 3.14 – Weather Observing Systems............ MET 3.2, 3.3, 1.1.5
– Carbon Monoxide .......................................... AIR 3.2.3 – Weather Radar ............................. COM 7.1, MET 1.3.9
– Decompression Sickness .................................. AIR 3.5 – Wind Shear ......................................................MET 2.3
– Disorientation ................................................... AIR 3.7 Middle Ear and Sinus Discomfort or Pain ............... AIR 3.8
– Drugs ...............................................................AIR 3.10
– Fatigue ........................................................... .AIR 3.10 Military
– follow-up procedures after an in-flight illumination – Arrester Cables ................................................AGA 9.2
.....................................................................AIR 4.15.5 – Flight Advisory Unit (MFAU) ..................... RAC 1.1.6
– Radar Assistance (Canadian Forces) ............ RAC 1.5.7
– General Health .................................................. AIR 3.1 Minima
– High Altitude Flight in Aircraft with – Application of ................................................ RAC 9.19
Unpressurized Cabin ........................................ AIR 3.4 – Circling .......................................................... RAC 9.23
– Hyperventilation ............................................ AIR 3.2.2 – Departure, Approach and Alternate ...............RAC 9.18
– Hypothermia and Hyperthermia .....................AIR 3.17 – Straight-in Landing........................................ RAC 9.22
– Hypoxia.......................................................... AIR 3.2.1
– Mandatory Medical Reporting .......................AIR 3.1.1 Minimum
– Middle Ear and Sinus Discomfort or Pain ....... AIR 3.8 – Altitudes – Overflying Aerodromes ...............RAC 5.5
– Portable Combustion Heaters, Potential – Altitudes – VFR............................................... RAC 5.4
Hazard of .......................................................... AIR 3.3 – En-Route Altitudes (MEA) .......................... RAC 8.6.1
– Pregnancy ....................................................... AIR 3.15 – Fuel Advisory ............................................... RAC 1.8.2
– Scuba Diving .................................................... AIR 3.6 – Holding Altitude (MHA) ............................... RAC 10.7
– Vision ................................................................ AIR 3.7 – IFR Altitudes ...................................................RAC 8.6
Meteorological / Meteorology – Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)
– Abbreviations, Significant Weather ..............MET 12.1 .............................................................. RAC 8.5, 8.6.1
– AIRMET............................. MET 1.1.3, 1.3.4, 1.3.6, 5.0 – Sector Altitude (MSA)................................... RAC 9.2.1
– Authority, Areas of Responsibility............... MET 1.1.1 Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications
– Automated Reports (MNPS) ...............................................................NAT 1.11
– Other ................................................................MET 8.6 – Certification ...................................................NAT 1.7.5
– Reports from Other Non-aviation Autostations – High-Level Airspace (HLA)......... NAT 1.11, NAT 1.19
........................................................................MET 8.6 – Navigation Errors, Monitoring of Gross .....NAT 1.19.6
– Voice Generator Module (VGM) ....................MET 8.6 – North Atlantic (NAT) MNPS Operations ..COM 3.15.11
– Aviation Forecasts, Abbreviations ................MET 15.0 Missed Approach
– Aviation Weather Briefing Service – From a Circling Procedure ............................ RAC 9.25
(AWBS) ......................................................... MET 1.1.3 – Procedures ..................................................... RAC 9.26
– Aviation Weather Information Service Monitoring Emergency Frequency 121.5 MHz .. COM 1.4.2
(AWWS) ........................................................ MET 1.1.3 Morning and Evening Civil Twilight Charts ....... GEN 1.5.2
– Aviation Weather Reports ........................MET 3.2, 8.0
– Aviation Weather Services ........................... MET 1.1.3 Mountainous
– AWOS (Automated Weather Observation – Areas, Flight Operations in ............................ AIR 2.13
System) ............................................................MET 8.5 – Regions .......................................... RAC 2.12, Fig. 2.12
– Canadian Forecast Winds and Temperatures
Aloft Network .................................................. MET 9.1
– Canadian Meteorological Centre (CMC) ......MET 12.1
N
NAR (North American Routes) .............................. NAT 1.3
– Canadian Weather Information ............. MET 1.3.5, 3.0 National Harbours Board Act ..............................AIR 2.11.1
– Charts and Forecasts........................................MET 1.3 Nationality and Registration Marks ........GEN 1.6, LRA 4.3
– Clear Air Turbulence (CAT), Avoidance of
.......................................................MET 2.2, AIR 2.10 NAV CANADA
– Coastal Weather ............................................MET 1.3.5 – Regions – Addresses, Facsimile
– Differences with ICAO Annex-3 .................. MET 1.1.8 and Telephone Numbers ............................... GEN 1.1.2
– GFA (Area Forecast) .....................MET 1.1.3, 1.3.6, 4.0 NAVAID
– Forecasts and Charts........................................MET 1.3 – DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) ........ COM 4.7
– Ice Accumulation .............................................MET 2.4 – LOC (Localizer) .........................................COM 4.11.1
21
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
– Night Flight .................................................RPA 3.2.27
RADAR .................................................................. COM 7.0 – Operations at or in the Vicinity of an Aerodrome,
– Alerting Manoeuvres ..................................... SAR 4.5 Airport or Heliport ........................... RPA 3.2.35, 3.4.5
– Arrivals .......................................................... RAC 9.7 – Pilot Requirements .............................RPA 3.3.2, 3.4.2
– ASDE (Airport Surface Detection Equipment) – Pre-flight Information ................................RPA 3.2.12
........................................................................ COM 7.1 – Records .......................................................RPA 3.2.36
– Canadian Forces Radar Assistance ............. RAC 1.5.7 – Registration ......................................................RPA 3.1
– Navigation Assistance to VFR Flights ........ RAC 1.5.4 – Serviceability of the RPAS ......................... RPA 3.2.17
– Obstacle Clearance During Radar Vectors ........... RAC 1.5.5 – Small Remotely Pilot Aircraft Systems
– PAR (Precision Approach)............................. COM 7.1 (sRPAS) ............................................................RPA 3.0
– Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) ............... COM 7.1 Reports
– Required ....................................................... RAC 9.8.2 – Altitude ..........................................................NAT 1.16
– Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)............ COM 7.2 – ATS – Possible Contravention of the
– Service ............................................................ RAC 1.5 Air Regulations ............................................ RAC 1.1.4
– Procedures ................................................... RAC 1.5.2 – Automated Reports
– Surveillance – VFR ........................................ RAC 5.7 – Other ...............................................................MET 8.6
– Traffic Information (Clock System) ........... RAC 1.5.3 – Limited Weather Information System (LWIS)
– Use of Radar in the Provision of AAS by FSSs .........................................................................MET 8.5
...................................................................... RAC 1.5.8 – Voice Generator Module (VGM)....................MET 8.6
– Vectors, Misuse of Radar ............................ RAC 1.5.6 – AWOS – METAR AUTO or
– Vectors, Obstacle Clearance During ........... RAC 1.5.5 SPECI AUTO ..............................................................MET 8.5
– Weather Radar ............................. COM 7.1 MET 1.3.9 – CRFI............................................. .AGA 1.1.3, AIR 1.6
Radio – Pilot (PIREP) ..................................................MET 2.0
– Checks ...........................................................RAC 4.2.3 – Pollution .................................................... RAC 1.12.5
– Navigation Aids, Ground Based .....................COM 4.0 Required Visual Reference .................................RAC 9.19.3
– Radio Telephony Network Operations – North Resolution Advisories (TCAS/ACAS) .................... RAC 1.7
Atlantic Area (NAT)/Anchorage Arctic FIR ...........NAT 2.2
Communications, Voice ......................................... COM 1.0 Responsibilities
– Arctic ........................................................... RAC 1.1.3 – NAV CANADA ........................................... GEN 1.1.2
– Channel Spacing ............................................ COM 1.4 – Transport Canada...................... GEN 1.1.1, AGA 2.3.3
– Radiocommunication Regulations ................ COM 1.2 Restricted Airspace ..............................................RAC 2.8.6
– Regulations – Operator’s Certificates and Retroflective Markers ........................................... AGA 7.15
Station Licences ............................................. COM 1.2 Right of Way – Collision Avoidance Regulations ............RAC 1.10
Rapid-Exit Taxiway Indicator Lights ...................... AGA 7.9 RNAV (Area Navigation) Operations .................... COM 5.0
Rapid-Exit Taxiways ............................................. AGA 3.11 RONLY (Receiver Only)/NORDO (No Radio), Procedures
Recency Requirements – Pilot Licence ..................RAC 4.2.10, 4.2.12, 4.4.5, 4.4.6, 4.5.7, 4.5.8
Privileges ................................................................ LRA 1.12 Routes, Canadian Domestic
Recreational Aviation ....................................AIR 4.7 to 4.10 – Mandatory IFR Routes (including RNAV)
Reduced Lateral Separation, Arrangements for ............. NAT 1.12 ......................................................... RAC 3.16.6, 11.4.3
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) RSC and CRFI Reporting ..................................... AIR 1.6.4
– North Atlantic RVSM ................................... RAC 1.21 RTIL (Runway Threshold Identification Lights) .... AGA 7.7
– NAT Height Monitoring ................ NAT 1.20.7, 1.20.8 Runway(s)
– In-flight Contingencies ................................. NAT 1.17 – Centre Line Lighting ................................... AGA 7.8.4
– Minimum Aircraft System Performance – Characteristics ................................................AGA 3.0
Specification ..................................................NAT 1.12 – CRFI................................................................. AIR 1.6
Reduced Visibility Operations Plan (RVOP) .......... RAC 1.7 – Declared Distances ....................................... AGA 3.10
Refuelling – Dimensions .....................................................AGA 3.1
– Fires and Explosions ..................................... AIR 1.3.4 – End Lights ....................................................AGA 7.8.2
Refuges, Reserves and Parks (National, Provincial – Friction Calibration Method ......................AGA 1.1.4.1
and Municipal) .................................................RAC 1.11.3 – Guard Lights ................................................. AGA 7.11
– Heading ........................................................... RAC 7.5
Region(s) – Holding Position Markings ..........................AGA 5.4.3
– Altimeter Setting .......................................... RAC 2.11 – Intersecting, Operations on ......................... RAC 4.4.9
– Mountainous ........................RAC 2.12, RAC Fig. 2.13 – Lighting ...........................................................AGA 7.8
– NAV CANADA ........................................... GEN 1.1.2 – Markings .........................................................AGA 5.4
– Transport Canada..........................................GEN 1.1.1 – Non-Precision Approach ............................ AGA 7.5.1
Registered Aerodrome ............................................AGA 2.0 – Sequential Operations.................................. RAC 4.4.9
Registration Marks and Nationality ........GEN 1.6, LRA 4.3 – Simultaneous Operations............................. RAC 4.4.9
Regulations, Airport Zoning.................................. AGA 4.3 – Strip .................................................................AGA 3.2
Reinstatement of Suspended Permit, Licence – Taxiway Bearing Strength ............................ AGA 3.12
or Rating ............................................................ LRA 1.11 – Threshold Identification Lights (RTIL).......... AGA 7.7
Remote Altimeter Setting .................................. RAC 9.17.2 – Touchdown Zone Lighting...........................AGA 7.8.5
Remote Communications Outlets (RCO) ............ RAC 1.4.1 – Wet ............................................. RAC 4.4.9, AIR 1.6.5
– Dial-up RCOs............................................... RAC 1.4.1 – Winter Condition NOTAM........................... AIR 1.6.4
– Flight Information Service En Route (FISE) Runway turn pad .....................................................AGA 3.6
................................ COM 1.4.1, RAC 1.1.3, 1.1.4, 4.5.1 Runway Visual Range (RVR) ............................... RAC 9.20
– Remote Aerodrome Advisory Service (RAAS) – Comparative Scale – Feet to Meters .............GEN 1.7.3
................................ COM 1.4.1, RAC 1.1.3, 1.1.4, 4.5.1 – Operational use of RVR............................. RAC 9.20.2
Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA)
– Advanced Operations ......................................RPA 3.4
– Basic Operations ..............................................RPA 3.3
S
Safety .......................................................................GEN 2.0
– Fitness of Crew Members .............................RPA 3.2.7 – Alert Procedure and Phraseology............... RAC 12.15
– General Information ........................................RPA 1.0 – Aviation Safety Analysis ................................GEN 2.2
– General Operation and Flight Rules ................RPA 3.2 – Aviation Safety Letter (ASL) .......................GEN 2.2.4
– Maximum Altitude .....................................RPA 3.2.13 – Occupational ................................................... GEN 2.1
– Micro Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems SAR (Search and Rescue).........................................SAR 1.1
(mRPAS) ......................................................... RPA 2.0
23
TC AIM March 25, 2021
– Agreements ..................................................... SAR 1.3 Southern and Northern Domestic Airspace......... RAC 2.2.1
GEN
– Aiding Persons in Distress ............................. SAR 2.4 Sparsely Settled Areas
– Assistance, Request for................................... SAR 2.2 – Flight Operations ........................................... AIR 2.14
– Assistance to Aircraft With Emergencies ..... .SAR 4.0 – Single-Engine Aircraft Operating in
– Closing of a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary Northern Canada .........................................AIR 2.14.1
Prior to Landing ......................................... RAC 3.12.2 Special VFR Weather Minima ............................. RAC 2.7.3
– Declaring an Emergency ................................ SAR 4.1 Speed
– Distress Signal Panel ...................................... SAR 2.4 – Adjustment – Radar Controlled Aircraft .................RAC 9.7.3
– Downed Aircraft Procedures.......................... SAR 4.8 – Aircraft Speed Limit....................................RAC 2.5.2
– Emergency Locator Transmitter.................... .SAR 3.0 Spins, Practice .......................................................... AIR 4.3
– Flight Planning ............................................... SAR 2.0 Stabilized Approach .............................................AIR 2.17.2
– Ground-to-Air Signals ..................................SAR 4.8.1
– Interception Procedures ...................................SAR 4.7 Standard
– MANOT (Missing Aircraft Notice) ............... SAR 2.3 – Instrument Departure (SID) ........................... RAC 7.5
– Procedures for Signaling Vessels ................... SAR 2.4 – Pressure Region ............................................ RAC 2.11
– Regions (SRR) ........................................ .SAR Fig. 1.1 – Terminal Arrival (STAR) ..................... RAC 9.2, 9.2.3
– Rescue Co-ordination Centres (RCCs)............SAR 1.1 – Conventional STAR .................................. RAC 9.2.3.1
– Responsible Authority ................................... .SAR 1.0 – PBN STAR ................................................ RAC 9.2.3.2
– Services Available .......................................... SAR 1.2 Stop Bars ............................................................ AGA 7.10.3
– Survival ........................................................ SAR 4.8.2 Stops, Intermediate ............................................... RAC 3.10
Satellite Navigation (SatNav) .............................. COM 5.3.2 Stopway
– Current Approvals ......................................... COM 5.4 – Definition ........................................................AGA 3.8
– Required Navigation Performance ................ COM 6.0 Stopways ...............................................................AGA 5.4.2
Scheduled point ....................................................... GEN 5.1 Straight-In Approach ............................................. RAC 9.15
Scuba Diving ............................................................ AIR 3.6 Strength Scale – Communications Checks ...........COM 1.11
Seaplane Dock Markers ..........................................AGA 5.3 Strobe Lights, Use of ................................................ AIR 4.6
Seaplanes Sunrise/Sunset ...................................................... GEN 1.5.2
– Landing on Glassy Water ............................AIR 2.11.4 Supplement, AIP Canada (ICAO) .......................... MAP 2.2
– Landing on Unbroken Snow Conditions ............ AIR 2.12.6 Surface Condition Reports
– Use on Snow Surfaces ................................ AIR 2.12.5 – Aircraft Movement (AMSCR)...................... AIR 1.6.4
Search and Rescue (see SAR) ..................................SAR 1.1 Survival ................................................................ SAR 4.8.2
SECURITAS Program ............................................GEN 3.5 – Advisory Information ............................ AIR ANNEX
Security, Emergency Communications and
................................................... COM 1.4.2, RAC 2.13
SELCAL (Selective Calling System) ...................... NAT 2.4
T
Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) ......................... COM 4.8
Sequential Operations .......................................... RAC 4.4.9 Takeoff Clearance ................................................RAC 4.2.8
Service Difficulty Reporting Program ................ LRA 2.6.4 Takeoff Distance Available (TODA)..................... AGA 3.10
Services Takeoff Minima...................................................RAC 9.19.1
– Aeronautical Fixed (AFS) .............. MAP 3.5, RAC 3.3 Takeoff Run Available (TORA) ............................ AGA 3.10
– Air Traffic .....................................................RAC 1.1.1 Taxi
– Apron Advisory ........................................... RAC 1.2.4 – Holding Positions .........................................RAC 4.2.6
– Arctic Territories ......................................... RAC 1.1.3 – Holding Positions During IFR Operations ... RAC 4.2.7
– Other Than Air Traffic Services .................... RAC 1.2 – Information ..................................................RAC 4.2.5
“Shall” and “Should” (Definitions)...................... GEN 1.1.3 Taxiing .................................................................. RAC 4.4.4
Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA) ........ NAT 1.19.1 Taxiway
Shore Markers .........................................................AGA 6.7 – Bearing Strength ........................................... AGA 3.12
“Should” and “Shall” (Definitions)...................... GEN 1.1.3 – Lighting ......................................................... AGA 7.10
SIGMET – Rapid-Exit .................................................... AGA 3.11,
(Significant Meteorological Report) ............ MET 1.1.3, 6.0 – Rapid-Exit Taxiway Indicator Lights ............. AGA 7.9
Signals TC AIM
– Ground-to-Air ................................................. SAR 4.8 – Amendments–Future dates.......................... GEN 1.1.4
– Intercepting and Intercepted Aircraft .............SAR 4.7 – Content ......................................................... GEN 1.1.3
– Marshalling for Aircraft and Helicopters........ AIR 1.8 – Co-ordinator ................................................ GEN 1.1.3
– Visual ................................................RAC 4.2.11, 4.4.7 – Distribution, address changes and information
Significant Weather Prognostic Charts (RAFC) ............MET 3.13 requests ........................................................ GEN 1.1.4
Signs – Obtaining the commercial edition ............... GEN 1.1.4
– Airfield............................................................AGA 5.8 TCAS I/TCAS II..................................................... COM 9.0
– Illumination of Airfield ...............................AGA 5.8.4 TCAS/ACAS (Traffic Alert and Collision
– Information ..................................................AGA 5.8.2 Avoidance Systems and Airborne Collision
– Mandatory Instruction .................................AGA 5.8.3 Avoidance Systems) ....................................... COM 9.0
Simultaneous Operations ................................. RAC 4.4.9 – Airworthiness Approval ............................... .COM 9.5
Simultaneous Precision Instrument Approaches – Mode S Transponder Approval
– Converging Runways.................................... RAC 9.28 and Unique Codes .......................................... COM 9.8
– Parallel Runways .......................................... RAC 9.27 – Operational Approval .................................... COM 9.4
Single-engine Aircraft Operating – Pilot and Controller Interchange ................... COM 9.8
in Northern Canada .....................................AIR 2.14.1 – Pilot/Controller Actions ................................ .COM 9.9
– Transoceanic Flight ........................................ NAT 1.2 – Pilot Immunity from Enforcement Action
Single Side Band ..................................................... NAT 2.3 for Deviating from Clearances ...................... COM 9.7
Snow – Transport Canada Policy ............................... COM 9.2
– Flight Operations in Winter........................... AIR 2.12 – Use of ............................................................. COM 9.3
– Landing Seaplanes on Unbroken Snow Conditions Technical Records, Aircraft ................................ LRA 2.6.3
..................................................................... AIR 2.12.6 Temperature Correction
– Landing Wheel-Equipped Light Aircraft for Altimeter ............................... RAC Fig. 9.1, AIR 1.5.2
on Snow Covered Surfaces ......................... AIR 2.12.4 Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) ................ ...............RAC 9.2.2
– Removal and Ice Control ............................. AGA 1.1.4 Terminal Control Areas ....................................... RAC 2.7.6
SOTA ................................................................... NAT 1.19.1 Terminal Products ..................................... MAP 4.2.1, 4.2.2
24
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Test Flights, Conduct of Experimental .................... AIR 4.2 Units of Measurement ............................................. GEN 1.4
GEN
Thresholds Unlawful Interference ......................... COM 8.8, RAC 1.9.8
– Arrows ......................................................... AGA 5.4.1 Unmanned Air Vehicle (UAV) Systems ..............AIR 4.15.3
– Displaced Threshold Lighting .....................AGA 7.8.3 Unserviceable Area Markings ................................ AGA 5.7
– Stopways ......................................................AGA 5.4.2 Upper Level
Thunderstorms – Charts (ANAL) .............................................. MET 9.0
– Flight Operations Near .................................... AIR 2.7 – Wind and Temperature Forecasts (FD) ......MET 1.3.8, 11.1
Time
– System ............................................................. GEN 1.5
– Zone, UTC/Local ......................................... GEN 1.5.3
V
V Speeds .................................................................. GEN 1.7
Traffic Circuit Procedures VASI (Visual Approach Slope Indicator)
– Controlled Aerodromes ..................................RAC 4.3 ................................................AGA 7.6.2, AGA 7.6.4.2
– NORDO/RONLY ...................................... RAC 4.5.8.2 VDF (VHF Direction Finder) ............. COM 4.10, RAC 1.6,
– Uncontrolled Aerodromes ........................... RAC 4.5.2 ......................................................................... SAR 4.3
Transborder Flights Vertical Path Control on Non-Precision
– Flight Plan Requirements (Between Canada Approaches ......................................................... AIR 2.17
and a Foreign State) ..................................... RAC 3.6.3
Transfer – IFR Units to Towers ........................... . RAC 9.10 Vertical Path Control Techniques ........................AIR 2.17.3
Transoceanic Flight – General Aviation Aircraft ................NAT 1.2 Vertigo ...................................................................... AIR 3.7
Transition Areas ................................................... RAC 2.7.5 VFR
– Acknowledgement of Clearances ...................RAC 5.2
Transponder – Aeronautical Information .............................. MAP 2.5
– Alerting ........................................................... SAR 4.4 – Altitudes and Flight Levels ............................RAC 5.3
– Communication Failure ................................. COM 8.7 – Controlled Airspace, Use of by
– Emergencies ................................................... COM 8.6 VFR Flights ................................................. RAC 2.5.1
– IFR Operations in Other Low-Level – En Route Procedures ...................................... RAC 5.0
Airspace ......................................................... COM 8.2 – Flight Plan and Flight Itineraries..RAC 3.6, RAC 3.7.1
– Mode S, Approval and Unique Codes ......................COM 9.8 – Holding Procedures .....................................RAC 4.4.2
– Operation ....................................................... COM 8.0 – Minimum Altitudes ................................. RAC 5.4, 5.5
– Phraseology.................................................... COM 8.5 – Operations within Class “C” Airspace .......... RAC 5.8
– Requirements ................................................. COM 8.2 – Over-the-Top ................................................ RAC 2.7.4
– VFR Operations ............................................. COM 8.4 – Position Reporting .......................................... RAC 5.1
– Unlawful Interference (Hijack) ..................... COM 8.8 – VFR Release of an IFR Aircraft..................RAC 6.2.2
– Regions – Addresses, Facsimile and – Weather Minima ............................ RAC 2.7.3, Fig. 2.7
Telephone Numbers ......................................GEN 1.1.1 VGM (Voice Generated Module) ........RAC 4.5.1, RAC 9.12
– Responsibilities ............................................AGA 2.3.3
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada (TATC) VHF
.........................................................................LRA 6.0 – Channel Spacing .......................................... . COM 1.4
– Refusal to issue or Amend a Canadian – Direction Finding System (VDF)
Aviation Document .........................................LRA 6.2 .......................................COM 4.10, RAC 1.6, SAR 4.3
– Suspension, Cancellation or Refusal – In Lieu of International HF Air-Ground
to Renew .........................................................LRA 6.3 – Omnidirectional Range and Tactical
– Monetary Penalties .........................................LRA 6.4 Air Navigation (VORTAC) ............................ COM 4.9
– Appeals ...........................................................LRA 6.5 – Omnidirectional Range (VOR) ..................... COM 4.5
Transportation Safety Board of Canada (TSB).................... GEN 3.0 Visibility, Ground ................................................RAC 9.19.1
– Addresses, Facsimile and Vision........................................................................ AIR 3.7
Telephone Numbers ........................................ GEN 3.6 Visual
Tribunal – Transportation Appeal Tribunal of – Alignment Guidance System (VAGS)......... AGA 7.7.2
Canada (TATC) ..............................................LRA 6.0 – Approach Slope Indicator Systems (VASIS)
True Airspeed (TAS) ..........................RAC 8.3.2, NAT 1.7.2 ......................................................................... AGA 7.6
– Climb and Descent.......................................RAC 8.4.2
Turbulence ............................................................. MET 3.13 Visual Climb Over the Airport .............................RAC 7.7.1
– Clear Air (CAT) ............................................ .AIR 2.10
– Reporting Criteria Table ............................. MET 2.2.2 Visual Signals ....................................................... RAC 4.4.7
– Pilot Waivers ................................................ RAC 4.1.1 – Ground ........................................................RAC 4.3.11
– Wake...............................................RAC 4.1.1, AIR 2.9 – Ground-to-Air ...............................................SAR 4.8.1
Turbulence, Downdraft and ...................................AIR 1.5.7 – Intercepting and Intercepted Aircraft .............SAR 4.7
– Marshalling for Aircraft and Helicopters........ AIR 1.8
Turn pad, Runway ...................................................AGA 3.6 – Tower to Aircraft ....................................... RAC 4.2.11
Twilight Charts, Morning and Evening ............... GEN 1.5.2 Voice Generated Module (VGM) .................RAC 4.5.1, 9.12
.........................................................................MET 8.6
U Volcanic Ash.........................................MET 2.5, 3.2.2, 13.0
Ultra-light Aeroplane ............................................. AIR 4.10 – Flight Operations in ......................................... AIR 2.6
Uncontrolled Aerodromes VOLMET.................................................................MET 1.4
– Aircraft Operations.........................................RAC 4.5 VOR/DME (RHO-THETA) System .................... COM 5.13
– Class “G” Airspace VORTAC (VHF Omnidirectional Range
– Recommended Operating Procedures and Tactical Air Navigation) ......................... COM 4.9
– En-Route ................................................... RAC 8.11 Vortex
– Helicopter Operations .................................. RAC 4.5.3 – Characteristics ............................................. .AIR 2.9.1
– Initial Contact with Air-Ground Facility................RAC 9.11 – Strength ............................................................ AIR 2.9
– Licensing, Registration and Vortices, Helicopter.................................................. AIR 2.9
Airworthiness ................................................. LRA 1.0
– Reporting Procedures (IFR) ........................ .RAC 9.12 VOR
– Traffic Circuit Procedures ........................... RAC 4.5.2 – Airborne VOR Check ................................. COM 4.5.3
Uncontrolled Airspace – Procedures (IFR) .......... RAC 9.13 – Check Point ................................................. COM 4.5.2
– Receiver Checks ......................................... COM 4.5.1
Underwater Diving ................................................... AIR 3.6
UNICOM (Universal Communications).............. RAC 1.2.1
– Approach UNICOM (AU) ........ RAC 1.2.1, MET 1.2.7
25
TC AIM March 25, 2021
W
GEN
Wake Turbulence ....................................RAC 4.1.1, AIR 2.9
Water
– Operations on ................................................. AIR 2.11
– Operations Over, Life-Saving Equipment...............AIR 2.11.3
Web, Transport Canada Site............................... . GEN 1.1.4
Weather
– ATC Weather Assistance .............................MET 1.3.8
– ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information
Service) ................................................. RAC 1.3, 4.2.1
– Automated Reports – Other............................MET 8.6
– Voice Generator Module (VGM)....................MET 8.6
– Briefing, Flight Planning ................................RAC 3.2
– Charts, Reports ........................................MET 3.2, 3.3
– Codes, significant ...........................................MET 8.3
– Flight Operation Near Thunderstorms ............ AIR 2.7
– Information .....................................................MET 3.0
– Minima Requirements, Alternate
Aerodrome ..................................................RAC 3.14.1
– Minima, VFR................................. RAC 2.7.3, Fig. 2.7
– Observations, Surface.....................................MET 8.0
– Pilot Report (PIREP) .......................................MET 1.1.6, 2.2.1
– Radar ............................................................MET 1.3.9
– Reporting of Cloud Bases ............................ MET 1.1.5
– Reports, Charts ........................................MET 3.2, 3.3
– METAR (Routine Report) .......................MET 3.2, 8.0
– Special Reports (SPECI).................................MET 8.4
– Surface Maps ................................................MET 10.0
– Surface Weather Observing Service ........... RAC 1.1.3
– Symbols, Significant.....................................MET 10.0
– TAF (Aerodrome Forecast) .............................MET 3.9
– Volcanic Ash ...................................MET 2.5, 3.2, 13.0
– Flight Operations in ......................................... AIR 2.6
Weight and Balance Form .......................................RAC 3.5
– Actual Weights............................................. RAC 3.5.1
– Fuel and Oil Weights ................................... RAC 3.5.2
– Passenger Standards .......................................RAC 3.5
Wet Runways ...................................... RAC 4.4.9, AIR 1.6.5
Wheel-Equipped Light Aircraft on Snow-Covered
Surfaces....................................................... AIR 2.12.4
Whiteout .............................................................. AIR 2.12.7
Wind Direction Indicators (Wind Socks) ...............AGA 5.9
Wind
– Pilot Estimate of Surface Wind ......................MET 2.6
– Beaufort Wind Scale .........................MET 2.6, Table 1
Wind Shear ..............................................................MET 2.3
– Low-Level ...................................................... . AIR 2.8
Winter Operations – Aircraft Contamination ...................AIR 2.12.2
World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and ICAO
– Applicable Documents................................. MET 1.1.7
121.5 MHz, Monitoring of
Emergency Frequency..............................................COM 1.4.2
126.7 MHz, Monitoring of .....................................................RAC 5.1
26
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
Presence of substances, including frost, ice and snow, on the
critical surface of an aircraft that can have an adverse impact
5.1 gloSSAry of AeronAuticAl termS on the performance of an aircraft.
(d) forcible intrusion on board an aircraft, at an airport or on An aerodrome for which an airport certificate is in force.
the premises of an aeronautical facility;
airspace classification (see RAC 2.8).
(e) introduction on board an aircraft or at an airport of a weapon
The division of the Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) into
or hazardous device or material intended for criminal
seven classes, each identified by a single letter: A, B, C, D, E,
purposes;
F or G. The application of any classification to an airspace
(f) communication of false information such as to jeopardize structure determines the operating rules, the level of ATC service
the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, of provided within the structure and, in some instances,
passengers, crew, ground personnel or the general public, communications and equipment requirements. The horizontal
at an airport or on the premises of a civil aviation facility. and vertical limits of airspace are described in the Designated
Airspace Handbook (DAH).
aerodrome
Any area of land, water (including the frozen surface thereof) air traffic
or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of
or set apart for use, either in whole or in part, for the arrival, an aerodrome.
departure, movement or servicing of aircraft. This includes any
buildings, installations and equipment situated thereon or air traffic control clearance
associated therewith. An authorization issued by an ATC unit for an aircraft to proceed
within controlled airspace in accordance with the conditions
aerodrome traffic frequency (ATF)
specified by that unit.
A very high frequency (VHF) designated to ensure that all
• also called: air traffic clearance, ATC clearance and
radio-equipped aircraft operating at or in the vicinity of an
clearance
aerodrome, or in a defined area where VFR traffic is high, are
listening on a common frequency and following a common air traffic control instruction
reporting procedure.
A directive issued by an ATC unit for ATC purposes.
afterimage
air traffic control service
A collection of light, dark, or coloured spots, perceived after
exposure to bright light,that may be distracting and disruptive A service provided for the purposes of
and may persist for several minutes. (a) preventing collisions between
• see also: flash blindness, glare (i) aircraft;
(ii) aircraft and obstacles; and
airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) (iii) aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area; and
An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) (b) expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
transponder signals which operates independently of ground- • also called: ATC service
based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential
conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders.
27
TC AIM March 25, 2021
28
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
The point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance. An occurrence in which an aircraft, under the control of the
crew, is flown into terrain, water or an obstacle with no prior
“Cleared for the option” awareness on the part of the crew of the impending disaster.
(a) For an arriving aircraft: An expression used to indicate ATC
authorization for an aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low controlled VFR flight (CVFR)
approach, missed approach (MA), stop-and-go, or full-stop A flight conducted under VFR within Class B airspace and in
landing, at the discretion of the pilot. accordance with an ATC clearance.
(b) For a departing aircraft: An expression used to indicate
control zone (CZ)
ATC authorization for an aircraft to execute manoeuvres
other than a normal takeoff (e.g. an aborted takeoff). After A controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards
such a manoeuvre, the pilot is expected to exit the runway from the surface of the earth up to and including 3 000 ft AAE
by the most expeditious way rather than backtrack the unless otherwise specified.
runway.
critical surface
common frequency area (CFA) Any stabilizing surface of an aircraft, including the wings,
An area that has a designated frequency published for use by control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical
any aircraft. stabilizers and, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted
engines, the upper surface of its fuselage.
NOTE:
A CFA is intended to be used for air-to-air communications to cruise climb
provide pilots with an awareness of traffic in their vicinity. It is A cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as
not a class of airspace and the CFA frequency is not monitored the aircraft mass decreases. A clearance or instruction to carry
by ATC nor is it for use at uncontrolled aerodromes. out a cruise climb allows the pilot the option of climbing at any
given rate, as well as the option of levelling off at any intermediate
composite flight plan altitude.
A flight plan (FP) that specifies VFR operation for one portion
cruising altitude
of flight and IFR for another portion.
The altitude, as shown by a constant altimeter indication in
contact approach relation to a fixed and defined datum, maintained during a flight
An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan (FP), or portion thereof.
having an ATC authorization and operating clear of clouds with
day
at least 1 mi. flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of
continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may The time between the beginning of morning civil twilight and
deviate from the instrument approach procedure (IAP) and the end of evening civil twilight.
proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the • also called: daylight
surface of the earth.
dead reckoning navigation (DR)
continuous descent final approach (CDFA)
The estimating or determining of position by advancing an
A technique, consistent with stabilized approach procedures, earlier known position by the application of direction, time and
for flying the final approach segment of a non-precision speed data.
instrument approach procedure as a continuous descent, without
level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the FAF altitude/ decision altitude (DA)
height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing
A specified altitude in the precision approach or approach with
runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre should
vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated
begin for the type of aircraft flown.
if the required visual reference to continue the approach to land
• also called: constant descent final approach has not been established.
controlled airspace
An airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service
is provided.
29
TC AIM March 25, 2021
30
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
An airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the A temporary disruption in vision caused by a bright light within
surface of the earth within which flight information service (FIS) an individual’s field of vision and lasting only as long as the
and alerting service are provided. light is present within that field of vision.
31
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
Within controlled low-level airspace (LLA), a route extending The altitude above sea level (ASL) specified in the Canada Air
upwards from 2 200 ft above the surface of the earth and for Pilot (CAP) or the route and approach inventory for a non-
which ATC service is provided. precision approach, below which descent shall not be made until
the required visual reference to continue the approach to land
low-visibility operations plan (LVOP) has been established.
A plan that calls for specific procedures established by the
aerodrome operator and/or ATS when aerodrome visibility is minimum en route altitude (MEA)
below RVR 1 200 (¼ SM). The altitude above sea level (ASL) between specified fixes on
airways or air routes that assures acceptable navigational signal
L-routes coverage and that meets the IFR obstacle clearance requirements.
L-routes are low-level uncontrolled fixed RNAV routes depicted
on En Route Low Altitude charts using green dashed lines and NOTE:
require GNSS RNAV systems for use. The MOCA provides This altitude is published on aeronautical charts.
obstacle protection for only 6 NM either side of the track centreline
and does not splay. minimum fuel
An expression used to inform ATC that an aircraft’s fuel supply
mandatory frequencyv (MF) has reached a state that is sufficient to reach destination, provided
A very high frequency (VHF) specified in the Canada Air that unexpected delays are not encountered.
Pilot (CAP), the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or the Canada
Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS) for the use of minimum IFR altitude
radio-equipped aircraft operating within a mandatory The lowest IFR altitude established for use in a specific airspace.
frequency (MF) area. Depending on the airspace concerned, the minimum IFR altitude
may be a minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA), a
manoeuvring area minimum en route altitude (MEA), a minimum sector
The part of an aerodrome, other than an apron, that is intended altitude (MSA), a minimum vectoring altitude (MVA), a safe
to be used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft and for the altitude within a radius of 100 NM, an area minimum
movement of aircraft associated with takeoff and landing. altitude (AMA), a transition altitude or a missed approach altitude.
The minimum IFR altitude provides obstacle clearance but may
MEDEVAC or may not be within controlled airspace.
A term used to request ATS priority handling for a medical
minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA)
evacuation flight based on a medical emergency in the transport
of patients, organ donors, organs or other urgently needed life- The altitude above sea level (ASL) between specified fixes on
saving medical material. airways or air routes that meets the IFR obstacle clearance
requirements for the route segment in question.
NOTE:
This term is used on flight plans (FP) and in radiotelephony NOTE:
communications if a pilot determines that a priority is required This altitude is published on aeronautical charts.
and is suffixed to the aircraft identification.
minimum reception altitude (MRA)
military operations area (MOA) When applied to a specific VHF/UHF intersection, the lowest
An airspace of defined dimensions established to segregate altitude above sea level (ASL) at which acceptable navigational
certain military activities from IFR traffic and to identify, for signal coverage is received to determine the intersection.
VFR traffic, where these activities are conducted.
minimum sector altitude (MSA)
military terminal control area (MTCA) The lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance of
A controlled airspace of defined dimensions normally established 1000 ft, under conditions of standard temperature and pressure
in the vicinity of a military aerodrome and within which special above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of
procedures and exemptions exist for military aircraft. The a circle with a 25 NM radius centred on a radio aid to navigation
terminology (Class B, C, D or E equivalent) used for the or a specified point.
designations of MTCAs describes the equivalent level of service
and operating rules for civilian aircraft operating within the minimum vectoring altitude (MVA)
MTCA and under military control. The lowest altitude for vectoring aircraft by ATC that meets
obstacle clearance and radio coverage requirements in the airspace
specified.
33
TC AIM March 25, 2021
34
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
• also called: obstacle A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated
track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the
pavement classification number (PCN) aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the
Numbers expressing, in ICAO terminology, the bearing strength designated track.
of a pavement for unrestricted operations in a similar fashion
to Transport Canada’s pavement load rating (PLR). procedure turn inbound
The point of a procedure turn manoeuvre where course reversal
path definition error (PDE) has been completed and an aircraft is established inbound on
The difference between desired and defined paths which reflects the intermediate approach or final approach course. A report of
errors in the navigation database, computational errors in the “procedure turn inbound” is normally used by ATC as a position
RNAV system and display errors. PDE is usually very small and report for separation purposes.
often assumed to be negligible.
progressive taxi
performance-based navigation (PBN) Precise taxi instructions given to a pilot unfamiliar with the
Area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft aerodrome or issued in stages as the aircraft proceeds along the
operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach taxi route.
procedure or in a designated airspace.
Q-routes
NOTE: Q-routes are high-level fixed RNAV routes depicted on En Route
Performance requirements are expressed in navigation High Altitude charts using black dashed lines and require an
specifications in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, RNAV system with performance capabilities currently only met
availability and functionality needed for the proposed operation. by GNSS or distance measuring equipment/inertial reference
unit (DME/DME/IRU) systems. DME/DME/IRU navigation
pilot briefing may be limited in some parts of Canada owing to navigational
The provision of, or consultation on, meteorological and facility coverage. In such cases, the routes will be annotated as
aeronautical information to assist pilots in pre-flight planning. “GNSS only” on the chart.
• also called: pre-flight pilot briefing radar identification
precision approach radar (PAR) The process of ascertaining that a particular target is the radar
echo from a specific aircraft.
A high-definition, short-range radar used as an approach aid.
This system provides the controller with altitude, azimuth and “Radar identified”
range information of high accuracy for the purpose of assisting
An expression used by ATC to inform the pilot of an aircraft
the pilot in executing an approach and landing. This form of
when radar identification is established.
navigation assistance is termed “precision radar approach”.
RADAR REQUIRED
pre-departure clearance (PDC)
Annotation used on an instrument approach chart to indicate
An initial IFR clearance delivered electronically via air-ground
that the procedure turn may have been eliminated and that the
data link (AGDL) to airline companies with an on-site computer
initial approach portion of the procedure is being provided by
capable of interfacing with ATC and the data link service provider.
ATC vectors. Without ATC vectoring, the instrument approach
NOTE: procedure (IAP) may not have a published initial approach.
Following initial delivery of the clearance to the air operator,
radial (R)
the latter may subsequently relay the clearance by non-electronic
means to the flight crew if the aircraft is not suitably equipped. A magnetic bearing from a VHF omnidirectional range (VOR),
tactical air navigation aid (TACAN), or VORTAC facility, except
preferential runway for facilities in the Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA), which
may be oriented on true or grid north.
One or more runways designated and published by the airport
operator whose selection directs aircraft away from noise- reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM)
sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach
phases of flight. Designation of preferential runways may be The application of 1 000-ft vertical separation at and above
governed by time restrictions, weather, runway conditions, FL 290 between aircraft approved to operate in reduced vertical
airport layout, aircraft routings or capacity maximization. separation minimum airspace.
35
TC AIM March 25, 2021
runway heading
The magnetic or true direction that corresponds with the runway
centreline rather than the painted runway numbers.
36
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA) (see RAC Figure 2.1) terminal control area (TCA)
GEN
As geographically delineated in the Designated Airspace A controlled airspace of defined dimensions that is normally
Handbook (DAH), all airspace within the Canadian Domestic established in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes and
Airspace (CDA) commencing at the Canada-United States border within which ATC service is provided based on the airspace
and extending northward to the southern limit of the Northern classification.
Domestic Airspace (NDA).
threshold
“Squawk ident” The beginning of the portion of the runway usable for landing.
A request for a pilot to activate the aircraft transponder
identification feature. threshold crossing height (TCH)
The height of the glide path (GP) above the runway threshold.
standard instrument departure (SID)
A preplanned IFR departure procedure requiring ATC clearance total system error (TSE)
and published for pilot/controller use to provide obstacle clearance The difference between true position and desired position. This
and a transition from an aerodrome to the appropriate en route error is equal to the sum of the vectors of the PDE, FTE, and
structure. NSE.
NOTE: touch-and-go
IDs are published in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP) for pilot and
A procedure in which an aircraft lands and then takes off without
controller use. SIDs may be either:
stopping.
(a) pilot navigation SIDs: SIDs where the pilot is required to
use the applicable SID chart as reference for navigation to touchdown zone (TDZ)
the en route phase; or The first 3 000 ft of the runway or the first third of the runway,
(b) vector SIDs: SIDs established where ATC will provide radar whichever is less, measured from the threshold in the direction
navigational guidance to a filed or assigned route, or to a of landing.
fix depicted on the applicable SID chart. Pilots are expected
touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)
to use the SID chart as a reference for navigation until the
vector is commenced. The highest centreline elevation in the touchdown zone.
37
TC AIM March 25, 2021
vector
A heading given by a controller to a pilot on the basis of radar-
derived information to provide navigational guidance.
• also called: radar vectoring
visual approach
An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan (FP),
operating in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) under the
control of ATC and having ATC authorization, may proceed to
the airport of destination.
visual separation
A means used by controllers to separate aircraft operating in
visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
(a) VFR—The controller, having determined that a potential
conflict exists, issues clearances, instructions and/or
information as necessary to aid aircraft in establishing
visual contact with each other or to assist aircraft in avoiding
other aircraft.
(b) IFR or CVFR—Following a pilot’s report that the traffic is
in sight, the controller issues the clearance and instructs the
pilot to provide his or her own separation by manoeuvring
the aircraft as necessary to avoid or follow the traffic.
waypoint (WP)
A specified geographical location, defined by longitude and
latitude, that is used in the definition of routes and terminal
segments and for progress-reporting purposes.
“When ready...”
Authorization for an aircraft to comply with a clearance or
instruction at some point in the future when convenient.
38
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
ATPL ........................................airline transport pilot licence
AAE ............................................. above aerodrome elevation ATS ............................................................ air traffic service
AAIR ................. Annual Airworthiness Information Report AU ........................................................ approach UNICOM
AAS ........................................... aerodrome advisory service AVASI ............... abbreviated visual approach slope indicator
ABAS.............................aircraft-based augmentation system AVGAS ........................................................ aviation gasoline
AC ........................................................... Advisory Circular AVOPS ........................................Aviation Operations Centre
ACA ........................................................ Arctic Control Area AWOS .......................automated weather observation system
ACARS .................. aircraft communications addressing and AWWS .........................................Aviation Weather Web Site
reporting system baro-VNAV.............................barometric vertical navigation
ACAS ........................... airborne collision avoidance system BCST ....................................................................... broadcast
ACC .......................................................... area control centre BOTA........................................ Brest oceanic transition area
A-CDM ................... Airport Collaborative Decision Making BPL ........................................................balloon pilot licence
ACSC ......................... aircraft critical surface contamination BVLOS ........................................ beyond visual line-of-sight
AD ................................................. Airworthiness Directive C .............................................................................Celsius
ADB ............................................. aviation document booklet CADORS ...........................Civil Aviation Daily Occurrence
ADCUS ......................................................“Advise customs” Reporting System
ADF .............................................. automatic direction finder CAE .....................................................control area extension
ADIZ.......................................air defence identification zone CAME................................Civil Aviation Medical Examiner
ADS ................................automatic dependence surveillance CAP .............................................................Canada Air Pilot
ADS-B ........... automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast CARs ................................... Canadian Aviation Regulations
ADS-C ..............automatic dependent surveillance - contract CARAC ... Canadian Aviation Regulation Advisory Council
ADS WPR ........................ automatic dependent surveillance CARC ........................ Civil Aviation Regulatory Committee
waypoint position report(ing) CARS ............................ community aerodrome radio station
AFCGS ................. automatic flight control guidance system CASARA .............. Civil Air Search and Rescue Association
AFCS ....................................automatic flight control system CAT ......................................................... clear air turbulence
AFM .....................................................aircraft flight manual CAT I, II, III ................................................Category I, II, III
AFN ........................ air traffic services facilities notification CAVOK ........................................... ceiling and visibility OK
AFS ...............................................aeronautical fixed service CDA ......................................... Canadian Domestic Airspace
AFTN .....Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network CDA ....................... departure clearance readback (data link)
AGL ..........................................................above ground level CDFA ................................... constant descent final approach
AGN .....................................................aircraft group number CDI .............................................. course deviation indicator
AIC ................................... aeronautical information circular CFA ................................................. common frequency area
AIM ......................... Aeronautical Information Management CFB ..................................................... Canadian Forces base
(NAV CANADA) CFS ............................................. Canada Flight Supplement
AIP ............................Aeronautical Information Publication CFIT .......................................... controlled flight into terrain
AIRAC..................Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control CG ..............................................................centre of gravity
AIREP ..................................................................... air report CLD ........................ departure clearance message (data link)
AIS ....................................aeronautical information service CLDN ..................... Canadian Lightning Detection Network
ALR .......................................................... aircraft load rating CMA ...........................................Central Monitoring Agency
ALSF-2 ............................ approach lighting with sequenced CMAC .................Canadian Meteorological Aviation Centre
flashers–CAT II CMC ...................................Canadian Meteorological Centre
ALT ............................................................................ altitude CMNPS ........... Canadian minimum navigationperformance
ALTRV .................................................... altitude reservation specifications
AM ..................................................... amplitude modulation CMNPSA........ Canadian minimum navigation performance
AMA...................................................area minimum altitude specifications airspace
AME .......................................aircraft maintenance engineer CMU ..............communications management unit (data link)
AMIS ........................aircraft movement information service CNS .....................communications, navigation, surveillance
AMSL ....................................................above mean sea level CNOP.................. Canadian NOTAM Operating Procedures
ANS ...................................................... air navigation system CPDLC ................ controller-pilot data link communications
ANSP ..................................... air navigation service provider C of A ..........................................certificate of airworthiness
AOC .................................................... air operator certificate C of R.............................................. certificate of registration
AOC ............................................Aviation Operations Centre CPL .................................................commercial pilot licence
AOE ................................................................airport of entry C.R.C. .......................... Consolidated Regulations of Canada
AOM ............................................. airport operations manual CRFI ..................................Canadian Runway Friction Index
APAPI ......................... abbreviated precision approach path indicator CTA .......................................................................contol area
APREQ ....................................................................... approval request CTAISB .....Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation
APRT .......................................................................................... airport and Safety Board
APV ................................approach procedure with vertical guidance CVFR............................................................. controlled VFR
ARCAL ........................... aircraft radio control of aerodrome lighting CWAS .......................Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement
ARFF ................................Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting CZ .....................................................................control zone
ARP ..............................................aerodrome reference point DA .............................................................. decision altitude
ASDA................................ accelerate-stop distance available DADS ...................................digital altimeter display system
ASDE .............................airport surface detection equipment DAH................. Designated Airspace Handbook (TP 1820E)
ASL ................................................................ above sea level D-ATIS ........................................................... data link ATIS
ATA ...................................................... actual time of arrival DCL .......................................departure clearance (data link)
ATC .............................................................air traffic control DCPC ........................ direct controller-pilot communications
ATF ...........................................aerodrome traffic frequency DF ............................................................... direction finder
ATFM ........................................air traffic flow management DH ................................................................ decision height
ATIS ........................automatic terminal information service DLM .......................................................... data link mandate
ATM .................................................. air traffic management DME ...................................... distance measuring equipment
39
TC AIM March 25, 2021
40
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MASPS ...................... minimum aircraft system performance OCL .................................................. obstacle clearance limit
GEN
specification OCL .......................................... oceanic clearance (data link)
MAWP ......................................... missed approach waypoint OCS .............................................. obstacle clearance surface
mb ............................................................................millibar ODALS ................omnidirectional approach lighting system
MCDU ........................multipurpose control and display unit ODL ...................................................opposite direction level
MCTOW ..................... maximum certificated takeoff weight ODP ......................................... obstacle departure procedure
MDA ............................................. minimum descent altitude OEP .................................................. oceanic entry/exit point
MEA ............................................ minimum en route altitude OFZ ........................................................... obstacle free zone
MEDEVAC .................................... medical evacuation flight OIDS ........................ operational information display system
MEHT ............................minimum eye height over threshold OKTA .................................................................... one-eighth
MEL .................................................minimum equipment list OLS ..............................................obstacle limitation surface
MEO ........................................................ medium earth orbit OPS ............................................. obstacle protection surface
METAR .................aerodrome routine meteorological report OTS ................................................... organized track system
MF ......................................................mandatory frequency OTT .....................................................................over-the-top
MF .......................................................... medium frequency PAC ............................................................................. Pacific
MFAU ..................................... Military Flight Advisory Unit PAL ............................................................ peripheral station
MHA............................................. minimum holding altitude PAPI ...................................precision approach path indicator
MHz ........................................................................megahertz PAR .................................................precision approach radar
MLAT ..............................................................multilateration PAS .................................................. private advisory station
MLS ............................................. microwave landing system PBN ....................................... performance-based navigation
MM .................................................................middle marker PCN ........................ pavement classification number (ICAO)
MNPS ................minimum navigation performance specifications PDC ................................ pre-departure clearance (data link)
MNPSA ...........................minimum navigation performance PDE ........................................................path definition error
specifications airspace PIC ........................................................... pilot-in-command
MOA .................................................military operations area PIREP ......................................................pilot weather report
MOC ......................................... minimum obstacle clearance PLR .......................................................pavement load rating
MOCA .........................minimum obstacle clearance altitude PN ....................................................... prior notice required
MPa ......................................................................megapascal PPC ....................................................pilot proficiency check
mph ................................................................. miles per hour PPL .........................................................private pilot licence
MRA .......................................... minimum reception altitude PPR ............................................... prior permission required
MRB ........................................... magnetic reference bearing PPS .................................................. present position symbol
MSA.................................................minimum sector altitude PRM ................................................ preferred routes message
MSL ...............................................................Mean Sea Level PRN ....................................................... pseudorandom noise
MTCA ..................................... military terminal control area PSI ................................................... pounds per square inch
MTOW.......................................... maximum take-off weight PSR ............................................. primary surveillance radar
MTSAT ............................. multifunctional transport satellite PSTN .............................. public switched telephone network
MU ...........................................management unit (data link) PT ................................................................ procedure turn
MVA .......................................... minimum vectoring altitude PWS ......................................... predictive wind shear system
MVFR......................................... marginal visual flight rules R ............................................................................... radial
MWO ......................................... meteorological watch office R ...............................................................................radius
N ................................................................................ north RA ......................................................... resolution advisory
NAARMO ............ North American Approvals Registry and RAAS ............................ remote aerodrome advisory service
Monitoring Organization RAIM ..................receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
NACp ......................navigation accuracy category—position RAMO ................................regional aviation medical officer
NADP ......................... noise abatement departure procedure RASS .................................... remote altimeter setting source
NAR .....................................................North American route Rc ..................................................... radius of containment
NASA ........National Aeronautics and Space Administration RCAP ......................................... Restricted Canada Air Pilot
(USA) RCD .......................... departure clearance request (data link)
NAT ................................................................. North Atlantic RCMP ................................. Royal Canadian Mounted Police
NAT HLA ........................ North Atlantic high-level airspace RCO ....................................... remote communications outlet
NATO ............................ North Atlantic Treaty Organization REDL........................................................runway edge lights
NAVAID ...........................................................navigation aid RENL .........................................................runway end lights
NCA ................................................... Northern Control Area RESA ................................................. runway end safety area
NCATS ................ National Civil Air Transportation System RETIL...............................rapid-exit taxiway indicator lights
NDA..........................................Northern Domestic Airspace RF .....................................................................radius to fix
NDB ................................................... non-directional beacon RLOS ......................................................... radio line-of-sight
NIC ..........................................navigation integrity category RMI .................................................radio magnetic indicator
NM ....................................................................nautical mile RNAV .............................................................area navigation
NOHD............................... Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance RNP ................................... required navigation performance
NO PT ........................................................ no procedure turn RNP APCH ....... required navigation performance approach
NORDO ..................................................................... no radio RNP AR APCH................. required navigation performance
NPA ...................................................non-precision approach authorization required approach
NRP .................................... North American Route Program RNPC ............... required navigation performance capability
NSE .................................................. navigation system error RONLY ...............................................................receiver only
NUCp ..................navigation uncertainty category—position RPA ................................................. remotely piloted aircraft
NVIS..........................................night vision imaging system RPAS ...................................remotely piloted aircraft system
NWP ........................................ numerical weather prediction RPP ................................................. recreational pilot permit
OAC .............................................oceanic area control centre RRTU ...................................................radio re-transmit unit
OAT ................................................... outside air temperature RSC ............................................... runway surface condition
OBST ......................................................................... obstacle RTF ............................................... radiotelephony frequency
O/C ..................................................observer-communicator RTIL ...........................runway threshold identification lights
OCA ........................................................oceanic control area
41
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RWYCC ............................................. runway condition code TSE ............................................................ total system error
GEN
RVOP ................................ reduced visibility operations plan TSO ...............................................Technical Standard Order
RVR ....................................................... runway visual range TSR ............................................ terminal surveillance radar
RVSM .........................reduced vertical separation minimum TWR .................................................................. control tower
RWS .............................................reactive wind shear system UAS .............................................. unmanned aircraft system
S ................................................................................south UAV ..................................................... unmanned air vehicle
SA ....................................................... selective availability ULP ..................................................... ultralight pilot permit
SAR ............................................................search and rescue UHF ........................................................ ultrahigh frequency
SATCOM ........................................ satellite communications UNICOM ......................................universal communications
SATVOICE ........................... satellite voice communications USB ................................................................upper sideband
SBAS ............................satellite-based augmentation system UTC .......................................... Coordinated Universal Time
SCA ................................................... Southern Control Area VAA ..................................................... volcanic ash advisory
SCDA ................................. stabilized constant descent angle VAAC ....................................... volcanic ash advisory centre
SDA ..........................................Southern Domestic Airspace VAGS ............................Visual Alignment Guidance System
SELCAL ........................................... selective calling system VAS ................................................. vehicle advisory service
SFOC ..............................special flight operations certificate VASI ..................................... visual approach slope indicator
SID ....................................... standard instrument departure VASIS .......................visual approach slope indicator system
SIF ....................................... selective identification feature (generic term)
SIGMET ...................significant meteorological information VCOA ....................................... visual climb over the airport
SIL ...................................................... source integrity level VCS .................................................... vehicle control service
SLOP................................... strategic lateral offset procedure VDF ......................................................VHF direction finder
SM ......................................................................statute mile VDI .............................................vertical deviation indicator
SNR ........................................................ signal-to-noise ratio VDL ............................................................. VHF digital link
SOPs ...................................... standard operating procedures VDR ............................................................... VHF data radio
SOTA ...................................Shannon oceanic transition area VFR ............................................................visual flight rules
SPECI ....................aerodrome special meteorological report VGSS .......................................... voice generator sub-system
SPEC VIS ....................specified takeoff minimum visibility VHF ........................................................very high frequency
SPI ................................................special position indicator VLF ......................................................... very low frequency
SPP .........................................................student pilot permit VLOS........................................................visual line-of-sight
SSALR .........simplified short approach lighting system with VMC ...................................visual meteorological conditions
runway alignment indicator lights VNAP .............................vertical noise abatement procedure
SSALS ................. simplified short approach lighting system VNAV ....................................................... vertical navigation
SSB ................................................................single sideband VNC..................................................... VFR navigation chart
SSR ......................................... secondary surveillance radar VOLMET......................in-flight meteorological information
STAR ..............................................standard terminal arrival VOR ........................................... VHF omnidirectional range
STOL aircraft ....................short takeoff and landing aircraft VORTAC ......................... combination of VOR and TACAN
SVFR ........................................................ special VFR flight VPA ...........................................................vertical path angle
SVM ....................................................service volume model VTA .................................................VFR terminal area chart
SVN .................................................. satellite vehicle number VTOL aircraft.............. vertical takeoff and landing aircraft
T .................................................................................. true W ....................................................................................west
TA ............................................................... traffic advisory WAAS................................. wide area augmentation system
TAA ........................................................ terminal arrival area WAFC .......................................... world area forecast centre
TAC ..........................................................terminal area chart WAFS ......................................... world area forecast system
TACAN .......................................... tactical air navigation aid WMO ........................... World Meteorological Organization
TAF ......................................................... aerodrome forecast WP ........................................................................ waypoint
TAS ................................................................... true airspeed WPR ...................................... waypoint position report(ing)
TATC ................. Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada WS ..................................................................... wind shear
TAWS........................ terrain awareness and warning system zulu (Z) ....................................Coordinated Universal Time
TC ........................................................... Transport Canada
TC AIM ..........Transport Canada Aeronautical Information NOTES:
Manual
TCCA................................. Transport Canada Civil Aviation 1. The Supplements contain additional abbreviations applicable
TCA ...................................................... terminal control area to aeronautical charts and publications.
TCAS I/II...........traffic alert and collision avoidance system
TCH ................................................threshold crossing height 2. Abbreviations typical of meteorology are contained in
TCU .......................................................terminal control unit MET 14.0.
TDOA .............................................time difference of arrival
TDZ .............................................................. touchdown zone
TDZE ............................................ touchdown zone elevation
TDZL .............................................. touchdown zone lighting
TIBA ...................... traffic information broadcast by aircraft
TLOF .......................................... touchdown and lift-off area
TMI ...........................................track message identification
TOD .................................................................. top of descent
TODA ...........................................take-off distance available
TORA .................................................. take-off run available
TP ........................................ Transport Canada publication
TRA .............................................................. tower radar area
TRB ................................................... true reference bearings
TRP .............................................................. tower radar plan
TSB .........................Transportation Safety Board of Canada
42
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
This index provides a cross-reference between the CARs and
corresponding TC AIM pages where relevant information can
be found. Some administrative or enabling legislation has been
omitted where it has been determined that knowledge of the rule
is not required for aircraft operations.
The CARs section numbers contained throughout the text are
those of the Consolidated Regulations of Canada (CRC),
Chapter 2, as contained in the CARs.
421 Flight Crew Permits, Licences and Ratings LRA 1.1, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.12, 1.14.4
Part V Airworthiness
507 Flight Authority and Certificate of Noise Compliance LRA 5.1, 5.3.1, 5.3.3 , 5.3.4, 5.3.5
43
TC AIM March 25, 2021
CARs TC AIM
GEN
CAR Name
Subpart No. Paragraph No.
601 Airspace RAC 2.8, 2.8.6, 2.9.2
603 Special Flight Operations RAC 1.10, 2.5.2, AIR 4.7.1, 4.8
604 Private Operator Passenger Transportation COM 5.4, 9.2, RAC 9.18, LRA 5.6.1
625 Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standard LRA 5.4.1, 5.4.2, 5.6.2, 5.7.1
Part VIII Air Navigation Services GEN 1.3.1, RAC 2.1, NAT 1.1.2
44
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GEN
from the aviation community, other interested parties and TC.
CARAC’s prime objective of assessing and recommending A special technical committee can be established based on the
potential regulatory changes through cooperative rulemaking results of a preliminary issue and consultation assessment.
activities is accomplished through:
5.4.4.3 Canadian Aviation Regulation Advisory
(a) communicating and seeking industry input on TCCA’s Council (CARAC) Plenary
rulemaking and strategic priorities;
The CARAC plenary provides an open forum for the aviation
(b) identifying critical or contentious issues that indicate a need industry and TC to exchange on the content and execution of
to examine and revise, where necessary, existing regulations, TCCA’s rulemaking and strategic priorities in light of the
policies, standards or procedures to maintain or improve operational and emerging technological needs of the aviation
aviation safety in Canada; industry.
(c) soliciting and identifying aviation industry needs for full
consideration through direct involvement and consultation; 5.4.4.4 Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA)
(d) developing and maintaining administrative tools in order Management Team
to engage the aviation industry at various stages of the The TCCA management team has the responsibility to identify
rulemaking process; and prioritize regulatory issues and to consider, approve and
(e) eliminating, wherever possible, constraints to system safety direct the implementation of recommendations made by CARAC
and allowing for efficiency through regulations and standards focus groups and special technical committees, as applicable.
to reduce complexity and increase the productivity of the
The Director, Standards or the Director, Policy and
overall aviation safety system;
Regulatory Services assesses proposals and supportive
(f) minimizing the regulatory burden where safety is not documentation before they are submitted to a focus group or
compromised; special technical committee. The relevant director appoints the
(g) maximizing, to the extent practicable, the compatibility focus group leader and chairs the special technical committee
of the Canadian regulatory system with that of other meetings. They are responsible for reporting the outcome of a
regulator y authorities (e.g. ICAO standards and focus group or special technical committee meeting to the TCCA
recommended practices, FAA, EASA) where safety or management team. The Director, Policy and Regulatory Services
efficiency benefits can be derived; and is responsible for managing the CARAC process and for ensuring
that the aviation industry representatives are sufficiently diverse
(h) transmitting comprehensive and accurate information to in order to gather a range of views and expertise.
the aviation industry in a timely manner.
5.4.4.5 Secretariat
5.4.4 Organizational Structure
The Secretariat establishes, implements and maintains all systems
CARAC is a joint undertaking of government and the aviation required to allow CARAC to properly function. The Secretariat
community for formal consultations with aviation stakeholders is managed by Policy and Regulatory Services and serves as the
on all aspects of rulemaking activities. The participation of a focal point for consultations on civil aviation regulatory
large number of organizations and individuals is sought to development issues within TC.
represent the overall viewpoint of the aviation community.
Participants include management and labour organizations that
represent air operators, manufacturers, and professional 5.4.5 Project Resources
associations. Apart from the full-time Secretariat, resource support is solicited
from within TCCA and the aviation community, as required.
5.4.4.1 Focus Group Costs incurred by stakeholder organizations participating in a
CARAC focus group, special technical committee or plenary
A focus group reviews technical or safety policy issues; provides are expected to be borne by those organizations. The CARAC
technical expertise; conducts risk assessments; and develops Secretariat will provide, where available, meeting facilities and
possible solutions and recommendations within the scope of a administrative support, such as decision records.
defined terms of reference. Focus group members are comprised
of selected subject matter experts from the industry and TC. A
focus group is established based on the results of a preliminary 5.4.6 Communication
issue and consultation assessment. Comprehensive and timely communications are given top priority.
The appropriate and timely participation of representatives from
5.4.4.2 Special Technical Committee the aviation community and from within TC in the CARAC
process is key to an effective consultation process with the
A special technical committee provides advice and aviation community.
recommendations to TCCA’s management team on regulatory
issues and formal regulatory proposals. A special technical
committee discusses policy objectives and supportive
45
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The CARAC Activity Reporting System, accessible at <http:// To report an aircraft accident, occurrence or incident, contact
GEN
wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/Saf-Sec-Sur/2/NPA-APM/crs.aspx>, provides the AOC 24 hours a day, seven days a week at:
supportive documentation on any given issue that aviation Tel. (toll-free): ............................................ 1-877-992-6853
stakeholders were consulted on. These documents include Tel.: .................................................................613-992-6853
preliminary issue and consultation assessments, notice of Fax (toll-free):............................................. 1-866-993-7768
proposed amendments, focus group reports, decision records Fax: ................................................................. 613-993-7768
and documents presented at the plenary.
<http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/IR-RI/av_i_r.
aspx?lang=eng>.
5.4.7 Information
The information presented in this part is in the process of being
published in greater detail in a revised CARAC Management 7.0 CIVIL AVIATION ISSUES REPORTING
Charter and Procedures. Those interested in becoming CARAC SYSTEM (CAIRS)
members or wishing to obtain more information about CARAC
may contact the CARAC Secretariat by mail, telephone or e-mail As of March 31, 2016, the Civil Aviation Issues Reporting
at: System (CAIRS) is no longer in operation.
Transport Canada (AARBH) The aviation community and the public can report issues, concerns
CARAC Secretariat and hazards to the Civil Aviation Communications Centre.
330 Sparks Street
In an effort to maintain confidentiality, steps have been taken
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
by the communications centre to handle confidential enquiries;
Tel.: ................................................................613-990-1847 however, incoming submissions must be clearly marked, in title
E-mail: .......................................................carrac@tc.gc.ca and body, as confidential.
Please send all enquiries to the Civil Aviation Communications
Centre:
6.0 AVIATION OPERATIONS
Civil Aviation Communications Centre (AARC)
CENTRE (AOC) Transport Canada
Place de Ville, Tower C, 5th floor
330 Sparks Street
6.1 AviAtion oPerAtionS centre (Aoc)— Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
civil AviAtion AcciDent, occurrence AnD
Tel.: ............................................................ 1-800-305-2059
inciDent rePorting Fax: ................................................................613-957-4208
The Aviation Operations Centre (AOC) monitors the national E-mail: ..................................................... services@tc.gc.c
civil air transportation system (NCATS) 24 hours a day, seven
days a week and responds to NCATS emergencies that require
the attention or coordination of concerned functional branches,
including regional offices and other departments or agencies.
The AOC is the initial point of contact for all aviation-related
occurrences. It receives reports on accidents, occurrences and
any incidents that occur within the NCATS from various sources,
including NAV CANADA, airport authorities, Public Safety
Canada, law enforcement agencies, other government departments,
foreign governments, and the general public. These reports are
continuously monitored and then distributed to the appropriate
functional areas of Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA)
for review, trend analysis, investigation (if necessary), and final
inclusion in the Civil Aviation Daily Occurrence Reporting
System (CADORS).
Reports requiring a regional, modal, multi-modal, inter-
departmental, or an outside agency’s attention are immediately
forwarded to that agency for further action. For more information
about the AOC, please see AIP Canada (ICAO) ENR 1.14 available
on the NAV CANADA Web site.
46
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA—AERODROMES are carried out to the extent that is practicable in order to provide
movement surfaces that will permit safe operational use.
Pilots who are confronted with conditions produced by the ever-
changing Canadian climate must be familiar with and anticipate
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION the overall effect of contaminated runways on aircraft handling
characteristics in order to take any corrective actions considered
necessary for flight safety.
1.1 generAl
In general terms, whenever a contaminant, such as water, snow,
All flights into, from, or over the territory of Canada and all or ice, is present on the runway surface, the effective coefficient
flights landing in such territory shall be carried out in accordance
AGA
of friction between the aircraft tire and runway is reduced.
with Canada’s civil aviation regulations. Aircraft arriving into However, the accelerate-stop distance, landing distance, and
or departing from the territory of Canada must first land at an crosswind limitations contained in the AFM are demonstrated
aerodrome at which customs control facilities have been provided. in accordance with specified performance criteria on dry runways
For information about which aerodromes provide customs service, during the aircraft certification flight test program and are thus
see the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or the Canada Water valid only when the runway is dry.
Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS), Section B, “Aerodrome/Facility
Directory.” If the heading CUST (customs) appears in the left- As a result, the stop portion of the accelerate-stop distance will
hand column of an aerodrome table, the aerodrome is an airport increase, the landing distance will increase, and a crosswind
of entry (AOE) with customs service. will present directional control difficulties.
The privileges extended to aircraft are subject to proper It is therefore expected that pilots will take all necessary action,
authorization of each flight and to whatever restrictions the including the application of any appropriate adjustment factor
Government of Canada may, from time to time, or in specific to calculate stopping distances for their aircraft as may be required
cases, deem to be warranted. based on the RSC and CRFI information.
Transport Canada is responsible for the surveillance of all certified Snow removal and ice control policy and procedures at Canadian
civil aerodromes in Canada. Contact information for military aerodromes are similar to those of Canadian civil
Transport Canada’s offices can be found in GEN 1.1.1. aerodromes; however, the military aerodrome operator might
not use the same type of friction measuring equipment to obtain
the average runway friction index.
1.1.2 International Civil Aviation
Organization (ICAO) Documents
1.1.5 Wildlife Hazard
See ICAO Annex 14, Volumes I and II.
Certified airports in Canada are required to have a plan to identify
and control the hazards wildlife (birds and other animals) present
1.1.3 Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) to flight operations. The risk of wildlife strikes may increase
Many airports throughout Canada are equipped with mechanical during spring and autumn migrations; however, airports can be
and electronic decelerometers which are used to obtain an average subject to hazardous wildlife year-round. Pilots should monitor
of the runway friction measurement. The average decelerometer ATIS for information concerning this hazard.
reading of each runway is reported as the CRFI. Experience has For more information on wildlife hazards, migratory birds, and
shown that results obtained from the various types of wildlife-strike reporting, see AIP Canada (ICAO) ENR 5.6.
decelerometers on water, slush, wet snow, and dry snow exceeding
a 1-inch depth are inaccurate, and the CRFI will not be available
when these conditions are present. 1.2 internAtionAl AirPortS
Aerodromes equipped with runway friction decelerometer Some airports are designated “international airport” by
capability are listed in the CFS under RWY DATA. Transport Canada to support international commercial air
transport. See AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 1.2.2.1 for information
Operational data relating to the reported average CRFI and the on international commercial flights.
methods to be used when applying these factors to aircraft
performance are presented in AIR 1.6.
47
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.2.1 International Civil Aviation for the certification of aerodromes as airports, heliports, or water
Organization (ICAO) Definitions airports. Aerodrome users are, however, reminded that the
improvement of aerodrome physical characteristics, visual aids,
International Scheduled Air Transport, Regular Use (RS): An lighting, and markings beyond the basic regulatory requirements
aerodrome which may be listed in the flight plan as an aerodrome for aerodromes stated in CAR 301 is a matter of individual
of intended landing. aerodrome operators’ initiative. Such improvements do not
International Scheduled Air Transport, Alternate Use (AS): An require regulatory compliance, nor are those improvements
aerodrome specified in the flight plan to which a flight may inspected or certified in accordance with the standards and
proceed when it becomes inadvisable to land at the aerodrome recommended practices applicable for the certification of
of intended landing. aerodromes as airports, heliports, or water airports.
AGA
NOTE:
2.0 AERODROMES AND AIRPORTS No aerodrome operator is obliged by these regulations to have
information published in the CFS or CWAS. The Minister may
choose not to publish information for a site that is considered to
2.1 generAl be hazardous to aviation safety.
An aerodrome is defined by the Aeronautics Act as: In addition to the initial inspection during the application for
Any area of land, water (including the frozen surface thereof) registration, other inspections are done on an as-required basis,
or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, once the aerodromes are registered, to verify their compliance
equipped or set apart for use either in whole or in part for with CARs and the accuracy of their information as it is published
the arrival, departure, movement or servicing of aircraft in the CFS or the CWAS. Such information, however, is only
and includes any buildings, installations and equipment published for the convenience of the pilot and should be confirmed
situated thereon or associated therewith. through contact with the aerodrome operator before the pilot
uses a site.
This has a very broad application for Canada where there are
no general restrictions preventing landings or takeoffs. There
are defined exceptions, but, for the most part, all of Canada can 2.1.2 Certification
be an aerodrome. Besides “aerodrome” and “registered aerodrome”, other terms
Rules for operating an aerodrome are provided in Part III of the include “airport”, “heliport”, and “water airport”. These are
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) under Subpart 301. The aerodromes for which a certificate has been issued under
objective is to define the minimum safety standards that must Subpart 302 of the CARs or Subpart 305 for heliports. The
be offered as well as to make provision for inspection by the objective is to protect those, such as the fare-paying public and
Minister. Aerodrome operators are encouraged, in the interest residents in the vicinity of an airport, who do not have the
of aviation safety, efficiency, and convenience, to improve their knowledge or ability to protect themselves and who could thus
aerodromes beyond the basic regulatory requirements using, as be affected by unsafe operations. This is achieved by ensuring
guidelines, the standards and recommended practices applicable sites are inspected periodically for compliance with
48
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Transport Canada standards for obstacle limitation surfaces, 2.3.2 Applicability of Airport Certification
physical characteristics, marking, lighting, maintenance
procedures, emergency response services, etc., which have been The requirement for aerodrome certification applies to:
recorded in the Airport/Heliport Operations Manual. The current (a) any aerodrome that is located within the built-up area of a
information is to be communicated to all interested aircraft city or town;
operators through the CFS, the CAP, NOTAMs, and voice
(b) any land aerodrome that is used by an air operator for the
advisories, as applicable. See AGA 2.3 for more information
purpose of a scheduled service for the transport of passengers;
about aerodrome certification.
and
(c) any other aerodrome, where the Minister is of the opinion
2.2 uSe of AeroDromeS, AirPortS, AnD
AGA
that it is in the public interest for that aerodrome to meet
heliPortS the requirements necessary for the issuance of an airport
certificate because it would further the safe operation of
An aerodrome, airport, or heliport listed in the Canada Flight
the aerodrome.
Supplement (CFS) or the Canada Water Aerodrome
Supplement (CWAS) that does not require prior permission of Exemptions include:
the aerodrome or airport operator for aircraft operations is called (a) military aerodromes; and
a public-use aerodrome, airport, or heliport.
(b) aerodromes for which the Minister has written an exemption
An aerodrome, airport, or heliport that can be listed in the CFS and an equivalent level of safety is defined.
or CWAS but whose use can be limited is called a private-use
aerodrome. This can include:
2.3.3 Transport Canada’s Responsibilities
(a) Prior Permission Required (PPR): The aerodrome operator’s
The responsibilities of Transport Canada include:
permission is required prior to use. All military aerodromes
require PPR for Civilian aircraft. (a) developing safety standards, policies, and criteria for
elements such as, but not limited to:
(b) Prior Notice Required (PN): The aerodrome operator owner
or operator is to be notified prior to use so that current (i) physical characteristics of the manoeuvring area,
information on the aerodrome may be provided. including separations,
(ii) marking and lighting, and
NOTES: (iii) obstacle limitation surfaces in the vicinity of airports,
heliports and water airports;
1. Pilots and aerodrome operators are reminded that trespass
restrictions are not applicable to aircraft in distress. (b) reviewing aeronautical studies where variances from airport
certification safety standards are required;
2. Pilots intending to use a non-certified aerodrome are advised
to obtain current information from the aerodrome operator (c) certifying and inspecting against the requirements and
concerning operating conditions prior to using that aerodrome conditions of the respective operations manuals (for airports,
for aircraft operations. heliports, or water airports); and
(d) verifying, amending, and relaying, as appropriate, pertinent
2.3 AirPort/heliPort/wAter AirPort airport/heliport/water airport information to be identified
in the appropriate AIS publications.
certificAtion
2.3.4 Operator’s Responsibilities
2.3.1 General
The responsibilities of the operator of an airport/heliport/water
Transport Canada is responsible for the regulatory development airport include, but are not limited to:
and compliance oversight in support of a safe national air
transportation system. Therefore, airports supporting commercial (a) complying with the applicable regulations and standards in
operations involving the carrying of passengers must meet Part III of CARs;
accepted safety standards. The airport operator that holds an (b) completing and distributing an approved operations manual;
airport certificate testifies that the aerodrome meets such safety
(c) maintaining the facility in accordance with the requriements
standards. Where variances from airport certification safety
specified in the airport/heliport/water airport operations
standards are required, studies will be undertaken to devise
manual; and
offsetting procedures, which will provide equivalent levels of
safety. (d) advising Transport Canada and aircraft operators whenever
services or facilities fall below requirements prescribed in
the operations manual or differ from the information
published in the aeronautical publications for their aerodrome.
49
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(a) the airport certificate, which certifies that the airport meets
(a) an approved variance from certification standards and a
required standards at the time of issuance; and
change in the conditions of certification are required;
(b) the operations manual, which details the airport specifications,
(b) there is a change in the use or operations of the airport; and
facilities, and services, and specifies the responsibilities of
the operator for the maintenance of airport certification (c) it is requested by the holder of the airport certificate.
standards. The operations manual is a reference for airport
operations and inspections, which ensures that variances
from airport certification safety standards and the resulting
3.0 RUNWAY CHARACTERISTICS
conditions of airport certification are approved.
3.1 runwAy length AnD wiDth
2.3.6 Regulatory References for Aerodrome
Runways are generally dimensioned to accommodate an aircraft
Certification (Airport/Heliport/ considered to be the critical aircraft. Critical aircraft is defined
Water Airport) in the fifth edition of the Transport Canada publication titled
The regulatory authority for airport, heliport, and water Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312)
airport certification is Subpart 302 of the CARs. The regulatory as “the aircraft identified as having the most demanding
authority for heliport certification can be found under Part III operational requirements with respect to the determination of
of the CARs, which includes reference to the respective movement area dimensions, and other aerodrome physical
compliance standards for aerodrome certification. Depending characteristics at the aerodrome or part thereof”. To identify the
on the date on which the certificate was initially issued, some critical aircraft, flight manual performance data of a variety of
aerodrome operators may be complying with previous versions aircraft is examined. Once the critical aircraft has been
of the certification standards. determined, the longest distance determined after analyzing
both take-off and landing performance is used as the basis for
runway dimensions. Generally, the runway width can be increased
2.4 AirPort/heliPort/wAter AirPort by a maximum of 60 m as a function of length.
certificAte
3.2 runwAy StriP
2.4.1 Issue
Each runway is bounded by a runway strip on its sides and ends
A certificate will be issued when an inspection confirms that to protect aircraft that overfly the runway at very low altitudes
all requirements for airport certification have been met, including during a balked approach for landing. This is achieved by
the following: restricting the presence of objects to only those that must be in
(a) where variance from the certification standards exists, proximity of the runway as part of normal operations and by
measures have been implemented to provide for an equivalent prescribing frangibility requirements.
level of safety; and
(b) the operations manual has been approved by the Regional 3.3 runwAy SAfety AreA
Director, Civil Aviation. Each runway is bounded by a prepared area on its sides and
ends, within the dimensions of the runway strip. It is graded to
prevent catastrophic damage to aircraft leaving the runway sides.
50
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
distances. The displacements are also depicted on the aerodrome The Canada Air Pilot (CAP) provides information on declared
or airport diagram in both the CAP and the Canada Flight distances, which are defined in the fifth edition of the Aerodrome
Supplement (CFS). For other runways that do not have approaches Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312) as follows:
published in the CAP, the requisite data is given in the CFS. “The distances that the aerodrome operator declares available
Where a threshold is displaced, it is marked as shown in for aircraft take-off run, take-off distance, accelerate stop
AGA 5.4.1, Figure 5.5. distance, and landing distance requirements. The distances are
When the portion of the runway preceding the threshold is categorized as follows:
marked with arrows (see AGA 5.4.1), it is permissible to use that (a) Take-off run available (TORA): The length of runway
portion of the runway for taxiing, takeoff, and landing roll-out declared available and suitable for the ground run of an
from the opposite direction. When taking off from the end aircraft taking off.
opposite the threshold, pilots should be aware of the fact that
(b) Take-off distance available (TODA): The length of the
there are obstacles present that have penetrated above the approach
takeoff run available plus the length of the clearway, if
slope leading to the physical end of the runway and have resulted
provided.
in the threshold being displaced. In some cases, this may result
in the publication of a specified climb and/or visibility. (c) Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA): The length of
the takeoff run available plus the length of the stopway, if
provided.
3.6 runwAy turn PAD
(d) Landing distance available (LDA): The length of the runway
Some runways have thresholds that are not served directly by available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft
taxiways. In such cases, there may be a runway turn pad, a landing.”
widened area that can be used to facilitate turnaround. Pilots
are cautioned that these pads do not give sufficient clearance
from the runway edge and thus cannot be used for holding while 3.11 rAPiD-exit tAxiwAyS
other aircraft are using the runway. To reduce the aircraft runway occupancy time, some aerodromes
or airports provide rapid-exit taxiways, which are connected to
3.7 BlASt PAD the runway at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.
3.12.1 Pavement Load Rating Charts H1 heliports have no suitable or available emergency landing
areas within 625 m of the FATO. Their use is restricted to multi-
Operators who require information about the aircraft weight engine helicopters capable of remaining 4.5 m above all obstacles
limitations in effect at an aerodrome or airport can contact the within the defined approach/departure pathways when operating
aerodrome or airport operator. in accordance with their AFM with one engine inoperative.
H2 heliports do have suitable and available emergency landing
3.13 heliPortS areas within 625 m of the FATO; however, they may only be
Because of the unique operational characteristics of helicopters, used by multi-engine helicopters because the associated approach
a heliport’s physical characteristics differ significantly from the slopes are higher due to high obstacles within the approach/
AGA
3.13.1 Final Approach and Take-Off Area (FATO) 4.0 OBSTACLE RESTRICTIONS
Obstacle-free arrival and departure paths to and from a FATO
are always required. In some cases, a FATO can be offset from
the intended landing area. In this case, helicopter parking positions 4.1 generAl
are established on an apron area and pilots will hover taxi to The safe and efficient use of an aerodrome, airport, or heliport
transition between the FATO and the parking position. can be seriously compromised by the presence of obstacles
within or close to the take-off or approach areas. The airspace
Figure 3.2—Heliport General Layout in the vicinity of take-off or approach areas, which is to be
maintained free from obstacles so as to facilitate the safe operation
of aircraft, is defined for the purpose of:
(a) regulating aircraft operations where obstacles exist;
(b) removing obstacles; or
(c) preventing the creation of obstacles.
4.2.1 General
An OLS establishes the limit to which objects may project into
the airspace associated with an airport so that aircraft operations
Illustration of a heliport general layout
at the airport may be conducted safely. It includes an approach
3.13.2 Heliport Classification surface, a take-off surface, and a transitional surface.
Non-instrument heliports have three classifications: H1, H2,
and H3.
52
TC AIM March 25, 2021
transitional
runway
PLAN VIEW
in Effect
45 m
A list of airports where airport zoning regulations are in effect
AGA
1st slope 2nd slope
approach surface
inner edge is maintained in the Regional Aerodrome Safety office and
PROFILE VIEW 3D VIEW
online on the Aeronautics Act page of the Department of Justice
Web site, under the heading “Regulations made under this Act”.
4.2.2 Heliports
Heliports are normally served by two approach and departure 5.0 MARKERS, MARKINGS, SIGNS,
paths. In some instances, they only have one approach and AND INDICATORS
departure path and will then require a transitional surface.
4.3.1 General 90 m
accessibility, usability, and viability by: conical type marker (runway edge)
(c) preventing lands adjacent to or in the vicinity of facilities side view front view
used to provide services relating to aeronautics from being gable type marker
53
TC AIM March 25, 2021
fluorescent orange
900 m
750 m
600 m
400 m
450 m
LDA: 1500 m up to but not including 2400 m
300 m
150 m
54
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
6m NOTE: Formula to be used
1.8 m
15 m min
7.5 m ≤ a ≤ 15 m a a a
a a
50 m min
75 m max
ARROW DETAIL
chevrons when its length exceeds 60 m. This area is not available
L2 10 m
for taxiing, the initial take-off roll, or the landing rollout. The
85 cm
chevron markings may also be used on blast pads.
3m
OR
30 m min
3 lines
15 cm
wide at 10 m
35 cm THRESHOLD MARKINGS
centres
3m
PERMANENT TEMPORARY
Distance between thresholds/declared LDA Loca tion of TDZ markings distance Location of aiming point Pairs of TDZ
from threshold (m) marking distance from markings
threshold (m)
less than 900 m 0 150 0
900 m up to but not including 1 200 m 150 250 1
1 200 m up to but not including 1 500 m 150 and 450 300 2
1 500 m up to but not including 2 400 m 150, 450 and 600 300 3
2 400 m or more 150, 300, 600, 750 and 900 400 5
55
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Threshold markings
TORA
LDA
LDA
Threshold bar Supplemental runway holding
1.8 m position marking
1.8 m
Demarcation
bar 5.5 heliPortS
½D
0.9 m
Runway
centreline
½D
15 - 30 m 5.5.1 Heliport Touchdown and Lift-Off
Area (TLOF) Marking
D
45° 45°
15 - 30 m When the perimeter of the TLOF is not otherwise obvious, it
will be marked by a solid white line.
PRE-THRESHOLD AREA
PRE-THRESHOLD AREA
(Eg. Stopway or Blast pad)
15 - 30 m
0.9 m 7.5 m
5.5.2 Safety Area Markers
max
½D
5.5.3 Heliport Identification Markings
1.5 m max
Heliports are identified by a white capital letter “H” centred
Note: For information on marking tolerances, refer to the respective standards. within the TLOF. Where it is necessary to enhance the visibility
5.4.3 Runway Holding Position Markings of the letter “H”, it may be centred within a dashed triangle.
Runway holding position markings are provided near all runway/ Hospital heliports are identified by a red capital letter “H” centred
taxiway intersections and runway/runway intersections to protect within a white cross.
the operational environment of the runway in use. They may The letter “H” will be oriented with magnetic north, except in
also be established at other locations to protect the arrival and the area of compass unreliability, where it will be oriented with
departure flight paths to a runway. true north.
The standard runway holding position marking consists of two
solid and two dashed lines as depicted in Figure 5.7. Figure 5.8—Heliport Identification Markings
Some airports may have multiple runway holding position Maximum allowable
NORTH
markings on a given taxiway. These additional markings are mass indicator
(x 1 000 lbs.)
5.5.5 Helicopter Parking Position Markings For helicopter FATOs, the “X” is white in colour. For other
helicopter areas such as helicopter parking positions, the “X”
Helicopter parking position markings consist of two concentric is yellow in colour.
yellow circles. The diameter of the outer circle shall not be less
than 1.2 times the overall length of the longest helicopter for Figure 5.11—Closed Markings
which the helicopter parking position is certified. The diameter
of the inner circle is one-third of the size of the outer circle. An
“H” marking will be centred within the inner circle. 300 m
max.
AGA
taxiway
Indicator Markings A lighted “X” may also be used within 75 m of the threshold to
There may be heliports where, due to nearby obstacles or noise- mark a temporary full-length closure of a runway.
sensitive areas, approach and take-off directions are designated.
The direction of the approach and take-off paths is indicated by Figure 5.12—Lighted “X” Marking a
a double-headed arrow, showing their inbound and outbound Temporary Full-Length Runway Closure
directions. The arrows are located beyond the edge of the safety
area or on the aiming point marking.
1.8 m
0.60 m
Approach / Take-off
path centre line
2m
1/2 L
57
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.8 AirSiDe SignS (d) Destination Signs: A destination sign has a black inscription
on a yellow background and is used to provide general
guidance to points on the airfield. These signs will always
5.8.1 General contain arrows. The use of destination signs will be kept to
The primary purpose of airside signs is to ensure the safe and a minimum. Airports with a good direction sign layout will
expeditious movement of aircraft on the aprons, taxiways, and have little need for destination signs.
runways by providing direction and information to pilots. (e) Other Information Signs: Other information signs have a
The two main categories of airside signs are information signs black inscription on a yellow background and include
and mandatory instruction signs, differentiated by using black/ information such as stand identification, parking areas and
AGA
sign.
The only exception to this rule is for a simple “T” intersection,
where the information sign is located on the opposite side LEGEND Yellow Black Notes:
(1) Colour display is for internally illuminated signs. Refer to Figure 5-59 for
colour display of pixel [fibre-optic] signs.
(the top of the “T”) of the intersection, facing the taxiway. (2) Arrows are orientated in increments of 22.5 degrees.
58
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
been established for the protection of approach or departure
painted sign marking is provided on the taxiway or runway.
paths. The airport configuration may be such that these
(a) Runway Designation Sign: A runway designation sign is holding positions are located on runways or taxiways.
installed at all taxiway/runway and runway/runway
intersections at certified aerodromes. A runway designation Figure 5.16—Mandatory Instruction Signs
sign is used for runways certified for VFR, IFR non- Indicates a runway-holding position at a runway extremity.
Runway designation
precision, and take-off operations. The sign, when installed of a runway
extremity
Note: For single runway designators, the width of the sign is
increased to make the red background more conspicuous.
at the runway end, shows the designator of the departure
runway. Runway designation
of both extremities
Indicates runway-holding position located at other than a
runway extremity. A runway holding position sign at a
Signs installed at locations other than the runway ends shall of a runway runway/runway intersection does not include a location sign.
show the designator for both runways. A location sign is Indicates a runway holding position at
positioned in the outboard position beside the runway runway/runway/taxiway, or
runway/runway/runway intersection.
designator.
ILS Indicates a Category I runway-holding position at
In the following examples, “A” shows that an aircraft is Category I hold
position
the threshold of a runway (e.g. rwy25).
is to the left and Runway 16 to the right. ILS Indicates a Category III runway-holding
Category III hold position at the threshold of a runway
position
Figure 5.14—Examples of Runway Designation Signs
(e.g. rwy25).
59
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.9 winD Direction inDicAtorS (c) any object greater than 90 m AGL within 3.7 km of the
imaginary centreline of a recognized visual flight rules (VFR)
At aerodromes that do not have prepared runways, the wind route, including but not limited to a valley, a railroad, a
direction indicator is usually mounted on or near some conspicuous transmission line, a pipeline, a river, or a highway;
building or in the vicinity of the general aircraft parking area.
(d) any permanent catenary wire crossing where any portion
Runways greater than 1 200 m in length will have a wind direction of the wires or supporting structures exceeds 90 m AGL;
indicator for each end of the runway. It will be typically located
(e) any object greater than 150 m AGL; and
adjacent to the touchdown zone, 60 m outward from the edge of
the runway, and clear of the obstacle-free zone. (f) any other object, other than the above, deemed by the
Minister to represent a likely hazard to aviation safety, in
AGA
6.1 generAl
Where an object, regardless of its height, has been assessed as roof or a portion of may be
solid orange where the
6.2 regulAtionS
Sections 601.23 – 601.27 of the Canadian Aviation
Regulations (CARs) provide regulations regarding marking and
lighting of obstacles to air navigation. The following objects are
marked and/or lighted in accordance with the standards specified
in CAR Standard 621:
(a) any object penetrating an airport obstacle limitation
surface (OLS) as specified in Chapter 4 of Aerodrome
Standards and Recommended Practices (TP 312);
(b) any object greater than 90 m above ground level (AGL)
within 6 km of the geographical centre of an aerodrome;
60
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
in height
the acquisition distance is 2.4 km.
A variety of lighting systems are used on obstructions. Table 6.1
indicates the characteristics of light units according to their
name or designation. Although these designations are similar
to those of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), the
photometric characteristics (intensity distribution) are not
necessarily the same.
CL-810 lights are used primarily for night protection on smaller
structures and for intermediate lighting on antennas of more
than 45 m.
CL-856 lights are used primarily for high structures and day
protection on towers where marking may be omitted. A A' A' B C D E
dual
F configuration
dual
The rotating type CL-865 also has the same 20 000 candela
intensity for nighttime as for daytime operation. The absence
of dimming is allowed for two reasons: (1) the specified intensities
are minimum requirements; and (2) the rotating characteristic
does not produce glare for the pilot.
61
TC AIM March 25, 2021
order to display a “fly up” signal to the pilot. The middle light
may be removed in the case of narrow power line sags; in this
case the bottom lights will flash first then the top lights will
flash in order to display a “fly up” signal to the pilot. When
deemed appropriate by an aeronautical study, medium-intensity
white flashing omnidirectional lighting systems may be used
62
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
(see AGA 7.19). This alternative for night marking of runways,
on the very high frequency (VHF) radio. The lighting does not however, is not approved for certified sites.
turn on until it is needed by the detected aircraft. Since the
system uses radar, its operation is independent of any equipment
on board the aircraft (e.g. a transponder). 7.4 unServiceABle AreA lighting
The obstacle lighting is turned on and the audio warning is Unserviceable areas within the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome
emitted approximately 30 s before the aircraft reaches the obstacle. being used at night are marked by steady burning red lights
In the case of catenaries, the audio warning will state “POWER outlining the perimeter of the unserviceable area(s). Where it is
LINE, POWER LINE”. For other types of obstructions, a different considered necessary in the interest of safety, one or more flashing
message will be sent. In some cases, such as those involving red lights may be used in addition to the steady red lights.
wind farms near aerodromes, an audio signal might not be
provided, in order to avoid confusing pilots making an approach
to landing. 7.5 APProAch lighting
Any questions or comments may be directed to the The approach lighting systems depicted in the Canada Flight
Transport Canada Flight Standards office in Ottawa Supplement (CFS) include the following:
(see GEN 1.1.1 for contact information).
7.5.1 Non-Precision Approach Runways
7.0 AERODROME LIGHTING (a) Low Intensity Approach Lighting System (LIAL): This system
is provided on non-precision approach runways and consists
of aviation yellow fixed-intensity twin light units spaced
7.1 generAl at 60-metre intervals commencing 60 m from the threshold
and extending back for a total distance of 900 m (terrain
The lighting facilities available at an aerodrome or airport are
permitting).
described in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS). Information
concerning an aerodrome or airport’s night lighting procedures Figure 7.1—LIAL
is included as part of the description of lighting facilities, where
routine night lighting procedures are in effect. Where night LIAL
lighting procedures are not published for an aerodrome or airport,
900 m
pilots should contact the aerodrome operator concerned and
runway
request that the appropriate lights be turned on to facilitate their 60 m
intended night operations. dual fixtures
63
TC AIM March 25, 2021
runway
See Figure 7.4 for the layout.
90 m (b) Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashers—CAT II
flashing lights
(ALSF-2): This system consists of rows of five white variable-
intensity light units placed at longitudinal intervals of 30 m
(c) Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System (MALS) or commencing 30 m from the threshold and extending for a
AGA
Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with Sequenced total distance of 720 m. In view of the very low decision
Flashing Lights (MALSF): This system consists of seven height associated with CAT II operations, the following
barrettes of variable-intensity lights spaced 60 m apart, additional lights are provided:
commencing 60 m from the threshold, over a distance of (i) runway threshold (green)
420 m. In a MALSF, the three barrettes farthest away from (ii) 150 m distance bar (white with red barrettes)
the threshold contain a sequenced flashing light unit. These (iii) side barrettes (red)
lights flash sequentially towards the threshold, repeating
at two cycles per second. Figure 7.5—ALSF-2
Figure 7.3—MALSF
ALSF-2
720 m
MALSF
runway
420 m
runway
64
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Pilots and/or air operators should ensure that the VASIS type Figure 7.6—VASI and AVASI Display
to be used is appropriate to the given aircraft type, based on the
EWH for that aircraft. If this information is not already available
in the AFM or other authoritative aircraft manuals (e.g. the flight VASI (V1, V2) AVASI (AV)
crew operating manual), the aircraft manufacturer should be
contacted. ABOVE
APPROACH
CAUTION: SLOPE
Incompatibility between the EWH and the VASIS type could
ON
result in decreased terrain clearance margins and in some cases, UPWIND BAR
APPROACH
DOWNWIND BAR
AGA
even premature contact with terrain (e.g. a CFIT accident). SLOPE
The Canadian civil aviation standard for VASIS is the PAPI. BELOW
APPROACH
Some airports still have the older systems of VASI. The VASI SLOPE
and PAPI light units have the same purpose of descent indication
with respect to an approach corridor but are arranged in a different
pattern, as shown below.
7.6.3 Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
The VASI and PAPI have lights normally situated on the left and Abbreviated PAPI (APAPI)
side of the runway only. When available strip widths preclude
PAPI consists of four light units typically situated on the left
the use of a full system, an abbreviated approach slope indicator,
side of the runway in the form of a wing bar. When the pilot is:
AV or AP, consisting of only two light units, may be installed.
(a) well above the approach slope, all four units show white.
Where a PAPI or VASI is provided on a precision approach
runway and has not been harmonized with a vertical guidance (b) slightly above the approach slope, the one unit nearest the
signal, it will be turned off in weather conditions involving a runway edge shows red and the other three show white.
ceiling of less than 500 ft (150 m) and/or visibility less than (c) on or close to the approach slope, the two units nearest the
1 mi., unless specifically requested by the pilot. This is to avoid runway edge show red and the two units farthest from the
possible contradiction between the electronic precision approach runway edge show white.
vertical guidance and visual (VASI/PAPI) glide slope signal.
(d) slightly below the approach slope, the three units nearest
the runway edge show red and the other shows white.
7.6.2 Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) V1
and V2 and Abbreviated VASI (AVASI) AV (e) well below the approach slope, all four units show red.
The VASI (V1 and V2) consists of four light units situated on APAPI consists of two light units situated on the left side of the
the left side of the runway in the form of a pair of wing bars runway in the form of a wing bar. When the pilot is:
(two light units per wing bar), referred to as the upwind and (a) above the approach slope, both units show white.
downwind wing bars. Each light unit of a wing bar projects a
(b) on or close to the approach slope, the unit nearer to the
beam of light. The upper part of the beam shows white while
runway edge shows red and the unit farther from the runway
the lower part shows red. When the pilot is:
edge shows white.
(a) above the approach slope, both upwind and downwind bars
(c) below the approach slope, all units show red.
show white.
(b) on the approach slope, the upwind bar shows red and the Figure 7.7—PAPI and APAPI Display
downwind bar shows white.
PAPI (P1, P2, P3) APAPI (AP)
(c) below the approach slope, both upwind and downwind bars
show red. TOO
HIGH
(d) well below the approach slope, the lights of the two wing
bars merge into one red signal.
SLIGHTLY
The AVASI (AV) consists of two light units situated on the left HIGH
side of the runway in the form of a pair of wing bars (one light
unit per wing bar). The display is similar to that of a VASI and ON CORRECT
depends on the position of the pilot’s eyes. APPROACH PATH
SLIGHTLY LOW
TOO LOW
65
TC AIM March 25, 2021
PAPI/APAPI is first turned on. Since the mixture may be Category System Aircraft height group EWH
interpreted as a fly-down signal, the pilot should be aware of in the approach configuration
other cues (e.g. the runway perspective) so as to avoid descent
AP APAPI 0 ft (0 m) ≤ EWH < 10 ft (3 m)
below the OPS. When the PAPI/APAPI provides a true signal,
it should display a crisp transition from white to red as the aircraft P1 PAPI 0 ft (0 m) ≤ EWH < 10 ft (3 m)
descends through the sectors. If contamination is suspected, P2 PAPI 10 ft (3 m) ≤ EWH < 25 ft (7.5 m)
flight crews are advised to disregard the PAPI/APAPI display. P3 PAPI 25 ft (7.5 m) ≤ EWH < 45 ft (14 m)
The aircraft position with respect to the PAPI display is shown
7.6.4 Categories According to Eye-To-Wheel in Figure 7.8. The approach corridor is defined by the setting
Height (EWH) in the Approach angles of light units C and B. The MEHT is defined by the angle
Configuration M, which is 2 min of arc below the angle B. This accounts for
the pilot’s difficulty in discerning when the transition from white
7.6.4.1 General to full red has occurred. The available MEHT is the sum of the
EWH in the approach configuration and the prescribed wheel
VASIS are categorized according to the EWH in the approach clearance. The distance D for the location of the PAPI from the
configuration, as shown in Tables 7.1 and 7.2 below. Where a threshold is calculated using the tangent of the angle M. In other
VASIS is given for a published category, it is intended to be words, D = MEHT/tan(M). For more information about wheel
useable by all aircraft within the stated EWH group unless clearance, see Aerodromes Standards and Recommended
otherwise stated. Practices (TP 312).
NOTE: Figure 7.8—PAPI: Pilot Eye Path to Wheel Path
The EWH is the vertical distance in-flight of the eye path to the
wheel path, as shown in Figure 7.8, and is determined by the C M = B - 2'
approach slope angle and the pitch angle for the maximum ido
r B
orr
certified landing weight at Vref. This should not be confused with A B C D
pp
roac
hc
a
the horizontal and vertical dimensions as may be measured when eye path
MEHT EWH
Categories
PAPI
threshold
The VASI installations are designed according to aircraft height D
group categories AV, V1, and V2, as indicated in Table 7.1. The
greater the value of the EWH in the approach configuration, the 7.6.5 Knowing the Eye-to-Wheel Height (EWH)
farther the VASI is installed upwind from the threshold to provide For a particular category of PAPI and aircraft group, there is an
the appropriate MEHT. available wheel clearance. This is why knowing the EWH in the
approach configuration is important. For example, if your aircraft
Table 7.1—VASI Categories belongs in the aircraft height group for a P3 PAPI, using a P2
Category System Aircraft height group EWH PAPI means having much less wheel clearance at threshold
in the approach configuration crossing. Figure 7.8 also shows why flying below the approach
corridor (with the lights showing three red and one white) is not
AV AVASI 0 ft (0 m) ≤ EWH < 10 ft (3 m) recommended.
V1 VASI 0 ft (0 m) ≤ EWH < 10 ft (3 m)
V2 VASI 10 ft (3 m) ≤ EWH < 25 ft (7.5 m)
66
TC AIM March 25, 2021
7.6.6 Obstacle Protection Surface (OPS) 7.7.2 Visual Alignment Guidance System (VAGS)
For certified aerodromes, the installation of a PAPI or an APAPI The VAGS consists of two lights similar to RTILs. However, by
requires the establishment of an obstacle protection surface (OPS). means of light beam rotation, the pilot is presented with a
The OPS provides a buffer below unit angle A, which, for PAPI, sequenced display, as shown in Figure 7.10 below. The display
is the transition from one white light and three red lights to four directs the pilot towards the runway/helipad axis, where he or
red lights, and for APAPI, is the transition from one white light she then sees the lights flash simultaneously.
and one red light to two red lights, as shown in Figure 7.9. Objects
do not penetrate the OPS. Where an object or terrain protrudes Figure 7.10—VAGS
above the OPS and beyond the length of the approach OLS, one
of a number of possible measures may be taken such as raising
AGA
AIRCRAFT
the approach slope, moving the PAPI further upwind of the LEFT OF AXIS
The PAPI signal is not to be used until the aircraft is within that
specified distance. For more information about OPS dimensions, SIMULTANEOUS FLASHES
A
2 1
OPS inner edge
Divergence
D
C
B
PAPI
A A runway on an aerodrome that is used at night shall display
Plan View
PAPI
Display
APAPI
two parallel lines of fixed white lights visible for at least 2 mi.
slo
pe to mark take-off and landing areas. These lights are arranged
h
oac
Ap
pr
Unit
Aa
ngle so that:
(a) the lines of lights or markers are parallel and of equal length
and the transverse distance between the lines is equal to
OPS
the runway width in use during the day;
PAPI
Threshold
(b) the distance between adjacent lights or markers in each line
is the same and is not more than 60 m (200 ft);
(c) each line of lights or markers is not less than 420 m (1 377 ft)
7.7 runwAy iDentificAtion lighting in length and contains no fewer than eight lights or markers;
and
7.7.1 Runway Threshold Identification (d) each light or marker in a line of lights or markers is situated
Lights (RTIL) opposite to a light or marker in the line of lights or markers
These are provided at aerodromes where terrain precludes the on the other side of the runway, so that a line connecting
installation of approach lights, or where unrelated non-aeronautical them forms a right angle to the centreline of the runway.
lights or the lack of daytime contrast reduces the effects of For a certified aerodrome, runway lighting may include centreline
approach lights. When an aerodrome is equipped with RTILs, and touchdown zone lighting depending on runway visibility
it is indicated in the CFS by the notation “AS”. and approach category.
67
TC AIM March 25, 2021
7.8.2 Runway Threshold Lights and Runway End 7.8.3 Displaced Threshold Lighting
Lights (RENL) Where runway thresholds have been displaced from the beginning
Runway threshold/end indication is provided by green and red of the runway, the runway threshold lights and the approach
light units respectively, in the form of a pair of bars along the threshold bar are displaced accordingly, using inset lights for
threshold on each side of the runway centreline, where there is approach threshold bars and wing bar lights for runway threshold
an ODALS or where no approach lighting is provided. Red shows lights, as follows:
in the direction of takeoff and green shows in the approach
direction. Figure 7.12—Displaced Threshold Lighting
Where approach lighting other than ODALS is provided, an
AGA
approach threshold bar that extends across the full width of the
runway forms part of the approach lighting configuration.
runway > 1 200 m with displacement
Figure 7.11 shows the different configurations of such lights.
RENL are always provided. Runway threshold lights are
independent from approach threshold bar lights and are only lit
if the approach threshold bar is not lit.
With ODALS or no approach lighting
Where MALSR, MALSF or MALS is provided, the green
threshold lighting is physically separated from the approach
threshold bar due to difference in light intensities and circuitry.
Where SSALR or SSALS is provided, the runway threshold
lights form part of the approach threshold bar configuration runway with inset approach lighting and displacement
Runway
7.8.4 Runway Centreline Lighting
With ODALS or no approach lighting
Runway centreline lighting is provided on CAT II and CAT III
RWY THLD Lights RWY End Lights
runways. It consists of lights installed on the runway surface
(Green) (Red)
spaced at intervals of 15 m. The lights leading in the take-off
Runway or landing direction are variable white from the threshold to
900 m from the runway end; alternate red and variable white
With MALSR, MALS, MALSF approach lighting from 900 m to 300 m from the runway end; and red from 300 m
to the end of the runway.
Approach THLD Bar Runway
(Green)
Runway
68
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
7.10.3 Stop Bars
runway edge lights - yellow/white
600 m runway edge lights - white A stop bar is provided at every runway-holding position serving
a runway intended to be used in visibility conditions below
RVR 1200 (¼ SM). Stop bars are located across the taxiway at
In-pavement approach lighting
touchdown zone lights - white
900 m
the desired stopping point for traffic and consist of lights spaced
approach threshold lights - green
runway edge lights - yellow/white
at intervals of 3 m across the taxiway. They show red in the
runway centreline lights - white 600 m
intended direction of approach to the intersection or runway-
holding position.
600 m 300 m
Where the stop bar is co-located with taxiway centreline lighting,
a 90-m segment of the taxiway centreline lighting beyond the
alternating red/white centreline lights red centreline lights
900 m
imminence of runway end warning
90 m
RETIL
RETILs
2m 2 m lateral
2m spacing stopbar
2m
direction of light output
on off on
runway centerline
69
TC AIM March 25, 2021
aircraft taxiing to the holding position, but their configuration 7.12.2 Final Approach and Take-Off (FATO)
may vary: Lighting
(a) They can consist of a series of lights spaced at intervals of A FATO perimeter is marked by white or green lights in the
3 m across the taxiway. Where this is the case, the adjacent same configuration as TLOF perimeter lighting (see AGA 7.12.1).
lights illuminate alternately and even lights illuminate Where a TLOF is not located within a FATO, the aiming point
alternately with odd lights. will be defined by at least seven red aeronautical ground lights
(b) They can consist of two pairs of lights, one on each side of located on the triangular marking.
the taxiway adjacent to the hold line. Where this is the case, FATO or TLOF perimeter lights may be LEDs. Consult the CFS
the lights in each unit illuminate alternately. for verification of lighting type.
AGA
each corner.
Inset lights to be used
(b) Floodlighting: When provided, the floodlighting will Luminescent panels
(lights may be installed when installed on
illuminate the TLOF such that the perimeter marking of as an alternative) dashed form of aiming
point marking
the TLOF is visible. Floodlight units will be located beyond
the perimeter of the FATO.
NOTE:
Perimeter lighting or reflective tape may be used in addition to
floodlighting.
TLOF
edge marking 7.12.3 Approach/Take-Off Direction Lights
At some heliports, where it is necessary to follow preferred
approach and take-off paths to avoid obstructions or noise-
sensitive areas, the direction of the preferred approach and
take-off routes will be indicated by a row of five yellow fixed
Circular TLOF 5m
5m
maximum Inset lights minimum 8 lights maximum omnidirectional lights outside the FATO.
Luminescent
panel lights Approach/Take-Off
5m direction lights
maximum 5m TLOF FATO length minimum
maximum
FATO
70
TC AIM March 25, 2021
7.13 emergency lighting The approved standard for retroreflective markers requires that
they be capable of reflecting the aircraft landing lights so that
Airports with Category (CAT) I, II, and III precision approaches they are visible from a distance of 2 NM. Pilots are cautioned
in Canada are equipped with a secondary power system for that the reflective capabilities of retroreflective markers are
visual aids lighting. This system is normally capable of assuming greatly affected by the condition of the aircraft landing lights,
the electrical load within approximately 15 s for CAT I operations, the prevailing visibility, and other obscuring weather phenomena.
and within 1 s for CAT II and III operations. Therefore, as part of pre-flight planning to an aerodrome that
uses retroreflective markers, pilots should exercise extra caution
7.14 AircrAft rADio control of AeroDrome in checking the serviceability of their aircraft landing lights and
making provision for an alternate airport with lighting in case
lighting (ArcAl)
AGA
of an aircraft landing light failure.
Aircraft radio control of aerodrome lighting (ARCAL) systems
are becoming more prevalent as a means of conserving energy, 8.0 AIRCRAFT RESCUE AND FIRE
especially at aerodromes not staffed on a continuous basis or at
which it is not practicable to install a land line to a nearby flight FIGHTING (ARFF)
service station (FSS). Aside from obstacle lights, some or all of
the aerodrome lighting may be radio-controlled.
8.1 generAl
Control of the lights should be possible when aircraft are within
15 NM of the aerodrome. The frequency range is 118 to 136 MHz. Aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) service is provided at
some airports in accordance with the criteria stated in Canadian
The system is activated via the aircraft very high frequency (VHF) Aviation Regulation (CAR) 303. The primary responsibility of
transmitter and by pressing the push-to-talk button on the an ARFF service is to provide a fire-free egress route for the
microphone a given number of times within a specified number evacuation of passengers and crew following an aircraft accident.
of seconds. Each activation will start a timer to illuminate the
lights for a period of approximately 15 min. The timing cycle may
be restarted at any time by repeating the specified keying sequence. 8.2 AircrAft reScue AnD fire fighting (Arff)
It should be noted that ARCAL Type K runway threshold hourS of AvAilABility
identification lights (RTIL) (code AS) can be turned off by keying
the microphone three times on the appropriate frequency. The Aerodromes or airports that provide aircraft rescue and
code for the intensity and the lighting period varies for each firefighting (ARFF) publish the hours during which an ARFF
installation. Consequently, the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) service is operated in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS)
must be consulted for each installation. under the ARFF annotation. If there are no published hours next
to the ARFF critical category number, this means 24-hour service
NOTE: is offered.
Pilots are advised to key the activating sequence when beginning
their approach, even if the aerodrome or airport lighting is on.
This will restart the timing cycle so that the full 15-min cycle
8.3 clASSificAtion SyStem
is available for their approach. Table 8.1 identifies the critical category for firefighting as it
relates to the aircraft size, the quantities of water and
complementary extinguishing agents, the minimum number of
7.15 retroreflective mArkerS aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) vehicles, and the total
discharge capacity. For ease of interpretation, the table is a
Some aerodromes may use retroreflective markers in place of
combination of the two tables found under Canadian Aviation
lights to mark the edges of runways or helipads. These
Regulation (CAR) 303.
retroreflective markers are approved for use on runways at
registered aerodromes only; however, they may be used as a
substitute for edge lighting on taxiways or apron areas at some
certified airports.
Retroreflective markers are to be positioned in the same manner
as runway lighting described earlier in this chapter. Therefore,
when the aircraft is lined up on final approach, retroreflective
markers will provide the pilot with the same visual representation
given by normal runway lighting. A fixed white light or strobe
light shall be installed at each end of the runway to assist pilots
in locating the aerodrome and aligning the aircraft with the
runway. Similarly, retroreflective markers at heliports are to be
positioned in the same pattern that is prescribed for helipad edge
lighting.
71
TC AIM March 25, 2021
at least 12 m but
3 3 1 200 135 1 900
less than 18 m
at least 18 m but
4 4 2 400 135 1 1 800
less than 24 m
at least 24 m but
5 4 5 400 180 1 3 000
less than 28 m
at least 28 m but
6 5 7 900 225 2 4 000
less than 39 m
at least 39 m but
7 5 12 100 225 2 5 300
less than 49 m
at least 49 m but
8 7 18 200 450 3 7 200
less than 61 m
at least 61 m but
9 7 24 300 450 3 9 000
less than 76 m
10 at least 76 m 8 32 300 450 3 11 200
8.4 AircrAft reScue AnD fire fighting (Arff) 8.5 AircrAft reScue AnD fire fighting (Arff)
StAnDBy requeSt DiScreet communicAtion
Local standby means the level of response when an aircraft has, The capability to communicate on a discreet frequency is normally
or is suspected to have, an operational defect. This defect could available at airports that provide aircraft rescue and
compromise a safe landing. firefighting (ARFF) services.
Full emergency standby means the level of response when an
aircraft has, or is suspected to have, an operational defect that 9.0 AIRCRAFT ARRESTING SYSTEMS
affects normal flight operations to the extent that there is
possibility of an accident.
When informed that an emergency has been declared by a pilot, 9.1 engineereD mAteriAl ArreSting
the airport aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) unit will take SyStemS (emAS)
up emergency positions adjacent to the landing runway and
The engineered material arresting system (EMAS) is an arresting
stand by to provide assistance. Once response to an emergency
system designed for transport category aeroplanes in the event
situation has been initiated, the ARFF unit will remain at the
of a runway overrun. An EMAS bed is designed to stop an
increased state of alert until informed that the pilot-in-command
overrunning aeroplane by exerting predictable deceleration
has terminated the emergency. After the landing, ARFF will
forces on its landing gear as the EMAS material crushes.
intervene as necessary and, unless the pilot-in-command
authorizes their release, escort the aircraft to the apron and
remain in position until all engines are shut down. 9.1.1 System Description
For an adequate response on the part of the ARFF unit, a pilot The strength of the arrester bed is designed to reduce the
request to “stand by in the fire hall” is not appropriate. Pilots aeroplane’s speed without leading to structural failure of the
are reminded, however, that the ARFF unit will terminate their landing gear. The beds are made up of a grouping of crushable
state of alert when informed by the pilot that the emergency cellular concrete blocks that will reliably and predictably be
situation no longer exists. crushed under the weight of an aeroplane.
To arrest an aeroplane overrunning a runway end, EMAS beds
are placed beyond the end of a runway and in alignment with
the extended runway centreline.
72
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Figure 9.1—Photograph of an EMAS Installation outlined in the AFM, regardless of the aeroplane’s speed
upon overrunning the runway.
(b) Continue straight ahead—do not veer left or right. The
EMAS’s stopping capability is maximized when all of the
aeroplane’s landing gears enter the bed. Veering to the side
may result in the aeroplane missing the bed altogether or
having only one set of wheels enter the bed with reduced
effectiveness. The quality of deceleration will be best within
the confines of the bed. The further the aeroplane travels
into the bed, and into deeper concrete, the greater the
AGA
deceleration.
(c) Do not take any action—the arrester bed is a passive system,
(The EMAS bed is the grey area under the yellow chevrons) similar to other traditional arresting systems such as cables,
chains, and aircraft netting.
9.1.2 System Depiction (d) Do not attempt to taxi or otherwise move the aeroplane
once it has stopped.
The aerodrome sketch will show the location and dimensions
of the EMAS beds. In the example below, the EMAS bed is (e) Use standard aircraft emergency ground egress procedures,
shown as an outlined box with diagonal lines running through should an emergency egress be required. Where the surface
it. The dimensions are provided in feet. of the bed has been breached, the loose material will crumble
underfoot. During egress, it is important to note that the
Figure 9.2—EMAS Depiction on an Aerodrome Sketch two sides and the back of the arrester bed have built-in
continuous steps built in to help provide easy access for
ARFF vehicles and to enable passengers to step off the bed
safely.
(f) Use slides or aircraft stairs to allow passengers to deplane
E
9.2.1 Background
164 X 170
6.
49’ 612 absorber. To keep the energy absorbers away from the edge of
the runway, runway edge sheaves are located next to the runway
edge. The runway edge sheaves act as a guide (pulley) for the
28’ tape and have sloped sides to permit an aircraft to roll over them.
When the tailhook of a fighter aircraft engages the cable, the
tape storage drums start to turn. The energy absorbers apply a
9.1.3 Pilot Considerations for Engagement
braking force to the storage drums, which in turn slows the
Prior to using a runway, pilots should be aware of the presence aircraft and brings it to a stop.
of an EMAS bed. Pilots should review the aerodrome sketch
and other aerodrome information to determine whether the 9.2.2 Markings
runway that they will be using is equipped with an EMAS.
For identification, yellow circles are painted across the runway
If, during the take-off or landing phase, a pilot determines that at the location of the aircraft arrester cable. A lighted sign with
the aeroplane will overrun the runway end and enter the EMAS, a yellow circle is located beside the runway to mark the location
the following procedure should be followed: during darkness.
(a) Continue to follow the rejected-takeoff procedures or, in
the case of landing, the maximum-braking procedures
73
TC AIM March 25, 2021
74
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
General aviation (GA) An aircraft operation other than a Table 10.2—Operations Exempted
operation commercial air transport operation. From A-CDM Procedures
GA operations include business
aviation (BA) operations. STS/FFR Fire fighting
Ground handler An organization offering the ground STS/HEAD Flight with Head of State status
handling services that an aircraft
needs for the period during which it STS/HOSP Flight on an actual medical mission
is on the ground. STS/ Flight operated for life-critical medical
HMI Human-Machine Interface MEDEVAC emergency evacuation
Minimum turnaround The minimum amount of time STS/SAR Flight engaged in a search and rescue mission
time (MTTT) agreed upon with an operator or STS/STATE Flight engaged in military, customs, or police
ground handler for a specified flight services
or aircraft type. STS/FLTCK Aircraft performing NAVAID flight check
Operator The person, organization, or
enterprise engaged in or offering to Any exemptions would be granted based on the type of mission
engage in an aircraft operation. an aircraft is engaged in and not on the identity of the operator.
Pilot-in-command The pilot designated by the operator,
(PIC) or, in the case of GA, the owner, as 10.5 AirPort collABorAtive DeciSion mAking
being in command and charged with
the safe conduct of a flight. (A-cDm) ProceDureS
Scheduled off-block The time that an aircraft is Airport Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM) procedures
time (SOBT) scheduled to depart from its parking generally fall into the following three categories:
position.
(a) Commercial Air Transport Operations—Procedures for
Note: SOBT is the coordinated
Operators and Handling Agents
airport slot.
Target off-block time The time at which an operator or (b) Commercial Air Transport Operations—Flight Crew
(TOBT) ground handler estimates that Procedures
an aircraft will be ready, with all (c) General and Business Aviation Operations—Air Operator
doors closed, the boarding bridge Procedures
removed, and a pushback vehicle
available and ready to start up/push
back immediately upon receiving 10.5.1 Commercial Air Transport Operations —
clearance from the AMU. Procedures for Operators and Handling
Note: TOBT is equivalent to Agents
estimated time of departure (ETD)
as used by operators and ground
handlers. 10.5.1.1 Requirement for All Flights to Have a Current
Target Off-Block Time (TOBT)
Target start-up The time at which an aircraft can
approval time (TSAT) expect to receive start-up/pushback The TOBT is used to indicate when the aircraft will be ready to
approval. The TSAT may be equal to push back and start its engines. The initial TOBT is usually
the TOBT. obtained by the A-CDM system from one of the following sources:
Target take off time The time at which an aircraft is (a) Estimated time of departure (ETD) provided by an operator
(TTOY) expected to be airborne based on via the appropriate communications channel;
its TSAT and on the time it takes to
taxi to the assigned runway. (b) EOBT from the flight plan; or
(c) SOBT from the airport coordinated schedule data held by
the GTAA.
75
TC AIM March 25, 2021
10.5.1.2 Preferred Way of Providing the Target Off-Block 10.5.1.8 Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) Update Limitations
Time (TOBT) The TOBT can normally be updated as many times as necessary
Operators are reminded that using the SOBT may result in an until 10 minutes prior to the TOBT. Thereafter, only two more
inaccurate TOBT. It is therefore highly recommended that they updates are possible. Should a third update be necessary, the
explore options for providing the ETD via the appropriate operator or handling agent will likely need to contact the Manager
communications channel. This can be normally be done by of Operations, Airport Flow, for further instructions.
contacting the Manager of Operations, Airport Flow, who
typically serves as the single point of contact for all A-CDM- 10.5.1.9 Methods for Updating the Target Off-Block
related matters. Time (TOBT)
AGA
10.5.1.6 Target Start-Up Approval Time (TSAT) Swapping The TSAT will be displayed for the flight crew on all channels
except the AVDGS as soon as it is set in the A-CDM system. It
An operator or handling agent (as applicable) may be able to is expected that the TSAT will be displayed for the flight crew
swap the TSATs between flights of its own operator family if a on the AVDGS as follows:
given flight is delayed or if a reduction of the waiting time for
a flight is desirable. Eligible flights are identified as such on the (a) 10 minutes before TOBT; or
A-CDM system HMI. (b) 20 minutes before TOBT if the TSAT is later than the TOBT
by 20 minutes or more (as may be the case due to TMIs).
10.5.1.7 The Importance of Updating the Target Off-
Block Time (TOBT)
Operators and ground handlers (as appropriate) are responsible
for updating the TOBT if there is a difference of +/- 5 minutes
compared to the initial or previously updated TOBT. Failing to
update the TOBT will result in a TSAT that is no longer
operationally correct, and this, in turn, may cause the flight to
be subject to unnecessary delay.
76
TC AIM March 25, 2021
10.5.2.4 Information Related to Airport Collaborative If the pushback and start-up process does not commence within
Decision Making (A-CDM) on the Advanced 2 minutes of the time the approval was issued, the flight crew
Visual Docking Guidance System (AVDGS) must call the AMU on the appropriate radio frequency, explain
the situation, and request guidance on how to proceed. If this
The information displayed on the AVDGS depends on the call is omitted, it will be assumed that the TSAT is no longer
operating mode of the A-CDM system, such as: valid, and it will be removed from the sequence. The operator
(a) Traditional Ramp Information Display (e.g. ETD) = A-CDM or ground handler will need to provide a new TOBT for a new
is not running or A-CDM procedures have been suspended; TSAT to be generated. This may result in a substantial delay for
or the flight concerned.
(b) TOBT + time or TOBT + time and TSAT + time = A-CDM If the pushback and start-up process is interrupted for any reason
AGA
is running. after the aircraft has cleared the stand area or if the start-up
process is expected to take longer than normal, the flight crew
10.5.2.5 Call Ready Procedure must call the AMU on the appropriate radio frequency, explain
the situation, and request guidance on how to proceed.
The flight crew usually must call the Apron Coordinator on the
published radio frequency for the airport at TOBT +/- 5 minutes Flight crews are reminded that the actual order of pushback and
to confirm that the flight is ready as defined for the TOBT and start-up approval depends on the operational decisions of the
state the location “gate.” Thereafter, the crew will need to change AMU and hence, a difference may exist between the system-
to the appropriate radio frequency and monitor it for pushback generated sequence and the sequence as established by the AMU.
and start-up approval. However, even after a manual intervention, any applicable
constraints, like CTOT, would be met by the modified sequence.
If the flight crew fails to call within the specified time window,
it will be assumed that the TOBT is no longer valid and the
10.5.2.9 Flight Crew Concerns About Meeting Constraints
corresponding TSAT will be removed from the sequence. The
operator or ground handler will need to provide a new TOBT All functions of an A-CDM system are designed to ensure that
for a new TSAT to be generated. This may result in a substantial applicable constraints, most importantly those resulting from
delay for the flight concerned. TMIs, are always fully met. For example, the TSAT is calculated
taking all applicable constraints into account, and if duly observed
10.5.2.6 Procedures for Extended Times Between Target by the flight crew, the runway slot (CTOT) allocated to the flight
will not be missed.
Off-Block Time (TOBT) and Target Start-Up
Approval Time (TSAT) Nevertheless, if flight crew members estimate that a TSAT
assigned to them and their applicable CTOT are not compatible,
The time difference between the TOBT and the TSAT assigned
they should contact their operator or ground handler to resolve
to the flight may be substantial. Airports usually have a policy
the issue via the Manager of Operations, Airport Flow.
for aircraft to stay at the gate until the assigned TSAT time. In
cases where the gate is required for another flight, or on the
specific request of the operator or ground handler, the aircraft 10.5.2.10 De-icing Operations
concerned could be relocated to a waiting area. The need for de-icing has a substantial impact on standard A-CDM
procedures, in particular the extended taxi times needed to
10.5.2.7 Airport Collaborative Decision Making (A-CDM)- account for the duration of the de-icing operation. To ensure
Imposed Waiting Time and On-Time that the de-icing needs of individual flights are properly
Performance considered, the following additional procedures are typically
applicable during de-icing operations:
Traditionally, on-time performance (OTP) is measured by the
point in time when the aircraft releases the brakes and is ready (a) A request for de-icing would normally be transmitted by
for movement associated with departure. If an aircraft waits at the flight crew on the clearance delivery frequency.
the stand for its TSAT, the time between TOBT and TSAT might (b) If the flight crew determines, following clearance delivery,
be counted as a departure delay, adversely impacting the air that de-icing is required, they would contact the AMU on
operator’s OTP. It is recommended that air operators implement the applicable radio frequency and request de-icing.
procedures whereby the time at which the flight crew makes
the ready call is considered as the reference for OTP and any
10.5.3 General and Business Aviation Operations
waiting time after the TOBT is met can be successfully ignored.
— Air Operator Procedures
10.5.2.8 Pushback / Start-Up Approval
10.5.3.1 Prior Permission to Operate Required
Depending on the airport, flight crews might expect pushback (Reservation)
instructions and start-up approval to be issued on the appropriate
radio frequency by the AMU at TSAT +/- 5 minutes without a Operators or the designated representatives of general and
need for the flight crew to make an additional call. business aviation aircraft typically obtain prior permission to
operate (reservation) from the applicable airport authority using
77
TC AIM March 25, 2021
A-CDM procedures up to 72 hours before the EOBT, or a 10.5.3.7 Method for Updating the Target Off-Block
minimum of 60 minutes before the EOBT of the planned Time (TOBT)
operation. Some airports have special arrangements with GA/
BA Tenant Carriers allowing them to book up to 30 days prior The TOBT must be updated either by updating the flight plan
to the EOBT. EOBT or via the airports A-CDM web portal.
10.5.3.2 Requirement to Provide the Target Off-Block Several channels are provided for the delivery of the TOBT and
AGA
Similar to Commercial Air Transport Operations, General and (a) The A-CDM web portal;.
Business Aviation flights must also have a TOBT. Operators (b) Any specific means of communication that may exist
can typically obtain their TOBT using the airport’s A-CDM between the operator or its designated representative and
web portal. the flight crew; or
(c) The AVGDS, where available.
10.5.3.3 Pre-Departure Sequencing — Target Start-Up
Approval Time (TSAT) Generation 10.5.3.9 Access to the Target Off-Block Time (TOBT)
Based on the TOBT, a TSAT is generated by the A-CDM system The TOBT will be displayed for the flight crew on all channels
for every flight. The TSAT is used to indicate the sequence in as soon as it is set in the A-CDM system.
which aircraft can expect to receive start-up approval, ensuring
an optimal flow of traffic to the assigned runways. An update
to the TOBT will always result in the recalculation of the TSAT; 10.5.3.10 Access to the Target Start-Up Approval
however, this may not always result in a different position in the Time (TSAT)
sequence for the flight concerned. The TSAT will usually be displayed for the flight crew on all
Any applicable constraints, like the CTOT resulting from TMIs, channels as follows:
taxi times, and possible de-icing time are considered in the (a) 10 minutes before the TBOT; or
calculation of the TSAT, ensuring that such constraints are
(b) 20 minutes before the TOBT if the TSAT is later than the
always met.
TOBT by 20 minutes or more (as may be the case due to
TMIs).
10.5.3.4 Access to the Target Start-Up Approval
Time (TSAT) 10.5.3.11 Call Ready Procedure
The TSAT will be shown in the A-CDM web portal as follows: The flight crew should expect to call the AMU Apron Coordinator
(a) 10 minutes before the TOBT; or at TOBT +/- 5 minutes to confirm that the flight is ready as
defined for the TOBT; they must state their location on the
(b) 20 minutes before the TOBT if the TSAT is later than the
airport. The Apron Coordinator will advise the TSAT and then
TOBT by 20 minutes or more (as may be the case due to
instruct the flight crew to change to the appropriate radio
TMIs).
frequency. If the flight crew fails to call within the specified
time window, it will be assumed that the TOBT is no longer
10.5.3.5 The Importance of Updating the Target Off- valid and the corresponding TSAT will be removed from the
Block Time (TOBT) sequence. The operator or its designated representative will need
Operators or their designated representatives are obliged to to provide a new TOBT for a new TSAT to be generated. This
update the TOBT if there is a difference of +/- 5 minutes compared may result in a substantial delay for the flight concerned.
to the initial or previously updated TOBT. Failing to update the
TOBT will result in a TSAT that is no longer operationally 10.5.3.12 Start-Up Procedures
correct. This, in turn, may cause the flight to be subject to
The start-up procedure typically commences at TSAT +/- 5
unnecessary delay.
minutes without a need for the f light crew to make an
additional call.
10.5.3.6 Target Off-Block Time (TOBT) Update Limitations
If the start-up process does not commence within 2 minutes of
The TOBT may normally be updated as many times as necessary
the TSAT time that was issued, the flight crew must call the
until 10 minutes prior to the TOBT. Thereafter, only two more
AMU on the appropriate radio frequency, explain the situation,
updates are usually possible. Should a third update be necessary,
and request guidance on how to proceed. If this call is omitted,
the operator or its designated representative should contact the
it will be assumed that the TSAT is no longer valid and it will
Manager of Operations, Airport Flow, for further instructions.
be removed from the sequence. The operator or its designated
78
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
Flight crew are reminded that the actual order of start-up approval
depends on the operational decisions of the AMU. Hence, a
difference may exist between the system-generated sequence
and the sequence as established by the AMU. However, even
after such manual intervention, the applicable constraints, like
CTOT, would be met by the modified sequence.
79
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AGA
80
TC AIM March 25, 2021
COM
in the frequency range of 118 to 137 MHz. For increased range means that some operators with 50-kHz capability will have
in northern areas and the North Atlantic, high frequency–single their access to certain Canadian airspace and airports restricted,
sideband (HF-SSB) is available in the frequency range of 2.8 to as 25-kHz channels are implemented for air traffic control (ATC)
22 MHz. purposes. In some areas of Europe, channel spacing has been
reduced to 8.33 kHz, which means that the same restrictions
may apply.
1.2 regulAtionS AnD guiDAnce mAteriAl Because the frequency selectors on some 25-kHz transceivers
(a) Operator’s certificates—In accordance with section 33 of do not display the third decimal place, misunderstanding may
the Radiocommunication Regulations, a person may operate exist in the selection of frequencies. With such transceivers, if
radio apparatus in the aeronautical service…only where the the last digit displayed includes two and seven, then the equipment
person holds [a Restricted Operator Certificate with is capable of 25-kHz operations.
Aeronautical Qualification, issued by Industry Canada].
Example:
(b) Station licences—All radio equipment used in aeronautical
Toronto Centre: ......................... 132.475 (actual frequency)
services is required to be licensed by Industry Canada.
For complete information on the requirements for communication ATC Assigned Frequency:............. 132.47 (digit 5 omitted)
in Canada, please consult the Study Guide for the Restricted Aircraft Radio Display: ...........................132.475 or 132.47
Operator Certificate With Aeronautical Qualification (ROC-A)
(RIC-21). To obtain a copy of this study guide, search for In either case, the aircraft radio is actually tuned to the
“RIC-21” on the Industry Canada Web site <www.canada.ca/ proper frequency.
en/innovation-science-economic-development.html>,
contact the nearest Industry Canada district office, or call 1.4.1 Remote Communications Outlets (RCOs)
1-877-604-7493. and Dial-Up Remote Communications
NAV CANADA has published phraseology guides for visual Outlets (DRCOs)
f light rules (VFR), instrument f light rules (IFR), area RCOs are VHF transmitters/receivers installed at designated
navigation (RNAV), and ground traffic operations. These guides aerodromes to permit communications between aircraft and an
support standardized pilot-controller-specialist communications FSS or FIC for the provision of FISE or RAAS. An RCO may
and are intended as learning tools and reference guides to also be installed at an off-aerodrome location to enhance en route
phraseology for all pilots flying within Canadian airspace. These communication coverage for the provision of FISE by FICs.
guides are available at <www.navcanada.ca/EN/media/Pages/
publications-operational.aspx>. FISE RCOs use one of the following four frequencies: 123.275,
123.375, 123.475, or 123.55 MHz. At most of these outlets,
126.7 MHz is not active or monitored by a FIC. At these sites,
as required, the FIC activates and transmits on 126.7 MHz to
provide aeronautical broadcast services (broadcast of SIGMET
or urgent PIREP) and to conduct communication searches for
overdue aircraft. Further details on the use of RCOs can be found
in the General section of the CFS.
81
TC AIM March 25, 2021
A DRCO is a standard RCO with a dial-up unit installed to 1.6 uSe of frequency 5 680 khz
connect the pilot with an ATS unit (e.g. FIC) via a commercial
telephone line. The line is only opened after communication has See AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.4.
been initiated by the pilot or ATS. The radio range of the RCO
is unaffected by the conversion. 1.7 Phone uSe During A rADio
Activation of the system by the pilot is accomplished via the communicAtionS fAilure
aircraft radio transmitter by keying the microphone button four
times with a deliberate and constant action on the published In the event of an in-flight radio communications failure, and
DRCO frequency. Procedures for establishing the link can be only after normal communications failure procedures have been
found in the General section of the CFS. followed, the pilot-in-command may attempt to contact the
appropriate NAV CANADA air traffic service (ATS) unit by
See the CFS for more information. means of a conventional cell or satellite phone. Before placing
the call, transponder-equipped aircraft should squawk Code 7600.
1.4.2 Emergency Frequency 121.5 MHz Public switched telephone network (PSTN) numbers to be used
Pilots should continuously monitor 121.5 MHz when operating in the event of a communication failure are published in the
within sparsely settled areas or when operating a Canadian Canada Flight Supplement (CFS).
aircraft over water more than 50 NM from shore, unless essential
cockpit duties or aircraft electronic equipment limitations do
1.8 cAnADiAn BASe oPerAtorS (cBo)
COM
82
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The priority level may be used by dedicated networks (and the 2.0 LOCATION INDICATORS
aircraft systems) to end calls of a lower priority, if necessary,
and allow incoming calls of a higher priority, although some Responsibility for Canadian location indicators rests with the
systems may establish a 3-way call, so that the higher priority Aeronautical Information Services Division of NAV CANADA.
call can interrupt the ongoing conversation without ending it. Location indicators are listed in the Canada Flight
In that case, the pilot can hear both ground parties at the same Supplement (CFS) and Canada Water Aerodrome
time and determine which is more important. Supplement (CWAS).
COM
3/LOW/Q10 Regularity Flight information
of flight, service surveillance waypoint position reporting (ADS WPR) and
Operational Low
meteorological, Dispatch controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC). Operational
Safety of Flight
administrative. Maintenance information regarding Canadian applications can be found in
Typically assigned AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.4.
to calls between
aircraft operators
and their aircraft 3.2 AircrAft communicAtionS ADDreSSing AnD
4/PUB/Q9 Public Public phone calls rePorting SyStem (AcArS) AnD future
Non-operational correspondence Air nAvigAtion SyStemS (fAnS) 1/A
Non-safety
Many aircraft data link applications transfer data using the
Flight crews should only act on an air traffic control (ATC) aircraf t com munications addressing and repor ting
clearance or instruction from a SATVOICE call with priority system (ACARS). In the early 1990s, air traffic control (ATC)
level 2. (Priority level 1/EMG/Q15 is reserved for outbound calls units in the United States began to use ACARS-based pre-
from aircraft.). departure clearance (PDC) applications to alleviate the problem
For air-to-ground calls, a telephone numbering plan has been of congestion on clearance delivery frequencies.
developed that assigns short codes, as well as PSTN numbers, Seeing the benefits of this early type of application, airlines
specific to each flight information region (FIR). When a GES began to push for additional air traffic service (ATS) data link
receives the unique short code from the aircraft via satellite, it applications. Notwithstanding the reduced performance of
is converted and the call is routed to the appropriate air traffic ACARS networks that existed at the time, using ACARS-based
services (ATS) unit. applications was a valuable step towards early introduction of
Prior to using SATVOICE equipment for priority level 1, 2 or 3 future air navigation systems (FANS). Based on this, various
calls, the aircraft operator should address flight crew training ATS applications operating on the ACARS network were
and qualification, maintenance, minimum equipment list (MEL), developed. The original Boeing version of these applications
user modifiable software and service agreements with the was known as FANS 1, whereas the Airbus version was termed
commercial service provider. Installations would normally be FANS A. Today, new FANS applications such as FANS 1/A+
approved by the state of registry or state of the operator, in and FANS B continue to be used in airspace not suited for
accordance with Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) traditional surveillance coverage.
Advisory Circular (AC) 20-150A (or equivalent).
When using SATVOICE, pilots should apply the radiotelephony
conventions and phraseology used for VHF/HF communications.
Operational procedures, along with SATVOICE short codes and
PSTN numbers for aeronautical stations, are published in
AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.4, and on en route low altitude and
en route high altitude charts.
83
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.3 AeronAuticAl telecommunicAtionS Satellite data links provide greater coverage, although except
for Iridium they are limited in the polar regions since most of
network (Atn) the satellites are stationary over the equator. Satellite data links
As reliance on data link increased, a new aeronautical are also slower than VHF in response time (12–25 s). Service
telecommunications network (ATN) was implemented to enable providers with near-global coverage include Inmarsat
greater data link performance. Compared to the original aircraft (geostationary earth orbit [GEO] satellites) and Iridium (low
communications addressing and reporting system (ACARS) earth orbit [LEO] satellites in polar orbits for worldwide coverage);
network, the new ATN uses well-defined protocols, specifically others provide coverage in particular regions, such as the
designed to provide reliable communications service over multifunctional transport satellite (MTSAT) over the
dissimilar networks. Aircraft equipped for both ATN and future Pacific Ocean.
air navigation system (FANS) applications are said to be equipped HFDL provides near global coverage including over the polar
with “dual-stack”. regions, but message transit times (approximately 80 s) are much
lengthier than other mediums.
3.4 DAtA link Service ProviDerS
To operate data link, it is necessary to have a contract with at 3.6 AircrAft communicAtionS ADDreSSing AnD
least one data link service provider. Major service providers rePorting SyStem (AcArS) initiAlizAtion
include Rockwell Collins (formerly ARINC) and Société
Internationale de Télécommunications Aéronautiques (SITA). The core of the airborne data link system is called the aircraft
COM
These companies provide a variety of air-ground data links, communications addressing and reporting system (ACARS)
operating in different frequency bands to ensure global coverage. management unit (MU) or communications management
unit (CMU). At the initiation of a flight, one of the first flight
crew actions is to perform the ACARS system initialization.
3.5 DAtA link networkS This INIT REQUEST establishes a link with the airline ground
Traditionally, analog very high frequency (VHF) was the most system, and informs it that the aircraft is being prepared for
commonly used medium to transmit aircraft communications departure.
addressing and reporting system (ACARS) messages. This
medium of ACARS transmission is known as plain old ACARS 3.7 DAtA link AutomAtic terminAl
(POA). The low-speed characteristics of a POA data link require
a number of frequencies to fully service all users. For example, informAtion Service (D-AtiS)
almost a dozen VHF frequencies are required in North America Data link automatic terminal information service (D-ATIS)
in order to provide a reliable service. As the number of analog enables delivery to the cockpit of automatic terminal information
VHF data link transmissions continues to increase across busy service (ATIS) information in text format via data link. This
areas, available channels in the aeronautical VHF band are results in a reduction of flight crew workload, eliminating the
approaching saturation. need to listen to the ATIS broadcast and hand transcribe the
New high speed digital data link systems transmitting in the message during busy periods. Thanks to data link service provider
VHF range are known as VHF digital link (VDL). Different coverage areas, D-ATIS can also be accessed well in advance
forms of VDL (Mode 1 through 4) have been defined. This new of descent and approach. Flight crew f lying aircraft
digital architecture is called ACARS Over AVLC (AOA), where communications addressing and reporting system (ACARS)
the term AVLC refers to aviation VHF link control, which is equipped aircraft can send ATIS requests and receive ATIS
the protocol used over the VHF link for the relatively common information using their multipurpose control and display
VDL Mode 2 system. unit (MCDU).
To access VDL service, aircraft must be fitted with a D-ATIS implementation can vary in both avionics and ground
communications management unit (CMU) that is equipped with systems. In Canada, D-ATIS is available on the Rockwell Collins
a digital connection to a VHF data radio (VDR) transceiver. (formerly ARINC) air traffic service (ATS) server.
The CMU processes all the ACARS applications and can be
upgraded to integrate both VDL and ATN functionality. The 3.8 Pre-DePArture cleArAnce (PDc)
CMU automatically switches between AOA and POA according
to service availability. Pre-departure clearance (PDC) via the airline host is a system
that provides instrument f light rules (IFR) departure
While VDL may provide faster message response times (two to clearances (DCL) via data link to subscribing airlines at selected
eight seconds) than analog VHF, the system is still limited to airports. The PDC message is sent from the tower to an airline’s
line-of-sight coverage. When beyond line-of-sight of a VDL server. The airline then takes responsibility for delivery of the
ground station, some aircraft may also have the capability for PDC via either the aircraft communications addressing and
HF data link (HFDL) and/or communications through satellite reporting system (ACARS) data link or, for non-ACARS-
data link (SATCOM). equipped aircraft, through some other means such as a gate printer.
84
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Instead of a verbal readback of the entire clearance, air traffic 3.10 AutomAtic DePenDent SurveillAnce
control (ATC) primarily requires readback of the flight plan
unique identifier (FPUI). This is a four-character (three numeric contrAct (ADS-c)
and one alphabetic) code included in the PDC message. See Position reporting is required in oceanic and remote airspace
AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.4 for a list of airports offering PDC where there is no other means of surveillance. Automatic
service along with registration instructions. dependent surveillance - contract (ADS-C) waypoint position
reporting (WPR) via data link can overcome issues with voice
3.9 DePArture cleArAnce (Dcl) reporting. Automatic dependent surveillance (ADS) is a
surveillance technique for use by air traffic services (ATS) in
Another data link application similar to pre-departure which aircraft automatically provide, via data link, information
clearance (PDC) is called DCL, which stands for departure derived from on-board position-fixing and navigation systems.
clearance. The DCL message itself may contain the abbreviation ADS allows controllers to obtain position data from future air
PDC, however the delivery method is different for the DCL navigation system (FANS) equipped aircraft in a timely manner,
application. In DCL, the data link dialog is directly between the thereby facilitating route conformance monitoring in non-radar
flight crew and the controller. The flight crew initiates DCL by airspace.
sending a departure clearance request (RCD). That RCD is routed
to the tower, where the controller can send the clearance to the An ADS-C is initiated by the ATS facility and it identifies the
aircraft directly via data link. When sending a RCD, the flight types of information and the conditions under which reports are
crew will immediately receive the following flight system to be sent by the aircraft. Some types of information are included
COM
message (FSM): RCD RECEIVED – REQUEST BEING in every report, while other types are provided only if specified
PROCESSED – STANDBY. in the ADS-C request. There are three types of ADS-C:
If the RCD cannot be correlated to the flight plan or if the RCD (a) periodic (a time interval at which the aircraft system sends
was sent too late, the flight crew may receive one of the following an ADS-C report),
FSMs: RCD REJECTED – FLIGHT PLAN NOT HELD – (b) demand (a single ADS-C periodic report), and
REVERT TO VOICE PROCEDURES or RCD REJECTED (c) event (triggered by a particular event such as a waypoint
– ERROR IN MESSAGE – REVERT TO VOICE PROCEDURES change event).
– RCD TOO LATE.
ADS-C are managed by ATS facilities based on their surveillance
When air traffic control (ATC) receives a valid RCD, it will requirements, and ADS reports are sent automatically without
respond by sending the departure clearance message (CLD) and, notification to, or action required by, the flight crew. In the event
in turn, the flight crew will respond with a departure clearance that an ADS report is not received, air traffic control (ATC)
readback (CDA). Upon successful reception of a matching CDA, would attempt to contact the flight crew to obtain the position
the flight crew will receive a FSM that states: CDA RECEIVED report via voice. In the event of ADS service interruptions,
– CLEARANCE CONFIRMED. aircraft equipment failures or loss of signal coverage, flight
At any time during the clearance process, if the flight crew crews are expected to resume voice reporting. Flight crews
receives a FSM stating to REVERT TO VOICE, the data link should be aware of the limitations associated with available
clearance becomes void and the flight crew should contact ATC. aircraft equipment and the signal coverage over the intended
route.
Other examples of FSM error messages include:
Operational procedures for automatic dependent surveillance
(a) RCD REJECTED – REQUEST ALREADY RECEIVED
waypoint position reporting (ADS WPR) can be found in
– STANDBY
AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.4.
(b) RCD REJECTED – ERROR IN MESSAGE – REVERT
TO VOICE PROCEDURES
3.11 controller-Pilot DAtA link
(c) CDA REJECTED – CLEARANCE CANCELLED –
REVERT TO VOICE PROCEDURES communicAtionS (cPDlc)
Unlike PDC, there is no registration requirement to use DCL; Controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC) is a data
however, operators must be Rockwell Collins (formerly ARINC) link application that supports the exchange of text-based messages
or Société I nter nationale de Télécom mu n ications between a controller and the flight crew. Text messages provide
Aéronautiques (SITA) data link subscribers. A list of airports greater clarity than spoken very high frequency (VHF) or high
offering DCL service can be found in AIP Canada (ICAO) frequency (HF) radio communications, so the risk of error is
GEN 3.4. significantly decreased. Other advantages associated with CPDLC
include:
(a) reducing voice channel congestion in busy airspace;
(b) providing direct controller-pilot communications (DCPC)
in airspace where it was not previously available on voice
channels;
85
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(c) facilitating air traffic control (ATC) communications with (c) the aircraft registration and/or aircraft address (as entered
flight crews whose first language is not English; in Item 18, preceded by REG and/or CODE, of the ICAO
(d) reducing flight crew input errors, by allowing the loading flight plan); and
of information from specific uplink messages into other (d) the departure and destination aerodromes, when required
aircraft systems, such as the flight management system (FMS) (as entered in Items 13 and 16 of the ICAO flight plan).
or aircraft radios; Canadian ATS facility identif iers can be found in
(e) allowing the flight crew to request complex route clearances, AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.4.
which the controller can respond to without having to
manually enter a long string of coordinates;
3.13 current/next DAtA AuthoritieS
(f) reducing flight crew workload by supporting automatically
transmitted reports when a specific event occurs, such as Aircraft can display two controller-pilot data link
reaching the new flight level on an altitude change clearance; communications (CPDLC) air traffic service (ATS) facility
and connections at any time, but only one can be active. The ATS
facility with which an aircraft has an active connection is the
(g) reducing controller workload by providing automatic flight current data authority, sometimes displayed to the flight crew
plan updates when specific downlink messages (and as CURRENT ATC. The ATS facility with the inactive connection
responses to some uplink messages) are received. is referred to as the next data authority. Under normal
CPDLC messages consist of a set of message elements, most of circumstances, the current data authority will initiate a transfer
COM
which correspond to radiotelephone phraseology. CPDLC to an adjacent data link-capable ATS facility when the aircraft
message elements that are sent to an aircraft are referred to as approaches the appropriate boundary. These transfers are
uplink messages or UM, whereas message elements that are sent normally automatic and no flight crew action is required.
by the aircraft are downlink messages or DM. There are two
types of CPDLC implementations: future air navigation
systems (FANS) 1/A and aeronautical telecommunications
4.0 GROUND-BASED RADIO
network (ATN) based CPDLC. NAVIGATION AIDS
Operational procedures for CPDLC can be found in
AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.4. 4.1 generAl
Ground-based radio navigation systems available for use in
3.12 Air trAffic ServiceS fAcilitieS Canada include: distance measuring equipment (DME),
notificAtion (Afn) instrument landing system (ILS), localizer (LOC), non-directional
beacon (NDB), precision approach radar (PAR), tactical air
The first step for automatic dependent surveillance (ADS) or navigation aid (TACAN), VHF direction finder (VDF), VHF
controller-pilot data link communications (CPDLC) is the air omnidirectional range (VOR), and a combination of VOR and
traffic services facilities notification (AFN), sometimes known TACAN (VORTAC).
as the air traffic control (ATC) logon process; it is typically
initiated by the flight crew. The purpose of the AFN is to provide
air traffic service (ATS) with the data link applications supported 4.2 AccurAcy, AvAilABility AnD integrity of
by the aircraft system and the unique identification of the aircraft. grounD-BASeD nAvigAtion AiDS
This allows ATS to correlate the logon information with the
flight plan on file, ensure that messages are sent to the correct Aviation navigation systems must meet stringent accuracy,
aircraft, and make certain that any subsequent reports and/or availability and integrity requirements as specified in the
messages update the correct flight plan. This exchange of data International Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 10.
link context is needed prior to any CPDLC or ADS connection. Measures to improve availability include:
An AFN is needed when the aircraft does not already have a (a) Electronic means—The provision of alternate or redundant
connection, such as when the aircraft is preparing for departure, circuitry for the electronic elements of the navigation
or when the aircraft is planning to enter an area where ADS and aid (NAVAID).
CPDLC services are available after transiting an area where
those services were not available. (b) Emergency back-up power—All instrument landing
system (ILS) and VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)
To perform an initial logon request, the flight crew enters into facilities for which NAV CANADA has responsibility, as
the data link equipment: well as distance measuring equipment (DME) and tactical
(a) the four-character Inter national Civil Aviation air navigation aid (TACAN) associated with these facilities,
Organization (ICAO) facility identifier for the ATS unit are provided with emergency power. Additionally, many
that the logon request will be sent to; non-directional beacons (NDBs) are provided with
emergency power.
(b) the aircraft identification (as entered in Item 7 of the ICAO
flight plan);
86
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Measures to maintain accuracy and integrity of the navigation NAVAID when the observation was made and the time and date
signals include: of the observation.
(a) Executive monitoring—An electronic means in which the
system checks its critical parameters. In the event of an 4.4 interference with AircrAft nAvigAtionAl
out-of-tolerance condition, it either changes to an auxiliary
back-up equipment or shuts the system down if there is no
equiPment
redundancy or if the redundant circuit has also failed. This Some portable electronic devices can interfere with aircraft
monitoring is continuous. communications and radio navigation systems. The radiation
(b) Periodic maintenance—NAVAIDs are periodically tested produced by frequency modulation (FM) radio receivers and
by qualified technologists. television broadcast receivers falls within the instrument landing
system (ILS) localizer (LOC) and VHF omnidirectional
(c) Flight inspection—In-flight inspections of ILS, VOR and range (VOR) frequency band, while the radiation produced by
DME are carried out by specially equipped aircraft on a amplitude modulation (AM) radio receivers falls within the
regular basis to ensure that standards are met. frequency range of automatic direction finder (ADF) receivers.
During periods of routine or emergency maintenance, or when This radiation could interfere with the correct operation of ILS,
a NAVAID is identified as not meeting the required performance VOR and ADF equipment. Pilots are therefore cautioned against
standard, it is temporarily removed from service and a NOTAM permitting the operation of any portable electronic device on
is issued to advise pilots of the deficiency. The removal of the board their aircraft during takeoff, approach and landing.
COM
transmitted NAVAID identification can also warns pilots that After extensive testing, Industry Canada has concluded that the
the facility may be unreliable even though it may still transmit switching on or use of handheld electronic calculators can cause
a navigation signal. Under these circumstances the facility should interference to airborne ADF equipment in the 200 to 450 kHz
not be used. Similarly, prior to commissioning, a new facility frequency range when the calculator is held or positioned within
(particularly VOR or ILS) may transmit with or without 5 ft of the loop or sense antenna, or lead-in cable installation of
identification. In such cases, a NOTAM would identify that the the system. Pilots, especially of small aircraft and helicopters,
facility is unavailable and not to be used for navigation. are therefore cautioned against allowing the operation of
The end result of these combined efforts is a safe and reliable calculators on board their aircraft while airborne.
air navigation system which meets the established standards.
Nevertheless, prior to using any NAVAID, pilots should do the 4.5 vhf omniDirectionAl rAnge (vor)
following:
The VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) is a ground-based,
(a) Check NOTAMs prior to flight for information on NAVAID short-distance navigation aid (NAVAID) which provides
outages. These may include scheduled outages for continuous azimuth information in the form of 360 usable radials
maintenance or calibration. For remote aerodromes, or to or from a station. It is the basis for the very high frequency (VHF)
aerodromes with community aerodrome radio station (CARS), airway structure. It is also used for VOR non-precision instrument
it is recommended that pilots contact the CARS approaches.
observer-communicator (O/C) or the aerodrome operator
prior to flight to determine the condition of the aerodrome, (a) Frequency band—VORs in Canada operate on assigned
availability of services and the status of NAVAIDs. channels spaced at 0.05 MHz (50 kHz) increments within
the frequency range 112.0 to 117.95 MHz.
(b) Ensure that on-board navigation receivers are properly tuned
and that the NAVAID identifier is aurally confirmed. The implication for users is that, in airspace serviced solely by
VOR, aircraft equipped with older VOR receivers which cannot
(c) Visually confirm that the appropriate indicator displays are
be tuned to two decimal places (e.g. 115.25 MHz) may not be
presented.
able to operate under instrument flight rules (IFR). Of course,
area navigation (RNAV), where approved for use, may enable
4.3 Pilot rePorting of ABnormAl oPerAtion operation under IFR.
of grounD-BASeD nAvigAtion Receivers with integrated distance measuring equipment (DME)
(i.e. VOR/DME receivers) normally select the associated DME
AiDS (nAvAiDS) “Y” channel automatically, while stand-alone DME receivers
Pilots are responsible for reporting any navigation aid (NAVAID) display the “X” and “Y” channels separately.
failure or abnormality to the appropriate air traffic service (ATS)
(b) Range—VOR reception is subject to line-of-sight restrictions
facility. If it is not practical to report while airborne, a report
and range varies with aircraft altitude. Subject to shadow
should be filed after landing.
effect, reception at an altitude of 1 500 ft above ground
Reports should contain the nature of the abnormal operation level (AGL) is about 50 NM. Aircraft operating above
detected by the pilot and the approximate magnitude and direction 30 000 ft normally receive VOR at a distance of 150 NM
of any course shift (if applicable). The magnitude may be either or more.
in miles or degrees from the published bearing. Reports should
also include the approximate distance of the aircraft from the
87
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(c) Identification—Identification is accomplished by means of (b) Classification—NDBs are classified by high, medium or
a three-letter location indicator keyed in Morse code at low power output as follows:
regular intervals. (i) “H” power output is 2 000 W or more;
(d) VOR courses—Theoretically, an infinite number of courses (ii) “M” power output is from 50 W to less than 2 000 W;
(radials) are radiated from a VOR station; however, in actual and
practice, 360 radials are usable under optimum conditions. (iii) “L” power output is less than 50 W.
The accuracy of course alignment for published VOR radials is (c) Accuracy—NDB systems are flight checked to an accuracy
±3˚. Unpublished radials are not required to meet a particular of at least ±5˚ for an approach and ±10˚ for en route. However,
standard of accuracy and may be affected by siting difficulties. much larger errors are possible due to propagation
Any significant anomalies in published radials sent out from disturbances caused by sunrise or sunset, reflected signals
VOR serving an aerodrome will be published in the Canada from high terrain, refraction of signals crossing shorelines
Flight Supplement (CFS). at less than 30˚ and electrical storms.
4.5.1 VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) Receiver 4.7 DiStAnce meASuring equiPment (Dme)
Checks Distance measuring equipment (DME) functions by means of
Where RNAV routes have not been published, VOR remains the two-way transmissions of signals between the aircraft and the
primary NAVAID for use in Canada. It is important that the DME site. Paired pulses at a specific spacing are sent out from
COM
accuracy of the aircraft equipment be checked in accordance the aircraft and are received by the ground station. The ground
with principles of good airmanship and aviation safety. station then transmits paired pulses back to the aircraft on a
different frequency. The time required for this signal exchange
While standard avionics maintenance practices are used for is measured in the airborne DME unit and is translated into
checking aircraft VOR receivers, dual VOR equipment may be distance (nautical mile [NM]) from the aircraft to the ground
checked by tuning both sets to the same VOR facility and noting station. Distance information received from DME is slant range
the indicated bearings sent to that station. A difference greater distance and not actual horizontal distance. Accuracy of the
than 4˚ between the aircraft’s two VOR receivers indicates that DME system is within ±0.5 NM or three percent of the distance,
one of the aircraft’s receivers may be beyond acceptable tolerance. whichever is greater.
In such circumstances, the cause of the error should be investigated
and, if necessary, corrected before the equipment is used for an DME is collocated with most Canadian VHF omnidirectional
IFR flight. range (VOR) installations (VOR/DME) and with many instrument
landing system (ILS) and localizers (LOCs). In some cases,
DME are also collocated with non-directional beacons (NDBs)
4.5.2 Airborne VHF Omnidirectional to provide improved navigation capability. For collocated sites,
Range (VOR) Check a single keyer is used to key both the VOR/ILS/LOC and the
Aircraft VOR equipment may also be checked while airborne DME with the three-letter location indicator. The VOR/ILS/
by flying over a landmark located on a published radial and LOC transmits three consecutive indicator codes in a medium
noting the indicated radial. Equipment which varies more than pitch of 1 020 Hz followed by a single DME indicator code
±6˚ from the published radial should not be used for transmitted on the DME frequency (ultrahigh frequency [UHF])
IFR navigation. and modulated at a slightly higher pitch of 1 350 Hz. In the event
that synchronization from the VOR/ILS/LOC should fail, the
DME identification will be transmitted independently.
4.6 non-DirectionAl BeAcon (nDB)
The DME system is in the UHF band and therefore is limited
Non-directional beacons (NDBs) combine a transmitter with an to line-of-sight reception with a range similar to that of a VOR.
antenna system providing a non-directional radiation pattern Most DME “X” and “Y” channels are paired with VOR and
within the low frequency (LF) and medium frequency (MF) LOC frequencies. As a result, the receiving equipment in most
bands of 190–415 kHz and 510–535 kHz. NDBs are the basis aircraft provide automatic DME selection through a coupled
of the LF/MF airway and air route system. In addition, they VOR/ILS receiver. Otherwise, the DME interrogator must be
function as marker beacons for instrument landing system (ILS) selected to the paired VOR or LOC frequency. Distance
as well as non-precision approach (NPA) aids for NDB instrument information from an independent tactical air navigation
approaches. aid (TACAN) facility can be obtained by selecting the appropriate
(a) Identification—Identification consists of two or three letter paired VOR frequency. (In that case, only DME information is
or number indicators keyed in Morse code at regular intervals. being received; any apparent radial information must be ignored.)
(Private NDBs consist of a letter/number combination.) The DME paired frequency and channel number are published
in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) and on instrument flight
rules (IFR) en route charts in the navigation data box for all
TACAN and DME installations.
88
TC AIM March 25, 2021
By convention, those frequencies requiring only one decimal This information is based on the radio transmission received
place (e.g. 110.3 MHz) are known as “X” channels and those from the aircraft, thus giving the VDF operator a means of
associated with two decimal places are designated as “Y” channels providing bearing or heading information to pilots requesting
(e.g. 112.45 MHz). the service.
4.8 tActicAl Air nAvigAtion (tAcAn) 4.11 inStrument lAnDing SyStem (ilS)
Tactical air navigation aid (TACAN) is a navigation aid (NAVAID) The instrument landing system (ILS) is designed to provide an
used primarily by the military for en route, non-precision aircraft with a precision final approach with horizontal and
approaches (NPAs) and other military applications. It provides vertical guidance to the runway. The ground equipment consists
azimuth in the form of radials and slant distance in nautical of a localizer (LOC), a glide path transmitter, a non-directional
miles (NM) from the ground station. The system operates in the beacon (NDB), and a distance measuring equipment (DME) fix
ultrahigh frequency (UHF) range with the frequencies identified or an area navigation (RNAV) fix to denote the final approach
by channel number. There are 126 channels. fix (FAF). See Figure 4.2 for a typical ILS installation.
TACAN users may obtain distance information from a distance
measuring equipment (DME) installation by selecting the TACAN 4.11.1 Localizer (LOC)
channel that is paired with the VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) The LOC provides the pilot with course guidance to the runway
frequency. This TACAN paired channel number is published in centreline. When the LOC is used with the glide slope, it is called
COM
the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) for every VOR/DME facility. an ILS. The LOC is adjusted to provide an angular width typically
between 3° and 6°, depending on runway length. The transmitter
CAUTION:
antenna array is located at the far end of the runway away from
Only DME information is being received by the TACAN avionics.
the approach. LOCs operate in the 108.1–111.9 MHz frequency
Any apparent radial information obtained through the TACAN
range. The LOC may be offset up to 3° from the runway heading
avionics from a VOR/DME facility can only be false signals.
and still publish as a straight-in procedure; however, the amount
of offset will be published as a note on the approach plate. LOC
4.9 vhf omniDirectionAl rAnge AnD tActicAl alignment exceeding 3˚ of the runway heading will have an “X”
as the first letter of the indicator, whereas LOCs and back courses
Air nAvigAtion AiD (vortAc) with an alignment of 3˚ or less will have an “I” as the first letter.
A number of tactical air navigation aids (TACANs), supplied by At a few aerodromes, a LOC back course is also provided. This
the Department of National Defence (DND), are collocated with allows for an NPA in the opposite direction to a front course
VHF omnidirectional ranges (VORs) to form facilities called approach without glide path information. Note that not all ILS
VORTACs. LOCs radiate a usable back course signal.
This facility provides VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth and slant The normal, reliable coverage of ILS LOCs is 18 NM within
distance from the site. Components of a VORTAC operate 10° of either side of the course centreline and 10 NM within 35°
simultaneously on paired frequencies so that aircraft distance of the course centreline for both front and back courses.
measuring equipment (DME) avionics, when tuned using the
paired VOR frequency, will obtain distance information from Figure 4.1—LOC Front and Back Course
the DME component of the TACAN. An aircraft must be equipped
with a VOR receiver to use VOR, appropriate equipment to use
DME, or TACAN equipment to use TACAN (azimuth and DME).
89
TC AIM March 25, 2021
90
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.11.7 Caution Regarding Use of Instrument (C) be aware that, should a false course capture
Landing System (ILS) occur, it will be necessary to deselect and re-arm
APPROACH MODE in order to achieve a
(a) Low clearance indications—Course interference is negligible successful coupled approach on the correct
with front and back courses when they are flown within 6° LOC course.
on either side of the course centreline. Acutal anomalies
are typically noted on the applicable approach charts. (c) EMI—The effect of EMI, particularly on ILS LOC system
However, failure of certain elements of some multi-element integrity, is becoming increasingly significant. In built-up
LOC antenna array systems can cause false courses or low areas, power transformer stations, industrial activity, and
clearances* beyond 6° from the front- or back-course broadcast transmitters have been known to generate
centreline that are not detected by the LOC monitoring interference that affects LOC receivers. The effect is difficult
system. This could result in a premature cockpit indication to quantify as the interference may be transitory, and certain
of approaching or intercepting an on-course centreline. For LOC receivers are more susceptible than others to EMI. If
this reason, a coupled approach should not be initiated until the LOC goes off the air, the “off” flag may remain out of
the aircraft is established within 6° of the LOC centreline. sight or the flag and CDI may give erratic or erroneous
It is also essential to confirm the LOC on-course indication indications. It is even possible that normal on-course cockpit
by reference to the aircraft’s heading and other NAVAIDs indications may continue. Under normal circumstances,
(such as an ADF bearing or RNAV track) before commencing ATS will advise pilots conducting an approach if there is
final descent. Any abnormal indications experienced within equipment failure.
COM
35° of the published front- or back-course centreline of an (d) Automatic landing (autoland) operations—The
ILS LOC should be reported immediately to the appropriate commissioning, periodic flight inspection, and maintenance
ATS facility. of the ILS facility serving a CAT III runway include an
*A low clearance occurs whenever there is less than full- analysis of the ILS LOC signal throughout the rollout to
scale deflection of the omnibearing selector or CDI at a confirm that the ILS facility will support CAT III operations.
position where a full-scale deflection should be displayed The successful outcome of any ILS autoland depends on
outside of 6° from the LOC centreline. the performance of the aircraft’s AFCGS and the ILS LOC
and glide path signals. The course structure and the integrity
(b) LOC false course—False course captures may occur when of an ILS can be compromised when protection of the ILS
the pilot prematurely selects APPROACH MODE from critical areas is not assured. The LOC is particularly sensitive
either HDG or LNAV MODE. Some ILS receivers produce due to its larger signal volume in the aerodrome area. Surface
lower than expected course deviation outputs in the presence and airborne traffic as well as vehicles that are crossing or
of high modulation levels of the LOC-radiated signal. This parked in these critical areas can create a deflection in or
can occur even when both the ground transmitter and the a disturbance to the ILS signal. An ILS CAT III signal is
airborne receiver meet their respective performance only protected by ATC when low visibility procedures are
requirements. The reduced course deviation can, in turn, in effect at that aerodrome.
trigger a false course capture in the AFCS. False course
captures can occur at azimuths of anywhere from 6° to 35° It has been common practice for operators of appropriately
but are most likely to occur in the vicinity of 6° to 10° equipped and certified aircraft to conduct AFCGS autoland
azimuth from the published LOC course. A false capture operations at CAT I, II, or III facilities when weather
is deemed to have occurred when the AFCGS allows the conditions are above the appropriate minima to satisfy
LOC to switch from ARMED to CAPTURED even though maintenance, training, or reliability program requirements.
the omnibearing selector or CDI has not moved and is still A portion of these autolands may also need to be conducted
at full-scale deflection. on CAT I ILS facilities, or on CAT II/III ILS facilities when
low visibility procedures are not in force. In the case of a
In order to minimize the possibility of a false course capture CAT I ILS facility, for example, the ILS should be of CAT II
during an ILS approach, pilots should use raw data sources signal quality without necessarily meeting the associated
to ensure that the aircraft is within 6° of the correct LOC CAT II reliability and availability criteria for backup
course prior to initiating a coupled approach. The following equipment and automatic changeover of facility performance.
cockpit procedures are recommended:
(i) APPROACH MODE should not be selected until the Some CAT I and II ILS facilities that have the signal
aircraft is within 18 NM of the threshold and is characteristics to support AFCGS operations to CAT I and
positioned within 6° of the inbound ILS course. II minima, as applicable, may not have the requisite signal
(ii) In addition, pilots should: characteristics to support autoland operations. NAV
CANADA maintains a list indicating which facilities are
(A) ensure that the ADF bearing (associated with
suitable for autoland practice. The list is available here:
the appropriate NDB site) or RNAV track for
<https://www.navcanada.ca/EN/products-and-services/
the runway is monitored for correct orientation;
Pages/on-board-operational-initiatives-ils.aspx>.
(B) be aware when the raw data indicates that the
aircraft is approaching and established on the
correct course; and
91
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Flight crews are reminded to exercise extreme caution higher than published) could result in positioning the aircraft
whenever ILS signals are used beyond the minima specified in a false glide path created by the radiated lobe.
in the approach procedure and when conducting autolands In order to minimize the possibility of false glide path capture
on any category of ILS when critical area protection is not during an ILS approach, pilots should verify the rate of
assured by ATC. Pilots must be prepared to immediately descent and the altitude at the FAF to ensure that the aircraft
disconnect the autopilot and take appropriate action should is on the published glide path.
unsatisfactory AFCGS performance occur during these
operations.
(e) Glide path fluctuations—While an aircraft is navigating
5.0 AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV)
on the ILS, fluctuations may occur when other aircraft or Area navigation (RNAV) is a method of navigation which permits
vehicles are moving through the glide path critical area, aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage
causing interference with the signal. In some cases, the of navigation aids (NAVAIDs) or within the limits of the capability
aircraft automation/autopilot may follow momentary of self-contained NAVAIDs, or a combination of these.
fluctuations, causing the aircraft to pitch or roll. ATS will
protect the glidepath signal when: Existing navigation systems which provide an area
(i) The ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or visibility is less navigation (RNAV) capability include the global navigation
than 3 miles, or both; and satellite system (GNSS), VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/
(ii) The arriving aircraft is inside the FAF on an ILS distance measuring equipment (DME) (RHO-THETA), DME-
DME (RHO-RHO), inertial navigation system (INS) and inertial
COM
approach.
reference system (IRS).
The ILS critical areas are not protected when aircraft are
outside the FAF. Futhermore, except for CAT II/III operations,
localizer signal protection is not applied when a preceding 5.1 gloBAl nAvigAtion SAtellite
aircraft passes over or through the critical area while taking SyStem (gnSS)
off, landing, or executing a missed approach on the same
or another runway. Pilots must be aware of ILS signal The global navigation satellite system (GNSS) is a worldwide
interference threats as well as flight display indications and position and time determination system that includes one or
autopilot functionality during manual or fully coupled ILS more satellite constellations, aircraft receivers and system
approaches. integrity monitoring, augmented as necessary to support the
required navigation performance for the intended operation.
In situations where protection of the ILS signal is not required
but a pilot wishes to conduct autoland or practise low-
visibility procedures, the pilot must advise the controller 5.2 gloBAl nAvigAtion SAtellite
of these intentions early enough so that the controller can SyStem (gnSS) conStellAtionS
either protect the ILS critical area or advise the pilot that,
due to traffic, ILS critical area protection is not possible. If Currently, there are two complete navigation satellite
ILS critical area protection is not possible, the controller constellations in orbit: the U.S. global positioning system (GPS)
will use the phrase “ILS CRITICAL AREA NOT and the Russian global orbiting navigation satellite
PROTECTED”. It then becomes the pilot’s responsibility system (GLONASS). The U.S. and Russia have offered these
to continue the chosen approach mode. systems as the basis of a GNSS that is free of direct user
charges. Additional constellations are being developed by the
Pilots should review Transport Canada’s Manual of All European Union (Galileo), and by China (BeiDou). It is
Weather Operations for an understanding of ILS critical expected that all four GNSS constellations will be in service
and sensitive areas. by 2020. Instrument flight rules (IFR) certified GNSS receivers
NOTE: At uncontrolled airports, aircraft manoeuvring on the manufactured in North America use only the GPS constellation,
ground may enter ILS critical areas during taxi, takeoff, or but plans are underway to expand that ability.
landing.
5.2.1 Global Positioning System (GPS)
(f) Glide path false course—The normal antenna pattern of
glide path installations produces a false glide path angle at The GPS constellation was developed by the U.S. military; but
two and three times the set angle (e.g. at 6° and 9° for a since 1996, it has been managed by an executive board, chaired
typical 3° published glide path angle). jointly by the departments of Defense and Transportation, that
is comprised of representatives from several other departments
ATC procedures in terminal areas are designed to maintain to ensure that civil users’ requirements are considered in the
aircraft at an altitude that provides a normal rate of descent management of the system. Title 10 of the U.S. Code, Section 2281,
and a suitable position to capture the published glide path assigns the Secretary of Defense statutory authority to sustain
signal. Following the instrument procedures carefully will and operate GPS for military and civil purposes. This statute
ensure both an approach with a stable rate of descent and directs the Secretary of Defense to provide civil GPS service
the complete avoidance of a false glide path. Failure to on a continuous, worldwide basis, free of direct user fees.
adhere to instrument procedures (e.g. remaining at an altitude
92
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The design GPS constellation contains 24 GPS satellites, orbiting A global network of monitor and uplink stations relays information
the earth twice a day at an altitude of 10 900 NM (20 200 km). about the satellites to the control centre and sends messages,
They are arranged in six separate orbital planes, with four satellites when required, to the satellites.
in each; this gives complete global coverage. There are
If a problem is detected with a satellite, it is commanded to send
approximately 32 operational satellites; however, at any given
an “unhealthy” status indication, causing receivers to drop it
time, one or more may be decommissioned or be out of service
from the position solution. Since detection and resolution of a
temporarily for maintenance.
problem take time, and this delay is unacceptable in aviation
All GPS orbits cross the equator at a 55° angle, so it is not possible operations, augmentation systems are used to provide the level
to see a GPS satellite directly overhead when north of 55° N or of integrity required by aviation.
south of 55° S latitude. This does not affect service in polar areas
The GPS constellation status is available at <http://www.navcen.
adversely; in fact, on average, more GPS satellites are visible at
uscg.gov/?Do=constellationStatus>.
high latitudes since receivers can track satellites on the other
side of the pole.
5.2.2 Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite
GPS positioning is based on precise timing. Each satellite has
System (GLONASS)
four atomic clocks on board, guaranteeing an accuracy of one
billionth of one second, and broadcasts a digital PRN code that GLONASS is a global satellite constellation, operated by the
is repeated every millisecond. All GPS receivers start generating Russian Aerospace Defence Forces, that provides real-time
the same code at the same time. Code matching techniques position and velocity determination for military and civilian
COM
establish the time of arrival difference between the generation users. The satellites are located at an altitude of 19 100 km and
of the signal at the satellite and its arrival at the receiver. The at an inclination of the orbital planes of 64.8° to the equator.
speed of the signal is closely approximated by the speed of light, The GLONASS constellation status is available at
with variations resulting from ionospheric and atmospheric <www.glonass-iac.ru/en/>.
effects modeled or directly measured and applied. The time of
arrival difference is converted to a distance, referred to as a
pseudorange, by computing the product of the time of arrival 5.2.3 Galileo Navigation Satellite System
difference and the average speed of the signal. The satellites Galileo is Europe’s GNSS constellation, which will provide a
also broadcast orbit information (ephemeris) to permit receivers highly accurate, guaranteed global positioning service under
to calculate the position of the satellites at any instant in time. civilian control. The fully deployed Galileo system will consist
Normally, SVNs are sequential (i.e. SVN 68 was the sixty-eighth of 24 operational satellites plus six in-orbit spares, positioned
satellite launched), but PRN codes are assigned to a position in in three circular medium Earth orbit (MEO) planes at an altitude
the constellation, and are numbered PRN 1 to 24 (with a maximum of 23 222 km, and at an inclination of the orbital planes of 56°
of 32). to the equator.
A receiver normally needs four pseudoranges to calculate a The Galileo system is scheduled to be completed in 2020.
three-dimensional position and to resolve the time difference The Galileo constellation status is available at <https://www.
between receiver and satellite clocks. In addition to position and gsc-europa.eu/system-status/Constellation-Information>.
time, GPS receivers can also calculate velocity—both speed and
direction of motion.
5.2.4 BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
GPS accuracy depends on transit time and signal propagation
BeiDou is the Chinese navigation satellite system. It consists of
speed to compute pseudoranges. Therefore, accurate satellite
two separate satellite constellations—a limited test system that
clocks, broadcast orbits, and computation of delays as the signals
has been operating since 2000 and a full-scale global navigation
pass through the ionosphere are critical. The ionosphere, which
system that is currently under construction. The BeiDou system
is a zone of charged particles several hundred kilometres above
is scheduled to be completed in 2020.
the Earth, causes signal delays that vary from day to night and
by solar activity. Current receivers contain a model of the nominal
day/night delay, but this model does not account for variable 5.3 AugmentAtion SyStemS
solar activity. For applications requiring high accuracy, GPS
Augmentation of the global positioning system (GPS) constellation
needs an augmentation system to correct the computed transit
or the global orbiting navigation satellite system (GLONASS)
time to compensate for this delay.
constellation is required to meet the accuracy, integrity, continuity
Another key to GPS accuracy is the relative position of satellites and availability requirements for aviation. There are currently
in the sky, or satellite geometry. When satellites are widely three types of augmentation:
spread, geometry and accuracy are better. If satellites are clustered
(a) aircraft-based augmentation system (ABAS);
in a small area of the sky, geometry and accuracy are worse.
Currently, GPS horizontal and vertical positions are accurate to (b) satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS); and
6 m and 8 m, respectively, 95% of the time. (c) ground-based augmentation system (GBAS).
The GPS satellite constellation is operated by the U.S. Air Force
from a control centre at Schriever Air Force Base in Colorado.
93
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.3.1 Aircraft-Based Augmentation The level of RAIM or FDE availability for a certain airspace at
System (ABAS) a certain time is determined by an analysis of satellite geometry,
rather than signal measurement. This is why it can be predicted
RAIM and FDE functions in current IFR-certified avionics are by receivers or with PC-based computer software. The difference
considered ABAS. RAIM can provide the integrity for the between the two methods is that the receivers use the current
en route, terminal, and NPA phases of flight. FDE improves the constellation in their calculations while the PC software can use
continuity of operation in the event of a satellite failure and can a constellation definition that takes into account scheduled
support primary-means oceanic operations. satellite outages.
RAIM uses extra satellites in view to compare solutions and Most TSO-C129a avionics also accept signals from an aircraft
detect problems. It usually takes four satellites to compute a altitude encoder. This is called baro-aiding, and it essentially
navigation solution, and a minimum of five for RAIM to function. reduces the number of satellites required by one, thus further
The availability of RAIM is a function of the number of visible increasing the availability of RAIM and providing an additional
satellites and their geometry. It is complicated by the movement measure of tolerance to satellite failures.
of satellites relative to a coverage area and temporary satellite
outages resulting from scheduled maintenance or failures. With proper integration, IRS and INS can augment/enhance
GNSS navigation. This system allows “coasting” through periods
If the number of satellites in view and their geometry do not of low availability.
support the applicable alert limit (2 NM en route, 1 NM terminal
and 0.3 NM NPA), RAIM is unable to guarantee the integrity
5.3.2 Satellite-Based Augmentation
COM
of the position solution. (Note that this does not imply a satellite
malfunction.) In this case, the RAIM function in the avionics System (SBAS)
will alert the pilot, but will continue providing a navigation SBAS uses a network of ground-based reference stations that
solution. Except in cases of emergency, pilots must discontinue monitor navigation satellite signals and relay data to master
using GNSS for IFR navigation when such an alert occurs. stations, which assess signal validity and compute error
A second type of RAIM alert occurs when the avionics detects corrections. The master stations generate two primary types of
a satellite range error (typically caused by a satellite malfunction) messages: integrity, and range corrections. These are broadcast
that may cause an accuracy degradation that exceeds the alert to SBAS-capable GNSS receivers via GEO satellites in fixed
limit for the current phase of flight. When this occurs, the avionics orbital positions over the equator. The SBAS GEO satellites also
alerts the pilot and denies navigation guidance by displaying serve as additional sources of navigation ranging signals.
red flags on the HSI or CDI. Continued flight using GNSS is The integrity messages provide a direct validation of each
then not possible until the satellite is flagged as unhealthy by navigation satellite’s signal. This function is similar to RAIM,
the control centre, or normal satellite operation is restored. except that the additional satellites required for RAIM are not
Some avionics go beyond basic RAIM by having an FDE feature necessary when SBAS integrity messages are used. The integrity
that allows the avionics to detect which satellite is faulty, and messages are available wherever a GEO satellite signal can
then to exclude it from the navigation solution. FDE requires a be received.
minimum of six satellites with good geometry to function. It The range corrections contain estimates of the errors introduced
has the advantage of allowing continued navigation in the presence into the range measurements as a result of ionospheric delays,
of a satellite malfunction. and satellite ephemeris (orbit) and clock errors. Ionospheric delay
Most first generation avionics do not have FDE and were designed terms are critical for correction messages, and are also the most
when GPS had a feature called SA that deliberately degraded challenging to characterize. First, each reference station measures
accuracy. SA has since been discontinued, and new generation the ionospheric delay for each visible satellite. These observations
SBAS-capable receivers (TSO-C145a/C146a) account for SA are sent to the master station, where they are combined, and
being terminated. These receivers experience a higher RAIM used to generate a model of the ionosphere, which is then
availability, even in the absence of SBAS messages, and also transmitted to the receivers via the GEO satellite. The accuracy
have FDE capability. of the model is dependent on the number and placement of the
reference stations providing observations of ionospheric delays.
For avionics that cannot take advantage of SA being discontinued,
average RAIM availability is 99.99% for en-route and 99.7% for By compensating for these errors, SBAS-capable GNSS receivers
NPA operations for a 24-satellite GPS constellation. FDE can compute the position of the aircraft with the accuracy
availability ranges from 99.8% for en route to 89.5% for NPA. necessary to support flight operations with vertical guidance.
Avionics that can take advantage of SA having been discontinued Vertical guidance provides safer stabilized approaches and
have virtually 100% availability of RAIM for en route and transition to visual for landing. This represents one of the principal
99.998% for NPA; FDE availability ranges from 99.92% for benefits from SBAS service. The other is lower approach minima
en route to 99.1% for NPA. These figures have been computed at certain airports, as a result of greater lateral accuracy.
for mid-latitudes, and are dependent on user position and also
on which satellites are operational at any given time. RAIM and
FDE availability is typically even better at high latitudes, since
the receiver is able to track satellites on the other side of the
North Pole.
94
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The first SBAS, the U.S. FAA’s wide area augmentation 5.4.1 Domestic En Route and Terminal
system (WAAS), was commissioned in 2003. Europe has built Operations
a compatible system called EGNOS (European geostationary
navigation overlay service) which was approved for aviation use In practice, pilots can use GNSS for guidance most of the time.
in August 2010. Japan and India also have similar systems to If an integrity alert occurs while en route, the pilot can then
augment GNSS: MSAS (MTSAT satellite-based augmentation continue by using conventional aids, diverting if necessary from
system) and GAGAN (GPS and GEO augmented navigation), the direct routing, notifying ATS of any changes to the flight
respectively. and obtaining a new clearance, as required.
WAAS messages are currently being broadcast by three When using GNSS to maintain a track in terminal operations,
geostationary satellites located on the equator at 107.3°W, 116.8°W the avionics shall be in terminal mode and/or the CDI shall be
and 133°W. set to terminal sensitivity. (Most avionics set the mode and
sensitivity automatically within 30 NM of the destination airport,
or when an arrival procedure is loaded.)
5.3.3 Ground-Based Augmentation
System (GBAS) When using GNSS to navigate along VHF/UHF or LF/MF
airways, ground-based NAVAID reception is not an issue. This
GBAS, also known as LAAS, sends corrections directly to means that pilots using GNSS for navigation can file or request
GBAS-capable receivers from a ground station at an airport. an altitude below the MEA, but at or above the MOCA, to avoid
GPS receivers with antennas at surveyed surface locations provide icing, optimize cruise altitude, or in an emergency. However,
COM
measurements used to generate and broadcast pseudorange an ATS clearance to fly at a below-MEA altitude could be
corrections. Aircraft receivers use the corrections for increased dependent on issues such as radiocommunication reception and
accuracy, while a monitor function in the ground station assures the base of controlled airspace. In the rare case of a RAIM alert
the integrity of the broadcast. GBAS provides service over a while en route below the MEA, and out of range of the NAVAID,
limited area, typically within 30 NM of the ground station. pilots should advise ATS and climb to continue the flight using
alternate means of navigation.
GBAS is not yet available in Canada.
GNSS avionics typically display the distance to the next
waypoint. To ensure proper separation between aircraft, a
5.4 DomeStic inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) controller may request the distance from a waypoint that is
APProvAl to uSe gloBAl nAvigAtion not the currently active waypoint in the avionics; it may even
be behind the aircraft. Pilots must be able to obtain this
SAtellite SyStem (gnSS) AnD SAtellite- information quickly from the avionics. Techniques vary by
BASeD AugmentAtion SyStem (SBAS) manufacturer, so pilots should ensure familiarity with this
The global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and satellite-based function.
augmentation system (SBAS) approved for instrument flight At times outside radar coverage, pilots may be cleared by ATS
rules (IFR) use in Canada are listed in AIP Canada (ICAO) to a position defined by a latitude and longitude. As these are
ENR 4.3, Table 4.3. usually outside the range of traditional NAVAIDs, there is no
GNSS capability may be provided by a panel-mount receiver or means to cross check that the coordinates have been entered
by a flight management system (FMS) that uses the appropriate accurately. Pilots must be particularly careful to verify that the
sensor. coordinates are correct.
95
TC AIM March 25, 2021
GNSS-based RNAV approaches are designed to take full (±15 min). This should be done before takeoff, and again prior
advantage of GNSS capabilities. A series of waypoints in a “T” to commencing a GNSS-based approach. If approach-level RAIM
or “Y” pattern eliminates the need for a procedure turn. The is not expected to be available, pilots should advise ATS as soon
accuracy of GNSS may result in lower minima and increased as practicable and state their intentions (e.g. delay the approach,
capacity at the airport. Because GNSS is not dependent on the fly another type of approach, proceed to alternate).
location of a ground-based aid, straight-in approaches are possible
for most runway ends at an airport. 5.4.2.2 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
In Canada, RNAV (GNSS) approach charts may depict up to Overlay Approaches
five sets of minima:
GNSS overlay approaches are included on certain traditional
(a) LPV; VOR- or NDB-based approaches, that have been approved to be
flown using the guidance of IFR approach-certified GNSS
(b) LP;
avionics. Because of approach design criteria, LOC-based
(c) LNAV/VNAV; approaches cannot be overlaid.
(d) LNAV; and GNSS overlay approaches are identified in the CAP by including
(e) CIRCLING. “(GNSS)” after the runway designation (e.g. NDB RWY 04
[GNSS]). When using GNSS guidance, the pilot benefits from
The LP and LNAV minima indicate an NPA, while the LNAV/
improved accuracy and situational awareness through a moving
VNAV and LPV minima refer to APV approaches (RNAV
map display (if available) and distance-to-go indication. Unless
COM
96
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The nominal final approach course vertical flight path angle for the published TLim does not apply if the pilot enables the
LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches is 3°, avoiding the step-down temperature compensation.
minimum altitudes associated with traditional NPAs.
In short, regardless of whether or not the FMS (or other automated
The LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima depict a DA, which requires means) provides temperature compensation of the vertical path,
the pilot to initiate a missed approach at the DA if the visual and whether or not the actual reported airport temperature is
reference to continue the approach has not been established. within the temperature limit for the procedure, pilots are
responsible for correcting the temperature of all minimum
5.4.2.4 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches with published IFR altitudes on the approach, including the DA.
Vertical Guidance Based on Barometric Vertical
Navigation (Baro-VNAV) 5.4.2.5 Area Navigation (RNAV) Approaches with
Vertical Guidance Based on Wide Area
Multi-sensor FMSs that meet TSO-C115b have been certified
Augmentation System (WAAS)
since the late 1980s to provide guidance for a stabilized final
approach segment during NPAs. The vertical guidance for these RNAV (GNSS) approaches with vertical guidance based on
systems has been derived from a barometric altitude input; hence, WAAS require a Class 2 or 3 (for LNAV/VNAV minima) or
these approaches are known as baro-VNAV approaches. This Class 3 (for LPV minima) TSO-C145a WAAS receiver, or a
equipment has typically only been installed on transport category TSO-C146a sensor interfaced to appropriate avionics.
aeroplanes. The information provided by these systems is advisory
RNAV (GNSS) approaches with vertical guidance based on
only, and pilots are required to respect all minimum altitudes,
COM
WAAS are entirely dependent on the WAAS signal. WAAS
including step-down altitudes, since NPAs are not specifically
meets essentially the same navigation performance requirements
designed to take advantage of baro-VNAV capability.
(accuracy, integrity and continuity) as ILS, and pilots can expect
With the publication in Canada of RNAV (GNSS) approaches guidance to be similar to that provided by an ILS, with some
with vertical guidance, suitably-equipped aircraft may fly improvement in signal stability over ILS.
baro-VNAV approaches to the LNAV/VNAV minima published
WAAS avionics continuously calculate horizontal and vertical
on these approach plates. The standard for equipage is a multi-
protection levels during an approach and will provide a message
sensor FMS that meets TSO-C115b and is certified in accordance
to the crew if alert limits for the procedure are exceeded, similar
with FAA AC 20-138C or equivalent. The FMS must use GNSS
to the way in which ILS monitors shut down an ILS signal when
sensor input, but does not require a WAAS-capable receiver to
its accuracy does not meet the required tolerances.
fly to LNAV/VNAV minima. Pilots must note that the vertical
path defined by baro-VNAV is affected by altimeter setting Although the WAAS integrity monitor is very reliable, good
errors. For this reason, baro-VNAV is not authorized unless a airmanship nevertheless dictates that pilots verify the FAWP
local field altimeter setting is available. crossing altitude depicted on approach plates with LNAV/VNAV
and LPV minima, in the same way that the glide path check
Non-standard atmospheric conditions, particularly temperature,
altitude is used when flying an ILS approach. Large altitude
also induce errors in the baro-VNAV vertical path. A nominal
deviations could be an indication of a database error or otherwise
3° glide path will be steeper at warmer temperatures and shallower
undetectable incorrect signal.
at lower temperatures. To compensate for these temperature
effects, some avionics allow input of the temperature at the
airport and apply temperature compensation to the vertical path 5.5 flight PlAnning
angle so that the baro-VNAV vertical path is not biased as a
NOTAM on ground-based navigation aid (NAVAID) outages
function of temperature. Unfortunately, not all systems have
are of direct use to pilots because if a NAVAID is not functioning,
similar capabilities to compensate for temperature effects, and
the related service is not available. With the global positioning
pilots need to understand their system’s capabilities.
system (GPS) and wide area augmentation system (WAAS), the
When temperature compensation is not or cannot be applied knowledge of a satellite outage does not equate to a direct
through the FMS, pilots shall refer to a temperature limit, referred knowledge of service availability. The procedures for determining
to as TLim, published on the approach chart. This limiting service availability are different for GPS (TSO-C129/C129a)
temperature protects a baro-VNAV’s final segment vertical path and WAAS (TSO-C145a/C146a) avionics, and are explained in
only (it does not protect any of the published minimum IFR the next subsections.
altitudes on the chart). Below this temperature, the uncompensated
vertical path generated by the FMS will not provide the required
obstacle protection. Therefore, when the temperature is below
the published TLim, an aircraft with an uncompensated baro-
VNAV system shall not fly an RNAV approach to LNAV/VNAV
minima. TLim will be a function of the reduced obstacle clearance
resulting from flying an uncompensated VPA and will vary
from approach to approach. For avionics systems that have the
capability to correctly adjust the VPA for temperature deviations,
97
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.5.1 Global Positioning System (GPS) NOTAM Examples of WAAS NOTAMs are listed below:
(a) LPV AND LP AND WAAS-BASED LNAV/VNAV APCH
NOTE:
NOT AVBL (and a description of area such as: WEST OF
This section applies only to operators using TSO-C129/C129a
A LINE FM WHITEHORSE TO CALGARY). This is
avionics.
issued as a national NOTAM and is used to communicate
Research has shown minor differences among avionics’ that a GEO satellite failure has occurred, potentially affecting
computations of RAIM availability, making it impractical to all WAAS messages for the area covered by that satellite.
develop a GPS RAIM NOTAM system that will work reliably (b) LPV AND LP AND WAAS-BASED LNAV/VNAV APCH
for all receivers. Because of this, and since IFR GPS approval NOT AVBL. When issued as a national NOTAM, this
requires aircraft to be equipped with traditional avionics to be indicates the complete loss of WAAS services.
used when RAIM is unavailable, NOTAM information on GPS
RAIM availability is not provided in Canada. Canadian FICs NOTE:
can supply NOTAM on GPS satellite outages by querying the LNAV will still likely be available for operators using WAAS
international NOTAM identifier KGPS. (This information is avionics.
also available at <www.notams.faa.gov>.) The availability of
RAIM can then be computed from the satellite availability (c) WAAS UNMONITORED. Since pilots would not be alerted
information by entering the expected outages into PC-based to disruptions of WAAS services, flight planning should
RAIM prediction software provided by some avionics be based on the assumption that LPV, LP and WAAS-based
LNAV/VNAV may be unavailable.
COM
NAV CANADA has implemented a NOTAM system for users Pilots should flight plan as though LPV, LP and WAAS-based
of WAAS avionics (TSO C145a/C146a). When WAAS service LNAV/VNAV will not be available at these aerodromes; however,
is expected not to be available for a duration of more than 15 min, if the service is available, it may be used safely at the pilot’s
a NOTAM will be issued. This typically implies a WAAS GEO discretion.
satellite failure.
5.5.4 Space Weather
Pilots should flight plan based on the assumption that the services
referred to in a NOTAM will not be available. However, once The source of space weather is the sun, which releases streams
they arrive at the aerodrome, they may discover that a service of charged particles made up of energized electrons and protons.
is in fact available, in which case they may use the approach Two types of solar phenomena can have a major impact on GNSS:
safely if they so choose. coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and coronal holes. Coronal mass
When LPV, LP and WAAS-based LNAV/VNAV are not available, ejections are gigantic amounts of electrified gas or plasma
pilots may fly the LNAV procedure to the published MDA as launched into space that can have a major influence, typically
this will almost always be available to pilots using WAAS reaching the Earth within 1–3 days. Coronal holes are regions
avionics. Since LNAV procedures will be used when LPV and of open magnetic field lines where high-speed streams of plasma
LNAV/VNAV are not available, pilots should ensure that they can flow out from the sun. If conditions are right when these
maintain their skills in flying these approaches. particles reach the Earth, geomagnetic storms can occur.
At the Earth’s surface, geomagnetic storms are characterized
by a K-level index that ranges from 0–9. Storms having little
effect would range from 0–3, while those with moderate effects
would be 4–7, and strong storms with a lot of impact would be
98
TC AIM March 25, 2021
> 7. The Canadian Space Weather Forecast Centre (CSWFC) 5.6 inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) flight
monitors, analyzes and forecasts space weather. Based on solar
observations, it can predict when the particles will reach the PlAn equiPment SuffixeS
Earth, and forecast the expected geomagnetic activity that will On an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan, the letter “G”
result. More detailed measurements are made using space weather in Item 10 (equipment and capabilities) indicates that the aircraft
monitoring satellites, which provide information approximately has IFR-approved global positioning system (GPS) or wide area
30 min before the particles reach the Earth. augmentation system (WAAS) avionics, and can therefore be
Canada has three zones of geomagnetic activity: the polar cap, cleared by air traffic service (ATS) on direct routings while
the auroral zone and the subauroral zone. The highest geomagnetic en route, in terminal areas, and for global navigation satellite
activity and greatest disturbances are observed in the auroral system (GNSS) based approaches.
zone. Changes in electron density, due to space weather activity,
can change the speed at which radio waves travel, introducing 5.7 AvionicS DAtABASeS
a “propagation delay” in the GNSS signal through the ionosphere.
The propagation delay can vary from minute to minute, and Global navigation satellite system (GNSS) avionics used for
these intervals of rapid change can sometimes last for several instrument flight rules (IFR) flight require an electronic database
hours, especially in the polar and auroral regions. Changing that can be updated, normally on 28- or 56-day cycles. The
propagation delays cause errors in the determination of the range. updating service is usually purchased under subscription from
avionics manufacturers or database suppliers.
ABAS, SBAS and GBAS use different techniques to correct for
COM
ionospheric delays. ABAS uses simple models implemented in Database errors do occur, and should be reported to the avionics
the receiver software that are adequate for en route navigation database supplier. It is good practice to verify that retrieved data
through non-precision approach phases of flight, but are not is correct, and it is mandatory to do so for approach data.
adequate for any type of approach during which vertical guidance Verification can be accomplished either by checking waypoint
is provided. SBAS provides ionospheric delay corrections derived coordinates or by checking bearings and distances between
from measurements at a set of reference stations distributed over waypoints against charts.
a wide area. GBAS provides corrections for the combined effects
of various sources of ranging errors, including ionospheric delays. 5.8 uSe of gloBAl nAvigAtion SAtellite
The corrections provided by SBAS and GBAS are much more
accurate that those calculated by ABAS, because they are derived SyStem (gnSS) in lieu of grounD-BASeD
in real-time from actual measurements, and are therefore adequate AiDS
for approach procedures with vertical guidance.
See AIP Canada (ICAO) ENR 4.3.
GNSS provides navigation either using unaugmented GNSS and
RAIM or FDE, or using SBAS corrections. The availability and
continuity of GNSS en route and NPA services are very robust 5.9 AreA nAvigAtion (rnAv) APProAcheS At
against ionospheric delays caused by geomagnetic storms. This AlternAte AeroDromeS
robustness is primarily due to the relatively wide alert limits
associated with en route and non-precision approach operations. Pilots may take credit for an area navigation (RNAV) approach
at an alternate aerodrome as outlined in the Canada Air
SBAS augmentation makes APV possible by ensuring real-time Pilot (CAP).
monitoring of core constellation satellites and ionospheric delays.
APV operations require accurate ionospheric corrections, as Taking credit for RNAV approaches at an alternate aerodrome
well as relatively narrow integrity bounds, and these bounds for instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan filing purposes is
may be widened during periods when the ionosphere is severely possible because the availability of receiver autonomous integrity
disturbed, in order to account for the increased variability of monitoring (RAIM) or wide area augmentation system (WAAS)
ionospheric delays, while ensuring the integrity of the position integrity is normally very high. However, when satellites are
solutions for all users. APV service is very robust in mid- and out of service, availability could decrease. Consequently, it is
high-latitude regions, and losses of service due to ionospheric necessary to determine satellite status to ensure that the necessary
effects are expected to occur less than 1% of the time. Interruptions level of integrity will be available. The procedures for this are
of APV service may occur during severe geomagnetic storms explained in the next two sections.
and affect portions of the service area for short periods of time.
In rare cases, extremely severe geomagnetic storms may even
cause temporary loss of APV service over large portions of the
SBAS service area for several hours. During pre-flight planning,
pilots can consult Canadian Space Weather Forecast Centre
products to determine if APV service for their flight may be
affected. See: <www.spaceweather.gc.ca/index-en.php>.
99
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.9.1 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) 5.10 gloBAl nAvigAtion SAtellite
Approaches—Global Positioning SyStem (gnSS) vulnerABility—
System (GPS) (TSO-C129/C129a) Avionics
interference AnD AnomAly rePorting
The status of the GPS constellation may be obtained through
the FAA by contacting a NAV CANADA FIC and requesting Global navigation satellite system (GNSS) is used in many
the international NOTAM file KGPS. applications: financial, security and tracking, transportation,
agriculture, communications, weather prediction, scientific
A procedure that meets the requirement to ensure that approach- research, etc. Because it is used for such a wide range of civilian
level RAIM will be available for TSO-C129/C129a avionics is purposes, when somebody wishes to disable one GNSS-based
as follows. system, their actions can also disrupt other, unrelated systems.
(a) Determine the ETA at the proposed aerodrome. Jamming, directed at non-aviation users, could affect aircraft
operations. Over the past few years, Industry Canada has
(b) Check the GPS NOTAM file (KGPS) for a period of 60 min
encountered several cases of illegal importation, manufacturing,
before and after the ETA. If not more than one satellite
distribution, offering for sale, possession and use of
outage is predicted during that period, then this procedure
radiocommunication jamming devices, all of which are prohibited
is satisfied. If two or more satellites are anticipated to be
under the Radiocommunication Act. Many jamming devices are
unserviceable during the ETA ±60-min period, then it is
manufactured for the purpose of disrupting the functioning of
necessary to determine if approach-level RAIM will be
GNSS receivers, cellular networks and low-power communication
available, taking into account the reduced availability
COM
monitoring (RAIM) level and course deviation indicator (CDI) 6.0 PERFORMANCE-BASED
sensitivity will not be appropriate if an approach is not
retrieved from the avionics database; NAVIGATION (PBN)
(e) never fly below published minimum altitudes while in
instrument conditions. Accidents have resulted from pilots 6.1 generAl
relying too much on the accuracy of GNSS;
Performance-based navigation (PBN) is not a stand-alone concept.
(f) use VFR GNSS receivers only to supplement map reading Rather, along with communications, surveillance, and air traffic
in visual conditions, not as a replacement for current charts; management (ATM), it is one of the four strategic enablers that
(g) position hand-held receivers and related cables carefully in support an overall airspace concept. An airspace concept may
the cockpit to avoid the potential for electromagnetic be described as a master plan or vision for a particular section
interference (EMI), and to avoid interfering with aircraft of airspace, which aims to improve safety, increase capacity and
controls. Handheld units with valid databases could be efficiency, and mitigate negative environmental impacts.
useful in an emergency if IFR unit failed; and PBN is intended to enable more repeatable, reliable and predictable
(h) resist the urge to fly into marginal weather when navigating flight tracks as well as smaller route containment areas to increase
VFR. The risk of becoming lost is small when using GNSS, operational efficiency. In the simplest form, it is area
but the risk of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) increases navigation (RNAV) based on performance requirements for
in low visibility. VFR charts must also be current and updated aircraft operating along an air traffic service (ATS) route, on an
COM
from applicable NOTAMs, and should be the primary instrument approach procedure (IAP) or within designated
reference for avoiding alert areas, etc. Some VFR receivers airspace. Under the PBN concept, RNAV is defined as a method
display these areas, but there is no guarantee that the of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired flight
presentation is correct, because there is no standard for such path within the coverage of ground-based or space-based
depictions. navigation aids (NAVAIDs) or within the limits of the capability
of self-contained aids (inertial navigation). Area navigation
systems can take two forms: RNAV, which is the basic definition
5.12 vhf omniDirectionAl rAnge (vor)/ above, or required navigation performance (RNP), which has
DiStAnce meASuring equiPment (Dme) an additional functional requirement for on-board performance
(rho-thetA) SyStem monitoring and alerting. The RNP system relies upon the
capability of the on-board navigation system to monitor, in real
The capability of on-board area navigation (RNAV) computer time, the achieved navigation performance and to alert the flight
systems which utilize VHF omnidirectional range (VOR)/distance crew when the specified minimum performance appropriate to
measuring equipment (DME) signals varies considerably. The a particular operation cannot be met. This additional functionality
computer electronically offsets a VOR/DME station to any provided by RNP allows the flight crew to intervene and take
desired location within reception range. The relocated position appropriate mitigation actions if necessary. On-board performance
is known as a waypoint and is defined by its bearing and distance monitoring and alerting allows RNP operations to provide an
from the station. Waypoints are used to define route segments additional level of safety and capability over RNAV operations.
and the computer provides steering guidance to and from
waypoints. All future RNAV will identify performance requirements through
the use of navigation specifications rather than defining required
equipage of specific navigation sensors (VHF omnidirectional
5.13 DiStAnce meASuring equiPment (Dme- range [VOR], automatic direction finder [ADF], etc.). These
Dme [rho-rho]) SyStem navigation specifications are expressed in terms of accuracy,
integrity, availability, continuity, and functionality needed for
DME-DME is a system which combines distance measuring the proposed operation.
equipment (DME) receivers with a microprocessor to provide
an area navigation (RNAV) capability. The system has the location Accuracy: In the context of PBN, accuracy is the capability of
of the DME facilities in its database. Measuring the distance the navigation system to maintain the computed position within
from two or more of these stations can provide a positional fix. a specified distance (lateral navigation accuracy) of the actual
The system provides a means of entering waypoints for a random position 95 percent of the time.
route and displays navigation information such as bearing, Integrity: Integrity is the level of confidence that can be placed
distance, cross-track error and time-to-go between two points. in the information received from the navigation system. Normally
defined as a percentage probability to satisfy the assurance
condition (i.e. 10-5), it includes the ability of an RNP system to
provide timely and valid warnings to users when the system
must not be used for the intended operation or phase of flight.
101
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Availability: Availability is stated as a percentage of time the An RNAV specification is based on an RNAV system and would
navigation system can perform its function. It should provide be denoted by RNAV(X). An RNP navigation specification is
reliable navigation information and present it to the crew, autopilot based on an RNP system and is denoted by RNP(X).
or other system managing flight of the aircraft.
In the examples above, “(X)” indicates the lateral navigation
Continuity: Continuity refers to the ability of a navigation system accuracy, in nautical miles, to be maintained 95 percent of the
to provide its service without interruption. It should do so with flight time by the population of aircraft operating within the
the specified level of accuracy and integrity throughout the airspace, route or procedure. For RNP specifications, it is also
intended period of operation, assuming that it was available at possible to have advanced RNP (A-RNP) and approach navigation
the start of the operation. specifications that cover all segments of an instrument approach.
They are denoted as RNP APCH (RNP approach) or RNP AR
Functionality: A set of functions or capabilities associated with
APCH (RNP authorization required approach).
PBN operations. Examples could include course deviation scaling
and radius to fix (RF) capability. A navigation specification identifies not only a lateral accuracy
figure but also functional and aircrew requirements. Therefore,
certification for one type of navigation specification does not
6.2 key elementS of PerformAnce-BASeD imply automatic qualification for a less stringent specification,
nAvigAtion (PBn) and an RNP specification doesn’t necessarily enable an RNAV
specification.
Performance-based navigation (PBN) consists of three main
elements: navigation aid (NAVAID) infrastructure, navigation ICAO has developed guidance on a range of navigation
COM
specifications and navigation applications. These elements, specifications. It is the responsibility of each State to determine
described in detail further on, must be present to have a fully which navigation specifications would be most applicable within
incorporated PBN concept. their airspace concept with regards to current regulations and
NAVAID infrastructure. For this reason it is important to note
6.2.1 Navigation Aid (NAVAID) Infrastructure that what is needed to meet a navigation specification in one
State may vary from that of another.
The NAVAID infrastructure that contributes to an RNAV system
may consist of ground-based, space-based or on-board NAVAIDs The following chart depicts all of the navigation specifications
that support or provide positioning capabilities. System types and their intended operational domain as outlined in ICAO’s
are as follows: Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613).
(a) Ground infrastructure, which includes commissioned VORs Table 6.1—Navigation Specification Designations
and DMEs. (NDBs do not provide the specific range and
RNAV Specifications RNP Specifications
azimuth information with accuracy necessary to be used
in an RNAV system). Oceanic En route Oceanic En route
and Remote and Terminal and Remote and Terminal
(b) Authorized GNSS space-based infrastructure (satellite Navigation Navigation Navigation Navigation
constellations) such as: GPS, the European Union’s Galileo, Applications Applications Applications Applications
the Russian GLONASS, etc.
RNAV 10* RNAV 5 RNP 4 RNP 2
(c) SBASs that correct for variance in the GNSS satellite signals RNAV 2 RNP 2 RNP 1
in order to provide greater accuracy and/or signal quality, RNAV 1 A-RNP
e.g. WAAS. *Formerly RNP APCH
(d) GNSS GBASs that provide navigation and precision approach referred to as RNP AR
service in the vicinity of the host airport, e.g. LAAS, GBAS RNP 10 APCH
landing system (GLS), etc. RNP 0.3
operations in airspace or on routes designated as RNAV 10, the 6.3.4 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) 4
lateral total system error must also be within ±10 NM for at least
95 percent of the total flight time. For normal operations, cross- RNP 4 is intended for oceanic or remote airspace where a robust
track error/deviation should be limited to plus or minus one-half ground-based navigation infrastructure is not available. Aircraft
of the navigation accuracy associated with the route (i.e. 5 NM). must have at least two fully serviceable independent long range
Brief deviations from this standard (e.g. overshoots or undershoots) navigation systems (LRNS) listed in the flight manual; both
are allowable during and immediately after route turns, up to a must be operational at the point of entry into RNP 4 airspace.
maximum of one times the navigation (i.e. 10 NM). Position integrity bounding can currently only be met using
certified GNSS receivers. The GNSS receivers may be part of
Canadian RNAV 10 operations requirements are defined in a stand-alone navigation system or one of the sensors in a multi-
AC 700-006—Required Navigation Performance 4 (RNP 4) sensor system. Where GNSS is an input as part of a multi-sensor
and Required Navigation Performance 10 (RNP 10) Airspace system, the aircraft’s position source must use GNSS positions
and the associated Special Authorization RNP 10. exclusively during RNP 4 operations.
Canadian operational requirements are defined in AC 700-
6.3.2 Area Navigation (RNAV) 5 006—Required Navigation Performance 4 (RNP 4) and Required
RNAV 5 is an en route navigation specification and may also Navigation Performance 10 (RNP 10) Airspace and the associated
be used for initial STAR or ending SID segments, where the leg Special Authorization RNP 4.
segments are beyond 30 NM from an aerodrome. RNAV 5
operations are based on the use of RNAV equipment that 6.3.5 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) 2
COM
automatically determines aircraft position in the horizontal plane
using inputs from one or a combination of the following types RNP 2 is intended for en route application, primarily in areas
of position sensors: where there is sparse or no ground NAVAID infrastructure,
limited or no ATS surveillance, and low- to medium-density
(a) VOR/DME traffic. Use of RNP 2 in continental applications requires a lower
(b) DME/DME continuity requirement than use in oceanic or remote applications.
In oceanic or remote applications, the target traffic is primarily
(c) INS or IRS transport category aircraft operating at high altitude, whereas
(d) GNSS continental applications may include a significant percentage
VOR/DME- and DME/DME-based RNAV 5 have limited of other aircraft.
opportunities in Canadian airspace because of the required RNP 2 requires the use of certified GNSS receivers. Operators
numbers and geometry of ground-based aids to provide robust are required to have the means to predict the availability of
infrastructure. Introduction of RNAV 5 in Canadian airspace GNSS fault detection (e.g. ABAS RAIM) to support operations
applications is of low value since current RNPC airspace along an RNP 2 route. The AIP Canada (ICAO) will indicate
requirements already require performance that exceeds RNAV 5 when a prediction capability is required and an acceptable means
when conducting RNAV. to satisfy that requirement.
Operational requirements are defined in AC 700-015—En Route Operational requirements for RNP 2 (Continental) are defined
Area Navigation Operations RNAV 5 (Formerly B-RNAV) and in AC 700-38—Performance-based Navigation (PBN) —
the associated Special Authorization RNAV 5. EnRoute and the associated Special Authorization RNP 2
(Continental). RNP 2 (Oceanic/Remote) has additional
6.3.3 Area Navigation (RNAV) 1 and RNAV 2 requirements over those for RNP 2 Continental, but they have
not yet been defined in a Canadian AC. A separate AC will be
RNAV 1 and RNAV 2 operations are based on the use of the published when RNP 2 (Oceanic/Remote) operations are
same aircraft receivers as those required for RNAV 5. Additional implemented in Canadian-controlled airspace.
aircraft functionality and NAVAID infrastructure requirements
are needed to meet the more demanding performance of RNAV 1
and RNAV 2. This navigation specification is applicable to all 6.3.6 Required Navigation Performance (RNP) 1
routes, inside or outside of controlled airspace, SIDs and STARs. The RNP 1 navigation specification is intended to be applied
It also applies to IAP leg segments up to the FACF. RNAV 1 and on SIDs and STARs within 30 NM of the aerodrome where the
RNAV 2 routes are expected to be conducted in a surveillance surveillance services are limited or do not exist and/or a ground-
environment with DCPC. In Canada, RNAV 1 has some potential based RNAV infrastructure is not practical. The STARs provide
for terminal RNAV use for SIDs and STARs in areas where a means to connect the en route structure to a variety of approach
multiple DME pairs are available. procedures, including RNP approach (RNP APCH), RNP
Operational requirements are defined in AC 700-019—Terminal authorization required approach (RNP AR APCH) and ILS.
and En Route Area Navigation Operations (RNAV 1 and 2) and Application of RNP 1 enables the use of RF leg segments in
the associated Special Authorization RNAV 1 and RNAV 2. applications such as the STAR, transition to the approach or
approach initial segments.
Position integrity bounding for RNP 1 can currently only be
met using certified GNSS receivers. The GNSS receivers may
103
TC AIM March 25, 2021
be a part of a stand-alone navigation system or one of the sensors 6.3.8 Advanced Required Navigation
in a multi-sensor system. Where GNSS is an input as part of a Performance (A-RNP)
multi-sensor system, the aircraft’s position source must use
GNSS positions exclusively during RNP 1 operations. During This is the only navigation specification that enables operations
operations in airspace or on routes designated as RNP 1, the under other associated navigation specifications. When advanced
lateral total system error must be within ±1 NM for 95 percent RNP (A-RNP) is certified, the following other navigation
of the total flight time. For normal operations, cross-track error/ accuracy and functional requirements are met in navigation
deviation should be limited to plus or minus one half of the specifications: RNAV 5, RNAV 2, RNAV 1, RNP 2, RNP 1, and
navigation accuracy associated with the procedure. Brief RNP APCH. Some other functional elements are optional, such
deviations from this standard during and immediately after as RNP scalability, higher continuity, FRT, and baro-VNAV.
turns, up to a maximum of one times the navigation accuracy However, RF leg capabilities are a requirement.
are allowable. A-RNP has a very broad operational application; for operation
For RNP 1 routes, pilots must use a lateral deviation indicator, in oceanic or remote airspace, on the continental en route
flight director, or autopilot in lateral navigation mode. Pilots of structure, as well as on arrival and departure routes and
aircraft with a lateral deviation display must ensure that lateral approaches. Operations would rely solely on the integrity of the
deviation scaling is suitable for the navigation accuracy associated RNP system without a reversionary capability to conventional
with the route/procedure. means of navigation since a conventional infrastructure may
not be available. The advantage of utilizing a designation of
Canadian RNP 1 operational requirements are defined in AC 700- A-RNP for a flight operation is the combined performance and
COM
025—Required Navigation Performance 1 (RNP 1) and the functionality of a range of navigation specifications encompassing
associated Special Authorization RNP 1. all phases of flight.
For further information on A-RNP, refer to ICAO’s Performance-
6.3.7 Required Navigation based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613), Volume II, Part C,
Performance (RNP) 0.3 Chapter 4. Canadian operational approval of A-RNP is not
RNP 0.3 was developed in response to the helicopter community’s currently in place; therefore, no AC or Special Authorization
desire for narrower IFR obstacle-free areas to allow operations has been issued.
in obstacle-rich environments and to allow simultaneous, non-
interfering operations in dense terminal airspace. While this 6.3.9 Required Navigation Performance
specification has been defined primarily for helicopter Approach (RNP APCH)
applications, it does not exclude the application to fixed-wing
operations where demonstrated performance is sufficient to RNP approach (RNP APCH) is the ICAO navigation specification
meet the functional and accuracy requirements of this specification designation for procedures currently published in Canada as
for all phases of flight. “RNAV (GNSS)” and authorized under Special Authorization
RNP APCH. They include approach operations with minima
This specification requires the use of certified GNSS receivers; designated as “LNAV”, “LNAV/VNAV”, “LP” and “LPV”.
its implementation is not dependent on the availability of SBAS.
DME/DME-based RNAV systems are not capable of consistently Currently, integrity bounding for an RNP APCH can only be
providing RNP 0.3 performance, and RNP 0.3 operations through met using certified GNSS receivers. The GNSS receivers may
application of DME/DME-based navigation is not currently be part of a stand-alone navigation system or one of the sensors
viable. Operators are required to have the means to predict the in a multi-sensor system.
availability of GNSS fault detection (e.g. RAIM) to support Canadian-specific RNP APCH requirements are published in
RNP 0.3 operations. The on-board RNP system, GNSS avionics, AC 70 0 - 023 — Re quire d Na vigat ion Pe r for mance
air navigation service provider (ANSP) or other entities may Approach (RNP APCH) and the associated Special Authorization
provide a prediction capability. The AIP Canada (ICAO) will RNP APCH.
indicate when a prediction capability is required and an acceptable
means to satisfy that requirement. Owing to the high availability
of RNP 0.3 performance available to SBAS receivers, prediction
6.3.10 Required Navigation Performance
will not be required where the navigation equipment can make Authorization Required Approach (RNP
use of SBAS augmentation and the planned operation will be AR APCH)
contained within the service volume of the SBAS signal. RNP authorization required approach (RNP AR APCH)
Operational requirements are currently defined in ICAO’s procedures can be built with various levels of RNP lateral
Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613), containment values on the initial, intermediate, final and missed
Volume II, Part C, Chapter 7, but have not yet been defined in approach segments. There are increasingly demanding aircraft
a Canadian AC; therefore, no Special Authorization is available. certifications and operational approvals required when RNP
values lower than 0.3 NM are applied in any of the segments.
These approaches will be published in pertinent publications as
“RNAV (RNP)”.
104
TC AIM March 25, 2021
As with all the other RNP navigation specifications, RNP AR 6.4.2 Fixed Radius Transition (FRT)
APCH position integrity bounding can only be met by utilizing
certified GNSS receivers. There are numerous other aircraft An FRT is used as an enabler to apply closer route spacing along
equipment and functional requirements needed to meet the more turns in the en route structure. An FRT is intended to define the
demanding performance requirements. They can be found in transition between airways where separation is required in the
AC 700-024—Required Navigation Performance Authorization turns. Having smaller containment areas in turns allows for
Required Approach (RNP AR APCH) and Special Authorization higher traffic density with closer spaced routes. The RNP system
RNP AR APCH. supporting FRT is capable of providing the same track-keeping
accuracy in the turn as in the straight line segment. An RNP
system seamlessly joins associated route segments.
6.4 fixeD rADiuS PAthS Operational approval is not currently available in Canada. For
Typically, with conventional navigation, turns had a large range f u r t he r i n fo r m a t io n o n F RTs , r efe r t o ICAO’s
of dispersion (some aircraft turned tight, others had wider turns) Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual (Doc 9613),
depending on aircraft speed, turn anticipation, bank angle and Volume II, Part C, Appendix 2.
roll rate. Fixed radius paths standardize turns and provide a
predictable, repeatable and accurate ground track throughout a
turn. Using required navigation performance (RNP), aircraft 6.5 internAtionAl civil AviAtion
can have a smaller area of containment throughout a turn, allowing orgAnizAtion (icAo) flight PlAn
greater flexibility to design procedures that avoid terrain, noise
comPletion
COM
sensitive areas, restricted airspace or other arrival paths to nearby
airports in a complex airspace structure. There are two types Pilots should review the planned route of flight to determine
of fixed radius paths that may be used: radius to fix (RF) path that area navigation (R NAV )/requi red navigation
terminator and fixed radius transitions (FRT). performance (RNP) requirements, the aircraft, and the operator
are approved for the desired route. Performance-based
While complex flight paths can now be designed and displayed
navigation (PBN) compliant aircraft should enter the appropriate
as the active route, the aircraft must have the capability to
equipment code in Item 10 of the International Civil Aviation
accurately follow the defined path. Pilots are familiar with flying
Organization (ICAO) flight plan. A corresponding indication
turns at a constant airspeed and angle of bank which enables a
of RNAV and/or RNP capabilities must be entered in Item 18.
circular flight path to be flown with reference to the air mass
and are trained to manually compensate for the presence of wind
if necessary. Pilots now need to understand that the RNP system 6.6 nAvigAtion error comPonentS
will fly an exact circular flight path over the ground. Groundspeed
The inability to achieve the required lateral navigation accuracy
and the angle of bank must be adjusted throughout the turn by
may be due to navigation errors related to aircraft tracking and
the automatic flight control system to maintain that circular
positioning. These errors produce a path that is offset horizontally
flight path and in some cases these may be limiting factors for
from the desired path. The following are sources of error for
maintaining the specified turn radius.
area navigation (RNAV) systems:
The RF path terminator, referred to as an RF leg, is a specific (a) Desired path is the path over the ground that the aircraft is
fixed-radius curved path in a terminal or approach procedure. expected to fly.
An RF leg is defined by a constant radius originating from the (b) Defined path is the reference path computed by the flight
centre fix, the arc starting fix, the arc ending fix, and the turn plan management function of the RNAV system.
direction. Only RNP systems are capable of flying RF legs, by (c) Estimated position is provided by the navigation function
providing precise and positive course guidance along a curved of the RNAV system.
track, with the same containment value that would be achieved
in a straight leg segment. In addition, the distance travelled from (d) True position is the aircraft’s actual position over the ground.
beginning to end of the turn will remain constant for every Path definition error (PDE): The difference between desired and
aircraft. This allows longitudinal separation to be maintained defined paths which reflects errors in the navigation database,
throughout the turn for aircraft travelling at the same speed. computational errors in the RNAV system and display errors.
Operational approval to use RF legs in conjunction with other PDE is usually very small and often assumed to be negligible.
RNP navigation specifications can be found in AC 700-027— Flight technical error (FTE): The difference between estimated
Radius to Fix (RF) Path Terminator and Special Authorization position and defined path. It relates to the ability of an air crew
RF Leg. Additional authorization is not required for RNP AR or autopilot to fly along a defined path. Any display errors, such
APCH or A-RNP as RF capability is already mandatory in these as a course deviation indicator (CDI) centering error, may cause
two Special Authorizations. FTE. FTE is usually the largest error component of the total
system error (TSE).
105
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Navigation system error (NSE): The difference between true (c) Airport surface detection equipment (ASDE)—Surveillance
and estimated position. The NSE is defined during navigation of surface traffic is provided at airports where traffic
system certification. warrants it. ASDE is a high-definition PSR operating on
16 GHz. Tower controllers use ASDE to monitor the position
TSE: The difference between true position and desired position.
of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring areas of the
This error is equal to the sum of the vectors of the PDE, FTE
airport (runways and taxiways), particularly during
and NSE.
conditions of reduced visibility.
Any of the errors mentioned above would affect the ability of
(d) Weather radar—Weather radar is a PSR used by the
the aircraft to meet the required lateral navigation accuracy. If
Meteorological Service of Canada to monitor for hazardous
the on-board performance monitoring system cannot guarantee,
weather conditions.
with sufficient integrity, that the position meets the RNP defined
in a navigation specification, an alert will be issued to the crew. For a map of PSR coverage in Canada, see AIP Canada (ICAO)
ENR 1.6, Figure 1.6.1, Primary Radar Coverage.
Figure 6.1—Lateral Navigation Errors
Desired path
7.2 SeconDAry SurveillAnce rADAr (SSr)
Path definition error (PDE)
Defined path
Secondary surveillance radar (SSR) determines aircraft range
Total system error (TSE)
Flight technical error (FTE) by measuring the interval between transmitting an interrogation
to and receiving a reply from an airborne transponder.
COM
Estimated position
Navigation system error (NSE) SSR is a cooperative surveillance system and does not provide
True position
a position for an aircraft without an operating transponder. SSR
offers significant operational advantages to air traffic
control (ATC), such as increased range, positive identification
and aircraft altitude, when the aircraft has an altitude-encoding
7.0 SURVEILLANCE transponder.
Surveillance enables air traffic control (ATC) to increase airspace SSR is used in the following applications:
use by allowing a reduction in aircraft-to-aircraft and aircraft- (a) En route control—SSR is a long-range radar with a range
to-obstacle separation. In addition, surveillance permits an of 200 NM or more. It transmits on 1 030 MHz and receives
expansion of flight information services such as traffic information the transponder reply on 1 090 MHz. SSR is the main source
and navigation assistance. There are four types of surveillance of en route (airway/area navigation [RNAV] route)
systems currently used by ATC: primary surveillance radar (PSR), surveillance and is not normally combined with primary
secondary surveillance radar (SSR), automatic dependent surveillance radar (PSR).
surveillance - broadcast (ADS-B) and multilateration (MLAT).
(b) Terminal control—Terminal surveillance radar (TSR) uses
long-range SSR equipment similar to en route control and
7.1 PrimAry SurveillAnce rADAr (PSr) may be used in conjunction with a short-range PSR.
Primary surveillance radar (PSR) computes target positions by For a map of SSR coverage in Canada, see AIP Canada (ICAO)
determining the range and azimuth of transmitted and reflected ENR 1.6, Figure 1.6.2, Secondary Surveillance Radar Coverage.
radio frequency energy. It is a passive surveillance system and
therefore does not rely on information transmitted from the 7.2.1 Code Assignment
aircraft.
In the CFS and the CWAS, Section B, “Aerodrome/Facility
Primary radar is used in the following applications: Directory”, the table for an aerodrome may have a subheading PRO,
(a) Terminal surveillance radar (TSR)—In general, a short- which may contain information on special procedures for code
range PSR (80 NM) operating on 1 250 to 1 350 MHz assignment established at the aerodrome.
complements secondary surveillance radar (SSR) for
terminal operations.
7.3 AutomAtic DePenDent
(b) Precision approach radar (PAR)—A high-definition, short-
range PSR operating on 9 000 to 9 180 MHz and is used as
SurveillAnce - BroADcASt (ADS-B)
an approach aid. PAR provides the controller with altitude, Automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast (ADS-B) is a
azimuth and range information of high accuracy to assist surveillance technology that gives controllers the opportunity
pilots in executing approaches. While PAR is mainly a to provide radar-like services. It uses aircraft avionics, satellites
military system, it is available at some civilian airports and and/or ground infrastructure to relay a range of aircraft parameters
may be used by civilian pilots. Civil aircraft approach limits to air traffic control (ATC). The system is automatic since no
are published in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP) and the external stimulus is required for operation, and dependent because
Restricted Canada Air Pilot (RCAP). it relies on aircraft avionics to provide surveillance services
through broadcast messages.
106
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NAV CANADA’s ADS-B ground infrastructure consists of correct airline designator. Zeros only appear when they are
ground receiver stations, target processors and situation displays. part of the ICAO flight plan number as in the example below:
The ground stations receive ADS-B signals and transfer the data Generic Airlines Flight 371
via land line or satellite link to the target processors located Generic Airlines ICAO assigned registration: GNA
within an area control centre (ACC). Target processors build a Flight number: 371
track profile based on the aircraft’s unique International Civil On the ICAO flight plan it is entered as: GNA0371
Aviation Organization (ICAO) 24-bit identifier. This profile is The flight ID pilot input would be: G N A 0 3 7 1, not G N
presented to ATC on a situation display to enable surveillance A 3 7 1 or G N A 3 7 1 0
separation services.
(e) NUCp or NIC—Numerical values that identify the quality
For a map of ADS-B coverage in Canada, see AIP Canada (ICAO) of horizontal position data. The GNSS avionics is responsible
E N R 1.6 , Fig u r e 1.6 . 3, Au t o m a t i c D e p e n d e n t for calculating either of these values by using the RAIM
Surveillance - Broadcast Coverage. algorithm. These values equate to an Rc, which represents
the uncertainty of the given position data in NM. Typical
7.3.1 Aircraft Equipment NUCp and NIC values range from 0–9 and 0–11 respectively.
They are dynamic since the GPS constellation is constantly
On-board aircraft equipment is responsible for gathering a range
changing. Any detection of poor satellite geometry diminishes
of flight parameters and compiling them into the ADS-B message,
position data integrity, resulting in a reduction of NUCp or
which is then transmitted through the Mode S transponder on
NIC values and a corresponding increase in Rc.
a 1 090 MHz extended squitter (1 090ES). The full range of data
COM
NAV CANADA will accept position data contained in an
is transmitted once per second, allowing ATC to access real-time
ADS-B message with a NUCp value as low as 5 or a NIC
aircraft position information.
as low as 6. Should the NUCp or NIC value fall below the
At a minimum, the following aircraft parameters must be minima, the target will not be passed through to ATC as a
broadcast: valid surveillance target.
(a) Airborne position—Position data is generated by a GPS (f) NACp—A position quality indicator used by surveillance
receiver compliant with TSO-C129, TSO-C145 or TSO-C146. services to determine if the reported horizontal position
A high degree of reliance is placed on the GPS data as it is meets an acceptable level of accuracy for the intended
the basis for reduced traffic separation. Therefore, it must operation.
be capable of producing a HPL.
If an updated NACp has not been received within the past
(b) Pressure altitude—This is provided by the on-board encoding two seconds, the NACp value will be encoded as zero
altimeter. indicating “unknown accuracy” and will not be used for
(c) Aircraft identity—Each Mode S transponder has a unique surveillance services.
address assigned by the State of aircraft registry and known (g) SIL—Indicates the probability of the reported horizontal
as the ICAO 24-bit aircraft identifier. It is entered into the position exceeding the containment radius defined by the
transponder at the time of installation and cannot be modified NIC. Should NAV CANADA receive a SIL value below the
by pilots from the flight deck. This address is used for pre-selected minima, the target will not be passed through
aircraft identification and track processing. to ATC as a valid surveillance target.
(d) Flight identification (Flight ID)—A four- to seven-character (h) SPI—A feature used to positively identify an aircraft. It is
alphanumeric parameter usually entered by the pilot into identical to the “Squawk Ident” feature on a basic transponder.
the transponder control panel (if present) or FMS. A flight
(i) Emergency status—Activation of an emergency transponder
ID that is an exact replica of the aircraft identification entered
code (7500, 7600 or 7700) will result in a common emergency
in Item 7 of the ICAO flight plan must be programmed into
signal being sent as part of an ADS-B message. If an
the transponder or FMS in order to receive ATS surveillance
emergency transponder code is activated, ATS will receive
services. It is important that the flight crew verify that the
a generic emergency (EMR) indication on their display and
flight ID is correct prior to departure as some avionics
may request further information from the flight crew
prevent a change to the flight ID once airborne. Airline
regarding the nature of the emergency.
aircraft will use the three-letter ICAO airline code.
The flight ID has a seven-character maximum and can be NOTE:
either: Flight ID, SPI and emergency status are the only elements that
(i) the aircraft registration mark (CGSCX, N6891DE, can be modified by the flight crew.
90HYT); or
(ii) the ICAO airline designator followed by the flight
number (ACA020, WJA229, JZA8249).
Errors and discrepancies can arise during flight ID entry
due to confusion over the correct format. Common errors
that arise when entering the flight ID include the use of
leading zeros, hyphens, dashes, spaces or failure to use the
107
TC AIM March 25, 2021
8.0 TRANSPONDER OPERATION preserve safety. Pilots must obtain approval before entering
airspace where it is mandatory to be equipped with a functioning
transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
8.1 generAl This includes aircraft proposing to take off from an airport
located within that airspace.
Transponders substantially increase the capability of radar to
detect aircraft. The use of automatic pressure altitude reporting
equipment (Mode C) enables controllers to quickly determine 8.2 trAnSPonDer requirementS
where potential conflicts could occur. Proper transponder CAR 605.35 outlines the transponder operating rule, as well as
operating procedures and techniques provide both visual flight the circumstance in which operation with an unserviceable
rules (VFR) and instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft with a transponder is permitted. It also outlines the procedures to follow
higher degree of safety. In addition, proper use of transponders in order to operate an aircraft without a transponder and automatic
with Mode C capability results in reduced communications and pressure altitude reporting equipment within transponder
more efficient service. airspace. CAR 601.03 states that “transponder airspace consists
When pilots receive air traffic control (ATC) instructions of:
concerning transponder operation, they shall operate transponders (a) all Class A, B and C airspace as specified in the Designated
as directed until they receive further instructions or until the Airspace Handbook; and
aircraft has landed, except in an emergency, communication
failure or act of unlawful interference. (b) any Class D or E airspace specified as transponder airspace
COM
in the Designated Airspace Handbook.”
ATC radar units are equipped with alarm systems that respond
when an aircraft is within radar coverage and the pilot selects This includes all Class E airspace extending from 10 000 ft
the emergency, communication failure, or act of unlawful above sea level (ASL) up to and including 12 500 ft ASL within
interference transponder code. It is possible to unintentionally radar coverage, as shown in Figure 8.1.
select these codes momentarily when changing the transponder Pilots of instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft operating within
code. To prevent unnecessary alarm activation, pilots should controlled or uncontrolled high-level airspace should adjust their
avoid inadvertent selection of 7500, 7600 or 7700 when changing transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 2000 and on Mode C,
the code if either of the first two digits to be selected is a seven. unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control (ATC).
For example, when changing from Code 1700 to Code 7100,
first change to Code 1100 (and NOT Code 7700) and then change NOTE:
to Code 7100. Do not select STANDBY while changing codes Pilots instructed to squawk a discrete code should not adjust
as this will cause the target to be lost on the ATC radar screen. their assigned transponder code when informed that radar or
surveillance service is terminated. The termination of radar or
Pilots should adjust transponders to STANDBY while taxiing
surveillance service does not necessarily constitute direction to
for takeoff, to ON (or NORMAL) as late as practicable before
change to Code 2000.
takeoff, and to STANDBY or OFF as soon as practicable after
landing. In practice, transponders should be turned on only upon Figure 8.1—Transponder Airspace
entering the active runway for departure and turned off as soon
as the aircraft exits the runway after landing. Some airports
have implemented surface surveillance services using
multilateration (MLAT). MLAT relies on transponder returns;
therefore, pilots of transponder-equipped aircraft should leave
their transponders in the transmit mode at all times when on the
manoeuvring area. Pilots should ensure that the transponder
code issued by ATC is selected before switching the transponder TRANSPONDER AIRSPACE
out of STANDBY. In the event that no code has been issued by MANDATORY IN CLASS E AIRSPACE
BETWEEN 10 000 AND 12 500 FT ASL
ATC, transponder Code 1000 should be selected. WITHIN RADAR COVERAGE
8.3 inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) oPerAtionS SQUAWK IDENT—Engage the indentification (IDENT) feature
of the transponder.
in other low-level AirSPAce
During instrument flight rules (IFR) flight in controlled low- NOTE:
level airspace other than that described earlier, adjust the A pilot should operate the IDENT feature only when requested
transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 1000, and on Mode C (if by an ATS unit.
available), unless otherwise instructed by air traffic control (ATC). SQUAWK MODE CHARLIE—Activate Mode C with automatic
If an IFR flight plan is cancelled or changed to a visual flight altitude reporting.
rules (VFR) flight plan, the transponder should be adjusted to
reply on the appropriate VFR code, as specified in the following STOP SQUAWK MODE CHARLIE—Turn off automatic altitude
paragraphs, unless otherwise instructed by ATC. reporting function.
To enhance the safety of IFR flight in uncontrolled low-level RESET TRANSPONDER—Reset the transponder and transmit
airspace, pilots are encouraged to adjust their transponders to the SQUAWK (code) currently assigned. This phraseology may
reply on Mode A, Code 1000 and Mode C (if available), unless be used if the target or identity tag data is not being displayed
otherwise instructed by ATC. as expected.
REPORT YOUR ALTITUDE—This phraseology may be used
8.4 viSuAl flight ruleS (vfr) oPerAtionS when it is necessary to validate altitude readouts by comparing
the readout value with the altitude reported by the aircraft. An
COM
During visual flight rules (VFR) flight in low-level airspace, altitude readout is considered valid if the readout value does not
the pilot should adjust the transponder to reply on the following differ from the aircraft-reported altitude by more than 200 ft; it
unless otherwise assigned by an air traffic services (ATS) unit: is considered invalid if the difference is 300 ft or more.
(a) Mode A, Code 1200 for operation at or below 12 500 ft
above sea level (ASL); or NOTE:
Readout values are displayed in 100-ft increments.
(b) Mode A, Code 1400 for operation above 12 500 ft ASL.
SQUAWK STANDBY – SQUAWK (code)—The present position
Upon leaving the confines of an airspace for which a special
symbol (PPS) disappears or changes to a primary surveillance
code assignment has been received, the pilot is responsible for
radar (PSR) symbol after the aircraft is instructed to change its
changing to the code shown in (a) or (b), unless they are assigned
transponder to STANDBY; the PPS reappears or changes back
a new code by an ATS unit.
to a secondary surveillance radar (SSR) symbol after the aircraft
NOTES: is requested to return the transponder to normal operation.
1. When climbing above 12 500 ft ASL, a VFR pilot should
select Code 1200 until departure from 12 500 ft ASL at 8.6 emergencieS
which point Code 1400 should be selected. When descending
In the event of an emergency and if unable to establish
from above 12 500 ft ASL, a VFR pilot should select
communication immediately with an air traffic control (ATC)
Code 1200 upon reaching 12 500 ft ASL. Pilots of aircraft
unit, a pilot wishing to alert ATC to the emergency situation
equipped with a transponder capable of Mode C automatic
should adjust the transponder to reply on Code 7700. Thereafter,
altitude reporting should adjust their transponder to reply
communication should be established with ATC as soon as
on Mode C when operating in Canadian airspace unless
possible and the transponder should be operated as directed by
otherwise assigned by an ATS unit.
ATC.
2. Pilots of gliders that are equipped with a transponder should
adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 1202 at
all times, unless otherwise directed by air traffic 8.7 communicAtion fAilure
control (ATC). If their transponder is capable, pilots should In the event of a communication failure, the pilot should adjust
use Mode C as well. the transponder to reply on Code 7600 to alert air traffic
control (ATC) of the situation. This does not relieve the pilot of
the requirement to comply with the appropriate communications
8.5 PhrASeology failure procedures for instrument flight rules (IFR) flight.
Air traffic services (ATS) personnel will use the following
phraseology when referring to transponder operation.
8.8 unlAwful interference
SQUAWK (code)—Operate transponder on designated code in
Mode A. Canada, along with other nations, has adopted a special secondary
surveillance radar (SSR) transponder code (7500) for use by
pilots of aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference.
Air traffic control (ATC) does not assign this code (7500) unless
the pilot informs ATC of an act of unlawful interference in
progress.
110
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Selection of the code activates an alarm system and points out to deviate from the current flight path (e.g. “CLIMB” when
the aircraft on radar displays. If the controller doubts that an the aircraft is in level flight).
aircraft is the subject of an act of unlawful interference (as could There are two types of TCAS:
occur when a code change was requested and the act of unlawful
interference code appeared rather than the assigned code), the (a) TCAS I is a system, which includes a computer and pilot
controller will say, “CONFIRM SQUAWK SEVEN FIVE ZERO display(s), that provides a warning of proximate traffic (TA)
ZERO”. If the pilot answers yes, the controller will alert the to assist the pilot in the visual acquisition of intruder aircraft
ATC system. If the pilot replies no, the controller will re-assign and in the avoidance of potential collisions (it does not
the proper code. If the pilot does not reply, the controller will provide RAs).
take this as confirmation that the use of Code 7500 is intentional. (b) TCAS II is a system, which includes a computer, pilot
If, after using Code 7500, an aircraft changes to Code 7700 or display(s), and a Mode S transponder, that provides both
transmits a message including the phrase “TRANSPONDER TAs and vertical plane RAs. RAs include recommended
SEVEN SEVEN ZERO ZERO”, this indicates that the aircraft escape manoeuvres, only in the vertical dimension, to either
is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires increase or maintain existing vertical separation between
immediate assistance. aircraft.
NOTE:
9.0 TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION There is currently no TCAS equipment capable of providing
AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (TCAS) AND RAs in the lateral direction.
COM
AIRBORNE COLLISION AVOIDANCE The following paragraphs and table describe the TCAS levels
SYSTEM (ACAS) of protection versus aircraft equipage.
(a) Intruder aircraft without transponders are invisible to TCAS-
equipped aircraft and thus TAs or RAs are not provided.
9.1 generAl
(b) Intruder aircraft equipped with only a Mode A transponder
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) uses the
are not tracked or detected by TCAS II, because TCAS II
term airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS). The term
does not use Mode A interrogations. Mode A transponder
traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) refers to the
aircraft are invisible to TCAS-equipped aircraft.
system developed in the United States by the Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA). These terms are generally interchangeable. (c) Intruder aircraft equipped with a Mode C transponder
Care needs to be taken when comparing ICAO definitions of without altitude input will be tracked as a non-altitude
ACAS II with the North American definition of TCAS II. replying target. Neither a data tag nor a trend arrow will be
Specifically, the ICAO definition of a fully compliant ACAS II shown with the traffic symbol. These aircraft are deemed
(see ICAO Annex 10, Volume 4, Chapter 4) is equivalent to to be at the same altitude as own aircraft.
TCAS II software version 7.1. Additional guidance and information (d) In an encounter between two TCAS II-equipped aircraft,
on ACAS may be found in Transport Canada (TC) Advisory their computers will communicate using the Mode S
Circular (AC) 700-004. transponder data link, which has the capability to provide
complementary RAs (e.g. one climbing and one descending).
NOTE:
For the purposes of the Transport Canada Aeronautical Table 9.1—TCAS Levels of Protection
Information Manual (TC AIM), the term TCAS will be used
and, where necessary, a specific software version will be identified
Own Aircraft Equipment
for clarity.
TCAS I TCAS II
TCAS equipment alerts flight crews when the path of the aircraft Intruder Non-transponder- Not tracked Not tracked and
is predicted to potentially collide with that of another aircraft. Aircraft equipped or Mode A and not not displayed
A TCAS-equipped aircraft interrogates other aircraft in order Equipment transponder only displayed
to determine their position. TCAS is designed to operate
Mode C or Mode S TA TA and vertical
independently of air traffic control (ATC) and, depending on
transponder RA
the type of TCAS, will display proximate traffic and provide
traffic advisories (TAs) and resolution advisories (RAs). TCAS I TA TA and vertical
(a) TAs provide information on proximate traffic and indicate RA
the relative positions of intruding aircraft. TAs are intended TCAS II TA TA and
to assist flight crew in visual acquisition of conflicting coordinated
traffic and to prepare pilots for the possibility of an RA. vertical RA
(b) RAs are divided into two categories: preventative advisories,
which instruct the pilot to maintain or avoid certain vertical
speeds; and corrective advisories, which instruct the pilot
111
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTE: requirements.
This version is the minimum requirement for operations in
Canada when outside of reduced vertical separation 2. Be advised that if you operate in ICAO member countries
minimum (RVSM) airspace. after the abovementioned dates you will have to be equipped
with software version 7.1.
(b) TSO-C119b (associated with software version 7.0)— Within some member states of the European Union and within
Version 7.0 was released to address numerous enhancements European Civil Aviation Conference (ECAC) airspace, equipage
to collision avoidance algorithms, aural annunciation, and with TCAS II software version 7.1 will be required earlier than
resolution advisory (RA) displays as well as changes to the ICAO mandated dates.
reduce repetitive nuisance traffic advisories (TAs) on RVSM
routes in slow closure situations. The TSO for Mode S transponders is TSO-C112 or CAN-
TSO-C112. The following table and associated notes summarize
the TCAS/ACAS requirements for CAR Part VII air operators.
112
TC AIM March 25, 2021
It is strongly recommended that foreign operators comply with f light crew qualification (e.g. during initial new hire
TCAS equipage requirements as outlined above when operating indoctrination); or may be completed as dedicated TCAS/ACAS
within Canadian airspace. training and checking (e.g. completion of a standardized TCAS/
ACAS curriculum in conjunction with a recurrent instrument
There are currently no Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs)
flight test [IFT]/pilot proficiency check [PPC]).
requiring private operators (CAR 604) to be equipped with
TCAS. However, private operators are advised that ICAO Annex 6, Federal Aviation Ad minist ration (FA A) Advisor y
Part II, 3.6.9.2 requires that: “All turbine-engined aeroplanes of Circular (AC) 120-55C—Air Carrier Operational Approval and
a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg, Use of TCAS II (as amended) provides information with respect
or authorized to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the to training, checking and currency in the use of TCAS. The
individual airworthiness certificate is first issued after 1 January material therein can be used by operators to assist in defining
2007, shall be equipped with an airborne collision avoidance their implementation of TCAS.
system (ACAS II).” This means that affected private operators
EUROCONTROL has produced and published TCAS training
flying into ICAO member countries must be equipped with
m at e r ia l a nd i n for m at ion t h at a r e ava i la ble at
ACAS II.
<https://www.eurocontrol.int/system/acas>.
9.3 uSe of the trAffic Alert AnD colliSion 9.5 AircrAft certificAtion APProvAl
AvoiDAnce SyStem (tcAS) outSiDe of An acceptable means of demonstrating compliance with the
COM
cAnADA appropriate requirements in the Airworthiness Manual,
Numerous countries have operational regulations which require Chapter 525 and of obtaining airworthiness approval is to follow
certain aircraft to be equipped with a traffic alert and collision the method specified in the Federal Aviation Administration’s (FAA)
avoidance system (TCAS). If you are planning on operating Advisory Circular (AC) 20-131A—Airworthiness Approval of
your aircraft in a foreign country, consult that country’s Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance Systems (TCAS II) and
regulations to determine TCAS equipage requirements. Mode S Transponders (as amended) for installation of Technical
Standard Order TSO-C119a TCAS/ACAS. FAA AC 20-151B—
Canadian air operators must meet the following TCAS Airworthiness Approval of Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance
requirements to operate in U.S. airspace (see Federal Aviation Systems (TCAS II), Versions 7.0 & 7.1 and Associated Mode S
Administration [FAA] Federal Aviation Regulations [FAR] 129.18): Transponders should be followed for installations using TSO-
(a) TCAS I: Turbine-powered aeroplane with a passenger-seat C119b or TSO-C119c equipment.
configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10–30 seats.
(b) TCAS II: Turbine-powered aeroplane of more than 33 000 lb 9.6 oPerAtionAl conSiDerAtionS
maximum certificated takeoff weight (MCTOW). (a) Where required by regulations to be equipped with traffic
Canadian air operators planning operations in U.S. airspace are alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS), flight crews
also advised to review FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 120-55C— must operate with their TCAS equipment on at all times,
Air Carrier Operational Approval and Use of TCAS II (as in so far as is consistent with the aircraft flight manual (AFM)
amended). and standard operating procedures (SOPs). This is true even
when operating away from major, high traffic density
For Canadian air operators planning operations in Europe, details
airports. Although TCAS will never be a complete substitute
of Eu ropea n requ i rement s a re available at
for a good lookout, good situational awareness and proper
<https://www.eurocontrol.int/system/acas>.
radio procedures, it has proven to be a valuable tool that
provides information on potential collision hazards. Hence,
9.4 oPerAtionAl APProvAl flight crews should not deprive themselves of this important
asset, especially in areas of mixed instrument flight
For Canadian air operators, traffic alert and collision avoidance
rules (IFR) and visual flight rules (VFR) traffic.
system (TCAS) operational approval is accomplished through
Transport Canada (TC) approval of: pertinent training; checking (b) For a TCAS-equipped aircraft to provide a flight crew with
and currency programs; checklists; standard operating collision avoidance information, the TCAS unit and the
procedure (SOP) operations or training manuals; maintenance transponder must be turned on and the transponder cannot
programs; minimum equipment lists (MELs); or other pertinent be selected to STANDBY mode (i.e. powered but not
documents. transmitting data). If the transponder is not turned on and
responding to interrogations, the aircraft’s TCAS cannot
When planning to equip with TCAS, Canadian air operators
display information about potentially conflicting aircraft
should consult their TC principle operations inspector early in
nearby nor can it provide instructions to the crew to resolve
their program to permit a timely response. Canadian air operators
impending collision threats. Failure of the TCAS computer
may address training, checking and currency individually or as
unit itself can also occur; however, such a failure only affects
part of an integrated program. For example, TCAS/ACAS
the TCAS-equipped aircraft’s ability to detect nearby
qualification may be based on a specific aircraft (e.g. during
aircraft. The aircraft containing the inoperative TCAS unit
A320 transition); may be addressed in conjunction with general
113
TC AIM March 25, 2021
remains visible to other aircraft as long as its transponder (h) Flight crews should be aware that, in accordance with the
remains operative. The consequences of a TCAS unit failure Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety
are magnified when the transponder is inoperative because Board Act, an incident where a risk of collision or a loss of
not only is TCAS information lost to the affected aircraft, separation occurs is considered a reportable aviation incident.
but the aircraft will not be visible to other airborne collision Responding to an RA is considered a reportable aviation
avoidance systems. Regardless of whether the transponder incident. For more information on this topic, visit the
has failed or the TCAS has become inoperative, a flight following links:
crew’s ability to mitigate the risk of collision is significantly (i) AC 700-004: Airborne Collision Avoidance System
degraded if the collision avoidance system becomes Advisory Material; and
inoperative and the failure is not quickly and reliably brought (ii) <www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/operating-
to the crew’s attention. Air operators are encouraged to airports-aerodromes/report-incident-airport-safety.
inform pilots who use transponders or transponder/TCAS html>
units that there may not be a conspicuous warning to indicate
(i) If a TCAS RA manoeuvre is contrary to other critical cockpit
loss of collision protection resulting from a compromised
warnings, then those other warnings are respected per TCAS
transponder/TCAS unit. Air operators should require all
certification and training (i.e. responses to stall warning,
pilots who use transponders or transponder/TCAS units to
wind shear and ter rain awareness and war ning
be familiar with the current annunciations used to indicate
systems [TAWSs] take precedence over a TCAS RA,
that these components have failed or are compromised.
especially when the aircraft is less than 2 500 ft above
(c) Flight crews are reminded to follow the resolution
COM
114
TC AIM March 25, 2021
CAR 602.31(4) states that: At the time of registration, each Canadian aircraft with a Mode S
transponder will receive a unique 24-bit Mode S code assignment,
“The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall
which must be uploaded to the transponder, usually by the
(a) as soon as possible after initiating the collision avoidance installer.
manoeuvre referred to in subsection (3), inform the
appropriate air traffic control unit of the deviation; and
9.9 Pilot/controller ActionS
(b) immediately after completing the collision avoidance
manoeuvre referred to in subsection (3), comply with the In order to use a traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS)
last air traffic control clearance received and accepted by, in the most effective and safest manner, the following pilot and
or the last air traffic control instruction received and controller actions are necessary:
acknowledged by, the pilot-in-command.” (a) Pilots should not manoeuvre their aircraft in response to
traffic advisories (TAs) only.
NOTE:
By following the RA guidance precisely, the magnitude of the (b) In the event of a resolution advisory (RA) to alter the flight
altitude deviation can be minimized. Pilots must ensure that the path, the alteration of the flight path should be limited to
manoeuvre necessary to comply with the RA (climb or descent) the minimum extent necessary to comply with the RA.
is not maintained after the RA is terminated. Aggressive manoeuvring should not be required since TCAS
RAs are predicted on ¼ G manoeuvre load factors.
There is information available which highlights the importance
(c) Pilots should notify, as soon as possible, the appropriate air
COM
of following RAs. EUROCONTROL has issued numerous
traffic control (ATC) unit of the deviation and of when the
airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) II bulletins
deviation has ended.
(see <https://www.eurocontrol.int/system/acas>). ACAS II
Bulletin Issue 1— Follow the RA, dated July 2002, describes (d) When a pilot reports a manoeuvre induced by an RA, the
several RA events and the consequences of the flight crew controller should not attempt to modify the aircraft flight
actions taken. The bulletin is informative and describes the path until the pilot reports returning to the terms of the
advantages of TCAS/ACAS for collision avoidance when followed existing ATC instruction or clearance. Instead, the controller
correctly. The bulletin also describes the limitations associated should provide traffic information as appropriate.
with the visual acquisition of traffic and those of air traffic (e) Pilots who deviate from an ATC instruction or clearance
control (ATC) radar displays. in response to an RA shall promptly return to the terms of
Transport Canada (TC) recommends that operators disseminate that instruction or clearance when the conflict is resolved
this information to pilots for awareness and, where appropriate, and advise ATC.
establish suitable pilot training programs to ensure that flight
crews follow RAs promptly and accurately, even when presented
with conflicting avoidance instructions from ATC.
115
TC AIM March 25, 2021
116
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
weather services in support of operations at local aerodromes NOTAM, RSC and CRFI). They are qualified to provide
that have light traffic, are private, and/or are used primarily in briefings, consultation and advice, and to interpret
support of private industry, such as mining or other meteorological information. (See RAC 3.2 for details).
similar operations. (b) Aviation weather web site (AWWS)—NAV CANADA’s
The Department of National Defence (DND) arranges for the aviation weather web site (AWWS), available at <https://
provision of aviation weather services at military aerodromes. flightplanning.navcanada.ca/>, and collaborative flight
planning system, available at <https://plan.navcanada.ca>,
offer aviation weather products, NOTAM and the ability to
1.1.1 Meteorological Responsibility
file flight plans. For more information, visit <www.
In accordance with CAR 804.01(1) the majority of standards for navcanada.ca>. Pilots operating near the border should note
aviation weather services are found in: ICAO Annex 3, the that U.S. METAR, SPECI and TAF must be obtained through
Manual of Standards and Procedures for Aviation Weather the Aviation Digital Data Service (ADDS), available at
Forecasts (MANAIR), and the Manual of Surface Weather <www.aviationweather.gov/adds/>.
Observations (MANOBS). The two manuals can be obtained
(c) Other pilot weather services—In accordance with an
from ECCC’s Web site at <https://www.canada.ca/en/environment-
arrangement with the U.S. National Weather Service, digital
climate-change/services/weather-manuals-documentation.html>,
upper level wind and temperature forecasts are available to
while Annex 3 can be obtained from ICAO. An updated eighth
operators in Canada for planning international flights. Digital
edition of MANOBS took effect in February 2019.
forecasts are also available to the Gander OAC for planning
Enquiries relating to the provision of aviation weather services transatlantic flights. Aviation weather flight documentation
should be addressed to: is provided, subject to prior notification, as determined by
NAV CANADA the local weather service outlet in consultation with the
Aviation Weather Services operator’s local representative. Operators are responsible
77 Metcalfe Street for notifying NAV CANADA’s aviation weather services
Ottawa ON K1P 5L6 of new requirements. (See MET 1.1.1 for the address.) Where
indicated in the CAP, altimeter settings in weather reports
Tel. (toll-free in North America): ..............1-800-876-4693 from U.S. aerodromes may be used as a RASS.
Fax: ................................................................ 613-563-3426
Fax (toll-free in North America): .............. 1-877-663-6656
E-mail: ............................................service@navcanada.ca
117
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.1.4 Weather Service Information and “UACN01” or “UUA” for urgent PIREPs. A suggested format
for PIREPs can be found on the back covers of the CFS and the
When planning a flight, pilots can obtain aviation weather and CWAS. More information on PIREPs can be found in MET 2.0.
aeronautical information and file a flight plan through a
NAV CANADA FIC. (See RAC 3.2 for details).
1.1.6.2 Air Reports (AIREPs)
Radio communication should be established with a FIC on a
FISE frequency if in-flight information is required to assist in AIREPs are appended to the routine position reports of some
making a decision or to terminate a flight, or to alter course flights as follows:
before adverse weather conditions are encountered. (a) international air carrier aircraft transiting Canadian domestic
Pilot requests for initial pilot briefings while airborne are not FIRs north of 60˚N and east of 80˚W, and north of 55˚N and
encouraged because this practice leads to frequency congestion. west of 80˚W should use the AIREP format and report
routine meteorological observations to Gander Radio at
each designated reporting point or line;
1.1.5 Weather Information from Air Traffic
Service (ATS) (b) all aircraft operating in the Gander OCA should use the
AIREP format and report routine meteorological observations
All aerodromes with operational ATS will provide, on initial at each designated reporting point or line. The exception is
contact or as soon as practicable, the current wind and altimeter that aircraft cleared on a designated NAT track will give
information unless it is known that the aircraft already has this these reports only if the phrase “SEND MET REPORTS”
information. ATS procedures require that wind information be is included in their oceanic clearance.
transmitted with landing and take-off clearance only when the
wind speed is 15 kt or greater. Wind velocity (direction and There are no special requirements for transmitting AIREPs with
speed) data is typically updated every five seconds using a appended meteorological information other than those specified
running 2-min average. Variations to the wind speed (gusts) in ICAO’s Regional Supplementary Procedures (Doc 7030).
and/or wind direction are based on wind data from the previous
10 min. 1.1.7 Applicable International Civil Aviation
At aerodromes with an operational ATIS, the full details of the Organization (ICAO) and World
most recent METAR or SPECI will be included in the recorded Meteorological Organization (WMO)
MET
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) hand, heights in GFAs and PIREPs are normally stated as height
Distribution Sales Unit above sea level, since terrain heights are variable over the larger
Suite 305 area covered. If heights are not ASL in GFAs, this is always
999 Robert-Bourassa Boulevard highlighted by statements such as “CIGS 2-4 AGL”.
Montréal QC H3C 5H7
Tel.: ................................................................ 514-954-8022 1.2.3 Weather Services Definitions in Flight
Web site: ......................................................... www.icao.int Publications
Pilots flying outside of North America should consult the The terminology used in the CFS and the CAP to describe aviation
differences filed by other member states as outlined in weather services is as follows:
WMO Doc 306 or in the AIP of each country. (a) METAR—METAR and SPECI weather observations taken
by a qualified human observer.
1.1.8 Differences From International Civil (b) METAR AUTO—METAR and SPECI weather observations
Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 3 taken by a stand-alone AWOS with noted enhancements
CAR 804.01(1)(a) incorporates by reference standards contained (see MET 8.5). AWOS located outside of the CLDN coverage
in ICAO Annex 3. The current version of Annex 3 includes area do not receive lightning data and therefore are unable
Amendment 79, which took effect on November 5, 2020. In to report thunderstorm or lightning activity.
accordance with CAR 800.01(2), the incorporation by reference Examples of METAR AUTO stations are the NAV CANADA
of Annex 3 as a standard “includes the differences notified to AWOS and DND AWOS.
ICAO by the Government of Canada in respect of the standards
(c) LWIS—An automated weather system which produces an
specified in that annex.” The full details of these State differences
hourly LWIS report containing wind speed and direction;
are included in the AIP Canada (ICAO), as published and
temperature; dew point; and altimeter setting only.
disseminated by NAV CANADA.
(d) AUTO—An automated weather system that does not meet
1.1.9 Pilot Responsibility requirements to produce a METAR AUTO, SPECI AUTO
or LWIS report. These systems can report a variety of
Pilots must be aware of the requirements of CAR 602.72: “The observed weather elements. Contact the aerodrome operator
MET
pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before commencing a for further information on the specifics of the system. Some
flight, be familiar with the available weather information that of these systems may have associated VHF transmissions
is appropriate to the intended flight.” of their reports as stated in the CAP or CFS.
(e) WxCam—Indicates that a NAV CANADA aviation weather
1.2 meteorologicAl oBServAtion AnD rePortS camera is installed at the site. Still images are transmitted
to the NAV CANADA AWWS at 10-min intervals.
1.2.1 Type and Frequency of Observations (f) Webcam—Indicates that one or more cameras not belonging
to NAV CANADA have been installed at this location.
METARs are coded weather observations that are taken every
Contact the aerodrome operator for further information on
hour on the hour at over 200 aerodromes and other locations in
the specifics of the camera system.
Canada. In addition, SPECIs are issued whenever weather
conditions cross specified criteria. For details on how to (g) ALTIMETER—Altimeter setting report observed from two
understand METARs, see MET 8.3. For details on SPECI criteria, aircraft altimeters. The private altimeter setting report is a
see MET 8.4. weather service provided in support of an AU. Contact the
aerodrome operator for further information on the service.
The location of transmissometers or forward scatter sensors
used to determine RVR is specified on CAP aerodrome charts. (h) WIND—Human assessment of wind speed and direction.
The private wind speed and direction report is a weather
1.2.2 Flight Weather Documentation service provided in support of an AU. Contact the aerodrome
operator for further information on the service.
Pilots must use the most recent weather information available
(i) LAWO—A visual observation of prevailing tower visibility
when flight planning and be aware of scheduled weather
and tower ceiling made by airport controllers from inside
information updates. Pilots must also remain vigilant for pertinent
the tower cab in order to provide limited weather information
unscheduled weather updates or amendments.
to support local flight operations. These observations are
Flight weather documentation should include, as appropriate: not intended for transmission, distribution, or use outside
the relevant GFAs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, TAFs, METARs, the control zone. This information is normally included in
SPECIs, PIREPs, and upper wind and temperature forecasts. the local ATIS recording and updated as required or passed
There are two distinct methods of reporting cloud bases. It is verbally to aircraft arriving at, and departing from, the local
vital for the pilot to be able to distinguish and recognize which airport.
method of reporting is in use. Heights in METARs and TAFs
are always stated as height above ground level. On the other
119
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Observed weather information, observations, and forecasts 1.2.4.2 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Weather Stations
originating from any non-NAV CANADA weather service, other
Some weather stations are intended exclusively for local use by
than DND, are considered a private meteorological service.
VFR operators. These stations do not meet the requirements of
Stand-alone METAR AUTO and LWIS reports are available a usable altimeter setting or of wind reports for IFR procedures.
during published hours through normal meteorological These stations are not permitted at aerodromes that have IAPs
information systems. At some sites an automated voice broadcast and they are not published in the CFS. Pilots making use of these
of the latest observation is available via VHF transmitter. In stations do so at their discretion for VFR. If the reports from
these cases, the frequency is displayed in the COMM entry of such stations are being broadcast as an advisory, the frequency
the CFS Aerodrome/Facility Directory (e.g. COMM AWOS will be mentioned in the COMM entry of the CFS Aerodrome/
124.7, COMM AUTO 122.025). Facility Directory along with an annotation stating that the
The hours of coverage for METAR, METAR AUTO, and LWIS reports cannot be used for IFR. Pilots should contact the
reports are given (e.g. METAR 09-21Z). At sites where coverage aerodrome operator if they require additional information.
is 24 hr/day, the coverage is listed as H24 (e.g. METAR H24,
METAR AUTO H24, LWIS H24). 1.2.5 Automatic Aerodrome Routine
Sites that provide unspecified limited hours of coverage will be
Meteorological Reports (METAR AUTO)
listed as ltd hrs (e.g. ALTIMETER ltd hrs). Contact the aerodrome and Limited Weather Information
operator for further information on the hours of operation. System (LWIS) Reports
120
TC AIM March 25, 2021
For more information on METAR AUTO reports, refer to The first national exemption establishes how two aircraft
MET 8.5. altimeters can be used to observe and report a usable altimeter
setting. The second establishes procedures to follow for the
1.2.5.2 Limited Weather Information System (LWIS) human assessment of wind speed and direction, usable for the
selection of the most into-wind runway. More details regarding
Reports
these exemptions can be found on the TC Web site or obtained
A LWIS comprises automated meteorological sensors, a data from a TC regional office.
processing system, a communication system, and an optional
At a few AU locations, fully automated systems are used to
VGSS with a VHF transmitter. The LWIS collects limited
measure atmospheric pressure. This data is used to determine
meteorological data, produces LWIS reports, and transmits data
the altimeter setting that is relayed to pilots. In these cases, the
to ATS facilities on the hour. The LWIS also transmits data
reported altimeter setting must comply with the same requirements
updated every minute to the affiliated VGSS and VHF
applied to the altimeter component of METAR AUTO/SPECI
transmitter units.
AUTO.
These systems were developed to meet a defined level of service
Any weather information provided by a UNICOM, as opposed
requirement for NAV CANADA.
to an AU, is not usable for instrument procedures; alternative
Any LWIS used for civil aviation purposes must comply with uses are entirely at the pilot’s discretion.
TC requirements, including siting, maintenance, and quality
control, and be equipped with sensors to report, at a minimum,
1.2.8 Runway Visibility Assessment
the following:
At aerodromes where RVR is not provided, qualified persons
(a) wind (direction, speed, and gusts);
may, in accordance with the runway visibility assessment
(b) altimeter setting (these include multiple sensors as a fail- standards referenced in CAR 804, provide an assessment of
safe); runway visibility. Instrument-rated pilots may also provide such
(c) air temperature; and assessments in accordance with CAR 602.131.
(d) dew point. A runway visibility assessment is valid for only 20 min after it
has been established.
Wind direction is reported in degrees true except for the VGSS,
MET
which reports wind direction in degrees magnetic in SDA.
Except for the DND stations in the High Arctic that do not
1.3 meteorologicAl forecAStS AnD chArtS
provide dew point information, any automated system that reports
fewer elements than the standard four required for an LWIS 1.3.1 Flight Information Centre (FIC) Hours of
should be referred to as an AUTO. For more information on Service and Telephone Numbers
LWIS, please refer to MET 8.5. All FICs provide 24-hr service. FIC telephone numbers are
provided in the CFS. Pilots dialing the common toll-free number
1.2.6 Automatic (AUTO) Reports 1-866-WXBRIEF (992-7433) will automatically be routed to the
FIC serving the area from which the call is being made.
The term AUTO is used to describe all other automated aviation
weather reports that have demonstrated compliance with TC
requirements and are usable for IFR flight. However, they have 1.3.2 World Area Forecast System (WAFS)
a wide variety of performance characteristics and may be referred Charts
to locally by different labels, most often as AWOS. Contact the
WAFS aviation weather charts are disseminated as required.
airport operator for more information on the characteristics of
These include prognostic significant weather charts for the North
local systems.
Pacific, the Caribbean and northern South America, the North
Atlantic, Canada and the United States.
1.2.7 Weather Services in Support of Approach
Unicom (AU) 1.3.3 Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)
Weather information is not usable for instrument procedures TAFs are prepared for approximately 200 aerodromes across
unless it complies with the requirements of CAR 804 or a related Canada. TAFs are limited to aerodromes for which METAR
national exemption. and SPECI reports are available. The forecasts are generally
AU is an air-ground communications service that can provide prepared four times daily with periods of validity up to a
approach and landing information to IFR pilots. The altimeter maximum of 30 hr. See MET 7.0 for more information on TAFs,
setting and wind reports provided by an AU are usable in support including where and when they are issued, their periods of validity
of an instrument procedure. Pending revisions to the CARs, and decoding instructions.
these services must be provided by qualified persons in accordance TAFs are issued in TAF code, with amendments as required.
with one of the two national exemptions to CAR 804.01(1)(c)
that are in effect for these services.
121
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.3.4 Aerodrome Advisory Forecasts FD forecast data can be used for several hours before or after
the stated valid time. This is indicated by the text “FOR USE”
Aerodrome advisories are forecasts that are issued in TAF format followed by the time range. For example, “FOR USE 21 – 06”
except that ADVISORY is added immediately after the period means that this particular forecast may be used for a 9-hr period
of validity group. They are issued in place of a TAF in the from 21Z to 06Z.
following circumstances:
During flight planning, care must be exercised to ensure that
(a) Offsite—the forecast is based on observations that have the correct FD forecast is selected and the associated “FOR
been taken off site, more than 1.6 NM from the aerodrome USE” coverage is appropriate for the time of the proposed flight.
centre, and are not considered to be representative of weather
conditions at the aerodrome; Forecasts in digital form of the winds and temperatures aloft
(FB), an improvement over FD forecasts, are now available over
(b) Observation incomplete—the forecast is based on observations
the phone. FB forecasts are updated four times per day. Over
which have regularly missing or incomplete data; or
the next couple of years, FB forecasts will gradually replace FD
(c) No specials—the forecast is based on observations from a forecasts for most flight planning purposes. Further information
station with a limited observing program that does not issue is available in the MANAIR, which can be found on ECCC’s
SPECIs. Web site. Forecasts of upper winds and temperatures are also
In each case, after the period of validity group, the advisory available in chart form.
forecast will be labelled with the word ADVISORY and the
appropriate qualifier (OFFSITE, OBS INCOMPLETE, or 1.3.8 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Weather
NO SPECI). Assistance
ATC will issue information on significant weather and assist
1.3.5 Coastal Weather pilots in avoiding weather areas when requested. However, for
Float plane operators can also obtain coastal marine weather on reasons of safety, an IFR flight must not deviate from an assigned
HF and VHF FM frequencies from some Canadian Coast Guard course or altitude/flight level without a proper ATC clearance.
stations. Frequencies and time of broadcast are contained in two When weather conditions encountered are so severe that an
Canadian Coast Guard Publications: Radio Aids to Marine immediate deviation is determined to be necessary, and time
Navigation (Pacific and Arctic) and Radio Aids to Marine will not permit approval by ATC, the pilot’s emergency authority
MET
Navigation (Atlantic, St. Lawrence, Great Lakes, Lake Winnipeg may be exercised. However, when such action is taken, ATC
and Arctic). These two publications are published annually and should be advised of the flight alteration as soon as practicable.
are available on the Canadian Coast Guard Web site. When a pilot requests clearance for a route deviation or for an
ATC radar vector and ATC operational boundaries have to be
1.3.6 Graphic Area Forecasts (GFAs) and crossed,the controller must evaluate the air traffic situation in
AIRMET the affected area and coordinate with other controllers before
replying to the request.
GFAs are issued as a series of temporally adjusted weather charts
for CDA and distributed on a routine or on-request basis. These It should be remembered that the controller’s primary function
forecasts are prepared four times daily for seven regions across is to provide safe separation between aircraft. Any additional
the country with a validity period of 12 hr and an IFR outlook service, such as weather avoidance assistance, can only be
for a further 12 hr. See MET 4.0 for issue, periods of validity provided to the extent that it does not detract from the primary
and decoding instructions. Once issued, a SIGMET or AIRMET function. Also note that the separation workload for the controller
message automatically amends the current and relevant GFA. generally increases when weather disrupts the usual flow of
A full description of AIRMET can be found in MET 5.0. traffic. ATC radar limitations and frequency congestion are also
a factor in limiting the controller’s capability to provide additional
services.
1.3.7 Upper Level Wind and
Temperature Forecasts (FD) It is important, therefore, that the request for a deviation or radar
vector be forwarded to ATC as far in advance as possible. Delay
Alphanumeric upper level wind and temperature forecasts (FDs) in submitting it may delay or even preclude ATC approval or
are routinely prepared for 142 sites in Canada. FD forecasts are require that additional restrictions be placed on the clearance.
produced by a super-computer model of the atmosphere called Pilots should respond to a weather advisory by requesting: a
a NWP model, which is run twice per day at 00Z and 12Z after deviation off course and stating the estimated number of miles
collecting and analyzing weather observation data from around and the direction of the requested deviation; a new route to avoid
the world. the affected area; a change of altitude; or radar vectors around
FD forecasts based on the 12Z NWP model run on the fifth day the affected areas.
of the month would include the following text in front of the
forecast data: “FCST BASED ON 051200 DATA”. The text
“DATA VALID 060000” in the FD forecast indicates that the
temperature and wind velocity data is forecast to be most
representative of conditions at 00Z on the sixth day of the month.
122
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
significantly more severe than that associated with light rainfall.
ECCC and DND operate a series of weather radars across Canada
that provide frequent reports of precipitation echo tops and
precipitation reflectivity. Radar images are updated approximately
every 10 min for individual radars. A colour composite radar
product, which depicts either echo tops or precipitation reflectivity,
is also available on NAV CANADA’s Aviation Weather Web
Site (AWWS), from the Flight planning section at <www.
navcanada.ca/EN/products-and-services/Pages/flight-planning.
aspx>. Over the next few years, the weather radar network will
be improved to offer better images and updates every 6 minutes.
During the upgrades, radars will be unavailable and information
from neighbouring radars will need to be used.
Detailed and real time information from the CLDN is available
to the FICs and ACCs, which are both able to provide verbal
descriptions to pilots.
123
TC AIM March 25, 2021
WWW
XPG
WHK WHN
WBI WMN
XFT
WSO WKR
Legend
1.4 in-flight meteorologicAl atmospheric conditions that are an immediate hazard for all
informAtion (volmet) aviation users.
MET
In-flight meteorological information (VOLMET) is meteorological Pilots are encouraged to file brief reports of weather conditions
information for aircraft in flight, particularly over the high seas. when giving position reports, especially reports of any significant
VOLMET contains aerodrome routine meteorological atmospheric phenomena. They are also encouraged to report
reports (METARs) and aerodrome forecasts (TAFs) for selected conditions that differ significantly from those that were forecast.
aerodromes and may be provided either by data link (D-VOLMET) PIREPs that contain critical information on low clouds, reduced
or by voice broadcasts on designated frequencies, normally high visibility, icing, and convective activities such as wind shear,
frequency (HF). squall line, turbulence, thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds
are especially useful. PIREPs of hazardous conditions may
Information on the content, issue times and transmitter frequencies t r igger the issuance of sig nif icant meteorological
for North Atlantic (NAT) VOLMET broadcasts is given in the information (SIGMET).
Canada Flight Supplement (CFS), Section D, Radio Navigation
and Communications. For timely distribution, PIREPs should be filed with a flight
information centre (FIC) via an en route frequency or a toll-free
call to a FIC after landing. PIREPs received by flight service
2.0 PILOT WEATHER REPORTS (PIREPS) personnel are immediately disseminated on meteorological
communications circuits and provided to other air traffic
service (ATS) units and the Canadian Meteorological Aviation
2.1 generAl Centres (CMAC).
A pilot weather report (PIREP) is a report pertaining to current Controllers, flight service specialists and community aerodrome
weather conditions encountered by aircraft in flight. A PIREP radio station (CARS) observer/communicators (O/Cs) may request
is extremely useful to other pilots, forecasters, dispatchers and reports from pilots regarding specific weather conditions or
weather briefers as it provides up-to-the-minute weather weather conditions encountered during en route, climb-out or
information to supplement what is received from meteorological approach phases.
observing stations. In addition, a PIREP is an invaluable data
The Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) contains the toll-free FIC
source for aviation meteorologists because it either confirms an
telephone numbers in the Flight Planning entry of each listed
existing forecast or highlights the requirement for an amendment.
aerodrome. The recommended contents of a PIREP are listed
A PIREP may also be the only information available regarding
in the Planning section and on the exterior back cover of the
areas between reporting stations, particularly those areas whose
CFS (hard copy).
topography may produce localized weather phenomena (e.g.
hills or expanses of water). Urgent PIREPs are issued for
124
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.1.1 Pilot Weather Report (PIREP) Example 2.2 cleAr Air turBulence (cAt)
Example:
UACN10 CYXU 032133 YZ UA /OV YXU 090010 /TM 2120 /FL080 2.2.1 General
/TP PA31 /SK 020BKN040 110OVC /TA -12 /WV 030045 /TB MDT CAT remains a problem for flight operations, particularly above
BLO 040 /IC LGT RIME 020-040 /RM NIL TURB CYYZ-CYHM 15 000 ft. The best information available on this phenomenon
is still obtained from PIREPs, since a CAT forecast is generalized
Table 2.1—PIREP Example and covers large areas. All pilots encountering CAT conditions
are requested to urgently report the time, location, flight level
PIREP and intensity (light, moderate, severe, or extreme) of the
EXAMPLE DECODED EXAMPLE phenomena to the facility with which they are maintaining radio
contact. (See the Turbulence Reporting Criteria Table, MET 2.2.2)
UACN10 Message Type: Regular PIREP. Urgent PIREPs A more complete description of CAT and recommended pilot
are encoded as UACN01 or UUA. actions can be found in AIR 2.10.
CYXU Issuing office: London FIC.
032133 Date/Time of Issue: 3rd day of the month,
at 2133Z.
YZ FIR: Toronto.
If the PIREP extends into an adjacent FIR,
both FIRs will be indicated.
UA /OV YXU Location: London VOR 090˚ radial, 10 NM.
090010 PIREP location will be reported with
reference to a NAVAID, airport or geographic
coordinates (latitude/ longitude).
MET
/TM 2120 Time of PIREP: 2120Z
/FL080 Altitude: 8 000 ft ASL. Altitude may also
be reported as “DURD” (during descent),
“DURC” (during climb) or “UNKN”
(unknown).
/TP PA31 Aircraft Type: Piper Navajo (PA31).
/SK 020BKN Sky Cover: First layer of cloud based at
040 110OVC 2 000 ft with tops at 4 000 ft ASL. Second
layer of cloud based at 11 000 ft ASL.
/TA -12 Air Temperature: -12ºC.
/WV 030045 Wind Velocity: Wind direction 030°
true, wind speed 45 kt. Wind direction
reported by pilots in degrees magnetic will
subsequently be converted to degrees true
for inclusion in PIREP.
/TB MDT Turbulence: Moderate turbulence below
BLO 040 4 000 ft ASL.
/IC LGT RIME Icing: Light rime icing (in cloud) between
020-040 2 000 ft ASL and 4 000 ft ASL.
/RM NIL TURB Remarks: No turbulence encountered
CYYZ-CYHM between Toronto and Hamilton.
NOTE:
Supplementary information for any of the PIREP fields may be
included in the remarks (RM) section of the PIREP.
125
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The terms “occasional”, “intermittent” and “continuous” are pilots with guidance to conduct a WS escape manoeuvre. Aircraft
used to describe reported turbulence. Turbulence is considered with Predictive Wind Shear Systems (PWSs) may allow pilots
MET
occasional when it occurs less than 1/3 of the time, intermittent to avoid or minimize effects of WS (see RAC 6.1).
when it occurs 1/3 to 2/3 of the time and continuous when it
Aircrews capable of reporting the wind and altitude, both above
occurs more than 2/3 of the time.
and below the shear layer, from flight management systems (FMSs)
Pilots should report location(s), time (UTC), intensity, whether are requested to do so. Pilots without this equipment should
in or near clouds, altitude, type of aircraft and, when applicable, report WS by stating the loss or gain of airspeed and the altitude
the duration of turbulence. Duration may be based on time at which it was encountered. Pilots unable to report WS in terms
between two locations or over a single location. All locations of this specific information should do so in terms of its general
should be readily identifiable. effect on the aircraft.
Examples:
1. Over REGINA 1232Z, moderate turbulence, in cloud FL310, 2.4 AirfrAme icing
B737.
Report icing to air traffic service (ATS) and, if operating
2. From 50 NM EAST of WINNIPEG to 30 NM WEST of instrument flight rules (IFR), request a new routing or altitude
BRANDON 1210 to 1250Z occasional moderate chop, if icing will be a hazard. Provide the aircraft identification, type,
FL330, AIRBUS 320. location, time (Coordinated Universal Time [UTC]), intensity
High-level turbulence (normally above 15 000 ft ASL) not of icing, type, altitude or flight level, and indicated airspeed.
associated with cumuliform clouds, including thunderstorms, See the suggested format on the back cover of the Canada Flight
should be reported as CAT preceded by the appropriate intensity Supplement (CFS).
or chop type.
The following describes icing and how to report icing conditions: 2.6 Pilot eStimAtion of SurfAce winD
Table 2.3—Icing Intensity Surface wind direction and speed is information critical to
effective pilot decision-making for takeoff and landing.
INTENSITY ICE ACCUMULATION Where neither wind measuring equipment nor a wind direction
indicator (see AGA 5.9) is available, the wind direction and
Trace Ice becomes perceptible. The rate of
accumulation is slightly greater than the speed can be estimated by observing smoke, dust, flags or wind
rate of sublimation. It is not hazardous, even lines on bodies of water.
though de-icing or anti-icing equipment is Pilots on the ground may estimate wind speed and direction by
not used, unless encountered for an extended using anything that is free to be moved by the influence of the
period of time (over 1 hr). wind. The descriptions in the Beaufort Wind Scale found in
Light The rate of accumulation may create Table 2.5 have been found to be particularly useful and are
a problem if flight is prolonged in this widely used.
environment (over 1 hr).
Wind direction can also be estimated accurately by simply facing
Moderate The rate of accumulation is such that the wind. Such estimates should only be provided to the nearest
even short encounters become potentially eight points (i.e. north, northeast, east) of the compass. The best
hazardous, and use of de-icing or anti-icing estimate is obtained by standing in an open area clear of
equipment or diversion is necessary.
obstructions. Should this not be possible, estimation errors may
Severe The rate of accumulation is such that de- be so significant that pilots using the information should exercise
icing or anti-icing equipment fails to reduce caution. The direction and speed of low-lying clouds can be an
or control the hazard. Immediate diversion is indicator of surface winds but should also be used with caution
necessary. because of the possibility of wind shear near the surface.
Pilots who relay reports of winds based on estimation should
Table 2.4—Icing Types ensure that the intended user of the information is aware that it
is based on estimation so that appropriate precautions can be taken.
Icing Types
Rime ice Rough, milky, opaque ice formed by the
MET
instantaneous freezing of small supercooled
water droplets.
Clear ice Glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed
by the relatively slow freezing of large
supercooled water droplets.
Mixed ice Both rime and clear icing occurring at the
same time.
127
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Fresh Small trees in leaf begin to Moderate waves, taking a more pronounced
5 17–21 19 sway; crested wavelets form long form; many white horses are formed,
Breeze on inland waters. chance of some spray (2 to 2.5).
Large branches in motion;
Large waves begin to form; the white foam
Strong whistling heard in telephone
6 22–27 25 crests are more extensive everywhere,
Breeze wires; umbrellas used
probably some spray (3 to 4).
with difficulty.
Whole trees in motion; Sea heaps up and white foam from breaking
MET
Near Gale 7 28–33 31 inconvenience felt in walking waves begins to be blown in streaks along the
against wind. direction of the wind (4 to 5.5).
Moderately high waves of greater length;
edges of crests begin to break into the
Breaks twigs off trees;
Gale 8 34–40 37 spindrift; the foam is blown in well-marked
generally impedes progress.
streaks along the direction of the wind (5.5 to
7.5).
High waves; dense streaks of foam along the
Slight structural damage
direction of the wind; crests of waves begin to
Strong Gale 9 41–47 44 occurs to roofing shingles,
topple, tumble and roll over; spray may affect
TV antennae, etc.
visibility (7 to 10).
Very high waves with long, overhanging crests;
the resulting foam, in great patches, is blown
Seldom experienced inland; in dense white streaks along the direction of
Storm 10 48–55 52 trees uprooted; considerable the wind; on the whole, the surface of the sea
structural damage. takes on a white appearance; the tumbling
of the sea becomes heavy and shock-like;
visibility affected (9 to 12.5).
Exceptionally high waves (small- and medium-
sized ships might be lost to the view behind
Very rarely experienced; the waves); the sea is completely covered with
Violent
11 56–63 60 accompanied by long white patches of foam lying along the
Storm
widespread damage. direction of the wind; everywhere the edges of
the wave crests are blown into froth; visibility
affected (11.5 to 16).
* Wave height is representative of conditions well away from shore and in deep water when winds of that strength have persisted for an extended period of time. The wave height
figure does not give the maximum wave height nor does it take into account the effects of swell, air temperature or currents.
128
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
phenomena in time and space.
Upper Level Wind 0330Z* 0500Z–0900Z 3 000 ft Predicts upper winds and temperatures
and Temperature 0330Z* 0900Z–1800Z 6 000 ft in numerical form at standard levels for a
Forecast (FD) 0330Z* 1800Z–0500Z 9 000 ft given time period and location.
1530Z** 1700Z–2100Z 12 000 ft
1530Z** 2100Z–0600Z 18 000 ft
0600Z–1700Z
1530Z**
0200Z 0500Z–0900Z 24 000 ft Upper level wind and temperature
0200Z 0900Z–1800Z 30 000 ft forecasts are issued by WAFCs.
0200Z 1800Z–0500Z 34 000 ft
1400Z 1700Z–2100Z 39 000 ft
1400Z 2100Z–0600Z 45 000 ft
0600Z–1700Z 53 000 ft
1400Z
Upper Level 12 hr before valid 0000Z FL 240 Depicts forecast wind and temperatures
Forecast Chart time 0600Z FL 340 for the chart level.
—PROG 1200Z FL 390
1800Z FL 450
Significant 12 hr before valid 0000Z FL 100–FL 240 Charts are for a specific flight level range.
Weather Forecast time 0600Z FL 250–FL 630 They indicate surface positions of lows
Chart 1200Z and highs and any significant weather,
—PROG 1800Z such as thunderstorms, turbulence and
mountain waves, applicable to the chart.
* Based on upper atmosphere observations taken at 000Z.
** Based on upper atmosphere observations taken at 1200Z.
129
TC AIM March 25, 2021
METAR Every hour on the Describes actual weather at a specific location and at a specific time
hour as observed from the ground.
SPECIs are issued when required. METARs are not available 24 hr a
day at all aerodromes; see CFS for observation program schedule.
PIREP/URGENT PIREP As reported Observations of actual conditions reported by pilots during flight.
(UA/UUA)
Volcanic Ash Report As required Describes in graphical format the current and expected ash cloud
(FV) dispersion and densities at various flight levels.
130
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Surface Weather Chart 0000Z 2 or 3 hr after Analysis of mean sea level pressure pattern, surface
0600Z observation location of fronts, surface precipitation and obstructions
1200Z to vision based on reports. Surface pressure patterns can
1800Z be considered as representative of the atmosphere up to
3 000 ft. Weather visible from the surface at any level is
included.
Upper Level Chart— 0000Z Over 3 hr after Charts prepared for following levels:
ANAL 1200Z observation 850 hPa (1 500 m / 5 000 ft)
700 hPa (3 000 m / 10 000 ft)
500 hPa (5 500 m / 18 000 ft)
250 hPa (10 400 m / 34 000 ft)
Charts show reported atmospheric conditions at the
pressure levels, such as wind speed and direction,
temperatures, and moisture content.
MET
4.0 GRAPHIC AREA FORECASTS (GFA) 4.3 coverAge AreA
There are seven distinct graphic area forecast (GFA) areas,
covering the entire Canadian domestic airspace (CDA), over
4.1 generAl which Canada is responsible for the provision of air traffic
The graphic area forecast (GFA) consists of a series of temporally control (ATC) services. The following map illustrates the GFA
adjusted weather charts, each depicting the most probable coverage areas.
meteorological conditions expected to occur at or below 24 000 ft
over a given area at a specified time. The GFA is primarily Figure 4.1—GFA Coverage Areas
designed to meet general aviation and regional airline requirements
for pre-flight planning in Canada.
131
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.6 lAyout
Each graphic area forecast (GFA) chart is divided into four parts:
title box; legend box; comments box; and weather information
section.
132
TC AIM March 25, 2021
In this example, the forecaster has added two comments. The Table 4.3—IFR Outlook Criteria
first indicates that the fog/mist will dissipate after 1400 UTC.
The second comment advises that ceilings will become scattered CATEGORY CEILING VISIBILITY
after 1500 UTC. IFR less than 1 000 ft AGL and/or less than 3 SM
The comments box of the 12-hr clouds and weather graphic area between 1 000 ft and between
MVFR and/or
forecast (GFA) chart also includes an instrument flight rules (IFR) 3 000 ft AGL 3 and 5 SM
outlook for an additional 12-hr period in the lower section of VFR more than 3 000 ft AGL and more than 5 SM
the box. The IFR outlook is always general in nature, indicating
the main areas where IFR weather is expected, the cause for the In the event that no organized IFR conditions are expected in
IFR weather and any associated weather hazards. In the example the outlook period, NIL SIG WX is written in the comment box.
given, IFR conditions caused by low ceilings (CIG), rain (RA) Only IFR conditions are included in the IFR outlook of the GFA.
and mist (BR) south of the St. Lawrence Valley are forecast. Marginal visual flight rules (MVFR) conditions are defined in
Also, local IFR conditions are forecast because of an onshore the table for reference only.
(ONSHR) and upslope (UPSLP) northwesterly flow of air from
James Bay (JAMSBA) and Hudson’s Bay (HSNBA). 4.10 weAther informAtion
For meteorological purposes, the IFR outlook is based on the The weather information part of the chart depicts either a forecast
following. of the clouds and weather conditions or a forecast of the icing,
turbulence and freezing level conditions for a specified time.
MET
133
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The graphic area forecast (GFA) clouds and weather chart provides Figure 4.4(d)—Unorganized Area of
a forecast of cloud layers and/or surface-based phenomena, Clouds (no scalloped border)
visibility, weather and obstructions to vision at the valid time
indicated. Lines joining points of equal surface pressure (isobars)
are depicted at 4-hPa intervals. In addition, relevant synoptic
SCT 50
features that are responsible for the portrayed weather are also
depicted, with an indication of their speed and direction of
30
movement at the valid time. When a forecasted cloud deck contains more than one
significant cloud layer, the cloud amount description depends
(a) Synoptic features—The motion of synoptic features when on the space between the layers. When the separation is
the speed of movement is forecast to be 5 kt or more will less than 2 000 ft, the descriptor represents the summation
be indicated by an arrow and a speed value. For speeds less amount across all the layers, and the term LYRS is included
than 5 kt, the letters QS (quasi-stationary) are used. A immediately after it. When the separation is 2 000 ft or
low-pressure centre moving eastward at 15 kt with an greater, each layer is stated, with its own descriptor that
associated cold front moving southeast at 10 kt would be applies only to that layer. The bases and tops of each layer
indicated as follows: are indicated. For instance, a scattered layer of cumulus
cloud based at 3 000 ft ASL with tops at 5 000 ft ASL and
Figure 4.4(b)—Synoptic Features a higher overcast layer of cloud based at 10 000 ft ASL with
tops at 13 000 ft ASL would be indicated as follows:
OVC
(b) Clouds—The bases and tops of forecast clouds between the SCT CU
MET
Where organized areas of clouds are not forecast and 2–4SM -SHRA
visibility is expected to be greater than 6 SM, a scalloped
border is not used. In these areas, the sky condition is stated
using the terms SKC, FEW or SCT. In the following example,
unorganized scattered clouds are forecast based at 3 000 ft
ASL with tops at 5 000 ft ASL:
134
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(e) Weather and obstructions to vision—Forecast weather is Non-convective clouds and precipitation, low stratus
always included immediately after visibility. Obstructions ceilings, precipitation ceilings, icing, turbulence, and
to vision are only mentioned when visibility is forecast to restrictions to visibility:
be 6 SM or less (e.g. 2–4SM –RA BR). Only standard
abbreviations are used to describe weather and obstructions Table 4.5—Non Convective Clouds and Precipitation
to vision. Areas of showery or intermittent precipitation are
shown as hatched areas enclosed by a dashed green line Abbreviation Description Spatial Coverage
when colour is used. Areas of continuous precipitation are
shown as stippled areas enclosed by a solid green line when LCL Local 25% or less
colour is used. Areas of obstruction to vision not associated PTCHY Patchy 26–50%
with precipitation, where visibility is 6 SM or less, are
XTNSV Extensive Greater than 50%
enclosed by a dashed orange line when colour is used. Areas
of freezing precipitation are depicted in red and enclosed (f) Isobars—These lines joining points of equal mean sea level
by a solid red line when colour is used. pressure are depicted on the GFA clouds and weather chart.
Isobars are drawn at 4-hPa intervals from a reference value
Figure 4.4(f)—Weather and Obstructions to Vision of 1 000 hPa.
Figure 4.4(g)—Isobars
MET
(g) Surface winds—The speed and direction of forecast surface
winds with a sustained speed of at least 20 kt are indicated
by wind barbs and an associated wind-speed value. When
accompanied by strong gusts, mean sustained winds of less
than 20 kt may also be included, at the forecaster’s discretion,
Weather and obstructions to vision in the GFA may include if moderate mechanical turbulence is expected to occur as
spatial qualifiers, which describe the coverage of the depicted a result of the wind gusts. Wind gusts are indicated by the
meteorological phenomena. letter “G,” followed by the peak gust speed in knots. In the
following example, the surface wind is forecast to be from
Convective clouds and showers:
the west (270˚ true) with a speed of 25 kt and a peak gust
Table 4.4—Convective Clouds and Showers speed of 35 kt.
135
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The graphic area forecast (GFA) icing, turbulence and freezing Figure 4.5(b)—Icing
level chart depicts forecast areas of icing and turbulence as well
as the expected freezing level at a specific time. Included on the
chart are the type, intensity, bases and tops of each icing and
turbulence area. Surface synoptic features such as fronts and
pressure centres are also shown. This chart is to be used in
conjunction with the associated GFA clouds and weather chart
issued for the same period of validity.
(a) Icing—Depicted in blue when shown in colour and indicated
whenever moderate or severe icing is forecast for the coverage
area. The bases and tops of each icing layer, measured in
hundreds of feet above mean sea level, as well as the type If icing is expected to be present during only part of the
of icing (e.g. “RIME”, “MXD” [mixed], “CLR” [clear]) will forecast period covered by the chart, the time of occurrence
be indicated. Areas of light icing are described in the of the icing is indicated in the comments box.
comments box. An area of moderate mixed icing based at
2 000 ft ASL with a top of 13 000 ft ASL would be indicated
as follows:
136
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Areas of severe icing are indicated with a denser stippling. When separate areas of turbulence are occurring at different
The following is an example of an area of severe icing altitudes, the lower level is shown with hatching that slants
contained within an area of moderate icing: upward to the right, while the higher level is depicted with
hatching that slants downward to the right, as indicated
Figure 4.5(c)—Severe Icing below:
MET
with a top at 26 000 ft ASL.
Figure 4.5(g)—Freezing Level
Figure 4.5(d)—Turbulence
50
AFL
30
SFC
25
50
30 AGL
Figure 4.5(h)—LLJ
SFC
MECH
40 AGL LLJ
MECH
SFC 60 KT
137
TC AIM March 25, 2021
In general, LLJs are not included if they are above When reissued, the correction code “CCA” is added to the first
6 000 ft ASL, except as required over higher terrain. The line of the title box to indicate the first correction, “CCB” for
height of the jet is not indicated. In many cases, there may the second, “CCC” for the third, etc.
be associated turbulence, as shown in the example below:
Table 4.6—Example of Corrected GFA
Figure 4.5(i)—LLJ and Turbulence
GFACN33 CWAO CCA
REGION
ONTARIO-QUÉBEC
CLOUDS AND WEATHER
LLJ
45 KT NUAGES ET TEMPS
ISSUED AT
ÉMIS A 17/09/2014 1211Z
40 AGL
SFC
VLD 17/09/2014 1200Z
LLJ
5.0 AIRMETS
4.13 grAPhic AreA forecASt (gfA)
AmenDmentS
5.1 Definition
Once issued, a significant meteorological information (SIGMET)
or AIRMET message automatically amends the current and An information message issued by a meteorological watch
relevant graphic area forecast (GFA). The remark (RMK) found office (MWO) to advise pilots of the occurrence or expected
in the national version of those messages indicates the GFA occurrence of weather phenomena, which may affect the safety
MET
region(s) to which the SIGMET or AIRMET applies. of aircraft operations and which were not already included in
the graphic area forecast (GFA). The message shall describe
potentially hazardous weather conditions up to and including
4.14 grAPhic AreA forecASt (gfA) 24 000 ft (FL 240).
correctionS
A correction to a graphic area forecast (GFA) is issued for the 5.2 iSSuAnce criteriA
following events: AIRMETs are issued when the following criteria occur or are
(a) The occurrence of any unforecast weather phenomena that expected to occur and were not forecast in the graphic area
do not require an AIRMET (i.e. they are below the AIRMET forecast (GFA) and a significant meteorological information
criteria threshold) or any other unforecast weather phenomena (SIGMET) message is not warranted. The abbreviations shown
that, according to the forecaster, should be depicted in the in all capitals will be used as described below.
GFA. (a) Surface wind speed: Widespread mean surface wind speed
(b) Forecast weather phenomena in the GFA fail to occur, in above 30 kt is indicated by SFC WND SPD (along with
which case the weather phenomena that are no longer details of the wind speed or wind speed range and units).
occurring or no longer expected to occur are removed. (b) Surface visibility and/or cloud:
(c) A significant error was made in a GFA chart. A significant (i) Widespread areas affected by reduced visibility of
error is one which, if uncorrected, would result in an less than 3 SM (5 000 m), including weather
erroneous interpretation of the GFA and create a potential phenomena causing reduced visibility indicated by
hazard to aviation. SFC VIS (along with details of the visibility or
visibility range and the weather phenomena or
For detailed guidance on GFA correction, refer to Appendix C
combinations thereof);
of the Manual of Standards and Procedures for Aviation Weather
(ii) Widespread areas of broken or overcast cloud with
Forecasts (MANAIR). Information about the nature of the
height of base less than 1 000 ft (300 m) AGL
correction made to the chart is included in the comments box.
indicated by BKN CLD or OVC CLD (along with
details of the height or height range of the base, top
and units).
138
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(c) Thunderstorms and/or towering cumulus: (b) Any coordinate point north of N72°00’ will be described
(i) Isolated thunderstorms (ISOLD TS); with respect to an aviation reference site only if it is within
(ii) Occasional thunderstorms (OCNL TS); a 90-NM radius of that site. Otherwise, the coordinate point
(iii) Isolated thunderstorm with hail (ISOLD TSGR); will be represented in latitude and longitude only. This is
(iv) Occasional thunderstorms with hail (OCNL TSGR); due to the sparse number of aviation reference sites in
(v) Isolated towering cumulus (ISOLD TCU); northern Canada.
(vi) Occasional towering cumulus (OCNL TCU); The usable reference points are a subset of aerodromes listed in
(vii) Frequent towering cumulus (FRQ TCU); the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS). A complete list is included
(viii) Occasional towering cumulus and isolated in the Manual of Standards and Procedures for Aviation Weather
thunderstorms (OCNL TCU ISOLD TS); Forecasts (MANAIR).
(ix) Frequent tower ing cumulus and isolated
thunderstorms (FRQ TCU ISOLD TS);
(x) Occasional towering cumulus and isolated 5.4 ruleS for the uSe of letterS
thunderstorms with hail (OCNL TCU ISOLD All eight flight information regions (FIRs) share 25 letters of
TS GR); the alphabet (T is used only for tests).
(xi) Frequent tower ing cumulus and isolated
thunderstorms with hail (FRQ TCU ISOLD TSGR). The letter used cannot currently be in service in any other FIR
and has to have been retired for a minimum of 24 hr. Otherwise
(d) Turbulence—moderate turbulence (except for turbulence the next letter is used. In addition, the same letter cannot be used
in convective clouds) (MDT TURB). for widely separated occurrences of the same phenomenon, even
(e) Icing—moderate icing (except for icing in convective clouds) within a single FIR.
(MDT ICG). The letter Z will wrap back to A if necessary.
(f) Mountain wave—moderate mountain wave (MDT MTW). If all letters are unavailable, the letter that has had the longest
An AIRMET will be issued for only one of these criteria at any retirement will be re-used.
time. If more than one criterion occurs then more than one The letter attributed to a bulletin will not change during its
AIRMET will be issued. lifespan (updates and cancellation).
An isolated (ISOLD) phenomenon consists of individual features
MET
AIRMET messages do not share the same alphabet with WS
which affect, or are forecast to affect, an area with a maximum (SIGMET). The letter A may be used simultaneously in both a
spatial coverage of 25% or less of the area concerned (at a fixed WS (or WC or WV) and a WA.
time or during the period of validity).
An occasional (OCNL) phenomenon consists of well separated
features which affect, or are forecast to affect, an area with a
5.5 ruleS for the uSe of numBerS
maximum spatial coverage of 26% to 50% of the area concerned (a) Numbering of an event (as defined by the unique use of a
(at a fixed time or during the period of validity). letter in a f light information region (FIR) begins
at 1 (i.e. B1).
Frequent (FRQ) coverage indicates an area of towering cumulus
(TCU) within which there is little or no separation between (b) The number is incremented by 1 when updating a message,
adjacent clouds and with a maximum spatial coverage greater including cancellation.
than 50% of the area affected, or forecast to be affected, by the (c) The sequence number shall correspond with the number of
phenomenon (at a fixed time or during the period of validity). messages issued for an event within a FIR since 0000Z on
the day concerned.
5.3 coorDinAte PointS (d) The numbering is thus reset at 0000Z (messages are not
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) AIRMET updated at 0000Z for the sole purpose of resetting the
message describes a coordinate point using only latitude and number).
longitude.
The national AIRMET message describes a coordinate point 5.6 vAliDity
using latitude and longitude. In addition, an equivalent description The period of validity of an AIRMET is 4 hr and it may be issued
is given in terms of direction and distance from an aviation up to 4 hr prior to the start of the validity period (i.e. expected
reference site. time of occurrence of the phenomenon).
There are two exceptions to this rule for the national AIRMET: In the case of an AIRMET for an ongoing phenomenon, the
(a) Any coordinate point located within Gander Oceanic flight date/time group indicating the start of the AIRMET period will
information region (FIR) will be described in latitude and be rounded back to 5 min from the filing time (date/time group
longitude only. in the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) heading).
139
TC AIM March 25, 2021
National
5.7 locAtion of the Phenomenon WTN /N4502 W07345/25 SW CYUL –/N4907 W07331/60 SE
The location of the phenomenon is depicted as an area using CYMT – /N5345
coordinate points. The description always begins with the W06943/150 E CYAH – /N5256 W06758/45 W CYWK – /
abbreviation WTN (within) and the area can be described as a N4848 W07149/25 NE CYRJ – /N4508 W07206/25 SW
circle, a line or a polygon. Distances are in nautical miles and CYSC – /N4502 W07345/25 SW CYUL
direction is to one of the eight points of compass (octants).
Plain language explanation of the national format: Within an
area bounded by points that are 25 NM southwest of Montréal/
5.7.1 Circle
Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport; 60 NM southeast
Example: of Chibougamau/Chapais Airport; 150 NM east of La Grande-4
Airport; 45 NM west of Wabush Airport; 25 NM northeast of
ICAO Roberval Airport and 25 NM southwest of Sherbrooke, then
WTN 45 NM OF N4643 W07345 back to a point 25 NM southwest of Montréal/Pierre Elliott
Trudeau International Airport. The latitude and longitude of
National each point being specified.
MET
140
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.10 chAnge in intenSity However, a forecaster may update an AIRMET at any time if it
is considered necessary.
The expected evolution of a phenomenon’s intensity is indicated
by one of the following abbreviations:
5.13 cAncellAtion
(a) INTSFYG—intensifying;
An AIRMET must be cancelled when, during its validity period:
(b) WKNG—weakening;
(a) the phenomenon for which the AIRMET had been issued
(c) NC—no change.
is no longer occurring or no longer expected to occur (forecast
AIRMET);
5.11 remArk (b) the phenomenon for which the AIRMET had been issued
The remark (RMK) is found only in the national AIRMET strengthens such that significant meteorological information
message. It begins on a new line. The purpose is to allow additional (SIGMET) is now required; or
information of national interest to be conveyed in the AIRMET (c) the new issue of the graphic area forecast (GFA) has been
message. Items listed in the remark line will be separated by a transmitted and now includes the phenomenon.
forward slash (/).The remark always includes the graphic area
forecast (GFA) region(s) to which the AIRMET applies (see An AIRMET does not cancel itself automatically at the end of
Example 1 in MET 5.16). The remark may also include: its validity period. A cancellation AIRMET with the abbreviation
CNCL must be issued.
(a) Cross-references to AIRMET messages when a phenomenon
straddles one or several flight information region (FIR)
boundaries (see Example 1 in MET 5.16). 5.14 teSt Airmet
(b) For a phenomenon that has moved out of a flight information There may be occasions when test AIRMET messages are
region (FIR), the cancelled AIRMET message will refer to transmitted by the meteorological watch office (MWO). The
the continuing AIRMET message in neighbouring FIR(s) test AIRMET messages will be identifiable by the letter T in
within Canada’s area of responsibility. the alphanumeric sequence (see MET 5.4). Additionally, the
statement “THIS IS A TEST” will be added at the beginning
and end of the message.
5.12 uPDAteD Airmet
MET
An updated AIRMET, when issued, automatically replaces the
previous AIRMET in the same series (i.e. the previous AIRMET
with the same letter). An AIRMET must be updated every 4 hr
(from date/time group in the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) heading).
141
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RMK GFACN32= stratus and fog along the Quebec Lower North Shore was not
Example 2: well represented in GFACN34 and required the issuance of
AIRMET messages.
Freezing drizzle (FZDZ) was observed at 0700Z at Churchill
(CYYQ), Man. Icing was not forecast in GFACN32, leading the ICAO
forecaster to issue the following AIRMET messages. WACN05 CWAO 301925
ICAO CZUL AIRMET J1 VALID 301925/302325 CWEG-
WACN03 CWAO 250725 CZUL MONTREAL FIR SFC VIS 1/4-1SM FG/BR – OVC CLD
CZWG AIRMET A1 VALID 250725/251125 CWEG- 100-500/1200FT
CZWG WINNIPEG FIR MDT ICG OBS AT 0700Z WTN 45NM OBS WTN N5013 W06536 – N5011 W06046 – N4906
OF LINE W06148 – N4932 W06444 –N5013 W06536 QS NC=
142
TC AIM March 25, 2021
6.0 SIGNIFICANT METEOROLOGICAL 3. TS implies severe icing and turbulence; therefore separate
SIGMET for these phenomenon are not issued in connection
INFORMATION (SIGMET) with convective clouds.
4. SIGMET will only be issued for one of these criteria at any
6.1 Definition time. If more than one criterion occurs then more than one
SIGMET will be issued.
Information message issued by a meteorological watch
office (MWO) to advise pilots of the occurrence or expected 5. Frequent (FRQ) coverage indicates an area of thunderstorms
occurrence of specified weather phenomena, which may affect within which there is little or no separation between adjacent
the safety of aircraft operations, and the development of those thunderstorms and with a maximum spatial coverage greater
phenomena in time and space. than 50% of the area affected or forecast to be affected by
the phenomenon (at a fixed time or during the period of
validity).
6.2 iSSuAnce criteriA
Significant meteorological information (SIGMET) is issued in 6.3 coorDinAte PointS
response to the following criteria (the abbreviations are shown
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) significant
in all capital letters):
meteorological information (SIGMET) message describes a
(a) Thunderstorms: coordinate point using latitude and longitude only.
(i) Frequent (FRQ TS);
The national SIGMET message describes a coordinate point
(ii) Frequent with hail (FRQ TSGR);
using latitude and longitude. However, in addition, an equivalent
(iii) Frequent with hail and possible tornado/waterspout
description is also given in terms of direction and distance from
(FRQ TSGR PSBL +FC);
an aviation reference site.
(iv) Frequent with hail and tornado/waterspout (FRQ
TSGR +FC); There are two exceptions to the rule for the national SIGMET:
(v) Squall line (SQLN TS); (a) Any coordinate point located within Gander Oceanic flight
(vi) Squall line with hail (SQLN TSGR); information region (FIR) will be described in latitude and
(vii) Squall line with possible tornado/waterspout (SQLN longitude only.
MET
TSGR PSBL +FC);
(viii) Squall line with tornado/waterspout (SQLN TSGR (b) Any coordinate point north of N72°00’ will be described
+FC); with respect to an aviation reference site only if it is within
a 90-NM radius of that site. Otherwise, the coordinate point
(b) Severe turbulence (SEV TURB); will be represented in latitude and longitude only. This is
(c) Severe icing (SEV ICG); due to the sparse number of aviation reference sites in
northern Canada.
(d) Severe icing due to freezing rain (SEV ICG [FZRA]);
The usable reference sites are a subset of aerodromes listed in
(e) Severe mountain wave (SEV MTW);
the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) and the closest aerodrome(s)
(f) Low-level wind shear (LLWS); to the area of the phenomenon are used. A complete list is included
(g) Heavy dust storm (HVY DS); in the Manual of Standards and Procedures for Aviation Weather
Forecasts (MANAIR).
(h) Heavy sandstorm (HVY SS);
(i) Radioactive cloud (RDOACT CLD);
6.4 ruleS for the uSe of letterS
(j) Volcanic ash (VA);
All 8 flight information regions (FIRs) share 25 letters of the
(k) Tropical cyclone (TC). alphabet (T is used only for tests).
NOTES: The letter used cannot currently be in service in any other FIR
and has to have been retired for a minimum of 24 hr. Otherwise
1. A squall line is defined as thunderstorms along a line with
the next letter is used. In addition, the same letter cannot be
little or no space between the individual clouds.
used for widely separated occurrences of the same phenomenon,
2. Severe (SEV) turbulence (TURB) refers only to: even within a single FIR.
(a) low-level turbulence associated with strong surface The letter Z will wrap back to A if necessary.
winds;
If all letters are unavailable, the letter that has had the longest
(b) rotor streaming; retirement will be re-used.
(c) turbulence whether in cloud or not in cloud (i.e. CAT) The letter attributed to a bulletin will not change during its
near jet streams. lifespan (updates and cancellation).
143
TC AIM March 25, 2021
6.7.2 Line
6.5 ruleS for the uSe of numBerS
Example:
(a) Numbering of an event (as defined by the unique use of a
letter in a flight information region [FIR]) begins at 1 (i.e. B1). ICAO
(b) Number incremented by 1 when updating a message, WTN 45 NM OF LINE N4459 W07304– N4855 W07253 –
including cancellation. N5256 W06904
(c) The sequence number shall correspond with the number of
National
messages issued for an event within a FIR since 0000Z on
the day concerned. WTN 45 NM OF LINE /N4459 W07304/45 SE CYUL – /
N4855 W07253/30 NW CYRJ –/N5256 W06904/75 W
(d) The numbering is thus reset at 0000Z (messages are not updated CYWK
at 0000Z for the sole purpose of resetting the number).
6.7.3 Polygon
6.6 vAliDity
Example:
The period of validity of a WS SIGMET is 4 hr and it may be
issued up to 4 hr prior to the commencement of the phenomenon ICAO
in the corresponding flight information region (FIR). There is WTN N4502 W07345 – N4907
an exception for volcanic ash and tropical storm SIGMETs which
are valid for 6 hr and may be issued up to 12 hr before they enter W07331 – N5345 W06943 – N5256
the corresponding FIR. W06758 – N4848 W07149 – N4508
In the case of a SIGMET for an ongoing phenomenon, the W07206 - N4502 W07345
date/time group indicating the start of the SIGMET period
MET
will be rounded back to 5 min from the filing time (date/ National
time group in the World Meteorological Organization [WMO]
WTN /N4502 W07345/25 SW CYUL –/N4907 W07331/60 SE
heading).
CYMT – /N5345
In the case of a SIGMET for an expected phenomenon (forecast
W06943/150 E CYAH – /N5256 W06758/45 W CYWK – /
event), the beginning of the validity period will be the time of
N4848 W07149/25 NE CYRJ – /N4508
the expected commencement (occurrence) of the phenomenon.
Any SIGMET for an expected phenomenon (forecast event) is W07206/25 SW CYSC – /N4502 W07345/25 SW CYUL
issued only for the first appearance of an event in Canadian
NOTE:
airspace (e.g. moving in from the U.S. or onset inside a Canadian
Tropical cyclone and volcanic ash SIGMETs also describe the
FIR). A phenomenon moving from one Canadian FIR to another
affected location at the end of the forecast period.
is treated as an ongoing phenomenon. No forecast event SIGMET
messages would be sent for the second FIR.
6.8 flight level AnD extent
6.7 locAtion of the Phenomenon The location and extent of the phenomenon in the vertical is
The location of the phenomenon is depicted as an area using given by one or more of the following:
coordinate points. The description always begins with the (a) Reporting a layer—FL<nnn/nnn>—where the lower level
abbreviation WTN (within) and the area can be described as a is reported first; this is used particularly in reporting
circle, a line or a polygon. Distances are in nautical miles and turbulence and icing.
direction is to one of the eight points of compass (octants). For
plain language explanations of circle, line and polygon descriptions (b) Reporting a layer with reference to one FL and the
in the national format, see MET 5.7. surface (SFC).
(c) Reporting the level of the tops of the thunderstorms (TS)
6.7.1 Circle using the abbreviation TOP.
Example:
ICAO
WTN 45 NM OF N4643 W07345
144
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
straddles one or several flight information region (FIR)
boundaries (see Example 1a and 1b in MET 6.16).
(b) For a phenomenon that has moved out of a FIR, the cancelled
SIGMET message will refer to the continuing SIGMET
message in neighbouring FIR(s) within Canada’s area of
responsibility (see Example 2 in MET 6.16).
145
TC AIM March 25, 2021
146
TC AIM March 25, 2021
National National
WSCN23 CWAO 170205 CZQX WSCN27 CWAO 161220
CZWG SIGMET A1 VALID 170205/170605 CWEG- CZQX SIGMET E1 VALID162225/170225 CWUL-
CZWG WINNIPEG FIR SQLN TS OBS WTN 20NM OF LINE / CZQX GANDER DOMESTIC FIR SEV TURB OBS AT 1155Z WTN
N4915 W09332/45 SE 45NM OF LINE
CYQK – /N5103 W09212/60 E CYRL – /N5144 W08943/25 /N5319 W06025/CYYR – /N5615 W05245/ – /N5930
NE CYPL TOP FL310 MOV E 15KT WKNG W04715/ FL280/350 MOV NE 20KT NC
RMK GFACN33= RMK GFACN34/CZQX GANDER OCEANIC FIR SIGMET U1=
Example 2: CZQX (Oceanic)
Severe mountain waves (lee waves) along the eastern side of the WSNT21 CWAO 162225
Rockies. The line falls entirely within the Edmonton flight
information region (FIR) but covers two graphic area CZQX SIGMET U1 VALID 162225/170225 CWUL-
forecast (GFA) regions. The remark line in the national SIGMET CZQX GANDER OCEANIC FIR SEV TURB OBS AT 1155Z WTN
message will mention the affected GFACNs. 45NM OF LINE /N5319
MET
CZEG SIGMET L1 VALID 161220/161220 CWEG-
CZEG EDMONTON FIR SEV MTW FCST WTN 30NM OF LINE / Example 4:
N5614 W12155/45 W CYXJ – /N5105 W11440/25 W CYYC The centre of hurricane Maria is about to move across the Avalon
FL070/140 QS INTSFYG Peninsula. The tropical cyclone SIGMET (WCCN) is updated
RMK GFACN31/GFACN32= and only covers the Gander Domestic FIR and GFACN34, since
the CB activity is confined within a radius of 150 NM from the
Example 3: centre of the hurricane.
Following an air report (AIREP) for severe turbulence encountered ICAO
over the North Atlantic (NAT), the following SIGMET messages
are issued. This event spans over Gander Domestic and Gander WCCN07 CWAO 161220
Oceanic FIRs as well as GFACN34. CZQX SIGMET G3 VALID 1601800/170000 CWUL-
AERODROME FORECAST
INDICATES ADVISORY
Arctic
Ocean INDICATES 24-HR FORECAST
INDICATES SEASONAL 24-HR FORECAST
INDICATES 30-HR FORECAST
Atlantic
Ocean
Hudson
Bay
MET
Provincial Boundary
International Boundary
24-hr forecast service is only mandatory
at international airports.
148
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
Organization]-No. 306), Volume I.3, Part D. Guidance on the
gradual change in the weather to calm winds and a forecast
implementation of IWXXM is provided in the Manual on the
visibility greater than 6 SM, and the sky will be clear of
ICAO Meteorological Information Exchange Model (Doc 10003).
clouds;
Aerodrome advisories may be issued when this observation
Remarks: the next routine aerodrome forecast for this site
program prerequisite cannot be completely satisfied. Aerodrome
will be issued by 1800Z on the 28th day.
advisories are identified by the word “ADVISORY” appearing
after the date/time group, followed by one of the qualifying (b) Report type—The code name “TAF” is given in the first
reasons listed below. Advisories are formatted in the same manner line of text. It may be followed by “AMD” for amended or
as TAFs. corrected forecasts.
OFFSITE—The advisory is based on an observation that is not (c) Location indicator—A four-letter International Civil
taken at or near the airport. “OFFSITE” is added after the word Aviation Organization (ICAO) location indicator is used,
“ADVISORY,” followed by one space, if an observation is not as in aerodrome routine meteorological reports (METARs).
considered representative. It is intended to indicate to the users See MET 8.3.
that the observations do not necessarily reflect the actual (d) Date and time of origin—As with the METAR format, the
conditions at the aerodrome. date (day of the month) and time (Coordinated Universal
OBS INCOMPLETE or NO SPECI—The advisory is based on Time [UTC]) of origin are included in all forecasts. TAFs
incomplete data, either because the observations could not be are issued approximately 20 min before the validity period.
completed, or because the aerodrome does not have an on-going Some forecasts have update cycles as frequent as every
weather watch in order to produce SPECIs. “OBS INCOMPLETE” three hours; however, the next issue time will always be
or “NO SPECI” shall be added after the word “ADVISORY,” indicated in the remarks section.
followed by one space.
(e) Period of validity—The period of validity for the TAF is (i) Significant weather—Forecast significant weather may be
indicated by two four-digit date/time groups; the first four- decoded using the list of significant weather given in the
digit group indicates the start date and time of the TAF, and WMO Code Table 4678 (Table 8.1) in MET 8.3. Intensity
the second four-digit group indicates the end date and time and proximity qualifiers, descriptors, precipitation, obscuration
of the TAF. A TAF is considered to be valid from the moment and other phenomena are included as required. A maximum
it is issued (e.g. a TAF with an indicated period of validity of three significant weather groups is allowed per forecast
from 1100Z to 2300Z that was issued at 1040Z is considered period. If more than one group is used, they are considered
to be valid from 1040Z) until it is amended; until the next one entity. When one of the significant weather groups is
scheduled TAF for the same aerodrome is issued; or until forecast to change, all the significant weather groups that
the period of validity ends and no new TAF has been issued. will apply after the change are indicated following the change
The maximum period of validity for a TAF is 30 hr; however, group. Details on the specific effects of change groups on
some TAFs have staggered issue times and more frequent significant weather will be addressed under the change group
update cycles, which affects their periods of validity. headings.
(f) Wind—This group forecasts the 2-min mean wind direction NOTE:
and speed to the nearest 10° true, and speed to the nearest The meaning of the proximity qualifier, vicinity (VC), in the TAF
whole knot. “KT” is used to indicate the speed units. If the code differs slightly from that in the METAR. In the METAR
maximum gust speed is forecast to exceed the mean speed code, “VC” means elements observed within 5 SM., but not at the
by 10 kt or more, the letter G and the value of the gust speed, station. In the TAF code, “VC” means between 5 and 10 NM from
in knots, is added between the mean wind and the unit the centre of the runway complex.
indicator (KT). “VRB” is normally coded for variable
direction only if the wind speed is 3 kt or less; however, it (j) Sky condition—Sky condition is decoded as in a METAR.
may also be coded with higher speeds when it is impossible Possible codes for sky cover amounts are SKC, FEW, SCT,
to forecast a single direction (e.g. when a thunderstorm BKN, OVC and VV. In case of a significant change in a
passes). A north wind of 20 kt would be coded as 36020KT, cloud layer, as forecast using “BECMG” or “TEMPO”, the
while calm wind is coded as 00000KT. entire cloud group, including those cloud layers that are not
(g) Low-level wind shear—This group is used if the forecaster expected to change, shall be repeated.
has strong evidence to expect significant, non-convective CB layers are the only forecast layers to have cloud type
MET
wind shear that could adversely affect aircraft operation identified, e.g. “BKN040CB.”
within 1 500 ft AGL over the aerodrome. The height of the
(k) Change groups—For forecast purposes, all components of
top of the shear layer (in hundreds of feet above ground
the following elements are grouped together:
level) is given, followed by the forecast wind speed and
(i) sky condition,
direction at that height.
(ii) visibility, present weather and obstruction to vision.
While the main effect of turbulence is related to erratic
Conditions listed after the change group represent new
changes in altitude or attitude of the aircraft, or both, the
conditions.
main effect of wind shear is the rapid gain or, more critical,
loss of airspeed. Therefore, for forecasting purposes, any In the following example, since wind is considered a group
cases of strong, non-convective low-level wind shear within on its own and is not mentioned in the section after the
1 500 ft AGL will be labelled as “WS.” “BECMG” change group, it is unchanged and will remain
variable at 3 kt. However, changes have occurred to the sky
To a great extent, wind shear is an element that, for the time
condition and visibility, present weather and obstruction to
being, cannot be satisfactorily observed from the ground.
vision. For the sky condition, the broken layer at 300 ft will
As a result, aircraft observations and radiosonde reports
no longer exist after 1400Z.
represent the only available evidence.
Example:
However, the following guidelines are used to establish
whether significant non-convective wind shear hazardous TAF CYVP 301213Z 3012/3024 VRB03KT 1/4SM -RA FG
to aircraft exists: BKN003 OVC007
(i) vector magnitude exceeding 25 kt within 500 ft AGL; BECMG 3012/3014 4SM -DZ BR OVC007
(ii) vector magnitude exceeding 40 kt within 1 000 ft AGL;
Plain language explanation of the forecast: TAF for
(iii) vector magnitude exceeding 50 kt within 1 500 ft AGL;
Kuujjuaq, Que., issued on the 30th day of the month at
(iv) a pilot report of loss or gain of IAS of 20 kt or more
1213Z, valid from the 30th day of the month at 1200Z until
within 1 500 ft AGL.
the 30th day of the month at 2359Z. Wind variable at 3 kt,
(h) Prevailing visibility—The horizontal prevailing visibility is visibility 1/4 SM with light rain and fog; forecast cloud
indicated in statute miles and fractions up to 3 SM, then in layers are broken at 300 ft and overcast at 700 ft. From
whole miles up to 6 SM. Visibilities greater than 6 SM are 1200Z until 1400Z, conditions will become visibility 4 SM
indicated as P6SM. The letters “SM” are added, without a with light drizzle and mist; overcast cloud layer at 700 ft.
space, to each forecast visibility, to identify the unit.
150
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
those elements for which a change is forecast to occur will On the other hand, the weather group “RA BR” is repeated
follow “BECMG.” Any forecast weather element not after “TEMPO” because a significant change in visibility
indicated as part of the “BECMG” group remains the same is forecast.
as in the period prior to the onset of the change.
When a significant change in weather or visibility is forecast,
If a significant change in weather or visibility is forecast, all weather groups are indicated following “TEMPO,” including
all weather groups, as well as the visibility, are indicated those that are unchanged, and any weather element not indicated
following “BECMG,” including those that are unchanged. is forecast to remain the same as in the period prior to the
When the ending of significant weather is forecast, the temporary fluctuation. When the ending of significant weather
abbreviation “NSW” (no significant weather) is used. is forecast, the abbreviation “NSW” (no significant weather)
The start and stop time of the change period is indicated by is used.
two four-digit date/time groups following “BECMG.” The “TEMPO” is only used when the modified forecast condition
first two digits of each group indicate the date, while the is expected to last less than one hour in each instance, and
last two digits of each group indicate the time in whole UTC if expected to recur, the total period of the modified condition
hours. will not cover more than half of the total forecast period.
As a general rule, to keep the forecast clear and unambiguous, The total period of the modified condition is the time period
the use of the “BECMG” change group is kept to a minimum, during which the actual modified weather condition is
and confined to those cases where only one, or at most two, expected to occur, and not the total time stated for the
weather groups are expected to change while all the others “TEMPO” time period. When the modified forecast condition
stay the same. In those cases where more than two groups is expected to last more than one hour, either “FM” or
are expected to change, the permanent change group “FM” “BECMG” must be used.
will be used to start a new self-contained part period. For (o) Probability group (PROB)—In order to indicate the
the purposes of flight planning, and specifically for the probability of occurrence of alternative values of forecast
selection of IFR alternate aerodromes, if forecast conditions groups, PROB30 (a 30% probability) or PROB40 (a 40%
are improving, the new conditions will apply when the probability) is placed directly before the change group’s
change period is complete, and if the conditions are validity period and alternative value(s) to indicate that
deteriorating, the new conditions will apply at the beginning different conditions will occur within the specified time
of the period. period. The time period is given in whole UTC hour values.
For example, “PROB30 2817/2821” would indicate that
between 1700Z and 2100Z on the 28th day of the month there
151
TC AIM March 25, 2021
is a 30% probability that the indicated weather will occur. like the TAF based on human observations, provides a description
The weather elements used in the PROB group are restricted of the most probable weather conditions expected to occur at an
to hazards to aviation, which include, but are not limited aerodrome, together with the most probable time of occurrence.
to, the following:
The abbreviated comment “FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS” at
(i) thunderstorms;
the end of the TAF is meant to inform pilots that the forecast
(ii) freezing precipitation; has been developed from an automated weather observation.
(iii) low-level wind shear at or below 1 500 ft AGL; or The pilot using this forecast should be familiar with the
(iv) ceiling and visibility values important to aircraft characteristics of METAR AUTO weather observations, and
operations (e.g. threshold such as alternate limits, the comparison of automated and human observations contained
lowest approach limits). in MET 8.5, e.g. the automated weather observation system (AWOS)
A probability of less than 30% of actual values deviating cloud height sensor tends to under-read during precipitation
from those forecasts is not considered to justify the use of events. The forecaster is also familiar with AWOS characteristics
the PROB group. When the possibility of an alternative and has taken time to analyze not only AWOS data, but also
value is 50% or more, this shall be indicated by the use of additional information such as satellite and radar imagery,
BECMG, TEMPO or FM, as appropriate. The PROB group lightning data, remote video imagery, pilot reports, and
will not be used in combination with the TEMPO or BECMG observations from surrounding stations. Based on integration
groups. of this data, the forecaster may have inferred actual weather
conditions that differ slightly from the METAR AUTO report.
(p) Remarks—Remarks will appear in TAF from Canada,
On those few occasions when there are differences between a
prefaced by “RMK.” Currently, the following remarks
METAR AUTO report and a TAF, it may not imply that the TAF
are allowed:
is inaccurate, or that an amendment is required. In the event that
(i) FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS—This remark indicates
an AWOS sensor is missing, inoperative, or functioning below
that the TAF is based on METAR AUTO observations.
standards, the forecaster will attempt to infer the value of the
(ii) NXT FCST BY 290000Z—This remark indicates the
missing weather element from other available data and may
date and time (UTC) the next regular TAF will be
include a remark in the TAF. If the forecaster is unable to infer
issued, which will correspond to the beginning of its
the weather conditions, a decision may be made to cancel the
new period of validity. This remark will normally
TAF, pending correction of the problem. The decision to cancel
mark the end of the TAF.
MET
152
TC AIM March 25, 2021
and/or visibility when both the forecast and observed values avoid any misunderstanding. See MET 1.1.8 for more information
are below the normal visual flight rules (VFR) minima or on differences from the International Civil Aviation Organization
the lowest published instrument landing minima for an (ICAO) Annex 3.
aerodrome (whichever is lower).
The VFR minima criteria for TAF amendment purposes are a 8.3 SAmPle meSSAge
ceiling of less than 1 000 ft and/or ground visibility of less than
3 SM. METAR CYXE 292000Z CCA 09015G25KT 3/4SM
R09/4000FT/D –RA BR BKN008 0VC040 21/19 A2992
WS RWY 09 RMK SF5NS3 VIS NW 3/8 SLP134 DENSITY
8.0 AERODROME ROUTINE ALTITUDE 2500FT
METEOROLOGICAL REPORTS (a) Decoding of example—Aerodrome routine meteorological
(METARS) report; Saskatoon, Sask., issued on the 29th day of the
month at 2000 UTC; first correction to the original
observation; wind 090° true, 15 kt with gusts to 25 kt;
8.1 the AeroDrome routine meteorologicAl visibility 3/4 SM; RVR for Runway 09 is 4 000 ft and has
had a downward tendency; present weather is light rain
rePort (metAr) coDe and mist; broken clouds at 800 ft AGL, and combined with
An aerodrome routine meteorological report (METAR) describes the lower layer, overcast clouds at 4 000 ft; temperature 21°C;
the actual weather conditions at a specified location and at a dew point 19°C; altimeter setting 29.92 in Hg; wind shear
specified time as observed from the ground. METAR is the Runway 09; remarks: stratus fractus 5/8, nimbostratus 3/8,
name of the international meteorological code for an aerodrome visibilit y to the nor thwest 3/8 SM, sea level
routine meteorological report. METAR observations are normally pressure 1013.4 hPa, density altitude 2 500 ft.
taken and disseminated on the hour. An aerodrome special (b) Report type—The code name METAR (or SPECI) is given
meteorological report (SPECI), the name of the code for an in the first line of text. An aerodrome special meteorological
aerodrome special meteorological report, will be reported when report (SPECI) is issued only when significant changes in
weather changes of significance to aviation are observed (see weather conditions occur off the hour.
MET 8.4).
(c) Location indicator—Canadian aviation weather reporting
MET
In Canada, METARs and SPECIs are not encoded by the observer, stations are assigned four-character International Civil
but are generated by computer software, based on hourly or Aviation Organization (ICAO) indicators commencing with
special observations taken at either staffed or automatic sites. C and followed by W, Y or Z. These stations are normally
The code is composed of several groups which are always in the located within 1.6 NM (3 km) of the geometric centre of
same relative position to one another. When a weather element the runway complex. Aviation weather reporting sites are
or phenomenon does not occur, the corresponding group (or listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS).
extension) is omitted. Certain groups may be repeated. (d) Date/time of observation—The date (day of the month) and
METARs and SPECIs will be disseminated in ICAO meteorological time (Coordinated Universal Time [UTC]) of the observation
information exchange model (IWXXM) geography markup are included in all reports. The official time of the observation
language (GML) form. The technical specifications for IWXXM (on the hour) is used for all aerodrome routine meteorological
are contained in the Manual on Codes (WMO [World reports (METARs) that do not deviate from the official time
Meteorological Organization]-No. 306), Volume I.3, Part D. by more than 10 min. In SPECIs, the time refers to the time
Guidance on the implementation of IWXXM is provided in the of occurrence (hours and minutes) of the change(s) which
Manual on the ICAO Meteorological Information Exchange required the issue of the report.
Model (Doc 10003). (e) Report modifier—This field may contain two possible codes:
The large majority of METARs and SPECIs are provided by “AUTO” or “CCA”. Both codes may appear simultaneously,
NAV CANADA; however, at Department of National i.e. “AUTO CCA”. “AUTO” is used when data for the primary
Defence (DND) aerodromes they are provided by DND. If report is gathered by an automated weather observation
METARs and SPECIs are being provided by another source, system (AWOS). See MET 8.5 for more information about
they will be indicated as being “private” in the Canada Flight AWOS reports. “CCA” is used to indicate corrected reports.
Supplement (CFS). For these sites, the aerodrome operator is The first correction is indicated as CCA, the second as CCB,
the primary contact for further information. etc.
(f) Wind—This group reports the 2-min mean wind direction
and speed, along with gusts. Wind direction is always three
8.2 nAtionAl vAriAtionS digits, given in degrees (true) but rounded off to the nearest
Despite the fact that an aerodrome routine meteorological 10º (the third digit is always a “0”). Wind speeds are two
report (METAR) is an international code, there are some national digits (or three digits, if required) and in knots. Calm is
variations. For example, wind speed may be reported in different encoded as “00000KT”. In Canada, the unit for wind speed
units; however, the units are always appended to the values to is knots (nautical miles per hour) and is indicated by including
153
TC AIM March 25, 2021
“KT” at the end of the wind group. Other countries may (h) RVR—The runway visual range (RVR) for the touchdown
use kilometres per hour (KMH), or metres per second (MPS). zone of up to four available landing runways is reported
(i) Wind gusts—Gust information will be included if as a 10-min average, based on the maximum runway
gust speeds, averaged over a 5-second period, exceed light settings at the time of the report. It is included if
the average wind speed by 5 kt or more in the 10-min the prevailing visibility is 1 SM or less, and/or the RVR
period preceding the observation and the peak gust is 6 000 ft or less. “R”, the group indicator, is followed
reaches a maximum speed of 15 kt or more. “G” by the runway designator (e.g. 06), to which may be
indicates gusts and the peak gust is reported, using appended the letters “L”, “C”, or “R” (left, centre, or
two or three digits as required. right) if there are two or more parallel runways. The
(ii) Variations in wind direction—This group reports RVR value is then reported in hundreds of feet, using
variations in wind direction. It is only included if, three or four digits. FT indicates the units for RVR
during the 10-min period preceding the observation, are feet. “M” preceding the lowest measurable value (or
the direction varies by 60° or more and less than “P” preceding the highest) indicates the value is beyond
180°, and the mean speed exceeds 3 kt. The two the instrument range. The RVR trend is then indicated
extreme directions are encoded in clockwise order. if there is a distinct upward or downward trend from the
In the example below, the wind is varying from 260° first to the second 5-min part-period such that the RVR
true to 340° true. changes by 300 ft or more (encoded “/U” or “/D” for
upward or downward) or if no distinct change is observed,
Example:
the trend “/N” is encoded. If it is not possible to determine
METAR CYWG 172000Z 30015G25KT 260V340 the trend, the field will be left blank.
In the case of variable wind direction, wind direction in (i) Variations in RVR—Two RVR values may be reported, the
tens of degrees (ddd) shall be coded as VRB when the wind minimum and maximum 1-min mean RVR values during
speed is less than 3 kt. A variable wind at higher speeds the 10-min period preceding the observation, if they vary
shall be reported only when the variation in wind direction from the 10-min mean by at least 20% (and by 150 ft).
is 180° or more or when it is impossible to determine a
Example:
single wind direction.
“R06L/1000V2400FT/U” decodes as the minimum RVR
Example: for Runway 06 Left is 1 000 ft; the maximum RVR is 2 400 ft;
MET
When wind sensors are not functioning at a human METAR (j) Present weather—The present weather is coded in accordance
site, the wind speed and direction will be estimated and a with the WMO Code Table 4678, which follows. As many
remark will be added to the report (“WND ESTD”). groups as necessary are included, with each group containing
from two to nine characters.
(g) Prevailing visibility—The prevailing visibility is reported
in statute miles and fractions. There is no maximum visibility Present weather is comprised of weather phenomena, which
value reported. Lower sector visibilities which are half or may be one or more forms of precipitation, obscuration, or
less of the prevailing visibility are reported as remarks at other phenomena. Weather phenomena are preceded by one
the end of the report. or two qualifiers; one of which describes either the intensity
or proximity to the station of the phenomena, the other of
which describes the phenomena in some other manner.
154
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
a group is either light or heavy, this is indicated by with the abbreviation FG (fog), e.g. MIFG.
the appropriate sign. No sign is included if the The descriptors DR (drifting) and BL (blowing) are
intensity is moderate, or when intensity is not used only in combination with SN (snow), DU (dust)
relevant. If more than one type of precipitation is and SA (sand). Drifting is used if the snow, dust or
reported together in a group, the predominant type sand is raised less than 2 m above ground; if 2 m or
is given first; however, the reported intensity more, blowing is used. If blowing snow (BLSN) and
represents the overall intensity of the combined types snow (SN) are occurring together, both are reported
of precipitation. but in separate present weather groups, e.g. “SN
(ii) Proximity: The proximity, qualifier “VC”, is used BLSN”.
in conjunction with the following phenomena:
SH (showers) SH (shower) is used only in combination with
FG (fog) precipitation types RA (rain), SN (snow), PL (ice
FC (funnel cloud) pellets), GR (hail) and GS (snow pellets) if occurring
+FC (tornado or waterspout) at the time of observation, e.g. “SHPL” or “–
TS (thunderstorm) SHRAGR”. SHGS refers to either snow pellet showers
BLSN (blowing snow) or small hail (less than 5 mm diameter). When it is
BLDU (blowing dust) used for small hail, the diameter of the hail is included
BLSA (blowing sand) in remarks and CB are usually present.
PO (dust/sand whirls)
DS (dust storm) TS (thunderstorm) is either reported alone or in
SS (sandstorm) combination with one or more of the precipitation
types. The end of a thunderstorm is the time at which
VC is used if these phenomena are observed within
the last thunder was heard, followed by a 15-min
5 SM, but not at the station. When VC is associated
period with no further thunder.
with SH, the type and intensity of precipitation are
not specified because they cannot be determined. TS and SH are not used together, since present
weather groups can have only one descriptor.
155
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) Weather phenomena—Different forms of precipitation are The automated weather observation system (AWOS) cannot
combined in one group, the predominant form being reported report cloud types. AWOS cloud layers are limited to four,
first. The intensity qualifier selected represents the overall and it will report clear (CLR) when no layers are detected
intensity of the entire group, not just one component of the below a base of 25 000 ft (some private AWOS are limited
group. The one exception is freezing precipitation (FZRA to cloud bases of 10 000 ft).
or FZDZ), which is always reported in a separate present A ceiling is the lesser of the following: the height above
weather group. Obstructions to vision are generally reported ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud
if the prevailing visibility is 6 SM or less, with some covering more than half of the sky, or the vertical visibility
exceptions. Any obscuration occurring simultaneously with in a surface-based layer which completely obscures the
one or more forms of precipitation is reported in a separate whole sky. Therefore, a ceiling exists at the height of the
present weather group. Other phenomena are also reported first layer for which a coverage symbol of BKN or OVC is
in separate groups, and, when funnel clouds, tornados or reported. The existence of a vertical visibility constitutes
waterspouts are observed, they will be coded in the present an obscured ceiling.
weather section, as well as being written out in their entirety
in remarks. (d) Temperature and dew point—This group reports the air
temperature and the dew point temperature, rounded to the
(c) Sky conditions—This group reports the sky condition for nearest whole Celsius degree (e.g. +2.5˚C would be rounded
layers aloft. A vertical visibility (VV) is reported in hundreds to +3˚C). Negative values are preceded by the letter M, and
of feet when the sky is obscured. All cloud layers are reported values with a tenths digit equal to precisely 5 are rounded
based on the summation of the layer amounts as observed to the warmer whole degree. For example, 2.5, –0.5, –1.5,
from the surface up, reported as a height above the station and –12.5 would be reported as 03, M00, M01 and M12,
elevation in increments of 100 ft to a height of 10 000 ft, respectively.
and thereafter in increments of 1 000 ft. The layer amounts
are reported in eighths (oktas) of sky coverage as follows: (e) Altimeter setting—This group reports the altimeter setting.
A is the group indicator, followed by the altimeter setting
Table 8.2—Sky Conditions for METARs indicated by a group of four figures representing tens, units,
tenths and hundredths of inches of mercury. To decode,
SKC “sky clear” no cloud present place a decimal point after the second digit (e.g. A3006
becomes 30.06).
MET
156
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
–RA to –SHRA; SPECI not required.
(i) 1 000 ft and no layer aloft was reported below this
height in the report immediately previous; or (g) Obstruction to vision—A SPECI shall be taken to report
(ii) the highest minimum for IFR straight-in landing or the beginning or end of freezing fog.
takeoff, and no layer was reported below this height (h) Wind—A SPECI shall be taken to report when the wind:
in the report immediately previous. (i) speed (2 min mean) increases suddenly to at least
(c) Visibility—Prevailing visibility decreases to less than, or double the previously reported value and exceeds
increases to equal to or greater than: 30 kt;
(i) 3 SM (ii) direction changes sufficiently to fulfill criteria
(ii) 1 1/2 SM required for a “wind shift.”
(iii) 1 SM (i) Temperature—A SPECI shall be taken to report when the
(iv) 3/4 SM* temperature
(v) 1/2 SM (i) increases by 5°C or more from the previous reported
(vi) 1/4 SM* value and the previous reported value was 20°C or
(vii) the lowest published minimum higher; or
Criteria marked with an asterisk (*) are applicable only at (ii) decreases to a reported value of 2°C or lower.
aerodromes with precision approaches, and only down to The following airports have been identified for SPECI criteria
and including the lowest published minima for these for significant temperature changes between hourly reports:
aerodromes. (i) Calgary Intl, Alta.
(d) Tornado, waterspout or funnel cloud—If one or more of (ii) Edmonton Intl, Alta.
these phenomena: (iii) Gander Intl, N.L.
(i) is observed; (iv) Moncton/Greater Moncton Intl, N.B.
(ii) disappears from sight; or (v) Montréal/Pierre Elliott Trudeau Intl, Que.
(iii) is reported by the public (from reliable sources) to (vi) Montréal/Mirabel Intl, Que.
have occurred within the preceding six hours and (vii) Ottawa/Macdonald-Cartier Intl, Ont.
not previously reported by another station. (viii) St. John’s Intl, N.L.
(ix) Toronto/Lester B. Pearson Intl, Ont.
(x) Vancouver Intl, B.C.
(xi) Victoria Intl, B.C.
(xii) Halifax Intl, N.S.
157
TC AIM March 25, 2021
158
TC AIM March 25, 2021
8.5.2 Limited Weather Information (e) Visibility (AWOS)—Visibility will be reported in daytime
System (LWIS) Reports and at night in a manner similar to human assessment.
LWIS is an automated weather system which produces an hourly (f) Ceilometer—AWOS is capable of reporting cloud bases up
report containing wind speed and direction; temperature; dew to 25 000 ft.
point; and altimeter setting. LWIS is designed for use at (g) “Obstructions to vision” reporting capability—AWOS is
aerodromes where provision of METAR AUTO and SPECI able to report haze (HZ); mist (BR); fog (FG); freezing fog
AUTO reports is not justified, but support for a CAP approach (FZFG); and blowing snow (BLSN).
is required. For more information about LWIS reports, see
(h) VGSS—Text-to-voice technology at many sites for local
MET 1.2.6.2.
VHF transmission of weather report to pilots.
Example:
(i) Icing—The occurrence of icing at the time of observation
LWIS CYXP 221700Z AUTO 25010G15KT 03/M02 A3017= or during the past hour will be noted in remarks.
(j) RVR reporting (AWOS) at sites where RVR sensors are
8.5.3 Automated Weather Observation installed.
System (AWOS) and Limited Weather (k) Digital aviation weather cameras (WxCam) are installed at
Information System (LWIS) Performance stand-alone locations as well as at many AWOS and LWIS
Characteristics sites.
All AWOS and LWIS systems operated by NAV CANADA have All regulated observations of wind speed, direction, and character,
the following performance characteristics. as well as temperature, dew point, and altimeter setting must
(a) Thunderstorm reporting (AWOS) at sites within the domain meet the same performance specifications regardless of the
of the CLDN. Thunderstorm activity, based on the proximity means of assessment (either human or automated). Among these
of the lightning strike(s) to the site, will be reported as: requirements is one that stipulates that all reports of altimeter
(i) TS—Thunderstorm (at site), if lightning detected at setting must be based upon a fail-safe design that utilizes two
6 SM or less; or more independently operating pressure sensors that must
(ii) VCTS—Thunderstorm in vicinity, if lightning agree within established tolerances before they can be included
detected from > 6 to 10 SM; in a report.
MET
(iii) LTNG DIST (direction)—If lightning detected from
> 10 to 30 SM, lightning distant with octant compass
cardinal direction shall be reported in remarks, e.g.
LTNG DIST NE, S, SW; and
(iv) LTNG DIST ALL QUADS—Lightning distant all
quadrants will be reported in remarks if lightning
is detected in four or more octants.
(b) Ice-resistant anemometer (AWOS and LWIS)—New ice-
resistant technology essentially eliminates anemometer
performance degradation due to freezing precipitation,
freezing fog or snow contamination.
(c) Freezing drizzle and drizzle are not reported. When drizzle
is occurring, the AWOS will usually report either rain or
unknown precipitation. When freezing drizzle is occurring,
the AWOS will usually report either freezing rain or freezing
precipitation of an unknown type.
(d) Density altitude reporting capability (AWOS and LWIS)—
Density altitude is the altitude in ISA at which the air density
would be equal to the air density at field elevation at the
current temperature. This remark is only added when the
density altitude, rounded to the nearest 100 ft, is 200 ft or
higher than the aerodrome elevation. A rough value of density
altitude can be approximated by adding 118.8 ft to the
aerodrome pressure altitude for every degree Celsius the
temperature is above ISA. Density altitude can also be less
than aerodrome elevation and can be estimated by subtracting
118.8 ft from the aerodrome pressure altitude for every
degree Celsius colder than ISA, but it is not reported.
159
TC AIM March 25, 2021
8.5.4 Automatic Aerodrome Routine METAR AUTO provided by NAV CANADA AWOS and METAR
Meteorological Reports (METAR AUTO) issued by human are compared in the following table.
and Human Observation Comparison
Table 8.3—METAR Observation Comparison
WX Report Human Observation NAV CANADA METAR AUTO
Parameter
Report type METAR or SPECI METAR or SPECI
Four-letter indicator (e.g. CYQM, CYVR). No difference.
At stations where the observer is not at the
aerodrome, (beyond 1.6 NM [3 km] of the
Location geometric centre of the runway complex)
indicator the Wx report indicator differs from the No difference.
aerodrome indicator, e.g. Cartwright
aerodrome is CYCA; the Wx report is
identified as CWCA.
Date and time in UTC, followed by a “Z”,
Report time No difference.
e.g. 091200Z.
Type indicator AUTO
Corrections Corrections can be issued, e.g. “CCA”, the “A”
Not applicable.
indicator indicates the first correction.
No difference.
Wind
Human observers shall provide an estimate of NOTE: When a VGSS is installed, the wind direction will be
wind speed and direction in the event of wind broadcast in degrees magnetic if the AWOS is located in
sensor failure. SDA; elsewhere, it will be broadcast in degrees true. If wind
information is missing, five forward slashes (/) are placed in
the wind field, e.g. /////.
Variable wind
Wind direction variation of 60˚ or greater. No difference.
group
Visibility is prevailing visibility, i.e. common Visibility is measured using fixed, unidirectional, forward
to at least half the horizon circle. scatter techniques.
160
TC AIM March 25, 2021
See the table WMO Code Table 4678 (Table AWOS will report weather phenomena using the following
8.1) in MET 8.3 for the symbols used for the symbols:
description of weather. RA—rain,
FZRA—freezing rain,
SN—snow,
UP—unknown precipitation type.
AWOS reports thunderstorms (TS) and includes remarks on
location of lightning. Drizzle (DZ) or freezing drizzle (FZDZ)
are not reported and will usually be reported as rain (RA or
FZRA) or unknown precipitation type (UP or FZUP).
“+” or “–” is used to indicate weather No difference. Squalls are not reported.
intensity. AWOS does not report “in the
vicinity” phenomena other than TS and lightning.
Cloud amount Observer views entire celestial dome and Laser ceilometer views one point directly over the station.
and sky determines cloud-base height, layer amounts It measures the cloud-base height and then uses time
conditions and opacity, and cumulative amount and integration to determine layer amounts.
MET
opacity.
SKC or height of cloud base plus FEW, SCT, Height of cloud base plus FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC. “CLR” is
BKN, OVC. reported if no cloud below 25 000 ft AGL is detected.
Wind shear Existence in the lower layers shall be reported Not reported.
when known to the observer.
161
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Significant weather or variation not reported Currently, remarks are limited. When visibility is variable,
elsewhere in the report. the remark VIS VRB followed by the limits will appear, e.g.
VIS VRB 1-2. When icing is detected, ICG, ICG INTMT or ICG
PAST HR will appear. Remarks on precipitation amount, rapid
changes in pressure and the location of lightning may also
appear.
Example of METAR issued by human observation: the risk of a pilot possibly receiving two contradictory and
METAR CYEG 151200Z CCA 12012G23KT 3/4SM confusing weather reports.
R12/4000FT/D –RA BR FEW008 SCT014 BKN022 OVC035 In variable weather conditions, there may be significant
10/09 A2984 RMK SF1SC2SC4SC1 VIS W2 SLP012= differences between broadcasts only a few minutes apart. It is
very important during these conditions to obtain several
Example of METAR AUTO issued by NAV CANADA’s AWOS
MET
162
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
163
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.2 uPPer level winD AnD temPerAture Table 9.3—Example of Code Used in FDs
forecAStS (fDS) EXAMPLE DECODED
Upper level wind and temperature forecasts (FDs) are upper
level forecasts of wind velocity, expressed in knots and to the 9900 + 00 Wind light and variable, temperature 0˚C
nearest 10˚ true, and temperature, expressed in degrees Celsius. 2523 250˚ true at 23 kt
Temperatures are not forecast for 3 000 ft; in addition, this level
is omitted if the terrain elevation is greater than 1 500 ft. All 290˚ true (79 - 50 = 29) at 111 kt
791159
forecast temperatures for altitudes over 24 000 ft are negative. (11 + 100 = 111), temperature - 59˚C
Data for the production of FD forecasts are derived from a variety 350˚ true (85 - 50 = 35) at 199 kt
859950
of atmospheric data sources, including upper air sounding or greater, temperature -50˚C
measurements of pressure, temperature, relative humidity and
wind velocity, taken at 32 sites twice daily (at 0000Z and 1200Z). Forecasts in digital form of the winds and the temperatures aloft
Following the computer run of a subsequent numeric weather (FB) are currently available over the phone. They have a similar
model, FD forecasts are available at the valid times indicated in format to FD forecasts but are updated four times a day and
MET 3.1. include other improvements. FD forecasts will continue to be
available but will gradually be replaced by FB forecasts.
Table 9.1—FD Example 1
164
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4. The winds at 2 000 ft AGL blow roughly parallel to the (c) Wind direction—Wind direction may be determined at any
isobars—in a clockwise direction around highs and point by using the height contours. The wind generally
counter-clockwise around lows. Wind speeds vary with the blows parallel to the contours and the direction is determined
distance between isobars. Where the lines are close together, by keeping the “wind at your back with low heights to the
moderate to strong winds can be expected; where they are left”. The plotted wind arrows also provide the actual wind
far apart, light variable winds are expected. direction at the stations.
5. The red and blue lines are called fronts. These lines indicate (d) Wind speed—Wind speed is inversely proportional to the
the zones of contact between large air masses with differing spacing of the height contours. If the contours are close
physical properties—cold vs. warm, dry vs. moist, etc. Blue together, the winds are strong; if far apart, the winds are
lines are for cold fronts—cold air advancing. Red lines are light. The plotted wind arrows also provide the wind speed.
for warm fronts—warm air advancing. Alternate red and
On the 250 hPa chart, wind speeds are analyzed using dashed
blue lines are for quasi-stationary fronts—neither warm air
lines for points with the same wind speed (isotachs). The
nor cold air advancing. Hook marks in red and blue are for
isotachs are analyzed by a computer and are drawn at 30-kt
trowals-troughs of warm air aloft. A purple line is called
intervals starting at 60 kt.
an occluded front—where a cold front has overtaken a warm
front. Solid coloured lines are fronts which produce air mass NOTE:
changes at the ground level as well as in the upper air. Computer analyzed charts have the analyzed parameters smoothed
Dashed coloured lines represent “upper air” fronts—they to some extent.
also are important. Along all active fronts, one usually
encounters clouds and precipitation.
6. When colours cannot be used to distinguish the various 11.2 uPPer level PrognoStic chArtS
kinds of fronts, monochromatic symbols are used. Upper level wind and temperature charts are issued by a world
area forecast centre (WAFC), through the U.S. National Oceanic
11.0 UPPER LEVEL CHARTS and Atmospheric Administration’s National Weather Service in
Washington, D.C. Winds are depicted for FL 240, FL 340, FL 390
Upper level charts depict two forms of data: actual and forecast. and FL 450 using arrow shafts with pennants (50 kt each), full
Actual measured conditions are represented on analyzed charts feathers (10 kt each) and half feathers (5 kt each). The orientation
MET
(ANAL). These charts show conditions as they were at a specific of the shaft indicates wind direction (degree true). Temperatures
time in the past. Prognostic charts (PROG) show forecast (˚C) are presented in bold type at fixed grid points for the flight
conditions for a specific time in the future. Always check the level. All temperatures are negative unless otherwise noted.
map label for the type, date and valid time of a chart. Wind and temperature information from these charts, in
conjunction with the upper level wind and temperature forecast
11.1 uPPer level AnAlySiS chArtS (FD) and significant weather charts (SIGWX), can be used to
determine wind shear and other salient information such as the
Meteorological parameters in the upper atmosphere are measured probability of clear air turbulence (CAT) over given points.
twice a day (0000Z and 1200Z). The data are plotted and analyzed Remember, the wind speed is normally highest at the tropopause
on constant pressure level charts. These charts always indicate and decreases above and below at a relatively constant rate.
past conditions. The 850 hPa (5 000 ft), 700 hPa (10 000 ft),
500 hPa (18 000 ft) and 250 hPa (34 000 ft) analyzed charts are Figure 11.1—Section of an Upper Level
available in Canada and are generally in weather offices and on Wind and Temperature Chart
NAV CANADA’s aviation weather web site (AWWS )about three
hours after the data are recorded.
The maps include the following useful information:
(a) Height—The solid lines (contours) on all the charts represent
the approximate height of the pressure level indicated by
the map. The contours are labelled in decametres (10s of
metres) such that on a 500 hPa map, 540 means 5 400 m
and on a 250 hPa map, 1020 means 10 200 m. Contours are
spaced 60 m (6 decametres) apart except at 250 hPa, where
the spacing is 120 m.
(b) Temperature—Temperature is analyzed on the 850 hPa and
700 hPa charts only. Dashed lines are drawn at 5˚C intervals
and are labelled 5, 0, -5, etc. Temperatures at 500 hPa and
250 hPa are obtained by reading the number in the upper
left corner of each of the station plots.
165
TC AIM March 25, 2021
166
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The Canadian Meteorological Aviation Centres (CMACs) issue 12.2 high-level chArtS
a series of significant weather prognostic charts for the
mid-levels from 700 to 400 hPa (FL 100 to FL 240). They use Figure 12.2(a)—Example of a Significant Weather
the same criteria as the significant weather prognostic high-level Prognostic High-Level Chart (SIGWX HI LVL)
charts plus the following:
(a) moderate to severe icing (light icing is not depicted);
(b) cloud layers of significance;
(c) marked mountain waves;
(d) freezing level line (0˚C) at 5 000-ft intervals, and labeled
in hundreds of feet; and/or
(e) surface positions and direction of motion (in knots) of highs,
lows, and other significant features (front, trough).
Symbols used on the Significant Weather Prognostic Charts by
the CMAC:
These charts, produced for the mid and high levels, show
occurring or forecast weather conditions considered to be of
concern to aircraft operations. A world area forecast
centre (WAFC), through the U.S. National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration’s National Weather Service, issues
a chart depicting forecast weather conditions between FL 250
MET
Cloud types are represented by the
conventional abbreviation, cloud amounts are
indicated as BKN or OVC and the height of the base
and the tops are inicated by the following convention: and FL 630. Each chart includes a background that depicts the
major bodies of land and water for the related region along with
* ABBREVIATIONS a few letters that correspond to the first letters of the names of
CAT – clear air turbulence cities located at the adjacent black dot. The meteorological
conditions depicted and the symbols used are:
ISOLD – isolated
(a) Active thunderstorms—The cumulonimbus (CB) symbol is
FRQ – frequent used when thunderstorms occur, or are forecast to occur,
LYR – layers over a widespread area, along a line, embedded in other
MXD – mixed cloud layers, or when concealed by a hazard. The amounts
and the spatial coverage (in brackets) are indicated as:
OCNL – occasional (i) ISOL (isolated)—for individual CBs (less than 50%)
LEE WV – lee/mountain waves (ii) OCNL (occasional)—for well-separated CBs
(50–75% inclusive)
CLR – clear
(iii) FRQ (frequent)—for CBs with little or no separation
FZLVL – freezing level (greater than 75%)
In certain cases the abbreviation LYR (layer or (e) Turbulence—Areas of moderate or severe turbulence in
layered) is used to indicate cloud structure. cloud or clear air are depicted using heavy dashed lines,
height symbols, a for moderate turbulence and a
(b) Cloud heights—When cloud tops or bases exceed the upper for severe. Wind shear and mountain wave turbulence are
or lower limits of a significant weather prognostic chart, an included; convective turbulence is not. For example, an area
XXX symbol is used on the appropriate side of the dividing of moderate turbulence between FL 280 and FL 360 would
line. Consider, for example, the significant weather prognostic be shown as:
chart that extends from FL 250 to FL 630. If well-separated
embedded CBs based below FL 250 and topped at FL 450 Figure 12.2(e)—Turbulence
were present, this would be depicted as follows:
168
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Significant weather prognostic charts depicting the tropical as MLDPn (an abbreviation that stands for modèle
cyclone symbol will have a statement to the effect that the langrangien de dispersion de particules d’ordre n), are also
latest tropical cyclone advisory, rather than the tropical available at <https://weather.gc.ca/eer/vaac/index_e.html>.
cyclone’s prognostic position on the chart, is to be given Forecasts of concentrations of ash and the expected paths
public dissemination. of volcanic clouds are generated when volcanic ash threatens
(j) Volcanic eruptions—Information on the location of volcanic Canadian-controlled airspace.
eruptions that are producing ash clouds of significance to Such simulations are also performed for active volcanos
aircraft operations is shown as follows: the volcanic eruption whose eventual eruption could affect Canadian-controlled
symbol is shown at the location of the volcano; on the side airspace. These MLDPn outputs are produced automatically
of the chart, a box is shown containing the volcano eruption using hypothetical eruption start times that are three hours
symbol, the name and international number of the volcano apart. Forecast ash concentrations are presented as
(if known), the latitude/longitude, and date and time of the prognostic charts composed of four panels. Figure 13.1
first eruption (if known). Check SIGMET and NOTAM or shows the average concentration for three layers expressed
ASHTAM for volcanic ash. The symbol is as follows, and in terms of flight levels (in hundreds of feet) as well as the
may be depicted in red on colour charts: ash mass loading for the whole atmospheric column: surface
to FL200 (upper left-hand panel), FL200–FL350 (upper
Figure 12.2(i)—Volcanic Eruptions right-hand panel), FL350–FL600 (lower left-hand panel),
and ash mass loading (lower right-hand panel).
The time at which the run starts is indicated in the legend
box in the lower, left-hand portion of the image. The date
and time of forecast validity are indicated on the clock in
(k) Radioactive material in the atmosphere—Information on the lower, right-hand portion of the image. The results are
the location of a release of radioactive materials into the based on the execution of the last global numerical weather
atmosphere that is of significance to aircraft operations is prediction (NWP) model using either 0000 or 1200 UTC data.
shown as follows: the radioactivity symbol at the site of the The volcano of interest is at the centre of the image. The
accident; on the side of the chart, in a box containing the average volcanic ash concentration in the atmospheric layer
MET
radioactivity symbol, latitude/longitude of the site of the is depicted as very low, low, moderate, or high. The isolines
accident, date and time of the release and a reminder to are for 1, 10, 100 and 1 000 µg/m3 (micrograms per cubic
users to check NOTAM for the area concerned. The symbol, metre). The areas between the isolines are enhanced as
in black on a yellow circular background when depicted in follows:
colour, is as follows: (i) 1–10 µg/m3 is indicated by blue stippling;
(ii) 10–100 µg/m3 is indicated by green stippling;
Figure 12.2(j)—Radioactive Material in the Atmosphere (iii) 100–1 000 µg/m3 is indicated by yellow stippling;
and
(iv) > 1 000 µg/m3 is indicated by orange stippling.
The total ash mass loading is also depicted as very low, low,
moderate, or high, with isolines for 0.01; 0.1; 1 and 10 g/ m2.
CAUTION:
Users are reminded to consult the latest significant meteorological
13.0 VOLCANIC ASH PRODUCTS information (SIGMET) and official ICAO products for updates
on the position and vertical extent of the volcanic ash warning
(a) ICAO products—The Montréal volcanic ash advisory area. Even light (LGT) concentrations constitute a potential
centre (VAAC), a unit of ECCC, is an International Civil danger to aviation. Turbine engine flameouts have been attributed
Aviation Organization (ICAO) designated centre responsible to light volcanic ash clouds located up to 1 000 NM from the
for issuing specialized advisories when volcanic ash is source (see AIR 2.6).
present in Canadian-controlled airspace. VAAC Montréal
issues volcanic ash advisories (VAA) on the horizontal and
vertical extent of volcanic clouds, their altitude, and expected
movements. These advisories are based on satellite
observations, pilot reports, and weather forecast and
dispersion models. VAA are issued as both text and graphic
products and are available via the VAAC Montréal Web
site at <https://weather.gc.ca/eer/vaac/index_e.html>.
(b) Model simulations of volcanic ash—In addition to the official
VAA described in the previous paragraph, results from
simulations of the volcanic ash dispersion model, known
169
TC AIM March 25, 2021
170
TC AIM March 25, 2021
14.0 SPACE WEATHER INFORMATION SEV events are listed in the first edition (2019) of the ICAO
Manual on Space Weather Information in Support of International
SERVICE Air Navigation (Doc 10100).
The space weather advisories will contain information about
14.1 introDuction current conditions, as well as forecast levels for 6 hours, 12 hours,
18 hours, and 24 hours ahead.
Civil aviation may be affected by space weather phenomena,
notably with respect to: Separate advisories will be issued for each of the following three
phenomena:
(a) high-frequency (HF) radio communications;
(a) HF radio communications (HF COM)
(b) global navigation satellite system-based (GNSS-based)
navigation and surveillance; (b) GNSS-based navigation (GNSS)
(c) satellite communications; and (c) Radiation at aircraft altitudes (RADIATION)
(d) increased exposure to radiation aboard aircraft. Advisories for satellite communications (SATCOM) will not be
provided by any space weather centres as further work is required
ICAO has therefore organized a space weather information to establish operationally relevant thresholds for aviation
service, whereby advisories will be disseminated through the SATCOM.
aeronautical fixed service (AFS), including the aeronautical
fixed telecommunications network (AFTN) and the Air Traffic Affected geographic areas are referenced by their latitudes and
Services Message Handling System (AMHS), in cases of longitudes, and above flight levels (ABV FL) for radiation.
moderate or severe impacts on the four domains identified above. Abbreviations are also used:
(a) High latitudes northern hemisphere (N9000 – N6000): HNH
14.2 nAture of the DiSturBAnceS (b) Mid-latitudes northern hemisphere (N6000 – N3000): MNH
Space weather events are caused by solar flares and particles (c) Equatorial latitudes northern hemisphere (N3000 – N0000):
ejected from the sun. The electromagnetic radiation from solar EQN
flares causes a shortwave fadeout (i.e. an increased absorption
(d) Equatorial latitudes southern hemisphere (S0000 – S3000):
of HF radio waves on the dayside of the earth that lasts for up
MET
EQS
to an hour). The particles arriving from the sun are guided to
high latitudes, where they produce polar cap absorption and (e) Mid-latitudes southern hemisphere (S3000 – S6000): MSH
auroral absorption, which cause a loss of HF radio communications (f) High latitudes southern hemisphere (S6000 – S9000): HSH
that can last for many hours and recur for several days. In addition,
ionospheric disturbances at mid-latitudes can reduce the NOTE:
maximum useable frequency for HF radio communications. Some advisories may be for the whole daylight side of Earth
(daylight side).
Ionospheric disturbances can also interfere with the radio signals
used for global navigation satellite system (GNSS) positioning Advisories will be issued as soon as an increase above the MOD
and navigation. Increases in the total electron content (TEC) of or SEV thresholds are detected. Advisories are updated as often
the ionosphere lead to an increase in the transit time of the GNSS as necessary, but at least every 6 hours, until such time as the
signal, producing position errors in GNSS receivers. Scintillation elevated space weather levels are no longer detected or no longer
(rapid variations in amplitude or phase) of the radio signals can expected. At that time, an advisory will be issued stating that
cause GNSS receivers to “lose lock” on the radio signals and the event is finished, with the message that no elevated space
give false information or no information at all. Satellite weather is expected (NO SWX EXP).
communications (SATCOM) signals also pass through the
ionosphere and can be affected by scintillation. Test or exercise advisories may be issued.
High-energy particles from the sun are guided by the earth’s Space weather advisory information relevant to the whole route
magnetic field and enter the atmosphere in polar regions. The should be supplied to operators and flight crew members as part
latitudes affected depend on the energy of the particles. Most of meteorological information.
solar particles are absorbed by the atmosphere, but the high-
energy particles that interact with atmospheric particles trigger 14.4 reSPonSe to ADviSorieS
secondary ionising particle cascades, which increase radiation
aboard aircraft. The dose from these particles is greatest at the The ICAO service does not define the operational responses to
highest aviation altitudes and decreases with reduced altitude. space weather events. Such responses are the responsibility of
aircraft operators, who may choose to have operational procedures
in place to be ready in case of space weather events. Guidance
14.3 the icAo Service ADviSorieS on the use of space weather advisory information is provided
Space weather service providers will issue an advisory when in Chapter 4 of the ICAO Manual on Space Weather Information
conditions exceed thresholds for moderate (MOD) or severe (SEV) in Support of International Air Navigation (Doc 10100, 2019).
events. The parameters and thresholds used to define MOD and
171
TC AIM March 25, 2021
14.5 SPAce weAther ADviSory meSSAge 14.6 exAmPleS of SPAce weAther ADviSorieS
A space weather advisory message has the following format:
Table 14.2—Advisories: Example #1
Table 14.1—Space Weather Advisory Message Format FNXX01 YMMC
020100
(1) WMO Header (FNXX01, WMO location indicator, UTC
date-time of issue of the message) SWX ADVISORY
(2) SWX ADVISORY (message type) DTG: 20190502/0054Z
(3) STATUS (either test (TEST) or exercise (EXER) if SWXC: ACFJ
required)
ADVISORY NR 2019/319
(4) DTG (Time of Origin – Year/month/date/time in UTC)
SWX EFFECT: HF COM MOD
(5) SWXC (name of Space Weather Centre)
OBS SWX: 02/0054Z DAYLIGHT SIDE
(6) ADVISORY NR (advisory number; unique sequence
for each space weather effect: HFCOM, GNSS, FCST SWX + 6 HR: 02/0700Z DAYLIGHT SIDE
RADIATION, SATCOM) FCST SWX + 12 HR: 02/1300Z DAYLIGHT SIDE
(7) NR RPLC (number of the previously issued advisory
being replaced) FCST SWX + 18 HR: 02/1900Z NOT AVBL
(8) SWX EFFECT (effect and intensity of space weather FCST SWX + 24 HR: 03/0100Z NOT AVBL
phenomenon) RMK: SOLAR FLARE EVENT IN PROGRESS
(9) OBS (or FCST) SWX (Date and time [in UTC] and IMPACTING HF COM ON DAYLIGHT
description of spatial extent of observed or forecast SIDE. PERIODIC LOSS OF HF COM ON
space weather phenomenon) DAYLIGHT SIDE POSSIBLE NXT 12HRS.
(10) FCST SWX +6HR (Date-time [in UTC] of forecast NXT ADVISORY: WILL BE ISSUED BY
spatial extent of space weather event) 20190502/0654Z=
(11) FCST SWX +12HR (as above)
Table 14.3—Advisories: Example #2
MET
172
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
DVLPG developing
The following list of commonly used abbreviations is not
exhaustive. For a complete list of abbreviations, please consult DZ drizzle
the Manual of Word Abbreviations (MANAB) on the ECCC E east
Web site.
ELSW elsewhere
Table 15.1—Aviation Forecast Abbreviations EMBD embedded
173
TC AIM March 25, 2021
174
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
WK weak
WLY westerly
WND wind
WRM warm
WS wind shear
WV wave
XTNSV extensive
XTRM extreme
Z ZULU (or UTC)
175
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MET
176
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The ATC service has been established primarily for the prevention
RAC—RULES OF THE AIR of collisions and the expediting of traffic. The provision of such
AND AIR TRAFFIC service will take precedence over the provision of flight
information service, but every effort will be made to provide
RAC
altitude reservation East (Gander) and altitude reservation of information concerning hazards, such as chaff drops, bird
West (Edmonton) in co-ordination with ACCs in providing activity and possible traffic conflictions. Due to limitations
reserved altitude for specified air operations in controlled inherent in all radar systems, aircraft, chaff, etc., cannot be
airspace, and in providing information concerning these detected in all cases.
reservations and military activity areas in controlled and Whenever practicable, ATC will provide flights with severe
uncontrolled airspace. weather information pertinent to the area concerned. Pilots may
(g) AMIS is provided by ACCs for the collection, processing assist ATC by providing pilot reports of severe weather conditions
and dissemination of aircraft movement information for they encounter. ATC will endeavour to suggest alternate routes
use by air defence units relative to flights operating into or available in order to avoid areas experiencing severe weather.
within Canadian ADIZ.
(i) Flight information service is provided by ATC units
to assist pilots by supplying information concerning
known hazardous flight conditions. This information
will include data concerning unfavourable flight
conditions and other known hazards; which may not
have been available to the pilot prior to takeoff or
which may have developed along the route of flight.
177
TC AIM March 25, 2021
ATC will provide pilots intending to operate through chaff areas reports, such as vital intelligence sightings (CIRVIS) and
with all available information relating to proposed or actl chaff pollution reports. Fuel dumping information may also be
drops: submitted for coordination with the appropriate ACC and
for aeronautical broadcast needs.
(a) location of chaff drop area;
(d) Aeronautical broadcast service: the broadcast on the FISE
(b) time of drop;
frequency, and on 126.7 MHz, of SIGMET, urgent PIREP
(c) estimated speed and direction of drift; and information concerning fuel dumping operations.
(d) altitudes likely to be affected; and (e) VFR flight plan alerting service: the notification of RCCs
(e) relative intensity of chaff. and provision of communications searches when an aircraft
on a VFR flight plan or flight itinerary becomes overdue
Information concerning bird activity, obtained through controller’s and needs SAR aid.
observations or pilot reports, will be provided to aircraft operating
in the area concerned. In addition, pilots may be warned of (f) Flight regularity message service: the relay by FICs of
possible bird hazards if radar observation indicates the possibility messages between an aircraft in flight and the aircraft
of bird activity. Information will be provided concerning: operating agency, and vice versa, when an agency with
AFTN access subscribes to the service for an annual cost.
(a) size or species of bird, if known; Agencies interested in subscribing to this service should
(b) location; contact the NAV CANADA Customer Service Centre.
(c) direction of flight; and
1.1.2.2 Flight Service Stations (FSSs)
(d) altitude, if known.
(a) AAS: the provision of information pertinent to the arrival
Radar traffic information and radar navigation assistance to
and departure phases of flight at uncontrolled aerodromes
VFR flights are contained in RAC 1.5.
and for transit through an MF area. AAS is provided on the
MF and is normally in conjunction with VCS.
1.1.2 Flight Advisory and Information Services
The elements of information listed below are provided, if
The following flight advisory and information services are appropriate, by the flight service specialist during initial
provided by FICs and FSSs. aerodrome advisory communications with an aircraft:
(i) runway;
1.1.2.1 Flight Information Centres (FICs) (ii) wind direction and speed;
(iii) air traffic that warrants attention;
(a) Pilot briefing service: the provision of, or consultation on,
(iv) vehicle traffic;
meteorological and aeronautical information to assist pilots
(v) wake turbulence cautionary;
in pre-flight planning for the safe and efficient conduct of
(vi) aerodrome conditions;
flight. The flight service specialist adapts meteorological
(vii) weather conditions;
information, including satellite and radar imagery, to fit
(viii) additional information of interest for the safety of flight.
the needs of flight crew members and operations personnel,
RAC
and provides consultation and advice on special weather The flight service specialist updates this information, when
problems. Flight service specialists accept flight plan appropriate, after the initial advisory. Pilots are encouraged
information during a briefing. to indicate in initial transmissions to the FSS that information
has been obtained from the ATIS or from an AWOS (or
(b) FISE: the exchange on the FISE frequency of information
LWIS) broadcast, or use the phrase “HAVE NUMBERS”
pertinent to the en-route phase of f light. Air traffic
if runway, wind and altimeter information from the previous
information is not provided. Upon request from an aircraft,
aerodrome advisory have been received, so that the flight
a FIC provides:
service specialist does not repeat the information.
(i) meteorological information: SIGMET, AIRMET,
PIREP, aerodrome routine meteorological report Mandatory reports by aircraft on the MF are critical for the
(METAR), aviation selected special weather report FSS to be able to provide effective air traffic information.
(SPECI) , aerodrome forecast (TAF), altimeter At certain FSS locations, air traffic information may also
setting, weather radar, lightning information and be based on a radar display. A pilot remains responsible for
briefing update; avoidance of traffic in Class E airspace.
(ii) aeronautical information: NOTAM, RSC, CRFI, Communications regarding TCAS events and displayed
MANOT and other information of interest for flight information should be limited to that required to inform
safety; and the flight service specialist that the aircraft is responding
(iii) relay of communications with ATC: IFR clearance to an RA. Discretion should be used in using the TCAS
and SVFR authorization. traffic display to ask questions regarding traffic in the
(c) En-route aircraft may submit to a FIC: PIREPs, IFR and vicinity of an aircraft. As would be expected, aircraft shown
VFR position reports (including arrival and departure times), on a TCAS display may not match the traffic information
revised flight plan or flight itinerary information and other provided by the flight service specialist.
178
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTAM, RSC and CRFI are included in advisories for a (c) Alerting service: the notification of appropriate organizations
period of 12 hr for domestic traffic, and 24 hr for international regarding aircraft in need of SAR services or alerts of crash
traffic, after dissemination by means of telecommunication. equipment, ambulances, doctors and any other safety
Aerodrome conditions published prior to these time limits services. Alerting of a responsible authority, if experiencing
should have been received in the pilot briefing or can be unlawful interference, bomb threat or inability to
obtained on request. communicate in the clear, is also included in this service.
Aerodrome lighting is operated by the FSS, unless otherwise (d) Emergency assistance service: the provision of aid to a pilot
indicated in the CFS. The flight service specialist relays when in an emergency, or potential emergency situation,
ATC clearances, SVFR authorizations, and routinely informs such as being lost, encountering adverse weather conditions
the ACC of all IFR arrival times. The specialist also relays or experiencing aircraft-related emergencies or equipment
a VFR arrival report to a FIC upon request from an aircraft. failure. At some locations, emergency navigational assistance
Pilots should be aware that a flight service specialist will is provided to a pilot who is lost or experiencing IMC,
alert the appropriate agencies for any aircraft that has through the use of VDF equipment or by transferring the
received a landing advisory for an aerodrome that lies within pilot to ATC for radar service.
an MF area and within radio communication range, if it (e) NOTAM information service: the collection and dissemination
fails to arrive within 5 min of its latest ETA, and of NOTAM, RSC, and CRFI information by the flight service
communication cannot be re-established with the aircraft. specialist. A pilot may report to a FIC or to an FSS any
(b) VCS: the provision, at locations where AAS is provided, of hazards to the air navigation system that may need NOTAM
instructions to control the movements of vehicles, equipment distribution. The flight service specialist will distribute the
and pedestrians on manoeuvring areas of uncontrolled information if it meets the criteria established in the
aerodromes. Flight service specialists will normally instruct Canadian NOTAM Operating Procedures (CNOP).
vehicle traffic to leave the intended runway at least 5 min (f) Weather observation service: the observation, recording
prior to the estimated time of landing or before a departing and dissemination of surface weather information for
aircraft enters the manoeuvring area. The specialist will aviation purposes.
coordinate with the pilot prior to authorizing traffic to operate
on the intended runway within less than 5 min of the 1.1.2.4 International Flight Service Station (IFSS)
estimated time of landing or the time an aircraft is ready
for takeoff. An aeronautical station that provides a communications service
for international air operators. Gander is the only IFSS in Canada.
(c) VDF service: the provision of VDF navigation assistance
to VFR aircraft. This service includes provision of the
aircraft’s bearing and a reciprocal heading, but is not intended 1.1.3 Arctic Territories
as a substitute for normal VFR navigation. Arctic territories are serviced by the Edmonton (Alta.),
Winnipeg (Man.), and Quebec (Que.) FICs, which provide FISE
1.1.2.3 Flight Information Centres (FICs) and Flight and emergency communication to aircraft operating in the
Service Stations (FSSs) Northwest Territories and Nunavut and in the vicinity of the
RAC
ADIZ.
(a) RAAS: the provision, via RCO, of information pertinent to
the arrival and departure phases of flight and for transit
through an MF area. 1.1.4 Military Flight Advisory Unit (MFAU)
RAAS consists in the issuance of the same type of information DND operates Military Flight Advisory Unit (MFAU) which
as in AAS, except that it is provided from a remote location. provide flight information services that enhance flight safety
It is emphasized that the flight service specialist cannot and efficiency. These services are available by calling the
observe the runways, taxiways, airspace or weather appropriate station followed by “Advisory”, i.e. “Namao
conditions in the vicinity of the aerodrome. Wind, altimeter Advisory”. MFAU provide en route flight information, airport
and other weather information is usually extracted from advisory, ground control, field condition reports, flight planning,
the latest METAR or SPECI, and may not always be as alerting service, navigation assistance, NOTAM, PIREPs, and
representative of actual conditions as in AAS. weather reports. An MFAU may be used to accept and relay
VFR and IFR position reports and ATC clearances.
(b) VAS: the provision, via RCO, of information and advisories
concerning the movements of vehicles, equipment and
pedestrians on manoeuvring areas at designated
uncontrolled aerodromes. VAS is provided at locations
where RAAS is also provided. The flight service specialist
will request vehicle traffic to leave the intended runway at
least 5 min prior to the estimated time of landing, but cannot
ascertain visually if the traffic has actually vacated the
runway.
179
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.2 ServiceS other thAn Air trAffic Services provided by APRT RDO/CARS include the following:
ServiceS (AtS) (a) Emergency Service: The O/C will respond to all emergency
calls (distress, urgency and ELT signals), incidents or
accidents by alerting a designated NAV CANADA FIC and
1.2.1 Universal Communications (UNICOM) appropriate local authorities.
A UNICOM is an air-ground communications facility operated (b) Communication Service: The O/C will provide pilots with
by a private agency to provide PAS service at uncontrolled information in support of aircraft arrivals and departures,
aerodromes. At these locations the choice of frequencies are including wind, altimeter, runway and aerodrome status
122.7, 122.8, 123.0, 123.3, 123.5, 122.35, 122.95, 123.35, 122.725, (including vehicle intentions and runway condition), current
122.775, and 122.825 MHz. weather conditions, PIREPs and known aircraft traffic.
The use of all information received from a UNICOM station is
entirely at the discretion of the pilot. The frequencies are published NOTES:
in aeronautical information publications as a service to pilots, 1. O/Cs are authorized to provide an altimeter setting for an
but TC takes no responsibility for the use made of a UNICOM instrument approach.
frequency.
2. O/Cs provide limited traffic information. APRT RDOs/
An AU is an air-ground communications service that can provide CARS are located at uncontrolled aerodromes within MF
approach and landing information to IFR pilots. The service areas. Pilots must communicate on the MF as per uncontrolled
provider is required to ensure that: aerodrome procedures.
(a) meteorological instruments used to provide the approach 3. O/Cs do not provide ATC services. At aerodromes within
and landing information meet the requirements stipulated controlled airspace served by APRT RDO/CARS, pilots
under CAR 804.01(1)(c) or the applicable exemption; and must contact ATS via the RCO, PAL or telephone to obtain
special VFR authorization or IFR clearances.
(b) UNICOM operators meet the training requirements
stipulated under CAR 804.01(1)(c) or the applicable (c) Weather Observation Service: The O/C will monitor, observe,
exemption. record and relay surface weather data for aviation purposes
(METARs or SPECIs) in accordance with CAR 804 standards.
Where the above standards are met, the AU operator may provide
The O/C may request PIREPs from pilots to confirm weather
a station altimeter setting for an instrument procedure. The wind
conditions, such as height of cloud bases.
speed and direction for a straight-in landing from an instrument
approach may or may not be provided. (d) Flight Plan/Flight Information Service: If necessary, at most
APRT RDOs/CARS, O/Cs will accept f light plans/
Operators providing AU services may also advise pilots of runway
itineraries; however, pilots are encouraged to obtain a full
conditions and of vehicle or aircraft positions on the
pre-flight briefing and then file their flight plan/itinerary
manoeuvring area.
with a FIC.
An AU is indicated as “UNICOM (AU)” in the CAP and
the CFS. NOTE:
Pilots should be aware that O/Cs are only authorized to provide
RAC
180
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.2.3 Private Advisory Stations (PAS)— (f) a NOTAM or an excerpt from a NOTAM, pertinent
Controlled Airports information regarding the serviceability of a NAVAID, or
field conditions applicable to arriving or departing aircraft.
Aeronautical operators may establish their own private facilities These may be deleted from an ATIS message after a
at controlled airports for use in connection with company broadcast period of 12 hr at domestic airports or 24 hr at
business, such as servicing of aircraft, availability of fuel, and international airports;
lodging. The use of PAS at controlled aerodromes shall not
include information relative to ATC, weather reports, condition (g) instruction that aircraft are to acknowledge receipt of the
of landing strips, or any other communication normally provided ATIS broadcast on initial contact with ATC/FSS.
by ATC units. Each recording will be identified by a phonetic alphabet code
letter, beginning with ALFA. Succeeding letters will be used
1.2.4 Apron Advisory Service for each subsequent message.
Apron advisory service at most controlled airports is provided Example of an ATIS Message:
by ATS. However, some large airports are providing advisory TORONTO INTERNATIONAL INFORMATION BRAVO.
service on aprons through a separate apron management unit WEATHER AT ONE FOUR ZERO ZERO ZULU: WIND ZERO FIVE
staffed by airport or terminal operator personnel. This service ZERO AT TWO ZERO, VISIBILITY FIVE HAZE, CEILING THREE
normally includes gate assignment, push-back instructions, and THOUSAND OVERCAST, TEMPERATURE ONE EIGHT, DEW
advisories on other aircraft and vehicles on the apron. Aircraft POINT ONE SIX, ALTIMETER TWO NINER FOUR SIX,
entering the apron will normally be instructed by the ground PARALLEL ILS APPROACHES ARE IN PROGRESS. IFR
controller to contact apron prior to or at the designated change- LANDING ZERO SIX RIGHT, ZERO SIX LEFT. VFR LANDING
over point. Aircraft leaving the apron shall contact ground on ZERO SIX LEFT. DEPARTURE ZERO SIX LEFT. NOTAM: GLIDE
the appropriate frequency to obtain taxi clearance before exiting PATH ILS RUNWAY ONE FIVE OUT OF SERVICE. INFORM ATC
the apron and before entering the manoeuvring area. YOU HAVE INFORMATION BRAVO.
NOTE:
1.3 AutomAtic terminAl informAtion Current time and RVR measurements will not be included in
Service (AtiS) the ATIS message, but will be issued in accordance with current
ATIS is the continuous broadcasting of recorded information practices. Temperature and dew point information is derived
for arriving and departing aircraft on a discrete VHF/UHF only from the scheduled hourly weather observations.
frequency. Its purpose is to improve controller and flight service Pilots hearing the broadcast should inform the ATC/FSS unit
specialist effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by on initial contact that they have received the information, by
automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine repeating the code letter that identifies the message, thus obviating
information. the need for the controller/specialist to issue information.
ATIS messages are recorded in a standard format and contain Example:
such information as:
…WITH BRAVO.
RAC
(a) airport name and message code letter;
During periods of rapidly changing conditions that would create
(b) weather information, including:
difficulties in keeping the ATIS message current, the following
(i) time, message will be recorded and broadcasted:
(ii) surface wind, including gusts,
(iii) visibility, BECAUSE OF RAPIDLY CHANGING WEATHER/AIRPORT
(iv) weather and obstructions to vision, CONDITIONS, CONTACT ATC/FSS FOR CURRENT
(v) ceiling, INFORMATION.
(vi) sky condition, The success and effectiveness of ATIS is largely dependent upon
(vii) temperature, the co-operation and participation of airspace users; therefore,
(viii) dew point, pilots are strongly urged to take full advantage of this service.
(ix) altimeter setting,
(x) pertinent SIGMETs, AIRMETs and PIREPs, and
(xi) other pertinent remarks;
(c) type of instrument approach in use, including information
on parallel or simultaneous converging runway operations;
(d) landing runway, both IFR and VFR, including information
on hold short operations and the stopping distance available;
(e) departure runway, both IFR and VFR;
181
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.4 uSe of term “ceiling AnD viSiBility primary radar equipment, ATC cannot provide traffic information
on aircraft without a functioning transponder.
ok (cAvok)”
ATC assumes responsibility for terrain (obstacle) clearance when
The term “CAVOK” (KAV-OH-KAY) may be used in air-ground vectoring en route IFR and CVFR flights and for IFR aircraft
communications when transmitting meteorological information being vectored for arrival until the aircraft resumes normal
to arriving aircraft. navigation.
CAVOK refers to the simultaneous occurrence of the following Vectors are used when necessary for separation purposes, when
meteorological conditions at an airport: required by noise abatement procedures, when requested by the
(a) no cloud below 5 000 feet, or below the highest minimum pilot, or whenever vectors will offer operational advantages to
sector altitude, whichever is higher, and no cumulonimbus; the pilot or the controller. When vectors are initiated, the pilot
will be informed of the location to which the aircraft is being
(b) a visibility of 6 SM or more; vectored.
(c) no precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog, or low drifting
Example:
snow.
VECTORS TO VICTOR THREE ZERO ZERO, TURN LEFT
This term, coupled with other elements of meteorological HEADING ZERO FIVE ZERO. VECTORS TO THE VANCOUVER
information, such as wind direction and speed, altimeter setting V-O-R ZERO FIVE THREE RADIAL, FLY HEADING ZERO TWO
and pertinent remarks, will be used in transmissions directed ZERO. VECTORS TO FINAL APPROACH COURSE, DEPART
to arriving aircraft and, where applicable, in the composition of KLEINBURG BEACON ON HEADING TWO FOUR ZERO.
ATlS messages. A pilot, on receipt of CAVOK, may request that
detailed information be provided. Pilots will be informed when vectors are terminated, except
when an arriving aircraft is vectored to the final approach course
CAVOK does not apply to the provision of meteorological
or to the traffic circuit.
information to en route aircraft and, therefore, will not be used
when such information is transmitted to aircraft engaged in that Example:
particular phase of flight. RESUME NORMAL NAVIGATION.
When an aircraft is vectored to final approach or to the traffic
1.5 rADAr Service circuit, the issuance of approach clearance indicates that normal
navigation should be resumed.
1.5.1 General Normally radar service will be continued until an aircraft leaves
The use of radar increases airspace utilization by allowing ATC the area of radar coverage, enters uncontrolled airspace, or is
to reduce the separation interval between aircraft. In addition, transferred to an ATC unit not equipped with radar. When radar
radar permits an expansion of flight information services, such service is terminated the pilot will be informed accordingly.
as traffic information, radar navigation assistance and information Example:
on chaff drops and bird activity. Due to limitations inherent in
all radar systems, it may not always be possible to detect aircraft, RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED.
RAC
182
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The following diagram illustrates the clock positions. this assistance must be operating within areas of radar and
communication coverage, and be radar-identified.
Figure 1.1—Clock Positions Diagram
VFR flights may be provided with this service:
(a) at the request of a pilot, when traffic conditions permit;
(b) when the controller suggests and the pilot agrees; or
(c) in the interest of flight safety.
The pilot is responsible for avoiding other traffic and avoiding
weather below VFR minima while on a VFR f light on
radar vectors.
If a radar vector will lead a VFR flight into IFR weather
conditions, the pilot must inform the controller and take the
following action:
(a) if practicable, obtain a vector which will allow the flight to
remain in VFR weather conditions; or
Issue traffic information to radar-identified aircraft as follows:
(b) if an alternative vector is not practicable, revert to navigation
(a) Position of the traffic in relation to the aircraft’s observed track. without radar assistance; or
(b) Direction of flight. (c) if the pilot has an IFR rating and the aircraft is equipped
(c) Type of aircraft, if known, or the relative speed and the for IFR flight, the pilot may file an IFR flight plan, and
altitude, if known. request an IFR clearance.
Emergency radar assistance will be given to VFR flights which
NOTE: are able to maintain two-way radio communication with the unit,
Direction of flight may be expressed as OPPOSITE DIRECTION are within radar coverage, and can be radar identified.
or SAME DIRECTION, while the altitude may be expressed as
a number of feet above or below the aircraft receiving the traffic Pilots requiring radar assistance during emergency conditions
information. should contact the nearest ATC unit and provide the
following information:
Example:
(a) Declaration of emergency (state nature of difficulty and
TRAFFIC, TWO O’CLOCK, THREE AND A HALF MILES, type of assistance required).
WESTBOUND, B747, ONE THOUSAND FEET ABOVE
(b) Position of aircraft and weather conditions within which
YOUR ALTITUDE.
the flight is operating.
Issue traffic information to non-radar-identified aircraft (c) Type of aircraft, altitude, and whether equipped for
as follows: IFR flight.
RAC
(a) Position of the traffic in relation to a fix. (d) Whether pilot has an IFR Rating.
(b) Direction of flight. Pilots unable to contact radar but in need of emergency assistance
(c) Type of aircraft, if known, or the relative speed and the may alert radar by flying a triangular pattern.
altitude, if known.
1.5.5 Obstacle Clearance During Radar Vectors
NOTE:
Direction of flight may be expressed as OPPOSITE DIRECTION (a) IFR Flights
or SAME DIRECTION, while the altitude may be expressed as The pilot of an IFR flight is responsible for ensuring that the
a number of feet above or below the aircraft receiving the traffic aircraft is operated with adequate clearance from obstacles and
information. terrain; however, when the flight is being radar-vectored, ATC
will ensure that the appropriate obstacle clearance is provided.
Example:
TRAFFIC, SEVEN MILES SOUTH OF RESOLUTE BAY VOR, Minimum radar vectoring altitudes (lowest altitude at which an
NORTHBOUND, B737, FL300. aircraft may be vectored and still meet obstacle clearance criteria),
which may be lower than minimum altitudes shown on navigation
and approach charts, have been established at a number of
1.5.4 Radar Navigation Assistance to Visual locations to facilitate transitions to instrument approach aids.
Flight Rules (VFR) Flights When an IFR flight is cleared to descend to the lower altitude,
When requested by pilots, radar-equipped ATC units will provide ATC will provide terrain and obstacle clearance until the aircraft
assistance to navigation in the form of position information, is in a position from which an approved instrument approach
vectors or track, and ground speed checks. Flights requesting or a visual approach can be commenced.
183
TC AIM March 25, 2021
If a communication failure occurs while a flight is being vectored 1.5.8 The Use of Radar in the Provision of
at an altitude below the minimum IFR altitudes shown in the Aerodrome Advisory Service (AAS) and
instrument approach chart, the pilot should climb immediately Remote Aerodrome Advisory
to the appropriate published minimum altitude, unless the flight
Service (RAAS) by
is able to continue in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC).
Flight Service Stations (FSS)
(b) VFR Flights
Certain FSSs are equipped with a radar display to aid the flight
The pilot of a VFR aircraft remains responsible for maintaining service specialist in monitoring the aircraft traffic situation and
adequate clearance from obstacles and terrain when the flight to enhance the accuracy of traffic information provided in AAS
is being radar-vectored by ATC. or RAAS.
If adequate obstacle or terrain clearance cannot be maintained An FSS equipped with a radar display:
on a vector, the pilot must inform the controller and take the
(a) may instruct an aircraft to “SQUAWK IDENT” or assign
following action:
a specific SSR code to the aircraft;
(i) if practicable, obtain a heading that will enable
adequate clearance to be maintained, or climb to a (b) will acknowledge the squawk transmission or SSR code
suitable altitude, or change by stating the phrase “ROGER IDENT”;
(ii) revert to navigation without radar assistance. (c) will issue the reminder “NO CONTROL SERVICE
AVAILABLE, THIS IS AN ADVISORY SERVICE,” if
1.5.6 Misuse of Radar Vectors deemed appropriate;
Pilots have, on occasion, for practice purposes, followed radar (d) may issue radar-observed traffic information with reference
instructions issued to other pilots without realizing the potential to the 12-hr clock position or geographical locations.
hazard that accompanies such action. It is important for pilots to keep in mind that:
ATC may require aircraft to make turns for radar identification; (a) flight service specialists may stop monitoring the radar
however, when more than one aircraft target is observed making display at any time without prior notice to aircraft;
a turn, identification becomes difficult or impossible. Should
misidentification be the result of more than one aircraft following (b) FSSs do not inform aircraft when radar identification is
the instructions issued by ATC, it could be hazardous to the lost;
aircraft involved. (c) FSSs do not provide control services such as vectors and
Any pilot wishing to obtain radar practice, however, needs only conflict resolution;
to contact the appropriate ACC or TCU and request practice (d) pilots are responsible for maintaining a visual lookout outside
radar vectors. Practice vectors will be issued to the extent that the cockpit at all times for the purpose of avoiding a collision
air traffic conditions permit. with other aircraft, terrain and obstacles.
1.5.7 Canadian Forces Radar Assistance 1.6 vhf Direction finDer (vDf) Service
The Canadian Forces can provide assistance in an emergency
RAC
Information may be obtained from either a modulated signal 1.7 Air trAffic control (Atc) cleArAnceS,
(speech transmission) or an un-modulated signal (microphone
button pressed—no speech). The length of the transmission is inStructionS AnD informAtion
not critical since information can be obtained from a very short Whenever pilots receive and accept an ATC clearance, they shall
transmission (2 s). comply with the clearance. If unable to comply with the clearance,
pilots should immediately inform ATC since the controller will
1.6.3 Provision of Service understand the acknowledgement of the clearance as indicating
acceptance. For example, upon receiving a clearance for takeoff,
VDF navigation assistance is provided when requested by the pilots should acknowledge the clearance and take off without
pilot or when suggested by the VDF operator (either an airport undue delay or, if not ready to take off at that particular time,
controller or a flight service specialist) and accepted by the pilot. inform ATC of their intentions, in which case the clearance may
VDF navigation assistance consists of the aircraft’s bearing in be changed or cancelled.
relation to the VDF site and the reciprocal heading to this site. A clearance will be identified by the use of some form of the
The VDF operator will provide the pilot with heading and bearing word “clear” in its contents. An instruction will always be worded
information relevant to the VDF site. Pilots planning to use the in such a manner as to be readily identified, although the word
direction indicator as a heading reference during VDF navigation “instruct” will seldom be included. Pilots shall comply with and
assistance should reset the direction indicator to the magnetic acknowledge receipt of all ATC instructions directed to and
compass before requesting VDF navigation assistance. Thereafter, received by them, provided the safety of the aircraft is not
the direction indicator should not be reset without advising the jeopardized (CAR 602.31).
VDF operator. CAR 602.31 permits pilots to deviate from an ATC instruction
or clearance in order to follow TCAS or ACAS RAs. Pilots
1.6.4 Procedures responding to an RA shall advise the appropriate ATC unit of
Pilots requesting VDF navigation assistance will be asked to the deviation as soon as possible and shall expeditiously return
provide the VDF operator with the following information: to the last ATC clearance received and accepted, or the last ATC
instruction received and acknowledged prior to the RA manoeuvre.
(a) the position of aircraft, if known; and Aircraft manoeuvres conducted during an RA should be kept
(b) the altitude. to the minimum necessary to satisfy the resolution advisory.
For more information on TCAS and ACAS, see the COM chapter.
In order to derive VDF information from the radio signals
transmitted from the aircraft, when asked to “transmit for bearing” ATC is not responsible for the provision of IFR separation to an
pilots should transmit the aircraft call-sign, hold the microphone IFR aircraft which carries out a TCAS or ACAS RA manoeuvre
button for a few seconds, and repeat their call-sign. until one of the following conditions exist:
Pilots receiving VDF navigation assistance retain their (a) the aircraft has returned to the last ATC clearance received
responsibility to see and avoid other traffic, to maintain and accepted, or last ATC instruction received and
appropriate terrain and obstacle clearance, and to remain in acknowledged prior to the RA; or
VFR weather conditions. (b) an alternate ATC clearance or instruction has been issued.
RAC
Example: TCAS and ACAS do not alter or diminish the pilot-in-command’s
Pilot: KINGSTON RADIO. THIS IS PIPER GOLF HOTEL GOLF responsibility to ensure safe flight. Since TCAS and ACAS do
BRAVO. REQUEST VDF NAVIGATION ASSISTANCE. not respond to aircraft which are not transponder-equipped or
APPROXIMATELY TWENTY MILES NORTHEAST OF to aircraft with a transponder failure, TCAS and ACAS alone
KINGSTON, AT FIVE THOUSAND. do not ensure safe operation in every case. The services provided
by ATC units are not predicated upon the availability of TCAS
Based on the aircraft’s VDF bearing indication, the VDF operator or ACAS equipment in an aircraft.
will provide the pilot with the aircraft’s reciprocal heading to
the VDF site. It should be remembered that air traffic control is predicated on
known air traffic only and, when complying with clearances or
VDF operator: GOLF HOTEL GOLF BRAVO, KINGSTON RADIO, instructions, pilots are not relieved of the responsibility of
TRANSMIT FOR BEARING. practicing good airmanship.
VDF operator: GOLF HOTEL GOLF BRAVO, YOUR HEADING TO
THE AIRPORT* IS TWO-TWO ZERO. NOTE:
A clearance or instruction is only valid while in controlled
*NOTE: airspace. Pilots crossing between controlled and uncontrolled
In instances where the VDF site is located more than one mile airspace should pay close attention to the terrain and obstacle
from the airport, the VDF operator will transmit to the clearance requirements.
pilot:“YOUR HEADING TO THE VDF SITE IS…”
ATS personnel routinely inform pilots of conditions, observed
by others or by themselves, which may affect flight safety and
are beyond their control. Examples of such conditions are
185
TC AIM March 25, 2021
observed airframe icing and bird activity. These are meant solely (b) Operations on a surface other than a runway
as assistance or reminders to pilots and are not intended in any (i) If the pilot of a fixed-wing aircraft requests landing
way to absolve the pilot of the responsibility for the safety of or takeoff from a surface other than a runway or
the flight. area approved and designated for that purpose, ATC
will provide traffic and obstruction information;
1.7.1 Inability to Issue Clearance control instructions, if necessary; and inform the
pilot that landing or takeoff will be at the pilot’s
ATC clearances are based on known traffic conditions and discretion.
aerodrome limitations which affect the safety of aircraft
operations. This encompasses aircraft in flight and on the NOTE:
manoeuvring area, vehicles, and other potential obstructions. Examples of surfaces other than a runway may include areas at
ATC is not authorized to issue ATC clearances when traffic or adjacent to the airport, areas in the control zone but not at the
conditions are unknown, when any part of the aerodrome is airport, a water aerodrome, or a temporary landing area in the
partially or fully closed, or when the aerodrome or runway control zone.
operating minima are not met. Example:
There are two distinct phrases used when unable to issue ATC GOLF JULIETT ALFA LIMA, WIND THREE ZERO ZERO AT
clearances: FIFTEEN, TAKE OFF AT YOUR DISCRETION.
(a) AT YOUR DISCRETION—Used to approve aircraft (ii) Workload permitting, ATC will provide traffic and
movement on any surface not visible from the control tower obstruction information to aircraft taxiing on a non-
due to a physical obstruction other than weather phenomena, manoeuvring area.
or on the non-manoeuvring area. Pilots are responsible for
Example:
manoeuvring safely with respect to traffic or hazards
encountered during the operation. ATC will provide GOLF LIMA BRAVO JULIETT, TAXI AT YOUR DISCRETION.
information on known traffic or obstructions when possible. (iii) If necessary, ATC will inform a taxiing aircraft that
a portion of the manoeuvring area is not visible from
(b) UNABLE TO ISSUE CLEARANCE—Used when controllers
the tower and, if possible, provide traffic and
are not authorized to issue an ATC clearance. Pilots who
obstruction information.
continue without a clearance in these circumstances may
be subject to regulatory action by TC. ATC will provide NOTE:
pertinent taxi, take-off or landing information and then file Restricted visibility of the manoeuvring area may be the result
an aviation occurrence report. Pilots are responsible for of a structure, but excludes situations due to weather.
manoeuvring safely with respect to traffic or other hazards Example:
encountered during the operation.
FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, TAXIWAY NOT VISIBLE,
TAXI AT YOUR DISCRETION ON TAXIWAY ALFA.
1.7.1.1 Examples
(c) RVOP and LVOP—The following procedures will be used
The following are scenarios in which ATC may not be able to
by ATC when implementation of RVOP or LVOP results in
provide a clearance, followed by ensuing ATC actions, and
RAC
Example: Example:
GOLF JULIETT ALFA LIMA, UNABLE CLEARANCE. REDUCED WESTJET THREE SEVEN ONE, UNABLE CLEARANCE.
VISIBILITY PROCEDURES IN EFFECT. RUNWAY THREE TWO RUNWAY ZERO SEVEN IS CLOSED FOR MAINTENANCE
CLOSED.
UNTIL ONE NINE ZERO ZERO ZULU AS PER NOTAM. ADVISE
Then, if appropriate: INTENTIONS.
GOLF JULIETT ALFA LIMA, RUNWAY TWO FIVE AVAILABLE, (ii) If the pilot chooses to land, take off or manoeuvre
ADVISE INTENTIONS. anyway, and traffic permits, ATC will acknowledge
the pilot’s intentions; provide landing, take-off or
NOTE: manoeuvring information as well as any special
If no alternate runway is available ATC will request the pilot’s information required; notify the airport operator;
intentions. and complete an aviation occurrence report.
Example: NOTE:
Special information may include traffic, hazards, obstructions,
FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, UNABLE CLEARANCE. LOW
runway exit, runway surface conditions, or other pertinent
VISIBILITY PROCEDURES IN EFFECT. ALL RUNWAYS CLOSED.
information.
ADVISE INTENTIONS.
(iii) If a pilot requests taxi after landing, ATC will provide Example:
taxi clearance. AIR CANADA THREE FIVE SIX, ROGER.
Example:
(e) Taxi authorization—If a pilot requests a push-back from a
FOXTROT BRAVO WHISKY DELTA, TAXI VIA ECHO. loading position on the apron, ATC will inform the pilot
(iv) If a pilot requests landing or takeoff, ATC will inform that the push-back is at pilot’s discretion and provide traffic
the pilot that a clearance cannot be issued; provide information, if possible.
the reason; and request the pilot’s intentions. Example:
Example: NOVEMBER ONE THREE SIX TWO ALFA, PUSH BACK AT
GOLF JULIETT ALFA LIMA, UNABLE CLEARANCE RUNWAY YOUR DISCRETION.
ONE EIGHT, LANDING NOT AUTHORIZED.
ADVISE INTENTIONS. (f) Helicopters—If a helicopter pilot intends to land or take
off from a non-manoeuvring area approved for that purpose,
(v) If the pilot chooses to land or take off anyway, and ATC will provide traffic and obstruction information; control
traffic permits, ATC will acknowledge the pilot’s instructions, if necessary; and inform the pilot that landing
intentions; provide landing or take-off information or takeoff will be at the pilot’s discretion.
as well as any special information required; notify
the airport operator; and complete an aviation Example:
occurrence report. GOLF JULIETT ALFA DELTA, TRAFFIC CHEROKEE DEPARTING
RUNWAY THREE ONE, WIND THREE ZERO ZERO AT TEN.
RAC
NOTE: TAKE OFF AT YOUR DISCRETION FROM APRON FOUR.
Special information may include traffic, hazards, obstructions,
runway exits, runway surface conditions, or other pertinent (g) Taxiing aircraft and ground traffic—The following
information. procedures will be used when ATC is unable to determine
that the runway or runway protected area is or will be free
Example: of obstacles before either an arrival crosses the threshold
GOLF LIMA BRAVO JULIETT, ROGER. or a departure starts its take-off roll.
187
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
the pilot-in-command of the overtaking aircraft, whether
AnD 602.28)
climbing, descending or in level flight, shall give way to
the other aircraft by altering the heading of the overtaking Aerobatic Manoeuvres – Prohibited Areas and
aircraft to the right, and no subsequent change in the relative Flight conditions
positions of the two aircraft shall absolve the pilot-in-
command of the overtaking aircraft from this obligation 602.27
until that aircraft has entirely passed and is clear of the No person operating an aircraft shall conduct aerobatic
other aircraft. manoeuvres
(7) Where an aircraft is in flight or manoeuvring on the surface, (a) over a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons;
the pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall give way to an
aircraft that is landing or about to land. (b) [Repealed, SOR/2019-119, s. 28]
(8) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is approaching an (c) when flight visibility is less than three miles;
aerodrome for the purpose of landing shall give way to any (d) below 2,000 ft AGL, except in accordance with a special
aircraft at a lower altitude that is also approaching the f light operations certificate issued pursuant to
aerodrome for the purpose of landing. section 603.02 or 603.67;
(9) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft at a lower altitude, as (e) in any class of airspace that requires radio contact with
described in subsection (8), shall not overtake or cut in front air traffic services unless the appropriate unit that provides
of an aircraft at a higher altitude that is in the final stages air traffic services is advised that aerobatic manoeuvres
of an approach to land. will be conducted; or
(10) No person shall conduct or attempt to conduct a takeoff or (f) in Class A, B or C airspace or Class D Control Zones
189
TC AIM March 25, 2021
without prior co-ordination between the pilot-in-command In the interest of conserving wildlife, pilots must not fly at an
and the air traffic control unit that pro-vides air traffic altitude of less than 2 000 ft AGL when in the vicinity of herds
control service in that airspace. of wildlife animals or above wildlife refuges/bird sanctuaries,
depicted on affected aeronautical charts.
Aerobatic Manoeuvres with Passengers
The landing or takeoff of aircraft in areas designated as bird
602.28 sanctuaries may require a permit. Contact information for bird
No person operating an aircraft with a passenger on board shall sanctuaries can be found at Environment and Climate
conduct aerobatic manoeuvres unless the pilot-in-command of Change Canada’s Web site: <https://www.canada.ca/en/
the aircraft has engaged in environment-climate-change/services/migratory-bird-
sanctuaries.html>.
(a) at least 10 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting
of aerobatic manoeuvres or 20 hours conducting Contact information for provincial and territorial game officers,
aerobatic manoeuvres; and and information concerning the preservation of wildlife within
the various provinces and territories in Canada, can be found
(b) at least one hour of conducting aerobatic manoeuvres
in the AIP Canada (ICAO) on the NAV CANADA Web site at:
in the preceding six months.
<www.navcanada.ca/EN/products-and-services/Pages/AIP-part-
2-current.aspx>.
1.11 conServAtion Information pertaining to the Migratory Bird Regulations may
be obtained at <http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/
1.11.1 Fur and Poultry Farms C.R.C.,_c._1035/index.html> or by contacting:
Experience has shown that aviation noise caused by rotary wing Assistant Deputy Minister
and fixed wing aircraft flying at low altitudes can cause serious Canadian Wildlife Service
economic losses to the farming industry. The classes of livestock Environment and Climate Change Canada
particularly sensitive are poultry (including ostriches and emus), Ottawa ON K1A 0H3
because of the crowding syndrome and stampeding behaviour Tel.: ............................................................1-800-668-6767
they exhibit when irritated and frightened, and foxes who, when
excited, will eat or abandon their young. Avoid overflying these E-mail: ................................... ec.enviroinfo.ec@canada.ca
farms below 2 000 ft AGL.
Fur farms may be marked with chrome yellow and black stripes 1.11.3 National, Provincial and Municipal Parks,
painted on pylons or roofs. In addition, a red flag may be flown Reserves and Refuges
during whelping season (February–May). To preserve the natural environment of parks, reserves and
Pilots are therefore warned that any locations so marked should refuges, and to minimize the disturbance to the natural habitat,
be avoided, and special vigilance should be maintained during overflights should not be conducted below 2 000 ft AGL. To
the months of February, March, April and May. assist pilots in observing this, boundaries are depicted on the
affected aeronautical charts.
RAC
1.11.2 Protection of Wildlife The landing or takeoff of aircraft in national parks and national
It is vital that all pilots understand the importance of wildlife park reserves may only take place at prescribed locations. Contact
conservation. They are urged to become familiar with the game information for each location can be found on the Parks Canada
laws in force in the various provinces and territories, and Web site at: <www.pc.gc.ca/>.
encouraged to co-operate with all game officers to ensure that Additional details can be found in the National Parks of Canada
violations of game laws do not occur. The Migratory Aircraft Access Regulations available at: <http://laws-lois.justice.
Birds Regulations prohibit the intentional killing of migratory gc.ca/eng/regulations/SOR-97-150/page-1.html>.
birds through the use of an aircraft.
Pilots should be aware that flying low over herds of wild animals 2.0 AIRSPACE – REQUIREMENTS
such as reindeer, caribou, moose or muskoxen may result in
reducing the animal population. Accidents resulting in broken AND PROCEDURES
bones may increase. Exhausted and disorganized animals are
more susceptible to be attacked by wolves. Feeding is interrupted,
and normal herd movement and reproductive functions may be
2.1 generAl
seriously disrupted. Canadian airspace is divided into a number of categories, which
in turn are subdivided into a number of areas and zones. The
Serious damage can also be done to migratory birds by low
various rules are simplified by the classification of all Canadian
flying aircraft. Geese in particular have a great fear of aircraft,
airspace. This section describes all of the above in detail, as well
and their movements may be seriously disorganized by such
as the regulations and procedures specific to each. The official
interference. As well, many bird species in Canada are in decline,
designation of all airspace is published in the DAH. Canadian
and it is felt that every effort should be made to protect them.
airspace is managed by NAV CANADA in accordance with the
190
TC AIM March 25, 2021
terms established for the transfer of the air navigation system 2.3 high- AnD low-level AirSPAce
(ANS) from government operation to NAV CANADA, and with
the rights granted to the corporation pursuant to the Civil Air The CDA is further divided vertically into low-level airspace,
Navigation Services Commercialization Act. which consists of all of the airspace below 18 000 ft ASL; and
high-level airspace which consists of all airspace from
18 000 ft ASL and above.
2.2 cAnADiAn DomeStic AirSPAce (cDA)
Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) includes all airspace over 2.3.1 Cruising Altitudes and Flight Levels
the Canadian land mass, the Canadian Arctic, Canadian Appropriate to Aircraft Track
Archipelago and those areas of the high seas within the airspace
boundaries. These boundaries are depicted on the Enroute Charts. General Provisions
(a) The appropriate altitude or flight level for aircraft in level
2.2.1 Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) cruising flight is determined in accordance with:
Canadian Domestic Airspace is geographically divided into the (i) the magnetic track, in SDA; and
Southern Domestic Airspace and the Northern Domestic Airspace (ii) the true track, in NDA.
as indicated in Figure 2.1. In the Southern Domestic Airspace, (b) When an aircraft is operated in level cruising flight:
magnetic track is used to determine cruising altitude for direction (i) at more than 3 000 ft AGL, in accordance with VFR;
of flight. (ii) in accordance with IFR; or
The Magnetic North Pole is located near the centre of the Northern (iii) during a CVFR flight;
Domestic Airspace, therefore magnetic compass indications The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft
may be erratic. Thus, in this airspace, runway heading is given is operated at an altitude or flight level appropriate to the track,
in true and true track is used to determine cruising altitude for unless he/she is assigned an altitude or flight level by an ATC
direction of flight in lieu of magnetic track. unit or by written authority from the Minister.
(c) RVSM cruising flight levels appropriate to aircraft track
Figure 2.1—Boundaries of Canadian Domestic
are applicable in designated RVSM airspace.
Airspace, Northern Domestic Airspace
and Southern Domestic Airspace (d) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating within
controlled airspace between 18 000 ft ASL and FL 600,
inclusive, shall ensure that the aircraft is operated in
accordance with IFR unless otherwise authorized in writing
by the Minister. (CAR 602.34).
NOTE:
As per the table in CAR 602.34(2), a vertical separation of 2 000 ft
is required from FL 290 to FL 410 inclusive.
RAC
191
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTE:
2.4 flight informAtion regionS (firS) Encompassed within the above are high-level airways, the upper
A Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace of defined portions of some military terminal control areas and terminal
dimensions extending upwards from the surface of the earth, control areas.
within which flight information service and alerting services
are provided. The Canadian Domestic Airspace is divided into (b) in the Low-Level Airspace:
the Vancouver, Edmonton, Winnipeg, Toronto, Montréal, – low-level airways, – control zones,
RAC
Moncton and Gander Domestic Flight Information Regions. – terminal control areas, – transition areas,
Gander Oceanic is an additional FIR allocated to Canada by
– control area extensions, – military terminal
ICAO for the provision of flight information and alerting services control areas.
over the high seas.
Canadian Flight Information Regions are described in the 2.5.1 Use of Controlled Airspace by Visual Flight
Designated Airspace Handbook (TP l820E), and are depicted Rules (VFR) Flights
on the Enroute Charts and illustrated in Figure 2.2.
Due to the speeds of modern aircraft, the difficulty in visually
Agreements have been effected between Canada and the United observing other aircraft at high altitudes and the density of air
States to permit reciprocal air traffic control services outside of traffic at certain locations and altitudes, the “see and be seen”
the designate national FIR boundaries. An example is V300 and principle of VFR separation cannot always provide positive
J500 between SSM and YQT. The control of aircraft in US separation. Accordingly, in certain airspace and at certain
airspace delegated to a Canadian ATC unit is effected by applying altitudes VFR flight is either prohibited or subject to specific
the Canadian rules, procedures and separation minima with the restrictions prior to entry and during flight.
following exceptions:
(a) aircraft will not be cleared to maintain “1 000 feet on top”;
(b) ATC vertical separation will not be discontinued on the
basis of visual reports from the aircraft; and
(c) Canadian protected airspace criteria for track separation
will not be used.
192
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.5.2 Aircraft Speed Limit Order may be erratic, and true tracks are used in determining the flight
level at which to fly. In addition, the airspace from FL 330 to
According to CAR 602.32, no person shall operate an aircraft FL 410 within the lateral dimensions of the NCA, the ACA and
in Canada: the northern part of the SCA has been designated CMNPS
(a) below 10 000 ft ASL at more than 250 KIAS; or airspace. (See AIP Canada (ICAO) ENR 2.2)
(b) below 3 000 ft AGL within 10 NM of a controlled airport
Figure 2.3—Southern, Northern
and at more than 200 KIAS, unless authorized to do so in
and Arctic Control Areas
an air traffic control clearance.
Exceptions
(a) A person may operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed
greater than the airspeeds referred to in (a) and (b) above
where the aircraft is being operated in accordance with a
special flight operations certificate – special aviation event
issued under CAR 603.
(b) If the minimum safe speed, given the aircraft configuration,
is greater than the speed referred to in (a) or (b) above, the
aircraft shall be operated at the minimum safe speed.
Notifying ATC
On departure, when intending to operate at speeds exceeding
250 KIAS below 10 000 ft ASL, pilots must, on initial contact,
notify the departure controller of the reason for this action.
ATC requires this information for the following reasons:
(a) for operational considerations regarding other traffic,
particularly in potential overtake situations; and
(b) so that ATC will know that the request or notification of
intent to operate above the speed limit is for “minimum safe
speed” requirements and will therefore not file an Aviation Figure 2.4—Vertical Dimensions of Southern,
Occurrence Report. Northern and Arctic Control Areas
The phraseology of “minimum safe speed XXX kt” is encouraged
and ATC will acknowledge.
Example: Montreal Centre, ACA123, minimum safe speed 270 kt
RAC
As ATC is not authorized to approve a speed greater than
250 KIAS below 10 000 ft ASL, the phraseology “request high-
speed climb” should not be used.
of the centreline from the designated facility, intersect the Figure 2.7(b)—Fixed RNAV Route Cross Section
basic width boundary; and where they meet, similar lines
projected from the adjacent facility.
CL
MOCA
1 000 ft ROC
Where a Victor airway is established based on a VOR/VORTAC (ASL)
(Non-mountainous)
(c) T-Routes: Low-level controlled fixed RNAV routes have if described with an ASL floor, the base of a Control Area
dimensions of 4 NM of primary obstacle protection area, Extension shall not extend lower than 700 ft AGL.
plus 2 NM of secondary obstacle protection area on each
side of the centreline. The airspace associated with RNAV 2.7.3 Control Zones
T-routes is 10 NM on each side of the centreline. RNAV
Control zones are designated around certain aerodromes to keep
T-route airspace and protection areas do not splay.
IFR aircraft within controlled airspace during approaches and
Figure 2.7(a)—Fixed RNAV Route to facilitate the control of VFR and IFR traffic.
Control zones having a civil control tower within a terminal
control area normally have a 7-NM radius. Others have a 5-NM
4.0 NM radius, with the exception of a few which have a 3-NM radius.
Control zones are capped at 3 000 ft AAE unless otherwise
2.0 NM
specified. Military control zones usually have a 10-NM radius
4.0 NM and are capped at 6 000 ft AAE. All control zones are depicted
on VFR aeronautical charts and the Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
Control zones will be classified as “B”, “C”, “D” or “E” depending
on the classification of the surrounding airspace.
The VFR weather minima for control zones are outlined in
Table 2.2. When weather conditions are below VFR minima, a
pilot operating VFR may request special VFR (SVFR)
authorization in order to enter the control zone. This authorization
194
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTES: NOTES:
1. Notwithstanding CAR 602.115, an aircraft other than an 1. All aircraft, including helicopters, must be equipped with
helicopter may be operated in visibilities less than 2 miles a radio capable of communicating with the ATC unit and
during the day, when authorized to do so in an air operator must comply with all conditions issued by the ATC unit as
certificate or in a private operator certificate. part of the SVFR authorization.
2. Notwithstanding CAR 602.115, a helicopter may be operated 2. Aircraft must operate clear of cloud and within sight of the
in visibilities less than 1 mile during the day, when authorized ground at all times.
RAC
to do so in an air operator certificate or in a flight training 3. Helicopters should operate at such reduced airspeeds so as
unit operator certificate helicopter. to give the pilot-in-command adequate opportunity to see
Special VFR weather minimum and requirements applicable other air traffic or obstructions in time to avoid a collision.
within control zones are found in CAR 602.117, and are 4. When the aircraft is not a helicopter and is being operated
summarized as follows: at night, ATC will only authorize special VFR where the
Where authorization is obtained from the appropriate ATC unit, authorization is for the purpose of allowing the aircraft to
a pilot-in-command may operate an aircraft within a control land at the destination aerodrome.
zone, in IFR weather conditions without compliance with the
IFR, where flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility
are not less than:
(a) 1 mile for aircraft other than helicopters; and
(b) 1/2 mile for helicopters.
195
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Table 2.3—Special VFR Weather Transition areas are of defined dimensions, based at 700 ft AGL
Minima (control zones only) unless otherwise specified, and extend upwards to the base of
overlying controlled airspace. The area provided around an
Flight Visibility Distance aerodrome will normally be 15 NM radius of the aerodrome
—
(Ground when reported) from cloud coordinates, but shall be of sufficient size to contain all of the
Aircraft other aerodrome published instrument approach procedures. Even if
1 mile described with an ASL floor, the base of a transition area shall
than Helicopter
Clear of cloud not extend lower than 700 ft AGL.
Helicopter 1/2 mile
2.7.6 Terminal Control Areas
Terminal control areas are established at high volume traffic
2.7.4 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Over-the-Top airports to provide an IFR control service to arriving, departing
A person may operate an aircraft VFR over-the-top (VFR OTT), and en route aircraft. Aircraft operating in the TCA are subject
provided certain conditions are met. Those conditions include to certain operating rules and equipment requirements. The
weather minima, aircraft equipment and pilot qualifications. TCA operating rules are established by the classification of the
Pilots should indicate that the flight is VFR OTT during airspace within the TCA. These rules will be based on the level
communications with ATS units. Deviations from the intended of ATC service that is appropriate for the number and type of
route of flight may be necessary when transiting CZs or TCAs. aircraft using the airspace as well as the nature of the operations
Pilots should take into consideration the additional fuel being conducted.
requirements this may cause. A TCA is similar to a control area extension except that:
CAR 602.116 specifies the weather minima for VFR OTT. A (a) a TCA may extend up into the high-level airspace;
summary of the minima follows:
(b) IFR traffic is normally controlled by a terminal control
(a) VFR OTT is allowed during the day only, and during the unit. The ACC will control a TCA during periods when a
cruise portion of the flight only. TCU is not in operation; and
(b) The aircraft must be operated at a vertical distance from (c) TCA airspace will normally be designed in a circular
cloud of at least 1 000 ft. configuration, centred on the geographic coordinates of the
(c) Where the aircraft is operated between two cloud layers, primary aerodrome. The outer limit of the TCA should be
those layers must be at least 5 000 ft apart. at 45 NM radius from the aerodrome geographic coordinates
based at 9 500 ft AGL, with an intermediate circle at 35 NM
(d) The flight visibility at the cruising altitude of the aircraft
based at 2 200 ft AGL and an inner circle at 12 NM radius
must be at least 5 mi.
based at 1 200 ft AGL. Where an operational advantage
(e) The weather at the destination aerodrome must have a sky may be gained, the area may be sectorized. For publication
condition of scattered cloud or clear, and a ground visibility purposes the altitudes may be rounded to the nearest
of 5 mi. or more, with no forecast of precipitation, fog, appropriate increment and published as heights ASL. The
thunderstorms, or blowing snow, and these conditions must floor of a TCA shall not extend lower than 700 ft AGL.
RAC
be forecast to exist
A military terminal control area is the same as a TCA, except
(i) in the case of an aerodrome forecast (TAF), for the that special provisions prevail for military aircraft while operating
period from 1 hr before to 2 hr after the ETA; and within the MTCA. MTCAs may be designated at selected military
(ii) in the case of an area forecast (GFA) because a TAF aerodromes where the control service will be provided by a
is not available, for the period from 1 hr before to military TCU, or by ATC, through agreement with DND.
3 hr after the ETA.
CARs 605.14 and 605.15 outline the aircraft equipment 2.8 AirSPAce clASSificAtion
requirements for VFR OTT. In part, the equipment requirements
are the same as for VFR flight, with extra requirements for CDA is divided into seven classes, each identified by a single
VFR OTT. letter—A, B, C, D, E, F or G. Flight within each class is governed
by specific rules applicable to that class and are contained in
Pilot qualifications for VFR OTT flight are specified in CARs CAR 601—Division I, Airspace Structure, Classification and
Part IV—Personnel Licensing and Training. Use. CAR 601 can be found at <https://lois-laws.justice.gc.ca/
eng/regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-601.01>.
2.7.5 Transition Areas The rules for operating within a particular portion of airspace
Transition areas are established when it is considered advantageous depend on the classification of that airspace and not on the name
or necessary to provide additional controlled airspace for the by which it is commonly known. Thus, the rules for flight within
containment of IFR operations. a high-level airway, a TCA or a CZ depend on the class of
airspace within all or part of the defined area. Weather minima
are specified for controlled or uncontrolled airspace, not for
196
TC AIM March 25, 2021
each class of airspace. For more information on Canada’s airspace Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR. All aircraft
classification and structure, please see Figure 2.8. A bilingual, are subject to ATC clearances and instructions. ATC separation
printable copy of Figure 2.8 is available at <www.tc.gc.ca/ is provided to all aircraft.
Publications/BIL/TP6010/PDF/HR/TP6010B.PDF>.
All low-level controlled airspace above 12 500 feet ASL or at
and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including
Figure 2.8—Canada’s Airspace (TP 6010)
18 000 feet ASL will be Class B airspace.
Control zones and associated terminal control areas may also
Transport Transports
Canada Canada
NOTES:
1. No person shall operate an aircraft in Class B controlled
airspace in VFR flight unless:
A B C D E F G
(a) the aircraft is equipped with:
I (i) radio communication equipment capable of two-
F
R
ATS provides
FL ight Information
and Alerting Service.
way communication with the appropriate ATS
facility, and
(ii) radio navigation equipment capable of using
navigation facilities to enable the aircraft to be
operated in accordance with the flight plan, and
(iii) a transponder and automatic pressure altitude
V
F
VFR
reporting equipment;
R
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight
ATS provides
FL ight Information
and Alerting Service.
crew member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC;
(c) except as otherwise authorized by ATC, when the
aircraft is over a reporting point a position report is
transmitted to the appropriate unit or, when so directed
by ATC, to an FSS; and
(d) the aircraft is operated in VMC at all times.
RAC
(a) request an ATC clearance which will enable the aircraft
to be operated in VMC to the filed destination, or to
2.8.1 Class A Airspace another aerodrome;
Class A airspace is designated where an operational need exists (b) where the person is the holder of a valid instrument
to exclude VFR aircraft. rating, request an IFR clearance for flight under the
instrument flight rules; or
All operations must be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules
and are subject to ATC clearances and instructions. ATC (c) where the Class B airspace is a control zone, request
separation is provided to all aircraft. an authorization for special VFR flight.
All aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with 3. A person operating an aircraft in Class B controlled airspace
a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment. in VFR flight who is unable to comply with the requirements
of the preceding paragraphs shall ensure that:
Class A airspace will be designated from the base of all high-level
controlled airspace, or from 700 ft AGL, whichever is higher, (a) the aircraft is operated in VMC at all times;
up to and including FL 600. (b) the aircraft leaves Class B controlled airspace:
(i) by the safest and shortest route, either exiting
2.8.2 Class B Airspace horizontally or descending, or
(ii) when that airspace is a control zone, by landing
Class B airspace is designated where an operational need exists
at the aerodrome on which the control zone is
to provide air traffic control service to IFR and to control
based, and
VFR aircraft.
(c) an ATC unit is informed as soon as possible of the
actions taken pursuant to paragraph (b).
197
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.8.3 Class C Airspace A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight in Class D airspace
shall ensure that:
Class C airspace is a controlled airspace within which both IFR
and VFR flights are permitted, but VFR flights require a clearance (a) the aircraft is equipped with
from ATC to enter. ATC separation is provided between all (i) radio communication equipment capable of two-way
aircraft operating under IFR and, as necessary to resolve possible communication with the appropriate ATC unit, and
conflicts, between VFR and IFR aircraft. Aircraft will be (ii) where the Class D airspace is specified as Transponder
provided with traffic information. Conflict resolution will be Airspace, a transponder and automatic pressure
provided, upon request, after VFR aircraft is provided with altitude reporting equipment; and
traffic information. (b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew
Traffic information is issued to advise pilots of known or observed member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC.
air traffic which may be in proximity to their aircraft’s position A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight that is not equipped
or intended route of flight warranting their attention. Conflict with the required radio communication equipment may, during
resolution is defined as the resolution of potential conflicts daylight hours in VMC, enter Class D airspace provided that
between IFR/VFR and VFR/VFR aircraft that are radar identified permission to enter is obtained from the appropriate ATC unit
and in communication with ATC. prior to operating within the airspace.
Airspace classified as Class C becomes Class E airspace when
the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation. 2.8.5 Class E Airspace
Terminal control areas and associated control zones may be Class E airspace is designated where an operational need exists
classified as Class C airspace. for controlled airspace but does not meet the requirements for
A person operating an aircraft in VFR flight in Class C airspace Class A, B, C, or D.
shall ensure that: Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR. ATC separation
(a) the aircraft is equipped with is provided only to aircraft operating under IFR. There are no
(i) radio communication equipment capable of two-way special requirements for VFR.
communication with the appropriate ATC unit, and Aircraft are required to be equipped with a transponder and
(ii) a transponder and automatic pressure altitude automatic pressure altitude equipment to operate in Class E
reporting equipment; and airspace that is specified as transponder airspace.
(b) a continuous listening watch is maintained by a flight crew Low-level airways, control area extensions, transition areas, or
member on a radio frequency assigned by ATC. control zones established without an operating control tower
A person wishing to operate an aircraft that is not equipped with may be classified as Class E airspace.
functioning communication and transponder equipment for VFR
flight in Class C airspace may, during daylight hours and in 2.8.6 Class F Airspace
VMC, enter Class C airspace provided that permission to enter
Class F airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which
and to operate within the airspace is obtained from ATC prior
activities must be confined because of their nature, and within
to the operation being conducted.
RAC
Each restricted and advisory area within Canada has been defines a danger area as airspace of defined dimensions within
assigned an identification code group, which consists of the four which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at
following parts: specified times.
Part (a) the nationality letters CY; Advisory Airspace
Part (b) the letter R for restricted area (the letter D Airspace may be classified as Class F advisory airspace if it is
for danger area if the restricted area is established over airspace within which an activity occurs that, for flight safety
international waters) or the letter A for advisory area; purposes, non-participating pilots should be aware of, such as
Part (c) a three-digit number that will identify the area. This training, parachuting, hang gliding, military operations, etc.
number will indicate the Canadian region within which There are no specific restrictions that apply to the use of advisory
the area lies as follows: airspace. VFR aircraft are, however, encouraged to avoid flight
101 to 199 – British Columbia in advisory airspace unless participating in the activity taking
201 to 299 – Alberta place therein. If necessary, pilots of non-participating flights
301 to 399 – Saskatchewan may enter advisory areas at their own discretion; however, due
401 to 499 – Manitoba to the nature of the aerial activity, extra vigilance is recommended.
501 to 599 – Ontario Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through
601 to 699 – Quebec the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
701 to 799 – New Brunswick, ATC will not clear IFR aircraft through Class F airspace, except
Nova Scotia, if:
Prince Edward Island,
Newfoundland (a) the pilot states that permission has been obtained from the
user agency to enter the airspace;
801 to 899 – Yukon Territory
(b) the aircraft is operating on an altitude reservation
901 to 999 – Northwest Territories approval (ALTRV APVL); or
and Nunavut (including the Arctic
Islands) (c) the aircraft has been cleared for a contact or visual approach.
Part (d) in the case of advisory areas, the letter A, F, H, M, P, S IFR aircraft shall be provided 500 ft vertical separation from
or T in parentheses after the three-digit number that an active Class F advisory airspace, unless wake turbulence
will indicate the type of activity within the area as minima is applicable, in which case 1 000 ft vertical separation
follows: shall be applied.
RAC
T – training
NOTE:
Example: Military operations in Class F airspace may be UHF only.
The identification code group CYA113(A) means the following:
Restricted Airspace
CY – indicates Canada
A – indicates advisory A restricted area is airspace of defined dimensions above the
113 – indicates the number of an area land areas or territorial waters within which the flight of aircraft
in British Columbia is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions.
Restricted airspace is designated for safety purposes when the
(A) – indicates acrobatic activity level or type of aerial activity, the surface activity, or the protection
takes place within the area. of a ground installation requires the application of restrictions
All altitudes will be inclusive, unless otherwise indicated within that airspace.
(e.g. 5 000 to 10 000 ft). To indicate when either the bottom or No person may conduct aerial activities within active
upper altitude is not included, the words below and above will Class F restricted airspace, unless permission has been obtained
be placed before the appropriate altitude (e.g. above 5 000 to from the user agency. In some instances, the user agency may
10 000 ft, or 5 000 to below 10 000 ft). delegate the appropriate controlling agency the authority to
approve access. IFR flights will not be cleared through active
Danger Area (International Waters)
restricted areas, unless the pilot states that permission has been
Any restricted area that may be established over international obtained.
waters, but controlled by Canadian ATC, will be indicated as a
“danger area” in accordance with ICAO requirements. ICAO
199
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) Section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act allows the Minister to In effect, Class G is all uncontrolled domestic airspace.
restrict flight in any airspace, for any purpose, by NOTAM. Low-level air routes are contained within Class G airspace. They
This authority is delegated by the Minister to cover specific are basically the same as a low-level airway, except that they
situations, such as well fires, disaster areas, etc., for the extend upwards from the surface of the earth and are not
purpose of ensuring safety of flight for air operations in controlled. The lateral dimensions are identical to those of a
support of the occurrence. low-level airway.
It should be noted that airspace that is restricted by invoking
CAR 601.16 or section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act is not 2.9 other AirSPAce DiviSionS
Class F restricted airspace; the airspace has not been classified
in accordance with the airspace regulations. This distinction is Additional airspace divisions have been designated in order to
important to those who are charged with the responsibility for increase safety or make allowances for the remote or mountainous
restricting airspace, since their actions are governed by the regions within Canada. These divisions (or regions) are: altimeter
provisions of the Statutory Instruments Act. setting region, standard pressure region and designated
mountainous region.
Joint-Use Airspace
2.9.1 Altitude Reservation
RAC
200
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.9.2 Temporary Flight Restrictions—Forest Fires General – Except as otherwise indicated below, no person shall
operate an aircraft within the standard pressure region unless
In the interest of safe and efficient fire fighting operations, the the aircraft altimeter is set to standard pressure, which is
Minister may issue a NOTAM restricting flights over a forest 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs. (See Note).
fire area to those operating at the request of the appropriate fire
control authority (i.e. water bombers), or to those with written Departure – Prior to takeoff the pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter
permission from the Minister. to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, if the altimeter
setting is not available, to the elevation of that aerodrome.
The NOTAM would identify the following: Immediately prior to reaching the flight level at which flight is
(a) the location and dimensions of the forest fire area; to be conducted, the altimeter shall be set to standard pressure
(29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs). If the planned cruising
(b) any airspace in which forest fire control operations are
flight level is above FL 180, resetting the altimeter to 29.92 inches
being conducted; and
of mercury or 1013.2 mbs at 18 000 ft ASL is acceptable and
(c) the length of time during which flights are restricted in meets the requirement of CAR 602.36.
the airspace.
Arrival – Prior to commencing descent with the intention to
No person shall operate an aircraft in the airspace below land, the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting
3 000 ft AGL within 5 NM of the limits of a forest fire area, or of the aerodrome of intended landing, if available. However, if
as described in a NOTAM (CARs 601.15, 601.16, and 601.17). a holding procedure is conducted, the altimeter shall not be set
to the current aerodrome altimeter setting until immediately
2.9.3 Flight Operations Over or in the Vicinity of prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the
Nuclear Power Plants holding procedure is conducted. Pilots of aircraft descending
from cruising flight levels above FL 180 may reset altimeters
Pilots are reminded that overflights of nuclear power plants shall to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended
be carried out in accordance with the provisions of CAR 602.14(2) landing when approaching FL 180 provided no holding or cruise
(see RAC 5.4). level flight below FL 180 is to be made or anticipated.
Pilots should also be aware that loitering in the vicinity of, or Transition – CAR 602.37 – Altimeter Setting and Operating
circling, nuclear power plants should be avoided. Aircraft Procedures in Transition between Regions, specifies that except
observed operating in this manner in the vicinity of nuclear as otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft progressing from one
power plants could be intercepted by government or law- region to another shall make the change in the altimeter setting
enforcement aircraft, and escorted away from the facility to the while within the standard pressure region prior to entering, or
nearest suitable aerodrome to be interviewed by police authorities. after leaving, the altimeter setting region. If the transition is to
be made into the altimeter setting region while in level cruising
2.10 Altimeter Setting region flight, the pilot should obtain the current altimeter setting from
the nearest station along the route of flight as far as practical
The altimeter setting region is an airspace of defined dimensions before reaching the point at which the transition is to be made.
below 18 000 feet ASL (see CAR 602.35 and Figure 2.9) within When climbing from the altimeter setting region into the standard
which the following altimeter setting procedures apply: pressure region, pilots shall set their altimeters to standard
RAC
Departure – Prior to takeoff, the pilot shall set the aircraft pressure (29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 mbs) immediately
altimeter to the current altimeter setting of that aerodrome or, after entering the standard pressure region. When descending
if that altimeter setting is not available, to the elevation of into the altimeter setting region, pilots shall set their altimeters
the aerodrome. to the appropriate station altimeter setting immediately prior to
descending into the altimeter setting region. Normally, the pilot
En route – During flight the altimeter shall be set to the current will receive the appropriate altimeter setting as part of the ATC
altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight clearance prior to descent. If it is not incorporated in the clearance,
or, where such stations are separated by more than 150 NM, the it should be requested by the pilot.
nearest station to the route of flight.
Arrival – When approaching the aerodrome of intended landing NOTE:
the altimeter shall be set to the current aerodrome altimeter When an aircraft is operating in the standard pressure region
setting, if available. with standard pressure set on the altimeter subscale, the term
“flight level” is used in lieu of “altitude” to express its height.
Flight level is always expressed in hundreds of feet. For example
2.11 StAnDArD PreSSure region FL 250 represents an altimeter indication of 25 000 ft; FL 50,
The standard pressure region includes all airspace over Canada an indication of 5 000 ft.
at or above 18 000 feet ASL (the high-level airspace), and all
low-level airspace that is outside of the lateral limit of the altimeter
setting region (see Figure 2.11 and CAR 602.36). Within the
standard pressure region the following flight procedures apply;
201
TC AIM March 25, 2021
202
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.0 FLIGHT PLANNING flight plan information not already obtained at the beginning
of the briefing and PIREP, if appropriate.
RAC
(a) type Sof flight (VFR, IFR, CVFR, composite) planned; personal clothing and carry-on baggage. Infants shall be
weighed along with their accompanying adult. Where
(b) type of aircraft; weighing scales are not available or serviceable, or the
(c) aerodrome of depar ture and estimated time of passenger refuses to be weighed, the following weights may
departure (ETD); be used in lieu of actual weight.
(d) destination aerodrome and estimated elapsed time (EET); (i) Volunteered weight is the weight obtained by asking
the passenger for their weighˆt, adding 4.5 kg (10 lb)
(e) planned cruising level(s) or altitude(s); to the disclosed weight, and then adding the
(f) route to be flown and estimated times of arrival at, and allowances for personal clothing and carry-on
departure from, any intermediate aerodrome(s); baggage.
(ii) Estimated weight is the reasonable estimate of the
(g) alternate aerodrome, if appropriate;
passenger’s weight made by the operator, where
(h) type of meteorological information requested, i.e. whether actual weight is not available and volunteered weight
a briefing or consultation; and is either not provided or is deemed to be understated,
(i) information already on hand, if any. to which allowances are then added for personal
clothing and carry-on baggage.
The flight service specialist requires this information to tailor
the briefing to the planned flight and the needs of the pilot. The NOTE:
flight service specialist may omit information normally provided Personnel who board passengers should, with a reasonable degree
in a briefing if the pilot has indicated having the data on hand of accuracy, be able to assess the validity of a passenger’s
or requested the briefing be limited to specific information. The volunteered weight, or estimate the weight, and shall include
flight service specialist will terminate the briefing by soliciting allowances for personal clothing and carry-on baggage. Where
203
TC AIM March 25, 2021
necessary, the volunteered weight should be appropriately (g) Empty weight is the total weight of the following parts or
increased so as to avoid gross inaccuracies. contents, which are part of, or carried on board, the aircraft:
(i) the airframe, including the rotor of a helicopter
(b) Air operator segmented weights are the approved or gyroplane;
segmented weights derived by the air operator from (ii) the power plant;
statistically meaningful data using a methodology that is (iii) the fixed ballast;
acceptable to the Minister. They may be used in lieu of (iv) the unusable fuel;
TCCA published segmented weights and are applicable only (v) the maximum amount of normal operating fluids,
to that air operator. Furthermore, the weights may be used including oil, power-plant coolant, hydraulic fluid,
only in circumstances consistent with those under which de-icing fluid and anti-icing fluid, but not including
the survey was conducted. potable water, lavatory pre-charge fluid or fluid
(c) Air operator standard weights are the approved standard intended for injection into the engines; and
weights derived by the air operator from statistically (vi) all of the installed equipment.
computed data in accordance with procedures that are (h) Large aeroplane is an aeroplane with an maximum
acceptable to the Minister. They may be used in lieu of the certificated take-off weight (MCTOW) of over 5 700 kg
standard weights published by TCCA and are applicable (12 566 lb).
only to that air operator. Furthermore, the weights may be
used only in circumstances consistent with those under (i) Maximum certificated take-off weight (MCTOW) is
which the survey was conducted. weight identified as such in an aircraft type certificate.
(d) Basic empty weight is the basic weight of the aircraft as (j) Maximum permissible take-off weight or maximum
determined in accordance with the aircraft f light take-off weight (MTOW) is the maximum take-off weight
manual (AFM). for an aircraft as authorized by the aircraft’s state of registry
or as provided for in the aircraft type certificate.
(e) Carry-on baggage is the baggage that a passenger may
carry on board. Based on the particular aircraft stowage (k) On board weight and balance system is a system that
limitations, the operator may limit the number, size, shape weighs the aircraft and its payload and then calculates the
and weight of the carry-on baggage to enable it to be stowed centre of gravity (CG) using equipment on board the aircraft.
under the passenger seat or in the storage compartment. (l) Operational empty weight is the actual weight of the aircraft
Otherwise, the standard allowance is 5.9 kg (13 lb) of carry-on before loading for dispatch. The operational empty weight
baggage per passenger and this remains constant throughout may include removable equipment, flight crew members
the year. Carry-on baggage weight shall be included in the and crew members (including baggage), oil, unusable fuel,
weight of the passenger for the purpose of weight and balance as well as emergency equipment, and should be defined by
calculation. the air operator. It does not include usable fuel and payload.
NOTE: (m) Operations personnel is the personnel whose duties and
The only circumstance under which the weight of the carry-on responsibilities involve maintenance, loading, unloading,
baggage may not be added to the weight of each passenger is dispatching, servicing, weight and balance, passenger escort,
when no carry-on baggage is permitted on the flight. scheduling, de-icing, or working on the ramp. This also
RAC
204
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(p) Plane-side loaded bag is any bag or item that is placed at it is possible that the aircraft is operating close to its MTOW,
the door or steps of an aircraft because it cannot be the baggage must be weighed. Even a pocket-sized spring balance
accommodated as carry-on baggage and that is subsequently can be used as a handy standby if weighing scales are not available.
placed in the aircraft cargo compartment or cargo bin. This reduces the risk involved in guesswork. Note that on some
(q) Segmented weights are the statistically derived average aircraft, restrictions are placed on rear-seat occupancy if the
adult (male or female) passenger weights modified by maximum baggage allowance is used. When the aircraft is
appropriate standard deviations so as to be representative carrying freight, check for discrepancies with the declared weight.
of small passenger groups and provide a predetermined Ensure that the weight per unit area limitation on the baggage
degree of confidence and accuracy (tolerance) that the actual compartment floor is not exceeded. It is critical to ensure that
weight of the passenger group will not exceed the weight the baggage/freight is properly stowed, cannot move during
calculated by using segmented weight values. The segmented flight, and does not obstruct exits or access to emergency
weight table identifies weight values that are modified to equipment. If the aircraft is suspected to be operating anywhere
cater for variations in aircraft passenger seating capacity close to its maximum weight, passengers must be weighed. The
and include personal clothing and carry-on baggage risk of embarrassment is not a reason for risking safety or crossing
allowances. In the Canadian context, segmented weights weight limits. It is important to remember that a passenger’s
are applicable only for aeroplanes that are certificated for weight is not his or her stripped weight, but must include personal
passenger seating capacity of five or more and are being clothing and carry-on baggage allowances.
operated under Subpart 703 of the CARs. Fuel is supplied in pounds, kilograms, litres or gallons. Pilots
should note which unit is being used and calculate the fuel weight
NOTE: accordingly. Incorrect conversion could be hazardous in terms
Segmented weights should be used where actual weights, of endurance and fuel weight estimation.
volunteered weights or estimated weights are not available or
cannot be used.
3.4.3 Balance
(r) Small aircraft is an aircraft with a maximum permissible Balance refers to the location of the CG along the longitudinal
take-off weight of 5 700 kg (12 566 lb) or less, or a helicopter axis of the aircraft. There are forward and aft limits established
with a maximum permissible take-off weight of 2 730 kg during certification flight testing; they are the maximum CG
(6 018 lb) or less. positions at which the longitudinal stability requirements can
(s) Standard weights are the weights published by TCCA as be met. If an aircraft is being operated outside these limits, its
standard average passenger weights, including personal handling is either unsatisfactory or has not been investigated.
clothing and carry-on baggage allowances, for use in weight The limits for each aircraft are contained in the pilot operating
and balance calculations that do not involve actual weighing. handbook and the AFM. The aircraft must not be flown outside
these limits.
3.4.2 Weight Control In many aircraft, there is significant CG movement as fuel is
Pilots must recognize the effect of weight and balance on the being consumed; pilots should familiarize themselves with how
performance and handling of aircraft, particularly in combination this affects their aircraft.
RAC
with performance-reducing factors, such as contaminated
runways, aircraft icing, degraded engine performance, severe 3.4.4 Operational Requirements
or uncoordinated manoeuvres, turbulence, high ambient
It is the responsibility of the PIC of the aircraft to ensure that
temperatures and emergency situations.
the weight and balance report of the flight accurately represents
It is mandatory to calculate weight and balance accurately for the actual load and that the actual load does not exceed the
every flight and ensure that they are within the aircraft’s maximum allowable weight limits specified in the AFM for any
permissible limits in order to comply with the aircraft airworthiness phase of the flight.
certificate and conform to the regulations. Before the aircraft
The report may be prepared by the crew, another qualified person
takes off, it is important that the PIC of the aircraft ensure that
authorized by the company or by the operator of the aircraft.
the load carried by the aircraft is of an appropriate weight; the
weight must be distributed and secured so that it may be carried Companies and operators may establish specific procedures
safely on the intended flight. If weight and CG (balance) with respect to preparing and retaining weight and balance
limitations are not observed, then the pilot has failed to comply documentation in order to meet regulatory requirements.
with a legal condition for the operation of the aircraft and the
airworthiness certificate is nullified. 3.4.5 Computerized Systems
It must be recognized that with many four- and six-seat aircraft, When a company or operator generates load data from a
it is not possible to fill all the seats, use the maximum baggage computerized weight and balance system, the integrity of the
allowance, fill all the fuel tanks and still remain within the output data must be checked at regular intervals (preferably not
approved weight and CG limitations. greater than six months). The length of the intervals must be
Estimating baggage weight can result in gross inaccuracies. If specified in the company operations manual.
205
TC AIM March 25, 2021
There must be a means in place to identify the person inputting calculating the weight and balance of the aircraft, therefore the
the data for the preparation of every load manifest. Moreover, use of standard or segmented passenger weights is not
the identity of that person must be verified and authenticated recommended.
by the system and retained as required.
(a) Using Actual Weights—In determining the actual weight,
an air operator must weigh each passenger and must ensure
3.4.6 Segmented Weights that personal clothing and carry-on baggage are also
In practice, it was found that the use of standard passenger weighed. The total of the person’s weight, personal clothing
weights, regardless of aircraft size, increases the probability of and carry-on baggage would then be treated as the passenger’s
overloading the aircraft when its passenger-carrying capacity weight. Weighing should be conducted just before boarding
decreases and vice versa. For example, when the standard (to minimize the chances of the passenger acquiring
passenger weight is used for an aircraft certificated for additional load just before boarding the aircraft); alternatively,
12 passengers, like the Twin Otter, the statistical probability of the allowances for personal clothing and carry-on baggage
overloading the aircraft is as high as 25%, whereas when it is can be added to a passenger’s weight and the result can be
used for large passenger aircraft, like the Boeing 747, this used as the passenger’s actual weight.
probability diminishes to 0.0014%. When a passenger refuses to be weighed, the air operator
Furthermore, a single weight cannot account for the weight should ask the passenger to volunteer their weight (volunteered
differences between men and women or for variations in aircraft weight). If they refuse, the air operator should estimate the
seating capacity. To minimize the probability of overloading passenger’s weight (estimated weight), ensuring in both cases
the aircraft, an alternative to standard passenger weights, called that the allowances for personal clothing and carry-on baggage
segmented weights, was implemented. Segmented weights are are included in the passenger’s weight.
based on aircraft seating capacity and account for weight Personnel boarding passengers based on volunteered weights
differences between men and women as well as for summer and should be able to assess the validity of the disclosed weight.
winter variations. If a volunteered weight is deemed to be significantly
Segmented weights are designed to guarantee a 95% confidence inaccurate, personnel should use good judgment to make
level that the actual total weight of passengers will not exceed a reasonably accurate estimate. Similarly, estimating
the total weight of passengers obtained by using segmented passenger weight must be done with a reasonable degree
weights by more than one percent. This is the benchmark of of accuracy. Due diligence should be exercised to ensure
segmented weights for accuracy and reliability. that passenger weights used to calculate the passenger and
baggage load accurately reflect the actual weight to be
carried on any given flight.
3.4.6.1 Derivation of Segmented Weights
(b) Using Standard Weights—The weight of each passenger
A specific methodology was used to calculate the precise values
is calculated using standard weights published by TCCA
published in the segmented weight tables. TCCA’s segmented
or established by the air operator. The standard weights
weight tables are based on the Canadian Community
include the standardized allowances for personal clothing
Health Survey, Cycle 2.1 (2003), which obtained large-scale
and carry-on baggage. See Tables 3.1 and 3.3 for standard
weight data by interviewing some 130 000 Canadians. In addition,
RAC
weights.
standard deviations of 16.8 kg (37 lb) for males and 14.6 kg
(32.2 lb) for females were applied to obtain a revised average (c) Using Segmented Weights—Segmented weights should be
weight for each sex. These weights were further modified to used only when actual weights, volunteered weights, and
account for specific aircraft seating capacity ranges so as to be estimated weights are not available or cannot be implemented.
representative of the highest average weight amongst all sample Air operators are prohibited from using standard weights
sizes for that range. A constant value of 5.9 kg (13 lb) for carry-on for aeroplanes operated under Subpart 703 of the CARs
baggage was then added to the average adult (male/female) that also have a certificated passenger seating capacity of
passenger weight and finally, two values were developed to five or more passengers. Instead, it is recommended that
account for seasonal variations in personal clothing—3.6 kg they use either actual weights or the segmented weights
(8 lb) for summer clothing and 6.4 kg (14 lb) for winter clothing. that are published by TCCA or established by the air operator.
See Table 3.2 for finalized weight values. When using the segmented weight table (Table 3.2), an air
operator must follow these steps:
3.4.7 Computation of Passenger and Baggage (i) Step 1: Under the column titled Maximum Certificated
Weights Passenger Seating Capacity, select the row that
represents the certificated seating capacity of the
To compute passenger weight, the following methods are used: intended aircraft.
actual weights, standard weights and segmented weights.
(ii) Step 2: Under the column that represents the season,
NOTE: select winter or summer.
For aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of less than five, (iii) Step 3: Depending on the aircraft capacity and
the use of actual weights provides the greatest accuracy in seasons selected in steps 1 and 2, use the weight
values identified in the intersecting cells for the
206
TC AIM March 25, 2021
weights of males and females. When changing the (d) Weight of Children and Infants—Each child should be
aircraft, steps 1 to 3 have to be repeated. weighed, or their weight should be included at the standard
(iv) Step 4: Multiply the individual male/female weight rate. Infants should be weighed with the accompanying
identified in step 3 by the number of male/female adult. When an infant’s weight is over 10% of the adult
passengers on board, and the total of these weights passenger’s weight, the infant’s weight should be included
will be the weight of the passenger load for that separately at the rate of 13.6 kg (30 lbs) per infant. Infants
particular flight. occupying separate seats should be treated as children for
the purpose of weight and balance calculation, and their
NOTES: weight should be included at the standard rate per child.
1. Actual weights should be used on any flight identified as See Table 3.3 for standard weights of children and infants.
carrying a significant number of passengers whose weight (e) Checked Baggage and Cargo—The air operator must use
or number of carry-on baggage is deemed to be in excess the actual weight of checked baggage and cargo.
of those specified in the segmented weights published by
TCCA or established by the air operator.
2. The only circumstance under which the weight of carry-on
baggage may not be added to the weight of each passenger
is when no carry-on baggage is permitted on the flight.
Summer — Winter
93.5 kg or 206 lb Males (12 years and up) 96.3 kg or 212 lb
RAC
1–4 Use actual weights, volunteered weights, or estimated weights.
5 249 213 249 243 207 243
6–8 244 209 244 238 203 238
9–11 236 202 236 230 196 230
12–16 233 199 233 227 193 227
17–25 229 196 229 223 190 223
207
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Aviation Kerosene
CAN 2-3, 23-M81
(JET A, JET A-1, 1.93 8.80 7.32 1.90 8.65 7.19 1.87 8.50 7.09 1.85 8.39 7.00 1.83 8.27 6.91
JET A-2) and Arctic
Diesel
Aviation Gasoline
All Grades CAN
1.69 7.68 6.41 1.65 7.50 6.26 1.62 7.33 6.12 1.59 7.20 6.01 1.56 7.07 5.90
2-3, 25-M82
(AV GAS)
Lubricating oil UK US UK US UK US UK US UK US
litre litre litre litre litre
gal. gal. gal. gal. gal. gal. gal. gal. gal. gal.
Piston Engine 65
Grade 1.98 8.98 7.46 1.97 8.92 7.46 1.95 8.85 7.38 1.94 8.78 7.33 1.92 8.71 7.28
120 Grade 2.01 9.10 7.59 1.99 9.03 7.54 1.97 8.96 7.46 1.96 8.88 7.41 1.94 8.82 7.35
208
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.5 flight PlAnS AnD flight itinerArieS relevant content, correlate these new data with available
information on other traffic under control, coordinate as
necessary, and determine how the flight may best be integrated
3.5.1 When Required with the other traffic.
CAR 602.73 states that no pilot-in-command shall operate an Accordingly, in order to assist ATS in improving the service
aircraft in VFR flight unless a VFR flight plan or a VFR flight provided and to allow sufficient time for input into the ATS data
itinerary has been filed, except where the flight is conducted processing system, pilots are encouraged to file IFR flight plans
within 25 NM of the departure aerodrome. or flight itineraries as early as practicable, preferably at least 30
No pilot-in-command shall operate an aircraft in IFR flight min prior to their proposed departure time. Pilots are expected
unless an IFR flight plan has been filed. A pilot-in-command to depart in accordance with the flight plan ETD. Some delay
may file an IFR flight itinerary instead of an IFR flight plan where: could be experienced if an IFR clearance is required less than
30 min after filing. It is also important that ATS be informed
(a) the flight is conducted, in part or in whole, outside controlled of the circumstances if commencement of an IFR flight is to be
airspace; or delayed. IFR flight itineraries are limited to one departure from
(b) facilities are inadequate to permit the communication of and one entry into controlled airspace; multiple exits and entries
flight plan information to an ATC unit, an FSS or a CARS. into controlled airspace will not be accepted by ATS.
Notwithstanding any of the requirements mentioned above,
pilots are required to file a flight plan when operating between 3.5.3 Flight Plan Requirements—Flights
Canada and a foreign state. Between Canada and a Foreign State
A VFR or IFR flight plan must be filed prior to conducting any
3.5.2 Filing (Canadian Aviation flight between Canada and a foreign state. If the flight is to any
Regulation [RAC] 602.75) country other than the U.S., an ICAO flight plan must be filed.
602.75 ATS must not accept flight itineraries, composite flight plans,
or CVFR flight plans for flights between Canada and the U.S.
(1) A flight plan shall be filed with an air traffic control unit,
a flight service station or a community aerodrome radio ADCUS notification is no longer accepted on flight plans for
station. transborder flights departing from Canada to the U.S. or from
the U.S. to Canada. Pilots are required to file a flight plan to an
(2) A flight itinerary shall be filed with a responsible person, acceptable customs destination in the U.S. and are also required
an air traffic control unit, a flight service station or a to contact U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to make
community aerodrome radio station. customs arrangements prior to their flight. Failure to do so may
(3) A flight plan or flight itinerary, shall be filed by subject the pilot to a penalty.
(a) sending, delivering or otherwise communicating the
flight plan or flight itinerary or the information 3.5.4 Opening a Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flight
contained therein; and Plan or Flight Itinerary
RAC
(b) receiving acknowledgement that the flight plan or flight A VFR flight plan or flight itinerary should normally be opened
itinerary or the information contained therein has been with a TWR, an FSS, a FIC or a CARS upon departure to activate
received. the alerting service. The pilot is responsible for extending or
cancelling the flight plan or flight itinerary if the flight is delayed
A “responsible person” means an individual who has agreed
or cancelled. If an extension or cancellation is not received by
with the person who has filed a flight itinerary to ensure that,
the proposed departure time, the responsible ATS unit will
if the aircraft is overdue, the following are notified in the manner
activate the flight plan or flight itinerary, using the ETD as the
prescribed in this Section:
actual time of departure (ATD).
(a) an ATC unit, an FSS or a CARS; or
(b) an RCC. 3.6 chAngeS to the informAtion in A flight
PlAn or flight itinerAry
NOTES:
Since control and alerting services are based primarily on
1. The notification requires the flight itinerary information. information provided by the pilot, it is essential that modifications
2. The expression flight service station used in the regulation to flight plans and flight itineraries be communicated to an ATC
includes a FIC. Flight plan information should be filed with unit, a FIC, a CARS or, as applicable, a responsible person
a FIC, where complete briefing information is available. concerned, as soon as practicable.
An IFR flight plan should be submitted to the flight planning
section of an ACC.
The timely filing of IFR flight plans or flight itineraries is
essential to allow ATC personnel time to extract and record the
209
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.6.1 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flight Plan or 3.8 Defence Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
Flight Itinerary Flight Plans and Defence Flight
CAR 602.76(3) and (4) specify that a pilot “shall notify as soon
as practicable an air traffic control unit, a flight service station,
Itineraries (Canadian Aviation Regulation
a community aerodrome radio station or the responsible person,” [CAR] 602.145)
of any change to: CAR 602.145 outlines the requirements when operating into or
(a) the route of flight, within the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ). In order to
ensure that the Air Traffic System (ATS) is aware that VFR
(b) the duration of the flight; or
flights will be operating into or within the ADIZ, ATS requires
(c) the destination aerodrome. that pilots file a Defence Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary.
CAR 602.145 ADIZ states:
3.6.2 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Flight Plan or
602.145 ADIZ
Flight Itinerary
(1) This Section applies in respect of aircraft before entering
CAR 602.76(1) and (2) specify that a pilot shall notify as soon
into and while operating within the ADIZ, the dimensions
as practicable an air traffic control unit, a flight service station,
of which are specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook.
a community aerodrome radio station or a responsible person,
as the case may be, of any change to: (2) Every flight plan or flight itinerary required to be filed
pursuant to this Section shall be filed with an air traffic
(a) the cruising altitude or cruising flight level;
control unit, a flight service station or a community
(b) the route of flight; aerodrome radio station.
(c) the destination aerodrome; (3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft whose point of departure
(d) when in controlled airspace: within the ADIZ or last point of departure before entering
(i) the true airspeed at the cruising altitude or cruising the ADIZ has facilities for the transmission of flight plan
level where the change intended is 5% or more of or flight itinerary information shall:
the TAS specified in the IFR flight plan; or (a) before takeoff, file a defence flight plan or defence
(ii) the Mach number, where the change intended is 0.01 flight itinerary;
or more of the Mach number that has been included (b) in the case of a VFR aircraft where the point of departure
in the ATC clearance. is outside the ADIZ,
Where the flight is being conducted in controlled airspace, the (i) indicate in the flight plan or flight itinerary the
pilot shall receive ATC clearance before making the intended estimated time and point of ADIZ entry, and
change. (ii) as soon as possible after takeoff, communicate by
radio to an air traffic control unit, a flight service
station or a community aerodrome radio station a
3.7 Composite Flight Plan Or Flight position report of the aircraft’s location, altitude,
Itinerary—Visual Flight Rules (VFR) And
RAC
A composite flight plan or flight itinerary may be filed that (c) in the case of a VFR aircraft where the point of departure
describes part(s) of the route as operating under VFR and part(s) is within the ADIZ, as soon as possible after takeoff,
of the route as operating under IFR. All rules governing VFR communicate by radio to an air traffic control unit, a
or IFR apply to that portion of the route of flight. A composite flight service station or a community aerodrome radio
flight plan or flight itinerary shall not be filed for an aircraft station a position report of the aircraft’s location, altitude
that will enter airspace controlled by the FAA, including CDA and aerodrome of departure.
delegated to the FAA, as composite data cannot be correctly (4) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft whose point of departure
processed between NAV CANADA and FAA systems. within the ADIZ or last point of departure before entering
the ADIZ does not have facilities for the transmission of
A pilot who files IFR for the first part of a flight and VFR for
flight plan or flight itinerary information shall:
the next part will be cleared by ATC to the point within controlled
airspace at which the IFR part of the flight ends. A pilot who (a) as soon as possible after takeoff, file by radio
files VFR for the first part of a flight and IFR for the next part communication a flight plan or flight itinerary; and
is expected to contact the appropriate ATC unit for clearance (b) in the case of a VFR aircraft, indicate in the flight plan
prior to approaching the point where the IFR portion of the flight or flight itinerary the estimated time and point of ADIZ
commences. If direct contact with an ATC unit is not possible, entry, if applicable.
the pilot may request ATC clearance through a FIC. It is important
that the flight continue under VFR conditions until appropriate
IFR clearance within controlled airspace is issued by ATC and
acknowledged by the pilot.
210
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(5) The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft shall revise the (ii) altitude,
estimated time and point of ADIZ entry and inform an air (iii) route,
traffic control unit, a flight service station or a community (iv) destination,
aerodrome radio station, when the aircraft is not expected (v) proposed time of departure,
to arrive: (vi) estimated elapsed time,
(a) within plus or minus five minutes of the estimated (vii) alternate,
time at: (viii) fuel on board, and, if required,
(i) a reporting point, (A) TAS,
(ii) the point of ADIZ entry, or (B) number of persons on board, and
(iii) the point of destination within the ADIZ; or (C) where an arrival report will be filed.
(b) within 20 nautical miles of:
(i) the estimated point of ADIZ entry, or 3.10 croSS country inStrument
(ii) the centreline of the route of flight indicated in trAining flightS
the flight plan or flight itinerary.
A cross country instrument training flight is one in which there
are no intermediate stops and one or more instrument approaches
3.9 intermeDiAte StoPS are made en route. For example, an aircraft departs Airport A,
Intermediate stops may not be included in a single instrument completes a practice approach at Airport B and either lands at
flight rules (IFR) flight plan. A single visual flight rules (VFR) destination Airport C or returns to land at Airport A.
flight plan or an IFR or VFR flight itinerary including one or The following apply:
more intermediate stops en route may be filed provided that:
(a) A single flight plan is filed.
(a) for VFR flight plans, the stop will be of short duration (for
(b) Those en route locations at which instrument approaches
purposes such as boarding passengers, and refuelling);
and overshoots are requested shall be listed in the “Other
(b) for IFR flight itineraries, the stop will be in uncontrolled Information” portion of the flight plan form, together with
airspace; and the estimated period of time to carry out each approach (i.e.
(c) each intermediate stop is indicated by repeating the name REQ NDB RWY 32 AT B-15 MIN.).
of the stopping point and its duration in the “Route” section of (c) The estimated elapsed time (EET) of the flight plan form
the flight plan or flight itinerary. Record the duration of the is NOT to include the estimated time to carry out approaches
stopover in hours and minutes with four consecutive digits. at the en route locations.
Example: CYXU 0045 CYXU. You may include a phone
(d) ATC will normally clear the aircraft to final destination.
number for the stopover in the “Other Information” section
of the flight plan or flight itinerary, if available, as this may (e) If it is not practicable to clear the aircraft to final destination
be useful in case of search and rescue (SAR). or to assign an operationally suitable altitude with the initial
clearance, a time or specific location for the aircraft to
When intermediate stops are planned, the “Estimated Elapsed
expect further clearance to the destination or to a higher
Time” must be calculated as the total time to the final destination,
RAC
altitude will be issued with the initial clearance.
including the duration of the intermediate stops. It should be
noted that SAR action would only be initiated at the specified (f) When an en route approach clearance is requested, a missed
SAR time or, in the event that a SAR time is not indicated, approach clearance will be issued to the aircraft prior to
60 minutes for a flight plan and 24 hours for a flight itinerary the commencement of the approach.
after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at the final destination. (g) If traffic does not permit an approach, holding instructions
Pilots who wish to have SAR action based on every leg of a will be issued to the aircraft if requested by the pilot.
flight should file one flight plan or flight itinerary for each stop.
3.9.1 Consecutive Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) 3.11 cloSing A flight PlAn
Flight Plans In order to comply with CAR 602.77, an arrival report for a
flight plan shall be submitted to an ATC unit, an FSS (or a FIC)
Consecutive IFR flight plans may be filed at the initial point of
or a CARS as soon as practicable after landing but not later than:
departure providing the following points are adhered to:
(a) the SAR time specified in the flight plan; or
(a) initial point of departure and en route stops must be in
Canada except that one flight plan will be accepted for a (b) where no SAR time is specified in the flight plan, one hour
departure point within United States controlled airspace; after the last reported ETA.
(b) the sequence of stops will fall within one 24-hour period;
(c) the flight planning unit must be provided with at least the
following items of information for each stage of the flight:
(i) point of departure,
211
TC AIM March 25, 2021
A pilot who terminates a flight itinerary shall ensure that an results in ATC discontinuing the provision of IFR separation
arrival report is filed with an ATC unit, an FSS (or a FIC), a and also closes the flight plan or itinerary. Therefore, alerting
CARS or, where the flight itinerary was filed with a responsible service with regard to SAR notification is also terminated, unless
person, the responsible person as soon as practicable after landing the pilot files and activates a VFR flight plan.
but not later than:
(a) the SAR time specified in the flight itinerary; or 3.12 fuel requirementS
(b) where no SAR time was specified in the flight itinerary, The fuel requirements contained in this Section do not apply to
24 hours after the last reported ETA. gliders, balloons or ultra-light aeroplanes. (CAR 602.88)
A pilot who terminates an IFR flight at an aerodrome where In addition to VFR and IFR fuel requirements, every aircraft
there is an operating ATC unit, FSS or where RAAS is provided, shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to provide for
is not required to file an arrival report unless requested to do
so by the appropriate ATC unit or FSS. (a) taxiing and foreseeable delays prior to takeoff;
When submitting an arrival report, the pilot should clearly indicate (b) meteorological conditions;
that he/she was operating on a flight plan or flight itinerary and (c) foreseeable air traffic routings and traffic delays;
wishes it to be closed. Failure to close a flight plan or flight
(d) landing at a suitable aerodrome in the event of loss of cabin
itinerary will initiate SAR action. It should not be assumed that
pressurization or, in the case of a multi-engined aircraft,
ATS personnel will automatically file arrival reports for VFR
failure of any engine, at the most critical point during the
flights at locations served by control towers and FSSs or an
flight; and
RCO. Toll-free calls, as outlined in the CFS, may be made to an
ATS facility for this purpose. (e) any other foreseeable conditions that could delay the landing
of the aircraft.
3.11.1 Arrival Report
3.12.1 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Flight
CAR 602.78 specifies that the contents of an arrival report for
a flight plan or flight itinerary, which are listed in the CFS, shall An aircraft operated in VFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel
include: that is sufficient to allow the aircraft
(a) the aircraft registration mark, flight number or radio call sign; (a) in the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter,
(i) when operated during the day, to fly to the destination
(b) the type of flight plan or flight itinerary;
aerodrome and then to fly for 30 minutes at normal
(c) the departure aerodrome; cruising speed, or
(d) the arrival aerodrome, and (ii) when operated at night, to fly to the destination
aerodrome and then to fly for 45 minutes at normal
(e) the date and time of arrival. cruising speed, or
(b) in the case of a helicopter, to fly to the destination aerodrome
3.11.2 Closing of a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary and then to fly for 20 min. at normal cruising speed.
Prior to Landing
RAC
A pilot, who conducts a flight in respect of which a flight plan 3.12.2 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Flight
or flight itinerary has been filed with an ATC unit, FIC, FSS,
An aircraft operated in IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel
or CARS, has the option of closing the flight plan or flight
that is sufficient to allow the aircraft
itinerary with any of these agencies prior to landing.
(a) in the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane,
The closing of a flight plan or flight itinerary prior to landing
is considered as filing an arrival report, and as such, it will result (i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the
in the termination of all alerting services with respect to SAR flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute
notification. an approach and a missed approach at the destination
aerodrome, to f ly to and land at the alternate
When flying IFR in airspace under the jurisdiction of Canadian aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes,
ATC, use of the phrase “Cancelling IFR” results in ATC or
discontinuing the provision of IFR separation, but it does not (ii) where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the
automatically close the flight plan or itinerary. Therefore, alerting flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute
service with regard to SAR notification is still active and is an approach and a missed approach at the destination
based on the information submitted in the original flight plan aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes;
or itinerary. Because the pilot is now flying in accordance with or
VFR, the flight plan or itinerary must either be closed prior to
(b) in the case of a turbojet powered aeroplane or a helicopter,
landing, or an arrival report filed after landing, with an ATC
(i) where an alternate aerodrome is specified in the
unit, a FIC, a FSS or a CARS. When flying IFR in the U.S.A.
or landing at a Canadian airport that underlies airspace delegated flight plan or flight itinerary, to fly to and execute
to the control of the FAA, use of the phrase “Cancelling IFR” an approach and a missed approach at the destination
212
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Except as otherwise authorized by the Minister in an air operator ONE USABLE 600-2* or 300-1 above the
certificate (AOC) or in a private operator certificate, no pilot- PRECISION APPROACH lowest usable HAT and visibility,
whichever is greater.
in-command shall operate an aircraft in IFR flight unless the
IFR flight plan or IFR flight itinerary that has been filed for the NON-PRECISION 800-2* or 300-1 above the
flight includes an alternate aerodrome having a landing area ONLY AVAILABLE lowest usable HAT/HAA and
suitable for use by that aircraft. No pilot-in-command of an visibility, whichever is greater.
aircraft shall include an alternate aerodrome in an IFR flight NO IFR Forecast weather must be no
plan or IFR flight itinerary unless available weather information APPROACH AVAILABLE lower than 500 ft above a
indicates that the ceiling and ground visibility at the alternate minimum IFR altitude that will
aerodrome will, at the expected time of arrival, be at or above permit a VFR approach
the alternate aerodrome weather minima criteria specified in and landing.
the CAP. (CARs 602.122 and 602.123) FOR HELICOPTERS, where Ceiling 200 ft above the
Aerodrome forecasts (TAF) that contain the terms BECMG, instrument approach minima for the approach to be
TEMPO or PROB may be used to determine the weather procedures are available flown, and visibility at least
1 SM, but never less than the
suitability of an aerodrome as an alternate, provided that:
minimum visibility for the
(a) where conditions are forecast to improve, the forecast approach to be flown.
BECMG condition shall be considered to be applicable as *600-2 and 800-2, as appropriate, are considered to be STANDARD ALTERNATE
of the end of the BECMG time period, and these conditions MINIMA.
shall not be below the published alternate minima Should the selected alternate weather requirements meet the
requirements for that aerodrome; standard minima, then the following minima are also authorized:
(b) where conditions are forecast to deteriorate, the forecast
BECMG condition shall be considered to be applicable as Table 3.8—Other Authorized Minima
of the start of the BECMG time period, and these conditions
shall not be below the published alternate minima IF STANDARD IS APPLICABLE,
STANDARD
RAC
requirements for that aerodrome; THEN THE FOLLOWING MINIMA
ALTERNATE MINIMA
(c) the forecast TEMPO condition shall not be below the published ARE ALSO AUTHORIZED
alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome; and CEILING VISIBILITY CEILING VISIBILITY
(d) the forecast PROB condition shall not be below the 700 1 1/2
600 2
appropriate landing minima for that aerodrome. 800 1
900 1 1/2
800 2
3.13.1 Alternate Aerodrome Weather Minima 1000 1
Requirements
NOTES:
Authorized weather minima for alternate aerodromes are to be
determined using the information presented in the tables below. 1. These requirements are predicated upon the aerodrome
The “Alternate Weather Minima Requirements” table presented having a TAF available.
in the CAP GEN (reproduced below) applies to all approach charts, 2. Aerodromes served with an AERODROME ADVISORY
except where use as an alternate is not authorized on the chart. The forecast may qualify as an alternate, provided the forecast
minima derived for an alternate aerodrome shall be consistent with weather is no lower than 500 ft above the lowest usable
aircraft performance, navigation-equipment limitations, functioning HAT/HAA and the visibility is not less than 3 mi.
NAVAIDs, type of weather forecast and runway to be used.
3. Aerodromes served with a GRAPHIC AREA FORECAST
Pilots may take credit for RNAV approaches at alternate (GFA) may qualify as an alternate, provided the forecast
aerodromes in accordance with the criteria outlined in the weather contains:
“Alternate Aerodrome Weather Minima Requirements” section (a) no cloud lower than 1 000 ft above the lowest usable
of the CAP GEN. HAT/HAA;
213
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) the compatibility of the aircraft equipment with the ground (m) destination aerodrome
navigational equipment; (n) EET en-route
(c) the forecast surface wind conditions could dictate the landing (o) SAR time*
runway and associated approach minima;
(p) destination alternate aerodrome
(d) the operational applicability of terms BECMG, TEMPO
(q) endurance (flight time in hours and minutes)
and PROB within the forecast;
(r) total number of persons on board
(e) all heights mentioned within a GFA are ASL heights, unless
otherwise indicated, and the terrain elevation must be applied (s) type of ELT*
in order to determine the lowest forecast ceiling at a particular (t) survival equipment (type, jackets, dinghies)
location; and
(u) aircraft colour and markings
RAC
214
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
Order 7350.7—Location Identifiers. under IFR;
V if it is intended that the entire flight will be operated
3.15 contentS of A flight PlAn AnD under VFR;
flight itinerAry Y if the flight initially will be operated under IFR, followed
by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules; or
3.15.1 Item 7: Aircraft Identification (not Z if the flight initially will be operated under VFR, followed
exceeding seven alphanumeric characters by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules.
and without hyphens or symbols)
If “Y” or “Z” is filed, specify, in the Route section of the flight
Canadian: plan (Item 15), the point(s) where a change in flight rules is
planned. Similarly, where there is more than one change in the
Normally, this consists of the aircraft registration letters or the type of flight rules, the code to be used is to reflect the first
company designator followed by the flight number. rule, i.e. use “Z” for VFR/IFR/VFR.
Examples:
(a) Aircraft registration: N123B, CGABC, 4XGUC
(b) Operating agency and flight number: ACA123, KLM672
(c) Tactical call sign: BRUNO12, SWIFT45, RED1
215
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.15.2.2 Type of Flight (up to two characters, as 3.15.4 Item 10: Equipment (Canadian and
applicable) International Civil Aviation
INSERT up to two of the following letters to denote the type of Organization (ICAO))
flight when so required by the appropriate ATS authority: Capabilities comprise the following elements:
First character (Canadian only, as applicable): (a) presence of relevant serviceable equipment on board
C for controlled VFR; the aircraft;
D for defence flight plan; (b) equipment and capabilities commensurate with flight crew
qualifications; and
E for defence flight itinerary;
(c) where applicable, authorization from the appropriate
F for flight itinerary. authority.
Second character (ICAO, as applicable): The communication (COM), navigation (NAV), approach aid
S for scheduled air service; and SSR equipment on board and its serviceability must be
inserted by adding the appropriate suffixes. The first suffixes
N for non-scheduled air transport operation; will denote the COM, NAV and approach aid equipment, followed
G for general aviation; by an oblique stroke, and another suffix to denote the SSR
equipment.
M for military;
X for other than the preceding categories. 3.15.4.1 Radio Communication, Navigation and Approach
Specify the status of a flight following the indicator “STS” in Aid Equipment and Capabilities
Item 18, or when necessary to denote other reasons for specific INSERT one letter as follows:
handling by ATS, indicate the reason following the indicator
“RMK/” in Item 18. “N” if no COM, NAV or approach aid equipment for the route
to be flown is carried, or the equipment is unserviceable; OR
3.15.3 Item 9: Number and Type of Aircraft and “S” if standard COM, NAV and approach aid equipment for the
Wake Turbulence Category route to be flown is carried and available (see NOTE 1)
Information on navigation capability is provided to ATC for
3.15.3.1 Number of Aircraft (one or two characters) clearance and routing purposes.
INSERT the number of aircraft, if more than one. AND/OR INSERT one or more of the following letters to indicate
the serviceable COM, NAV and approach aid equipment and
capabilities available.
3.15.3.2 Type of Aircraft (two to four characters)
INSERT the appropriate ICAO aircraft type designator. If no Table 3.9—Alphanumeric Characters to Be
such designator has been assigned, or in the case of formation Indicated in Flight Plan Item 10: Equipment
RAC
L (LIGHT) to indicate an aircraft type with a maximum F ADF P2 CPDLC RCP 240
certificated take-off mass of 7 000 kg (15 500 lbs) or less. G GNSS (see NOTE P3 SATVOICE RCP 400
2)
H HF RTF P4–P9 Reserved for RCP
I Inertial R PBN approved (see
Navigation NOTE 4)
216
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
navigation.
U1 ADS-B “out” capability using UAT;
4. See RTCA/EUROCAE Interoperability Requirements
Standard For ATN Baseline 1 (ATN B1 INTEROP U2 ADS-B “out” and “in” capability using UAT;
Standard—DO-280B/ED-110B) for data link services, ATC V1 ADS-B “out” capability using VDL Mode 4;
clearance and information, ATC communications
management, and ATC microphone check. V2 ADS-B “out” and “in” capability using VDL Mode 4.
217
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.15.5 Item 13: Departure Aerodrome and Time Canadian and ICAO:
INSERT
3.15.5.1 Departure Aerodrome (maximum four • the first cruising speed as described in (a),
characters)
• the first cruising level as described in (b), and
ICAO: • the route description as described in (c).
INSERT the ICAO four-letter location indicator of the departure (a) Cruising speed (maximum five characters)
aerodrome as specified in ICAO Doc 7910—Location Indicators;
OR INSERT the true airspeed for the first or the whole cruising
portion of the flight, in terms of:
Canadian: (i) Kilometres per hour (ICAO only), expressed as “K”
followed by four figures (e.g. K0830); OR
INSERT the four-character location indicator of the departure
(ii) Knots, expressed as “N” followed by four figures
aerodrome; OR
(e.g. N0485); OR
Canadian and ICAO: (iii) True Mach number, when so prescribed by the
appropriate ATS authority, to the nearest hundredth
If no location indicator has been assigned: of unit Mach, expressed as “M ”followed by three
INSERT “ZZZZ” and specify in Item 18 the name and location figures (e.g. M082).
of the aerodrome preceded by “DEP/”; OR (b) Cruising level (maximum five characters)
INSERT the first point of the route or the marker radio beacon INSERT the planned cruising level for the first or the whole
preceded by “DEP/”, if the aircraft has not taken off from portion of the route to be flown, in terms of:
the aerodrome. (i) Flight level, expressed as “F” followed by three
figures (e.g. F085, F330); OR
3.15.5.2 Time (maximum four characters) (ii) Standard metric level in tens of metres (ICAO only),
Indicate the hour and minutes in UTC. expressed as “S” followed by four figures (e.g. S1130),
when so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authorities;
NOTE: OR
Pilots may file a flight plan or flight itinerary up to 24 hr in (iii) Altitude in hundreds of feet, expressed as “A”
advance of the departure time. followed by three figures (e.g. A045, A100); OR
(iv) Altitude in tens of metres (ICAO only), expressed
as “M” followed by four figures (e.g. M0840); OR
3.15.6 Item 15: Cruising Speed, Altitude/Level (v) For uncontrolled VFR flights, the letters “VFR”
and Route (ICAO only).
Canadian: (c) Route (including changes of speed, level and/or flight rules)
RAC
218
TC AIM March 25, 2021
INSERT each point at which a change of speed or level is planned When required by appropriate ATS authority(ies),
to commence, or a change of ATS route, or a change of flight
rules is planned (e.g. AGLUK/N0200A170 IFR). Canadian and ICAO:
USE the conventions in (1) to (5), below, and SEPARATE each
NOTE: sub-item by a space.
When a transition is planned between a lower and an upper ATS
route and the routes are oriented in the same direction, the point (a) ATS route (two to seven characters):
of transition need not be inserted. The coded designator assigned to the route or route segment
including, where appropriate, the coded designator assigned
FOLLOWED IN EACH CASE BY
to the standard departure or arrival route (e.g. BCN1, B1,
(a) the designator of the next ATS route segment, even if it is R14, UB10, KODAP2A).
the same as the previous one (e.g. if the departure aerodrome
is Québec: DICEN T680 LETAK T616, etc.); OR NOTE:
Provisions for the application of route designators are contained
(b) if the flight to the next point is outside a designated route: in ICAO Annex 11, Appendix 1.
(i) (ICAO only) the letters “DCT”, unless both points
are defined by geographical coordinates (e.g. if the (b) Significant point (two to eleven characters):
departure aerodrome is Québec: DCT YQB DCT
The coded designator (two to five characters) assigned to
FLEUR DCT YYY, etc.);
the point (e.g. LN, MAY, HADDY), OR
(ii) (Canadian only) the next point (e.g. if the departure
aerodrome is Québec: YQB FLEUR YYY etc.). The If no coded designator has been assigned, one of the following
absence of “DCT” between points on a Canadian ways:
flight plan or flight itinerary indicates direct flight. (i) Degrees only (seven characters): Two figures
describing latitude in degrees, followed by “N”
3.15.6.2 Flights Outside Designated Air Traffic (North) or “S” (South), followed by three figures
describing longitude in degrees, followed by “E”
Service (ATS) Routes:
(East) or “W” (West). Make up the correct number
ICAO: of figures, where necessary, by insertion of zeros,
e.g. 46N078W.
INSERT points normally not more than 30 min flying time or (ii) Degrees and minutes (11 characters): Four figures
370 km (200 NM) apart, including each point at which a change describing latitude in degrees, and tens and units of
of speed or level, a change of track, or a change of flight rules minutes followed by “N” (North) or “S” (South),
is planned; OR followed by five figures describing longitude in
When required by appropriate ATS authority(ies), degrees and tens and units of minutes, followed by
“E” (East) or “W” (West). Make up the correct
DEFINE the track of flights operating predominantly in an
number of figures, where necessary, by insertion of
east-west direction between 70°N and 70°S by reference to
zeros, e.g. 4620N07805W.
significant points formed by the intersections of half or whole
(iii) Bearing and distance from a significant point: The
RAC
degrees of latitude with meridians spaced at intervals of 10° of
identification of the significant point followed by
longitude. For flights operating in areas outside those latitudes,
the bearing from the point in the form of three figures
the tracks shall be defined by significant points formed by the
giving degrees magnetic followed by the distance
intersection of parallels of latitude with meridians normally
from the point in the form of three figures expressing
spaced at 20° of longitude. The distance between significant
nautical miles. In areas of high latitude where it is
points shall, as far as possible, not exceed one hour’s flight time.
determined by the appropriate authority that reference
Additional significant points shall be established as deemed
to degrees magnetic is impractical, degrees true may
necessary.
be used. Make up the correct number of figures,
For flights operating predominantly in a north-south direction, where necessary, by insertion of zeros, e.g. a point
define tracks by reference to significant points formed by the 180° magnetic at a distance of 40 NM from VOR
intersection of whole degrees of longitude with specified parallels “DUB” should be expressed as DUB180040.
of latitude which are spaced at 5°.
INSERT “DCT” between successive points unless both points
are defined by geographical coordinates or by bearing
and distance.
Canadian:
INSERT points at which a change of speed or level, a change of
track, or a change of flight rules is planned. Absence of “DCT”
between points on a Canadian flight plan or itinerary indicates
direct flight; OR
219
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(c) Change of speed or level (maximum 21 characters): 3.15.7 Item 16: Destination Aerodrome, Total
The point at which a change of speed (5 percent TAS or Estimated Elapse Time (EET), Search And
0.01 Mach or more) or a change of level is planned to Rescue (SAR) Time (for flights in Canada
commence, expressed exactly as in (2), above, followed by only) and Destination Alternate
an oblique stroke and both the cruising speed and the cruising Aerodrome(s)
level, expressed exactly as in (a) and (b), above, without a
space between them, even when only one of these quantities
3.15.7.1 Destination Aerodrome and Total Estimated
will be changed.
Elapse Time (EET) (maximum 10 characters)
Examples:
LN/N0284A045 ICAO:
INSERT the ICAO four-letter location indicator of the destination
MAY/N0305F180
aerodrome as specified in ICAO Doc 7910—Location Indicators;
HADDY/N0420F330 OR
4602N07805W/N0500F350
Canadian:
46N078W/M082F330 INSERT the four-character location indicator of the destination
DUB180040/N0350M0840 aerodrome; OR
220
TC AIM March 25, 2021
INSERT “ZZZZ” and specify in Item 18 the name and location Table 3.10—RNAV Specifications to Be Indicated
of the destination alternate aerodrome(s), preceded by “ALTN/”. in Flight Plan Item 18: Other Information
A1 RNAV 10 (RNP 10)
NOTES:
1. If departure alternate required insert ZZZZ for second B1 RNAV 5 all permitted sensors
alternate aerodrome and SPECIFY in Item 18 the departure B2 RNAV 5 GNSS
alternate, i.e.: DEP ALTN/CYOW. B3 RNAV 5 DME/DME
2. No alternate is required on a VFR flight plan or itinerary. B4 RNAV 5 VOR/DME
B5 RNAV 5 INS or IRS
3.15.8 Item 18: Other Information
B6 RNAV 5 LORAN C
NOTE: C1 RNAV 2 all permitted sensors
Use of indicators not included under this item may result in data
C2 RNAV 2 GNSS
being rejected, processed incorrectly or lost.
C3 RNAV 2 DME/DME
Hyphens or oblique strokes should only be used as prescribed below. C4 RNAV 2 DME/DME/IRU
INSERT “0” (zero) if no other information; OR D1 RNAV 1 all permitted sensors
Any other necessary information in the sequence shown D2 RNAV 1 GNSS
hereunder, in the form of the appropriate indicator selected from D3 RNAV 1 DME/DME
those defined hereunder, followed by an oblique stroke and the
information to be recorded. D4 RNAV 1 DME/DME/IRU
RAC
HUM: for a flight operating on a humanitarian mission; T2 RNP AR APCH without RF (special authorization
required)
MARSA: for a flight for which a military entity assumes
Combinations of alphanumeric characters not indicated above are reserved.
responsibility for separation of military aircraft;
ICAO has not yet allocated a two-digit alphanumeric character
MEDEVAC: for a life critical medical emergency evacuation;
to describe RNP 2 under the PBN/ indicator. For an RNP 2
NONRVSM: for a non-RVSM capable flight intending to operate capable flight, enter a Z in item 10 and spell out “RNP2” after
in RVSM airspace; NAV/ in item 18: NAV/RNP2.
SAR: for a flight engaged in a search and rescue mission; NAV/ Significant data related to navigation equipment
and other than that specified in PBN/, as required by
the appropriate ATS authority. Indicate GNSS
STATE: for a f light engaged in military, customs or
augmentation under this indicator, with a space
police services.
between two or more methods of augmentation,
Other reasons for special handling by ATS shall be denoted e.g. NAV/GBAS SBAS.
under the designator “RMK/”.
COM/ Indicate communications applications or capabilities
PBN/ Indication of RNAV and/or RNP capabilities: not specified in Item 10(a).
Include as many of the descriptors below as possible
DAT/ Indicate data applications or capabilities not
that apply to the flight, up to a maximum of eight
specified in 10(a).
entries, i.e. no more than 16 characters.
SUR/ Include surveillance applications or capabilities
not specified in Item 10(b).
221
TC AIM March 25, 2021
DEP/ Name and location of departure aerodrome, if TYP/ Type(s) of aircraft, preceded if necessary without
“ZZZZ” is inserted in Item 13, or the ATS unit a space by number(s) of aircraft and separated by
from which supplementary flight plan data can be one space, if “ZZZZ” is inserted in Item 9.
obtained, if “AFIL” (airfile) is inserted in Item 13.
Example:
For aerodromes not listed in the relevant AIP,
indicate location as follows: TYP/2F15 5F5 3B2
(a) With four figures describing latitude in degrees and tens DLE/ En-route delay or holding, insert the significant
and units of minutes followed by “N” (North) or “S” (South), point(s) on the route where a delay is planned to
followed by five figures describing longitude in degrees occur, followed by the length of delay using four-
and tens and units of minutes, followed by “E” (East) or figure time in hours and minutes (hhmm).
“W” (West). Make up the correct number of figures, where Example:
necessary, by insertion of zeros, e.g. 4620N07805W
(11 characters); OR DLE/MDG0030
(b) Bearing and distance from the nearest significant point, OPR/ ICAO designator or name of the aircraft operating
as follows: agency, if different from the aircraft identification
(i) The identification of the significant point followed in Item 7.
by the bearing from the point in the form of three ORGN/ The originator’s eight-letter AFTN address or other
figures giving degrees magnetic, followed by the appropriate contact details, in cases where the
distance from the point in the form of three figures originator of the flight plan may not be readily
expressing nautical miles. In areas of high latitude identified, as required by the appropriate ATS
where it is determined by the appropriate authority authority.
that reference to degrees magnetic is impractical,
degrees true may be used. Make up the correct NOTE:
number of figures, where necessary, by insertion of In some areas, flight plan reception centres may insert the
zeros, e.g. a point of 180° magnetic at a distance of “ORGN/” identifier and originator’s AFTN address automatically.
40 NM from VOR “DUB” should be expressed as
DUB180040; OR PER/ Aircraft performance data, indicated by a single
(ii) The first point of the route (name or LAT/LONG) letter as specified in the Procedures for Air
or the marker radio beacon, if the aircraft has not Navigation Services—Aircraft Operations (PANS-
taken off from an aerodrome. OPS, ICAO Doc 8168), Volume I — Flight
Procedures, if so prescribed by the appropriate
DEST/ Name and location of the destination aerodrome,
ATS authority.
if “ZZZZ” is inserted in Item 16. For aerodromes
not listed in the relevant AIP, indicate location in ALTN/ Name of destination alternate aerodrome(s), if
LAT/LONG or bearing and distance from the “ZZZZ” is inserted in Item 16. For aerodromes
nearest significant point, as described under DEP/, not listed in the relevant AIP, indicate location in
above. LAT/LONG or bearing and distance from the
RAC
222
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RIF/ The route details to the revised destination CROSS OUT indicators “D” and “C” if no dinghies are carried,
aerodrome, following by the ICAO four-letter or INSERT number of dinghies carried; and
location indicator of the aerodrome. The revised
route is subject to reclearance in flight. (CAPACITY)
Examples: INSERT total capacity, in persons, of all dinghies carried; and
RIF/DTA HEC KLAX
(COVER)
RIF/ESP G94 CLA YPPH
CROSS OUT indicator “C” if dinghies are not covered; and
RMK/ Any other plain-language remarks when required
by the appropriate ATS authority or deemed (COLOUR)
necessary, e.g. TCAS- equipped—ICAO only.
INSERT colour of dinghies, if carried.
3.15.9 Item 19: Supplementary Information
A/(AIRCRAFT COLOUR AND MARKINGS)
RAC
be entered in the “ELT TYPE” box on the flight plan and flight
itinerary forms.
S/(SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT)
CROSS OUT all indicators if survival equipment is not carried.
CROSS OUT indicator “P” if polar survival equipment is not
carried. CROSS OUT indicator “D” if desert survival equipment
is not carried. CROSS OUT indicator “M” if maritime survival
equipment is not carried. CROSS OUT indicator “J” if jungle
survival equipment is not carried.
J/(JACKETS)
CROSS OUT all indicators if life jackets are not carried. CROSS
OUT indicator “L” if life jackets are not equipped with lights.
CROSS OUT indicator “F” if life jackets are not equipped with
fluorescein. CROSS OUT indicator “U” or “V” or both (as in
R/, above) to indicate radio capability of jackets, if any.
D/(DINGHIES) (NUMBER)
223
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Item 16:
Destination aerodrome is Saskatoon.
EET from takeoff to landing at Saskatoon is 2 days and 6 hours
(this includes the flight time and the stopover time at Carlyle).
SAR time of 6 hours indicates the pilot’s desire to have SAR
action initiated at 6 hours after the total EET of the trip; in other
words, 2 days and 12 hours after takeoff from Saskatoon (if
there is no entry in this block the SAR activation time would be
24 hours after the EET).
Flying time endurance is 5 hr. There are two people in the aircraft
“Y” indicates that the flight will be initially operated under the (including crew).
IFR, followed by one or more subsequent changes of flight rules. “X” over “U” indicates there is no UHF emergency radio.
“F” indicates that it is a flight itinerary. Unaltered “V” indicates there is VHF emergency radio.
Item 9: Unaltered “E” under ELT indicates there is an emergency locator
Aircraft is a Beechcraft 100. transmitter.
“AP” under ELT TYPE indicates an automatic portable ELT.
Item 10:
Unaltered “P” under POLAR indicates polar equipment is carried.
“S” indicates standard COM/NAV equipment of VHF, RTF,
VOR and ILS. Unaltered “J” and “L” indicates that life jackets with lights are
carried.
“D” indicates DME equipped.
“Xs” on “D” and “C” indicate there are no dinghies.
“/C” indicates transponder Mode A (four digits—4096 codes)
and Mode C. Aircraft colour and markings are self explanatory.
“X” on “N” indicates there are no additional remarks on survival
Item 13: gear.
Departure aerodrome is Saskatoon at 0900 UTC.
Example indicates closure with Saskatoon tower.
Contact name and number is self explanatory.
Pilot’s licence number assists SAR specialists in their search.
224
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.1 generAl
PRIORITY / PRIORIT… ADDRESSEE(S) / DESTINATAIRE(S)
FF
15 CRUISING SPEED
VITESSE DE CROISI»RE ALTITUDE/ LEVEL / NIVEAU ROUTE / ROUTE
Several operators have, for some time, been using their landing
lights when flying at lower altitudes and within terminal areas,
both during daylight hours and at night. Pilot comment has
16 DESTINATION AERODROME TOTAL EET / DUR…E TOTALE ESTIM…E
A…RODROME DE DESTINATION DAYS/JOURS HRS. MINS. HRS.
SAR
MINS.
ALTN AERODROME
A…RODROME DE D…GAGEMENT
2ND. ALTN. AERODROME
2»ME AERODROME DE D…GAGEMENT confirmed that the use of landing lights greatly increases the
18 OTHER INFORMATION / RENSEIGNEMENTS DIVERS
probability of the aircraft being seen. An important side benefit
for improved safety is that birds appear to see aircraft showing
)
lights in time to take avoiding action. In view of this, it is
19 ENDURANCE / AUTONOMIE
HR. MIN PERSONS ON BOARD / PERSONNES ¿ BORD
EMERGENCY RADIO / RADIO DE SECOURS
UHF VHF ELT ELT TYPE
recommended that, when so equipped, all aircraft use landing
E P
SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT / …QUIPEMENT DE SURVIE
R U
JACKETS / GILETS DE SAUVETAGE
V E
lights during the takeoff and landing phases and when flying
below 2 000 ft AGL within terminal areas and aerodrome traffic
POLAR DESERT MARITIME JUNGLE LIGHT FLUORES
POLAIRE D…SERT MARITIME JUNGLE LAMPES FLUORES UHF VHF
S P D M J J L F U V
patterns.
DINGHIES / CANOTS
NUMBER CAPACITY COVER COLOUR
NOMBRE CAPACIT… COUVERTURE COULEUR
D C
N
REMARKS / REMARQUES
an increased level of service to the aviation community. The
AN ARRIVAL REPORT WILL BE FILED WITH - UN COMPTE RENDU D'ARRIV…E SERA NOTIFI… ¿:
class of airspace determines the controller’s responsibilities
NAME AND PHONE NUMBER OR ADDRESS OF PERSON(S) OR COMPANY TO BE NOTIFIED IF SEARCH AND RESCURE ACTION INITIATED
NOM ET NUM…RO DE T…L…PHONE OU ADRESSE DE LA (DES) PERSONNE(S) OU COMPAGNIE ¿ AVISER SI DES R…CHERCHES SONT ENTREPRISES
vis-à-vis separation between IFR and VFR aircraft, and between
C
PILOT-IN-COMMAND / PILOTE COMMANDANT DE BORD
.
PILOT'S LICENCE No./No DE LICENCE DU PILOTE
)
VFR and VFR aircraft. Control staff in certain towers will be
FILED BY/ D…POS… PAR SPACE RESERVED FOR ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS / ESPACE R…SERV… ¿ DES FINS SUPPL…MENTAIRES
able to assist aircraft in establishing visual separation through
the provision of radar vectors, radar monitoring and altitude
assignments. Use of the radar will also result in more efficient
Figure 3.3—VFR Flight Plan control of VFR aircraft.
While aircraft shall not be operated at speeds greater than
200 KIAS below 3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM of a controlled
aerodrome (CAR 602.32), there is no mandatory speed restriction
when operating in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome.
As traffic levels at some of these aerodromes may be high from
RAC
time to time, the risk of a possible mid-air collision is somewhat
elevated during these periods. For this reason, it is recommended
that pilots reduce their aircraft speed to the maximum extent
possible when operating below 3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM
of an uncontrolled aerodrome.
Incidents have occurred when aircraft are being operated VFR
within control zones, when the flight visibility is less than
three miles due to local smoke, haze, rain, snow, fog or other
condition. CAR 602.114 requires a minimum of three miles
ground visibility for VFR flight within a control zone. This
visibility is, of course, taken by a person on the ground and does
not preclude the possibility that the visibility aloft may be less.
Good airmanship requires that a pilot encountering less than
three miles flight visibility within a control zone will either:
(a) take action to avoid the area of reduced visibility; or
(b) remain clear of the area of reduced visibility and request a
special VFR clearance from ATC.
Pilots shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate tower
frequency while under control of the tower. Whenever possible,
requests for radio checks and taxi instructions should be made
225
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Radar Vectoring
Controllers apply the following wake turbulence radar separation
minima between a preceding IFR/VFR aircraft and an aircraft
vectored directly behind it and at less than 1 000 ft during any
phase of flight.
Categories, weight limits, aircraft examples and separation
criteria are indicated in the table below.
SUPER HEAVY (S) This category currently A380-800 Super Heavy behind a Super Heavy -
only applies to Airbus A380 4 mi.
aircraft with a maximum
takeoff mass of 560 000 kg.
HEAVY (H) Aircraft types weighing less B747/B777/B767 Heavy behind a Super Heavy -
than 560 000 kg but more A340A330/MD11 6 mi.
than 136 000 kg Heavy behind a Heavy -
4 mi.
5 mi.
LIGHT (L) Aircraft types weighing 7 000 C150/C152 C172/ Light behind a Super Heavy -
kg or less C182/PA38/PA2 8 mi.
226
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
CFS, and shall include procedures and requirements relating to:
To aid in the pilot’s decision, the tower controller will advise
the type and position of the wake-creating aircraft. The following (a) preferential runways;
phraseologies will be used by the controller in response to a
(b) minimum noise routes;
request for take-off clearance when wake turbulence is a
consideration: (c) hours when aircraft operations are prohibited or restricted;
Tower: NEGATIVE, HOLD SHORT WAKE TURBULENCE. (d) arrival procedures;
HEAVY BOEING 747, ROTATING AT 6 000 FT; or (e) departure procedures;
Tower: LINE UP AND WAIT, WAKE TURBULENCE, HEAVY (f) duration of flights;
DC10 AIRBORNE AT 2 MI.
(g) the prohibition or restriction of training flights;
Pilots are reminded that there are some circumstances where
(h) VFR or visual approaches;
wake turbulence separation cannot be waived.
(i) simulated approach procedures; and
(j) the minimum altitude for the operation of aircraft in the
vicinity of the aerodrome.
Transport Canada recognizes the need for analysis and
consultation in the implementation of proposed new or amended
noise abatement procedures or restrictions at airports and
aerodromes. A process has been developed that includes
consultation with all concerned parties before new or amended
227
TC AIM March 25, 2021
noise abatement procedures or restrictions can be published in In conditions where more than 25 percent of the preferential
the CAP or the CFS. When the following checklist has been runway is covered with a TRACE contaminant, the runway most
completed for the proposed noise abatement procedures or nearly aligned into the wind must be selected if:
restrictions, and the resulting analysis has been completed and
(a) the reported CRFI value in any segment of the runway is
approved by Transport Canada, the noise abatement procedure
.40 or lower;
or restriction will be published in the appropriate aeronautical
publication. (b) the crosswind component rises above 15 kt; or
(a) Description of the problem (c) a less than “good” braking action report is received from
a pilot.
(b) Proposed solution (including possible exceptions)
Although air traffic controllers may select a preferential runway
(c) Alternatives (such as alternative procedures or land uses in in accordance with the foregoing criteria, pilots are not obligated
the community) to accept the runway for taking off or landing. It remains the
(d) Costs (such as revenue impact, direct and indirect costs to pilot’s responsibility to decide if the assigned runway is
the community, airport operator and airport users) operationally acceptable.
(e) Noise impacts of the proposed solution
(f) Effects on aircraft emissions
4.1.4 Runway Protected Area
(g) Effect on current and future airport capacity Runway protected area procedures aim to ensure the runway
protected area will be free of objects, which will provide a safe
(h) Implications of not proceeding with the proposal environment during aircraft operations in the event of a runway
(i) Implementation issues (e.g. aircraft technology, availability excursion, arrival undershoot, or departure overrun by an aircraft.
of replacement aircraft, ground facilities) ATC and FSS will hold vehicles and pedestrians and ATC will
(j) Impact on the aviation system hold taxiing aircraft at published holding positions or at least
200 ft from the runway edge until an aircraft taking off or landing
(k) Safety implications
has passed the holding traffic.
(l) Air traffic management
The airport operator may designate an alternate holding position
(m) Fleet impact at a distance from the runway edge that ensures no hazard is
A complete description of the process involved is available on created for arriving or departing aircraft. The airport operator
the Internet at: <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/reference-centre/ may also permit pedestrians to operate within the runway
advisory-circulars/advisory-circular-ac-no-302-002> protected area when an aircraft is taking off or landing.
Controlled Airports
4.1.3 Preferential Runway Assignments
ATC will not clear an aircraft to take off or land if a holding
At controlled airports, when selecting preferential runways for position is transgressed. If a holding position is transgressed
noise abatement or for other reasons, air traffic controllers after a takeoff or landing clearance has been issued, ATC will
consider the runway condition, the effective crosswind component cancel the clearance, unless doing so would create a hazardous
RAC
228
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.2.1 Automatic Terminal Information Ground control: AZTEC GOLF JULIETT VICTOR HOTEL, WINNIPEG
Service (ATIS) Broadcasts GROUND, RUNWAY (number), WIND (in
magnetic degrees and knots), ALTIMETER (four-
If ATIS is available, a pilot should obtain the ATIS information digit group giving the altimeter in inches of
prior to contacting either the ground control or tower. See RAC 1.3 mercury), TAXI VIA (runway or other specific
for information on ATIS broadcasts. point, route), (other information, such as
traffic, airport conditions), (CRFI, RSC, or RVR
4.2.2 Clearance Delivery when applicable), CLEARANCE ON REQUEST.
At locations where a “clearance delivery” frequency is listed, Pilot: GOLF JULIETT VICTOR HOTEL.
IFR departures should call on this frequency, prior to requesting
Under no circumstances may a taxiing aircraft, whether
taxi authorization, normally no more than 5 minutes prior to
proceeding to or from the active runway, taxi onto an active
engine start. Where a clearance delivery frequency is not listed,
runway unless specifically authorized to do so.
the IFR clearance will normally be given after taxi authorization
has been received. At several major aerodromes, departing VFR Upon receipt of a normal taxi authorization, a pilot is expected
aircraft are required to contact “clearance delivery” before taxiing. to proceed to the taxi-holding position for the runway assigned
These frequencies, where applicable, are found in the COMM for takeoff. If a pilot is required to cross any runway while
Section of the CFS, for the appropriate aerodrome. taxiing towards the departure runway, the ground or airport
controller will issue a specific instruction to cross or hold short.
If a specific authorization to cross was not received, pilots should
4.2.3 Radio Checks
hold short and request authorization to cross the runway. Pilots
If required, radio checks should, wherever possible, be requested may be instructed to monitor the tower frequency while taxiing
on frequencies other than ATC frequencies (see COM 1.11 for or until a specific point, or they may be advised to “contact
readability scale). Normally, the establishment of two-way contact tower holding short.” The term “holding short,” when used
with an agency is sufficient to confirm that the radios are during the communications transfer, is considered as a location
functioning properly. and does not require a readback.
To emphasize the protection of active runways and to enhance
4.2.4 Requests for Push-back or Power-back the prevention of runway incursions, ATC is required to obtain
Since controllers may not be in a position to see all obstructions a readback of runway “hold” instructions. As a good operating
an aircraft may encounter during push-back or power-back, practice, taxi authorizations that contain the instructions “hold”
clearance for this manoeuvre will not be issued by the tower. or “hold short” should be acknowledged by the pilot by providing
Pilots are cautioned that it is their responsibility to ensure that a readback or repeating the hold point.
push-back or power-back can be accomplished safely prior to Examples of “hold” instructions that should be read back:
initiating aircraft movement.
HOLD or HOLD ON (runway number or taxiway);
RAC
Taxi authorization should be requested on the ground control
frequency. At locations where a “Clearance Delivery” frequency Reminder: In order to reduce frequency congestion, readback
is listed, pilots should obtain their IFR clearance or a VFR code of ATC taxi instructions, other than those listed above, is not
where applicable on this frequency prior to contacting ground required in accordance with CAR 602.31(1)(a); such instructions
control. Where no “Clearance Delivery” frequency is listed, the are simply acknowledged. With the increased simultaneous use
IFR clearance will normally be relayed by ground control before of more than one runway, however, instructions to enter, cross,
or after taxi authorization has been issued. If no flight plan has backtrack or line up on any runway should also, as a good
been filed, the pilot should inform the tower “Clearance Delivery”, operating practice, be acknowledged by a readback.
where available, or ground control of the nature of the flight on
initial contact, such as “local VFR” or “proceeding VFR to Example:
(destination)”. An aircraft is authorized to backtrack a runway to the holding
bay and to report clear when in the holding bay.
Pilot: WINNIPEG GROUND, AZTEC GOLF JULIETT VICTOR HOTEL
AT HANGAR NUMBER THREE, REQUEST TAXI–IFR Pilot: CHARLIE FOXTROT ALFA BACKTRACKING RUNWAY TWO
EDMONTON EIGHT THOUSAND. FIVE AND WILL REPORT IN THE HOLDING BAY.
NOTE:
To avoid causing clutter on controllers’ radar displays, pilots
should adjust their transponders to “STANDBY” while taxiing
and should not switch them to “ON” (or “NORMAL”) until
immediately before takeoff.
229
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The tower may instruct aircraft to “line up and wait.” Controllers 4.2.8 Take-off Clearance
will issue the name of the runway intersection or taxiway with
the authorization if the line-up position is not at the threshold When ready for takeoff, the pilot shall request a take-off clearance
of the departing runway. When more than one entry point for and should include the runway number. Upon receipt of the
the same runway is in use, ATC will also specify the runway take-off clearance, the pilot shall acknowledge it and take off
entry point with the instruction to line up at the threshold. without delay, or inform ATC if unable to do so.
Example:
4.2.6 Taxi Holding Positions Pilot: TOWER, JULIETT GOLF TANGO READY FOR DEPARTURE,
Authorization must be obtained before leaving a taxi holding RUNWAY THREE SIX.
position, or where a holding position marking is not visible or Tower: JULIETT GOLF TANGO, (any special information such as
has not been established, before proceeding closer than 200 feet hazards, obstructions, turn after takeoff, wind
from the edge of the runway in use. At airports where it is not information if required, etc.), CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF
possible to comply with this provision, taxiing aircraft are to RUNWAY THREE SIX (or JULIETT GOLF TANGO, FROM
remain at a sufficient distance from the runway in use to ensure GOLF, CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF RUNWAY THREE SIX).
that a hazard is not created to arriving or departing aircraft.
Pilot: JULIETT GOLF TANGO.
4.2.7 Taxiway Holding Positions During Pilots may request to use the full length of the runway for takeoff
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Operations at any time. If the runway is to be entered at an intersection and
back tracking is required, pilots should indicate their intentions
It is imperative that aircraft do not proceed beyond taxiway and obtain a clearance for the manoeuvre before entering the
holding signs at controlled airports until cleared by ATC. Aircraft runway.
proceeding beyond the taxiway holding position signs may enter
electronically sensitive areas and cause dangerous interference Pilots may request, or the controller may suggest, takeoff using
to the glide path or localizer signals. In Canada, holding position only part of a runway. The pilot’s request will be approved,
signs and holding position markings normally indicate the provided noise abatement procedures, traffic, and other conditions
boundaries of electronically sensitive areas, and provide safe permit. If suggested by the controller, the available length of the
obstruction clearance distances from landing runways. runway will be stated. It is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure
that the portion of the runway to be used will be adequate for
When a controlled airport is operating under CAT II/III weather the take-off run.
conditions, or its CAT II/III operations plan is in effect, pilots
are to observe CAT II or III mandatory holding position signs. To expedite movement of airport traffic and achieve spacing
When a controlled airport is not operating under CAT II/III between arriving and departing aircraft, take-off clearance may
weather conditions, or its LVOP is not in effect, pilots need not include the word “immediate.” In such cases, “immediate” is
abide by the CAT II or III taxiway holding positions and are used for the purpose of air traffic separation. On acceptance of
expected to taxi to the normal taxiway holding position markings, the clearance, the aircraft shall taxi onto the runway and take
unless advised otherwise by ATC. off in one continuous movement. If, in the pilot’s opinion,
compliance would adversely affect their operations, the pilot
At uncontrolled aerodromes, pilots awaiting takeoff should not should refuse the clearance. Pilots planning a static takeoff (i.e.
RAC
proceed beyond the holding position signs or holding position a full stop after “lined up” on the runway), or a delay in takeoff,
markings until there is no risk of collision with landing, taxiing should indicate this when requesting take-off clearance. ATC
or departing aircraft. will specify the name of the taxiway or intersection with the
clearance for takeoff from a taxiway or runway intersection.
4.2.7.1 Glide Path Signal Protection Procedures When more than one entry point for the same runway is in use,
ATC will also specify the threshold as the point from which the
The ILS signal will only be protected under the conditions
take-off run will commence for those aircraft departing from
described below.
the threshold. A controller may not issue a clearance that would
A controller will protect the glide path signal when: result in a deviation from established noise abatement procedures
or wake turbulence separation minima.
(a) The ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or visibility is less than
three miles, or both; and
(b) The arriving aircraft is inside the FAF on an ILS approach.
NOTE:
At uncontrolled aerodromes, aircraft manoeuvring on the ground
may enter ILS critical areas during taxi, takeoff or landing.
230
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.2.8.1 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Phraseology When a An aircraft should remain at least 200 ft from the edge of any
Runway Is Temporarily Shortened Due to runway where holding position markings or signs are not visible
Construction or have not been established unless a clearance for takeoff or to
cross the runway has been received.
Whenever the length of a runway has been temporarily shortened
due to construction, tower controllers will use the word When stopped by a red light, a pilot must wait for a further
“shortened” immediately following the runway number for all clearance before proceeding.
line-up and take-off clearances. When ready for takeoff by day, the pilot may attract the attention
of the airport controller by turning the aircraft toward the tower.
NOTE:
These changes do not transfer pilot responsibility to the controller, Acknowledgement of Visual Signals – pilot shall, where
but they do ensure that changes in runway length due to practical, acknowledge all clearances and instructions received
construction are communicated as an additional layer of safety. by visual signals by day, by full movement of rudder or ailerons,
whichever can be seen most easily (such movement should be
Example: repeated at least three times in succession), or by taxiing the
Tower Line up Clearance: GOLF JULIET ECHO TANGO LINE UP aircraft to the authorized position.
RUNWAY ONE-SIX SHORTENED
4.2.11 Visual Signals
4.2.8.2 Clearance for Aborting a Takeoff Visual signals used by the tower and their meanings are as follows:
Aborting a takeoff is an emergency procedure used by a pilot
when continuing the takeoff would present a grave hazard to Table 4.2—Visuals Signals to Aircraft on the Ground
the aircraft. A controller-initiated aborted takeoff is an extreme
measure used only where no clear alternative exists. 1 SERIES OF GREEN FLASHES Cleared to taxi.
Example:
2 STEADY GREEN LIGHT Cleared for takeoff.
Tower: ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE, ABORT ABORT. ALPHA BRAVO
CHARLIE, ABORT ABORT (reason) Taxi clear of landing area
3 SERIES OF RED FLASHES
in use.
4 STEADY RED LIGHT Stop.
4.2.9 Release from Tower Frequency
Return to starting point
Unless otherwise advised by ATC, pilots do not require permission 5 FLASHING WHITE LIGHT
on airport.
to change from tower frequency once clear of the control zone Advises vehicles and
and should not request release from this frequency or report 6 BLINKING RUNWAY LIGHTS pedestrians to vacate
clear of the zone when there is considerable frequency congestion. runways immediately.
When practicable, it is recommended that a pilot of a departing
aircraft monitor tower frequency until 10 NM from the control 4.2.12 Departure Procedures – Receiver
zone.
Only (RONLY) Aircraft
RAC
VFR flights will not normally be released from tower frequency
The procedures which apply to aircraft without radio also apply
while operating within the control zone. Once outside control
to aircraft equipped with receiver only, except that an airport
zones, or when departing from an uncontrolled aerodrome where
controller may request the pilot to acknowledge a transmission
an MF has been assigned, beyond the range within which MF
in a specific manner. After the initial acknowledgement, no
procedures apply, pilots should monitor frequency 126.7 MHz.
further acknowledgement, other than compliance with clearances
and instructions, is necessary, unless otherwise requested by
4.2.10 Departure Procedures - No Radio (NORDO) the controller.
Aircraft
Before proceeding to any portion of the manoeuvring area of a 4.3 trAffic circuitS —
controlled airport, it is the pilot’s responsibility to inform the
control tower of his/her intentions and make appropriate
controlleD AeroDromeS
arrangements for visual signals. The following procedures apply to all aerodromes at which a
control tower is in operation.
NOTE:
Before operating within a control zone with Class C airspace, The traffic circuit consists of the crosswind leg, downwind leg,
a clearance shall be obtained from the control tower. base leg and final approach leg.
231
TC AIM March 25, 2021
active runway when joining the circuit (see Figure 4.1). Flights right-hand base leg, as cleared by the airport controller.
which are not in communication with the tower shall, at all times,
be on the alert for visual signals. Pilots are reminded that below Pilot: KELOWNA TOWER, CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO
3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM of a controlled aerodrome, CHARLIE, ONE FIVE MILES NORTH, SIX THOUSAND FIVE
aircraft shall not be operated at speeds greater than 200 KIAS. HUNDRED FEET VFR, REQUEST LANDING INSTRUCTIONS.
However, where the minimum safe speed of the aircraft is greater Tower: CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, KELOWNA
than 200 KIAS, the aircraft may be operated at the minimum TOWER, RUNWAY (number), WIND (direction in degrees
safe speed (CAR 602.32). magnetic, speed in knots), ALTIMETER (4-digit group
in inches), (other pertinent instructions or information
if deemed necessary), CLEARED TO THE CIRCUIT or
4.4 ArrivAl ProceDureS — CLEARED TO LEFT BASE LEG or CLEARED STRAIGHT-IN
controlleD AirPortS APPROACH.
If ATIS is available, all arrivals shall monitor this frequency to Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE.
obtain the basic aerodrome information prior to contacting the
tower. (See RAC 1.3 for ATIS information and refer to RAC 5.8
for arrival procedures in Class C airspace, other than a
control zone.)
232
TC AIM March 25, 2021
When a pilot has received current landing information from the 4.4.3 Landing Clearance
tower or the ATIS broadcast, initial clearance may be requested
as follows: At controlled airports, a pilot must obtain landing clearance
prior to landing. Normally, the airport controller will initiate
Pilot: VICTORIA TOWER, CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO landing clearance without having first received the request from
CHARLIE (aircraft position), ALTITUDE, CHECK LANDING the aircraft; however, should this not occur, the onus remains
INFORMATION (or) WITH INFORMATION (ATIS code). upon the pilot to request such clearance in sufficient time to
REQUEST CLEARANCE TO THE CIRCUIT (or other type of accommodate the operating characteristics of the aircraft being
approach). flown. NORDO and RONLY aircraft should be considered as
Once established in the circuit as cleared, the pilot is to advise intending to land when they join and conform to the traffic
the tower accordingly. circuit. Landing clearance will normally be given when an
aircraft is on final approach. If landing clearance is not received,
Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE DOWNWIND. the pilot should, except in case of emergency, pull up and make
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE NUMBER (approach sequence another circuit.
number). If not Number 1, the tower will give the type, Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE LANDING CLEARANCE
position and colour if significant, of aircraft to follow RUNWAY TWO SIX.
and other instructions or information.
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, CLEARED TO LAND RUNWAY TWO
Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE. SIX.
Common ATC Phraseologies: Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE.
FOLLOW (aircraft type) NOW ON BASE LEG. Controllers may, on occasion, authorize ground traffic to cross
EXTEND DOWNWIND. the landing runway after a landing clearance has been issued.
Any such authorization by ATC is given with the assurance that
WIDEN APPROACH. the runway will be clear of conflicting traffic at the time the
arriving aircraft crosses the landing threshold. When it appears
VFR Holding Procedures that the runway may not be clear for landing, the pilot will be
When it is required by traffic, VFR flights may be asked to advised to “CONTINUE APPROACH, POSSIBLE PULL-UP.”
ORBIT visually over a geographic location, VFR checkpoint or When a “pull-up” is necessary (before or after the landing
call-up point (when these are published in the CFS or VTA clearance has been issued), the pilot shall abandon the approach
charts) until they can be cleared to the airport. If the request and make another circuit.
is not acceptable, pilots should inform ATC and state Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, TRAFFIC STILL ON RUNWAY, PULL
their intentions. UP AND GO AROUND.
Pilot: TORONTO TOWER, CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO Common ATC Phraseologies:
CHARLIE, OVER PORT CREDIT AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE
HUNDRED FEET WITH INFORMATION ROMEO. CAUTION, POSSIBLE TURBULENCE FROM LANDING
(aircraft type and position).
Tower: CESSNA FOXTROT ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, TORONTO
RAC
TOWER, ORBIT THE FOUR STACKS, ANTICIPATE A FIVE MAKE LEFT/RIGHT THREE SIX ZERO.
MINUTE DELAY, TRAFFIC IS A CESSNA ONE SEVEN TWO MAKE FULL-STOP LANDING.
OVER THE FOUR STACKS, LAST REPORTED AT TWO
THOUSAND FEET. CONTACT TOWER/GROUND ON (frequency) WHEN OFF
RUNWAY/ NOW.
The pilot is expected to proceed to the FOUR STACKS, orbit
within visual contact of the checkpoint and be prepared to proceed The “cleared for the option” procedure has been introduced to
to the airport immediately upon receipt of a further clearance. give a pilot the option to make touch-and-gos, low approach,
Left turns are recommended as terrain and collision avoidance missed approach, stop-and-go, or a full stop landing. This
are the pilot’s responsibilities. procedure will normally be used during light traffic conditions.
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, REPORT LEFT BASE FOR Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, DOWNWIND RUNWAY
RUNWAY TWO FOUR LEFT. CLEARED TO THE CIRCUIT. TWO SEVEN, REQUEST THE OPTIOn.
Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE DEPARTING THE FOUR STACKS Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, CLEARED FOR THE OPTION
AT THIS TIME, WILL REPORT LEFT BASE TO RUNWAY TWO RUNWAY TWO SEVEN.
FOUR LEFT; or
Pilot: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE
233
TC AIM March 25, 2021
A clearance for multiple touch-and-gos permits the pilot to clearing landing runways onto taxiways or other runways, pilots
perform more than one touch-and-go during a single pass along should exercise good airmanship by continuing to taxi well clear
the runway without stopping. The procedure is intended for of the hold position while contacting ground control to obtain
student pilots training with an instructor and will only be taxi clearance. This is to prevent aircraft from blocking a runway
authorized during light traffic conditions. exit to following aircraft. If unable to establish contact with
ground control, pilots should stop and not cross any runway
Pilot: TOWER, ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, DOWNWIND RUNWAY
without receiving ATC authorization.
TWO SEVEN, REQUEST MULTIPLE TOUCH-AND-GOS.
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE (instructions for leaving runway),
Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, CLEARED MULTIPLE TOUCH-AND-
CONTACT GROUND (specific frequency).
GOS, RUNWAY TWO SEVEN.
Towers will normally provide the aircraft down time only when
4.4.3.1 Air Traffic Control (ATC) Phraseology When a requested by the pilot.
Runway Is Temporarily Shortened Due to Normally, aircraft will not be changed to ground control until
Construction off the active runway or runways.
Whenever the length of a runway has been temporarily shortened Tower: ALFA BRAVO CHARLIE, TAXI TO (apron or parking area)
due to construction, tower controllers will use the word (any special instructions such as routing, traffic,
“shortened” immediately after the runway number on initial cautionary or warning regarding construction or repair
contact with arrivals and for all landing clearances. on the manoeuvring areas).
4.4.6 Arrival Procedures – Receiver (b) Should the communications failure occur while operating
Only (RONLY) Aircraft outside of Class B, C, or D airspace precluding the pilot
from obtaining the appropriate clearance to enter or
The procedures which apply to aircraft without radio also apply establishing radio contact, and if no nearby suitable
to aircraft equipped with receiver only, except that an airport aerodrome is available, the pilot may enter the Class B, C
controller may request the pilot to acknowledge a transmission or D airspace, continue under VFR, and shall carry out the
in a specified manner. After initial acknowledgement, no further remaining procedures listed in (a).
acknowledgement other than compliance with clearances and
instructions is necessary, unless otherwise requested by the (c) Should the communications failure occur and there is a
controller. suitable aerodrome nearby at which the pilot wishes to land,
it is recommended that the pilot comply with the established
NORDO arrival procedure outlined in RAC 4.4.5.
4.4.7 Visual Signals
(d) Pilots operating VFR in either Class E or G airspace may
Visual signals used by the tower and their meanings are follow the procedures in (a) even though there is no intention
as follows: to enter Class B, C, or D airspace.
RAC
(a) distinct rocking of aircraft in flight; (C) completed its landing roll and turned off
the runway.
(b) at night, by a single flash of a landing light.
Figure 4.2—Arriving Aircraft
4.4.8 Communications Failure - Visual Flight
Rules (VFR)
(a) CAR 602.138 specifies that where there is a two-way radio
communication failure between the controlling air traffic
control unit and a VFR aircraft while operating in Class B,
Class C or Class D airspace, the pilot-in-command shall:
(i) leave the airspace
(A) where the airspace is a control zone, by landing
at the aerodrome for which the control zone is
established, and
(B) in any other case, by the shortest route;
(ii) where the aircraft is equipped with a transponder,
set the transponder to Code 7600; and
(iii) inform an air traffic control unit as soon as possible
of the actions taken pursuant to (i).
235
TC AIM March 25, 2021
For a departing aircraft (Figure 4.3) the sequential conditions water is visible from the tower or reported by a competent
are listed below: person. In order to accommodate small accumulations of
(i) the preceding departing aircraft ice or snow at the runway edge during winter operations,
(A) has passed the intersection; or only the centre 100 ft of the runway must be bare.);
(B) is airborne and has turned to avoid any conflict. (d) a tailwind of less than five knots is acceptable for normal
(ii) the preceding arriving aircraft has LAHSO on both dry and wet runway operations. The
(A) passed the intersection; maximum allowable crosswind component for dry runways
(B) completed its landing roll and will hold short is 25 kt and 15 kt for LAHSO. Controllers will not initiate
of the intersection (i.e. is stopped or at taxi or approve a request for LAHSO on any runway when
speed); or crosswinds on that runway exceed the maximum;
(C) completed its landing roll and turned off
(e) ATC must include specific directions to hold short of an
the runway.
intersecting runway (e.g. “cleared to land Runway 27, hold
Figure 4.3—Departing Aircraft short of Runway 36”). Pilots, in accepting the clearance, must
read back “cleared to land Runway 27, hold short of
Runway 36.” Having accepted the hold-short clearance, pilots
are obligated to remain 200 ft short of the closest edge of the
runway being intersected. If, for any reason, a pilot is unsure
of being able to comply with a hold-short clearance, the pilot
must advise ATC immediately of non-acceptance of the
clearance; it is far better to be safe than sorry;
(f) the lines are the same as taxiway exit and holding markings.
These lines shall be located on the runway 90º to the hold-
short runway centreline, 200 ft short of the nearest edge of
the runway being intersected. Red and white mandatory
instruction signs, illuminated for night LAHSO, shall be
located at either end of the lines. More details on lines can be
found in Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices
(TP 312E); and
(g) for tactical ATC reasons, controllers may offer or approve
(b) Simultaneous Operations: Simultaneous operations differ
a pilot request for the use of a dry runway for landing with
from sequential operations in the application of ATC
a tailwind not exceeding ten knots. LAHSO will not be
procedures. The procedures for simultaneous use of
authorized on wet runways if the tailwinds are five knots
intersecting runways are applied only between two arrivals
or more.
or an arrival and a departure. Air traffic controllers will
permit an arriving aircraft to cross the runway threshold NOTE:
or a departing aircraft to begin its takeoff roll provided one LAHSO are not authorized if thunderstorms, turbulence, wind
RAC
of the aircraft has accepted a clearance to land and hold shear or other conditions exist that would adversely affect the
short of the intersecting runways (Figure 4.4). These restricted aircraft’s ability to hold short after landing.
operations are known as land and hold short operations
(LAHSO).
Figure 4.4—Aircraft with Hold–short Clearance
General
LAHSO may be carried out under the following conditions:
(a) the LDA, measured from the threshold or displaced threshold
to 200 ft short of the nearest edge of the runway being
intersected must be published in the CAP and in the CFS.
ATC shall also broadcast LAHSO advisories, including
LDAs, through an ATIS or voice advisory, well in advance
of the final approach descent;
(b) the weather minima of a 1 000-ft ceiling and visibility of
three statute miles are required. In specific cases, these
criteria may be reduced by the Regional Director, Civil
Aviation, but only with a written agreement between ATC
and the operator;
(c) the reported braking action must be not less than good. The
runway must be bare. (No snow, slush, ice, frost, or standing
236
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTE:
During sequential and/or simultaneous operations, ATC
procedures and pilot compliance with clearance conditions
will ensure aircraft separation (i.e. spacing between aircraft).
Notwithstanding this, conflicts between aircraft may occur,
particularly at runway intersections, if a pilot does not comply
with a clearance or is unable to comply as a result of unforeseen
circumstances, such as missed approaches, misjudged landings,
balked landings or brake failures. In these circumstances,
ATC will endeavour to provide traffic advisories and/or
Wet Runways instructions to assist pilots with collision avoidance.
The following conditions are applicable for wet runway operations:
(a) no Group 6 aircraft shall be instructed to hold short of an 4.4.10 High Intensity Runway Operations (HIRO)
intersecting runway; Several of Canada’s airports rank among North America’s busiest
(b) stopping distances for Group 1, 2 and 3 aircraft are increased in total aircraft movements. HIRO, as a concept, have evolved
by 15% (see Note); and from procedures developed by high density terminals in North
America and Europe. It is intended to increase operational
(c) the coefficient of friction on LAHSO runways must meet efficiency and maximize the capacity at those airports where it
a minimum standard. The coefficient of friction will be is employed through the use of disciplined procedures applied
measured in accordance with Airport Pavement Evaluation— by both pilots and air traffic controllers. HIRO is intended to
Surface Friction (AK-68-35-000/TP 3716); only those minimize the occurrence of overshoots that result from slow-
runways with average coefficients of friction above 0.6 will rolling and/or slow-clearing aircraft and offers the prospective
be approved for wet runway LAHSO. of reducing delays overall, both on the ground and in the air. In
its fullest application, HIRO enables ATC to apply minimum
NOTE:
spacing to aircraft on final approach to achieve maximum runway
Aircraft are categorized into groups requiring the following
RAC
utilization.
stopping distances:
The tactical objective of HIRO is to minimize runway occupancy
Table 4.4—Stopping Distances on Dry and times (ROT) for both arriving and departing aircraft, consistent
Wet Runways per Aircraft Group with both safety and passenger comfort. Effective participation
in HIRO results when the pilot of an arriving aircraft exits the
— Dry Runway Wet Runway runway expeditiously, allowing the following arriving aircraft
to cross the threshold with a minimum time interval. In the case
Group 1 1 650 ft 1 900 ft of an arrival and a subsequent departure, the arriving pilot clears
Group 2 3 000 ft 3 500 ft the runway in a minimum ROT, permitting a departure before
the next arrival crosses the threshold. The air traffic controller’s
Group 3 4 500 ft 5 200 ft
objective in HIRO is to optimize approach spacing. This can be
Group 4 6 000 ft 6 000 ft best achieved when pilots reach and adhere to assigned speeds
Group 5 8 000 ft 8 000 ft as soon as practicable.
the aircraft leaves the runway as expeditiously as possible under the heading COMM. Normally, the MF area is a circle
at the nominated exit. with a 5-NM radius capped at 3 000 ft AAE.
(b) The expected runway exit point to achieve minimum ROT At uncontrolled aerodromes without a published MF or ATF,
should be nominated during approach briefing. It is better, the common frequency for the broadcast of aircraft position and
in terms of ROT, to select an exit you know you can make, the intentions of pilots flying in the vicinity of that aerodrome
rather than choose an earlier one, miss it, and then roll is 123.2 MHz.
slowly to the next available exit.
At aerodromes within an MF area, traffic information may be
(c) Upon landing, pilots should exit the runway without delay. exchanged by communicating with an FSS, CARS, UNICOM
(d) High-speed exits have specific maximum design speeds. operator, vehicle operator, or by a broadcast transmission. The
These speeds may be available through the appropriate VCS in conjunction with AAS is normally provided at aerodromes
airport authority. served by an FSS. Some uncontrolled aerodromes are indirectly
served by an FSS through an RCO and may provide RAAS. As
Key elements for departures: flight service specialists may be located some distance from an
aerodrome, it is essential that they be kept fully informed of
(a) On receipt of a line-up clearance, pilots should ensure that
both aircraft and vehicle activity.
they are able to line up on the runway as soon as the preceding
aircraft has commenced its takeoff roll. Other aerodromes are designated as having an ATF. At some
(b) ATC will expect aircraft to enter the runway at a suitable aerodromes with a control tower or FSS, an ATF is designated
angle to quickly line-up on the centreline and, when possible, for use when the air traffic facility is closed. If a radio-equipped
continue in to a rolling takeoff when cleared. Pilots should vehicle is present at ATF aerodromes, pilots can contact the
ensure that they are able to commence the takeoff roll vehicle operator directly on the ATF to ascertain that no vehicle-
immediately when a takeoff clearance is issued. aircraft conflict exists. Operators of such radio-equipped vehicles
will also provide pilots with any other available information on
(c) Aircraft that need to enter the runway at right angles, to runway status and presence of other aircraft or vehicles on the
backtrack, or to use the full length of the runway will require runway.
extra time on the runway. Therefore, pilots should notify ATC
before arriving at the holding area so that the controller can There are some remote airports where a voice generator module
re-sequence departures to provide the extra time. (VGM) connected to an AWOS (or LWIS) continuously broadcasts
weather information. An AWOS (or LWIS) broadcasts weather
(d) Cockpit checks should be completed prior to line-up, and information that may differ from the aerodrome routine
any checks requiring completion on the runway should be meteorological report (METAR) or aviation selected special
kept to a minimum. If extra time is required on the runway, weather report (SPECI) issued for the location. There may also
ATC should be informed before the aircraft arrives at the be significant differences between broadcasts only a few minutes
holding area so that the controller can re-sequence departures apart. Transport Canada recognizes that for any given site at
to provide the extra time. any given time there can be only one official weather observation
(METAR or SPECI), whether from a human observer or an
4.5 AircrAft oPerAtionS— automated station. As a result, it has been determined that
although an AWOS (or LWIS) broadcast constitutes an additional
RAC
238
TC AIM March 25, 2021
since IFR or SVFR authorization would then be required to operation of the aircraft, and another runway may
operate within the control zone. Pilots will also be advised of be used if it is determined to be necessary in the
any other significant weather conditions reported in current interest of safety.
METAR, SPECI, SIGMET, AIRMET or PIREP, as appropriate, (ii) Unless otherwise specified or required by the
which may affect the safety of the flight. The flight service applicable distance-from-cloud criteria, aircraft
specialist will provide, upon request, the complete current should approach the traffic circuit from the upwind
METAR or SPECI for the location. side. Alternatively, once the pilot has ascertained
without any doubt that there will be no conflict with
4.5.2 Traffic Circuit Procedures — other traffic entering the circuit or established within
Uncontrolled Aerodromes it, the pilot may also join the circuit on the downwind
leg (Figure 4.6). When joining from the upwind side,
The following procedures apply to all aircraft operating at the pilot should plan the descent to cross the runway
aerodromes where airport control service is not provided except in level flight at 1 000 ft AAE or at the published
those aircraft following a standard instrument approach circuit altitude and maintain that altitude until further
procedure. For procedures that apply to aircraft on a standard descent is required for landing.
instrument approach, refer to RAC 9.0. Prior to joining a traffic (iii) If it is necessary for an aircraft to cross the airport
circuit, all pilots should announce their intentions (see RAC 4.5.6). before joining the circuit, it is recommended that
All turns shall be to the left while operating in the circuit, unless the crossover be accomplished at least 500 ft above
a right-hand circuit has been specified in the CFS. the circuit altitude.
Pilots operating aircraft under IFR or VFR are expected to (iv) All descents should be made on the upwind side or
approach and land on the active runway. The active runway is well clear of the circuit pattern.
a runway that other aircraft are using or are intending to use for (v) For aerodromes not within an MF area: Where no
the purpose of landing or taking off. Should it be necessary for MF procedures are in effect, aircraft should approach
aircraft to approach to, land on, or take off from a runway other the traffic circuit from the upwind side. Alternatively,
than the active runway, it is expected that the appropriate once the pilot has ascertained without any doubt
communication between pilots and the ground station will take that there will be no conflict with other traffic
place to ensure there is no conflict with other traffic. Some pilots entering the circuit or established within it, the pilot
operating under VFR at many sites prefer to give commercial may join the circuit on the downwind leg (Figure 4.6).
IFR and larger type of aircraft priority. This practice, however, (vi) For aerodromes within an MF area when airport
is a personal airmanship courtesy, and it should be noted that advisory information is available: Aircraft may join
these aircraft do not establish any priority over other aircraft the circuit pattern straight-in or at a 45˚ angle to the
operating VFR at that aerodrome. downwind leg or straight-in to the base or final legs
(Figure 4.1). Pilots should be alert both to other
Figure 4.6—Standard Left-Hand Circuit Pattern VFR traffic entering the circuit at these positions
and to IFR straight-in or circling approaches.
(vii) For aerodromes within an MF area when airport
advisory information is not available: Aircraft should
RAC
normally approach the traffic circuit from the upwind
side. Alternatively, once the pilot has ascertained
without any doubt that there will be no conflict with
other traffic entering the circuit or established within
it, the pilot may join the circuit on the downwind
leg (Figure 4.6), or as in subparagraph (vi) above.
NOTE:
When an uncontrolled aerodrome lies within an MF area, the
pilot must follow the MF reporting procedures set out in
CAR 602.97 to 602.103, inclusive. (See RAC 4.5.4 and 4.5.7.)
NOTES: (b) Continuous Circuits: Aircraft performing a series of circuits
1. The circuit is normally flown at 1 000 ft AAE. and landings should, after each takeoff, reach circuit altitude
before joining the downwind leg.
2. If a right-hand circuit is required in accordance with
CAR 602.96, the opposite of this diagram is applicable. (c) Departing the Circuit or Airport: Aircraft departing the
circuit or airport should climb straight ahead on the runway
(a) Joining the Circuit heading up to the circuit traffic altitude before commencing
(i) Landing and takeoff should be accomplished on the a turn in any direction to an en route heading. A turn back
runway pointing as directly into the wind as possible, toward the circuit or airport should not be initiated until
or on a runway parallel to it. However, the pilot has the aircraft is at least 500 ft above the circuit altitude.
the final authority and is responsible for the safe
239
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.5.3 Helicopter Operations (b) position of other aircraft on the manoeuvring area; and
Pilots of helicopters at uncontrolled aerodromes are urged to avoid (c) runway condition, if known.
air taxiing or low flying across runways and taxiway areas where The specific frequency, distance and altitude within which use
risk of collision with unseen aircraft or vehicles exists. of the ATF is required will be published in the CFS.
In addition to maintaining a sharp look-out and practising good Example:
airmanship, generally, pilots should avoid ground or air taxiing
ATF – tfc 123.2 5 NM 5500 ASL
and hovering where blown dust, sand or gravel could prove
hazardous to other aircraft, or when debris could be blown onto Personnel providing Approach UNICOM service, can also advise
paved surfaces. pilots on the ATF of the runway condition and position of vehicles
or aircraft on the manoeuvring area.
4.5.4 Mandatory Frequency (MF)
NOTE:
Transport Canada has designated a Mandatory Frequency (MF) Pilots may be able to communicate with either the UNICOM or
for use at selected uncontrolled aerodromes, or aerodromes that the vehicle operator if radio-equipped, and coordinate their
are uncontrolled between certain hours. Aircraft operating within arrival or departure while using normal vigilance to ensure safe
the area in which the MF is applicable (MF area), on the ground operations. When communications cannot be established (no
or in the air, shall be equipped with a functioning radio capable reply or NORDO) or the status of the runway is unknown, it is
of maintaining two-way communication. Reporting procedures the pilot’s responsibility to visually ascertain the runway condition
shall be followed, as specified in CARs 602.97 to 602.103 before landing or taking off.
inclusive.
The designation of an ATF is not limited to aerodromes only.
An MF area will be established at an aerodrome if the traffic
An ATF may also be designated for use in certain areas—other
volume and mix of aircraft traffic at that aerodrome is such that
than the area immediately surrounding an aerodrome—where
there would be a safety benefit derived from implementing MF
VFR traffic activity is high, and there is a safety benefit to
procedures. There may or may not be a ground station in operation
ensuring that all traffic monitor the same frequency. For example,
at the aerodrome for which the MF area has been established.
an ATF area could be established along a frequently flown
When a ground station is in operation, for example, an FSS, an
corridor between two uncontrolled aerodromes. All aircraft
RCO through which RAAS is provided, a CARS, or an Approach
operating within the area, below a certain altitude, would be
UNICOM, then all aircraft reports that are required for operating
requested to monitor and report intentions on one frequency.
within, and prior to entering an MF area, shall be directed to
When such an area is designated, it will be specified in an AIP
the ground station. However, when the ground station is not in
Canada (ICAO) Supplement or in the CFS.
operation, then all aircraft reports that are required for operating
within and prior to entering an MF area shall be broadcast. The
MF will normally be the frequency of the ground station which 4.5.6 Use of Mandatory Frequency (MF) and
provides the air traffic advisory services for the aerodrome. For Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF)
the aerodromes with an MF, the specific frequency, distance When operating in accordance with VFR, or in accordance with
and altitude within which MF procedures apply will be published IFR but in VMC, pilots have sole responsibility for seeing and
RAC
in the CFS. avoiding other aircraft. Aural and visual alertness are required
Examples: to enhance safety of flight in the vicinity of uncontrolled
aerodromes. At uncontrolled aerodromes for which an MF or
MF—rdo 122.2 5 NM 3100 ASL
ATF has been designated, certain reports shall be made by all
MF—UNICOM (AU) ltd hrs O/T tfc 122.75 5 NM 3100 ASL radio-equipped aircraft.
NOTE:
4.5.5 Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF) Pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace or VFR
An Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF) is normally designated on an airway should continuously monitor 126.7 MHz when not
for active uncontrolled aerodromes that do not meet the criteria communicating on the MF or ATF.
listed in RAC 4.5.4 for an MF. The ATF is established to ensure
that all radio-equipped aircraft operating on the ground or within Reports on either the MF or ATF have three formats:
the area are listening on a common frequency and following (a) a directed transmission made to a ground station;
common reporting procedures. The ATF will normally be the
(b) a directed transmission made to a vehicle operator on the
frequency of the UNICOM where one exists or 123.2 MHz
ATF; or
where a UNICOM does not exist. Trained vehicle operators who
possess a valid radiotelephone licence and authorized to do so, (c) a broadcast transmission that is not directed to any particular
can communicate with pilots using two-way communication on receiving station.
the ATF and provide information such as: Whenever the CFS indicates that reports are to be made to a
(a) position of vehicles on the manoeuvring area; ground station, the initial transmission should be made to the
station. To assist in reducing frequency congestion, pilots are
240
TC AIM March 25, 2021
encouraged to use the phrase “HAVE NUMBERS” on the initial another aircraft or a vehicle during takeoff;
call to a ground station (arrival or departure) to indicate that and,
they have received runway, wind and altimeter information from (C) After takeoff, report departing from the
the previous aerodrome advisory. When operating outside an aerodrome traffic circuit, and maintain a
MF area, and when frequency congestion prevents pilots from listening watch on the MF or ATF frequency
making their mandatory calls, it is their responsibility to remain until clear of the area.
clear of the MF area until contact can be established with the (iv) Arrival (CAR 602.101)
FSS. If operating inside an MF area, the pilot should continue (A) Report before entering the MF area and, where
as stated in previous radio transmissions. circumstances permit, shall do so at least
Pilot: FREDERICTON RADIO, PIPER FOXTROT X-RAY YANKEE five minutes before entering the area, giving
ZULU. WE HAVE THE NUMBERS, SIX MILES SOUTHWEST the aircraft’s position, altitude and estimated
AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED VFR. INBOUND time of landing and the pilot-in-command’s
FOR LANDING. arrival procedure intentions;
(B) Report when joining the aerodrome traffic
Should there be no acknowledgement of a directed transmission circuit, giving the aircraft’s position in the
to a ground station or a vehicle operator, reports shall be made in circuit;
the broadcast format unless the ground station or vehicle operator (C) Report when on downwind leg, if applicable;
subsequently establishes two-way contact, in which case pilots (D) Report when on final approach; and
shall resume communicating by directed transmission. (E) Report when clear of the surface on which the
Examples: aircraft has landed.
(v) Continuous Circuits (CAR 602.102)
Directed: FREDERICTON RADIO, THIS IS PIPER FOXTROT X-RAY (A) Report when joining the downwind leg of
YANKEE ZULU BEACON INBOUND LANDING RUNWAY the circuit;
EIGHTEEN.
(B) Report when on final approach; stating the
or, pilot-in-command’s intentions; and,
FREDERICTION VEHICLES, THIS IS PIPER FOXTROT (C) Report when clear of the surface on which the
X-RAY YANKEE ZULU… aircraft has landed.
(vi) Flying Through an MF Area (CAR 602.103)
Broadcast: FREDERICTON TRAFFIC, THIS IS PIPER FOXTROT X-RAY
YANKEE ZULU… (A) Report before entering the MF or ATF area
and, where circumstances permit, shall do so
4.5.7 Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Communication at least five minutes before entering the area,
Procedures at Uncontrolled Aerodromes giving the aircraft’s position and altitude and
with Mandatory Frequency (MF) and the pilot-in-command’s intentions; and,
Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF) Areas (B) Report when clear of the MF or ATF area.
RAC
shall be followed by the pilot-in-command of radio-equipped In the interest of minimizing possible conflict with local traffic
aircraft at uncontrolled aerodromes within an MF area and and minimizing radio congestion on the MF or ATF, pilots of
should also be followed by the pilot-in-command at en-route VFR aircraft should avoid passing through MF or ATF
aerodromes with an ATF: areas.
(i) Listening Watch and Local Flying [CAR 602.97 (2)]
Maintain a listening watch on the mandatory (b) NORDO: NORDO aircraft will only be included as traffic
frequency specified for use in the MF area. This to other aircraft and ground traffic as follows:
should apply to ATF areas as well. (i) Arrival: from five minutes before the ETA until ten
(ii) Before Entering Manoeuvring Area [(CAR 602.99)] minutes after the ETA, and
Report the pilot-in-command’s intentions before (ii) Departure: from just prior to the aircraft departing
entering the manoeuvring area. until ten minutes after the departure, or until the
(iii) Departure (CAR 602.100) aircraft is observed/reported clear of the MF area.
(A) Before moving onto the take-off surface, report
the pilot-in-command’s departure intentions
on the MF or ATF frequency. If a delay is
encountered, broadcast intentions and expected
length of delay, then rebroadcast departure
intentions prior to moving onto the take-off
surface;
(B) Before takeoff, ascertain by radio on the MF
or ATF frequency and by visual observation
that there is no likelihood of collision with
241
TC AIM March 25, 2021
242
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
(a) paragraph 602.14(2)(a), where operation of the aircraft
ruleS (vfr) (cAnADiAn AviAtion is authorized under Subpart 3 or Section 702.22; or
regulAtionS [cArS] 602.14 AnD (b) paragraph 602.14(2)(b), where the aircraft is operated
602.15) without creating a hazard to persons or property on
the surface and the aircraft is operated for the purpose
Minimum Altitudes and Distances of
602.14 (i) aerial application or aerial inspection,
(ii) aerial photography conducted by the holder of an
(1) [Repealed, SOR/2002-447, s. 2]
air operator certificate,
(2) Except where conducting a takeoff, approach or landing or (iii) helicopter external load operations, or
where permitted under Section 602.15, no person shall (iv) flight training conducted by or under the supervision
operate an aircraft of a qualified flight instructor.
(a) over a built-up area or over an open-air assembly of
NOTES:
persons unless the aircraft is operated at an altitude
from which, in the event of an emergency necessitating 1. The hazards of low flying cannot be over-emphasized. In
an immediate landing, it would be possible to land the addition to the normal hazards of low flying, such as impact
aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property with the ground, two issues regarding man-made structures
on the surface, and, in any case, at an altitude that is should be stressed.
not lower than 2. All obstructions extending 300 ft AGL or higher, or lower
(i) for aeroplanes, 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle if deemed hazardous by TC, will be charted on VNCs and
located within a horizontal distance of 2,000 feet VTAs.
243
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3. New obstructions, correctly reported by the owner to TC will normally be issued upon receipt of a position report filed
and NAV CANADA, will be NOTAMed and inserted in by the pilot upon reaching the last 1 000 feet altitude below the
the CFS and eventually (next edition) charted on the base of Class B or before entering laterally. This procedure is
applicable VNC and VTA. (Pilots noting obstructions not intended to ensure that the radio equipment is operating and to
depicted are asked to alert TC). remind the pilots that, while outside of Class B airspace, ATC
4. Wire-strikes account for a significant number of low flying separation is not provided and that they must maintain a vigilant
accidents. A number of these accidents occur over level watch for other traffic. The ATC clearance will contain the
terrain, in good weather and at very low altitudes. phrase “MAINTAIN (altitude) VFR”.
The regulations governing low-level flight are located in several CVFR flights must be conducted in accordance with procedures
areas of the CARs. It is the responsibility of the pilots and the designed for use by IFR flights, except when IFR weather
companies they work for to ensure that all regulations are strictly conditions are encountered, the pilot of a CVFR flight must
adhered to. avoid such weather conditions. This should be accomplished by:
(a) requesting an amended ATC clearance which will enable
the aircraft to remain in VFR weather conditions
5.5 minimum AltituDeS — overflying
(b) requesting an IFR clearance if the pilot has a valid instrument
AeroDromeS [cAnADiAn AviAtion rating and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.
regulAtionS [cArS] 602.96(4)AnD(5)] (c) request special VFR if within a control zone.
602.96
If unable to comply with the preceding, ensure that the aircraft
(4) Unless otherwise authorized by the appropriate air traffic is in VFR weather conditions at all times and leave Class B
control unit, no pilot-in-command shall operate an aircraft airspace horizontally or by descending. If the airspace is a control
at a height of less than 2 000 feet over an aerodrome except zone, land, at the aerodrome on which the control zone is based.
for the purpose of landing or taking off or if the aircraft is In both cases, inform ATC as soon as possible of the action taken.
operated pursuant to subsection (5).
602.96 5.7 en route rADAr SurveillAnce
(5) Where it is necessary for the purposes of the operation in When operating in areas where radar coverage exists, VFR
which the aircraft is engaged, a pilot-in-command may flights with transponder equipped aircraft may request radar
operate an aircraft at less than 2 000 feet over an aerodrome, traffic information. ATC will provide this information, traffic
where it is being operated (or workload) permitting.
(a) in the service of a police authority; The service is provided by the ACC or TCU responsible for IFR
(b) for the purpose of saving human life; control service in the area(s) concerned. The appropriate
frequency for the controlling ATC unit may be found in the CFS
(c) for fire-fighting or air ambulance operations;
(nearest controlled airport), en route (IFR) charts or by request
(d) for the purpose of the administration of the Fisheries to a FIC.
Act or the Fisheries Protection Act;
RAC
244
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.8 viSuAl flight ruleS (vfr) oPerAtionS (vi) Visual separation may be effected when the pilot
reports sighting a preceding aircraft and is instructed
within clASS c AirSPAce to follow it.
The following are the basic procedures for entry into, and for (vii) Inform the pilot when radar service is terminated,
operation within Class C airspace. Pilots should consult the except when the aircraft has been transferred to
applicable VTA chart for any additional procedures that may a tower.
be required for that particular Class C airspace.
(a) Pilot Procedures 6.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR)
(i) Obtain ATIS information (when available) prior to
contacting ATC.
— GENERAL
(ii) Contact ATC on VFR advisory frequency (depicted
on VTA charts) prior to entry into Class C airspace 6.1 Air trAffic control (Atc) cleArAnce
and provide the following information:
(A) aircraft type and identification, Air traffic control (ATC) clearance shall be obtained before
(B) position (preferably over a call-up point depicted takeoff from any point within controlled airspace or before
on the VTA chart or a bearing and distance entering controlled airspace for flight under instrument flight
from it, otherwise another prominent reporting rules (IFR) or during instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).
point or a VOR radial or VOR/DME fix), According to Canadian Aviation Regulation (CAR) 602.31,
(C) altitude, clearance received by a pilot must be read back to the controller,
(D) destination and route, and except in certain circumstances. When clearance is received on
(E) transponder code (if transponder equipped), the ground before departure from a controlled aerodrome and
and ATIS (code) received. a standard instrument departure (SID) is included in the clearance,
(iii) Comply with ATC instructions received. Any ATC the pilot only needs to acknowledge receipt of the clearance by
instruction issued to VFR flights is based on the repeating the aircraft call sign and the transponder code that
firm understanding that a pilot will advise ATC was assigned. If there is an amendment to the altitude contained
immediately if compliance with the instructions in the SID, that altitude shall also be read back. Whenever the
would result in not being able to maintain adequate controller requests a full readback, the pilot shall comply. Also,
terrain or obstacle clearance, or to maintain flight the pilot may, at any time, read back a clearance in full to seek
in accordance with VFR. If so advised, ATC will clarification.
issue alternate instructions.
Whenever clearance is received and accepted by the pilot, the
(b) ATC Procedures pilot shall comply with it. If the clearance cannot be accepted,
(i) Identify the aircraft with radar. (Pilots may be the pilot shall immediately notify ATC because simple
required to report over additional fixes, or squawk acknowledgement of the clearance will be interpreted by the
ident on their transponder.) The provision of an controller as acceptance.
effective radar service is dependent upon
Pilots shall not deviate from a clearance except in an emergency
communications equipment capabilities and the
RAC
that necessitates immediate action, or in order to respond to an
adequacy of the radar-displayed information. In the
airborne collision avoidance system/traffic alert and collision
latter case, it may be difficult to maintain radar
avoidance system (ACAS/TCAS) resolution advisory (RA), a
identification of aircraft which are not operating on
warning from a ground proximity warning system (GPWS), or
specific tracks or routes (i.e. sightseeing, local
a warning from an aircraft wind shear (WS) detection and warning
training flights, etc.), and pilots will be advised when
system (see MET 2.3). In these cases, the pilot shall inform ATC
radar service cannot be provided.
as soon as possible and obtain an amended clearance (as per
(ii) Issue landing information on initial contact or shortly
CAR 602.31).
thereafter unless the pilot states that the appropriate
ATIS information has been received.
(iii) Provide the aircraft with routing instructions or 6.2 inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) flightS in
radar vectors whenever necessary. The pilot will be
informed when vectoring is discontinued except
viSuAl meteorologicAl conDitionS (vmc)
when transferred to a tower. Occasionally, an aircraft A pilot may elect to conduct a flight in accordance with IFR in
may be held at established fixes within Class C VMC. Flights operating in accordance with IFR shall continue
airspace to await a position in the landing sequence. in accordance with IFR, regardless of weather conditions. An
(iv) Issue traffic information when two or more aircraft IFR clearance provides separation between IFR aircraft in
are held at the same fix, or whenever in the controller’s controlled airspace only. Pilots operating IFR must be aware of
judgement a radar-observed target might constitute the need to provide their own visual separation from VFR aircraft
a hazard to the aircraft concerned. when operating in VMC and from any other aircraft when
(v) When required, conflict resolution will be provided operating in uncontrolled airspace.
between IFR and VFR aircraft, and upon request, A pilot may cancel IFR, or close the IFR flight plan, provided
between VFR aircraft.
245
TC AIM March 25, 2021
the aircraft is operating in VMC, is outside Class A or B airspace, can be made to minimize conflicts with other aircraft.
and it is expected that the flight will not return to IMC. If the
Pilots of transponder-equipped aircraft, when experiencing an
pilot closes the IFR flight plan or cancels IFR, ATC will
emergency and unable to establish communications immediately
discontinue the provision of IFR control service.
with an ATC unit, may indicate “Emergency” to ATC by adjusting
Refer to RAC Closing a Flight Plan, for information on the the transponder to reply to Mode A/3 Code 7700. Thereafter,
requirement to submit an arrival report and on the provision of radio communications should be established with ATC as soon
alerting service upon closure or cancellation of IFR. Provided as possible.
the destination remains the same, a pilot may change an IFR
It should be pointed out, however, that when Code 7700 is used,
fight plan to a VFR fight plan without having to file a new flight
the signal may not be detected because the aircraft may not be
plan. ATS will, however, confirm the aircraft’s destination and
within the range of SSR coverage.
ETA and obtain a search and rescue time from the pilot.
clearance, a pilot may request approval to depart and maintain the use of approved satellite voice equipment or the selective
VFR until an IFR clearance can be received. The conditions in use of the normal/standby functions of transponders;
the sub-section above also apply in this situation. If the request
(c) attempt to contact any ATC facility or another aircraft,
for a VFR departure is approved, the pilot will be given a time,
inform them of the difficulty, and request they relay the
altitude or location at which to contact ATC for an IFR clearance.
information to the ATC facility with whom communications
Depending upon the reasons for the IFR departure clearance
are intended;
delay, a VFR departure of an IFR flight may not be approved
by the IFR unit. In situations such as these, it may be desirable (d) comply with the procedures specified by the Minister in
for the pilot to wait for the IFR departure clearance. the CAP and the CFS, except where specific instructions
to cover an anticipated communications failure have been
received from an ATC unit; and
6.3 emergencieS AnD equiPment fAilureS
(e) attempt to contact the appropriate NAV CANADA ATS
— inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) unit by means of a conventional cell or satellite phone, when
all of the above attempts have failed.
6.3.1 Declaration of Emergency
NOTE:
Whenever pilots are faced with an emergency situation, ATC Approved SATCOM voice equipment refers to on-board
expects the pilot to take whatever action is considered necessary. embedded equipment. Permanent satellite voice equipment is
ATC will assist pilots in any way possible whenever an emergency installed and tested in accordance with appropriate certification
is declared. Pilots are requested to advise ATC of any deviations and airworthiness standards.
from IFR altitudes or routes necessitated by an emergency
situation as soon as it is practicable in order that every effort
246
TC AIM March 25, 2021
6.3.2.2 Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Flight Plan (iii) Descent for Approach: Maintain en route altitude to
the navigation facility or the approach fix to be used
(a) Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC): If the failure occurs
for the IAP selected and commence an appropriate
in VMC, or if VMC are encountered after the failure, the
descent procedure at whichever of the following
pilot-in-command shall continue the flight under VFR and
times is the most recent:
land as soon as practicable.
(A) the ETA (ETA as calculated from take-off time
NOTE: plus the estimated time en route filed or
This procedure applies in any class of airspace. The primary amended [with ATC]);
purpose is to preclude extended IFR operation in controlled (B) the ETA last notified to and acknowledged by
airspace in VMC. However, it is not intended that the requirement ATC; or
to “land as soon as practicable” be construed to mean “land as (C) the EAT last received and acknowledged.
soon as possible.” The pilot retains the prerogative of exercising If failure occurs after you have received and acknowledged a
his/her best judgment and is not required to land at an unauthorized holding instruction, hold as directed and commence an instrument
airport, at an airport unsuitable for the type of aircraft flown, approach at the EAT or expected further clearance time (EFC),
or to land only minutes short of destination. whichever has been issued.
(b) Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC): If the failure NOTES:
occurs in IMC, or if the flight cannot be continued under
VMC, the pilot-in-command shall continue the flight 1. If the holding fix is not a fix from which an approach begins,
according to the following: leave the fix at the expected further clearance time if one
(i) Route has been received. If none has been received, proceed to a
(A) by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance fix from which an approach begins upon arrival over the
received and acknowledged; clearance limit. Commence descent and/or approach as
(B) if being radar-vectored, by the direct route from close as possible to the ETA as calculated from the filed
the point of communications failure to the fix, estimated time en route or as amended with ATC.
route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; 2. If cleared for a STAR, maintain the appropriate altitude
(C) in the absence of an assigned route, by the route described above and proceed to the final approach fix (FAF):
that ATC has advised may be expected in a (a) via the published routing;
further clearance; or
(D) in the absence of an assigned route or route that (b) via the published routing to the segment where radar
ATC has advised may be expected in a further vectors are depicted to commence, then direct to the
clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan. facility or fix serving the runway advised by ATIS or
(ii) Altitude: At the highest of the following altitudes or specified in the ATC clearance, for a straight-in approach,
FLs for the route segment being flown: if able, or for the full procedure if one is published;
(A) the altitude(s) or FLs assigned in the last ATC (c) for a CLOSED RNAV STAR, by flying the arrival as
clearance received and acknowledged; published, including any vertical and speed restraints
(B) the minimum IFR altitude; or depicted in the procedure, and intercepting the final
RAC
(C) the altitude or FL ATC has advised may be approach course for a straight-in approach; or
expected in a further clearance. (The pilot shall
(d) for an OPEN RNAV STAR, by flying the arrival as
commence climb to this altitude/FL at the time
published, including any vertical and speed restraints
or point specified by ATC to expect further
depicted in the procedure. The pilot is expected to
clearance/ altitude change.)
delete the heading leg at the DTW, to initiate an auto-
NOTES: turn at the DTW and FACF and to intercept the final
approach course for a straight-in approach.
1. The intent of this is that an aircraft that has experienced a
communications failure will, during any segment of a flight, For flights to the United States, communications failure
be flown at an altitude that provides the required obstacle procedures are essentially the same, but it is the pilot’s
clearance. responsibility to consult the appropriate American
publications. Some instrument procedures do not include a
2. If the failure occurs while being vectored at a radar vectoring procedure turn but include the statement “RADAR OR RNAV
altitude that is lower than a published IFR altitude, the pilot REQUIRED” as part of the procedure. The initial approach
shall immediately climb to and maintain the appropriate segment of these instrument procedures is being provided by
minimum IFR altitude until arrival at the fix, route or airway ATC radar vectors. Without ATC radar vectoring, the instrument
specified in the clearance. procedure may not have a published initial approach segment.
Should an aircraft communications failure occur while the aircraft
is being vectored on one of these approaches, separately or as
part of a STAR, the pilot is expected to comply with the
communications failure procedure by selecting the transponder
247
TC AIM March 25, 2021
to Mode A/3 Code 7600 immediately. Pilots should always be obtained, ATC will broadcast on appropriate frequencies a “fuel
aware of the traffic situation. For example, ATC may have dumping” advisory. Pilots should advise ATC immediately when
indicated that your aircraft was second for an approach to fuel dumping has been completed.
Runway 06L; under these circumstances, the flight should be
continued along the route that normally would have been expected
under radar vectoring. In some cases of communications failure, 6.4 inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) SePArAtion
pilots may need to revert to dead reckoning navigation (DR) to
the final approach course. It is important to other aircraft and 6.4.1 General
ATC for the aircraft experiencing a communications failure to The following information is intended to acquaint pilots with
continue the flight along a route that would permit the aircraft some of the basic non-radar separation standards applied by
to conduct a straight-in approach and landing without unexpected ATC and so facilitate flight planning and understanding of ATC
manoeuvring. Pilots are expected to exercise good judgment in techniques.
these cases. Unexpected manoeuvres, such as turns away from
the final approach course, may cause traffic disruptions and
conflicts. 6.4.2 Vertical Separation — General
If the communications failure occurs while being vectored at a The standard vertical separation minima is as follows:
radar vectoring altitude that is lower than a published IFR altitude FL 290 and below – 1 000 ft;
(e.g. minimum sector altitude 25 NM), the pilot shall immediately
climb to and maintain the appropriate minimum IFR altitude above FL 290 – 2 000 ft.
until arrival at a fix associated with the instrument procedure.
Modern technology has introduced new on-board communications
6.4.3 Vertical Separation Between Flight Levels
capabilities, such as airborne telephone communications. Pilots and Altitudes Above Sea Level (ASL)
who are confronted with an aircraft communications failure When the altimeter setting is less than 29.92 in. Hg, there will
may, if circumstances permit, use this new on-board technology be less than 1 000 ft vertical separation between an aircraft
to establish communications with the appropriate ATC units. flying at 17 000 ft ASL with that altimeter setting and an aircraft
NAV CANADA publishes the phone numbers of ACCs, control flying at FL 180, (with altimeter set at 29.92 in. Hg); therefore,
towers, FICs and FSSs in the CFS. the lowest usable flight level will be assigned or approved in
accordance with the following table:
6.3.3 Reporting Malfunctions of Navigation and
Altimeter Setting Lowest Usable Flight Level
Communications Equipment
29.92 in. or higher FL 180
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in IFR flight within
controlled airspace should report immediately to the appropriate 29.91 in. to 28.92 in. FL 190
ATC unit any malfunction of navigation or air-ground 28.91 in. to 27.92 in. FL 200
communications equipment.
Examples: 6.4.4 Longitudinal Separation—Distance-Based
RAC
Loss of VOR, ADF or low frequency navigation capability. Longitudinal separation of IFR flights based on distance is
Complete or partial loss of ILS capability. established by ATC on the basis of position reports, expressed
in units of distance, from the concerned aircraft determined in
Impairment of air-ground communications capability. relation to a common point. To account for the effect of slant
Impairment of transponder serviceability. range, controllers must know when distance reports are derived
from DME when establishing longitudinal separation between
Having received this information, ATC will take into account a mix of RNAV/GNSS- and DME-equipped aircraft.
any limitations in navigation or air-ground communications
equipment in further clearances to the aircraft. To this end, pilots should report distances based on RNAV and
GNSS in miles, e.g. 30 mi. from “Someplace.” When distance
reports are based on DME, pilots should state DME, e.g. 30 DME
6.3.4 Fuel Dumping from “Someplace.”
Whenever it is necessary to jettison fuel, the pilot should
immediately notify ATC and provide information such as the NOTE:
course to be flown, the period of time and weather conditions. RNAV position reports derived from DME-DME computations
To allow for adequate vaporization, fuel dumping should be are not affected by slant range.
carried out at least 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within
5 NM of the track to be flown. ATC may suggest an alternate 6.4.5 Lateral Separation — General
area where fuel should be dumped; aircraft will be encouraged
to dump fuel on a constant heading over unpopulated areas and Lateral separation of IFR flights is provided by ATC in the form
clear of heavy traffic. When necessary information has been of “airspace to be protected” in relation to a holding procedure,
248
TC AIM March 25, 2021
instrument approach procedure or the approved track. The Figure 6.2—Additional Airspace
dimensions of protected airspace for a particular track take into to be Protected for Turns
account the accuracy of navigation that can be reasonably
expected. For track segments within signal coverage of NDB,
VOR or TACAN stations and along bearings/courses/radials of
such facilities, protected airspace takes into account the accuracy
of available track guidance, accuracy of airborne receiver and
indicator equipment, and a small pilotage tolerance. Separation
is considered to exist provided the airspaces protected for each
aircraft do not overlap. It is essential, therefore, that accuracy
capability of navigation equipment be maintained.
Pilots of IFR or controlled VFR flights must adhere as closely
as practicable to the centreline of their approved airway or track.
If the aircraft inadvertently deviates from the approved track, Normally, the airspace to be protected for an approved track
immediate action must be taken to regain the centreline as soon will be based on the premise that the changeover from one
as practicable. Pilots realizing that they are outside the airspace navigation reference to another will take place approximately
protected for their approved track must notify the appropriate midway between facilities. Where this is not possible due to a
ATC unit immediately. difference in the signal coverage provided by two adjacent
navigation aids, the equal signal point on an airway segment
will be shown.
6.4.6 Lateral Separation — Airways and Tracks
To remain clear of restricted areas, active danger or alert areas,
In the low-level airspace, the airspace to be protected is the full
or active areas such as the Churchill Rocket Range, pilots should
width of the airway as illustrated in RAC Low-Level Airways.
file a flight plan so that the airspace-to-be-protected for the
In the high-level airspace, all airspace is controlled within the intended track do not overlap the area of concern.
Southern, Northern, and Arctic Control Areas. As a result, a
high-level airway is “a prescribed track between specified radio 6.4.7 Lateral Separation
aids to navigation” and, thus, has no defined lateral dimensions.
— Instrument Approach Procedure
Therefore, the airspace to be protected for airways and/or tracks
in the high-level airspace is the same as that for low-level airways. Air traffic controllers have been authorized to consider the basic
horizontal dimensions of intermediate approach areas, final
Along off-airway tracks the “airspace to be protected” is 45 NM
approach areas and missed approach areas, for obstacle clearance
each side of that portion of the track which is beyond navigational
purposes, as the airspace-to-be-protected for aircraft conducting
and signal coverage range.
standard instrument approach procedures. Adequate horizontal
separation is then deemed to exist when the airspace-to-be-
Figure 6.1—Airspace to be Protected
protected for such aircraft do not overlap the airspace-to-be-protected
Along Off-Airway Tracks
for aircraft en route, holding or conducting simultaneous adjacent
instrument approaches. As with other separation standards
RAC
based on the airspace-to-be-protected concept, it will be the
pilot’s responsibility to remain within the limits of airspace-to-
be-protected. This can be accomplished by following the
procedures published in CAP or approved for company use. If
a pilot who is operating in controlled airspace anticipates being
unable to conduct the approach as published, the pilot should
inform ATC so that separation from other aircraft concerned
can be increased as necessary.
249
TC AIM March 25, 2021
6.5.2 Speed Control Instructions on Departure Visual separation is discontinued when either aircraft is observed
on a diverging heading, unless otherwise advised by ATC.
Visual departure separation procedures require airport controllers
to consider aircraft performance, wake turbulence, closure rate, Pilots must notify ATC as soon as possible if:
routes of flight and known weather conditions. Airport controllers (a) they anticipate losing sight of the other aircraft;
do not issue speed control instructions coincident with takeoff
clearances. In addition, there is no increase in the incidence of (b) course deviations are required to maintain visual separation
speed control instructions issued by the departure controller. with preceding traffic; or
(c) they suspect they will be unable to maintain visual separation
6.5.3 Controller-Applied Visual Separation for any reason.
The airport controller ensures separation through visual In these cases, another form of IFR separation will be applied
observation of the aircraft involved. This type of visual separation by ATC.
cannot be applied if departure routes or aircraft performance
preclude maintaining separation. ATC does not use visual 6.6 DeveloPment of inStrument ProceDureS
separation between successive departing IFR aircraft if wake
turbulence separation is required. Controller-applied visual Instrument procedure development worldwide follows one of
separation is normally seamless to pilots. two existing standards: ICAO Procedures for Air Navigation
Services—Aircraft Operations, Volume II—Construction of
Visual and Instrument Flight Procedures (Doc 8168); or the
6.5.4 Pilot-Applied Visual Separation United State s Standard for Ter minal Inst r ument
Pilot-applied visual departure separation procedures require a Procedures (TERPS). Instrument procedures in CDA are
pilot to see the other aircraft involved and, upon instructions developed in accordance with a document entitled Criteria for
from the controller, maintain visual separation from the other the Development of Instrument Procedures (TP 308). This
aircraft. document is a joint TC/DND publication and prescribes
standardized methods for use in designing both civil and military
Pilots who accept responsibility for visual separation must
instrument flight procedures.
maintain constant visual contact, without referring to an airborne
surveillance system, with the other aircraft involved until visual In order to achieve ICAO regional commonality, the instrument
separation is discontinued. This responsibility does not eliminate procedure design standards and criteria contained in TP 308 are
the pilot’s regulatory responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft; modeled after the standards and criteria contained in the TERPS.
meet noise abatement requirements; or meet obstacle clearance Strict adherence by pilots to the published instrument procedures
requirements and is not intended to restrict pilots from completing will ensure an acceptable level of safety in flight operations.
other necessary tasks.
ATC does not use pilot-applied visual separation between
successive departing IFR aircraft if wake turbulence separation
7.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES
is required. If, for any reason, the pilot refuses pilot-applied – DEPARTURE PROCEDURES
visual separation, ATC will separate departures using another
RAC
to contacting ground control. Where no clearance delivery radar vectoring commences. This is because initial separation
frequency is listed, the IFR clearance will normally be relayed is based on divergence between assigned headings until radar
by ground control after taxi authorization has been issued. separation is established.
However, due to high fuel consumption during ground running
When assigning SIDs, ATC will include the following:
time, some pilots of turbojet aircraft may wish to obtain their
IFR clearance prior to starting engines. Pilots using this procedure (a) the name of SID;
should call ATC, using a phrase such as READY TO START (b) the SID termination fix, if appropriate;
NOW or READY TO START AT (TIME). Normally this request
should be made within 5 minutes of the planned engine start time. (c) the transition, if necessary; and
(d) the time or location for the aircraft to expect a climb to an
operationally suitable altitude or flight level, if necessary.
7.5 StAnDArD inStrument DePArture (SiD) (NOTE:An “expect further clearance” statement may be
At certain airports, an instrument flight rules (IFR) departure included in the SID chart.)
clearance may include departure instructions known as a standard
Example:
instrument departure (SID). A SID is a planned IFR air traffic
control (ATC) departure procedure, published in the Canada CLEARED TO THE CALGARY AIRPORT, TORONTO ONE
Air Pilot (CAP), for pilot and controller use in graphic and textual DEPARTURE, FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE.
form. SIDs provide a transition from the terminal to the
appropriate en route structure, and may be either: NOTE:
A SID termination fix may be a NAVAID, intersection, or DME
(a) pilot navigation SIDs—established where the pilot is and is normally located on an established airway where the SID
required to use the chart as reference for navigation to the terminates and the en route phase of flight commences. The
en route phase; or SID, as published, contains an altitude to climb to after departure;
(b) vector SIDs—established where ATC will provide radar however, ATC may assign an altitude different from the altitude
navigational guidance to a filed/assigned route or to a fix specified in the SID, provided the altitude is stated and a readback
depicted on the chart. Pilots are expected to use the SID is obtained from the pilot prior to departure. In addition, where
chart as reference for navigation until radar vectoring vector SIDs are used, ATC may assign a different initial departure
has commenced. heading. However, an ATC revision to any item of a SID does
not cancel the SID.
SIDs incorporate obstacle and terrain clearance within the
procedure. Pilots should note, however, that SIDs for military Example:
aerodromes that are only available in textual form do not
CLEARED TO THE CALGARY AIRPORT, TORONTO ONE
incorporate obstacle and terrain clearance. At these aerodromes,
DEPARTURE, FLIGHT PLANNED ROUTE, CLIMB TO AMENDED
it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure appropriate obstacle and
ALTITUDE, SEVEN THOUSAND…
terrain clearance on departure.
Pilots of aircraft operating at airports for which SIDs have been If an aircraft is issued a vector SID, radar vectors will be used,
published will normally be issued a SID clearance by ATC. No as traffic permits, to provide navigational guidance to the filed/
assigned route and over the SID termination fix. However, if
RAC
pilot is required to accept a SID clearance. If any doubt exists
as to the meaning of such a clearance, the pilot should request the controller or the aircraft will gain an operational advantage,
a detailed clearance. the aircraft may be vectored on a route that will not take the
aircraft over the SID termination fix.
Routings contained in SIDs will normally be composed of two
segments: In this case, if ATC had previously specified a SID termination
fix as the location for the aircraft to expect to climb to an
(a) an initial segment from the departure end of the runway to operationally suitable altitude or flight level, the controller shall
the position where the aircraft will first turn from the initial cancel the SID. If, with the change of clearance, it is not practicable
departure heading; and for the controller to assign an operationally suitable altitude or
(b) a second segment, either via radar vectors or by pilot flight level, the controller will specify another location or time
navigation, from the first turning point to the SID termination to expect the higher altitude.
point. Example:
When instructed to fly on the runway heading, or when flying SID CANCELLED, VECTORS TO (fix or airway) (heading).
a SID for which no specific heading is published, pilots are EXPECT FLIGHT LEVEL THREE FIVE ZERO AT FOUR FIVE
expected to fly or maintain the heading that corresponds with D-M-E WEST OF EDMONTON VORTAC.
the extended centreline of the departure runway until otherwise
instructed by ATC. Drift correction must not be applied, e.g. It is impossible to precisely define “operationally suitable
Runway 04, if the actual magnetic heading of the runway altitudes” to meet requirements in all circumstances.
centreline is 044°, then fly a heading of 044°M.
When flying a SID for which a specific heading is published,
the pilot is expected to steer the published SID heading until
251
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The following are considered operationally suitable altitudes or 7.6 noiSe ABAtement ProceDureS — DePArture
flight levels:
(a) piston aircraft—flight planned altitude or lower; and 7.6.1 General
(b) other aircraft—flight planned altitude or altitude as near These aeroplane operating procedures for the takeoff and climb
as possible to the flight planned altitude, taking into have been developed so as to ensure that the necessary safety
consideration the aircraft’s route of flight. As a guideline, of flight operations is maintained whilst minimizing exposure
an altitude not more than 4 000 ft below the flight planned to noise on the ground. One of the two procedures listed in the
flight level in the high-level structure will be considered sub-secitons below should be applied routinely for all takeoffs
as operationally suitable in most cases. where noise abatement procedures are in effect.
If it is not practicable for the controller to assign the flight planned Nothing in these procedures shall prevent the pilot-in-command
altitude and if the pilot has not been informed as to when they from exercising his/ her authority for the safe operation of the
may expect a clearance to another altitude, it is the pilot’s aeroplane, except that when a climb gradient is published, it
responsibility to advise ATC if the currently assigned altitude must be maintained, or alternate procedures must be adopted.
is not satisfactory to permit the aircraft to proceed to the
destination airport, should a communications failure occur. The procedures herein describe the methods for noise abatement
when a noise problem is evident. They can comprise any one or
The controller will then be required to issue an appropriate more of the following:
“expect further clearance” statement or issue alternative
instructions. (a) use of noise preferential runways to direct the initial and
final flight paths of aeroplanes away from noise-sensitive
Controllers are required to issue a clearance to the altitude or areas;
flight level the pilot was told to expect prior to the time or location
specified in an “expect further clearance” statement. The pilot (b) use of noise preferential routes to assist aeroplanes in
must ensure that further clearance is received because the “altitude avoiding noise-sensitive areas on departure and arrival,
to be expected” included in the clearance is not applicable: including the use of turns to direct aeroplanes away from
noise-sensitive areas located under or adjacent to the usual
(a) once the aircraft has proceeded beyond the fix specified in takeoff and approach flight paths; and
the “expect further clearance” statement; or
(c) use of noise abatement takeoff or approach procedures,
(b) once the time designated in the “expect further clearance” designed to minimize the overall exposure to noise on the
statement has expired. ground and, at the same time, maintain the required levels
SIDs may include specific communications failure procedures. of flight safety.
These specific procedures supersede the standard communication
failure procedures. 7.6.2 Noise Preferential Runways
SIDs, as published, will not contravene noise abatement Preferred runway directions for takeoff are designated for noise
procedures. ATC-assigned vectors will not normally contravene abatement purposes; the objective being to use, whenever possible,
noise abatement procedures; however, for flight safety reasons, those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise-sensitive
RAC
ATC may be required to issue a vector contrary to noise abatement areas during the initial departure and final approach phases
requirements. of flight.
ATC-assigned vectors shall be followed in a timely manner even Noise abatement is not the determining factor in runway
if they conflict with the published noise abatement procedures. designation under the following circumstances:
The initial call to departure control should contain at least: (a) if the runway is not clear and dry, i.e. it is adversely affected
(a) the aircraft call sign; by snow, slush, ice, water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances;
(b) the departure runway; (b) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds
25 KIAS; and
(c) the present vacating altitude (to the nearest 100-ft increment);
and (c) when the tail wind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 kt.
7.6.3 Noise Abatement Departure Procedures NADPs start at or above 800 ft and initiate the final stage at or
(NADP) below 3 000 ft AAE, allowing operators to develop specific
procedures to suit their local situations.
NADP are designed to minimize the environmental impact of
departing aircraft without compromising safety. Typically, Operators transitioning from VNAP to NADP will note that the
operators require two procedures: one to minimize close-in NADP1 envelope includes the former VNAP A procedure, while
noise (NADP1), the other to minimize noise over a more distant NADP2 includes the former VNAP B procedure.
noise-sensitive area (NADP2). To illustrate the NADP concept, two examples of compliant
Under the NADP concept, airport operators identify their noise procedures appear below. Operators are free to design other
and emission control needs and may identify specific noise- procedures that fit within the NADP envelopes.
sensitive areas. Aircraft operators choose the departure method
that safely meets the airport operator’s objectives.
NADP 1 (criteria for a close-in noise abatement
procedure):
When deciding on a noise abatement strategy, it is important to
This procedure involves a power reduction at or above the
keep in mind that each procedure minimizes noise in its target
prescribed minimum altitude (no less than 800 ft) AAE and
area at the expense of relatively increased noise elsewhere.
delaying flap/slat retraction until the prescribed maximum
NADP1 reduces noise immediately after takeoff, but results in
altitude (3 000 ft) AAE is attained. At the prescribed maximum
higher downrange noise than NADP2, and vice versa. For each
altitude, accelerate and retract flaps/slats on schedule, while
aircraft type, powerplant and set of takeoff conditions, there is
maintaining a positive rate of climb, and complete the transition
a distance at which the NADP1 and NADP2 noise contours cross
to normal en-route climb speed. The initial climbing speed to
over. The area from the takeoff to the crossover point defines
the noise abatement initiation point is no less than V2 + 10 KIAS.
the ‘close-in’ zone of NADP1, while the area beyond the crossover
point is the effective range of NADP2. Specific example of NADP 1:
When developing a noise abatement strategy, airports and air (a) Initial climb to 800 ft AAE with take-off thrust and
operators should consider the following: V2 + 10 to 20 KIAS.
(a) a noise abatement departure shall not invalidate an engine (b) Upon reaching an altitude of 800 ft AAE, adjust and maintain
failure strategy; engine thrust in accordance with the noise abatement thrust
schedule provided in the aircraft operating manual. Maintain
(b) aircraft limitations, including maximum body angle limits,
a climb speed of V2 + 10 to 20 KIAS with flaps and slats
shall be respected at all times;
in the take-off configuration.
(c) where possible, each aircraft type should base its standard
(c) At 3 000 ft AAE, while maintaining a positive rate of climb,
departure procedure on the noise abatement strategy that
accelerate and retract flaps/slats on schedule.
minimizes its overall noise impact;
(d) At 3 000 ft AAE, accelerate to normal en-route climb speed.
(d) operators serving certain noise-sensitive airports may need
to follow specific, non-standard departure procedures. Crew NOTE:
training and departure information shall address identification To assist in planning departure spacing, pilots intending to use
RAC
and procedural differences associated with alternate noise NADP 1 at Canadian airports are to notify ATC Clearance
abatement procedures; and Delivery or Ground Control. At airports where NADP 1 is the
(e) where applicable, air traffic control agencies should be only procedure to follow, ATC does not need to be notified.
involved in the development of noise abatement procedures,
especially regarding take-off flight path in the event of an Figure 7.1—Noise Abatement Departure
engine failure. Procedures (NADP 1)
In addition to the above general requirements, the following
operational limitations apply: NADPs requiring reduced take-off
thrust settings may only be flown when reduced thrust is
permitted by the aircraft flight manual or aircraft operating
manual;
(a) noise abatement procedures shall not be executed below
800 ft AAE;
(b) noise abatement procedures are not to be used when wind
shear warnings exist, or the presence of wind shear or
downburst activity is suspected; and
(c) conduct of noise abatement procedures is secondary to the
satisfaction of obstacle requirements.
253
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NADP 2 (criteria for distant noise abatement IFR departure procedures are expressed in the form of take-off
procedure): minima on an aerodrome chart. These procedures are based on
the premise that, on departure, an aircraft will
This procedure involves the initiation of flap/slat retraction at
or above the prescribed minimum altitude (800 ft) AAE but (a) cross at least 35 ft above the departure end of the runway;
before reaching the prescribed maximum altitude (3 000 ft) (b) climb straight ahead to 400 ft above aerodrome
AAE. The flaps/slats are to be retracted on schedule, while elevation (AAE) before turning; and
maintaining a positive rate of climb. The thrust reduction is to
be performed with the initiation of the first flaps/slats retraction (c) maintain a climb gradient of at least 200 ft/NM throughout
or when the zero flaps/slats configuration is attained. At the the climb to a minimum IFR altitude for en route operations.
prescribed maximum altitude, complete the transition to normal Climb gradients greater than 200 ft/NM may be published. In
en-route climb procedures. The initial climbing speed to the this case, the aircraft is expected to achieve and maintain the
noise abatement initiation point is no less than V2 + 10 KIAS published gradient to the specified altitude or fix, then continue
and the noise abatement procedure is not to be initiated at less climbing at a minimum of 200 ft/NM until reaching a minimum
than 800 ft AAE. IFR altitude for en route operations.
Specific example of NADP 2: For flight planning purposes, IFR departure procedures assume
(a) Initial climb to 800 ft AAE with take-off thrust and V2 + 10 normal aircraft performance in all cases.
to 20 KIAS. ODPs in the take-off minima box are shown as either:
(b) Upon reaching an altitude equivalent to 800 ft AAE, decrease (a) 1/2—This indicates that IFR departures from the specified
aircraft body angle while maintaining a positive rate of runway(s) will be assured of obstacle and terrain clearance
climb, accelerate towards VZF speed and reduce thrust after in any direction, if the aircraft meets the previously stated
flaps/slats retraction. departure premise. Pilots may consider this procedure as
(c) Maintain a positive rate of climb and accelerate to and “takeoff, climb on course.” The minimum visibility (unless
maintain a climb speed of VZF + 10 to 20 KIAS until otherwise approved by the appropriate authority) for takeoff
3 000 ft AAE. in these circumstances is 1/2 SM. IFR takeoffs for rotorcraft
are permitted when the take-off visibility is reduced to half
(d) At 3000 ft AAE, accelerate to normal en-route climb speed. the CAP value, but no less than 1/4 SM.
The use of this guidance material should be limited to acquiring (b) * (asterisk)—The asterisk (*) following all or specific
general insight into NADPs. In applying this guidance, users runways refers the pilot to the applicable minimum take-off
should seek expert noise and emissions advice. visibility (1/2 or SPEC VIS) and the corresponding procedures
which, if followed, will ensure obstacle and terrain clearance.
Figure 7.2—Noise Abatement Departure Procedures may include specific climb gradients, routings,
Procedures (NADP 2) visual climb requirements, locations of close-in obstacles
(see RAC 7.7.2), or combinations thereof. Where a visual
climb is stated in the departure procedure, pilots are expected
to comply with the specified takeoff minimum visibility
RAC
Aircraft Category A B C D
NOTE
7.7 oBStAcle AnD terrAin cleArAnce No reductions in SPEC VIS are permitted for rotorcraft. For
Aerodromes that have an instrument approach procedure (IAP) further information on SPEC VIS, see RAC 7.7.1.
published in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP) also have an instrument
flight rules (IFR) departure procedure. (c) NOT ASSESSED—IFR departures have not been assessed
for obstacles. Pilots-in-command (PICs) are responsible for
There are two types of IFR departure procedures: the standard determining minimum climb gradients and/or routings for
instrument departure (SID) and the obstacle departure obstacle and terrain avoidance.
procedure (ODP). SIDs are developed to establish a traffic flow
(see RAC 7.5) while ODPs are pilot initiated. Both types meet In the absence of a published visibility for a particular runway,
obstacle and terrain clearance requirements. a pilot may depart IFR only if take-off visibility will allow
254
TC AIM March 25, 2021
avoidance of obstacles and terrain on departure. In no case 7.7.2 Low, Close-in Obstacles
should the take-off visibility be less than 1/2 SM (1/4 SM for
rotorcraft). Obstacles that penetrate the standard OCS require the publication
of a climb gradient. However, certain close-in obstacles may be
Where aircraft limitations or other factors preclude the pilot exempt from this requirement. Instead, a note is published on
from following the published procedure, it is the PIC’s the departure procedure and/or on the aerodrome chart. The
responsibility to determine alternative procedures that take into note alerts the pilot to the nature of the close-in obstacle and
account obstacle and terrain avoidance. gives its height and location so that it may be avoided. An obstacle
Air traffic control (ATC) terms such as “on departure, right turn is determined to be “close-in” if it is within 1 NM of the departure
climb on course” or “on departure, left turn on course” are not end of the runway, or within 1 NM from the end of the clearway,
to be considered specific departure instructions. It remains the if a clearway exists. Either way, the charted distance to the
pilot’s responsibility to ensure that terrain and obstacle clearance obstacle will be noted as being from the departure end of the
has been achieved by conforming to the IFR departure procedures. runway.
If the obstacle(s) cannot be visually acquired during departure,
7.7.1 Visual Climb Over The Airport (VCOA) pre-flight planning should take into account the turns or other
manoeuvres that may be necessary immediately after takeoff
VCOA—sometimes referred to as “climb visual” or “visual to avoid the obstacle(s). These obstacles are especially critical
climb” in the CAP—was developed to provide an alternate IFR to aircraft that do not lift off until close to the departure end of
departure procedure for aircraft that cannot meet the greater- the runway or that climb at the minimum rate.
than-standard climb gradient specified in the primary instrument
departure procedure.
7.8 releASe from tower frequency
NOTE:
Occasionally, VCOA may be the only available departure If the departure airport is located within a terminal control area,
procedure developed for an aerodrome. the departing IFR flight will be cleared by the tower to contact
a specific control unit on a specified frequency once clear of
VCOA differs from other instrument departure procedures in that the conflicting airport traffic. At certain locations, flights will be
pilot must maintain certain visual references with the ground and obstacles advised prior to takeoff to change to a specified departure
until reaching a given altitude over the aerodrome. frequency. In this case, the change should be made as soon as
practicable after takeoff.
NOTE:
If the departure airport is not located within a terminal control
Even though the aircraft is being operated with visual references
area, the pilot, when requesting release from tower frequency,
to the ground, it is still departing on an IFR clearance.
should advise the tower of the agency or frequency to which he/
The VCOA text includes a SPEC VIS and a climb-to altitude in she will change unless directions for the change were included
feet above sea level. The SPEC VIS is the minimum visibility in the ATC clearance.
in statute miles that a pilot requires to manoeuvre the aircraft
while climbing. The climb-to altitude is the minimum altitude 7.9 inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) DePArtureS
RAC
above the aerodrome that the aircraft must reach before departing
en route. from uncontrolleD AirPortS
It is the pilot’s responsibility to see and avoid obstacles while Where a pilot-in-command intends to take off from an uncontrolled
climbing visually. The pilot should be familiar with the local aerodrome, the pilot shall:
terrain and the obstacles that surround the aerodrome and plan (a) obtain an ATC clearance if in controlled airspace;
the climb appropriately. Taking local traffic and obstacles into
consideration, it is advisable that the pilot keep the aerodrome (b) report their departure procedure and intentions on the
in sight while climbing. The visual climb segment ends when appropriate frequency before moving on to the runway or
the aircraft crosses the aerodrome at or above the required before aligning the aircraft on the take off path; and
minimum altitude. From this point on, obstacles will be cleared (c) ascertain by radio on the appropriate frequency and by
if the aircraft maintains a minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/ visual observation that no other aircraft or vehicle is likely
NM to the en-route structure. to come into conflict with the aircraft during takeoff.
The PIC should ensure that the reported ceiling is above the The pilot-in-command shall maintain a listening watch:
climb-to altitude and that the local prevailing visibility is equal (a) during takeoff from an uncontrolled aerodrome; and
to or greater than that required in the procedure. Additionally,
before taxiing for departure, the PIC should inform ATC of the (b) after takeoff from an uncontrolled aerodrome for which a
intention to perform a VCOA so that the appropriate coordination MF has been designated, until the aircraft is beyond the
can be ensured. If ATC services are not available, then intentions distance or above the altitude associated with that frequency.
should be broadcast on the ATF (see RAC 7.9).
255
TC AIM March 25, 2021
As soon as possible after reaching the distance or altitude 8.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR) –
associated with the MF, the pilot-in-command shall communicate
with the appropriate ATC unit or a ground station on the EN ROUTE PROCEDURES
appropriate en-route frequency.
Where IFR departures are required to contact an IFR control 8.1 PoSition rePortS
unit or ground station after takeoff, it is recommended that, if
the aircraft is equipped with two radios, the pilot should also Pilots of instrument flight rules (IFR) and controlled VFR (CVFR)
monitor the MF during the departure. flights are required to make position reports over compulsory
reporting points specified on IFR charts, and over any other
If the aerodrome is located in uncontrolled airspace, these reporting points specified by air traffic control (ATC).
procedures shall be followed except that an ATC clearance is
not required. In addition to maintaining a listening watch, it is As specified in Canadian Aviation Regulation (CAR) 602.125,
recommended that the pilot-in-command communicate with the the position report shall include the information in the sequence
appropriate ATC unit, FIC, or other ground station on the set out on page C2 of the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS), that
appropriate en-route frequency. is:
(a) the identification;
NOTE:
It is recommended that pilots inform ATC if a flight will not (b) the position;
commence within 60 min of the proposed departure time stipulated (c) the time over the reporting point in coordinated universal
in an IFR flight plan. Failure to do so will result in activating the time (UTC);
SAR process.
(d) the altitude or flight level;
At an uncontrolled aerodrome, the initial IFR clearance may (e) the type of flight plan or flight itinerary filed;
contain a time or an event-based departure restriction or clearance
(f) the name of the next designated reporting point and estimated
cancellation.
time of arrival (ETA) over that point in UTC;
Examples:
(g) the name only of the next reporting point along the route
ATC CLEARS AIRLINE123 (IFR clearance) DO NOT DEPART of flight (see NOTE); and
UNTIL 1340; CLEARANCE CANCELLED IF NOT AIRBORNE
(h) any additional information requested by ATC or deemed
BEFORE 1349.
necessary by the pilot.
or
NOTE:
ATC CLEARS AIRLINE123 (IFR clearance) DO NOT DEPART Reporting points are indicated by a symbol on the appropriate
UNTIL CESSNA ABC HAS LANDED; CLEARANCE CANCELLED charts. The “designated compulsory” reporting point is a solid
IF NOT AIRBORNE BEFORE 1349. triangle and the “on request” reporting point symbol is an open
In the first example, the clearance is valid the moment the time triangle. Position reports over an “on request” reporting point
turns 1340, and in both examples, the clearance is cancelled the are only necessary when requested by ATC. Therefore, no mention
of an “on request” reporting point needs to be made in any
RAC
7.10 Alerting Service inStrument flight En route IFR and CVFR flights should establish direct controller-
pilot communications (DCPC) wherever possible. Peripheral
ruleS (ifr) DePArtureS from stations (PAL) have been established at a number of locations
uncontrolleD AirPortS to extend the communications coverage. Some PAL locations
At locations where communication with ATS is difficult, pilots also employ a radio re-transmit unit (RRTU). The purpose of
may elect to depart VFR and obtain their IFR clearance once the RRTU is to transmit a pilot’s broadcast from one PAL location
airborne. In Canada, if IFR clearance is not received prior to over another frequency at a different PAL location. This allows
departure, SAR alerting service is activated based on the ETD the pilot to know when the controller is working communications
filed in the flight plan. However, if departing from a Canadian traffic on a different PAL frequency. Controllers at an area
airport that underlies airspace delegated to FAA control, then control centre (ACC) can disable this equipment when necessary
responsibility for SAR alerting service is transferred to the FAA due to the communications workload. However, it must be
and FAA procedures apply. In such cases, alerting service is not remembered that, while DCPC provides direct contact with the
activated until the aircraft contacts ATS for IFR clearance. IFR unit at locations where there is no VFR control and aerodrome
Therefore, if the aircraft departs before obtaining its IFR advisory service (AAS) or remote aerodrome advisory
clearance, alerting service is not provided until contact is service (RAAS) is provided, pilots must also communicate with
established with ATS. the flight service station (FSS) or flight information centre (FIC)
for local traffic information. Whenever DCPC cannot be
established, or whenever ATC has instructed a pilot to contact
a FIC, position reports shall be made through the assigned FIC
or the nearest communications agency en route.
256
TC AIM March 25, 2021
When the pilot-in-command of an IFR aircraft is informed that 300 ft or more. Therefore, it is expected that pilot altitude reports,
the aircraft has been IDENTIFIED, position reports over especially during climbs and descents, will be made to the nearest
compulsory reporting points are no longer required. Pilots will 100-ft increment.
be informed when to resume normal position reporting.
Example:
In order that flight information and alerting service may be EDMONTON CENTRE, AIR CANADA EIGHT ZERO ONE HEAVY,
provided to all IFR flights outside controlled airspace, pilots LEAVING EIGHT THOUSAND THREE HUNDRED FEET,
should make position reports over all navigation aids (NAVAID) CLIMBING TO FLIGHT LEVEL THREE FIVE ZERO.
along the route of flight to the nearest station with air-ground
communications capability. If the phrase “report reaching”, “report leaving” or “report
passing” is used by ATC, the pilot shall comply (CAR 602.31—
If the time estimate for the next applicable reporting point differs
Compliance with Air Traffic Control Instructions and Clearances).
from the previously reported estimate by 3 min or more, a revised
estimated time should be reported to the appropriate air traffic
service (ATS) unit as soon as possible. 8.4 climB or DeScent
RAC
restrictions; however, pilots are expected to remain at or
above MEAs.)
8.3 AltituDe rePortS
Although the CARs do not specifically direct pilots to report NOTE:
altitude information to ATC, pilots, if not operating in radar When an aircraft reports vacating an altitude, ATC may assign
airspace (i.e. radar-identified by ATC), should report reaching the altitude to another aircraft. Control will be based on the pilot
the altitude to which the flight has been initially cleared. When following these procedures and on the normal operating
climbing or descending en route, pilots should report when characteristics of the aircraft.
leaving a previously-assigned altitude and when reaching the
assigned altitude. (c) If a descending aircraft must level off at 10 000 ft ASL to
comply with CAR 602.32 while cleared to a lower level,
On initial contact with ATC, or when changing from one ATC the pilot should advise ATC of the descent interruption.
frequency to another, when operating in radar or non-radar
airspace, pilots of IFR and CVFR flights should state the assigned
cruising altitude and, when applicable, the altitude through
which the aircraft is climbing or descending.
In order for ATC to use Mode C altitude information for separation
purposes, the aircraft Mode C altitude readout must be verified.
The Mode C altitude is considered valid if the readout value
does not differ from the aircraft reported altitude by more than
200 ft. The readout is considered invalid if the difference is
257
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(d) ATC may authorize aircraft to employ cruise climb designated mountainous areas, which are used in
techniques either between two levels or above a specified the arrival or departure phase of flight;
level. A clearance or instruction to cruise climb authorizes (iii) Safe Altitude 100 NM outside of designated
climb at any given rate as well as temporarily levelling at mountainous areas; all MSA;
intermediate altitudes. Pilots are expected to advise ATC (iv) instrument approach transitions (including DME
of the altitude they temporarily level off at to the nearest arcs);
100 ft. Once the aircraft has vacated an altitude during a (v) radar vectoring areas [except as in (c)(iii)]; and
cruise climb, it may not return to that altitude. ATC will (vi) AMA outside of designated mountainous areas as
use the following phraseology: shown on the Enroute and Terminal Area Charts.
CRUISE CLIMB TO (altitude) (b) 1 500 ft:
(i) airways and air routes within designated mountainous
or
areas 2, 3, and 4; or
CLIMB TO (altitude) CRUISE CLIMB BETWEEN (levels) (or (ii) Safe Altitude 100 NM within designated mountainous
ABOVE [level]) areas 2, 3, and 4.
(c) 2 000 ft:
8.4.2 Visual Climb and Descent (i) airways and air routes within designated mountainous
areas 1 and 5 with the exception of those segments
8.4.2.1 General described in (a)(ii);
(ii) Safe Altitude 100 NM within designated mountainous
Application of visual climbs and descents in VMC, under certain areas 1 and 5;
circumstances, provides both controllers and pilots with an (iii) certain radar vectoring areas within designated
operational advantage in the conduct of safe and orderly flow mountainous areas; and
of air traffic. (iv) AMA within designated mountainous areas as shown
on the Enroute and Terminal Area Charts.
8.4.2.2 Visual Separation from Other Aircraft MEAs have been established for all designated low-level airways
ATC may authorize the pilot of an IFR aircraft to conduct a and air routes in Canada. An MEA is defined as the published
visual climb or descent while maintaining visual separation with altitude ASL between specified fixes on airways or air routes,
the appropriate traffic only if a pilot requests it. Controllers will which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, and
not initiate or suggest a visual climb/descent in this application. which meets IFR obstacle clearance requirements.
During this altitude change in VMC, pilots must provide their The minimum flight plan altitude shall be the nearest altitude
own separation, including wake turbulence separation, from all or flight level consistent with the direction of flight (CAR 602.34).
other aircraft. This application may be exercised in both radar This altitude should be at or above the MEA. Unless the MEA
and non-radar environments. is one which is consistent with the direction of flight, it is not
IFR separation is required for all altitude changes in Class A to be used in the flight plan or flight itinerary.
and B airspace. Accordingly, visual climbs or descents will not As different MEAs may be established for adjoining segments
RAC
be approved for aircraft operating in these classes of airspace. of airways or air routes, aircraft are, in all cases, to cross the
specified fix at which a change in the MEA takes place, at the
8.5 minimum inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) higher MEA.
AltituDeS To ensure adequate signal coverage, many of the MEAs on low-
level airways are established at altitudes which are higher than
Except when taking off or landing, aircraft in IFR flight shall those required for obstacle clearance. When this occurs, a MOCA
be operated at least 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle within is also published to provide the pilot with the minimum IFR
a horizontal radius of 5 NM of the aircraft (CAR 602.124). altitude for obstacle clearance. A MOCA is defined as the altitude
Exceptions to this are flights within designated mountainous between radio fixes on low-level airways and air routes, which
regions, but outside areas for which minimum altitudes for IFR meets the IFR Air routes clearance requirements for the route
operations have been established (see RAC 2.12 and segment. Where the MOCA is lower than the MEA, the MOCA
RAC Figure 2.10). is published in addition to the MEA on the Enroute Charts.
Where the MEA and MOCA are the same, only the MEA is
NOTE:
published.
The established MOCA for IFR operations provides obstacle
clearance above the highest obstacle within the following areas: The MOCA, or the MEA when the MOCA is not published, is
the lowest altitude for the airway or air route segment at which
(a) 1 000 ft: an IFR flight may be conducted under any circumstances. These
(i) airways and air routes outside of designated altitudes are provided so that pilots will be readily aware of the
mountainous areas; lowest safe altitude that may be used in an emergency, such as
(ii) certain airway and air route segments within a malfunctioning engine or icing conditions. Under ISA
258
TC AIM March 25, 2021
conditions, they provide a minimum of 1 000 ft of clearance A controller is not permitted to clear an aircraft flying on an
above all obstacles lying within the lateral limits of all airways airway at an altitude below the MEA. However, flight below
and air routes and 1500/2000 ft in designated mountainous the MEA, but not below the MOCA, may be approved when
regions. specifically requested by the pilot in the interest of flight safety
(e.g. icing/turbulence), to conduct a flight check, for MEDEVAC,
Pressure altimeters are calibrated to indicate true altitude under
or when navigating using GNSS.
ISA conditions, and any deviation from ISA will result in an
erroneous altimeter reading. When temperatures are extremely Navigational signal coverage is not guaranteed below the MEA;
cold, true altitudes will be significantly lower than indicated when navigating using NAVAIDS, the pilot should ensure that
altitudes. Although pilots may fly IFR at the published MEA/ the aircraft is within, and will remain within, the lateral limits
MOCA, in the winter, when air temperatures are much lower of the airway before requesting approval to fly below the MEA.
than ISA, they should operate at altitudes of at least 1 000 ft It should also be noted that flight below the MEA does not
above the MEA/MOCA. guarantee the aircraft will remain in controlled airspace.
NOTE:
8.6.1.1 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
When flying at a flight level in an area of low pressure, the true
altitude will always be lower than the corresponding flight level. Intersections on a Minimum En-Route
For example, this “pressure error,” in combination with a Altitude (MEA)
temperature error, can produce errors of up to 2 000 ft while The purpose of these fixes is to develop an airway segment
flying in the standard pressure region at FL 100. Further, mountain where lower MEAs may be applied, thus reducing the high
waves in combination with extremely low temperatures may descent rates that otherwise are required when the aircraft is on
result in an altimeter over-reading by as much as 3 000 ft. For initial approach to destination.
further details, see AIR 1.5. Pilots without DME normally will not be able to use these lower
MEAs and may conceivably experience delays in receiving
approach and departure clearances due to other traffic operating
8.6 Air trAffic control (Atc) ASSignment of below the conventional MEA (i.e. the MEA required for non-
AltituDeS DME-equipped aircraft). However, in a radar environment, the
non-DME-equipped aircraft may be cleared at the lower MEA
8.6.1 Minimum Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) where it will be provided with radar service while operating
Altitude below the conventional MEA.
RAC
(b) a minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA); ATC may assign an altitude that is not appropriate to the airway,
air route or direction of flight if:
(c) a minimum sector altitude (MSA);
(a) a pilot requests it because of icing, turbulence, or fuel
(d) a safe altitude within a radius of 100 NM; considerations, provided:
(e) an area minimum altitude (AMA); or (i) the pilot informs ATC of the time or location at
which an appropriate altitude can be accepted, and
(f) a minimum vectoring altitude (MVA).
(ii) the altitude has been approved by affected units/
When a direct route is given, ATC is responsible for obstacle sectors; or
clearance. Provided that the altitude is at or above the minimum
(b) an aircraft is:
IFR altitude for the controlled airspace where the pilot intends
(i) holding, arriving or departing;
to operate, ATC may use “direct” in a route clearance. ATC may
(ii) conducting a flight inspection of a NAVAID;
clear aircraft that are traversing airways or air routes below the
MEA, but not below the applicable minimum IFR altitude. (iii) operating within an altitude reservation;
(iv) engaged in an aerial survey, mapping flight or test
Within ATS surveillance coverage, it is common for controllers flight;
to issue the MVA when issuing direct routes. An MVA can be (v) operating on a polar route; or
lower than a published minimum IFR altitude (MSA, MOCA,
MEA, or AMA). (c) no alternative separation minima can be applied, provided:
(i) the altitude has been approved by affected units/
All ATC-assigned altitudes provide obstacle clearance. sectors, and
(ii) the aircraft is cleared to an appropriate altitude as
soon as possible;
259
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(d) the airspace is structured for a one-way traffic flow. 8.8 cleArAnceS—leAving or entering
NOTES: controlleD AirSPAce
1. In situation (a), the pilot, when able to accept an appropriate ATC will use the phrase “while in controlled airspace” in
altitude, will be requested to advise ATC. In situation (c), conjunction with the altitude if an aircraft will be entering or
the aircraft will be re-cleared to an appropriate altitude as leaving controlled airspace. In addition, ATC will specify the
soon as operationally feasible. Due to safety implications, lateral point and altitude at which an aircraft is to leave or enter
use of altitudes inappropriate for the direction of flight must controlled airspace if the instruction is required for separation
be limited, and requests must not be made solely for fuel purposes (see Note).
efficiency reasons. Pilots should make requests only to
Example:
avoid a fuel situation that might cause an otherwise
unnecessary refuelling stop short of the flight-planned LEAVE/ENTER CONTROLLED AIRSPACE (number) MILES
destination. ATC will not ask the pilot to substantiate a (direction) OF (fix) AT (altitude).
request; if ATC is unable to approve the request, the controller LEAVE/ENTER CONTROLLED AIRSPACE AT (altitude).
will state the reason and request the pilot’s intention.
2. In the application of (a) or (c) in high-level radar-controlled NOTE:
airspace, aircraft at an altitude not appropriate for the The altitude assigned by ATC need only reflect the minimum
direction of flight will be issued radar vectors or offset safe IFR altitude within controlled airspace. A pilot should be
tracks to establish the aircraft at least 5 NM from the alert to the possibility of a higher minimum safe IFR altitude
outside of controlled airspace. If uncertain (or unable to determine)
centreline of an airway or published track displayed on the
when to enter or leave the area where the higher minima is
radar. applied, a request for clearance to maintain an altitude that will
Phraseology: accommodate the higher minimum IFR altitude should be made.
VECTORS TO (direction) OF (airway, track) TURN (left/right)
TO HEADING (degrees).
8.9 cleArAnce limit
ADVISE IF ABLE TO PROCEED PARALLEL OFFSET.
The clearance limit, as specified in an ATC clearance, is the
PROCEED OFFSET (number) MILES (right/left) OF point to which an aircraft is cleared. Further clearance is delivered
CENTRELINE (track/route) AT (significant point/time) UNTIL to a flight prior to arrival at the clearance limit. However,
(significant point/time). CANCEL OFFSET. occasions may arise when this may not be possible. In the event
that further clearance is not received, the pilot is to hold at the
clearance limit, maintain the last assigned altitude and request
8.7 “1 000-ft-on-toP” inStrument flight further clearance. If communications cannot be established with
ruleS (ifr) flight ATC, the pilot should then proceed in accordance with
communications failure procedures as described in RAC 6.3.2.
1 000-ft-on-top IFR flight may be conducted provided that
The responsibility rests with the pilot to determine whether or
(a) the flight is made at least 1 000 ft above all cloud, haze, not a received clearance can be complied with in the event of a
RAC
also be broadcast on 126.7 MHz for information of other A STAR requires the pilot to follow a predetermined route,
aircraft in the area. The report should contain present whereas the MSA and the TAA are less prescriptive and simply
position, track, altitude, altimeter setting in use, next position offer safe altitudes to which the pilot can descend before
and ETA; commencing the approach. Pilots are to review each STAR
(c) immediately before changing altitude, commencing an issued and to follow the procedure as published. If there is
instrument approach or departing IFR, pilots should any doubt as to what is required, clarification should be
broadcast their intentions on 126.7 MHz whenever obtained from air traffic control (ATC). Pilots are not required
practicable. Such broadcasts should contain adequate to accept a STAR clearance, and, if they are unable to follow
information to enable other pilots to be fully aware of the it, they should request alternate instructions.
position and intentions so that they can determine if there
will be any conflict with their flight paths; 9.2.1 Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)
(d) at aerodromes where an MF has been designated, arriving The MSA, as depicted on the approach chart (see the CAP),
pilots shall first broadcast their intentions on 126.7 MHz provides a minimum of 1 000 ft clearance above all obstacles
before changing to the MF. If conflicting IFR traffic becomes within a sector of a circle having a radius of at least 25 NM
evident, this change should be delayed until the conflict is centred on a radio aid to navigation or on a waypoint located
resolved. Pilots departing IFR should broadcast their near the aerodrome. Where required, the depiction may be divided
intentions on 126.7 MHz, in addition to the MF, prior to into several pie-shaped sectors of varying minimum altitudes.
takeoff; and Pilots can locate their sector by superimposing their track to the
(e) the preceding reporting requirements are considered as the selected NAVAID onto the MSA depiction.
minimum necessary. Pilots are encouraged to make Unlike TAA depictions, MSA depictions do not allow the sectors
additional reports whenever the possibility of conflicting to be further partitioned into step-down arcs of varying distances.
IFR traffic is suspected. An example would be reporting
prior to overflying a facility where cross traffic is probable NOTE:
or where there is a published instrument approach procedure. MSAs are not flight-inspected. Therefore, MSAs based on
conventional NAVAIDs may not necessarily assure acceptable
NOTE: navigational signal coverage throughout the 25-NM radius area.
There is no frequency comparable to 126.7 MHz for use by
aircraft equipped only with UHF; however, pertinent UHF traffic RNAV approaches may use either an MSA or a TAA depiction.
information will be relayed on the MF by the flight service RNAV approaches that use the MSA shall depict the common
specialist. minimum altitude only.
RAC
9.1 AutomAtic terminAl informAtion approach chart (see the CAP).
Service (AtiS) BroADcAStS The main advantage of the TAA over the MSA is that it can
allow step-down arcs, based on RNAV distances, within its
If ATIS is available, all pilots should use it to obtain the basic
divided areas. This allows the aircraft to descend to lower
arrival or departure and aerodrome information as soon as it is
minimum altitudes while still providing a minimum clearance
practicable.
of 1 000 ft above all obstacles.
The standard TAA consists of three areas which are defined by 9.2.3 Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
the extension of the initial and intermediate approach segments.
These are called the straight-in, left-base, and right-base areas. A STAR is an ATC IFR arrival procedure published in the CAP
for use by aircraft with the appropriate navigation capabilities
Figure(STRAIGHT-IN
9.1—BasicAREA)
“T” Approach with TAA Depiction and is coded in many GNSS and FMS databases.
STARs provide the following benefits:
D
ON
TO
BL
(a) Predictability for flight crews: As opposed to radar vectors,
00
STARs allow pilots to be aware in advance of arrival routings
NM
83 B LO N D
TO 9º
21
30
PEELS
and plan more optimum descent profiles.
M
12 N
00 (IAWP)
52
S
084º
ON
D
PE
EL
21
9º
(b) Facilitation of clearances and radiotelephony exchanges:
PEEL S
00 BL
60
9º 00 00 Published STARs reduce the need to communicate detailed
03 BLOND 52 9º 52
21 .0 descent, speed, and track instructions.
TO
(IWP)
5
NM
30
(c) Increased predictability for ATC: Controllers observe more
30
9º
consistent aircraft track-keeping and turn performance on
00
49 9º
03 .0
STARs due to published speed and altitude restrictions.
5 (LEFT-BASE AREA)
12 .0
HEATR
9º
6
(IAWP)
LUMBR
(FAWP) 9.2.3.1 Conventional Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
A conventional STAR can be flown using ground-based NAVAIDs
and/or charted headings and traditionally ends with ATC
R
AT providing radar vectors. Pilots who request a conventional STAR
12 .2
HE
9º
5
00
56
AT JOGGS are expected to have sufficient navigation equipment to fly the
R
15 N
M TO H E
30
8 30
0 procedure. Canadian conventional STARs are gradually being
30
NM TO HEAT
R
replaced with PBN STARs.
262
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) at least one automatic radio-updated IRU, if the RNAV system When a STAR procedure includes transitions from the en route
or FMS does not use a GPS sensor; airspace structure, the en route transitions are identified in
(c) a current database containing the waypoints, for the STAR similar fashion to the main STAR procedure. The en route
to be flown, that can be automatically loaded into the RNAV transition identification includes a plain-language designator
system or FMS active flight plan; and a coded designator. The plain-language designator is the
spoken identification for the en route transition and, while not
(d) a system capable of following the RNAV system or always, it is usually derived from the name of the first point of
FMS lateral flight path and limiting the cross-track error the en route transition. The coded designator is the database/
deviation to +/- ½ the navigation accuracy associated with flight planning identification for the en route transition and is
the procedure or route; and derived from both the en route transition plain-language
(e) an electronic map display. designator and the primary procedure identification. For example,
the LETAK TRANSITION (LETAK.IMEBA3) on the IMEBA
THREE ARR into CYYZ is highlighted on the chart below.
9.2.3.3 Flight Planning
Authorized aircraft and air operators who meet the appropriate Figure 9.2—Example of an En route Transition
navigation specification (or the equipment list shown above for on the IMEBA THREE ARR into CYYZ
STARs without a navigation specification) may file STARs in
their flight plan. Operators not authorized to flight plan PBN
STARs are expected to file plans that include waypoints from
the expected STAR procedure (or plans that are as close to the
waypoints as possible), and include the remark in field 18 of the
flight plan: RMK/NO RNAV STAR.
When included in a flight plan, the STAR will form part of the
flight-planned route in the ATC clearance.
NOTE:
Mandatory IFR Routes may include a STAR. See RAC 11.4.3.
RAC
identification and the en route transition identification. the ATC-assigned altitude. Unless specially cancelled by ATC,
all charted restrictions above the assigned altitude on the STAR
The primary procedure identification consists of the following remain mandatory.
three elements:
(a) Procedure type 9.2.3.6 Speed Restrictions
(b) Plain-language designator Pilots must follow charted speed restrictions on a STAR. An
(c) Coded designator ATC-assigned speed restriction supersedes any STAR-charted
speed restrictions and must be followed until CAR 602.32
The procedure type is shown as one of the following:
prohibits the pilot from flying at that speed.
(a) STAR: identifies the procedure as a conventional STAR
(b) STAR (RNAV): identifies the procedure as a PBN STAR 9.2.3.7 Operating Procedures
The plain-language designator is the spoken identification for When included in a flight plan, the STAR forms part of the
the STAR procedure. It consists of a basic indicator, a validity flight-planned route received in the initial ATC clearance. When
number, and the term “ARR”. The validity number is a number a flight plan that includes a STAR has been filed, or when the
between one and nine assigned sequentially after a qualifying pilot receives and acknowledges a clearance that includes a
procedure amendment. Example: UDNOX ONE ARR. A STAR, the pilot is expected to fly the charted lateral track without
qualifying procedure amendment is a change in a procedure further clearance. However, descent clearance must be obtained
track or another significant change affecting the database coding from ATC before commencing the vertical profile.
of the procedure.
263
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.2.3.8 Top of Descent (TOD) 9.2.3.10 Closed Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
Sophisticated FMSs have the ability to determine precisely Procedures
where to begin a descent from cruise altitude in order to minimize A closed STAR procedure provides a continuous path from the
fuel usage, pollution, and noise by having the engines at their en route structure and automatically joins up with the final
minimum thrust setting (idle) from cruise altitude to the final approach course. A closed STAR terminates at the FACF. On a
approach fix. This point is known as TOD. The most recent closed STAR, when an approach clearance is received, the pilot
Canadian STAR procedures are carefully designed to allow the will continue to comply with all published altitude and speed
greatest benefits from idle descents while meeting the most restrictions, fly the charted track to the FACF, intercept the final
common ATC requirements. approach course, and fly the straight-in approach. A closed
In order to maintain safety and airspace capacity, ATC may have STAR procedure is normally used when the inbound track is
to issue tactical instructions such as interim altitudes, speed within plus or minus 90˚ of the final approach course to the
control, radar vectors, or direct routes. Tactical instructions runway.
impact the TOD planning carried out by the FMS. For instance, ATC always strives to issue approach clearances before aircraft
delaying the planned descent, reducing the speed, or shortcutting reach the end of closed STARs, but in very rare cases (such as
STAR intermediate waypoints translate into a steeper descent a distress call in progress on the frequency, frequency congestion,
angle, requiring the use of speed brakes and/or a longer flying or high ATC workload), this may not always be possible. In
distance. A premature descent clearance will translate into a order to assure obstacle clearance throughout the STAR and the
shallower descent angle, requiring the use of engine trust. To approach lateral tracks, if an aircraft were to reach the end of a
help mitigate the impact of these tactical instructions, ATC will closed STAR prior to the issuance of an approach clearance, the
endeavour to cancel or assign altitude and speed restrictions as pilot would be expected to safely intercept the final approach
far in advance as possible to help the flight crew re-optimize course and fly inbound maintaining the last assigned altitude.
the descent. In the extremely remote case in which the aircraft reaches the
In some terminal areas, the en route controller may issue initial end of the final approach track and further clearance has still
descent instructions at TOD, but it may be an arrival controller not been obtained, the pilot would be expected to track the lateral
who could ultimately be responsible for sequencing aircraft to position of the missed approach procedure for what would have
the final approach course. Pilots should always state their been the anticipated approach, and maintain the last assigned
requested approach when making initial contact with the altitude or climb to the anticipated missed approach altitude if
controller who will be responsible for sequencing the aircraft the missed approach altitude is higher.
to the final approach course, even if the initial descent clearance
was issued by another controller. 9.2.3.11 Open Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
Procedures
9.2.3.9 Descent Planning Similar to a closed STAR, an open STAR procedure also provides
Some PBN instrument approach procedures require fewer track a continuous path from the en route structure but does not
miles to be f lown, necessitating STAR vertical profiles automatically join up with the final approach course. Open
significantly lower than those required for other approaches. STARs are charted with an expectation of radar vectors and
RAC
264
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Figure 9.3 — Example of a Closed STAR for Rwys 24L Figure 9.4 — CYHZ ILS RWY 23 with “GNSS REQUIRED”
and 24R and an Open STAR for Rwys 06L and 06R Left and Right IAWP to IF Transitions
NOTE:
While it may still exist at a few airports, the connection between
STAR DTW and FACF is gradually being phased out.
RAC
265
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Figure 9.6 — CYHZ RNAV (RNP) Y RWY 23 with Left Figure 9.8 — Open STAR to RNP AR APPROACH
and Right “RF REQUIRED” IWP to FAWP Transitions
Open STAR before ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR not Linked to Approach
5800 210 kt
MILLS
APLEX SEBOG BASRA MILLS
BASRA
SEBOG 210/5800
NOTAV SEBOG
APLEX
VECTOR
STAR
NOT LINKED
RNP APPROACH
SEBOG 210/5800
NOTAV
BEXIM
BEXIM
Open STAR after ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR Linked to Approach
5800 210 kt
BASRA MILLS
Open STAR before ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR not Linked to Approach 9.2.3.16 Direct Routings to an Initial Approach
APLEX
APLEX SEBOG BASRA MILLS
MILLS
Waypoint (IAWP)/Intermediate Waypoint (IWP)
BASRA
DUDLI BEXIM
Open STAR after ATC Approach Clearance; therefore STAR Linked to Approach with the consideration that the aircraft be established at the
APLEX SEBOG BASRA MILLS published speed and altitude, on the track centreline, and with
MILLS
BASRA
the wings level prior to the beginning of the RF leg. The straight
STAR
RNP APPROACH
SEBOG
APLEX
DUDLI
segment prior to these RF legs provides adequate time for aircraft
BEXIM
to stabilize in this configuration. Direct routings to the beginning
DUDLI BEXIM
of RF leg segments are not permitted. An RNP AR APCH must
not begin inside of the IWP.
266
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.2.3.17 Cancelling Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) When an approach clearance is issued, the published name of
Procedures the approach is used to designate the type of approach if adherence
to a particular procedure is required. If visual reference to the
Accepting a visual approach clearance automatically cancels ground is established before completion of a specified approach,
the STAR procedure. A STAR may also be cancelled by ATC the aircraft should continue with the entire procedure unless
if required. If ATC cancels a STAR, the pilot should expect further clearance is obtained.
alternate instructions (either radar vectors to the final approach
course, or a new route clearance). A STAR that has been cancelled Example:
may be reinstated by ATC. CLEARED TO THE OTTAWA AIRPORT, STRAIGHT-IN ILS
RUNWAY ZERO SEVEN APPROACH.
9.2.3.18 Communication Failures on a Standard Terminal CLEARED TO THE TORONTO AIRPORT, ILS RUNWAY ZERO
Arrival (STAR) Procedure SIX LEFT APPROACH.
See the CFS, section F (Emergency), under Two-Way The number of the runway on which the aircraft will land is
Communications Failure—IFR Flight Plan included in the approach clearance when a landing will be made
on a runway other than that aligned with the instrument approach
9.3 APProAch cleArAnce aid being used.
When using direct controller pilot communications, ATC Example:
normally advises pilots of the ceiling, visibility, wind, runway, CLEARED TO THE OTTAWA AIRPORT, STRAIGHT-IN ILS
altimeter setting, approach aid in use, and pertinent aerodrome RUNWAY ZERO SEVEN APPROACH/CIRCLING PROCEDURE
conditions (CRFI, RSC, etc.) immediately prior to or shortly SOUTH FOR RUNWAY THREE TWO.
after descent clearance. Upon acknowledging receipt of the
current ATIS broadcast, the pilot is advised by ATC of the NOTE:
current airport conditions only if they are changing rapidly. If the pilot begins a missed approach during a circling procedure,
Aircraft destined to airports which underlie controlled low- level the published missed approach procedure as shown for the
airspace and for which there is a published instrument approach instrument approach just completed shall be flown. The pilot
procedure, will be cleared out of controlled airspace (vertically) does not use the procedure for the runway on which the landing
via the published instrument approach procedure. was planned.
RAC
pilot, the pilot has the option of conducting any published
Example: instrument approach procedure. In addition, the pilot also has
ATC CLEARS (aircraft identification) TO DESCEND OUT OF the option of proceeding by the route so cleared by ATC in a
CONTROLLED AIRSPACE VICINITY OF (aerodrome name). previous clearance, by any published transition or feeder route
THE (minimum IFR altitude) IS (number) feet. associated with the selected procedure, or by a route present
position direct to a fix associated with the selected instrument
The pilot may elect to cancel IFR as soon as visual conditions approach procedure. Pilots who choose to proceed to the
permit the continuation of the flight under VFR, or remain on instrument procedure fix via a route that is off an airway, air
the IFR flight plan until the aircraft has landed and the pilot route or transition are responsible for maintaining the appropriate
files an arrival report. Should the pilot anticipate that visual obstacle clearance, complying with noise abatement procedures
conditions to permit continued flight under VFR may not be and remaining clear of Class F airspace. As soon as practicable
achieved, the pilot may arrange with ATC to have the MEA after receipt of this type of clearance, it is the pilot’s responsibility
protected. to advise ATC of the type of published instrument approach
procedure that will be carried out, the landing runway and the
Aircraft destined to airports which underlie controlled high-level
intended route to be flown.
airspace and where there is no minimum IFR altitude established
that would prohibit such a manoeuvre will be cleared out of This clearance does not constitute authority for the pilot to
controlled high-level airspace. execute a contact or visual approach. Should the pilot prefer to
Example: conduct a visual approach (published or non-published) or a
contact approach, the pilot must specifically communicate that
ATC CLEARS (aircraft identification) OUT OF (type of request to the controller.
airspace).
267
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Upon changing to the tower or FSS frequency, pilots should 9.5 ADvAnce notice of intent in minimum
advise the agency of the intended route and published instrument
approach procedure being carried out. weAther conDitionS
The pilot should not deviate from the stated instrument approach ATC can handle missed approaches more efficiently if the
procedure or route without the concurrence of ATC because controller knows the pilot’s intentions in advance. They can use
such an act could cause dangerous conflict with another aircraft the extra time to plan for the possibility of a missed approach
or a vehicle on a runway. and thus provide better service in the event of an actual missed
approach.
A clearance for an approach may not include any intermediate
altitude restrictions. The pilot may receive this clearance while Pilots should adopt the following procedures as the occasion arises.
the aircraft is still a considerable distance from the airport, in On receipt of approach clearance, when the ceiling and visibility
either a radar or non-radar environment. In these cases, the pilot reported at the destination airport is such that a missed approach
may descend, at his/her convenience, to whichever is the lowest is probable, the pilot should advise the controller as follows:
of the following IFR altitudes applicable to the position of the
aircraft: IN THE EVENT OF MISSED APPROACH REQUEST (altitude or level)
VIA (route) TO (airport).
(a) minimum en route altitude (MEA);
Implementation of this procedure increases the amount of
(b) published transition or feeder route altitude; communications, but the increase can be minimized if pilots
(c) minimum sector altitude (MSA) specified on the appropriate employ it only when there is a reasonable chance that a missed
instrument approach chart; approach may occur.
(d) safe altitude 100 NM specified on the appropriate instrument
approach chart; or 9.6 contAct AnD viSuAl APProAcheS
(e) when in airspace for which the Minister has not specified
a higher minimum, an altitude of at least 1 000 ft above the 9.6.1 Contact Approach
highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 5 NM (1 500 ft
A contact approach is an approach wherein an aircraft on an
or 2 000 ft within designated mountainous regions, depending
IFR flight plan or flight itinerary having an ATC clearance,
on the zone) from the established position of the aircraft.
operating clear of clouds with at least 1 NM flight visibility and
NOTE: a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport
When a pilot receives and accepts an ATC clearance which in those conditions, may deviate from the IAP and proceed to
authorizes descent to MSA or a safe altitude 100 NM during the destination airport by visual reference to the surface of the
normal IFR operations, descent below the MEA for the preceding earth. In accordance with CAR 602.124, the aircraft shall be
en route phase should not commence until the pilot can positively flown at an altitude of at least 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle
establish the aircraft’s position by means of a bearing, radial, located within a horizontal radius of 5 NM from the estimated
DME, radar or visual means. position of the aircraft in flight until the required visual reference
is acquired in order to conduct a normal landing. Pilots are
CAUTION: cautioned that conducting a contact approach in minimum
RAC
Pilots are cautioned that descents to MSA or Safe Altitude 100 NM visibility conditions introduces hazards to flight not experienced
may, under certain conditions, exit controlled airspace. ATC
when flying IFR procedures. Familiarity with the aerodrome
provides IFR separation within controlled airspace only.
environment, including local area obstacles, terrain, noise
sensitive areas, Class F airspace and aerodrome layout, is
9.4 DeScent out of controlleD AirSPAce paramount for a successful contact approach in minimum
visibility conditions. Pilots are responsible for the adherence to
ATC may not clear an aircraft to operate below the MEA of an
published noise abatement procedures and compliance with any
airway, nor below the minimum IFR altitude in other controlled
restrictions that may apply to Class F airspace when conducting
low-level airspace. The pilot, however, may operate at the MOCA,
a contact approach.
and ATC will approve flight at the MOCA at the pilot’s request.
If unable to cancel IFR at the MEA, the pilot may advise that NOTE:
he/she intends to descend to the MOCA. By prior arrangement This type of approach will only be authorized by ATC when:
with ATC, the MEA will be protected in the event that the pilot
does not encounter visual conditions at the MOCA. Under this 1. the pilot requests it; and
arrangement, the MEA will be protected: 2. there is an approved functioning instrument approach, a
(a) until the pilot files an arrival report; published GNSS or a GNSS overlay approach for the airport.
(b) for 30 min; to allow descent to the MOCA and return to the An aircraft that requests a contact approach to an airport served
MEA when communication is restored with ATC; or only by a GNSS approach is indicating to ATS that the pilot
understands that no ground based approach is available and is
(c) if ATC does not hear from the pilot under (a) or (b), until confirming that it is able to conduct a GNSS approach.
the aircraft is estimated to have arrived at the filed alternate
plus 30 min.
268
TC AIM March 25, 2021
ATC will ensure IFR separation from other IFR flights and will ATC will issue a a visual approach clearance and, as required,
issue specific missed approach instructions if there is any doubt supplement it with additional instructions such as:
that a landing will be accomplished. Pilots are cautioned that
(a) Heading assignment:
when any missed approach is initiated while conducting a contact
(i) To ensure the aircraft stays separated from preceding
approach, obstacle and terrain avoidance is the pilot’s responsibility
or succeeding traffic. ATC will consider the aircraft’s
even though specific missed approach instructions may have
altitude and remaining distance to the airport when
been issued by ATC. ATC only ensures appropriate IFR separation
using this method; and
from other IFR aircraft during contact approaches.
(ii) To comply with parallel runway operation rules that
NOTE: require a 30-degree intercept heading to final prior
ATC will not issue an IFR approach clearance that includes to issuing the visual approach clearance.
clearance for a contact approach unless there is a published and (b) Distance to intercept the final approach course and/or altitude
functioning IAP or a restricted instrument approach procedure to establish separation from traffic under the control tower’s
(RIAP) authorized by TC for the airport. Where a GNSS or responsibility using references to:
GNSS overlay approach is the only available IAP or RIAP, this (i) published NAVAIDs, fixes, or waypoints;
fulfils the requirement for a “functioning instrument approach.” (ii) the distance from the runway; and
(iii) a prominent landmark on the final approach course.
9.6.2 Visual Approach ATC may anticipate that pilots will navigate to the final approach
course using the following methods depending on the aircraft’s
A visual approach is an approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR
altitude and distance from the airport:
flight plan, operating in VMC under the control of ATC and
having ATC authorization, may proceed to the destination airport. (a) Flying the shortest distance to the airport while complying
It permits aircraft to manage their lateral and vertical flight with ATC and noise abatement restrictions; or
profiles according to the runway. (b) Using the on-board navigation guidance to follow a lateral
To gain operational advantages in a surveillance environment, profile reflecting any remaining portion of the STAR and
the pilot may request a visual approach, or ATC may initiate the previously planned published instrument approach
one, provided that: procedure. This provides the following benefits:
(i) enhanced aircraft energy management;
(a) the reported ceiling at the destination airport is 500 ft or
(ii) predictability;
more above the minimum IFR altitude and the ground
(iii) reduced flight deck workload;
visibility is 3 statute miles or more;
(iv) flexibility in meeting stabilized approach criteria;
(b) at a controlled or uncontrolled airport, the pilot reports and
sighting the airport; and (v) adherence to altitude restrictions during nighttime
(c) at a controlled airport, conditions.
(i) the pilot reports sighting the preceding aircraft and As both methods differ in terms of flying distance, it is good
is instructed by ATC to follow that aircraft; or airmanship for pilots to advise ATC of the planned flight path,
RAC
(ii) the pilot reports sighting the airport but not the especially if it is likely to be unexpected or unpredictable, such
preceding aircraft, in which case ATC will ensure as cases involving the widening of the base leg or the inability
separation from the preceding aircraft until: to shorten the flying distance as anticipated by ATC.
(A) the preceding aircraft has landed; or
(B) the pilot has sighted the preceding aircraft and 9.6.2.1 Missed Approach
has been instructed to follow or maintain visual
separation from it. A visual approach is not an IAP, and except for published visual
approach procedures in the CAP, there are no procedures
ATC considers acceptance of a visual approach clearance as associated with a missed visual approach; visual approaches
acknowledgement that the pilot should be responsible for: therefore have no missed approach segment. If a go-around is
(a) maintaining visual separation from the preceding aircraft necessary for any reason, aircraft operating at controlled airports
that the pilot has been instructed to follow; will be issued an appropriate advisory/clearance/instruction by
the tower to ensure that separation from other airport traffic is
(b) maintaining adequate wake turbulence separation from the
maintained.
preceding aircraft that the pilot has been instructed to follow;
(c) navigating to the final approach course; NOTE:
(d) adhering to published noise abatement procedures and It is understood that the execution of a missed approach manoeuvre
avoiding Class F airspace; and involves critical internal flight deck communications and high
pilot workload. If these instructions are required for planning,
(e) at uncontrolled airports, maintaining appropriate separation pilots may request them before the approach clearance or at any
from VFR traffic that, in many cases, will not be known time prior to initiating the missed approach.
to ATC.
269
TC AIM March 25, 2021
ATC instructions will guide the pilot to: to conduct a normal landing. Introducing DME and other feeder
1. continue flying the issued IFR clearance; or routes or transitions permitted the pilot to conduct a straight-in
procedure without conducting the procedure turn. Most
2. integrate into the airport VFR circuit.
instrument procedures today are accomplished without conducting
(a) Controlled Airports a procedure turn.
At controlled airports, until missed approach instructions are Instrument approaches at Canada’s major airports are conducted
issued, ATC should anticipate that pilots conducting a go-around by radar vectors to the final approach course. While procedure
from a visual approach will: turns are depicted on the instrument approach procedures at
(i) initially fly the runway heading; these airports, procedure turns are never flown. ATC route and
(ii) follow the published missed approach instructions space all aircraft within the terminal area in order to provide a
for the IAP requested by the pilots and acknowledged systematic flow of the air traffic. An aircraft conducting a
by ATC; or procedure turn manoeuvre at these major centres would cause
(iii) follow the published missed approach instructions serious traffic disruptions which may lead to losses of separation
for the IAP advertised on the ATIS. or possibly a mid-air collision.
(b) Uncontrolled Airports Instrument procedures are being introduced eliminating the
At uncontrolled airports, aircraft crews are required to remain procedure turn as well as including a statement “RADAR
clear of clouds and are expected to complete a landing as soon REQUIRED” as part of the procedure. The initial approach
as possible. If a landing cannot be accomplished, the aircraft segment of these instrument procedures is being provided by
crew is required to: ATC radar vectors. Without ATC radar vectoring, the instrument
(i) remain clear of clouds; and procedure may not have a published initial approach segment.
(ii) maintain separation from other airport traffic. Should an aircraft communication failure occur while being
The crew is also expected to contact ATC as soon as possible vectored for one of these approaches, refer to the communications
for further clearance. failure procedures detailed in RAC Two-Way Communication
Failure.
ATC separation from other IFR aircraft is only assured once
further ATC clearance has been received and acknowledged by
the aircraft crew. 9.7.3 Speed Adjustment – Radar-Controlled
Aircraft
NOTE:
9.7 rADAr ArrivAlS This section is for information only. It describes directives to
controllers and in no way alters the applications of CAR 602.32,
9.7.1 General which prescribes the following maximum speeds for all aircraft:
Radar separation is applied to arriving aircraft in order to establish 1. below 10 000 ft ASL, 250 KIAS; and
and maintain the most desirable arrival sequence to avoid 2. below 3 000 ft AGL and within 10 NM of controlled airports,
unnecessary “stacking”. In the approach phase, radar vectoring 200 KIAS.
is carried out to establish the aircraft on an approach aid. The
RAC
initial instruction is normally a turn to a heading for radar vectors To assist with radar vectoring, it is sometimes necessary to issue
to a final approach to the runway in use. Should a communications speed adjustments. While ATC will take every precaution not
failure occur after this point, the pilot should continue and carry to request speeds beyond the capability of the aircraft, it is the
out a straight-in approach if able, or carry out a procedure turn pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is not operated
and land as soon as possible. Aircraft are vectored so as to at an unsafe speed. If ATC issues a speed reduction that is
intercept the final approach course approximately 2 NM from inconsistent with safe operation, the pilot must inform ATC
the point at which final descent will begin. when unable to comply.
RAC
air traffic controllers will provide a surveillance radar approach
if no alternative method of approach is available and the pilot At uncontrolleD AeroDromeS
declares an emergency and requests a radar approach. Pilots shall establish communications with the air-groundfacility
(FSS, RCO, CARS or UNICOM) on the appropriate frequency
NOTE: if in direct communication with an ACC or a TCU, when directed
NAV CANADA radars are not flight-checked or commissioned to do so by the ACC or TCU.
for surveillance approaches, nor are NAV CANADA controllers
specifically trained to provide them. Notwithstanding this, in accordance with CAR 602.104, pilots
shall establish communication with the facility on the appropriate
frequency no later than five minutes prior to the estimated time
9.8 initiAl contAct with control towerS of commencing the approach procedure. If the ATC approach
Pilots should establish contact with the control tower as follows: clearance has not already been received, it should be obtained
from the agency listed on CAP approach charts, unless otherwise
(a) If in direct communication with an ACC or a TCU, the IFR directed by ATC.
controller shall advise the pilot when contact is to be made
with the tower. Unless on radar vectors to final approach,
NOTES:
pilots should give the tower their ETA to the facility for the
approach they intend to fly. 1. If a pilot is instructed to remain on the ATC frequency
rather than being transferred to the appropriate frequency
(b) If the conditions above do not apply, pilots should establish
for the uncontrolled aerodrome, it remains the pilot’s
communication with the tower when approximately 25 NM
responsibility to notify the associated destination aerodrome
from the airport, give their ETA, obtain an ATC approach
ground station, or to broadcast where no ground station
clearance (if not already received), advise approach intentions
exists, and report in accordance with the following subsection.
and remain on tower frequency.
271
TC AIM March 25, 2021
This may be accomplished by taking one of the following (ii) when passing the final approach fix or three minutes
actions: before the estimated time of landing where no final
(a) if the aircraft is equipped with more than one two-way approach fix exists, and
communication radio, the pilot is expected to make the (iii) on final approach.
report on the appropriate frequency with the secondary In addition to these requirements, pilots operating aircraft under
radio, while monitoring the ATC frequency on the IFR into an uncontrolled aerodrome, when the weather conditions
primary radio; or at the aerodrome could permit VFR circuit operations, are
(b) if the aircraft is equipped with a single two-way expected to approach and land on the active runway that may
communication radio, the pilot must first request and be established by the aircraft operating in the VFR circuit. Pilots
receive permission to leave the ATC frequency in order operating aircraft under IFR at an uncontrolled aerodrome do
to transmit this directed or broadcast report and then not establish any priority over aircraft operating under VFR at
return to the ATC frequency; or, if this is not possible, that aerodrome. Should it be necessary for the IFR aircraft to
the pilot should specifically request ATC to notify the approach and/or land on a runway contrary to the established
associated ground station of their approach intentions VFR operation, it is expected that appropriate communications,
and estimated time of landing. between pilots or between pilots and the air-ground facility, will
be effected in order to ensure there is no traffic conflict.
2. At aerodromes where RAAS is provided via an RCO and
where AWOS (or LWIS) weather information is also
broadcast via a voice generator module (VGM), it is 9.13 inStrumentS flight ruleS (ifr)
recommended that pilots listen to the broadcast prior to ProceDureS At An uncontrolleD
contacting the air-ground facility, and upon contact, advise
that they have the wind and altimeter information. AeroDrome in uncontrolleD AirSPAce
Because a VGM weather broadcast contains up-to-the-minute Pilots operating under IFR in uncontrolled airspace should,
weather, it will be more current and may differ slightly from the whenever practical, monitor 126.7 MHz and broadcast their
most recently disseminated aerodrome routine meteorological intentions on this frequency immediately prior to changing
report (METAR) or aviation selected special weather report altitude or commencing an approach. Therefore, when arriving
(SPECI). The latest METAR or SPECI for the remote aerodrome at an aerodrome where another frequency is designated as the
will be provided, upon request, from the ATS unit controlling MF, descent and approach intentions should be broadcast on
the RCO. 126.7 MHz before changing to the MF. If conflicting IFR traffic
becomes evident, this change should be delayed until the conflict
is resolved. Once established on the MF, the pilot shall make
9.12 inStrument flight ruleS (ifr) rePorting the reports listed in the sub-section above.
ProceDureS At uncontrolleD AeroDromeS A straight-in landing from an IFR approach should not be used
Subsection 1 of CAR 602.104—Reporting Procedures for IFR at an uncontrolled aerodrome where air-ground advisory is not
Aircraft When Approaching or Landing at an Uncontrolled available to provide the wind direction and speed and runway
Aerodrome “applies to persons operating IFR aircraft when condition reports required to conduct a safe landing. The pilot
should determine the wind and verify that the runway is
RAC
272
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.14 outBounD rePort The depiction of radials on a DME arc transition to an IF are
normally limited to the radial forming the IAF at the beginning
To apply the prescribed separation minima between aircraft of the arc, the lead radial (if required) to indicate where the turn
intending to make a complete instrument approach procedure to the final approach track should be commenced, and radials
and other aircraft, ATC must often establish the position and forming step-down fixes if descent to lower altitudes can be
direction of arriving aircraft with respect to the approach facility. approved. However, the arc may be joined from any radial that
When reporting “outbound”, pilots should make these reports intercepts the depicted arc.
only after they are over or abeam the approach facility and
proceeding in a direction away from the airport.
9.17 ProceDure AltituDeS AnD current
9.15 StrAight-in APProAch Altimeter Setting
ATC uses the term “straight-in approach” to indicate an instrument All altitudes published in the CAP are minimum altitudes that
approach conducted so as to position the aircraft on final approach meet obstacle clearance requirements when International
without performing a procedure turn. Standard Atmosphere (ISA) conditions exist and the aircraft
altimeter is set to the current altimeter setting for that aerodrome.
The altimeter setting may be a local or a remote setting when
9.16 StrAight-in APProAcheS from An so authorized on the instrument approach chart. A current
intermeDiAte fix altimeter setting is one provided by approved direct reading or
remote equipment or by the most recent routine hourly weather
Published transitions normally are designated from an en route report. These readings are considered current up to 90 min from
navigation aid to the primary approach aid upon which the the time of observation. Care should be exercised when using
procedure turn is based. However, to accommodate aircraft with altimeter settings older than 60 min or when pressure has been
modern avionics equipment and to improve fuel economy, reported as falling rapidly. In these instances, a value may be
transitions at some locations direct the pilot to an intermediate added to the published DH/MDA in order to compensate for
fix (IF) on the final approach course. Subject to ATC requirements falling pressure tendency (0.01 inches of mercury = 10-ft
and local traffic conditions, a straight-in approach may be made correction). When an authorized remote altimeter setting is used,
from this fix. the altitude correction shall be applied as indicated.
Intermediate fixes are usually located on the final approach
track at the procedure turn distance specified in the profile view. 9.17.1 Corrections for Temperature
This distance, which is normally 10 NM, is the distance within
Pressure altimeters are calibrated to indicate true altitude under
which the procedure turn should be executed. Accordingly, after
ISA conditions. Any deviation from ISA will result in an
passing the fix and manoeuvring the aircraft onto the proper
erroneous reading on the altimeter. In a case when the temperature
inbound track, descent may be made to the appropriate published
is higher than the ISA, the true altitude will be higher than the
altitude that would apply as if a procedure turn had been
figure indicated by the altimeter, and the true altitude will be
completed.
lower when the temperature is lower than the ISA. The altimeter
The abbreviation “NO PT” is used to denote that no procedure error may be significant, and becomes extremely important
RAC
turn is necessary from the point indicated and will normally be when considering obstacle clearances in cold temperatures.
shown adjacent to the IF. However, if the minimum altitude IF
The published minimum IFR altitudes (i.e. the MSA/TAA and
to the final approach fix (FAF) is not readily apparent, the “NO
the initial/intermediate/final and missed approach segments,
PT” abbreviation may be shown at some point between the fix
including the MDA/DA) must be adjusted when the ambient
and FAF, along with an altitude applicable for this segment.
temperature on the surface is much lower than that predicted
Where more than one transition intersects the final approach by the standard atmosphere. As a general rule this is considered
track at different points, only the furthest intersection is designated to be 0°C or, when MDAs/DAs are 1 000 ft HAA or higher, it
as the IF. Pilots may begin a straight-in approach from any begins at 10°C.
depicted transition that intersects the final approach track inside
the designated IF provided that ATC is aware of their intentions NOTE:
and subsequent manoeuvring is within the capabilities of the Should the pilot feel that the above rules do not adequately adjust
aircraft. the published minimum IFR altitudes in the procedures to
compensate for low temperatures, it is at the pilot’s discretion
If the aircraft is badly positioned, laterally or vertically, after
to apply temperature correction whenever the aerodrome
being cleared by ATC for the straight-in approach, pilots should
temperature is below the ISA.
climb to the procedure turn altitude, or the minimum altitude
at the facility if one is depicted, and proceed to the FAF requesting Corrections may be obtained from the “Altitude Correction
clearance for a procedure turn. Chart” in the CAP (which is reproduced as Table 9.1 in RAC).
This chart is calculated for an aerodrome at sea level. It is,
NOTE: therefore, conservative when applied to aerodromes at higher
If the FAF is behind the aircraft, the pilot must conduct a missed altitudes. To calculate the corrections (reduced altitudes) for
approach and request further clearance from ATC. specific aerodromes or altimeter setting sources above sea level,
273
TC AIM March 25, 2021
or for values not tabulated, refer to the following paragraphs. (c) When altitude corrections are applied to a published
mandatory altitude or missed approach holding altitude,
With respect to altitude corrections, the following procedures
pilots should advise ATC of the temperature-corrected
apply:
altitude prior to crossing the associated waypoint.
(a) IFR assigned altitudes may be either accepted or refused.
The “Altitude Correction Chart” was calculated assuming a
Refusal in this case is based upon the pilot’s assessment of
linear variation of temperature with height. It is based on the
temperature effect on obstacle clearance. IFR assigned
following equation, which may be used with the appropriate
altitudes accepted by a pilot should not be adjusted to
value of to, H, L o and Hss to calculate temperature corrections for
compensate for cold temperatures, i.e. if a pilot accepts
specific conditions. This equation produces results that are
“maintain 3 000”, an altitude correction should not be applied
within five percent of the accurate correction for altimeter setting
to 3 000 ft.
sources up to 10 000 ft and with minimum heights up to 5 000 ft
(b) Vectoring altitudes assigned by ATC are temperature above that source. Unless otherwise specified, the destination
corrected and require no temperature compensation by aerodrome elevation is used as the elevation of the altimeter source.
pilots.
Aerodrome Height above the elevation of the altimeter setting sources (feet)
Temperature ˚C 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1 000 1 500 2 000 3 000 4 000 5 000
+10 20 30 40 60 80 100
0 20 20 30 30 40 40 50 50 60 90 120 170 230 290
-10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 150 200 290 390 490
-20 30 50 60 70 90 100 120 130 140 210 280 430 570 710
-30 40 60 80 100 120 130 150 170 190 280 380 570 760 950
-40 50 80 100 120 150 170 190 220 240 360 480 720 970 1 210
-50 60 90 120 150 180 210 240 270 300 450 600 890 1 190 1 500
NOTES:
1. The corrections have been rounded up to the next 10-ft
increment.
2. Values should be added to published minimum IFR altitudes.
3. Temperature values from the reporting station nearest to
the position of the aircraft should be used. This is normally
the aerodrome.
RAC
Table 9.2—Example of Corrections for an Aerodrome at an Elevation of 2 262 ft with a Temperature of -50˚C
274
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Figure 9.9—Correction for Cold of year. However, the corrections derived from the linear
Temperatures: Equation approximation can be taken as a satisfactory estimate for general
application at levels up to 10 000 ft. The correction from the
( )
15 – t0 accurate calculation is valid up to 36 000 ft.
Correction = H ×
273 + t0 – 0.5 × L0 × (H + Hss)
NOTES:
RAC
∆Tstd = temperature deviation from the ISA (When using the Mont-Joli altimeter setting, add 200 ft to the
temperature intermediate, final and missed approach segment minimum
L0 = standard temperature lapse rate with altitudes.)
pressure altitude in the first layer (sea level to 2. RASS: Use CYXU.
tropopause) of the ISA.
(Use London altimeter setting.)
T0 = standard temperature at sea level
If the altitude correction results in the calculated rate of descent
The above equation cannot be solved directly in terms of ∆hGAirplane, exceeding design parameters, the words “circling minima apply”
and an iterative solution is required. This can be done with a will be added to the RASS box. The intent of this note is to draw
simple computer or spreadsheet program. the pilot’s attention to the fact that he/she cannot use straight-in
minima when using the remote altimeter source. However, this
NOTE: does not prohibit the pilot from landing straight in if he/she has
Geopotential height includes a correction to account for the adequate visual reference in applying circling minima and the
variation of g (average 9.8067 m sec2) with height. However, the aircraft is suitably positioned to land straight in.
effect is negligible at the minimum altitudes considered for Example:
obstacle clearance: the difference between geometric height and
geopotential height increases from zero at mean sea level to RASS: When using CYHU add 120’. Circling minima apply.
–59 ft at 36 000 ft. (When using St-Hubert altimeter, add 120 ft to the intermediate,
final and missed approach segment minimum altitudes; circling
Both the preceding equations assume a constant off-standard minima apply.)
temperature lapse rate. The actual lapse rate may vary considerably
from the assumed standard, depending on latitude and time
275
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.19 APPlicAtion of minimA subsection (2), is below the minimum take-off visibility specified
in:
9.19.1 Takeoff Minima (a) the air operator certificate where the aircraft is operated in
accordance with Part VII;
CAR 701.20—Take-off Minima states that:
(b) a special authorization issued under subsection 604.05(2);
For the purposes of section 602.126, a person may conduct a or
take-off in an aircraft where weather conditions are below the
take-off minima specified in the Canada Air Pilot if: (c) the Canada Air Pilot in any case other than a case described
in paragraph (a) or (b).
(a) in the case of a foreign air operator, the foreign air operator
Subsection (2) of CAR 602.126 states that:
is authorized to do so in its Canadian foreign air operator
certificate and complies with the Commercial Air Service For the purposes of subsection (1), the take-off visibility is:
Standards; or
(a) the RVR of the runway, if the RVR is reported to be at or
(b) in the case of a person who operates a foreign state aircraft, above the minimum take-off visibility specified in a
the person is authorized to do so in a flight authorization document or the manual referred to in subsection (1);
and complies with the Commercial Air Service Standards.
(b) the ground visibility of the aerodrome for the runway, if
Subsection (1) of CAR 602.126—Take-off Minima states that: the RVR
No pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall conduct a take-off (i) is reported to be less than the minimum take-off
if the take-off visibility, as determined in accordance with visibility specified in a document or the manual
referred to in subsection (1),
276
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(ii) is reported to vary between distances less than and 9.19.2 Approach Ban
greater than the minimum take-off visibility
specified in the Canada Air Pilot or a certificate
9.19.2.1 General Aviation—Non-Precision Approach
referred to in subsection (1), or
(NPA), Approach Procedure with Vertical
(iii) is not reported; or
Guidance (APV), CAT I or CAT II Precision
(c) the runway visibility as observed by the pilot-in-command, Approach
if
(i) the RVR is not reported, and CAR 602.129 specifies that instrument approaches by general
(ii) the ground visibility of the aerodrome is not reported. aviation aircraft are governed by RVR values only. With certain
(iii) With respect to takeoff visibility, pilots will be exceptions, pilots of aircraft are prohibited from completing an
advised of the ground visibility by the appropriate instrument approach past the FAF (or where there is no FAF,
ATS unit. In the following example, explanations the point where the final approach course is intercepted) to a
are provided to illustrate whether takeoff is authorized runway served by an RVR, if the RVR values as measured for
in a variety of visibility conditions. that runway are below the following minima:
RAC
5. ATC/FSS reports “… RVR Runway 27 is 2000 …”. than the minimum RVR;
A takeoff is not authorized because the reported RVR is below (d) the RVR is less than the minimum RVR, and the ground
minimum. visibility at the aerodrome where the runway is located is
reported to be at least one-quarter statute mile; or
6. ATC/FSS/CARS reports only “… visibility observed on-the-
hour 1/4 mile”. (e) the pilot-in-command is conducting a precision approach
to CAT III minima.
A takeoff is not authorized because reported visibility is below
minimum. With respect to approach restrictions, in the case of a localized
phenomenon or any fluctuations that affect RVR validity, where
In summary, a takeoff is authorized when: the ground visibility is reported by ATC or FSS to be at or above
(a) the lowest reported RVR for the runway is at or above the one-quarter statute mile, an approach may be completed.
minimum takeoff visibility, regardless of reported ground Example:
visibility;
An ILS approach is to be conducted to Runway 27; RVR sensors
(b) the reported ground visibility for the aerodrome is at or
are located at positions A and B; the pilot is flying an aeroplane.
above the minimum takeoff visibility, regardless of the
reported RVR for the runway; or 1. ATC/FSS reports “…RVR “A” 800, RVR “B” 800, observed
visibility one-quarter statute mile.”
(c) in the absence of a reported RVR or reported ground
visibility, the runway visibility as observed by the pilot in An approach to DH/MDA is authorized because the reported
command is at or above minimum takeoff visibility. ground visibility of one-quarter statute mile is governing.
2. ATC/FSS reports “…RVR “A” not available, RVR “B” 1 000.”
277
TC AIM March 25, 2021
An approach to DH/MDA is not authorized since RVR “B” is 9.19.2.3 Approach Ban—Commercial Operators—
governing and is below 1 200 ft. General—Non-Precision Approach (NPA),
If, after commencing an approach (but before reaching the FAF, Approach Procedure with Vertical Guidance
or where there is no FAF, the point where the final approach (APV), or CAT I Precision Approach
course is intercepted), a pilot must discontinue an approach CAR 700.10 specifies the NPA, APV and precision approach
because the RVR has gone below minima, the pilot shall continue ban that generally applies to commercial operators. With certain
as cleared, advise ATC of their intentions and request further exceptions, pilots of commercial aircraft are prohibited from
clearance. If further cle arance is not received by the time the completing an NPA, an APV, or a CAT I precision approach
aircraft reaches the FAF, or where there is no FAF, the point past the FAF inbound, or where there is no FAF, the point where
where the final approach course is intercepted, the pilot shall the final approach course is intercepted, if the visibility report
execute a missed approach and proceed via the missed approach is below the value corresponding to the CAP advisory visibility
procedure to the specified missed approach clearance limit. for the approach conducted.
In summary, an approach is authorized whenever:
Table 9.6—Minimum Visibility for
(a) the lo west reported RVR for the runway is at or above Airplanes (Commercial Operators)
minima (CAR 602.129), regardless of reported ground
visibility;
CAP ADVISORY VISIBILITY REPORT
(b) the RVR is reported to be varying between distances less VISIBILITY (Grnd Vis SM, RVR “A” or
than and greater than the minimum RVR; (SM, RVR x 100 ft) Rwy Vis ft)
(c) the RVR is below the minimum, and the ground visibility
is reported to be at least one-quarter statute mile; 1/2 RVR 26 3/8, RVR or Rwy Vis 1 600
3/4 RVR 40 5/8, RVR or Rwy Vis 3 000
(d) the RVR for the runway is unavailable or not reported; or 1 RVR 50 3/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 4 000
(e) ATS is informed that an aircraft is on a training flight and 1 1/4 1, RVR or Rwy Vis 5 000
will conduct a planned missed approach. 1 1/2 1 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 6 000
1 3/4 1 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
No pilot shall commence an NPA, an APV, or a CAT I or CAT II 2 1 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
precision approach to an airport where low-visibility procedures 2 1/4 1 3/4, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
are in effect. Low-visibility procedures are associated with 2 1/2 2, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
CAT III operations. They are specified for an airport (for example, 2 3/4 2 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
CYVR or CYYZ) in the CAP and restrict aircraft and vehicle 3 2 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
operations on the movement area of the airport when the RVR
is less than 1 200 ft.
Table 9.7—Minimum Visibility for
Helicopters (Commercial Operators)
9.19.2.2 Approach Ban—General Aviation—CAT III
Precision Approach MEASURED RVR HELICOPTERS
RAC
CAR 602.130 specifies the general aviation CAT III precision RVR “A” only 1 200
approach ban. No pilot shall continue a CAT III precision approach RVR “A” and “B” 1 200/0
in an IFR aircraft beyond the FAF inbound, or where there is
no FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted, RVR “B” only 1 200
unless the RVR reported is equal to or greater than the minimum
RVR specified in the CAP in respect of the runway or surface An RVR report takes precedence over a runway visibility report
of intended approach for the IAP conducted. or a ground visibility report, and a runway visibility report takes
precedence over a ground visibility report. Ground visibility
Table 9.5—Minimum RVR for Aircraft will only impose an approach ban at aerodromes south of 60ºN
CAT III Approaches (General Aviation) latitude. If no RVR, runway visibility, or ground visibility is
reported, there are no criteria to impose an approach ban. (This
concept is similar to the present CAR 602 approach ban, where
MEASURED RVR* CAT IIIA CAT IIIB CAT IIIC if there is no RVR reported, there is no criterion to impose an
approach ban.)
RVR “A”, “B” Not Not
600/600/600 The following exceptions to the above prohibitions apply to all
and “C” Authorized Authorized
aircraft when:
*RVR “A” located adjacent to the runway threshold.
RVR “B” located adjacent to the runway mid-point. (a) the visibility report is below the required value, and the
RVR “C” located adjacent to the runway end. aircraft has passed the FAF inbound, or where there is no
FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted;
278
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) the pilot-in-command has informed the appropriate ATC 9.19.2.5 Approach Ban—Commercial Operators—
unit that the aircraft is on a training flight and that the Operations Specification—Non-Precision
pilot-in-command intends to initiate a missed approach Approach (NPA), Approach Procedure with
procedure at or above the decision altitude (height) [DA(H)] Vertical Guidance (APV), or CAT I Precision
or the MDA, as appropriate; Approach
(c) the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater
CARs 703.41, 704.37, and 705.48 specify the NPA, APV and
than the minimum RVR;
precision approach ban that applies to commercial operators
(d) the ground visibility is varying between distances less than through an Operations Specification. CAR 703, 704 and 705
and greater than the minimum visibility; operators authorized through Operations Specification 019, 303
(e) a localized meteorological phenomenon is affecting the or 503 and who meet all the conditions related to the approach
ground visibility to the extent that the visibility on the procedure, are permitted to conduct an approach at a visibility
approach to the runway of intended approach and along value less than those specified in the CAR 700 approach ban.
that runway, as observed by the pilot in flight and reported With certain exceptions, pilots of commercial aircraft are
immediately to ATS, if available, is equal to or greater than prohibited from completing an NPA, an APV, or a CAT I precision
the visibility specified in the CAP for the IAP conducted; approach past the FAF inbound, or where there is no FAF, the
or point where the final approach course is intercepted, if the
visibility report is below the value corresponding to the CAP
(f) the approach is conducted in accordance with an Operations advisory visibility for the approach conducted.
Specification issued in accordance with CAR 703, 704 or
705. Table 9.10— Minimum Visibility for Airplanes
No pilot shall commence an NPA, an APV, or a CAT I precision (CARs 703/704/705 Operations)
approach to an airport where low-visibility procedures are in
effect. Low-visibility procedures are associated with CAT III CAP ADVISORY VISIBILITY VISIBILITY REPORT (Grnd Vis SM,
operations. They are specified for an airport (for example, CYVR (SM, RVR x 100 ft) RVR “A” or Rwy Vis ft)
or CYYZ) in the CAP and restrict aircraft and vehicle operations
1/2 RVR 26 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 1 200
on the movement area of the airport when the RVR is less than
3/4 RVR 40 3/8, RVR or Rwy Vis 2 000
1 200 ft. 1 RVR 50 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis 2 600
1 1/4 5/8, RVR or Rwy Vis 3 400
9.19.2.4 Approach Ban—Commercial Operators—CAT II 1 1/2 3/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 4 000
and CAT III Precision Approach 1 3/4 1, RVR or Rwy Vis 5 000
2 1, RVR or Rwy Vis 5 000
CAR 700.11 specifies the CAT II and CAT III precision approach 2 1/4 1 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis 6 000
ban that applies to commercial operators. No pilot shall continue 2 1/2 1 1/4, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
a CAT II or CAT III precision approach in an IFR aircraft beyond 2 3/4 1 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
the FAF inbound, or where there is no FAF, the point where the 3 1 1/2, RVR or Rwy Vis > 6 000
final approach course is intercepted, unless the RVR reported
An RVR report takes precedence over a runway visibility report
RAC
is equal to or greater than the minimum RVR specified in the
or a ground visibility report, and a runway visibility report takes
CAP in respect of the runway or surface of intended approach
precedence over a ground visibility report. Ground visibility
for the IAP conducted.
will only impose an approach ban at aerodromes south of 60ºN
latitude. If no RVR, runway visibility, or ground visibility is
Table 9.8— Minimum RVR for Airplane and Helicopter
reported there are no criteria to impose an approach ban. (This
CAT II Approaches (Commercial Operators)
concept is similar to the present CAR 602 approach ban, where
if there is no RVR reported, there is no criterion to impose an
MEASURED RVR* AEROPLANES HELICOPTERS approach ban.)
RVR “A” and “B” 1 200/600 1 200/0 The following exceptions to the above prohibitions apply to
aeroplanes when:
Table 9.9— Minimum RVR for Aircraft CAT III
(a) the visibility report is below the required value and the
Approaches (Commercial Operators)
aircraft has passed the FAF inbound, or where there is no
MEASURED CAT IIIA CAT IIIB CAT IIIC FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted;
RVR * or
RVR “A”, “B” Not Not (b) the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater
600/600/600 than the minimum RVR.
and “C” Authorized Authorized
*RVR “A” located adjacent to the runway threshold.
RVR “B” located adjacent to the runway mid-point.
RVR “C” located adjacent to the runway end.
279
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.19.2.6 Runway Visibility equal to or greater than the advisory visibility published in the
CAP, for the procedure flown, and the pilot-in-command must
CAR 602.131 specifies the concept of runway visibility as defined
immediately report the conditions observed to ATS.
in CAR 101.01(1). The purpose of runway visibility is to determine
and report a visibility at the TDZ of a runway that is not equipped CAUTION:
with or is not reporting an RVR. An instrument-rated pilot or a Pilots are reminded of the insidious hazard that thin ground-
qualified person (under CAR 804) can assess runway visibility based layers, such as shallow fog, ice fog, or blowing snow can
when RVR sensor detection equipment is not available. In effect, present. Such conditions may allow a pilot-in-command to
a person is permitted to assess runway visibility from override an approach ban based on what appears to be a localized
approximately the same position as an RVR “A” sensor installation. phenomenon, when in fact extensive and very poor visibility
CAR Standard 622.131 (for pilots) and CAR Standard 824.25 will be encountered at low altitude during the later stages of the
(for qualified persons) describe how to assess and report runway approach, landing and roll-out. The pilot-in-command should
visibility. take all possible information into account before overriding an
Runway visibility is assessed at or adjacent to the runway approach ban, based on what appears to be a localized phenomenon,
threshold, in the direction of the runway, based on runway lights in order to avoid conducting an approach during these hazardous
or landmarks that can be seen and recognized. The assessment conditions.
is made in feet based on a 200-ft runway edge light spacing, or
using landmarks found on the applicable CAP aerodrome chart.
9.19.2.8 Effects of the High-Intensity Approach
A report of runway visibility should be reported immediately
to ATS in the following format: Lighting (HIAL) System on Canada Air
Pilot (CAP) Advisory Visibility and on Runway
“RUNWAY VISIBILITY, RUNWAY [runway number] ASSESSED
Certification
AS [distance assessed] FEET AT [time] UTC,” to the nearest
100-ft increment. Instrument approach procedures developed for runways with
HIAL systems receive a credit against their CAP advisory
A runway visibility report is valid for a period of 20 min after visibility (by up to ½ SM). When these lighting systems are
it is assessed. If the runway visibility varies during the assessment, inoperative, adjustments to the approach minima must be made
the lowest value is reported. The lowest value that is reported by the pilot as indicated in the tables below. This includes cases
is 200 ft, with lower values reported as “… LESS THAN when the HIAL system is continuously operating on only one
200 FEET…” The highest value that is reported is 6 000 ft, with of the normally available intensity levels and changes to the
higher values reported as “…GREATER THAN 6 000 FEET…” intensity cannot be selected or requested by the pilot during the
approach. These approach minima adjustments may determine
9.19.2.7 Localized Phenomenon whether or not the pilot is prohibited from completing an
instrument approach past the FAF (see RAC 9.19.2).
CAR 700.10 recognizes that certain localized meteorological
conditions can reduce the reported ground visibility, thus HIAL systems in Canada include SSALR (“AN” in the CAP),
imposing an approach ban when the flight visibility appears to ALSF-2 (“AL” in the CAP), and SSALS (“AW” in the CAP).
be much greater. An example would be a localized fog bank that Also included are the following older types of systems: CAT I
is covering the ground observer’s observation point, resulting High Intensity (also known as ALSF-1 or as “AE” in the CAP)
RAC
in a reported ground visibility of one-quarter statute mile at an and CAT II High Intensity (“AC” in the CAP). All of these
aerodrome south of 60ºN latitude, while the flight visibility systems, except for SSALS, are used to certify a precision
along the approach to the runway and on the runway itself (as approach runway.
observed by the pilot-in-command), is greater than 15 SM. In When the HIAL system is inoperative, a certified precision
this case, the pilot can declare a localized phenomenon, and runway is downgraded to a non-precision runway. For this reason,
override an approach ban imposed by a ground visibility report. an approach procedure with straight-in minima below a DH of
A pilot cannot use localized phenomena to override an RVR or 250 ft, and below an advisory visibility of 1 SM (RVR 50), must
a runway visibility report that imposes an approach ban. To have its minima increased to 250 ft DH and 1 SM (RVR 50)
legally continue the approach past the FAF inbound, the flight visibility when the HIAL is inoperative. For example:
visibility on the approach path and along the runway must be
280
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Table 9.12—Advisory visibility corrections for a DH/HAT equal to or greater than 250 ft
DH/HAT (ft) Advisory Visibility when HIAL is Advisory Visibility when HIAL is
Operational (published) (SM) Inoperative (SM)
250 – 347 1 1
348 – 434 1 1¼
435 – 521 1 1½
522 – 608 1¼ 1¾
609 – 695 1½ 2
696 – 782 1¾ 2¼
783 – 869 2 2½
870 – 956 2¼ 2¾
957 and above 2½ 3
RAC
used by pilots only to judge the probability of a successful landing
when compared against available visibility reports at the
NOTE: aerodrome to which an instrument approach is being carried
Certain published approaches that contain multiple lines of out.
minima may have step-down altitudes that are lower than a
published line of minima. Pilots should not descend to a step-
down altitude that is lower than the altitude on their selected 9.20 runwAy viSuAl rAnge (rvr)
line of minima.
9.20.1 Definitions
The visual references required by the pilot to continue the
approach to a safe landing should include at least one of the Prevailing Visibility: The maximum visibility value common to
following references for the intended runway, and should be sectors comprising one-half or more of the horizontal circle.
distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot by:
NOTE:
(a) the runway or runway markings; Prevailing visibility is determined by human observations.
(b) the runway threshold or threshold markings;
Runway Visual Range (RVR): in respect of a runway, means the
(c) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings; maximum horizontal distance, as measured by an automated
(d) the approach lights; visual landing distance system and reported by an ATC unit or
an FSS for the direction of takeoff or landing, at which the
(e) the approach slope indicator system;
runway, or the lights or markers delineating it, can be seen from
(f) the runway identification lights; a point above its centreline at a height corresponding to the
(g) the threshold and runway end lights; average eye level of pilots at touchdown.
281
TC AIM March 25, 2021
To compute RVR, three factors must be known. The first is the NOTE:
transmissivity of the atmosphere as provided by a visibility At aerodromes equipped with ARCAL, the light settings may
sensor. The second is the brightness of the runway lights which not be known to ATS personnel.
is controlled on request by the ATC controller. The third factor
is whether it is day or night, since the eye can detect lights easier In daytime, even a high intensity setting can fade into background
at night than during the day. There is a period during twilight brightness. For example, the pilot may be provided with an RVR
where there is a problem similar to that with prevailing visibility of 4 000 ft while making an approach when shallow fog is
when neither day, nor night conditions prevail. occurring over a snow surface in bright sunlight. Because of
the glare, runway lights will be difficult to see; therefore, visibility
RVR is measured by a visibility sensor such as a RVR sensor will be much less than the reported RVR. In situations such as
located near the runway threshold. For CAT II landing systems, this, the use of prevailing visibility would be more appropriate.
a second sensor is provided about the mid-point of the runway.
The RVR sensor near the threshold is identified as “A” and the RVR may be used instead of prevailing visibility for landing
second one as “B”. Their locations are important for the assessment and take-off minima, but only for runways equipped with an
of visibility, and so their positions are indicated on the aerodrome RVR system. In such cases, the following table can be used.
diagrams in CAP.
Table 9.13—RVR to Be Used Instead of Prevailing
A light emitted from a source is attenuated in the atmosphere Visibility for Landing and
due to snow, fog, rain, and so forth. The amount of this attenuation, Take-Off Minima on Equipped Runways
or the transmissivity of the atmosphere, can be obtained by
measuring the amount of light reaching a detector after being
GROUND VISIBILITY RVR
transmitted by a projector. The visibility sensor samples the
atmosphere at a height that best represents the slant transmittance 1 mile 5 000 feet
from the pilot’s eye at cockpit level to the runway. 3/4 mile 4 000 feet
1/2 mile 2 600 feet
9.20.2 Operational Use of Runway Visual 1/4 mile 1 400 feet
Range (RVR) See Note 2 under 1 200 feet
RVR information is available at the ATC IFR arrival control
position, the PAR position, the control tower and the FSS. NOTES:
When applicable, RVR information is given to the pilot as a 1. A comparative scale converting RVR-feet into RVR-metres
matter of routine and can be used in the determination or is shown in the GEN section.
application of visibility minima only if the active runway is
2. Ground visibility does not apply to operators with a takeoff
served by the visibility sensor. RVR information, found in the
limit below 1 200 feet.
Remarks section of surface weather reports, is not to be used
for operational purposes and is superseded by any RVR ATS phraseology applicable to the foregoing is as follows:
information from ATS personnel. (a) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR three thousand
five hundred feet.
RAC
NOTE:
RVR reports are intended to provide an indication of how far (b) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR less than
the pilot can expect to see along the runway in the touchdown three hundred feet.
zone; however, the actual visibility at other points along the (c) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR more than
runway may differ due to differing weather conditions. This six thousand feet.
should be taken into account when decisions must be made based
on reported RVR. (d) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR (number) feet,
f luctuating (number) to (number) feet, visibility
A pertinent phenomenon that occurs fairly often during periods (fraction) mile.
of low visibility is large fluctuations that occur over extremely (e) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR (number) feet, runway
short time intervals. As per ICAO recommendations, the RVR lights at setting four/five.
computer automatically averages the readings over the last minute.
(f) Runway (number) visual range/ RVR ALFA (number) feet,
The controller will provide the RVR if it is less than 6 000 ft, BRAVO (number) feet, CHARLIE (number) feet.
or upon request. The RVR will be provided in 100-ft increments
from 300 ft to 1 199 ft, in 200-ft increments from 1 200 ft to
2 999 ft, and in 500-ft increments from 3 000 ft to 6 000 ft. The 9.21 AircrAft cAtegorieS
RVR remains constant for runway light settings of 1, 2 and 3, Aircraft performance differences have an effect on the airspace
but it can increase for settings of 4 and 5. If the latter settings and visibility needed to perform certain manoeuvres. In order
are used, the pilot will be provided with both the RVR and the that the appropriate obstacle clearance areas and landing and
light setting. departure minima can be established, five different aircraft
categories have been identified. Aircraft that are manoeuvred
282
TC AIM March 25, 2021
within these category speed ranges are to use the appropriate (c) a visual inspection;
instrument approach minima for that category. For example, an (d) a NOTAM issued by the aerodrome operator; or
aircraft that is flown on a straight-in approach at 135 KIAS is
to use the Category C approach minima. However, if that same (e) any other means available to the pilot, such as message relay
aircraft is required to manoeuvre on a circling approach at from preceding aircraft at the destination.
143 KIAS, then the Category D circling minima applies. The
category speed groupings are: 9.23 circling
Table 9.14—Aircraft Categories Circling is the term used to describe an IFR procedure that is
conducted by visually manoeuvring an aircraft, after completing
CATEGORY A B C D E an instrument approach, into position for landing on a runway
which is not suitably located for a straight-in landing (not usually
(includes all
applicable to rotorcraft).
rotorcraft)
140 KIAS
165 KIAS
165 KIAS
120 KIAS
90 KIAS
SPEEDS
141 to
above
91 to
up to
NOTE:
The term straight-in used in connection with landing should not
be confused with its use in straight-in approach minima. An
RAC
ATC clearance for a straight-in approach merely clears the aircraft
for an approach without first completing a procedure turn. The If it is necessary to manoeuvre an aircraft at a speed in excess
minima that will subsequently be used will be based on of the upper limit of the speed range for its approach category,
considerations such as the runway in use, published minima, the circling minima for the next higher category should be used
aircraft category, etc. in order to ensure appropriate protection from obstacles.
Circling restrictions are published at some locations to prevent
The use of straight-in landing minima is predicated upon the circling manoeuvres in certain sectors or directions where higher
pilot having the wind direction and speed and runway condition terrain or prominent obstacles exist. This practice allows the
reports required to conduct a safe landing. At an uncontrolled publication of lower minima than would otherwise be possible.
aerodrome where the pilot may lack the necessary information, In such cases, the circling MDA DOES NOT PROVIDE
the pilot is expected to verify that the runway is unobstructed OBSTACLE CLEARANCE WITHIN THE RESTRICTED
prior to landing. In some cases, this can only be accomplished SECTOR.
by conducting a circling approach using the appropriate circling
minima.
9.23.1 Standard Circling Approach Radii
At an uncontrolled aerodrome, runway conditions (including
any temporary obstructions such as vehicles) may be determined Circling approach protected areas developed prior to 2020 used
by the pilot by: the radius distances shown in the following table. Approaches
using standard circling approach areas can be identified by the
(a) contacting the appropriate FSS or UNICOM at the destination; absence of the symbol on the circling line of minima.
(b) a pre-flight telephone call to the destination to arrange for
making the necessary information available when required
for landing;
283
TC AIM March 25, 2021
284
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.25 miSSeD APProAch ProceDure while in their missed approach instructions. Terms such as “on missed
approach, right turn climb on course” or “on missed approach,
viSuAlly mAnoeuvring in the vicinity of left turn on course” are not to be considered specific missed
the AeroDrome approach instructions. It remains the pilot’s responsibility to
ensure terrain and obstacle avoidance and clearance.
The pilot may have to conduct a missed approach after starting
visual manoeuvres. There are no standard procedures in this The terrain and obstacle environment in the missed approach
situation. Thus, unless the pilot is familiar with the terrain, it is segment may require a climb gradient greater than the standard
recommended that: 200 ft/NM (or 400 ft/NM for helicopter-only procedures). The
pilot must plan in advance to ensure that the aircraft can meet
(a) a climb be initiated; the climb gradient required by the procedure in the event of a
(b) the aircraft be turned towards the centre of the aerodrome; and missed approach and must also be aware that flying at a ground
(c) the aircraft be established, as closely as possible, in the speed higher than anticipated will increase the climb rate
missed approach procedure published for the instrument requirement (feet per minute). Where aircraft limitations or other
approach procedure just completed. factors preclude the pilot from following the published climb
gradient, it is the responsibility of the pilot-in-command (PIC)
With the runway in sight at circling MDA, the pilot should to determine alternative procedures that will take into account
execute the missed approach if there is any doubt that the ceiling obstacle and terrain clearance.
and visibility are inadequate for manoeuvring safely to the point
of touchdown.
9.27 SimultAneouS PreciSion inStrument
9.26 miSSeD APProAch ProceDureS APProAcheS - PArAllel runwAyS
Whenever a pilot conducts a published missed approach from When simultaneous precision instrument approaches are in
an instrument approach procedure, the aircraft must continue progress, ATC will vector arriving aircraft to one or the other
along the published final approach course to the published Missed of the parallel localizers for a straight-in final approach. (When
Approach Point (MAP) and follow the published missed approach cleared for a straight-in approach, a procedure turn is not
instructions. The pilot may climb immediately to the altitude permitted.) Each of the parallel approaches has a “high side”
specified in the missed approach procedure or assigned by ATC. and a “low side” for vectoring and to allow for vertical separation
In the event of a missed approach when no missed approach until both aircraft are established inbound on their respective
clearance has been received, the pilot will follow the published parallel localizer (LOC).
missed approach instructions. Should the pilot arrive at the The pilot will be instructed to change and report on the tower
missed approach holding fix prior to receiving further clearance, frequency prior to reaching the final approach fix (FAF) inbound.
the pilot will: If an aircraft is observed to overshoot the localizer during the
final turn, the pilot will be instructed to return to the correct
(a) hold in a standard holding pattern on the inbound track used
localizer course immediately. After an aircraft is established on
to arrive at the fix;
the localizer, the controller monitoring the final approach will
(b) if there is a published missed approach track to the fix, hold issue control instructions only if an aircraft deviates or is expected
RAC
in a standard holding pattern inbound to the fix on this to deviate by 1 500 ft from the localizer centreline. Information
track; or instructions issued by the monitoring controller will be aimed
(c) if there is a published shuttle or holding pattern at the fix, at returning the aircraft to the localizer course. If the aircraft
hold in this pattern regardless of the missed approach track fails to take corrective action, the aircraft on the adjacent localizer
to the fix; or may be issued appropriate control instructions. Monitoring of
the approach is terminated without notification to the pilot when
(d) if there are published missed approach holding instructions, the aircraft is 1 NM from the runway threshold. If considered
hold in accordance with these. necessary, appropriate missed approach instructions will be
If a clearance to another destination has been received, the pilot issued.
shall, in the absence of other instructions, carry out the published THE APPROACH CLEARANCE WILL INCLUDE AN
missed approach instructions until at an altitude which will ALTITUDE THAT MUST BE MAINTAINED UNTIL
ensure adequate obstacle clearance before proceeding on course. INTERCEPTING THE GLIDE PATH. If the glide path is
If specific missed approach instructions have been received and inoperative, the pilot will be cleared to maintain an altitude to
acknowledged, the pilot is required to comply with the new a specified distance measuring equipment (DME) distance
missed approach instructions before proceeding on course, e.g. before commencing the descent.
“on missed approach, climb runway heading to 3 000 feet; right When informed by automatic terminal information service
turn, climb on course” or “on missed approach, climb straight (ATIS) or by the arrival controller that simultaneous precision
ahead to the BRAVO NDB before proceeding on course”. instrument approaches are in progress, pilots should advise the
Civil and military air traffic control procedures do not require arrival controller immediately of any avionics unserviceabilities
the air traffic controller to provide terrain and obstacle clearance having an impact on their capabilities to accept this procedure.
285
TC AIM March 25, 2021
9.28 SimultAneouS PreciSion inStrument (d) if DME is used, the DME distances at which the fix end
and outbound end turns are to be commenced (e.g. hold
APProAcheS - converging runwAyS between [number of miles] and [number of miles]);
ATC may clear pilots for precision instrument approaches
NOTE:
simultaneously to converging runways at airports where this
In the absence of an outbound DME being issued by ATC, pilots
procedure has been approved.
are expected to time the holding pattern in accordance with
Aircraft will be informed through ATIS or by the arrival controller sub-sections below.
as soon as feasible after initial contact when simultaneous
precision instrument approaches to converging runways are in (a) the altitude or FL to be maintained; and
progress. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, ATC (b) the time to expect further clearance or an approach clearance;
will vector arriving aircraft to the appropriate runway localizer or
for a straight-in final approach. Pilots should advise the arrival
controller immediately of any malfunctioning or inoperative (c) the time to leave the fix in the event of a communications failure.
equipment making this procedure undesireable.
NOTE:
These are the restrictions for simultaneous precision approaches An expect-further-clearance time is usually followed by further
to converging runways: en route clearance, which is followed by an expect-approach-
clearance time when traffic conditions permit.
(a) Converging runways (defined as an included angle between
15˚ and 100˚). During entry and holding, pilots manually flying the aircraft
(b) Radar available. are expected to make all turns to achieve an average bank angle
of at least 25˚ or a rate of turn of 3˚ per second, whichever requires
(c) Precision instrument approach systems (ILS/MLS) operating
the lesser bank. Unless the ATC clearance contains instructions
on each runway.
to the contrary, or a non-standard holding pattern is published
(d) Non-intersecting final approach courses. at the holding fix, pilots are expected to make all turns to the
(e) Missed approach points at least 3 NM apart. right after initial entry into the holding pattern.
(f) Non-overlapping primary missed approach protected Occasionally, a pilot may reach a clearance limit before obtaining
airspace. further clearance from ATC. In this event, where a holding
pattern is published at the clearance limit, the pilot is to hold as
(g) Separate instrument approach charts denoting the procedures. published. Where no holding pattern is published, the pilot is to
(h) If runways intersect, tower controllers must be able to apply hold in a standard pattern on the inbound track to such clearance
visual separation as well as intersecting runway separation limit and request further clearance.
criteria. If communication cannot be established with ATC, the pilot
(i) Only straight-in approaches and landing are authorized. should then proceed in accordance with communication failure
To emphasize the protection of active runways and to aid in procedures.
preventing runway incursions, landing instructions which include Examples
RAC
the words “HOLD SHORT” should be acknowledged by a 1. A westbound flight on R77, cleared to Greely NDB (YRR)
readback of the hold point by the pilot. reaches Ottawa before obtaining further clearance. The
pilot is to hold at YRR on an inbound track of 287˚ and
request further clearance.
10.0 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR) —
2. The published missed approach procedure for an ILS
HOLDING PROCEDURES RWY 23 approach at Halifax is the following:
“CLIMB TO 2 200 ON TRACK OF 234˚ TO “ZHZ” NDB.”
10.1 generAl A pilot missing an ILS approach to RWY 23 and not in receipt
of further clearance is to proceed directly to the “ZHZ” NDB,
Pilots are expected to adhere to the aircraft entry and holding
make a right turn and hold at the “ZHZ” beacon on an inbound
manoeuvres, as described in RAC 10.5, since ATC provides
track of 234º and request further clearance.
lateral separation in the form of airspace to be protected in
relation to the holding procedure. If for any reason a pilot is unable to conform to these procedures,
ATC should be advised as early as possible.
10.2 holDing cleArAnce
A holding clearance issued by ATC includes at least
(a) a clearance to the holding fix;
(b) the direction to hold from the holding fix;
(c) a specified radial, course, or inbound track;
286
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
Entry procedures to a non-standard pattern requiring left turns
10.5 entry ProceDureS are oriented in relation to the 70˚ line on the holding side
(Figure 10.3), just as in the standard pattern.
The pilot is expected to enter a holding pattern according to the
aircraft’s heading in relation to the three sectors shown in Figure 10.3—Left Hand Pattern Entry
Figure 10.2, recognizing a zone of flexibility of five degrees on
either side of the sector boundaries. For holding on VOR
intersections or VOR/DME/TACAN (VHF omnidirectional
range/distance measuring equipment/tactical air navigation aid)
fixes, entries are limited to the radials or DME arcs forming the
fix, as appropriate.
287
TC AIM March 25, 2021
When crossing the fix to enter a holding pattern, the appropriate 10.8 DiStAnce meASuring equiPment (Dme)
ATC unit should be advised. ATC may also request that the pilot
report “established in the hold”. The pilot is to report “established” ProceDureS
when crossing the fix after having completed the entry procedure. DME holding is subject to the same entry and holding procedures
previously described except that distances, in NM are used in
10.6 timing lieu of time values. In describing the direction from the fix on
which to hold and the limits of a DME holding pattern, an ATC
The still air time for flying the outbound leg of a holding pattern clearance will specify the DME distance from the navigation
should not exceed 1 min if at or below 14 000 ft ASL, or 1 1/2 aid at which the inbound and outbound legs are to be terminated.
min if above 14 000 ft ASL; however, the pilot should make due The end of each leg is determined by the DME indications.
allowance in both heading and timing to compensate for wind
effect. Figure 10.4—DME Hold
After the initial circuit of the pattern, timing should begin abeam
the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever occurs
later. The pilot should increase or decrease outbound times, in
recognition of winds, to effect 1 or 1 1/2 min (appropriate to
altitude) inbound to the fix.
When the pilot receives ATC clearance specifying the time of
departure from the holding fix, adjustments should be made to
the flight pattern within the limits of the established holding
pattern to leave the fix as close as possible to the time specified.
Example:
10.7 SPeeD limitAtionS An aircraft cleared to the 270˚ RADIAL 10 mile DME FIX, to
HOLD BETWEEN 10 AND 15 miles, will hold inbound on the
The size of the protected airspace for a holding pattern is based
270˚ radial, commence turn to the outbound leg when the DME
on aircraft speed. Unless otherwise noted on the charts or when
indicates 10 NM and commence turn to inbound leg when the
a shuttle procedure is specified (see RAC 10.9), holding patterns
DME indicates 15 NM.
must be entered and flown at or below the airspeeds listed in
Table 10.1 below:
10.9 Shuttle ProceDure
Table 10.1—Maximum Holding Airspeeds
A shuttle procedure is defined as a manoeuvre involving a descent
or climb in a pattern resembling a holding pattern. Shuttles are
Altitude (ASL) Maximum Holding
Airspeed (KIAS) generally prescribed on instrument procedure charts located in
mountainous areas. In the approach phase, it is normally
At or below 6 000 ft 200 prescribed where a descent of more than 2 000 ft is required
Above 6 000 ft up to and including during the initial or intermediate approach segments. It can also
RAC
230
14 000 ft be required when flying a missed approach or departure procedure
Above 14 000 ft 265 from certain airports in the vicinity of mountain ranges. A shuttle
procedure shall be executed in the pattern as published unless
NOTES: instructions contained in an ATC clearance direct otherwise.
1. At Canadian military airfields, the size of the protected To ensure that the aircraft does not exceed the obstacle clearance
airspace is for a maximum of 310 KIAS, unless otherwise protected airspace during a shuttle descent or climb, the aircraft
noted. must not exceed:
2. For helicopter procedures (COPTER), the maximum holding (a) the airspeed limit published on instrument procedure charts
airspeed is 90 KIAS, unless otherwise noted. or, if no airspeed limit is published, the following limits:
Pilots are to advise ATC immediately if airspeeds in excess of (i) For climbs, the maximum airspeed is 310 KIAS.
those specified above become necessary for any reason, including (ii) For descents, the maximum airspeeds from
turbulence, or if they are unable to accomplish any part of the Table 10.1 apply;
holding procedure. (b) the outbound/inbound still air time restrictions;
After departing a holding fix, pilots should resume normal speed (c) the DME holding restrictions.
subject to other requirements, such as speed limitations in the
vicinity of controlled airports, specific ATC requests, etc. NOTE:
All shuttle climb airspeeds are subject to CAR 602.32.
NOTE:
In areas where turbulence is known to exist, holding patterns
may be designed for speeds of 280 KIAS.
288
TC AIM March 25, 2021
10.10 holDing PAtternS PuBliSheD on enroute (c) In a non-radar environment, ATC will apply parallel offsets
to RNPC-certified aircraft operating within high-level
AnD terminAl chArtS RNPC airspace in order to accomplish an altitude change
At some high traffic density areas, holding patterns are depicted with respect to same direction aircraft.
on IFR Terminal Area and Enroute charts. When pilots are (d) The following phraseology is normally used for parallel
cleared to hold at a fix where a holding pattern is published, or offset procedures:
if clearance beyond the fix has not yet been received, pilots are
PROCEED OFFSET (number) MILES (right/left) OF
to hold according to the depicted pattern using normal entry
CENTRELINE (track/route) AT (significant point/time)
procedures and timing in the hold as described above. ATC will
UNTIL (significant point/time).
use the following phraseology when clearing an aircraft holding
at a fix that has a published holding pattern;
CLEARED TO THE (fix), HOLD (direction) AS PUBLISHED 11.3 StructureD AirSPAce
EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE AT (time) During specific periods, certain portions of domestic high-level
airspace may be structured for one-way traffic in which cruising
NOTE: flight levels inappropriate to the direction of the aircraft track
The holding direction means the area in which the hold is to be may be assigned by ATC. Aircraft operating in a direction
completed in relation to the holding fix, e.g. east, northwest, contrary to the traffic flow will be assigned those cruising flight
etc. If a pattern is required that is different than that published, levels appropriate to the direction of track except in specific
detailed holding instructions will be issued by ATC. instances, such as turbulence. When the airspace is not structured
If a pilot is instructed to depart a fix that has a published hold, for one-way traffic, appropriate cruising flight levels will be
at a specified time, the pilot has the option to: used. ATC will transition aircraft to the appropriate cruising
flight level for the direction of track before aircraft exit the
(a) proceed to the fix, then hold until the “depart fix” time defined areas or before termination of the indicated times.
specified;
(b) reduce speed to make good his “depart fix” time; or 11.4 cAnADiAn DomeStic routeS
(c) a combination of (a) and (b).
11.4.1 General
11.0 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL (ATC) Within North American Airspace, various route and track systems
SPECIAL PROCEDURES exist in order to provide effective management of airspace and
traffic. Under specified conditions, random routes may be
included in a flight plan or requested.
11.1 ADherence to mAch numBer
(a) Within CDA, aircraft shall adhere to the Mach number 11.4.2 North American Route Program (NRP)
assigned by ATC, to within 0.01 Mach, unless approval is
11.4.2.1 Introduction
RAC
obtained from ATC to make a change or until the pilot
receives the initial descent clearance approaching destination. The North American Route Program (NRP) is a joint FAA and
If it is necessary to make an immediate temporary change NAV CANADA program that allows air operators to select
in the Mach number (e.g. because of turbulence), ATC shall operationally advantageous routings. The objective of the NRP
be notified as soon as possible that such a change has been is to harmonize and adopt common procedures, to the extent
made. possible, applicable to random route flight operations at and
(b) If it is not possible to maintain the last assigned Mach number above FL 290 within the conterminous U.S. and Canada.
during en route climbs and descents because of aircraft The NRP will be implemented through various phases with the
performance, pilots shall advise ATC at the time of the end goal of allowing all international and domestic flight
climb/descent request. operations to participate in the NRP throughout the conterminous
U.S. and Canada.
290
TC AIM March 25, 2021
polar fixes on the Anchorage/Russian border but are otherwise 11.7.2 Reduced Vertical Separation
random in Canadian airspace. Minimum (RVSM) Airspace
RVSM airspace is all airspace within CDA from FL 290 to
11.4.7.2 Flight Planning and Position Reporting FL 410 inclusive as defined in the DAH (TP 1820) and depicted
Polar routes can be flight planned by aircraft with CMNPS in Figure 12.3.
certification. Flight plan routing should be filed with a fix every
5˚ of latitude. Random points should be expressed in whole
Figure 11.1—RVSM Airspace and
degrees of latitude and either whole degrees or whole and half
RVSM Transition Airspace
degrees of longitude.
RAC
longitudinal separation minimum if an aircraft
reports greater-than-moderate turbulence, and/or
11.6 Security control of Air trAffic mountain wave activity that is of sufficient magnitude
(see CFS, Emergency Section) to significantly affect altitude-keeping, and is within
5 min of another aircraft at 1 000 ft separation;
(ii) will, within radar airspace, vector aircraft to establish
11.7 reDuceD verticAl SePArAtion radar separation or establish 2 000 ft separation if
minimum (rvSm) an aircraft reports greater-than-moderate turbulence,
or encountering mountain wave activity that is of
11.7.1 Definitions sufficient magnitude to significantly affect altitude-
keeping, if 1 000 ft vertical separation exists between
RVSM: The application of 1000-ft vertical separation at and two aircraft, and targets appear likely to merge;
above FL 290 between aircraft approved to operate in reduced (iii) may structure portions of the airspace for specific
vertical separation minimum airspace. periods of time for one-way traffic in which
Non-RVSM Aircraft: An aircraft that does not meet reduced inappropriate flight levels to the direction of flight
vertical separation minimum (RVSM) requirements for may be assigned; and
certification and/or for operator approval. (iv) may, within non-radar airspace, temporarily suspend
RVSM within selected areas and/or altitudes due to
RVSM Aircraft: An aircraft that meets reduced vertical separation adverse weather conditions, e.g. pilot reports greater-
minimum (RVSM) requirements for certification and for operator than-moderate turbulence. When RVSM is
approval. suspended, the vertical separation minimum between
all aircraft will be 2 000 ft.
291
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) Pilots may be requested by ATC to confirm that they are of the flight plan to indicate the reason for special handling
approved for RVSM operations. Pilots/operators unable to by ATS.
provide such confirmation will be issued a clearance to
operate outside RVSM airspace: 11.7.6 Operation of Non-Reduced Vertical
Phraseology: Separation Minimum (Non-RVSM) Aircraft
“Affirm RVSM” or “Negative RVSM (supplementary information, in RVSM Airspace
e.g. monitoring flight).” See phraseology depicted in Figure 12.4 (a) FLIGHT PRIORITY:
RVSM aircraft will be given priority for level allocation over
11.7.4 In-Flight Procedures non-RVSM aircraft. Non-RVSM aircraft may be accommodated
(a) Before entering RVSM airspace, the status of required on a traffic- and workload-permitting basis.
equipment should be reviewed. The following equipment (b) VERTICAL SEPARATION:
should be operating normally:
The vertical separation minimum between non-RVSM aircraft
(i) two independent altitude measurement systems;
operating in RVSM airspace and all other aircraft is 2 000 ft.
(ii) one automatic altitude control system; and
(iii) one altitude alert system. (c) CONTINUOUS CLIMB OR DESCENT THROUGH RVSM
AIRSPACE:
(b) The pilot must notify ATC whenever the aircraft:
(i) is no longer RVSM-compliant due to equipment Non-RVSM aircraft may be cleared to climb to and operate
failure; above FL 410 or descend to and operate below FL 290, provided
(ii) experiences loss of redundancy of altimetry the aircraft is capable of:
systems; or (i) a continuous climb or descent and does not need to
(iii) encounters turbulence or mountain wave activity level off at an intermediate altitude for any operational
that affects the capability to maintain the cleared considerations; and
flight level. (ii) climb or descent at the normal rate for the aircraft.
(c) In the event that any of the required equipment fails prior (d) STATE AIRCRAFT:
to entering RVSM airspace, a new clearance should be For the purposes of RVSM operations, State aircraft are those
requested in order to avoid RVSM airspace. aircraft used in military, customs and police services.
(d) In level cruise, it is essential that the aircraft maintains the State aircraft are exempt from the requirement to be RVSM-
cleared flight level. Except in contingency situations, aircraft approved to operate in RVSM airspace.
should not deviate from the cleared flight level without an
ATC clearance. If the pilot is notified by ATC of an assigned (e) NON-RVSM AIRCRAFT IN RVSM AIRSPACE:
altitude deviation (AAD) error of 300 ft or greater, the pilot Non-RVSM aircraft may flight plan to operate within RVSM
should return to the cleared flight level as soon as possible. airspace, provided the aircraft:
(e) TRANSITION BETWEEN FLs: During cleared transition (i) is being delivered to the State of Registry or Operator;
between flight levels, the aircraft should not overshoot or (ii) was formerly RVSM-approved, but has experienced
RAC
undershoot the assigned level by more than 150 ft. an equipment failure and is being f lown to a
maintenance facility for repair in order to meet RVSM
11.7.5 Flight Planning Requirements requirements and/or obtain approval;
(iii) is being utilized for mercy or humanitarian purposes;
(a) Unless an aircraft can be accommodated in RVSM airspace (iv) is a photographic survey flight (CDA only). This
as detailed in paragraph 12.17.6, RVSM approval is required approval is not applicable for that portion of flight
for the aircraft to operate within RVSM airspace. The transiting to and from the area(s) of surveying or
operator must determine that the aircraft has been approved mapping operations;
by the appropriate State authority and will meet the RVSM (v) is conducting flight checks of a NAVAID. This
requirements for the filed route of flight and any planned approval is not applicable for that portion of flight
alternate routes. The letter “W” shall be inserted in Item 10 transiting to and from the area(s) of flight check
(Equipment) of the flight plan to indicate that the aircraft operations; or
is RVSM-compliant and the operator is RVSM-approved. (vi) is conducting a monitoring, certification or
The “W” designator is not to be used unless both conditions developmental flight.
are met. If the aircraft registration is not used in Item 7, the
registration is to be entered in Item 18 (RAC 3.16.8 “REG/”). (f) PHRASEOLOGY:
(b) ATC will use the equipment block information to either Pilots of non-RVSM flights should include the phraseology
issue or deny clearance into RVSM airspace and to apply “negative RVSM” in all initial calls on ATC frequencies, requests
either 1 000 ft or 2 000 ft vertical separation minimum. for flight level changes, readbacks of flight level clearances
within RVSM airspace and readbacks of climb or descent
(c) Non-RVSM aircraft requesting permission to operate in clearances through RVSM airspace. See Figure 12.4.
RVSM airspace shall include “STS/NONRVSM” in Item 18
292
TC AIM March 25, 2021
11.7.7 Delivery Flights for Aircraft that are Operating Standards Commercial Air Carriers and
Reduced Vertical Separation Private Operators:
Minimum (RVSM)-Compliant on Delivery Transport Canada Safety and Security,
Commercial and Business Aviation (AARTF)
(a) An aircraft that is RVSM-compliant on delivery may operate
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
in Canadian Domestic RVSM airspace provided that the
Tel.: ............................................................ 1-800-305-2059
crew is trained on RVSM policies and procedures applicable
Fax: ................................................................ 613-954-1602
in the airspace and the responsible State issues the operator
a letter of authorization approving the operation. RVSM Maintenance Programs: (AARTM)
(b) State notification to the NAARMO should be in the form Transport Canada Safety and Security,
of a letter, e-mail or fax documenting the one-time flight Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
indicating: Tel.: ............................................................ 1-800-305-2059
(i) planned date of the flight; Fax: ................................................................ 613-952-3298
(ii) flight identification;
(iii) registration number; and 11.7.9 Monitoring
(iv) aircraft type/series.
(a) All operators that operate or intend to operate in airspace
where RVSM is applied are required to participate in the
11.7.8 Airworthiness and Operational Approval RVSM monitoring program. Monitoring prior to the issuance
and Monitoring of RVSM operational approval is not a requirement. However,
(a) Operators must obtain airworthiness and operational operators should submit monitoring plans to the responsible
approval from the State of Registry or State of the Operator, civil aviation authority to show that they intend to meet the
as appropriate, to conduct RVSM operations. For the North American RVSM Minimum Monitoring Requirements.
purposes of RVSM, the following terminology has been (b) Ground-based and GPS-based monitoring systems are
adopted: available to support RVSM operations. Monitoring is a
(i) RVSM Airworthiness Approval: The approval that quality control program that enables Transport Canada and
is issued by the appropriate State authority to indicate other civil aviation authorities to assess the in-service
that an aircraft has been modified in accordance altitude-keeping performance of aircraft and operators.
with the relevant approval documentation, e.g.
(c) Ground-based height monitoring systems are located in the
service bulletin, supplemental type certificate, and
vicinity of Ottawa, Ont., and Lethbridge, Alta. Over-flight
is therefore eligible for monitoring. The date of issue
of ground-based height monitoring systems is transparent
of such an approval should coincide with the date
to the pilot. Aircraft height-keeping performance monitoring
when the modification was certified by the operator
flights using ground-based monitoring systems should be
as being complete.
flight planned to route within a 30 NM radius of the Ottawa
(ii) RVSM (Operational) Approval: The approval that VORTAC, or a 30 NM radius of the Lethbridge VOR/DME.
is issued by the appropriate State authority once an
operator has achieved the following: (d) GPS monitoring unit (GMU) services to conduct a height-
RAC
(A) RVSM airworthiness approval; and keeping performance monitoring flight may be obtained
(B) State approval of Operations Manual (where from the following agencies:
applicable) and on-going maintenance procedures. CSSI, Inc.
(b) Operators of Canadian-registered aircraft intending to Washington, DC
operate in RVSM airspace will be required to show that Tel: ................................................................. 202-863-2175
they meet all the applicable standards in accordance with E-mail: ............................................. monitor@cssiinc.com
CARs Parts VI and VII. Information on RVSM approval Web site: ...www.cssiinc.com/industries/aviation/reduced-
may be obtained from: vertical-separation-minimum-rvsm/
ARINC
Airworthiness Approvals: Annapolis, MD
Transport Canada RVSM Operations Coordinator
Safety and Security Director, Tel: .................................................................410-266-4707
Aircraft Certification (AARD) E-mail: ............................................... rvsmops@arinc.com
Ottawa ON K2G 5X4 Web site: ................................... www.rockwellcollins.com
Tel: ............................................................. 1-800-305-2059
Fax: ................................................................ 613-996-9178
293
TC AIM March 25, 2021
11.7.10 North American Approvals Registry and when one or both aircraft operating in close proximity
Monitoring Organization (NAARMO) receive TCAS advisories in response to disruptions in altitude
hold capability.
(a) The Regional Monitoring Agency for CDA is the NAARMO,
located in Atlantic City, NJ, and may be contacted as follows: (e) Pre-flight tools—Sources of observed and forecast
information that can help the pilot ascertain the possibility
William J. Hughes Technical Center NAS & International
of MWA or severe turbulence are: Forecast Winds and
Airspace Analysis Branch (ACT-520)
Temperatures Aloft (FD), Area Forecast (FA), SIGMETS
Atlantic City International Airport Atlantic City, NJ
and PIREPS.
08405 USA
Fax: ................................................................609-485-5117 11.7.13 Wake Turbulence
AFTN: .......................................................................... N/A
(a) Pilots should be aware of the potential for wake turbulence
(b) Information on the responsibilities and procedures applicable encounters following Southern Domestic RVSM (SDRVSM)
to the NAARMO may be found on the Web site: implementation. Experience gained since 1997, however,
<www.faa.gov/air_traffic/separation_standards/naarmo/>. has shown that such encounters in RVSM airspace are
generally moderate or less in magnitude.
11.7.11 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance (b) It is anticipated that, in SDRVSM airspace, wake turbulence
System (TCAS) II/Airborne Collision experience will mirror European RVSM experience gained
since January 2002. European authorities have found that
Avoidance System (ACAS) II Reduced
reports of wake turbulence encounters had not increased
Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) significantly since RVSM implementation (eight versus
Requirements seven reports in a ten-month period). In addition, they found
Aeroplanes operating in accordance with CAR 702, 703, 704 that reported wake turbulence was generally similar to
and 705 in RVSM airspace must be equipped with TCAS II/ moderate clear air turbulence.
ACAS II. The TCAS II/ACAS II must be TSO to TSO-C-119b (c) Pilots should be alert for wake turbulence when operating:
or later revision (TCAS II software version 7.0). All other TCAS/ (i) in the vicinity of aircraft climbing or descending
ACAS-equipped aircraft operating in RVSM airspace should through their altitude;
be equipped with software version 7. (ii) approximately 12–15 mi. after passing 1 000 ft below
opposite direction traffic; and
11.7.12 Mountain Wave Activity (MWA) (iii) approximately 12–15 mi. behind and 1 000 ft below
(a) Significant MWA occurs both below and above FL 290, same direction traffic.
which is the floor of RVSM airspace. It often occurs in
Table 11.1—Pilot/Controller Standard
western Canada and western USA in the vicinity of mountain
Phraseology for RVSM Operations
ranges. It may occur when strong winds blow perpendicular
to mountain ranges, resulting in up and down or wave motions
Message Phraseology
in the atmosphere. Wave action can produce altitude
RAC
excursions and airspeed fluctuations accompanied by only For a controller to ascertain the RVSM (call sign) confirm
light turbulence. With sufficient amplitude, however, wave approval status of an aircraft RVSM approved
action can induce altitude and airspeed f luctuations
accompanied by severe turbulence. MWA is difficult to Pilot indication that flight is Affirm RVSM
forecast and can be highly localized and short-lived RVSM-approved
(b) Wave activity is not necessarily limited to the vicinity of Pilot will report lack of RVSM approval Negative RVSM
(Non-RVSM status): (supplementary
mountain ranges. Pilots experiencing wave activity anywhere
a. On the initial call on any information,
that significantly affects altitude-keeping can follow the e.g. “monitoring
frequency in the RVSM airspace;
guidance provided below. flight”)
and
(c) In-flight indications that the aircraft is being subjected to b. In all requests for flight level
MWA are: changes pertaining to flight levels
(i) altitude excursions and airspeed fluctuations with within the RVSM airspace; and
or without associated turbulence; c. In all read-backs to flight level
(ii) pitch and trim changes required to maintain altitude clearances pertaining to flight
with accompanying airspeed fluctuations; and levels within the RVSM airspace;
and
(iii) light to severe turbulence depending on the magnitude
d. In read-back of flight level
of the MWA.
clearances involving climb and
(d) TCAS Sensitivity—For both MWA and greater-than-moderate descent through RVSM airspace
turbulence encounters in RVSM airspace, an additional (FL 290-410)
concern is the sensitivity of collision avoidance systems
294
TC AIM March 25, 2021
11.7.14 In-Flight Contingencies • Contact ATC and advise • In radar airspace, where
• Unable RVSM Due (state 1 000 ft vertical separation
(a) The following general procedures are intended as guidance
reason)” (e.g. turbulence, exists between two aircraft,
only. Although all possible contingencies cannot be covered, and targets appear likely to
mountain wave)
they provide for cases of inability to maintain assigned level merge, vector one or both
due to: aircraft to establish radar
(i) weather; separation until the pilot
(ii) aircraft performance; and reports clear of the turbulence
(iii) pressurization failure.
The pilot’s judgment should determine the sequence of actions • If not initiated by the • Provide lateral or longitudinal
RAC
to be taken, taking into account specific circumstances, and controller, and if in separation from traffic at
ATC shall render all possible assistance. radar airspace, request adjacent flight levels, traffic-
vector clear of traffic at permitting
(b) If an aircraft is unable to continue flight in accordance with adjacent flight levels
its ATC clearance, a revised clearance shall, whenever
possible, be obtained prior to initiating any action, using a • Request flight level • Advise pilot of
distress or urgency signal if appropriate. If prior clearance change or re-route, conflicting traffic
cannot be obtained, an ATC clearance shall be obtained at if desired
the earliest possible time. The pilot should take the following
• Issue flight level change or re-
actions until a revised ATC clearance is received:
route, traffic-permitting
(i) establish communications with and alert nearby
aircraft by broadcasting, at suitable intervals: flight
identification, flight level, aircraft position, (including
the ATS route designator or the track code) and
intentions on the frequency in use, as well as on
frequency 121.5 MHz (or, as a back-up, the inter-pilot
air-to-air frequency 123.45 MHz);
(ii) initiate such action as necessary to ensure safety. If
the pilot determines that there is another aircraft at
or near the same flight level, which might conflict,
the pilot is expected to adjust the path of the aircraft,
as necessary, to avoid conflict.
295
TC AIM March 25, 2021
296
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The controller at this point will provide the aircraft with additional
terrain-related information, as appropriate.
Example:
ATC: [higher/lower] TERRAIN AHEAD, TO YOUR [left/right]
IMMEDIATE SAFE ALTITUDE NOW [altitude]
RAC
ATC: [higher/lower] TERRAIN AHEAD, TO YOUR [left/right]
IMMEDIATE SAFE ALTITUDE NOW [value]
If, at any time during the procedure, the pilot regains sight of
the terrain, visual terrain avoidance should resume and the
controller should be advised as soon as practicable.
297
TC AIM March 25, 2021
12.0 RAC ANNEX impaired by alcohol or a drug to an extent that may present
a hazard to the aircraft or to persons on board the aircraft.
(5) The operator of an aircraft may allow a person whose
12.1 generAl faculties are impaired by a drug to board an aircraft, where
This annex contains those Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) the drug was administered in accordance with a medical
that relate to the subject matter of this chapter, but may not have authorization and the person is under the supervision of
been incorporated, in full or in part, in the chapter text. an attendant.
(c) while using any drug that impairs the person’s faculties No person shall operate an aircraft unless it is operated in
to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or of persons accordance with the operating limitations
on board the aircraft is endangered in any way. (a) set out in the aircraft flight manual, where an aircraft
flight manual is required by the applicable standards
RAC
(c) where the aircraft is type-certificated to carry 10 or (d) the stowage of carry-on baggage;
more passengers and passengers are carried on board, (e) where the aircraft is unpressurized and it is possible
(i) no passenger’s view of any “seat belt” sign, “no that the flight will require the use of oxygen by the
smoking” sign or exit sign is obscured by carry-on passengers, the location and means of operation of
baggage, equipment or cargo except if an auxiliary oxygen equipment; and
sign is visible to the passenger or another means
(f) any prohibition against smoking.
of notification of the passenger is available,
(ii) all of the passenger service carts and trolleys are (2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that all of
securely restrained during movement of the aircraft the passengers on board the aircraft are briefed
on the surface, takeoff and landing, and during (a) in the case of an over-water flight where the carriage
in-flight turbulence where the pilot-in-command of life preservers, individual flotation devices or
or in-charge flight attendant has directed that the personal flotation devices is required pursuant to
RAC
cabin be secured pursuant to subsection 605.25(3) Section 602.62, before commencement of the over-water
or (4), and portion of the flight, with respect to the location and
(iii) all of the video monitors that are suspended from use of those items; and
the ceiling of the aircraft and extend into an aisle
(b) in the case of a pressurized aircraft that is to be operated
are stowed and securely restrained during takeoff
at an altitude above FL 250, before the aircraft reaches
and landing; and
FL 250, with respect to the location and means of
(d) all of the cargo that is stowed in a compartment to operation of oxygen equipment.
which crew members have access is stowed in such a
(3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before takeoff,
manner as to allow a crew member to effectively reach
ensure that all of the passengers on board the aircraft are
all parts of the compartment with a hand-held fire
provided with information respecting the location and use of
extinguisher.
(a) first aid kits and survival equipment;
(b) where the aircraft is a helicopter or a small aircraft that
is an aeroplane, any ELT that is required to be carried
on board pursuant to Section 605.38; and
(c) any life raft that is required to be carried on board
pursuant to Section 602.63.
299
TC AIM March 25, 2021
300
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
(k) subject to subsections 601.08(2) and 601.09(2), a for the purpose of night VFR flight, unless it is equipped
radiocommunication system adequate to permit two- with
way communication on the appropriate frequency when (a) the equipment referred to in paragraphs 605.14(c) to (n);
the aircraft is operated within
(i) Class B, Class C or Class D airspace, (b) a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure;
(ii) an MF area, unless the aircraft is operated pursuant (c) subject to subsection (2), a turn and slip indicator or
to subsection 602.97(3), or turn coordinator;
(iii) the ADIZ;
(d) an adequate source of electrical energy for all of the
(l) where the aircraft is operated under Subpart 4 of this electrical and radio equipment;
Part, or under Subpart 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII,
(e) in respect of every set of fuses of a particular rating
radiocommunication equipment adequate to permit
that is installed on the aircraft and accessible to the
two-way communication on the appropriate frequency;
pilot-in-command during flight, a number of spare
(m) where the aircraft is operated in Class B airspace, radio fuses that is equal to at least 50 percent of the total
navigation equipment that will enable it to be operated number of installed fuses of that rating;
in accordance with a flight plan; and
(f) where the aircraft is operated so that an aerodrome is
(n) where the aircraft is operated under Subpart 4 of this not visible from the aircraft, a stabilized magnetic
Part or under Subpart 5 of Part VII, radio navigation direction indicator or a gyroscopic direction indicator;
equipment that is adequate to receive radio signals
(g) where the aircraft is to be operated within the Northern
from a transmitting facility.
Domestic Airspace, a means of establishing direction
that is not dependent on a magnetic source;
301
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(h) where the aircraft is an airship operated within controlled (g) a power failure warning device or vacuum indicator
airspace, radar reflectors attached in such a manner as that shows the power available to gyroscopic instruments
to be capable of a 360-degree reflection; from each power source;
(i) a means of illumination for all of the instruments used (h) an alternative source of static pressure for the altimeter,
to operate the aircraft; airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator;
(j) when carrying passengers, a landing light; and (i) sufficient radiocommunication equipment to permit
(k) position and anti-collision lights that conform to the the pilot to conduct two-way communications on the
Aircraft Equipment and Maintenance Standards. appropriate frequency; and
(2) Where the aircraft is equipped with a third attitude indicator (j) sufficient radio navigation equipment to permit the
that is usable through flight attitudes of 360° of pitch and pilot, in the event of the failure at any stage of the flight
roll for an aeroplane, or ± 80° of pitch and ± 120° of roll for of any Item of that equipment, including any associated
a helicopter, the aircraft may be equipped with a slip-skid flight instrument display,
indicator in lieu of a turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator. (i) to proceed to the destination aerodrome or proceed
to another aerodrome that is suitable for landing,
(3) No person shall operate an aircraft that is equipped with and
any light that may be mistaken for, or downgrade the (ii) where the aircraft is operated in IMC, to complete
conspicuity of, a light in the navigation light system, unless an instrument approach and, if necessary, conduct
the aircraft is being operated for the purpose of aerial a missed approach procedure.
advertising.
(4) In addition to the equipment requirements specified in Balloons – Day VFR
subsection (1), no person shall operate an aircraft in night 605.19
VFR flight under Subpart 4 of this Part or Subparts 2 to 5
No person shall conduct a takeoff in a balloon for the purpose
of Part VII, unless the aircraft is equipped with
of day VFR flight unless it is equipped with
(a) an attitude indicator;
(a) an altimeter;
(b) a vertical speed indicator;
(b) a vertical speed indicator;
(c) a means of preventing malfunction caused by icing for
(c) in the case of a hot air balloon,
each airspeed indicating system; and
(i) a fuel quantity gauge, and
(d) an outside air temperature gauge. (ii) an envelope temperature indicator;
Use of Position and Anti-collision Lights (d) in the case of a captive gas balloon, a magnetic direction
indicator; and
605.17
(e) subject to subsections 601.08(2) and 601.09(2), a radio
(1) Subject to subsection (2), no person shall operate an aircraft
communication system adequate to permit two-way
in the air or on the ground at night, or on water between
communication on the appropriate frequency when the
sunset and sunrise, unless the aircraft position lights and
RAC
Gliders – Day VFR (3) No person shall operate a small aeroplane manufactured
after December 12, 1986, the initial type certificate of which
605.21
provides for not more than nine passenger seats, excluding
No person shall operate a glider in day VFR flight unless it is any pilot seats, unless each forward- or aft-facing seat is
equipped with equipped with a safety belt that includes a shoulder harness.
(a) an altimeter; (4) No person shall operate a helicopter manufactured after
(b) an airspeed indicator; September 16, 1992, the initial type certificate of which
specifies that the helicopter is certified as belonging to the
(c) a magnetic compass or a magnetic direction indicator; and normal or transport category, unless each seat is equipped
(d) subject to subsections 601.08(2) and 601.09(2), a with a safety belt that includes a shoulder harness.
radiocommunication system adequate to permit two-way (5) No person operating an aircraft shall conduct any of the
communication on the appropriate frequency when the following flight operations unless the aircraft is equipped
glider is operated within with a seat and a safety belt that includes a shoulder harness
(i) Class C or Class D airspace, for each person on board the aircraft:
(ii) an MF area, unless the aircraft is operated pursuant
(a) aerobatic manoeuvres;
to subsection 602.97(3), or
(iii) the ADIZ. (b) Class B, C or D external load operations conducted by
a helicopter; and
Seat and Safety Belt Requirements
(c) aerial application, or aerial inspection other than flight
605.22 inspection for the purpose of calibrating electronic
(1) Subject to subsection 605.23, no person shall operate an navigation aids, conducted at altitudes below 500 feet
aircraft other than a balloon unless it is equipped with a AGL.
seat and safety belt for each person on board the aircraft
General Use of Safety Belts and Restraint Systems
other than an infant.
605.25
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person operating an aircraft
that was type-certificated with a safety belt designed for (1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall direct all of the
two persons. persons on board the aircraft to fasten safety belts
(3) A safety belt referred to in subsection (1) shall include a (a) during movement of the aircraft on the surface;
latching device of the metal-to-metal type. (b) during takeoff and landing; and
Restraint System Requirements (c) at any time during flight that the pilot-in-command
considers it necessary that safety belts be fastened.
605.23
(2) The directions referred to in subsection (1) also apply to
An aircraft may be operated without being equipped in accordance
the use of the following restraint systems:
with Section 605.22 in respect of the following persons if a
restraint system that is secured to the primary structure of the (a) a child restraint system;
RAC
aircraft is provided for each person who is (b) a restraint system used by a person who is engaged in
(a) carried on a stretcher or in an incubator or other similar parachute descents; and
device; (c) a restraint system used by a person when working in
(b) carried for the purpose of parachuting from the aircraft; or the vicinity of an opening in the aircraft structure.
(c) required to work in the vicinity of an opening in the aircraft (3) Where an aircraft crew includes flight attendants and the
structure. pilot-in-command anticipates that the level of turbulence
will exceed light turbulence, the pilot-in-command shall
Shoulder Harness Requirements immediately direct each flight attendant to
605.24 (a) discontinue duties relating to service;
(1) No person shall operate an aeroplane, other than a small (b) secure the cabin; and
aeroplane manufactured before July 18, 1978, unless each (c) occupy a seat and fasten the safety belt provided.
front seat or, if the aeroplane has a flight deck, each seat
on the flight deck is equipped with a safety belt that includes (4) Where an aircraft is experiencing turbulence and the
a shoulder harness. in-charge flight attendant considers it necessary, the
in-charge flight attendant shall
(2) Except as provided in Section 705.75, no person shall operate
a transport category aeroplane unless each flight attendant (a) direct all of the passengers to fasten their safety belts;
seat is equipped with a safety belt that includes a shoulder and
harness. (b) direct all flight attendants to discontinue duties relating
to service, to secure the cabin, to occupy the assigned
303
TC AIM March 25, 2021
seats and to fasten the safety belts provided and to do Child Restraint System
so oneself.
605.28
(5) Where the in-charge flight attendant has given directions
(1) No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a child
in accordance with subsection (4), the in-charge flight
restraint system on board the aircraft unless
attendant shall so inform the pilot-in-command.
(a) the person using the child restraint system is
Use of Passenger Safety Belts and Restraint Systems accompanied by a parent or guardian who will attend
605.26 to the safety of the person during the flight;
(1) Where the pilot-in-command or the in-charge flight attendant (b) the weight and height of the person using the child
directs that safety belts be fastened, every passenger who restraint system are within the range specified by
is not an infant shall the manufacturer;
(a) ensure that the passenger’s safety belt or restraint system (c) the child restraint system bears a legible label indicating
is properly adjusted and securely fastened; the applicable design standards and date of manufacture;
(b) if responsible for an infant for which no child restraint (d) the child restraint system is properly secured by the
system is provided, hold the infant securely in the safety belt of a forward-facing seat that is not located
passenger’s arms; and in an emergency exit row and does not block access to
an aisle; and
(c) if responsible for a person who is using a child restraint
system, ensure that the person is properly secured. (e) the tether strap is used according to the manufacturer’s
instructions or, where subsection (2) applies, secured
(2) No passenger shall be responsible for more than one infant. so as not to pose a hazard to the person using the child
Use of Crew Member Safety Belts restraint system or to any other person.
304
TC AIM March 25, 2021
accordance with the standards of airworthiness under Table 3 RAC Annex—Minimum Oxygen Requirements
which the type certificate for that aircraft was issued; for Pressurized Aircraft Following Emergency Descent
or
(b) current weather reports or pilot reports indicate that Column I Column II
icing conditions no longer exist.
Persons For
Item Whom Oxygen
Oxygen Equipment and Supply Period Of Flight And Cabin-
Supply Must Be Pressure-Altitude
605.31 Available
(1) No person shall operate an unpressurized aircraft unless it
1. All crew (a) Entire period of flight exceeding
is equipped with sufficient oxygen dispensing units and
members and 30 minutes at cabin-pressure-
oxygen supply to comply with the requirements set out in 10 percent of altitudes above 10 000 feet ASL
the table to this subsection. passengers and, but not exceeding 13 000 feet
in any case, no ASL
Table 2 RAC Annex—Oxygen Requirements less than one
for Unpressurized Aircraft passenger (b) Entire period of flight at cabin-
pr e s sur e -altitude s ab ove
Column I Column II 13 000 feet ASL
(c) For aircraft operated in an air
Item Persons For Whom transport service under the
Period Of Flight And conditions referred to in
Oxygen Supply
Cabin-Pressure-Altitude
Must Be Available paragraph (a) or (b), a period of
flight of not less than
1. All crew members Entire period of flight (i) 30 minutes (Note 2), and
and 10 percent of exceeding 30 minutes at (ii) for flight crew members,
passengers and, in cabin-pressure-altitudes two hours for aircraft the
any case, no less above 10 000 feet ASL but not type certificate of which
than one passenger exceeding 13 000 feet ASL authorizes flight at altitudes
exceeding FL 250 (Note 3)
2. All persons on board (a) Entire period of flight at
the aircraft cabin-pressure-altitudes
above 13 000 feet ASL
(b) For aircraft operated in an 2. All passengers (a) Entire period of flight at cabin-
air transport service under pressure-altitudes exceeding
the conditions referred to 13 000 feet ASL
in paragraph(a), a period
of flight of not less than (b) For aircraft operated in an air
one hour. transport service under the
RAC
conditions referred to in
(2) No person shall operate a pressurized aircraft unless it is paragraph (a), a period of flight
equipped with sufficient oxygen dispensing units and oxygen of not less than 10 minutes
supply to provide, in the event of cabin pressurization failure
at the most critical point during the flight, sufficient oxygen NOTES:
to continue the flight to an aerodrome suitable for landing 1. In determining the available supply, the cabin pressure
while complying with the requirements of the table to this altitude descent profile for the routes concerned must be
subsection. taken into account.
2. The minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary
for a constant rate of descent from the aircraft’s maximum
operating altitude authorized in the type certificate to
10 000 ft ASL in 10 minutes, followed by 20 minutes at
10 000 feet ASL.
3. The minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary
for a constant rate of descent from the aircraft’s maximum
operating altitude authorized in the type certificate to
10 000 ft ASL in 10 minutes, followed by 110 minutes at
10 000 feet ASL.
305
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Use of Oxygen Sections 12.4 to 12.17 of the TDG Regulations provide alternative
domestic provisions for dangerous goods in air transport, which
605.32
address the unique characteristics of the Canadian aviation
(1) Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes industry and geographical environment.
above 10 000 ft ASL, but not exceeding 13 000 ft ASL,
each crew member shall wear an oxygen mask and use NOTE:
supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at those Activities related to the handling, offering for transport or
altitudes that is more than 30 min in duration. transporting of dangerous goods by air, which are not consistent
with the TDG Act, 1992 or the TDG Regulations, require an
(2) Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes
equivalency certificate issued under section 31 of the TDG Act,
above 13 000 ft ASL, each person on board the aircraft shall
1992, and section 14.1 of the TDG Regulations.
wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for the
duration of the flight at those altitudes. Canadian Air Operators are required to submit procedures for
(3) The pilot at the flight controls of an aircraft shall use an the carriage of dangerous goods and corresponding TDG Training
oxygen mask if Program to TC for review and approval. TC published
Advisory Circular (AC) 700-001— Procedures for the Carriage
(a) the aircraft is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen
of Dangerous Goods to the Company Operations Manual and
masks and is operated at or above FL 250; or
AC 700-008 – Development of a Dangerous Goods Training
(b) the aircraft is equipped with quick-donning oxygen Program to assist air operators in the development of dangerous
masks and is operated above FL 410. goods procedures and training program. The ACs are found on
the Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) documentation
website: < https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/reference-centre/
12.3 trAnSPortAtion of DAngerouS advisory-circulars#700-series >.
gooDS (tDg) By Air
NOTE:
Dangerous goods refers to a product, substance or organism
Consultants may provide assistance in developing dangerous
included by its nature or by the regulations in any of the classes
goods procedures and training programs; however, generic
listed in the schedule to the Transportation of Dangerous Goods
procedures and training programs may need to be amended to
Act, 1992. There are nine classes of dangerous goods:
reflect air operators’ activities.
Class 1: Explosives;
Anyone handling, offering for transport, transporting or importing
Class 2: Gases; dangerous goods in Canada must be trained and hold a valid
Class 3: Flammable liquids; training certificate in compliance with Part 6, Training, of the
TDG Regulations. An air operator can delegate some of its
Class 4: Flammable solids; substances liable to
responsibilities to third parties; however, the air operator remains
spontaneous combustion;
accountable. Therefore, an air operator is responsible for training
substances that on contact with water emit employees (and third party staff) who handle, offer for transport,
flammable gases; or transport dangerous goods based on the approved dangerous
RAC
Class 5: Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides; goods procedures and TDG training program. Employees (and
third party staff) can also perform TDG duties if in the presence
Class 6: Toxic and infectious substances; and under the direct supervision of a person who is trained and
Class 7: Radioactive materials; who holds a TDG training certificate. A TDG training certificate
expires 24 months after its date of issuance.
Class 8: Corrosives; and
Class 9: Miscellaneous products, substances or
organisms.
Dangerous goods shall not be carried on board any Canadian
aircraft, or in any foreign aircraft when operated in Canada,
unless in compliance with the Transportation of Dangerous
Goods Act, 1992, (TDG Act, 1992) and the Transportation of
Dangerous Goods Regulations (TDG Regulations).
Sections 12.1 to 12.3 of the TDG Regulations regulate the
domestic and international transport of dangerous goods by air,
and adopt by reference the ICAO Technical Instructions for the
Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air (ICAO TIs).
306
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Quebec Region—NAXD
Commercial and Business Aviation
700 Leigh Capreol Place
Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport
Dorval QC H4Y 1G7
Tel.: ................................................................514-633-2838
Fax: ................................................................514-633-3697
Atlantic Region—MAXD
Commercial and Business Aviation
PO Box 42,
Heritage Court
Moncton NB E1C 8K6
Tel.: ................................................................506-851-7247
Fax: ................................................................ 506-851-7190
Pacific Region—TAXD
Commercial and Business Aviation
800 Burrard Street, Suite 620
Vancouver BC V6Z 2J8
Tel.: ............................................................... 604-666-5655
Fax: ...............................................................604-666-0682
Ontario Region—PAXD—PIA
Commercial and Business Aviation
5431 Flightline Drive
Pearson International Airport
RAC
Mississauga ON L5P 1B2
General Information: ................................... 416-952-0000
Fax: ............................................................... 905-405-3305
Winnipeg Office
Tel.: ............................................................... 204-495-1424
Fax: ............................................................... 204-495-1734
National Operations—NAROA
700 Leigh Capreol Place, Suite 2093
Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport
Dorval QC H4Y 1G7
Tel.: .................................................................514-633-3116
Fax: ................................................................ 514-633-3717
307
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RAC
308
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NAT
(i) the equipment referred to in section 605.18,
1.1 regulAtion, reference DocumentS AnD 1.3 north AmericAn routeS (nAr)
The North American route (NAR) system interfaces with North
guiDAnce mAteriAl Atlantic (NAT) oceanic, the oceanic transition area, and domestic
airspace and is used by air traffic transiting the NAT. NARs
1.1.1 Regulation consist of a series of pre-planned routes to and from established
CAR 602.38 requires pilots of Canadian aircraft, when flying oceanic entry/exit points (OEP) and major identified airports
over the high seas, to comply with the applicable rules set out throughout Canada and the United States.
in ICAO Annex 2, Rules of the Air, and with the applicable NARs and their associated procedures are published in the
regional supplementary procedures set out in ICAO Doc 7030. Planning section of the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) and
in the Federal Aviation Administration’s (FAA) Airport Facility/
1.1.2 North Atlantic (NAT) Documentation Directory—Northeast.
The following documents are applicable to operations in the
NAT region: 1.4 gAnDer oceAnic trAnSition AreA (gotA)
(a) ICAO Annex 2—Rules of the Air; The implementation of additional surveillance and communication
sites along the north-east coast of Canada allowed for the provision
(b) ICAO Annex 11—Air Traffic Services;
of enhanced services and led to the creation of the Gander oceanic
(c) ICAO Doc 4444—Procedures for Air Navigation Services— transition area (GOTA).
Air Traffic Management;
The lower limit of the GOTA is FL 290; the upper limit is FL 600.
(d) ICAO Doc 7030—Regional Supplementary Procedures; The GOTA is Class A controlled airspace.
(e) ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT SPG Handbook; The GOTA consists of airspace FL 290 and above, from 6530N
(f) ICAO NAT Doc 006—Air Traffic Management Operational 060W, east to the Reykjavik area control centre (ACC) boundary,
Contingency Plan—North Atlantic Region; south to 6330N 055W, south along 055W to the Gander domestic
boundary, north along the Gander/Montreal domestic boundaries,
(g) ICAO NAT Doc 007—North Atlantic Operations and
north to the Edmonton boundary, and then back to the point of
Airspace Manual; and
origin (see Figure 1.1).
(h) Gander Data Link Oceanic Clearance Delivery (OCD)
Surveillance services are provided by Gander ACC. The automatic
Crew Procedures.
dependence surveillance - contract/controller-pilot data link
communications (ADS-C/CPDLC) log on address for aircraft
1.2 generAl AviAtion AircrAft in GOTA airspace is CDQX.
Canadian Aviation Regulation (CAR) 602.39 specifies the
following:
“No pilot-in-command of a single-engined aircraft, or of a multi-
engined aircraft that would be unable to maintain flight in the
event of the failure of any engine, shall commence a flight that
will leave Canadian Domestic Airspace and enter airspace over
the high seas unless:
(a) the pilot-in-command holds a pilot licence endorsed with
an instrument rating;
309
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.7.1 Routes
For eastbound and westbound traffic:
(a) South of 70°N, the planned tracks shall be defined by
significant points formed by the intersection of half or whole
1.5 north AtlAntic (nAt) orgAnizeD trAck degrees of latitude at each 10° of longitude (060°W, 050°W,
040°W). For flights operating north of 70°N, significant
SyStem (otS) points are defined by the parallels of latitude expressed in
Organized tracks are formulated and published in a North degrees and minutes with longitudes at 20° intervals; the
Atlantic (NAT) track message via the Aeronautical Fixed distance between significant points shall, as far as possible,
Telecommunications Network (AFTN) and sent to all interested not exceed one hour of flight time. Additional significant
operators. The daytime structure is published by Shanwick area points should be established when required because of
control centre (ACC) and the night-time structure is published aircraft speed or the angle at which meridians are crossed.
by Gander ACC. When the flight time between successive significant points
is less than 30 min, one of the points may be omitted.
Flight levels are allocated for use within the organized track
system (OTS), and in most cases, details of domestic entry and (b) Oceanic traffic transitioning through the GOTA from FL 290
exit routings associated with individual tracks are provided in to FL 600 shall flight plan an oceanic entry/exit point (OEP),
the NAT track message. a 050°W coordinate, and a 040°W coordinate.
To permit an orderly changeover between successive OTSs, a (c) The following OEPs are limited to flights conducted from
period of several hours is interposed between the termination FL 290 and above: AVPUT, CLAVY, EMBOK, KETLA,
of one system and the commencement of the next. During these LIBOR, MAXAR, NIFTY, PIDSO, RADUN, SAVRY,
periods, operators are expected to file random routes or use the TOXIT, URTAK, VESMI, AVUTI, BOKTO, CUDDY,
coordinates of a track in the system that is about to come into DORYY, and ENNSO.
effect. (d) The following OEPs shall be flight planned by all aircraft
Eastbound traffic crossing 030˚W at 1030 UTC or later and entering or exiting Gander oceanic airspace, regardless of
westbound traffic crossing 030˚W at 0000 UTC or later should altitude: HOIST, IRLOK, JANJO, KODIK, LOMSI, MELDI,
plan to avoid the OTS at the published levels. NEEKO, PELTU, RIKAL, SAXAN, TUDEP, UMESI,
ALLRY, BUDAR, ELSIR, IBERG, JOOPY, MUSAK,
Further information on available flight level profiles can be NICSO, OMSAT, PORTI, RELIC, SUPRY, and RAFIN.
found in NAT 1.20.3.
For northbound and southbound traffic, the planned tracks shall
be defined by significant points formed by the intersection of
whole degrees of longitude with parallels of latitude spaced at
5° (65°N, 60°N, 55°N).
310
TC AIM March 25, 2021
For aircraft planning to fly within the OTS from the oceanic via CDA and subsequently enter the Gander OCA are required to
NAT
entry point to the oceanic exit point as detailed in the daily NAT flight plan in accordance with the published NAT OTS or over an
track message, the track shall be defined in Item 15 of the flight oceanic entry point and a 050°W coordinate.
plan by the abbreviation “NAT” followed by the code letter
Flights exiting the New York OCA via BOBTU should contact
assigned to the track. Refer to subsection 1.20.3.2 for more details
Gander ACC five minutes prior to BOBTU on frequency
on the OTS.
134.7 MHz. Operators should be aware that if the NAT OTS
For eastbound NAT flights planning to operate on the OTS, the includes tracks that are at or south of SUPRY 46°N 050°W (or
second and third route options should be indicated at the end of 46°N 050°W SUPRY), optimal flight levels and routes may not
Item 18 of the flight plan. Those operators who do not have the be available.
capability to provide this information in Item 18 of the flight
To facilitate effective coordination for flights entering or exiting
plan should send the information by a separate AFTN message
the Gander domestic CTA and the New York OCA via 44°N
to Gander ACC (CYQXZQZX).
050°W or south thereof:
Examples:
(a) Eastbound flights exiting the Gander domestic CTA directly
RMKS/ … O2.X370 O3.V350 (Option 2 is Track X at FL 370; into the New York OCA are required to flight plan via
option 3 is Track V at FL 350). LOMPI direct JAROM direct TALGO direct 44°N 050°W
or south thereof.
RMKS/ … O2.RS390 O3.Z370 (Option 2 is random track south
at FL 390; option 3 is Track Z at FL 370). (b) Eastbound flights exiting the New York OCA directly into
the Gander domestic CTA are required to flight plan via
NOTE: BOBTU.
In the preceding examples, options 2 and 3 are indicated by the (i) When the eastbound OTSs are anchored at RAFIN
letter “O” and not by the number zero. and/or TALGO, BOBTU will be unavailable for
eastbound NAT traffic flight planning between
ATS requires flights entering or exiting the Gander OCA to FL 300 and FL 400, inclusive.
flight plan in accordance with the published NAT OTS or, if
exiting by way of 58°N 050°W and south thereof, via the following (c) Westbound flights exiting the New York OCA directly into
OEPs (compulsory reporting points) and associated 050°W the Gander domestic CTA are required to flight plan via
coordinates (see Table 1.1). BOBTU direct JAROM direct LOMPI.
Requests for a suitable alternative flight level may be indicated 1.8 PreferreD route meSSAge (Prm)
NAT
in Item 18 of the flight plan.
North Atlantic (NAT) operators shall send preferred route
messages (PRMs) for eastbound flights to the following Gander
1.7.4 Estimated Times Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)
For flights conducted on the OTS, the accumulated elapsed time addresses:
only to the first oceanic FIR boundary (Gander accepts elapsed
(a) CZQXZQZX (Gander ACC)
time to OEPs) is to be entered in Item 18 of the flight plan.
(b) CZULZQZX (Montreal ACC)
For flights conducted wholly or partly on the OTS, accumulated
estimated times to significant points en route are to be entered in The following format is to be used for eastbound PRMs:
Item 18 of the flight plan. [PRIORITY] [DEST ADDRESS] [DEST ADDRESS] — [DATE
TIME OF ORIGIN] [ORIGIN ADDRESS] [MESSAGE TYPE]-
1.7.5 Aircraft Approval Status and Registration [COMPANY]-[EB]-[YYMMDD AT 030°W]- [(DEP/DEST)
(INLAND FIX) (OEP) (OCA RPS) (LANDFALL) (LAST UK
For an aircraft certified as being in compliance with operations POINT) (NUMBER OF FLT 01-99)]
within the NAT HLA, the approval status (MNPS) shall be
indicated in Item 10 by entering the letter “X”. It is the pilot’s Example:
responsibility to ensure that specific approval has been given FF CZQXZQZX
for the NAT HLA operations. Refer to subpart 1.11 for more
information on MNPS in the NAT HLA. 130502 KJFKSWRW
312
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(d) ATC will issue an abbreviated oceanic clearance to aircraft (b) Flights that have been rerouted from the flight planned
NAT
that will be operated along one of the NAT organized tracks. route and enter CDA within 120 NM of the flight planned
The abbreviated clearance will include the track letter, the oceanic exit point can anticipate a clearance to regain the
flight level, and the Mach number or speed in knots to be flight planned route by the INF unless the pilot requests a
maintained. The pilot is to read back the clearance including different routing. For flights entering CDA more than
the TMI number. ATC will confirm the accuracy of the 120 NM from the flight planned oceanic exit point, a
readback and the TMI number. clearance will be issued following consultation with the
pilot.
NOTE:
The OTS is identified by a TMI number, which is determined (c) ATC will use the latest flight plan received before a flight
by using the Julian calendar for the day on which the tracks are departs. Subsequent changes to the flight plan route,
effective. (Refer to subsection 1.20.3.2 for more information on including any changes received by the pilot from flight
OTS.) The TMI number is contained in the Remarks section on operations or dispatch, must be requested directly by the
the NAT track message. Amendments to tracks that are already pilot on initial contact with the appropriate domestic ACC.
published are indicated by appending a letter to the Julian date, Direct requests from flight operations or dispatch to ATC
e.g. TMI 320A. A revised TMI will be issued for changes to: to reclear aircraft will only be considered under exceptional
circumstances and are not an acceptable alternative to a
(i) any track coordinate(s), including named points; pilot-initiated request for a reclearance.
(ii) published track levels; or
(iii) named points within European routes west. (d) Domestic reclearances by ATC may contain either the route
specified in full detail or a NAR.
A TMI revision will not be issued for changes to other items
such as NARs. If an aircraft enters CDA via the Edmonton FIR, the onward
domestic routing will have been established in coordination
(e) Whether received via data link or voice, the oceanic clearance between the Reykjavik and Edmonton ACCs, and additional
to enter the Gander OCA has the following meaning: domestic clearance is not required. If there has been a change
(i) the clearance is valid only within oceanic airspace, in route from the filed flight plan, clarification of the onward
and details the route, altitude and speed at which routing may be obtained from Edmonton ACC on request.
the flight is to enter oceanic airspace;
(ii) the flight crew is not immediately authorized to Westbound aircraft that have proceeded across the NAT and
change the route, altitude or speed in order to comply have entered the GOTA or CDA shall maintain the last oceanic
with the oceanic clearance; Mach setting assigned by ATC:
(iii) the flight crew is required to obtain a subsequent (a) unless approval is obtained from ATC to make a change;
clearance in order to comply with the oceanic or
clearance; and
(b) until the pilot receives an initial descent clearance approaching
(iv) if unable to obtain a subsequent clearance, the flight destination.
crew should revert to the procedures for radio
communications failure detailed in the CFS and in NOTE:
the NAT section of ICAO’s Regional Supplementary Pilots should request changes to their oceanic Mach setting once
Procedures (Doc 7030) in order to manoeuvre as communication has been established within the GOTA or CDA.
necessary to comply with the oceanic clearance.
(f) If the aircraft is designated to report meteorological
1.9.3 Oceanic Clearance Delivery
information, the pilot will be advised by the inclusion of
the phrase “SEND MET REPORTS” in the clearance. Unless otherwise advised by ATC, the following oceanic
clearance delivery procedures are in effect daily between 2330
and 0730 UTC (DST 2230 and 0630 UTC) for all eastbound
1.9.2 Domestic Clearances—North
oceanic flights that transit the Gander domestic FIR/CTA:
Atlantic (NAT) Westbound Traffic
(a) Clearance delivery frequencies are published daily in the
Pilots proceeding westbound across the NAT and entering CDA
Remarks section on the eastbound NAT track message.
within the Gander, Moncton and Montréal FIRs should comply
During published clearance delivery hours, pilots are to
with the following procedures:
contact Gander Clearance Delivery on the frequency
(a) Flights whose oceanic clearance contains their flight planned designated for their oceanic entry point. Pilots should contact
oceanic exit point will not be issued en route clearances upon Clearance Delivery when they are within 200 NM of the
entering the airspace and are to follow the flight planned specified clearance delivery frequency location. In the event
route as cleared. Domestic en route clearances will be issued: that contact cannot be established, pilots are to advise ATC
(i) for flights that have been rerouted and exit oceanic on the assigned control frequency. The following frequencies
airspace at a point other than the flight planned exit and frequency locations will normally be used:
fix; or
(ii) at a pilot’s request for another routing; or
(iii) if a flight plan has not been received by the ACC.
313
TC AIM March 25, 2021
314
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NAT
SPecificAtionS (mnPS) for oPerAtionS minimum (rvSm)—minimum
within the north AtlAntic high-level AircrAft SyStem PerformAnce
AirSPAce (nAt hlA) SPecificAtionS (mASPS)
All operators of aircraft used to conduct flights within the North
1.11.1 General Atlantic high-level airspace (NAT HLA) where reduced vertical
All operators are to ensure that aircraft used to conduct flights separation minimum (RVSM) is applied are to ensure that they
within the NAT HLA have the minimum navigation equipment. meet t he m i n i mu m ai rcr af t system per for ma nce
For detailed requirements, refer to the following documents: specifications (MASPS). For detailed requirements, refer to the
following publications:
(a) ICAO Doc 7030—Regional Supplementary Procedures;
(a) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Doc 7030—
(b) ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT SPG Handbook; Regional Supplementary Procedures;
(c) ICAO NAT Doc 007—North Atlantic Operations and (b) ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT SPG Handbook;
Airspace Manual; and
(c) ICAO NAT Doc 007—North Atlantic Operations and
(d) Parts VI and VII of the CARs. Airspace Manual; and
Eastbound aircraft requesting an oceanic clearance from Gander (d) Parts VI and VII of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs).
ACC to enter the NAT HLA may be asked by ATC to confirm
that they are approved for MNPS operations. Pilots/operators Eastbound aircraft requesting an oceanic clearance from Gander
unable to provide such confirmation will be issued an oceanic area control centre (ACC) to enter the NAT HLA at designated
clearance to operate their aircraft outside the NAT HLA (below RVSM altitudes may be asked by air traffic control (ATC) to
FL 285 or above FL 420). confirm that they are approved for minimum navigation
performance specifications (MNPS) and/or RVSM operations.
Pilots/operators unable to provide such confirmation will be
1.11.2 Aircraft Without Minimum Navigation issued an oceanic clearance to operate their aircraft outside
Performance Specifications (MNPS) for designated RVSM altitudes.
the North-Atlantic High-Level
Airspace (NAT HLA) Operations
1.13 ADherence to mAch Setting
An aircraft that does not meet the NAT HLA requirements may
be allowed to operate in the NAT HLA if the following conditions While operating in the Gander oceanic control area (OCA) and
are satisfied: Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA), aircraft shall adhere to the
Mach setting assigned by air traffic control (ATC) unless approval
(a) The aircraft is being provided with ATS surveillance is obtained from ATC to make a change or until the pilot receives
services; an initial descent clearance approaching destination. If it is
(b) Direct controller-pilot VHF communication is maintained; essential to make an immediate temporary change in Mach
and setting (e.g. as a result of turbulence), ATC shall be notified as
soon as possible that such a change has been made.
(c) The aircraft has a certified installation of equipment
providing it with the ability to navigate along the cleared When adherence to an assigned “MACH” setting is no longer
track. required, pilots will receive a controller-pilot data link
communications (CPDLC) message to “RESUME NORMAL
NOTE: SPEED”, at which point the flight crew can continue at their
Pilots operating aircraft in the NAT HLA under these provisions cost index. Refer to aeronautical information circular (AIC) 1/20
should familiarize themselves with NAT HLA operations and Operations Without an Assigned Fixed Speed (OWAFS) in the
procedures. They should also have a current copy of the OTS North Atlantic for more details.
message that is in effect for the time of their flight for situational
Pilots shall advise ATC at the time of the climb/descent request
awareness.
if it is not possible to maintain the last assigned Mach setting
Aircraft that are not approved to operate in the NAT HLA and during en route climbs and descents because of aircraft
do not meet the above provisions may be cleared to climb or performance.
descend through the NAT HLA, traffic permitting.
315
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTE:
This procedure does not affect the use of the special purpose
codes 7500, 7600, and 7700.
316
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.17.2 Contingency Procedures for Oceanic Traffic in the Event of an Evacuation of Gander Area
NAT
Control Centre (ACC)
1.17.2.1 AIRCRAFT PROCEDURES—Westbound
(a) Aircraft that do not receive an oceanic clearance
(i) In the event that Gander ACC must be evacuated, only aircraft with received and acknowledged oceanic clearances will
be permitted to transit the Gander OCA.
(ii) If unable to obtain or acknowledge an oceanic clearance, flights should plan to reroute around the Gander OCA or land
at an appropriate aerodrome. Request the appropriate reclearance on the current frequency. Frequency congestion is
likely.
(b) Aircraft that receive an acknowledged oceanic clearance
(i) Aircraft operating with a received and acknowledged oceanic clearance should proceed in accordance with the
clearance. Flights should not request changes in altitude, speed, or route except for flight safety reasons.
(ii) Any flights involved in level changes should complete the manoeuvre as soon as possible in accordance with any
restrictions provided with the clearance.
(c) Contact Procedures
(i) Upon receipt of an emergency evacuation message, pilots are requested to broadcast to other flights on 121.5, 243.0,
and 123.45. A listening watch on these frequencies and the current frequency should be maintained until the flight
exits the Gander OCA and FIR.
(ii) All flights within the Gander OCA should transmit position reports on any available HF or VHF frequency to Shanwick
Radio either directly or through another agency or flight.
(iii) Flights should establish communication with the next agency at the earliest opportunity, stating their current
position, cleared flight level, next position and estimate, and subsequent position. This also applies to flights using
automated position reports (ADS/FMC) because those reports may not have been received by the next agency.
(iv) Flights within the Gander OCA should initially establish contact with Shanwick Radio. Flights within the Gander
FIR should contact Montreal Centre or Moncton Centre, depending on their oceanic exit point as described in
subparagraph (vii) below. Flights about to exit the Gander OCA into the New York OCA, the Reykjavik Oceanic CTA,
the Santa Maria OCA, or the Nuuk FIR should contact New York ARINC, Iceland Radio, Santa Maria Radio, or Nuuk
Radio as appropriate.
(v) If unable to establish radio contact, flights may use SATVOICE to provide position reports.
Oceanic Centre Public Switched Telephone Short Code
Network (PSTN) Number
Gander Shift Manager 001-709-651-5207 N/A
(vi) Aircraft may request that their flight dispatch offices forward position reports, if these aircraft are sending position
reports to multiple ATS Units or if they are otherwise unable to forward position reports.
317
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(vii) Based on where they exit oceanic airspace, flights shall proceed in accordance with the following table until
communication is established with the next agency and this agency issues a reclearance.
For flights operating at FL 290 and above:
Flight is routed over: The flight shall proceed to: Next control agency and
frequency:
AVPUT NALDI DUTUM Montreal ACC 134.85
CLAVY KAGLY TEFFO Montreal ACC 134.85
EMBOK IKMAN FEDDY Montreal ACC 134.85
KETLA GRIBS JELCO Montreal ACC 134.80
LIBOR 6101N 06241W Montreal ACC 134.80
MAXAR MIBNO RODBO Montreal ACC 133.20
NIFTY MUSLO Montreal ACC 133.20
PIDSO PEPKI LOPVI Montreal ACC 135.80
RADUN SINGA Montreal ACC 135.80
SAVRY LAKES MCKEE Montreal ACC 132.45
TOXIT UDMAR Montreal ACC 132.45
URTAK TEALS VANSI Montreal ACC 119.40
VESMI ALSOP Montreal ACC 119.40
AVUTI YKL ROUND Montreal ACC 119.40
BOKTO VOKET DUVBI Montreal ACC 119.40
CUDDY YWK MT Montreal ACC 132.90 @ 63W
DORYY YBC ANCER Moncton ACC 132.95
HOIST YRI Moncton ACC 118.875
IRLOK 5031N 06500W Moncton ACC 118.875
JANJO CEFOU Moncton ACC 118.875
KODIK 4941N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.52
LOMSI QUBIS Moncton ACC 132.52
MELDI 4853N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.52
NEEKO TAFFY Moncton ACC 124.975
PELTU 4813N 06500W Moncton ACC 135.77
RIKAL MIILS Moncton ACC 135.77
SAXAN 4718N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.55
TUDEP TOPPS Moncton ACC 133.55
UMESI 4618N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.55
ALLRY EBONY Moncton ACC 132.8
BUDAR 4536N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.8
ELSIR ALLEX Moncton ACC 132.8
IBERG 4451N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.75
JOOPY TUSKY Moncton ACC 132.75
MUSAK 4409N 06500W Moncton ACC 132.75
NICSO BRADD Moncton ACC 132.75
OMSAT 4336N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.3
PORTI KANNI Moncton ACC 133.3
RELIC 4303N 06500W Moncton ACC 133.7
318
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NAT
1.17.2.1 AIRCRAFT PROCEDURES—Westbound
Flight is routed over: The flight shall proceed to: Next control agency and
frequency:
SUPRY WHALE Moncton ACC 133.7
VODOR NANSO VITOL Moncton ACC 125.25
BOBTU JAROM GAYBL Moncton ACC 125.25
For flights operating at FL 280 and below:
NOTE:
Routes HOIST and south are the same as for flights operating at FL 290 and above.
Flight is routed over: The flight shall proceed to: Next control agency and
frequency:
NALDI DUTUM Montreal ACC 134.55
KAGLY TEFFO Montreal ACC 134.55
IKMAN FEDDY Montreal ACC 134.55
GRIBS JELCO Montreal ACC 128.25
MIBNO RODBO Montreal ACC 128.25
PEPKI LOPVI Montreal ACC 135.1
5900N 06000W LAKES MCKEE Montreal ACC 135.1
MOATT LOMTA TEALS VANSI Montreal ACC 132.9
PRAWN YDP YKL ROUND Montreal ACC 132.25@65W
PORGY YWK MT Montreal ACC 132.25@ 63W
319
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(iv) The Eastbound OTS will be extended to begin at fixes on or near the western boundary between the Gander FIR and
the Moncton and Montreal FIRs as follows:
INLAND CONTINGENCY FIX INTERMEDIATE FIX OCEANIC ENTRY POINT
KENKI AVPUT
MUSVA CLAVY
BERUS EMBOK
GRIBS KETLA
6101N 06241W LIBOR
MIBNO MAXAR
MUSLO NIFTY
PEPKI PIDSO
SINGA RADUN
LAKES 5900N 06000W SAVRY
UDMAR TOXIT
YKL LOMTA URTAK
ALSOP VESMI
YWK YDP AVUTI
DUVBI VOKET BOKTO
MUNBO CUDDY
BORUB DORRY
TEXUN ENNSO
TASTI YYR HOIST
5222N 06106W IRLOK
SERBO JANJO
KONCH KODIK
VERTU LOMSI
5111N 05929W MELDI
PIKNA NEEKO
5052N 05859W PELTU
NAPLO YAY RIKAL
4950N 05828W SAXAN
MIGLI TUDEP
4904N 05754W UMESI
LOPRO ALLRY
4818N 05730W BUDAR
VINSI YQX ELSIR
4734N 05712W IBERG
TAGRA JOOPY
4649N 05654W MUSAK
SUTKO YYT NICSO
4610N 05639W OMSAT
RUBDA PORTI
4521N 05621W RELIC
PEPRA SUPRY
320
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NAT
INLAND CONTINGENCY FIX INTERMEDIATE FIX OCEANIC ENTRY POINT
NANSO RAFIN
LOMPI JAROM TALGO
(v) Flights at or east of 50°W longitude should initially contact Shanwick Radio. Flights about to exit the Gander OCA
should contact New York ARINC, Santa Maria Radio, Iceland Radio, or Nuuk Radio as appropriate. The following
information should be provided:
(A) call sign;
(B) current position;
(C) current flight level and cleared oceanic flight level (if different from the current level);
(D) assigned Mach or speed;
(E) next waypoint and estimate; and
(F) subsequent waypoint.
(vi) The following communications procedures have been developed in accordance with the traffic information broadcast
by aircraft (TIBA) procedures recommended by ICAO Annex 11, Attachment C. Unless otherwise instructed by
Moncton or Montreal Centre, aircraft should apply these procedures when completing an altitude change to comply
with the oceanic clearance.
At least 3 min prior to initiating a climb or descent, the flight should broadcast the following on the last assigned
frequency, 121.5, 243.0, or 123.45:
ALL STATIONS
(call sign)
(direction)
DIRECT FROM (landfall fix) TO (oceanic entry point)
LEAVING FLIGHT LEVEL (number) FOR FLIGHT LEVEL (number) AT
(distance)(direction) FROM (oceanic entry point) AT (time)
When the level change begins, the flight should make the following broadcast:
ALL STATIONS
(call sign)
(direction)
DIRECT FROM (landfall fix) TO (oceanic entry point)
LEAVING FLIGHT LEVEL (number) NOW FOR FLIGHT LEVEL (number)
ALL STATIONS
(call sign)
MAINTAINING FLIGHT LEVEL (number)
(vii) When ADS-equipped flights are notified of a Gander evacuation, they must revert to voice position reporting until
they are either clear of Gander OCA or notified otherwise. Pilots should note that they may be asked to log on to
EGGX when within the Gander OCA; they should not initiate this action until instructed to do so.
321
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.19.1 General (a) The United States National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST) HF radio station near Fort Collins, Colo.,
The MNPS shall be applicable in that volume of airspace between (call sign WWV), which operates 24 hr a day on 2 500,
FL 285 and FL 420 within the OCAs of Bodo Oceanic, Gander 5 000, 10 000, 15 000, and 20 000 kHz (AM/SSB) and
Oceanic, New York Oceanic East, Reykjavik, Santa Maria, and announces UTC time at the top of each minute.
Shanwick excluding the Brest Oceanic Transition Area (BOTA)
and the Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA). (b) Approved (TSO-C129) GPS equipment on board (corrected
to UTC) that allows pilots to access UTC time 24 hr a day.
Operators of Canadian-registered aircraft intending to fly in
(c) The National Research Council of Canada HF radio station
the NAT HLA will be required to show that they meet all the
applicable standards. Information on the measures necessary in Ottawa (call sign CHU), which is available 24 hr a day
to gain approval may be obtained from the following: on 3 330, 7 850, and 14 670 kHz (SSB). In the final ten-second
period of each minute, it makes a bilingual station identification
Equipment Installation Approval: and time announcement in UTC.
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (d) The British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC), which
Regional Airworthiness Engineer transmits the Greenwich time signal once every hour on a
(See GEN 1.0 for the appropriate regional office.) number of domestic and worldwide frequencies.
322
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(e) Any other source shown to the state of registry or state of the 1.19.4 Special Routes for Aircraft Fitted With a
NAT
operator (as appropriate) to be an equivalent source of UTC. Single Long-Range Navigation System
In order to be considered capable of meeting the MNPS while
1.19.3 Provisions for Partial Loss of operating along the routes listed below, aircraft must have State
Navigation Capability approval to operate in the NAT HLA, be equipped with normal
If an aircraft suffers partial loss of navigation capability (in short-range navigation equipment (VOR/DME, ADF), and have
which only one long-range navigation system is serviceable) at least one fully operational set of one of the following navigation
prior to entry into oceanic airspace, the following routes should equipment:
be considered: (a) Doppler with computer;
(a) STN – 6000N 01000W (ATSIX) – 6100N 01234W – ALDAN (b) INS;
KFV
(c) GPS approved in accordance with the requirements specified
(b) BEN – 6100N 01000W (RATSU) – ALDAN – KFV in TSO C-129 (Class A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, or C2); or
(c) MAC – BEL – GOW – SHA – 5700N 01000W (GOMUP) (d) FMS or IRS.
– 6000N 01500W – 6100N 01630W BREKI KFV
The aforementioned routes are known as Blue Spruce routes
(d) KFV – SOPEN – DA – SF – YFB and are as follows:
(e) KFV – EPENI – 6300N 03000W – 6100N 04000W – OZN (a) STN or BEN – 60N 010W (ATSIX) – 61N 01234W – ALDAN
(f) OZN – 5900N 05000W – AVUTI (FL 290-FL 600) – – KFV (HF required on this route);
PRAWN – YDP; (b) STN or BEN – 61N 010W (RATSU) – ALDAN – KFV
(g) OZN – 5900N 05000W – CUDDY (FL 290-FL 600) – (VHF coverage exists and, subject to prior coordination
PORGY; with Scottish Airways and Prestwick [Shanwick OAC], this
route may be used by non-HF equipped aircraft);
(h) OZN – 5800N 05000W – HOIST – YYR;
(c) MAC, BEL, GOW, SGA – 57N 010W (GOMUP) – 60N
(i) SF – 6700N 06000W (DARUB) – YXP;
015W – 61N 01630W – BREKI KFV (HF required on this
(j) KU – 6600N 06000W (EPMAN) – YXP; route)
(k) KU – 6400N 06000W – 6400N 06300W (MUSVA) – YFB (d) Tango Nine (T9) – 483554N 0090000W (LASNO) – 45N
(l) RE – 6930N 02240W – CP 009W (BEGAS) –STG (HF required on this route);
These routes are subject to the following conditions: (e) Tango Sixteen (T16) – 485020N 0120000W (OMOKO) –
4500N 01600W (GONAN) – 4000N 01600W – NAVIX (HF
(a) sufficient navigation capability remains to meet the MNPS, required on this route);
and the requirements in ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Section 7.3
and ICAO Annex 6, Part II, Section 3.7.2 can be met by (f) Tango Two One Three (T213) – 484343N 0102950W
relying on the use of short-range NAVAIDs; (TAMEL) – 4500N 01300W (BERUX) (HF required on
this route);
(b) a revised flight plan is filed with the appropriate ATS unit;
and (g) KFV – SOPEN – DA – SF – YFB;
(c) an ATC clearance is obtained. (h) KFV – EPENI – 6300N 03000W – 6100N 04000W – OZN;
(i) OZN – 5900N 05000W – AVUTI (FL 290-FL 600) –
NOTES: PRAWN – YDP;
1. A revised oceanic clearance will be issued after coordination (j) OZN – 5900N 05000W – CUDDY (FL 290-FL 600) –
between all oceanic ACCs concerned. PORGY;
2. If the OTS extends to the northern part of the NAT region, (k) OZN – 5800N 05000W – HOIST – YYR;
the aircraft concerned may be required to accept a lower
than optimum flight level in the revised oceanic clearance, (l) SF – 6700N 06000W (DARUB) – YXP;
especially during peak traffic periods. (m) KU – 6600N 06000W (EPMAN) – YXP;
3. This guidance material does not relieve the pilot from the (n) KU – 6400N 06000W – 6400N 06300W (MUSVA) – YFB;
requirement to take the best possible course of action in
light of the prevailing circumstances. (o) RE – 6930N 02240W – CP;
(p) Funchal/Porto Santo – Santa Maria/Ponta Delgada; and
(q) Lisboa Porto Faro – Ponta Delgada/Santa Maria/Lajes.
323
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.19.5 Aircraft Without Minimum Navigation 1.20.3 Flight Level Allocation Scheme (FLAS)
NAT
Performance As with procedures in CDA, aircraft flight planning in oceanic
Specifications (MNPS) Capability airspace should normally plan for a flight level appropriate to
An aircraft that does not meet the NAT HLA requirements may the direction of flight, particularly when they are operating
be allowed to operate in the NAT HLA if the following conditions outside of the OTS structure and valid times.
are satisfied: In an effort to provide efficient and economic profiles,
(a) The aircraft is being provided with ATS surveillance NAT ANSPs, through consultation, have designed the FLAS.
services; The FLAS standardizes flight levels available for traffic routing
(b) Direct controller-pilot VHF communication is maintained; on and outside of the OTS as well as during transition times
and (times between valid OTS).
(c) The aircraft has a certified installation of equipment Aircraft operators are advised to flight plan using the flight
providing it with the ability to navigate along the cleared levels specified in this document, relative to their particular
track. flight(s).
NOTE:
1.20.3.1 Flight Level Allocation Scheme (FLAS)
Pilots operating aircraft in the NAT HLA under these provisions
should familiarize themselves with NAT HLA operations and Procedures
procedures. They should also have a current copy of the OTS FLAS procedures entail:
message that is in effect for the time of their flight for situational
(a) the establishment of flight level profiles normally available
awareness.
during OTS valid times;
Aircraft that are not approved to operate in the NAT HLA and (b) the establishment of flight level profiles during OTS
do not meet the above provisions may be cleared to climb or changeover periods;
descend through the NAT HLA, traffic permitting.
(c) the establishment of a night datum line, with the area south of
the line reserved principally for traffic originating in New York/
1.19.6 Monitoring of Gross Navigation Errors Santa Maria; and
In order to ensure that the required navigation standards are (d) the establishment of a north datum line, with the area on or
being observed within the NAT HLA, a continuous monitoring north of the line reserved for late-running westbound traffic
of the navigation accuracy of aircraft in this airspace takes place from Reykjavik to Gander.
using surveillance systems in Canada, Ireland, France, Iceland,
and the United Kingdom. In cases of a gross navigation error,
1.20.3.2 Organized Track System (OTS)
the pilot will normally be notified by the ATC unit observing
the error. The subsequent investigation to determine the error (a) Westbound
will involve the ATC unit, the operator, and the state of registry. (i) The westbound OTS message is designed and
published by Shanwick daily.
If there is a serious increase in the number of large errors, it
(ii) The most northerly track of a day OTS is designated
may become necessary to increase separation standards until
as NAT Track Alpha; the adjacent track to the south,
remedial action has been determined. Alternatively, if rapid
as NAT Track Bravo; and so on.
corrective action cannot be achieved, it may be necessary for
(iii) The valid times are 1130 to 1900 UTC at 30°W.
the state of registry or the state of the operator to temporarily
(iv) The flight level profiles normally published are
exclude offending aircraft types or operators from the NAT HLA.
FL 310 to FL 390 inclusive
(v) Tracks that landfall at or north of CUDDY FL 340
1.20 north AtlAntic (nAt) reDuceD verticAl will not be published.
(A) FL 340 is omitted from these tracks to allow
SePArAtion minimum (rvSm) profiles for aircraft originating in the
Reykjavik OCA.
1.20.1 Geographic Boundaries
In the NAT, RVSM airspace is airspace within the geographic
extent of the NAT region from FL 290 to FL 410 inclusive.
324
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NAT
(i) The eastbound OTS message is designed and 1129 UTC at FL 370 and FL 390:
published by Gander daily. (A) Remain clear of the incoming OTS.
(ii) The most southerly track is designated as Track (I) After 1030 UTC, the OTS (at FL 370 and
Zulu; the adjacent track to the north, as Track Yankee; FL 390) is released to Shanwick for the
and so on. use of westbound traffic.
(iii) The valid times are 0100 to 0800 UTC at 30°W. (iv) At the end of westbound (daytime) OTS:
(iv) The flight level profiles normally published are (A) Westbound aircraft crossing 030°W until
FL 310 to FL 400 inclusive. 1900 UTC at the ODL (FL 330) or on the OTS
(v) FL 310 is available on New York tracks only. shall have priority over eastbound aircraft.
(vi) Eastbound traffic routing, south of both the night (I) During the westbound OTS hours of
datum line and the main OTS, should flight plan validity, Gander delegates FL 330 to
using FL 310, FL 340, FL 360, or FL 380. Shanwick for use by westbound traffic.
(vii) New York Tracks entering Shanwick OCA that cross, (v) At the end of eastbound (night-time) OTS:
or route south of, the night datum line may be any (A) Eastbound aircraft crossing 030°W until
combination of FL 310, FL 340, FL 360, or FL 380, 0800 UTC at the ODLs (FL 340 and FL 380)
or as otherwise agreed between Santa Maria and or on the OTS shall have priority over westbound
New York. Additional levels will be allocated to aircraft.
New York Tracks if the core OTS is located in
that area.
NOTE:
For this procedure “New York Tracks” are any eastbound OTS
Tracks that originate in the New York area and enter Gander or
Shanwick OCAs.
325
TC AIM March 25, 2021
326
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NAT
The Regional Monitoring Agency for the NAT is the CMA
located in Prestwick, UK, and it may be contacted at the following
address:
North Atlantic Central Monitoring Agency
c/o National Air Traffic Services
Room G41
Scottish & Oceanic Area Control Centre
Sherwood Road
Prestwick, Ayrshire KA9 2NR
United Kingdom
Tel.: ........................................................... +44 1292 692412
Strumble HMU status
(recorded message).................................. +44 1292 692760
Fax: ..........................................................+44 1292 692754
E-mail:.................................................. natcma@nats.co.uk
1.20.4 North Atlantic (NAT) Reduced Vertical Information on the responsibilities of the CMA and the procedures
Separation Mininum (RVSM) Aircraft applicable to it are contained in ICAO NAT Doc 001—NAT
SPG Handbook, available at the following address: <www.icao.
Approvals
int/EURNAT/Pages/EUR-and-NAT-Document.aspx>.
Operators of Canadian-registered aircraft intending to fly in
NAT MNPS/RVSM airspace will be required to show that they 1.20.6 Data Link Mandate (DLM) Airspace
meet all of the applicable standards. Further information on the
measures necessary to gain approval may be obtained from the
following: 1.20.6.1 General Information
Airworthiness Approvals The objectives of the NAT Data Link Mandate are to enhance
RVSM Maintenance Programs communication, surveillance, and ATC intervention capabilities
Director, Standards (AART) in the NAT region. ADS-C provides conformance monitoring
Transport Canada Civil Aviation of aircraft adherence to cleared routes and f light levels,
330 Sparks Street significantly enhancing safety. ADS-C also facilitates SAR
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 operations, including the capability to locate the site of an accident
Tél. .............................................................. 1-800-305-2059 in oceanic airspace. CPDLC substantially improves air-ground
Fax: ................................................................ 613-952-3298 communications capability, and therefore, controller intervention
capability.
Commercial Flight Standards (AARTF)
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
330 Sparks Street 1.20.6.2 Data Link Mandate (DLM) Flight Levels
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 DLM airspace encompasses FL 290 to FL 410, inclusive,
Tel.: ............................................................. 1-800-305-2059 throughout the NAT region.
Fax: ................................................................613-990-6215
RVSM Maintenance Programs 1.20.6.3 Flights Permitted to Operate Within NAT DLM
Director, Standards (AART) Airspace
Transport Canada Civil Aviation
330 Sparks Street The following flights are permitted in NAT DLM airspace:
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 (a) Flights equipped with and prepared to operate FANS 1/A
Tel.: ............................................................. 1-800-305-2059 (or equivalent) CPDLC and ADS-C data link systems (see
Fax: ................................................................. 613-952-3298 ICAO Doc 7030 3.3.2 and 5.4.2);
(i) The appropriate equipage to be indicated in Item 10
of the ICAO flight plan is:
(A) D1; and
(B) One of the following: J2, J5, or J7.
(b) Non-equipped flights that file STS/FFR, HOSP, HUM,
MEDEVAC, SAR, or STATE in item 18 of the flight plan.
327
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.20.8.3 Post-flight Procedures visual acquisition) to determine the best flight path to fly.
NAT
Pilots may contact other aircraft on frequency 123.45 MHz,
ATC is not aware of whether an aircraft has been successfully
as necessary, to coordinate the best wake turbulence offset
monitored by the HMU. Operators wishing to ascertain this
option.
information may send a fax to the NAT CMA or complete and
submit the HMU request form, which is available at <http:// (f) Pilots may apply an offset outbound after the oceanic entry
natcma.com/height-monitoring-2/strumble-hmu/>. Please note point and must return to the centreline before the oceanic
that operators are encouraged to use the NAT CMA Web site. exit point. Position reports transmitted via voice should be
based on the waypoints of the current air traffic control (ATC)
Operator queries for specific overflights may be made to the
clearance and not on the offset positions.
NAT CMA. Such queries should include the Mode S or A codes
and approximate time of overflight. (g) There is no ATC clearance required for this procedure, and
it is not necessary that ATC be advised.
Table 2.1—Families of NAT HF Frequencies reception of Honolulu Pacific in-f light meteorological
NAT
Monitored by Gander IFSS information (VOLMET) broadcast in and adjacent to Canadian
airspace, Gander Radio can provide, on request, Anchorage and
NAT Family Frequencies Fairbanks surface observations and aerodrome forecasts to
flight crews.
A* 3 016 kHz
B 2 899 kHz
5 616 kHz
2.3 AvAilABility of Single SiDeBAnD (SSB)
8 864 kHz All international high frequency (HF) equipment is operated on
single sideband (SSB) J3E emission. In all cases, the upper
13 291 kHz
sideband (USB) is employed.
C 2 872 kHz
5 649 kHz
2.4 Selective cAlling SyStem (SelcAl)
8 879 kHz
11 336 kHz The selective calling system (SELCAL) is installed on all
international frequencies at Gander Radio. SELCAL provides
13 306 kHz an automatic and selective method of calling any aircraft. Voice
D 2 971 kHz calling is replaced by the transmission of code tones to the
4 675 kHz aircraft over the international radiotelephone channels. A single
8 891 kHz selective call consists of a combination of four pre-selected audio
tones requiring approximately two seconds of transmission time.
11 279 kHz
The tones are generated in the ground station coder and are
13 291 kHz received by a decoder connected to the audio output of the airborne
F 3 476 kHz receiver. Receipt of the assigned tone code (SELCAL code)
6 622 kHz activates a light or chime signal in the cockpit of the aircraft.
8 831 kHz It is the responsibility of the flight crew to ensure that Gander
13 291 kHz Radio is informed of the SELCAL code available based on the
airborne equipment, if they intend to communicate with Gander
*Note: The NAT Family A of frequencies is not routinely monitored by Gander IFSS; Radio. This may be done in connection with the off-ground
however, they are available for use in unusual circumstances such as an adjacent ATS Unit
evacuation or loss communications.
report or when they are transferring in flight from one network
to another.
For information about hours of service, refer to the AIP GEN
section 3.4 Communication Services under 3.4.3 Types of SELCAL standards and procedures are found in the International
Service: HF. For further details regarding Gander Radio Station Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 10, Volume II. The
Information, refer to the International Civil Aviation Organization worldwide administration of SELCAL code assignments has
(ICAO) NAT Doc 003, High Frequency Management Guidance been delegated to Aviation Spectrum Resources, Inc. SELCAL
Material for the North Atlantic Region, Appendix B-2. code application forms may be obtained at: <www.asri.aero/
selcal>.
In the event that the overloading of a family occurs or is
anticipated, aircraft of one or more operators may be offloaded
from that family to another appropriate family for the expected 2.5 uSe of generAl PurPoSe very high
duration of the condition. The offloading may be requested by frequency (vhf) or SAtellite voice
any station, but Shannon and Gander will be responsible for
making a decision after coordination with all NAT stations communicAtionS (SAtvoice) in lieu of
concerned. internAtionAl high frequency (hf) Air-
grounD frequencieS
2.2 high frequency (hf) oPerAtionS—
AnchorAge Arctic 2.5.1 North Atlantic (NAT) and Anchorage Arctic
Regions—Satellite Voice
Aircraft operating in the Anchorage Arctic control area (CTA)/
Communications (SATVOICE) Use
flight information region (FIR) beyond the line-of-sight range
of remote control very high frequency (VHF) air-ground facilities SATVOICE may be used to contact Gander Radio for non-routine
operated from the Anchorage area control centre (ACC) shall flight safety calls or during periods of poor HF propagation.
maintain communications with Gander Radio and a listening Gander Radio may be contacted at 1-709-651-5328 or using
or selective calling system (SELCAL) watch on North Atlantic Inmarsat short code 431613.
Delta (NAT D) network high frequencies (HF) 2 971 kHz,
4 675 kHz, 8 891 kHz, and 11 279 kHz. Primary daytime
frequency is 11 279 kHz with a primary nighttime frequency of
8 891 kHz. Additionally, and in view of reported marginal
330
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.5.2 North Atlantic (NAT) Region—Very High Figure 2.2—NAT VHF Coverage at 20 000 ft
NAT
Frequency (VHF) Coverage
Table 2.2—NAT Region VHF Frequencies
VHF FREQUENCIES COORDINATES/NAMED FIXES
É
122.375 45N 050W – 54N 050W
135.35 45N 050W – 48N 050W
126.9 48N 050W – 51N 050W
127.1 48N 050W – 51N 050W
119.85 51N 050W – 54N 050W
120.55 LOMSI – AVUIT
123.75 PIDSO – BOKTO
124.82 NIFTY – AVPUT
134.47 58N 050W – 65N 050W
134.95 57N 040W – 63N 040W Figure 2.3—NAT VHF Coverage at 30 000 ft
57N 040W – 63N 040W – 61N 050W –
127.9
57N 050W
126.9 (CYFB) 61N 070W – 67N 070W
É
NOTE:
SELCAL is used on all air-ground frequencies.
NOTE:
Because of VHF coverage, aircraft may proceed across the
Atlantic without HF radio subject to the following restrictions:
331
TC AIM March 25, 2021
332
TC AIM March 25, 2021
SAR
accordance with the provisions of the International Civil Aviation emergency supplies and survival support. The Civil Air Search
Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 12. The Canadian Forces are and Rescue Association (CASARA), a nationwide volunteer
responsible for conducting SAR operations for aeronautical organization, assists the Canadian Forces with aeronautical SAR
incidents in Canada. cases.
Aeronautical SAR service is provided through three joint rescue Workload permitting, joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC)
coordination centres (JRCC), located at Victoria, B.C., personnel are prepared to present briefings on SAR services
Trenton, Ont., and Halifax, N.S. The JRCCs control all rescue and techniques to the public and aviation groups on request.
units in their region through an extensive civil/military Visits to JRCCs are encouraged, as long as prior notice is provided.
communications network. The addresses of the JRCCs are:
Other major SAR providers in Canada include:
VICTORIA
(a) The Canadian Coast Guard, which has primary responsibility
(serving British Columbia and the Yukon) for marine incidents along Canada’s ocean coasts, in all
Joint Rescue Coordination Centre Victoria waterways in the Arctic, and in the waters of the Great
P.O. Box 17000 Station Forces Lakes St. Lawrence Seaway System;
Victoria BC V9A 7N2 (b) Provincial and territorial governments, which, through their
Tel. (toll-free within region):....................... 1-800-567-5111 police service, respond to SAR incidents involving persons
Tel.: ................................................................ 250-413-8933 on land, or on inland waterways;
Tel. (toll-free cellular): ..................................#SAR or #727 (c) Parks Canada’s warden service, which is responsible for
TRENTON ground or inland water SAR within National Parks;
(d) Trained volunteers across Canada who also play a key role
(serving Alberta, Manitoba, Northwest Territories,
in providing SAR services to the public.
western Nunavut, Ontario, western Quebec,
Saskatchewan) As mutual aid is one of the strengths of Canada’s SAR system,
the JRCCs may call upon any of these other providers, as well
Joint Rescue Coordination Centre Trenton
as the private sector, to assist with an aeronautical SAR case.
P.O. Box 1000 Station Forces
Astra ON K0K 3W1
Tel. (toll-free): .............................................1-800-267-7270 1.3 SeArch AnD reScue (SAr) AgreementS
Tel.: ................................................................. 613-965-3870 Two bilateral agreements relating to aeronautical search and
rescue (SAR) exist between Canada and the United States. The
HALIFAX
first permits public aircraft of either country that are engaged
(serving New Brunswick, Newfoundland and Labrador, in aeronautical SAR operations to enter or leave the other country
Nova Scotia, eastern Nunavut, Prince Edward Island, without being subject to normal immigration or customs
eastern Quebec) formalities. The second agreement permits vessels and wrecking
Joint Rescue Coordination Centre Halifax appliances of either country to render aid and assistance on
P.O. Box 99000 Station Forces specified border waters and on the shores and in the waters of
Halifax NS B3K 5X5 the other country along the Atlantic and Pacific coasts within a
distance of 30 NM from the international boundary on those
Tel. (toll-free): ............................................ 1-800-565-1582 coasts.
Tel.: ................................................................ 902-427-8200
NOTE:
All JRCCs will accept collect telephone calls dealing with missing
or overdue aircraft.
333
TC AIM March 25, 2021
In situations not covered by the agreements above, requests from 2.3 miSSing AircrAft notice (mAnot)
the United States for aircraft of their own registry to participate
in a SAR operation within Canada may be addressed to the When an aircraft is reported missing, the appropriate joint rescue
nearest joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC). The JRCC coordination centre (JRCC) will issue a missing aircraft
would reply and issue appropriate instructions. notice (MANOT) to the air traffic service (ATS) units that are
providing services in or near the search area. MANOTs will be
Figure 1.1—Search and Rescue Regions (SRR) communicated to pilots planning to overfly the search area by
notices posted on flight information boards, orally during the
filing of flight plans, or by radiocommunication.
Pilots receiving MANOTs are requested to maintain a thorough
SAR
2.1 generAl
In addition to signals from emergency locator transmitters (ELTs),
the flight plan and flight itinerary are the primary sources of
information for search and rescue (SAR) operations. Therefore,
proper flight planning procedures must be followed and the filed
routes adhered to in order to ensure early detection and rescue.
In Canada, the area covered in a visual search will typically
extend to a maximum of 15 NM on either side of the flight-
planned route, starting from the aircraft’s last known position
and extending to its destination. In mountainous regions, search
areas will be defined to best suit the terrain and the planned
route of flight. It is therefore critical to the safety of pilots that
they maintain their route as planned, and advise air traffic
service (ATS) of any en route change or deviation as soon as
practicable.
Refer to RAC 3.0 for details relating to filing and closing various
plans or itineraries.
334
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MANOT number
– SAR operation
A. A. MANOT SIX SAR-FSOX Initial-JRCC Victoria
– JRCC responsible
Type of MANOT
– Registration Cessna 180 C-FSOX red with white wings and
B. Type of Aircraft B.
– Colour black lettering
SAR
C. Number of crew and/or passengers C. Pilot, plus 3
F. Last known position (LKP) date/time (local) F. Prince George 1 May—11:31 PST
335
TC AIM March 25, 2021
336
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.4 emergency locAtor trAnSmitter (elt) Some military and commercial aircraft also monitor 121.5 or
243 MHz and will notify air traffic service (ATS) or search and
oPerAting inStructionS (normAl uSe) rescue (SAR) agencies of any ELT transmissions they hear.
Pre-flight In case of emergency, do not delay ELT activation until flight-
(Where practicable): planned times expire, as such delays will only delay rescue. Do
not cycle the ELT through “OFF” and “ON” positions to preserve
(a) inspect the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) to ensure battery life, as irregular operation reduces localization accuracy
that it is secure, free of external corrosion, and that antenna and will hamper homing efforts. Once your ELT has been switched
connections are secure; to “ON”, do not switch it to “OFF” until you have been positively
(b) ensure that the ELT function switch is in the “ARM” position; located, and the SAR forces have directed you to turn it off.
SAR
(c) ensure that ELT batteries have not reached their expiry date; If you have landed to wait out bad weather, or for some other
and non-emergency reason, and no emergency exists, do not activate
your ELT. However, your aircraft will be reported overdue, and
(d) listen to 121.5 MHz to ensure the ELT is not transmitting.
a search will begin if the delay will extend beyond:
In-flight
(a) 1 hr past the estimated time of arrival (ETA) filed on a flight
Monitor 121.5 MHz when practicable. If an ELT signal is heard, plan; or
notify the nearest ATS unit of:
(b) the SAR time specified, 24 hr after the duration of the flight,
(a) position, altitude and time when signal was first heard; or the ETA specified on a flight itinerary.
(b) ELT signal strength; To avoid an unnecessary search, notify the nearest ATS unit of
(c) position, altitude and time when contact was lost; and your changed flight plan or itinerary. If you cannot contact an
ATS unit, attempt to contact another aircraft on one of the
(d) whether the ELT signal ceased suddenly or faded. following frequencies in order to have that aircraft relay the
Pilots should not attempt a search and rescue (SAR) operation. information to ATS:
If unable to contact anyone, pilots should continue attempts to (a) 126.7 MHz;
gain radio contact with an air traffic service (ATS) unit, or land
at the nearest suitable aerodrome where a telephone is located. (b) local visual flight rules (VFR) common frequency;
(c) local area control centre (ACC) instrument flight rules (IFR)
NOTE: frequency listed in the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS);
If the signal remains constant, it may be your ELT.
(d) 121.5 MHz; or
Post-flight (e) high frequency (HF) 5 680 kHz, if so equipped.
Listen to 121.5 MHz. If an ELT is detected, and your ELT has If you cannot contact anyone, a search will begin at the times
not been switched to “OFF”, deactivate it. For those ELT models mentioned above. At the appropriate time, switch your ELT to
that do not have an “OFF” switch, disconnect and re-set the unit “ON”, and leave it on until search crews locate you. Once located,
per the manufacturer’s instructions. Notify the nearest ATS unit use your aircraft radio on 121.5 MHz (turn the ELT off if there
or joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC) of the time the signal is interference) to advise the SAR crew of your condition and
was first heard, the actions you have taken and whether the intentions.
signal has ceased or is on-going. If you still hear an ELT on
ELTs and the COSPAS-SARSAT system work together to speed
121.5 MHz after you have deactivated your ELT, it may not be
rescue. The ELT “calls for help”; COSPAS-SARSAT hears that
yours. Notify the nearest ATS unit or JRCC.
call and promptly notifies SAR authorities, who then dispatch
help.
3.5 emergency locAtor trAnSmitter (elt)
NOTE:
oPerAting inStructionS (emergency uSe) Delays in activating your ELT will delay your rescue.
Emergency locator transmitters (ELTs) in general aviation aircraft
contain a crash activation sensor, or G-switch, which is designed
to detect the deceleration characteristics of a crash and 3.6 mAximizing the SignAl
automatically activate the transmitter. However, it is always If the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is a portable model
safest to place the ELT function switch to “ON” as soon as with its own auxiliary antenna, and can be safely removed from
possible after the crash, if practicable. the aircraft, it should be placed as high as possible on a level
Geostationary satellites will detect an unobstructed 406 MHz surface to reduce obstructions between it and the horizon. Raising
ELT within minutes of activation; there are no satellite-based an ELT from ground level to 2.44 m (8 ft) may increase the range
means of detecting a 121.5 MHz signal. In addition to geostationary by 20 to 40 percent. The antenna should be vertical to ensure
satellites, polar orbiting low altitude satellites continually overfly optimum radiation of the signal. Placing the transmitter on a
Canada and will also detect a 406 MHz beacon within 90 min piece of metal, or even the wing of the aircraft, if it is level, will
of activation, producing a position report. provide the reflectivity to extend transmission range. Holding
337
TC AIM March 25, 2021
the transmitter close to the body in cold weather will not 406 MHz ELTs should only be tested in accordance with the
significantly increase battery power output. In addition, as the manufacturer’s instructions. Most 406 MHz ELTs are equipped
body will absorb most of the signal energy, such action could with an integral self-test function. The manufacturer’s instructions
reduce the effective range of the transmission. describe how to carry out this self-test and interpret its results.
The instructions should be followed closely to avoid false alerts.
If the ELT is permanently mounted in the aircraft, ensure that
Activation of the self-test will transmit a 406-MHz, digitally-
it has not been damaged and is still connected to the antenna.
altered test signal to the Canadian Beacon Registry. If the ELT
If it is safe to do so (i.e. no spilled fuel or fuel vapours), confirm
is appropriately registered, the test signal will cause an e-mail
the ELT’s operation by selecting 121.5 MHz on the aircraft radio
to be sent to the address on file. This will confirm both a
and listening for the audible siren-like tone.
successful self-test as well as the status of the registration. The
SAR
NOTE: self-test function may also transmit a 121.5 MHz test signal. In
Since aircraft are easier to see than people are, the search will this case, ensure that the test is conducted at the top of the
be conducted to locate the aircraft first. If the aircraft lands in hour (UTC) within the first five minutes.
an uninhabited area, stay with the aircraft and the ELT. If possible,
have smoke, flares or signal fires ready to attract the attention 3.8.2 121.5/243 MHz Emergency Locator
of search crews who are homing to the ELT. Smoke, flares and Transmitters (ELTs)
signal fires should be sited with due regard for any spilled fuel
resulting from the crash. Any testing of an ELT that operates only on 121.5 MHz or 243
MHz shall only be conducted during the first 5 min of any
UTC hour, and restricted in duration to not more than 5 s.
3.7 AcciDentAl emergency locAtor Such tests can be done between two stations separated by at
trAnSmitter (elt) trAnSmiSSionS least half a kilometre, or by a single aircraft, using its own radio
receiver.
To forestall unnecessary search and rescue (UNSAR) missions,
all accidental emergency locator transmitter (ELT) activations (a) Two-station 121.5/243 MHz ELT test:
shall be reported to the nearest air traffic service (ATS) unit, or (i) position the aircraft about one-half kilometre from
the nearest joint rescue coordination centre (JRCC), giving the the tower, FSS or other aircraft that will monitor
location of the transmitter, and the time and duration of the 121.5 MHz. Ensure the listening station is clearly
accidental transmission and the ELT shall be switched off. ELT visible from the aircraft, as ELT transmissions are
alarms trigger considerable activity within ATS and SAR units. line-of-sight. Intervening obstacles, such as hills,
Although some accidental ELT transmissions can be resolved buildings, or other aircraft, may prevent the listening
without launching SAR or Civil Air Search and Rescue station from detecting the ELT transmission.
Association (CASARA) aircraft, such as a properly-registered (ii) using the aircraft radio or other pre-arranged signals,
406 MHz beacon, the JRCCs will adopt the safe course. Promptly establish contact with the listening station. When
notifying ATS or a JRCC of an accidental ELT transmission the listening station confirms that it is ready, switch
may prevent the unnecessary launch of a search aircraft. If the 121.5/243 MHz ELT function to “ON”. After no
promptly reported, there is no charge or penalty associated with more than 5 s, turn the ELT function switch to “OFF”.
the accidental triggering of an ELT. The listening station should confirm that the ELT
was heard.
(iii) reset the ELT function switch to “ARM”.
3.8 teSting ProceDureS (iv) tune the aircraft radios to 121.5 MHz to confirm
When originally installed in an aircraft, and when parts of the that the ELT stopped transmitting.
emergency locator transmitter (ELT) system are moved or (v) if the listening station did not hear the ELT, investigate
changed, an ELT will be tested in accordance with CAR 571. further before flying the aircraft.
Every few months, or as recommended by the manufacturer, When conducting the two-station test at a busy airport, take
pilots should test their ELT. Testing procedures for ELTs will due regard of tower or FSS workload. Keep the voice radio
vary depending upon the type. transmissions to a minimum. If the “listening” station does
not hear the ELT transmission, it may be necessary to move
3.8.1 406 MHz Emergency Locator the aircraft to another location on the airfield to conduct the test.
Transmitters (ELTs) It will often be impractical to coordinate a 121.5/243 MHz ELT
Since the digital emergency signals from 406 MHz ELTs are test with a tower, FSS, or other aircraft. In such circumstances,
detected almost immediately by COSPAS-SARSAT satellites, pilots can use the following procedures to test their ELTs. Such
the transmitters should never be activated in their operational tests are to be conducted in the first 5 min of any UTC hour,
mode except in an emergency. and test transmissions must be limited to 5 s or less.
338
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) Single-station ELT test: If an ELT becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may be operated
(i) tune the aircraft radio receiver to 121.5 MHz. according to the operator’s approved minimum equipment
(ii) switch the ELT to “ON” just long enough to hear list (MEL). Where no MEL has been approved, the aircraft may
the tone, and immediately return the function switch be operated for up to 30 days, provided:
to “ARM”. (a) the ELT is removed at the first aerodrome at which repairs
NOTES: or removal can be accomplished;
1. It is best to have another person in the cockpit to ensure the (b) the ELT is promptly sent to a maintenance facility;
minimum “on-air” test period. (c) and a placard is displayed in the cockpit stating that the
2. Do not exceed the 5 s “on-air” time. ELT has been removed, and the date of removal (see
SAR
CAR 605.39).
(a) recheck 121.5 MHz on the aircraft receiver to ensure
that the ELT stopped transmitting. Despite these exemptions, all pilots are reminded of the rugged,
inhospitable terrain that covers much of Canada.
When conducting a single-aircraft test, it is possible that the
aircraft radios will hear the ELT output, even though the ELT CAUTION:
power transistor is defective, and will not be detected by a receiver Although some flights without ELTs may be legal, they are not
half a kilometre away. However, this test will uncover a totally advisable.
unserviceable ELT, and is better than no test.
ELTs are designed to speed rescue to survivable crashes, and
NOTE: they should function automatically. However, if you are aware
While all 406 MHz ELTs also transmit a 121.5 MHz homing of their capabilities and limitations, you can improve the
signal, testing of 406 MHz ELTs must follow the manufacturer’s performance of your ELT, and thus assist search and rescue (SAR).
instructions provided with the unit.
Minimum
Aircraft Area of Operation
Equipment
1. All aircraft except Over land One ELT of
those exempted. type AD, AF,
AP, A, or F.
339
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.0 AIRCRAFT EMERGENCY ASSISTANCE normal channels. See COM 1.12 for information about
communicating with air traffic service (ATS) on 121.5 MHz.
signals (see SAR 4.7). If, in a particular case, it is not possible 4.7 intercePtion ProceDureS (cAnADiAn
for the Canadian Forces to send out an intercepting aircraft,
flying the triangular pattern will serve to position the distressed AviAtion regulAtion (cAr) 602.144)
aircraft and thus narrow any search area. (1) No person shall give an interception signal or an instruction
to land except
NOTE:
The opportunity for an aircraft to be detected by radar increases (a) a peace officer, an officer of a police authority or an
with altitude. officer of the Canadian Forces acting within the scope
of their duties; or
Figure 4.1 shows the area of radar coverage in Canada provided (b) a person authorized to do so by the Minister pursuant
by both Department of National Defence (DND) and
SAR
to subsection (2).
NAV CANADA installations. Pilots should be aware that if they
are flying in an area outside of radar coverage, flying a triangular (2) The Minister may authorize a person to give an interception
pattern for alerting purposes would not be a valid manoeuvre. signal or an instruction to land if such authorization is in
the public interest and is not likely to affect aviation safety.
Figure 4.2—Canadian Radar Coverage (3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft who receives an
Provided by NAV CANADA and DND instruction to land from a person referred to in subsection (1)
shall, subject to any direction received from an air traffic
control unit, comply with the instruction.
(4) The pilot-in-command of an intercepting aircraft and the
pilot-in command of an intercepted aircraft shall comply
with the rules of interception set out in the Canada Flight
Supplement [and repeated in Schedules I and II].
SCHEDULE I
PROCEDURES TO BE FOLLOWED IN THE EVENT OF
INTERCEPTION
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall
immediately:
(a) follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft,
interpreting and responding to visual signals [in accordance
with Schedule II];
(b) notify, if possible, the appropriate air traffic services unit;
4.6 emergency rADio frequency cAPABility
(c) attempt to establish radio communication with the
Where an aircraft is required by the laws of Canada to install intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control
two-way very high frequency (VHF) radiocommunication unit by making a general call on aeronautical emergency
equipment, no person shall operate that aircraft unless the frequency 121.5 MHz and repeating this call on emergency
radiocommunication equipment is capable of providing frequency 243.0 MHz, if practicable giving the identity and
communication on VHF aeronautical emergency frequency position of the aircraft and the nature of the flight; and
121.5 MHz.
(d) if equipped with a transponder, select Mode A Code 7700,
A person operating an aircraft within a sparsely settled area, or unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic
a Canadian aircraft over water at a horizontal distance of more services unit.
than 50 NM from the nearest shoreline, should continuously
If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict
monitor the VHF aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5 MHz
with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual or radio
unless:
signals, the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate
(a) that person is carrying out communications on other VHF clarification while continuing to comply with the instructions
aeronautical frequencies; or given by the intercepting aircraft.
(b) aircraft electronic equipment limitations or essential cockpit
duties do not permit simultaneous monitoring of the two
VHF aeronautical frequencies.
341
TC AIM March 25, 2021
SCHEDULE II
SIGNALS FOR USE IN THE EVENT OF INTERCEPTION
Table 4.1(a)— Signals Initiated by Intercepting Aircraft and Response by Intercepted Aircraft
1. DAY—Rocking wings from a position in front You have AEROPLANES: Understood; will
and, normally, to the left of the intercepted been DAY—Rocking wings and following. comply.
SAR
NOTES: HELICOPTERS:
1. Meteorological conditions or terrain may DAY or NIGHT—Rocking aircraft,
require the intercepting aircraft to take flashing navigational lights at
up a position in front and to the right of irregular intervals, and following.
the intercepted aircraft, and to make the
subsequent turn to the right.
2. If the intercepted aircraft is not able to NOTE:
keep pace with the intercepting aircraft, the Additional action by intercepted
latter is expected to fly a series of racetrack aircraft is prescribed in SAR 4.7,
patterns and to rock its wings each time it Schedule 1.
passes the intercepted aircraft.
342
TC AIM March 25, 2021
SAR
NIGHT—Flashing landing lights while passing
over landing runway at a height exceeding If it is decided to release the
300 m (1 000 ft) but not exceeding 600 m intercepted aircraft, the intercepting
aircraft uses the Series 2 signals Understood, you
(2 000 ft) above the aerodrome level, and may proceed.
continuing to circle the aerodrome. If unable prescribed for intercepting aircraft.
to flash landing lights, flash any other lights
available.
343
TC AIM March 25, 2021
defined to best suit the terrain and route of flight. 4. YES or AFFIRMATIVE Y
Some searches may last at least 24 hr before rescue is accomplished.
5. PROCEEDING IN THE DIRECTION
Make the accident site as conspicuous as possible. Searchers
will be looking for anything out of the ordinary, and their eyes 6. ALL IS WELL LL
will be drawn to any unnatural feature on the ground. The aircraft
has the best chance of being spotted if large portions of its wings 7. REQUIRE FOOD AND WATER F
and tail are painted in vivid colours. Keep the aircraft cleared
8. REQUIRE FUEL AND OIL L
of snow.
As soon as possible after landing, and with due concern for 9. NEED REPAIRS W
spilled fuel or vapours, build a campfire. Collect a large pile of
green material (e.g. tree boughs, fresh leaves, grasses) to quickly NOTES:
place on the fire, should an aircraft be seen or heard. Three 1. Use strips of fabric or parachutes, pieces of wood, stones
signal fires forming a triangle is the standard distress signal, or any other available material to make the symbols.
but even one large smoky fire should attract the attention of 2. Endeavour to provide as big a colour contrast as possible
searchers. between the material used for the symbols and the
One of the best high-visibility items now available on the market background against which the symbols are exposed.
is a cloth panel of brilliant fluorescent colour, often referred to 3. Symbols should be at least 8 ft in length or longer, if possible.
as a “conspicuity panel.” It is staked to the ground during the Care should be taken to lay out symbols exactly as depicted
day and used as a highly effective ground signal. It can also be to avoid confusion with other symbols.
used as a lean-to shelter and can supply some warmth as a blanket.
Other means of attracting attention are reflecting sunlight using 4. A space of 10 ft should separate the elements of symbol 6.
signal mirrors or shiny pieces of metal during daylight; or using
flashlights, headlamps, strobes, or even camera flashes during 4.8.2 Survival
hours of darkness. Ability to assist the search can depend on the success of survival
The following symbols are to be used to communicate with efforts. The emergency equipment detailed in CARs 602.61,
aircraft when an emergency exists. Symbols 1 to 5 are 602.62 and 602.63 emphasizes being prepared for the geographical
internationally accepted; 6 to 9 are for use in Canada only. location and anticipated seasonal climatic variations.
If the aircraft lands in an uninhabited area, stay near the aircraft;
the search is to locate the aircraft. Past experience has demonstrated
that persons with a knowledge of survival techniques have saved
their own and others’ lives. Similarly, survivors invariably
comment that a better knowledge of how to stay alive would
have been invaluable.
There are several good books on survival skills widely available
from bookstores and through the Internet.
The Emergency section of the CFS contains procedures to follow
when sighting a downed aircraft, a ship in distress or when
receiving an ELT signal.
344
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(2001, c. 26) extrAct—PArt 5, (2) If the master is unable or, in the special circumstances
of the case, considers it unreasonable or unnecessary
SectionS 130–133 to proceed to the assistance of a person, a vessel or an
SEARCH AND RESCUE aircraft in distress, the master is not required to proceed
to their assistance and is to enter the reason in the
Designation of rescue coordinators official log book of the vessel.
130. (1) The Minister may designate persons as rescue Ships requisitioned
coordinators to organize search and rescue operations.
(3) The master of any vessel in distress may requisition
SAR
Power of rescue coordinators one or more of any vessels that answer the distress call
(2) On being informed that a person, a vessel or an to render assistance. The master of a requisitioned
aircraft is in distress or is missing in Canadian waters vessel in Canadian waters and every qualified person
or on the high seas off any of the coasts of Canada who is the master of a requisitioned vessel in any waters
under circumstances that indicate that they may be in shall continue to proceed with all speed to render
distress, a rescue coordinator may assistance to the vessel in distress.
(a) direct all vessels within an area that the rescue Release from obligation
coordinator specifies to report their positions; (4) The master of a vessel shall be released from the
(b) direct any vessel to take part in a search for that obligation imposed by subsection (1) when the master
person, vessel or aircraft or to otherwise render learns that another vessel is complying with a requisition
assistance; referred to in subsection (3).
(c) give any other directions that the rescue coordinator Further release
considers necessary to carry out search and rescue
(5) The master of a vessel shall be released from an
operations for that person, vessel or aircraft; and
obligation imposed by subsection (1) or (3) if the master
(d) use any lands if it is necessary to do so for the is informed by the persons in distress or by the master
purpose of saving the life of a shipwrecked person. of another vessel that has reached those persons that
Duty to comply assistance is no longer necessary.
345
TC AIM March 25, 2021
SAR
346
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MAP
duration that contains extensive text and/or graphics, are published
2.0 AERONAUTICAL PUBLICATIONS in an AIP Canada (ICAO) Supplement in accordance with the
International Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 15.
AIP Canada (ICAO) consists of Part 1—General (GEN), Part 2— In accordance with the International Civil Aviation
En Route (ENR), and Part 3—Aerodromes (AD). Each part is Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 15, an AIC shall be issued whenever
divided into sections, which are further divided into subsections; it is desirable to promulgate:
the publication contains information relevant to aircraft operation (a) a long-term forecast of any major change in legislation,
in Canadian airspace. Amendments to AIP Canada (ICAO) are regulations, procedures or facilities;
published every 56 days. AIP Canada (ICAO) also consists of
AIP Canada (ICAO) Supplements, aeronautical information (b) information of a purely explanatory or advisory nature liable
circulars and NOTAMs. to affect flight safety;
(c) information or notification of an explanatory or advisory
Additional AIP Canada (ICAO) information is provided in the
nature concerning technical, legislative or purely
following documents and charts:
administrative matters.
(a) Canada Flight Supplement (CFS);
(b) Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS); 2.4 AeronAuticAl informAtion regulAtion AnD
(c) Canada Air Pilot (CAP) [seven volumes]; control (AirAc) cAnADA
(d) en route low altitude charts (LO charts); The Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC)
(e) en route high altitude charts (HI charts); Canada notice is issued weekly by NAV CANADA, Aeronautical
Information Management, to provide advance notification to
(f) terminal area charts (TAC);
chart makers and producers of aeronautical information
(g) ICAO Type A charts (aerodrome obstacles); concerning changes within Canadian domestic airspace (CDA).
(h) aeronautical charts for visual navigation (VNC and VTA); This notice ensures that all users of Canadian airspace have the
and same information on the same date.
(d) NAVAIDs;
procedures [IAPs], standard instrument departure [SID]
(e) airways and other controlled airspace; procedures, and noise abatement procedures) is published in the
(f) en route hazards, such as: CAP.
(i) advisory areas In addition, terminal area charts (TAC) are available, depicting
(ii) restricted areas the terminal areas at the larger national airports. TAC are intended
(iii) obstructions. to assist in the transition from the en route portion of flight to
Complete coverage of Canada is available in the VNC (1:500 000 the arrival portion, or from the departure portion to the en route
scale). portion, at those terminals where the airspace structure is
sufficiently complex. TAC do not depict any aeronautical
information that is not already depicted on the en route charts,
2.5.2 VFR Terminal Area Chart (VTA) the IAP or departure procedure charts.
To satisfy special operational requirements at certain high density The en route charts and CAP are supported and complemented
traffic airports with complex airspace structures, VTA are by the Canada Flight Supplement (CFS). It contains an aerodrome/
available (1:250 000 scale). VTA are produced for Vancouver, facilities directory of all IFR airports, detailing the facilities
Edmonton, Calgary, Winnipeg, Toronto, Ottawa and Montréal. and services available at these airports; it also provides information
on communications, navigational facilities, radar, and special
2.5.3 Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) notices and procedures. The CFS contains the IFR information
required for use in flight, but that is not suitable for depiction
Other aeronautical information required for VFR flight, but not
on the en route charts or for inclusion in the CAP.
suitable for depiction on visual aeronautical charts, is published
in the CFS. The CFS supports and complements the visual charts AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 3.2 details the aeronautical chart
for all of Canada and some NAT destinations and includes: series available.
(a) a complete list of NAVAIDs associated with airports;
(b) the current status of individual airports; 3.0 NOTAM
(c) the availability of facilities and services at airports;
(d) the telephone numbers for flight planning services; 3.1 generAl
(e) general procedural information; and A NOTAM is a notice that contains information concerning the
establishment or condition of, or any changes in, any aeronautical
(f) aerodrome sketches.
facility, service, procedure, or hazard, the timely knowledge of
which is essential to personnel involved in flight operations. A
2.5.4 Canada Water Aerodrome NOTAM is originated and issued promptly whenever the
Supplement (CWAS) information to be distributed is of a temporary nature and of
The CWAS provides tabulated data and graphical information short duration, or when operationally significant permanent
in support of Canadian VFR charts. It contains an aerodrome/ changes or temporary changes of long duration are made at short
facilities directory of all water aerodromes shown on Canadian notice, except for extensive text and/or graphics (see MAP 2.2).
VFR charts and lists communications station data, radio aids NOTAMs are distributed by teletype on the aeronautical fixed
and other supplemental data. service (AFS) or by voice advisory using radio communications.
348
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTAMs can be used to advertise changes to the information 3.2.2 Item Q Description
on aeronautical charts or in aeronautical information publications.
Figure 3.3—NOTAM: Item Q
3.2 notAm formAt
All Canadian NOTAMs, with the exception of the runway surface
condition NOTAM (RSC NOTAM), are presented in the
internationally recognized format prescribed by the International
Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Annex 15. This format bases 1. FIR within which the event is occurring
its dissemination on series and comprises “items” (fields) that 2. NOTAM Code (always starts with “Q”), subject, and
are used for parsing based on user requirements. Not all items condition of the subject
are mandatory or permissible. 3. Type of traffic affected: IFR (I), VFR (V), or IFR and VFR
(IV)
3.2.1 Format Description 4. Briefing purpose: Notify users immediately (N), include
in briefings (B), concerns f light operations (O), or
Figure 3.1—NOTAM Format: Example 1 miscellaneous (M)
5. Scope of impact: Aerodrome (A), Enroute (E), Aerodrome
and Enroute (AE), Navigation warning (W)
MAP
6. Lower vertical limit expressed in flight level
7. Upper vertical limit expressed in flight level
8. Latitude and longitude of subject in degrees and minutes
9. Subject radius of area of influence in nautical miles
1. Aeronautical fixed service (AFS) message priority and
addressing (recipients) 3.2.3 Items Description
2. Date and time (DDHHMM) and addressing (originator)
3. NOTAM Series, number, and year of issuance 3.2.3.1 NOTAM Number and Type
4. NOTAM type (New, Replacement, Cancellation) The NOTAM number starts with the NOTAM series letter,
followed by 4 digits (NOTAM number), a stroke, and the year.
5. Item Q): Coded line for custom briefings For example: F0002/19 means the 2nd NOTAM issued in 2019
6. Item A): Location indicator(s) in series “F”.
7. Item B): Start date and time
3.2.3.2 Item Q) Coded Line
8. Item C): End date and time
9. Item D): Schedule This mandatory line is intended to be used by flight planning
system users and developers for parsing and tailored briefings.
10. Item E): NOTAM text For a detailed explanation on the use of item Q, consult the
Canadian NOTAM Operating Procedures (CNOP).
Figure 3.2—NOTAM Format: Example 2
3.2.3.3 Item A) Location Indicator(s)
Item A) is mandatory and must contain a four-letter location
indicator of either an aerodrome (based on the NOTAM subject)
or one or more FIR. Since the item only accepts letters, CXXX
is entered in item A) for aerodromes location indicators that
contain 3 letters and 1 number (for example, CEB5). When this
occurs, the location indicator and name of the aerodrome appear
in item E) NOTAM text.
1. Item F): Lower vertical limit
2. Item G): Upper vertical limit
349
TC AIM March 25, 2021
D) AUG 11 2030-0300
change to aeronautical information. Human intervention is
AUG 12 2000-0200
required to remove the NOTAM. Therefore, the NOTAM
must be revised (NOTAMR) or cancelled (NOTAMC) when AUG 13-16 2100-0430
the NOTAM is no longer needed. E) RWY 03/21 CLSD
Item D) is optional, and it is inserted only when the information DEC 08 10 11 13 1200-2200
contained in a NOTAM occurs during more than one period
within the overall “in force” period. All dates and times are Example 10:
always in UTC. The start of the first time period corresponds FEB 20-24 1200-1900
to the start date-time group (item B) and the end of the last period
FEB 26-28 1300-1900
corresponds to the end date-time group (item C), unless days
are used and the NOTAM is in force for more than a week. The MAR 02-05 1000-1300
periods are in chronological order. A date appears only once.
Example 11:
The hyphen “–” is used to express a range and means “to”. A
space between schedule elements means “and”. B) 1912080000 C) 1912172359
Example 1: D) DEC 08-12, 14-17 H24
B) 1912241700 C) 1912262230 E) RWY 12/30 CLSD
E) RWY 03/21 CLSD Example 12(a):
Example 2: B) 1907010000 C) 1907211700
Items F) and G) are mandatory if the NOTAM is a navigation • The Eastern Region consists of Montréal, Moncton, and
MAP
warning. Item F) lower vertical limit can be expressed as “SFC” Gander FIRs in addition to the three locations in the
(surface), in feet above ground level (AGL), in feet above mean Toronto FIR where services are available in English and
sea level (AMSL), or as flight level (FL). Item G) upper vertical French: CNC9-Perth (Great War Mem Hosp) (Heli),
limit can be expressed as “UNL” (unlimited), in feet AGL, in CTA4-St-Bruno-de-Guigues, and CSR8-La Sarre.
feet AMSL, or as flight level (FL). There are three dissemination categories, each containing six
series:
3.3 notAm tyPeS • International: disseminated to international stakeholders,
to the USA, and within Canada;
NOTAM can be issued as a new NOTAM (NOTAMN), a replacing
NOTAM (NOTAMR), or a cancelling NOTAM (NOTAMC). • International – USA: disseminated to the USA and within
Replacements and cancellations must occur within the same Canada; and
NOTAM series: • National: disseminated within Canada only.
N0241/19 NOTAMN Details on NOTAM regions, dissemination categories, and series
F0344/19 NOTAMR F0213/19 can be found in AIP Canada (ICAO) paragraph GEN 3.1.3.
H0007/19 NOTAMC H7004/18 A monthly numerical checklist of current Canadian NOTAMs
series is generated automatically on the first day of each month
and contains all the valid NOTAM numbers within a series, in
3.4 notAm iSSueD unDer A flight addition to the valid AIP Canada (ICAO) amendments, AIP
informAtion region (fir) or An supplements, and AIC numbers.
AeroDrome
If a NOTAM subject affects an aerodrome directly or is 5 NM 3.6 criteriA for iSSuing A notAm
or less from an aerodrome, item A) contains the location indicator A NOTAM should be published with sufficient lead time for the
of an aerodrome or CXXX (see MAP 3.2.3.3). If a NOTAM affected parties to take any required action, except in the cases
subject affects multiple aerodromes, if it is beyond 5 NM from of unplanned unserviceability, volcanic activity, the release of
any aerodrome, if it affects airspace, or if it is a navigation radioactive material or toxic chemicals, and other events that
warning, item A) contains one or more flight information cannot be foreseen. The lead time is at the discretion of the
regions (FIR) (up to 7). More details on the application of an originator but does not exceed 14 days. Whenever possible, at
aerodrome or FIR in item A) can be found in the Canadian least 24 hours’ advance notice is desirable, to permit timely
NOTAM Operating Procedures (CNOP) and in the AIP completion of the notification process and to facilitate airspace
Canada (ICAO). utilization planning. For planned events, outages, and activities,
It is necessary that all airspace users review both pertinent no less than 6 hours’ lead time is provided.
aerodrome and FIR NOTAMs. A NOTAM shall be originated and issued promptly whenever
the information to be distributed is of a temporary nature and
of short duration, or when operationally significant permanent
3.5 notAm DiStriBution changes or temporary changes of long duration are made at short
Canadian NOTAMs are distributed to flight information notice, except in the case of extensive text and/or graphics.
centres (FIC), flight service stations (FSS), and aircraft operators
351
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(a) establishment, closure, or significant changes in operation (p) establishment or discontinuance (including activation or
of aerodrome(s) or runways; deactivation), as applicable, or changes in the status of
(b) establishment, withdrawal, or significant changes in restricted, danger, or advisory areas;
operation of aeronautical services (AGA, AIS, ATS, COM, (q) establishment or discontinuance of areas or routes or portions
MET, SAR, etc.); thereof where the possibility of interception exists and where
(c) establishment, withdrawal, or significant changes in the maintenance of guard on the emergency very high
operational capability of radio navigation and air/ground frequency (VHF) 121.5 MHz is required;
communication services. This includes: an interruption or (r) allocation, cancellation, or change of location indicators;
MAP
return to operation, a change of frequencies, a change in (s) changes in the aerodrome/heliport rescue and fire fighting
notified hours of service, a change of identification, a change category provided;
of orientation (directional aids), a change of monitoring
capability or location of any radio navigation and air/ground (t) outbreaks of epidemics necessitating changes in notified
communication services, or limitations of relay stations requirements for inoculations and quarantine measures;
including operational impact, affected service, frequency, (u) observations or forecasts of space weather phenomena, the
and area; date and time of their occurrence, the flight levels where
(d) unavailability of back-up and secondary systems, having a provided, and portions of the airspace that may be affected
direct operational impact; by the phenomena;
(e) establishment or withdrawal of or significant changes made (v) an operationally significant change in volcanic activity; the
to visual aids; location, date, and time of volcanic eruptions; and/or the
horizontal and vertical extent of volcanic ash cloud, including
(f) interruption of or return to operation of major components direction of movement, flight levels, and routes or portions
of aerodrome lighting systems; of routes that could be affected;
(g) establishment or withdrawal of or significant changes made (w) release into the atmosphere of radioactive materials or toxic
to procedures for air navigation services; chemicals following a nuclear or chemical incident; the
(h) occurrence or correction of major defects or impediments location, date, and time of the incident; the flight levels and
in the manoeuvring area; routes or portions thereof which could be affected; and the
(i) changes to and limitations on the availability of fuel, oil, direction of movement;
and oxygen; (x) establishment of operations of humanitarian relief missions,
(j) major changes to search and rescue (SAR) facilities and such as those undertaken under the auspices of the United
services available; Nations, together with procedures and/or limitations that
affect air navigation;
(k) establishment, withdrawal, or return to operation of hazard
beacons marking obstacles to air navigation; (y) implementation of short-term contingency measures in
cases of disruption, or partial disruption, of air traffic services
(l) changes in regulations requiring immediate action, for and related supporting services;
example, Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH) (TP 1820)
amendments; (z) unavailability of eteorological data; or
(m) presence of hazards that affect air navigation (including (aa) other operationally significant circumstances.
obstacles, military exercises, displays, fireworks, rocket
debris, races, and major parachuting events outside
promulgated sites);
(n) planned laser emissions, laser displays, and search lights if
pilots’ night vision is likely to be impaired;
(o) erection or removal of or changes to obstacles to air navigation
in the takeoff/climb, missed approach, and approach areas,
and on the runway strips;
352
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RQN CYHQ C0123/19………….Query designator, NOTAM RSC 25 3/3/5 25 PCT COMPACTED SNOW AND 25 PCT
nationality, subject of query (number 0123 of year 2019 in NOTAM 1/4IN DRY SNOW, 50 PCT
MAP
Series C). COMPACTED SNOW AND 50 PCT 1/4IN DRY SNOW, 50 PCT
1/8IN DRY SNOW AND 25 PCT
Example 2:
COMPACTED SNOW. 160FT WIDTH. 6IN SNOW DRIFT
GG CYHQYNYX
300FT FM THR 07. REMAINING WIDTH COMPACTED
281530 LFFAYNYX SNOW. VALID DEC 16 1300 – DEC 16 2100.
RQN CYHQ C0400/19 C0410/19 C0421/19 C0470/19-C0499/19 ADDN NON-GRF/TALPA INFO:
CRFI 07 -3C .40/.32/.30 OBS AT 2012161245.
3.8 runwAy SurfAce conDition (rSc)/ CRFI 25 -3C .30/.32/.40 OBS AT 2012161245.
rSc notAm RMK: ALL TWY 1/8IN DRY SNOW.
NOTAMs concerning runway surface conditions (RSC) and the RMK: CLEARING/SWEEPING IN PROGRESS.)
Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI) are presented in the
RSC NOTAM format. In this format, RSC can be reported for
the full runway length or by runway thirds. CRFI can be reported
4.0 PROCUREMENT OF AERONAUTICAL
as an average for the full runway length or as averages by runway CHARTS AND PUBLICATIONS
thirds. It is possible for information to be reported by full runway
length and by runway thirds, for different runways within the 4.1 generAl
same RSC NOTAM. RSC NOTAMs are issued in the standard
The following is a list of links to aviation-related resources and
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) NOTAM
publications:
format (not SNOWTAM) with all the key information being
presented in Item E). They are issued only for aerodromes under (a) The Forms Catalogue, available at <http://wwwapps.tc.
the NOTAM Series S, A or B and are disseminated according gc.ca/Corp-Serv-Gen/5/Forms-Formulaires/English.aspx>,
to the dissemination category of that aerodrome. provides access to a number of Transport Canada (TC)
forms. To search specifically for aviation forms, go to the
Example of an RSC NOTAM reporting by average: Forms Search page and, under Transportation Mode, select
(A1723/20 NOTAMN Air in the dropdown menu.
Q) CZUL/QFAXX/IV/NBO/A/000/999/5604N07622W005 (b) The Aviation Safety Letter [TP 185] is available at
<www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/publications/tp185-
A) CXXX B) 2012161315 C) 2012162115 menu-5395.htm>.
E) CAAA SUMSPOT/SUNNY SUMSPOT MUNI (c) The Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH) [TP 1820] is
RSC 07/25 50 PCT 1/8IN DRY SNOW AND 25 PCT available on the NAV CA NA DA Web site at
COMPACTED SNOW. <www.navcanada.ca/EN/products-and-services/Pages/
aeronautical-information-products-designated-airspace-
160FT WIDTH. REMAINING WIDTH COMPACTED SNOW. handbook.aspx>.
VALID DEC 16 1300 – DEC 16 2100.
(d) The Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) are available
ADDN NON-GRF/TALPA INFO: on the Department of Justice (DOJ) Web site at <http://
CRFI 07/25 -3C .40 OBS AT 2012161245. laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/sor-96-433/>.
353
TC AIM March 25, 2021
TC priced publications, CDs, DVDs and forms are available Individual aeronautical charts and publications can be obtained
from the TC Publications Order Desk. Contact the Order Desk from authorized distributors or from NAV CANADA’s online
for information about ordering; change of address; the TCCA store. Authorized distributors can be found by clicking on
e-Bulletin service; and print-on-demand options and pricing. “Aeronautical Information Products” and then selecting “Purchase
Print-on-demand copies of the Transport Canada Aeronautical Information” at <www.navcanada.ca> and in Section C of
Information Manual (TC AIM) [TP 14371] and Aviation Safety the CFS. You can also call AEROPUBS at 1-866-731-PUBS
Letter (TP 185) are available for order. (7827) for the distributor nearest you. Distributors may offer
TC Publications Order Desk products at different prices.
Fit for Purpose: A Guide to Using NAV CANADA Aeronautical (g) AIP Canada (ICAO)*
Publications is a NAV CANADA publication that describes the *This publication is available in electronic form. See the
intended use of and limitations to their publications. Fit for NAV CANADA online store for details.
Purpose can be accessed on the NAV CANADA Web site by
Subscriptions are available from NAV CANADA’s online store
selecting “Aeronautical Information Products” and clicking on
or through the Aeronautical Publications Sales and Distribution
“Aeronautical Publications Guide” under “Related Links”.
Unit (AEROPUBS).
See MAP 4.2.1 and MAP 4.2.2 for the lists of NAV CANADA NAV CANADA
publications available for individual purchase or by subscription. Aeronautical Publications Sales and Distribution Unit
P.O. Box 9840 Station T
4.2.1 Individual Purchase Ottawa ON K1G 6S8
The following publications are available for individual purchase: Tel. (toll-free): .............................. 1-866-731-PUBS (7827)
(a) VFR Navigation Charts (VNC) Fax (toll-free):............................................ 1-866-740-9992
Fax: ................................................................ 613-563-4049
(b) VFR Terminal Area Charts (VTA) E-mail:......................................... aeropubs@navcanada.ca
(c) Terminal Area Charts (TAC) Web site: .............................................. www.navcanada.ca
Online store:...........................http://products.navcanada.ca
(d) En Route Low Altitude Charts (LO charts)
(e) En Route High Altitude Charts (HI charts) Payment Methods and Shipping and Handling:
(f) ICAO Type A Charts* For up-to-date information about payment methods and shipping
and handling fees, please visit the NAV CANADA online store
(g) Canada Air Pilot (CAP)* or contact the NAV CANADA Aeronautical Publication Sales
(h) Restricted Canada Air Pilot (RCAP)* and Distribution Unit using one of the methods listed above. All
sales are final. For more information, see the FAQ page at the
(i) Canada Flight Supplement (CFS)
NAV CANADA online store.
(j) Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS)*
*This publication is available in electronic form. See the
NAV CANADA online store for details.
354
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MAP
International Civil Aviation Organization
999 Robert-Bourassa Boulevard
Montréal QC H3C 5H7
Tel.: ............................................................... 514-954-8022
Fax: .................................................................514-954-6769
E-mail: ......................................................... sales@icao.int
355
TC AIM March 25, 2021
MAP
356
TC AIM March 25, 2021
LRA—LICENSING, The 24-page ADB is divided into different sections and includes
the holder’s licensing information, as well as ADB-associated
REGISTRATION AND legal text and abbreviations. Three sections clearly show the
holder’s licence(s) and permit(s), competency records, and medical
AIRWORTHINESS certificate(s).
The ADB allows for multiple permits, licences, rating renewals
and medical certificates throughout its validity period.
1.0 FLIGHT CREW LICENSING Transport Canada (TC) has started issuing ADBs that are valid
for 10 years. Since licence holders with operational language
proficiency must be retested every five years, they will continue
1.1 generAl to be issued ADBs valid for up to five years. The Canadian
The Aeronautics Act and Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) Aviation Regulations (CARs) will be amended to reflect this
contain Canadian aeronautics legislation, regulations and change.
standards for flight crew licensing. More infor mation on the booklet can be found on
the following Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) Web
NOTES: page: <https://www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/licensing-pilots-
1. The information provided in this chapter is intended only as personnel/applying-aviation-document-booklet.html>.
a guide. Contact a Transport Canada (TC) regional licensing
office for specific concerns.
1.3 AviAtion lAnguAge Proficiency
2. In the event of a discrepancy between the information found
in this chapter and the CARs, the CARs shall take precedence. All flight crew licences are required by the International Civil
Aviation Organization (ICAO) to be annotated with a language
The CARs or any bilateral flight crew licensing agreement with proficiency rating.
an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) contracting
state, contain(s) complete licensing requirements and specific ICAO language proficiency requirements apply to any language
details for individual permits, licences, ratings and medical used for radiotelephony communications in international
requirements. Flight crew licensing regulations and standards operations; therefore, pilots on international flights shall
LRA
are found in: demonstrate an acceptable level of language proficiency in either
English or the language used by the station on the ground.
(a) CAR 401 and CAR Standard 421;
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) annotates flight crew
(b) CAR 404 and CAR Standard 424; or licences to indicate English, French or both to show that the
(c) bilateral flight crew licensing agreements. holder has met the requirements for aviation language proficiency,
provided that the holder has been assessed at an expert or
An aviation document booklet (ADB), designed to hold aviation-
operational level.
related documents, is evidence that a flight crew member is
qualified for certain permits, licences, certificates and ratings. (a) Expert level corresponds to ICAO level 6. The expert level
The permits, licences and medical certificates are attached as does not expire, and requires no further testing for the licence
labels to the ADB. The ADB includes the holder’s photograph holder.
and other security features for positive authentication. (b) Operational level corresponds to ICAO levels 4 and 5. The
Licences in the ADB conform to the standards set forth in ICAO operational level is the minimum required proficiency level
Annex 1. All Canadian differences to ICAO standards are for radiotelephony communication; a licence holder with
published in AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 1.7. Permits do not conform an operational level of language proficiency must be retested
to ICAO standards and are valid only in Canadian airspace, every five years.
unless authorized by the country in which the flight is conducted. (c) Those persons assessed at below operational level (ICAO
Permit and licence holders must hold a Restricted Operator levels 1-3) do not qualify for a Canadian flight crew licence.
Certificate with an Aeronautical Qualification in accordance
with the requirements of Industry Canada, if they are going to
operate radiotelephone equipment on board an aircraft.
1.4 PermitS AnD licenceS iSSueD By
trAnSPort cAnADA civil AviAtion (tccA)
1.2 AviAtion Document Booklet (ADB)
1.4.1 Permits
Canadian permit and licence holders must hold an aviation
document booklet (ADB). (a) Student Pilot Permit
(b) Gyroplane Pilot Permit
A first-time Canadian permit or licence applicant must also
apply for an ADB at the same time. A passport-style photograph (c) Ultralight Aeroplane Pilot Permit
must be submitted with the Application for an Aviation Document (d) Recreational—Aeroplane Pilot Permit
Booklet Form (Form 26-0726).
357
TC AIM March 25, 2021
a person is receiving flight instruction from a person CAR 401.08, see <http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/
qualified in accordance with the CARs. SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-401.08>.
(i) Pilot flying time is flight time during which a licensed
pilot, for proficiency purposes, shows the required
pilot-in-command (PIC) skills while carrying out 1.6 SummAry of requirementS for PermitS
duties as if they were the PIC of the aircraft. The following tables summarize the licensing and medical fitness
(ii) Pilot monitoring/pilot-not-flying time is flight time requirements for all flight crew permits. For more information,
during which a licensed pilot, for proficiency refer to CAR Standard 421
purposes, shows the required co-pilot or second-in-
command skills while carrying out duties as if they
1.6.1 Student Pilot Permits (SPP)
were the co-pilot of the aircraft.
(b) Solo flight time is the flight time necessary to acquire a NOTES:
flight permit, licence or rating. 1. SPP holders must hold a valid and appropriate medical
(i) For a pilot, the flight time during which the pilot is certificate to exercise the privileges of their permit.
the sole flight crew member.
2. Medical certificates associated with a permit have a validity
(ii) For a student pilot permit holder, the flight time
period per CAR 404.04. In order to continue exercising
during which the permit holder is the sole occupant
permit privileges, a holder must renew the relevant medical
of an aircraft while under the direction and supervision
certificate(s) before the end of the validity period.
of a qualified flight instructor for the appropriate
category of aircraft. 3. When the Category 4 Medical Declaration is used for the
Student Pilot Permit—Aeroplane, the declaration must be
(c) Instrument flight time is any flight time in an aircraft
signed by a physician licensed to practice in Canada.
while piloting the aircraft by sole reference to the flight
instruments. This flight time can be accumulated while
operating under instrument flight rules (IFR) in instrument
meteorological conditions (IMC), or in visual meteorological
conditions (VMC) during flight training by means which
limit a pilot’s ability to see outside the cockpit environment
such as while under a hood or wearing limited vision goggles.
358
TC AIM March 25, 2021
KNOWLEDGE
MEDICAL
SPP CATEGORY AGE AND EXPERIENCE SKILL
CATEGORY
EXAMINATION
LRA
1.6.2 Pilot Permits
NOTES:
1. Permit holders must hold a valid and appropriate medical
certificate to exercise the privileges of their permit.
2. Medical certificates associated with a permit have a validity
period per CAR 404.04. In order to continue exercising
permit privileges, a holder must renew the relevant medical
certificate(s) before the end of the validity period.
3. When the Category 4 Medical Declaration is used for the
Recreational Pilot Permit—Aeroplane, the declaration must
be signed by a physician licensed to practice in Canada.
359
TC AIM March 25, 2021
KNOWLEDGE EXPERIENCE
PERMIT MEDICAL (Minimum
AGE AND SKILL
CATEGORY CATEGORY instruction flight
EXAMINATION time)
Total - 45 hr Flight
40 hr ground demonstration
Gyroplane including:
17 1 or 3 school and and
(GYP) Dual - 12 hr
GYROP* 60% letter from
Solo - 12 hr instructor
Flight
Total - 10 hr
Ultralight 20 hr ground demonstration
Aeroplane 16 1, 3 or 4 school and including:
and
(ULP-A) ULTRA* 60% Dual - 5 hr
letter from
Solo - 2 hr
instructor
Total - 25 hr
Recreational- RPPAE* or
Aeroplane 16 1, 3 or 4 including: Flight test
(RPP-A) PPAER* 60% Dual - 15 hr
Solo - 5 hr
*GYROP is the computer code for the Pilot Permit—Gyroplane written examination.
ULTRA is the computer code for the Pilot Permit—Ultralight Aeroplane written examination.
RPPAE is the computer code for the Pilot Permit—Recreational Aeroplane written examination.
PPAER is the computer code for the Private Pilot Licence—Aeroplane written examination.
The following tables summarize the licensing and medical fitness 2. Medical certificates associated with a licence have a validity
requirements for all flight crew licences. For more information, period per CAR 404.04. In order to continue exercising
refer to CAR Standard 421. licence privileges, a holder must renew the relevant medical
certificate(s) before the end of the validity period.
360
TC AIM March 25, 2021
LRA
If a PPL-A is held. and CPAER* 60% flight training - 65 hr
consisting of:
Dual - 35 hr
Solo - 30 hr
Aeroplane (CPL-A)
A course completion A course completion
For graduates 18 1 certificate in lieu of these certificate in lieu of these Flight test
from an approved requirements requirements
integrated course.
361
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Flight demonstration
Flight Engineer
18 1 FLENG* 60% Total - 100 hr and
(FE)
letter from instructor
Flight demonstration
Flight Engineer (FE) Approved training program
18 1 FLENG 60% and
If a CPL-A is held. Total - 50 hr
letter from instructor
*FLENG is the computer code for the Flight Engineer Licence written examination.
1.9 meDicAl fitneSS for PermitS AnD licenceS
The medical standards for civil aviation flight crew licences
1.8 DifferenceS Between the nAtionAl have been established in accordance with the International Civil
regulAtionS AnD the internAtionAl civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) standards and recommended
AviAtion orgAnizAtion’S (icAo) Annex 1 practices and are outlined in CAR Standard 424. A medical
assessment is required to allow permit or licence holders to
StAnDArDS AnD recommenDeD PrActiceS exercise their privileges.
Licences conform to the standards set forth in the International
Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Annex 1. All Canadian NOTE:
differences to ICAO Standards are published in AIP Canada (ICAO) A Category 4 Medical Certificate is issued for certain permits
GEN 1.7 (see <www.navcanada.ca/EN/products-and-services/ and licences for use in Canadian airspace only.
Pages/AIP-current.aspx>).
Medical fitness for a Category 1, 2 or 3 Medical Certificate is
established by a medical examination conducted by a Canadian
Civil Aviation Medical Examiner (CAME) or an Aviation Medical
Examiner designated by the licensing authority of an ICAO
contracting state.
362
TC AIM March 25, 2021
If the medical examination is conducted by an Aviation Medical Medical fitness for a Category 4 Medical Certificate is established
Examiner designated by the licensing authority of an ICAO by completing the Medical Declaration for Licences and Permits
contracting state, the completed medical examination report Requiring a Category 4 Medical Standard Form (Form 26-0297),
shall be forwarded to the following TCCA Medicine Branch available at <www.tc.gc.ca/wwwdocs/Forms/26-0297_0712-
address for review and assessment: 06_BO.pdf>.
Civil Aviation Medicine Branch The age of the applicant and the type of permit or licence applied
Transport Canada for determine the frequency of the medical examinations needed
330 Sparks Street to meet the medical fitness requirements.
Place de Ville, Tower C, Room 617
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 The validity period of a medical certificate is calculated from
the first day of the month following the date of the medical
examination or declaration.
LRA
Ultralight Pilot Permit—Aeroplane 60 months 60 months
Passenger Carrying Ultralight—Aeroplane 60 months 24 months
Recreational Pilot Permit—Aeroplane 60 months 24 months
Glider Pilot Licence 60 months 60 months
Balloon Pilot Licence 60 months 24 months
Private Pilot Licence—Aeroplane and Helicopter 60 months 24 months
Commercial Pilot Licence—Aeroplane and
12 months 12 months*
Helicopter
Airline Transport Pilot Licence—Aeroplane and
12 months 12 months*
Helicopter
Flight Engineer Licence 12 months 12 months
Flight Instructor Rating—Glider 60 months 60 months
NOTE:
The holder of a commercial or airline transport pilot licence
may exercise the privileges of a private pilot licence until the
end of the validity period for private pilot licences as specified
in the table above.
363
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.9.2 Medical Fitness—Renewals for Category 1, 1.10 refuSAl to iSSue A Permit, licence, rAting
2 or 3 Medical Certificates (Assessed Fit) or meDicAl certificAte
Category 1, 2 or 3 Medical Certificate renewals may be conducted
The Minister’s power to refuse to issue or amend a permit,
by a Canadian CAME or an Aviation Medical Examiner
licence, rating or medical certificate is set out in the Aeronautics Act.
designated by the licensing authority of an ICAO contracting state.
Grounds for refusing to issue are as follows:
If the holder is assessed medically fit for that permit or licence
by a CAME, the examiner will renew the medical certificate (a) the applicant is incompetent per section 6.71 of the Act;
for the full validity period by placing a date and signature stamp (b) the applicant fails to meet the qualifications or fulfill the
on the applicable page of the ADB. conditions necessary for the issuance or amendment of the
If the medical examination is conducted by an Aviation Medical document per section 6.71 of the Act;
Examiner designated by the licensing authority of an ICAO (c) public interest reasons per section 6.71 of the Act; and
contracting state, the completed medical examination report
shall be forwarded to the following TCCA Medicine Branch (d) the applicant fails to pay monetary penalties per section 7.21
address for review and assessment: of the Act.
Civil Aviation Medicine Branch Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) takes care to determine
Transport Canada whether an application is merely incomplete or whether the
330 Sparks Street applicant does not meet the requirements set out in the Canadian
Place de Ville, Tower C, Room 617 Aviation Regulations (CARs).
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 (a) If an applicant has not submitted all of the required material,
If the holder is assessed medically fit for the permit or licence licensing personnel shall advise the applicant that the
by the TCCA Medicine Branch, a new medical certificate will application cannot be processed until the specified additional
be issued. See LRA 2.3 for more information. documentation or information is provided.
(b) When all options are exhausted and the information provided
1.9.3 Medical Fitness—Renewals for Category 4 by the applicant demonstrates that the applicant is not
qualified for the requested document, licensing personnel
Medical Certificate
LRA
364
TC AIM March 25, 2021
The recency requirements address three time periods: five years, The technical annex addressing pilot licensing is called
two years, and six months. If a pilot wishes to act as Implementation Procedures for Licensing. It authorizes pilots
pilot-in-command (PIC) or co-pilot of an aircraft, they must holding certain licences or certificates from one country to
meet both the five-year and the two-year recency requirements. obtain a licence or certificate from the other country when
If they wish to carry passengers, they must also meet the six- certain requirements are met.
month requirement.
In order to facilitate the certificate or licence conversion, the
For five-year recency, the pilot must have either: Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and Transport Canada
Civil Aviation (TCCA) agreed to provide each other with a
(a) flown as pilot-in-command (PIC) or co-pilot within the
verification of pilot licence or certificate authenticity and the
previous five years; or
associated medical certificate(s) prior to starting the conversion.
(b) completed a flight review with an instructor and written TCCA considers that a FAA Airman Certificate holder, who has
and passed the Student Pilot Permit or Private Pilot Licence complied with the respective TCCA licence conditions for
for Foreign and Military Applicants, Aviation Regulation conversion set forth in the Implementation Procedures for
Examination, commonly known as PSTAR, within the Licensing, shall be eligible for a TCCA licence.
previous 12 months.
NOTES:
For the 24-month recurrent training program, the pilot must
have successfully completed a recurrent training program within 1. It is intended that applicants following these implementation
the previous 24 months, and therefore meet one of the following procedures do not also need to meet the requirements of
seven conditions: the relevant CAR standards.
(a) complete a flight review with an instructor; 2. Licences or certificates that are endorsed “issued on the
basis of a foreign licence” are NOT eligible for this conversion
(b) attend a safety seminar conducted by Transport Canada
process.
Civil Aviation (TCCA);
The following FAA Airman Certificates may be converted using
(c) participate in a TCCA-approved recurrent training program;
the applicable implementation procedures:
(d) complete a self-paced study program;
(a) Private Pilot – Aeroplane or Rotorcraft
(e) complete a training program or pilot proficiency check (PPC)
(b) Commercial Pilot – Aeroplane or Rotorcraft
LRA
as required by CARs Part IV, VI or VII;
(c) Airline Transport Pilot – Aeroplane or Rotorcraft
(f) complete the requirements for the issue or renewal of a
licence, permit or rating; or When an application is made to convert any of the above listed
certificates, the ratings or qualifications already endorsed may
(g) complete the written exam for a licence, permit or rating.
also be transferred. The following ratings or qualifications may
Flight crew must also meet specific recency requirements for be converted using the applicable implementation procedures:
other aircraft categories, instrument ratings and passenger
(a) instrument rating,
carrying operations. Refer to CAR 401.05 and CAR 421.05 for
more information. (b) applicable aircraft class or type ratings, and
(c) night rating or qualification.
1.13 flight crew licenSing converSion After the conversion of any of the above airman certificates and
Agreement Between cAnADA AnD the the issuance of the TCCA equivalent licence, a provision is made
in the implementation procedure for instrument rating renewal.
uniteD StAteS
No flight test is required for applicants who go through this
In June 2000, the United States and Canada signed a bilateral conversion process.
aviation safety agreement to coordinate various aspects of their
respective aviation safety oversight systems for the benefit of More information on application guidelines for aeroplane or
users in both countries. In the agreement, the two countries rotorcraft licence conversion can be found on the following
developed technical annexes called implementation procedures TCCA Web page: <https://www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/
that address specific aviation safety activity areas. licensing-pilots-personnel/flight-crew-licenses-permits-ratings/
converting-us-canadian-pilot-licence.html>.
TCCA applicants are required to fill out FAA Form AC 8060-71,
Verification of Authenticity of Foreign License Rating and
Medical Certification, and comply with other eligibility
requirements listed in FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 61-135A,
see <www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars/
index.cfm/go/document.information/documentID/1027574>.
365
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.14 flight crew licenSing ADminiStrAtion There are approximately 700 physicians who are designated by
TC as CAMEs. They are strategically located across the country
and overseas.
1.14.1 Flight Crew Licensing Change of Address
Request If the examination is performed in a contracting ICAO state, it
must be completed by a medical examiner designated by Canada
TCCA shall be advised of any change of mailing address within or by that state. The resulting medical examination must meet
seven days following the change in accordance with CAR 400.07. the Canadian physical and mental requirements. See
A completed Flight Crew Licensing Change of Address CAR Standard 424 at <www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/regserv/
Request Form (Form 26-0760) should be submitted to the closest cars/part4-standards-t42402-1412.htm>.
TCCA regional licensing office. A PDF copy of this form is
available at <http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/Corp-Serv-Gen/5/forms- Only designated Canadian CAMEs may validate a renewal
formulaires/download/26-0760_BO_PD>. examination with the official CAME stamp and by signing the
medical certification section in the ADB.
1.14.2 Application for Re-Issue of Civil Aviation Local flying organizations usually have a list of examiners in
Licensing Document their immediate area. Examiner lists are also available from the
regional office of Civil Aviation Medicine or on the TCCA Web
If a permit or licence is not received in the mail, or is lost, stolen, site: <http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/came-meac/l.
destroyed or rendered illegible, a completed Application for aspx?lang=eng>.
Re-Issue of a Civil Aviation Licensing Document Form (Form
26-0738) should be submitted to the closest TCCA regional
licensing office. A PDF copy of this form is available at <http:// 2.1.2 Category 4 Medical Declaration
wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/wwwdocs/Forms/26-0738E_1405-03_E.pdf>. When applying for the issuance or revalidation of any of the
Canadian aviation documents listed below, the applicant may
1.14.3 Flight Crew Licensing Declaration of Name apply to obtain a Category 4 Medical Certificate by completing
the Medical Declaration for Licences and Permits Requiring a
TCCA shall be advised of any change in your given name or Category 4 Medical Standard Form (Form 26-0297) at
surname. A completed Flight Crew Licensing Declaration of <http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/wwwdocs/Forms/26-0297E_1308-
Name Form (Form 26-0759) should be submitted to the closest 07_E.pdf>
LRA
NOTE:
If the applicant has ever suffered from any of the conditions
listed in Part B, they must undergo a medical examination with
a CAME. Failure to disclose a medical issue is a federal offence
under the Aeronautics Act.
LRA
on the first medical examination after the age of 50, and then
every four years thereafter. The electrocardiogram tracing does
not need to be submitted with the medical declaration form, but
must be acknowledged as having been completed and read by
the signing physician.
When a Category 4 Medical Declaration is completed in full,
the candidate must submit the above-mentioned form to a TC
regional licensing office, where a medical certificate will
be issued.
An applicant who has completed the Category 4 Medical
Declaration may not act as a flight crew member unless they
can produce the appropriate, valid medical certificate. Please
refer to CAR 401.03 for more details.
A pilot renewing a Category 4 Medical Declaration should
complete the declaration form 60 days before the expiry date of
the medical certificate. This will allow TC licensing personnel
enough time to issue a new Category 4 Medical Certificate or
label for the ADB before the original medical certificate expires.
An applicant holding a Category 4 Medical Certificate may
exercise the privileges of the appropriate permit or licence while
flying in Canadian airspace only.
NOTE:
If an applicant wishes to obtain a private pilot licence or higher
or intends to pursue a career in aviation, it is advisable to forego
a Category 4 application and apply directly for a Category 3 or 1
Medical Certificate in order to save time and money.
367
TC AIM March 25, 2021
thereafter
Student Pilot 3 Under 40 Within five years of (If clinically Under 40 N.A.
issue or revalidation indicated)
Private Pilot
Over 40 Within two years of Over 40 At first examination
Gyroplane Pilot issue or revalidation and every four years
thereafter
Balloon Pilot
Ultralight Instructor 4 All Within five years of (If clinically Under 40 N.A.
issue or revalidation indicated)
Glider Instructor
Over 40 At first examination
and every five years
thereafter
Glider Pilot 4 All Medical Declaration (If clinically N.A.
(Full medical indicated)
Ultralight Pilot examination report
only if clinically
indicated)
Recreational Pilot 4 All Medical Declaration (If clinically Under 40 N.A.
or Form 26-0297 indicated)
Student Pilot counter-signed by a 40-50 At first examination
physician Over 50 At first examination
and every four years
thereafter
368
TC AIM March 25, 2021
These requirements can be found in the table entitled “Physical applicant or permit/licence holder may see these documents in
and Mental Requirement” in CAR Standard 424 at the presence of the RAMO and ask questions concerning the
<www.tc.gc.ca/en/transport-canada/corporate/acts-regulations/ content of the documents relative to the medical standards. In
regulations/sor-96-433/part4-standards-t42402-1412.htm>. the case of sensitive or complicated medical information, the
RAMO may elect to refer questions of a more clinical nature to
the applicant or permit/licence holder’s personal physician, who
2.3 PerioDic meDicAl exAm cAtegorieS 1, 2 can better explain the implications. In such cases, the applicant
AnD 3—meDicAlly fit or permit/licence holder will be asked to sign a Consent to
Release Form to designate a physician who will receive these
When the examination has been completed, the examiner will
reports.
make a recommendation of fitness and will forward the medical
examination report to the regional aviation medical In addition, the applicant or licence/permit holder may invoke
officer (RAMO) at the appropriate regional office for review. If the provisions outlined in the Canadian Aviation
the person is already the holder of a Canadian pilot permit or Regulations (CARs) regarding reconsideration of assessment.
licence or air traffic controller licence and is, in the opinion of
CAR 404.12 states that:
the examiner, medically fit, the examiner will extend the medical
validity of the holder’s permit or licence for the full validity “(1) An applicant for the renewal of a medical certificate who
period by signing and stamping the aviation document is assessed by the Minister as not meeting the requirements
booklet (ADB) in the medical certification section. referred to in subsection 404.11(1) may, within 30 days
after the date that the applicant receives the notification
The ADB is valid for five years.
referred to in subsection 404.11(2),
(a) request the Minister to reconsider the assessment; and
2.4 AviAtion meDicAl review BoArD
(b) submit additional information to the Minister regarding
A small percentage of applicants will have medical issues that the medical fitness of the applicant in support of the
place them outside the medical standard. In those cases, their request.
medical information may be reviewed by the Aviation Medical
(2) Where the Minister is requested to reconsider an assessment
Review Board. The Review Board—a group of specialists in
pursuant to subsection (1), the Minister shall
neurology, cardiology, psychiatry, ophthalmology, internal
LRA
medicine, otolaryngology and aviation medicine—meets (a) take into consideration any additional information
regularly in Ottawa to review complex cases and make regarding the medical fitness of the applicant; and
recommendations to the regional aviation medical officer (RAMO). (b) immediately notify the applicant in writing of the result
of the reconsideration of the assessment.”
2.5 unfit ASSeSSment
Less than one percent of all applicants are assessed as unfit, a 2.6 review By the trAnSPortAtion APPeAl
decision that is not made lightly. The underlying goal of the triBunAl of cAnADA (tAtc)
medical assessment is to allow permit/licence holders to maintain
their privileges within the bounds of aviation safety. Flexibility After the steps outlined above, if the applicant or permit/licence
may be applied to the medical standard if there is a counterbalancing holder wishes for the Transportation Appeal Tribunal of
safety restriction and/or a change in periodicity of medical Canada (TATC) to review the medical certification decision,
surveillance that could be applied to a holder’s permit or licence, they must file a request by the date specified in the notice of
which would compensate for the deviation from the standard. suspension, cancellation or non-renewal. The TATC will
For example, a pilot with certain medical conditions may be acknowledge their request for review and subsequently set a
restricted to flying with or as an accompanying pilot. hearing date. Any questions on hearing procedures should be
directed to the TATC, which is independent from
If an applicant is assessed as unfit, they will be informed by the Transport Canada (TC)
regional aviation medical officer (RAMO) in writing, and by
the Regional Technical Team Lead, Flight Operations at If the applicant or permit/licence holder has new or additional
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA). If it is an initial medical information, it is strongly suggested that they share it
application, a medical certificate will not be issued. If the applicant with the regional aviation medical officer (RAMO) before the
holds a medical certificate, it will either be suspended or cancelled. hearing; this information may be sufficient for the RAMO to
If a medical certificate was previously held, a letter refusing to recommend reinstatement of the medical certificate and spare
renew the document will be issued to the applicant. the applicant or permit/licence holder the inconvenience of a
hearing before the TATC. Whether the applicant or permit/
If a medical certificate is refused, suspended, cancelled or not licence holder elects to disclose this evidence or not, the right
renewed, the applicant or permit/licence holder may wish to to a hearing before the TATC is not affected, but the Tribunal
discuss and review their medical assessment with the RAMO. will decline to make a determination of the case if the new
Via teleconference and/or at a meeting, the RAMO will review, evidence has not been reviewed by Civil Aviation Medicine.
with the applicant or permit/licence holder, the medical
information relevant to the assessment. As a general rule, the
369
TC AIM March 25, 2021
If the applicant or permit/licence holder does decide to proceed 3.0 FLIGHT CREW EXAMINATIONS
with a review by the TATC, the following are the procedural steps.
The review will normally be heard by a single medical professional,
a member of the TATC. The TATC member considers the medical 3.1 exAminAtion officeS
evidence against the regulatory medical standards promulgated Flight crew written examinations for recreational-level pilot
by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), the licences can be written at certain flight training units. Most
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) and appropriate Civil Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA) regional offices and
Aviation Medicine guidelines. The member can either uphold centres offer a written examination service. Visit the following
the Minister’s decision or request that the Minister reconsider Tranport Canada (TC) Web page <https://www.tc.gc.ca/en/
their decision. The TATC does not have the power to require services/aviation/licensing-pilots-personnel/flight-crew-licenses-
the Minister to issue a valid medical certificate to the applicant permits-ratings/flight-crew-examinations/
or permit/licence holder. transport-canada-centres-authorized-examination-invigilators.
If the TATC member does not decide in the applicant or permit/ html> for contact information.
licence holder’s favour, this decision may be appealed to a three- There are no TC examination facilities outside of Canada.
member board of the TATC. This board can only review the
evidence that was presented at the review hearing. No new
evidence can be considered at the appeal level. If the three- 3.2 cheAting on An exAm
member board of the TATC decides in the applicant or permit/ CAR 400.02 states that:
licence holder’s favour, the determination will be that the Minister
reconsider their decision. If the three-member board does not “(1) Except as authorized by an invigilator, no person shall, or
decide in the applicant or permit/licence holder’s favour, there shall attempt to, in respect of a written examination,
is no further avenue of appeal to the TATC. (a) copy or remove from any place all or any portion of
If either the single-member TATC or the three-member TATC the text of the examination;
decides that the Minister reconsider their decision, TC does not (b) give to or accept from any person a copy of all or any
have the right of appeal. The merits of the case, based only on portion of the text of the examination;
the evidence available at the time of the original review, will be
(c) give help to or accept help from any person during the
reconsidered by the Minister. As part of the reconsideration
LRA
examination;
process, the Director, Standards will ask the Director, Civil
Aviation Medicine to review the case and provide them with a (d) complete all or any portion of the examination on behalf
recommendation regarding the applicant or permit/licence of any other person; or
holder’s medical fitness. The Director, Civil Aviation Medicine (e) use any aid or written material during the examination.
does not normally participate in the medical review by the RAMO
or in the Aviation Medical Review Board recommendations and (2) A person who commits an act prohibited under subsection (1)
is thus able to formulate an unbiased opinion after an independent fails the examination and may not take any other examination
review of all of the medical evidence available at the time of the for a period of one year.”
original decision. If the Director of Civil Aviation Medicine has
been involved, the case will be referred outside the department 3.3 uSe of hAnD-helD cAlculAtorS or
for a second opinion.
comPuterS
A copy of this recommendation will then be sent to the applicant
or permit/licence holder who will have ten working days to The following is a list of rules regarding the use of hand-held
provide the Director, Standards with any comments they may calculators or electronic computers during written examinations:
wish to make regarding the recommendation of the Director, (a) An applicant may use a hand-held calculator for problem
Civil Aviation Medicine. solving, including those with a tape printout, if it has no
After that time, a final decision will be made by the Director, memory system.
Standards regarding the medical assessment, and the applicant or (b) An applicant may use a hand-held electronic computer that
permit/licence holder will be notified. has been specifically designed for flight operations, including
a self-prompting type, provided it has been approved by
Transport Canada (TC) for examination purposes and the
computer memory bank is cleared before and after the
examination, in the presence of the examination invigilator.
370
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(c) Requests for hand-held electronic computer approval—along serial number. A photograph of the identification plate, clearly
with a functioning sample computer, all available software, reproducing the information it contains, is required when applying
and, if applicable, instructions on how to completely clear for a certificate of registration (C of R).
all memory without affecting any programming—should
be forwarded by the manufacturer to:
4.3 nAtionAlity AnD regiStrAtion mArkS
Transport Canada
Commercial Flight Standards (AARTF) No person shall operate a registered aircraft in Canada unless
330 Sparks Street its nationality and registration marks are clean, visible and
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8 displayed in accordance with the Canadian Aviation
Regulations (CARs) or with the laws of the state of registry.
The memory bank clearing instructions and the process
shall be simple enough to be completed with minimum Canadian nationality and registration marks for new or imported
distraction to invigilators. aircraft are issued, on request, by the appropriate
Transport Canada (TC) regional office. Should an applicant
NOTES: request a specific mark that is not the next available mark, it is
deemed to be a special mark and may be obtained, if available,
1. No computer capable of being used to type and store a
upon payment of a fee. Marks may be reserved for a one-year
significant quantity of language text will be approved.
period without being assigned to a specific aircraft, also upon
2. No device capable of accessing other applications or networks payment of a fee.
will be approved.
Aircraft registration marks are composed of a nationality mark
(a) The Jeppesen/Sanderson PROSTAR and AVSTAR, the and a registration mark. The Canadian nationality marks are the
Jeppesen TECHSTAR and TECHSTAR PRO, the capital letters “C” or “CF”. “CF” may only be issued for vintage
ASA CX-la Pathfinder, the ASA CX-2 Pathfinder, the (heritage) aircraft manufactured prior to January 1, 1957. If the
ASA CX-3, the Cessna Sky/Comp, the NAV-GEM, and nationality mark is “CF”, the registration mark is a combination
the Sporty’s E6B electronic flight computers have been of three capital letters. If the nationality mark consists only of
approved for use with all flight crew personnel licensing the capital letter “C”, the registration mark is a combination of
written examinations requiring numerical computations. four capital letters beginning with “F” or “G” for regular aircraft
(b) An applicant may not use an instructional handbook or a (including amateur-built aircraft). The nationality mark shall
LRA
user’s manual when writing a TC examination. precede the registration mark and be separated from it by a
hyphen.
(c) Upon completion of a written examination, all printout
material shall be given to the invigilator. In the case of basic and advanced ultralight aeroplanes, the
registration mark is a combination of four capital letters beginning
with “I”.
4.0 AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION, MARKING,
Aircraft manufactured before January 1, 1957, are considered
REGISTRATION AND INSURANCE to be vintage aircraft and are eligible to display either the “C”
or “CF” nationality mark. Aircraft manufactured after
December 31, 1956, will be issued only “C” nationality marks.
4.1 generAl Aircraft manufactured after December 31, 1956, that now display
No civil aircraft, other than hang gliders or model aircraft, shall the “CF” nationality mark may continue to do so until such time
be flown in Canada unless they are registered in accordance as the aircraft is next painted, after which the aircraft shall
with Part II of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), the display the “C” nationality mark (e.g. CF-XXX becomes C-FXXX).
laws of an International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) The TC regional office shall be notified, in writing, of any
member state, or a state that has a bilateral agreement with changes to the mark.
Canada concerning interstate flying
The specifications for Canadian nationality and registration
To be eligible for registration in Canada, an aircraft must be of marks are contained in CAR 202.01 and are in accordance with
a type that has been approved in Canada for issuance of a CAR Standard 222. For details on the placement and size of
certificate of airworthiness (C of A), special C of A or a flight aircraft marks, see CAR 222.01.
permit (except ultralight aeroplanes), and the owner must be
CAR 202.04(1) provides for marks to be changed after an aircraft
qualified to be the registered owner of a Canadian aircraft in
has been registered. The aircraft may be removed from the
accordance with the Part II of the CARs.
register if it is destroyed, permanently withdrawn from service
or exported. It is the responsibility of the owner to notify TC
4.2 AircrAft iDentificAtion immediately if any of these events occur. The owner shall also
notify TC, in writing, within seven days of a change to the
Under CAR 201.01, Canadian-registered aircraft are required owner’s name or permanent address.
to have an aircraft identification plate attached to the aircraft.
The fireproof plate bears information relating to the aircraft
manufacturer, model designation, type certificate number and
371
TC AIM March 25, 2021
4.4 chAnge of ownerShiP—cAnADiAn- (d) return the certificate of registration (C of R) of the aircraft
to the Minister.
regiStereD AircrAft
Transport Canada (TC) will remove the aircraft from the
When the ownership of a Canadian-registered aircraft changes, Canadian Civil Aircraft Register and forward a Canadian
the registration is cancelled and the registered owner must notify registration cancellation notification to the national aviation
Transport Canada (TC) in writing no more than seven days after authority of the country that is importing the aircraft upon receipt
the change. A pre-addressed postcard-type notice is provided of a request from the registered owner and only after the foregoing
with the certificate of registration (C of R) for this purpose. The conditions have been met.
C of R contains the forms and instructions necessary to apply
for registration in the new owner’s name.
4.8 liABility inSurAnce
4.5 initiAl regiStrAtion Canadian and foreign aircraft operated in Canada or Canadian
aircraft operated in a foreign country are required to have public
To obtain an application for registration, the new owner should liability insurance. In the case of most air operators (those
contact the applicable Transport Canada (TC) regional office. operating under CAR 703, CAR 704 and CAR 705), the specific
The applicant can also access the forms (Form 26-0522 or requirement can be found in section 7 of the Air Transportation
Form 26-0521) online at <www.tc.gc.ca/eng/civilaviation/ Regulations; for other air operators, the requirement is outlined
standards/maintenance-regsdocs-form-2943.htm>. No person in CAR 606.02. Public liability insurance protects the owner
shall operate an aircraft in Canada unless it is registered. and operator of the aircraft if the aircraft causes damage to
persons or property.
4.6 imPortAtion of AircrAft Similarly, passenger liability insurance is required in certain
The International Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) circumstances, as indicated in section 7 of the Air Transportation
Convention on International Civil Aviation (Doc 7300) and the Regulations. Passenger liability insurance is required by operators
Canadian Avaition Regulations (CARs) state that an aircraft operating under the authority of an air operator certificate (AOC),
cannot be registered in more than one state at the same time. a flight training unit operator certificate, or a special flight
Therefore, persons proposing to import an aircraft into Canada operations certificate (SFOC) for balloons with fare-paying
and to have it registered should ascertain whether the aircraft is passengers. Certain privately operated aircraft require both
LRA
eligible for import and registration prior to making any public and passenger liability insurance (see CAR 606.02(4) and
commitments. Inquiries relating to importation and registration CAR 606.02(8)). Passenger liability insurance protects the owner
can be addressed to the nearest Transport Canada Civil and operator of the aircraft if a passenger on board the aircraft
Aviation (TCCA) regional office, TC Centre or Minister’s suffers from injury or death.
Delegate—Maintenance. Passenger liability insurance is not mandatory for aerial work
operators certified under CAR 702 as they do not carry passengers.
4.7 exPortAtion of AircrAft Details on the specific amounts of public liability insurance
required and how to calculate passenger liability insurance can
When a Canadian-registered aircraft is sold or leased to a person
be found in CAR 606.02.
who is not qualified to be the owner of a Canadian aircraft and
the aircraft is not in Canada at the time of the sale or lease, or
it is understood by the vendor or lessor that the aircraft is to be 5.0 AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS
exported, the vendor shall ensure that the requirements of
CAR 202.38 are satisfied. The vendor or lessor shall:
(a) remove the Canadian marks from the aircraft and, if applicable,
5.1 generAl
the aircraft address from the Mode S transponder and from This subpart provides an explanation of the means by which
the other avionics equipment of the aircraft; Transport Canada (TC) exercises regulatory oversight to ensure
the continuing airworthiness of Canadian-registered aircraft. It
(b) notify the Minister in writing, within seven days after the
focuses on the general intent of the regulatory process rather
sale or lease, of the date of:
than dealing with the applicable airworthiness requirements and
(i) the sale or lease;
procedures in detail. Readers should consult the applicable
(ii) the exportation, if applicable;
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) that are mentioned in
(iii) the removal of the Canadian marks; and
this section if a more detailed understanding of the current
(iv) the removal of the aircraft address from the Mode S
airworthiness requirements and procedures is required.
transponder and from the other avionics equipment
of the aircraft, if applicable; It is the responsibility of the owner or pilot to ensure that
Canadian-registered aircraft are fit and safe for flight prior to
(c) provide the Minister with a copy of all of the agreements
being flown. The primary regulatory control for meeting this
that relate to the transfer of any part of the legal custody
objective is achieved by making it unlawful for any person to
and control of the aircraft resulting from the sale or lease;
fly or attempt to fly an aircraft, other than a hang glider or an
and
ultralight aeroplane, unless flight authority in the form of a valid
372
TC AIM March 25, 2021
certificate of airworthiness (C of A), special C of A, or flight 5.3 flight Authority AnD noiSe comPliAnce
permit—whichever is applicable—has been issued for that aircraft
(see CAR 507.02, CAR 507.03, and CAR 507.04).
5.3.1 General
CAR 605.03 prescribes that:
5.2 AircrAft DeSign requirementS
“(1) No person shall operate an aircraft in flight unless:
5.2.1 General (a) a flight authority is in effect in respect of the aircraft;
ICAO’s Convention on International Civil Aviation (Doc 7300), (b) the aircraft is operated in accordance with the conditions
signed in Chicago in 1944, mandates that every aircraft of a set out in the flight authority; and
contracting state engaged in international aerial navigation be
(c) subject to subsections (2) and (3), the flight authority
provided with a C of A issued or rendered valid by the state in
is carried on board the aircraft.
which it is registered. This agreement has the following effects:
(2) Where a specific-purpose flight permit has been issued
(a) to pro mote the idea of mutually acceptable aircraft design pursuant to Section 507.04, an aircraft may be operated without
standards between contracting states; the flight authority carried on board where:
(b) to provide all contracting states with the assurance that the
(a) the flight is conducted in Canadian airspace; and
aircraft of any other contracting state flying over their
territories is certificated to a common minimum acceptable (b) an entry is made into the journey log indicating:
level of airworthiness; and (i) that the aircraft is operating under a specific-
purpose flight permit, and
(c) to achieve minimum acceptable standards in matters related
(ii) where applicable, any operational conditions that
to the aircraft’s continuing airworthiness.
pertain to flight operations under the specific-
The ultimate objective of this agreement is to protect other purpose flight permit.
aircraft, third parties, and people on the ground from any hazards
(3) A balloon may be operated without the flight authority carried
associated with overflying aircraft.
on board where the flight authority is immediately available
to the pilot-in-command:
5.2.2 Canadian Type Certificate
LRA
(a) prior to commencing a flight; and
CAR 521 establishes the rules that govern the application for
(b) upon completion of that flight.”
and the issuance of a design approval document. The regulation
also enables the use of the Airworthiness Manual chapters that A flight authority may be issued in the form of a C of A, a special
establish the design standards for various categories of aircraft. C of A or a flight permit. The specific requirements and
The standards may be defined as statements of the minimum procedures for each are detailed in CAR 507 and its related
acceptable properties and characteristics of the configuration, standard.
material, performance and physical properties of an aircraft.
Applicants are issued a design approval document once they 5.3.2 Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A)
have demonstrated that the type design of the aeronautical product The C of A is issued for aircraft that fully comply with all
conforms to the applicable airworthiness and noise and engine standards of airworthiness for:
emission standards that are in force for the product. The design
approval document certifies that the type design of the product (a) aeroplanes in the normal, utility, aerobatic, commuter and
meets the applicable standards and includes the conditions and transport categories;
limitations prescribed by the airworthiness authority as well as (b) rotorcraft in the normal and transport categories; and
how the product meets the standards.
(c) gliders, powered gliders, airships, and manned free balloons.
NOTE: The C of A is transferable with the aircraft when sold or leased,
A design approval document is defined in CAR 521.01 as “a provided the aircraft remains registered in Canada. The C of A
type certificate, a supplemental type certificate, a repair design may provide an indication of the aircraft’s compliance status
approval, a part design approval or a Canadian Technical Standard with respect to the noise limitations specified in chapter 516 of
Order (CAN-TSO) design approval.” the Airworthiness Manual. When applying for a C of A, it is
advisable for the owner to have or obtain a copy of the applicable
All information concerning the approval of a type design or a type certificate data sheets. A copy of the data sheets can be
change to the type design of an aeronautical product can be obtained from the type certificate holder. The data sheets may
found in CAR 521 at <http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/ also be found online at <http://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/
regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-521.01>. Guidance nico-celn/>.
material supporting this regulation can be found at <https://
www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/reference-centre/advisory- Nothing in the CARs or their associated standards relieves the
circulars.html#500-series>. operator of a Canadian aircraft from the requirement to comply
with local regulations when operating outside Canada. An aircraft
373
TC AIM March 25, 2021
for which the Minister has issued a C of A is considered to be (b) Importation or exportation flights;
fully compliant with article 31 of ICAO’s Convention on (c) Demonstration, market survey or crew training flights;
International Civil Aviation (Doc 7300), thereby meeting the
code established by ICAO in Annex 8. Regarding airworthiness, (d) Test purposes following repair, modification or maintenance;
aircraft meeting this code can be flown without further approval or
in the airspace of any ICAO contracting state. (e) Other temporary purposes.”
An aircraft for which a special C of A is issued by the Minister “In the case of a Canadian aircraft, the C of A shall be annotated
is not considered to be in compliance with all requirements of to indicate that:
the code in ICAO’s Annex 8 and cannot be flown in the airspace (i) the aircraft complies with the applicable noise
of another country without special authorization by the civil emission standards and what those standards are;
aviation authority of that other country. or
(ii) the noise compliance requirements are not applicable
CAR Standard 507, Appendix H lists aircraft types and models to the aircraft.”
that are eligible for a special C of A—owner-maintenance. This
special C of A allows owners to perform and certify maintenance
on their aircraft, provided the relevant requirements of the CARs
5.4 mAintenAnce certificAtion
and the associated standards are met. 5.4.1 General
Aircraft owners who apply for a C of A for an aircraft for which CAR 605.85 stipulates, in part, that “no person shall conduct a
the last permanent flight authority issued was a special C of A— take-off in an aircraft, or permit a take-off to be conducted in
owner-maintenance must meet the additional relevant requirements
LRA
5.4.2 Certification of Maintenance Performed and properly rectified or the repairs are deferred; and that any
Outside Canada applicable ADs have been addressed.
In the case of maintenance performed outside Canada (except It is also the responsibility of owners or operators to ensure that
for the annual inspection portion of the maintenance schedule the person intending to take off in the aircraft has the information
outlined in CAR Standard 625, Appendix B, Part I or II), a required to establish whether or not the aircraft is airworthy for
maintenance release may be signed by a person who is authorized the intended flight.
under the laws of a state that is party to an agreement or a It is the responsibility of the pilot to be familiar with the available
technical arrangement with Canada if the agreement or information and to make an informed decision regarding the
arrangement provides for such certification. aircraft and the intended flight.
In the case of certifying of the 100-hr inspection performed CAR 605.94 requires the pilot-in-command to enter the particulars
annually on the basis of the maintenance schedule outlined in of any abnormal occurrence to which the aircraft has been
CAR Standard 625, Appendix B, a maintenance release can only subjected, as well as the particulars of any defect in any part of
be signed by the holder of an appropriately-rated AME licence the aircraft or its equipment that becomes apparent during flight,
issued pursuant to CAR 403. in the journey log as set out in CAR 605, Schedule I.
In addition to the general rules in CAR 605, private operators
5.5 AnnuAl AirworthineSS informAtion must respect the maintenance requirements in CAR 604 and its
rePort (AAir) associated standard. Commercial air operators must respect the
requirements in CAR 706 and flight training units must respect
CAR 501.01 requires that the owner of a Canadian aircraft, other those in CAR 406.
than an ultralight aeroplane, submit an Annual Airworthiness
Information Report (AAIR). This report can be submitted online
through the Continuing Airworthiness Web Information
5.6.2 Maintenance Schedules
System (CAWIS) at <https://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/saf-sec-sur/2/ CAR 605.86 prescribes, in part, that all Canadian aircraft except
cawis-swimn/i.aspx?lang=eng> or by filling out the Annual ultralight aeroplanes or hang gliders shall be maintained in
Airworthiness Information Report Form (Form 24-0059), as accordance with a maintenance schedule that has been approved
specified in Chapter 501 of the Airworthiness Manual. by the Minister and that conforms to CAR Standard 625.
LRA
An AAIR notice is sent to each registered aircraft owner several Appendices B, C and D to CAR Standard 625 are applicable to
weeks before the due date. The aircraft owner shall complete the development of maintenance schedules.
the annual report by entering all required data and signing to
Owners of non-commercially operated small aircraft and balloons
certify that the information supplied is correct.
may choose to comply with Part I or II of Appendix B, as
Failure to receive an AAIR notice does not relieve the owner applicable, and Appendix C to CAR Standard 625. They need
from the requirement to submit a report. The owner should not submit any documents to the Minister for formal approval.
therefore notify the appropriate Transport Canada (TC) regional The maintenance schedule is considered to be approved for their
office or TC Centre if the form, or its online equivalent, has not use by the Minister. Owners need only make an entry in the
been received two weeks before the anticipated due date. aircraft technical records indicating that the aircraft is maintained
pursuant to the maintenance schedule. Owners should periodically
An alternate due date may be granted in accordance with
review the maintenance schedule to ensure that it meets the
CAR 501.03.
requirements.
The owner of an aircraft that will be out of service for one or
Operators of large aircraft, turbine-powered pressurized
more reporting periods (calendar years) is not required to submit
aeroplanes, airships, any aeroplane or helicopter operated by a
an AAIR for those periods, provided the appropriate section of
flight training unit, or any commercially operated aircraft must
Form 24-0059, or its online equivalent, is completed and indicates
submit an application for approval of their maintenance schedule
the date the aircraft is expected to return to service.
to the Minister through the TC regional office with jurisdiction
over the area in which the applicant is located. The maintenance
5.6 mAintenAnce requirementS for cAnADiAn- schedule shall address the requirements of CAR Standard 625,
Appendices C and D.
regiStereD AircrAft
375
TC AIM March 25, 2021
5.6.4 Aircraft Technical Records When an AD is not complied with, the flight authority is not in
effect and the aircraft is not considered to be airworthy.
CAR 605 and its related standard prescribe and set out the
requirements and procedures for keeping aircraft technical Exemptions to AD compliance or the authorization of an
records. Pursuant to CAR 605.92(1), every owner of an aircraft alternative means of compliance may be requested by an owner
shall keep the following technical records regarding the aircraft: pursuant to CAR 605.84(4). General information about exemptions
and alternative means of compliance is given in Appendix H,
(a) a journey log; subsection 3. Applications should be made to the nearest TC
(b) a separate technical record for the airframe, each installed regional office or TC Centre in accordance with the procedure
engine and each variable-pitch propeller; and detailed in CAR Standard 625, Appendix H, subsection 4.
(c) an empty weight and balance report that meets the applicable
standards set out in CAR Standard 571. 5.7.2 Availability of Airworthiness
The technical records may consist of separate technical records Directives (ADs)
for each component installed in the airframe, engine or propeller. TC endeavours to notify owners of Canadian registered aircraft
In the case of a balloon or a glider, or an aircraft operated under of the issuance of any applicable AD or mandatory service
a special C of A in the owner-maintenance or amateur-built bulletin as outlined below. To this end, the owner must advise
classification, all technical record entries, referred to above, the nearest TCCA office of any change of address in accordance
may be kept in the journey log. with CAR 202.51. However, TC cannot guarantee that it will
receive all foreign ADs. Aircraft owners are responsible for
5.6.5 Service Difficulty Reporting Program obtaining the relevant continuing airworthiness information
applicable to the type and model of aircraft—including installed
By means of the service difficulty reporting program, reported equipment, engine, propeller(s) (if any)—that they own.
service difficulties are collected, analyzed and used to identify
and rectify, as required, deficiencies of a design, manufacturing, Aircraft owners who wish to ascertain which ADs, if any, apply
maintenance or operational nature, which might affect aircraft in Canada for a particular type of aircraft, engine, propeller or
airworthiness. other item of equipment may do so by checking this Web site:
<https://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/Saf-Sec-Sur/2/cawis-swimn/AD_h.
TC utilizes a user-reporting system to collect service aspx?lang=eng>.
LRA
difficulty data.
The service difficulty reporting program provides a means for 5.7.3 Airworthiness Directive (AD) Schedule and
AMEs and private aircraft owners or operators to report service Compliance Records
difficulties on a voluntary basis. Commercial or corporate air
operators, Canadian holders of design approval documents, and Details of the scheduling provisions and compliance with any
approved organizations engaged in the manufacture, maintenance, applicable ADs shall be entered in the aircraft technical record,
repair or overhaul of aeronautical products are subject to the in accordance with CAR 605, by persons authorized to do so.
mandatory service difficulty reporting prescribed in CAR 521,
Division IX. 6.0 THE TRANSPORTATION APPEAL
Service difficulties encountered in the field that have caused or TRIBUNAL OF CANADA (TATC)
may cause a safety hazard may be reported to the Minister using
either a Service Difficulty Report Form (Form 24-0038) or the
Internet-based TC Web Service Difficulty Reporting System 6.1 generAl
application at <https://wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/Saf-Sec-Sur/2/cawis-
The process for enforcement of Canada’s Aeronautics Act came
swimn/wsdrs_h.aspx>.
into force in 1986. This process includes powers of suspension,
The data collected by the service difficulty reporting program an administrative monetary penalty system and an independent
is available to interested parties from TC headquarters and tribunal to review the decisions made by the Minister of Transport.
regional offices and from the TC Web Service Difficulty
This process was expanded on June 30, 2003, when the
Reporting System application.
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada Act and consequential
amendments to the Aeronautics Act were proclaimed in force.
5.7 AirworthineSS DirectiveS (ADS) The Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada (TATC)
consequently replaced the Civil Aviation Tribunal and has
5.7.1 General expanded jurisdiction and authority. The Appeal Tribunal has
Compliance with ADs is essential to airworthiness. Pursuant the authority to review the Minister’s decisions with respect to
to CAR 605.84, aircraft owners are responsible for ensuring that Canadian aviation documents and the assessment of monetary
their aircraft are not flown unless they meet the requirements penalties.
of any ADs relevant to the aircraft or to its engines, propellers The Tribunal process applies to five types of administrative
or equipment. Refer to CAR Standard 625, Appendix H, for actions. One type of action is the refusal to issue or amend a
further details.
376
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Canadian aviation document. There are also three types of 6.3 SuSPenSion, cAncellAtion or refuSAl to
actions that are related to the powers of suspension or cancellation
of a Canadian aviation document. The fifth type of action is the renew A cAnADiAn AviAtion Document
Minister’s power to assess monetary penalties for the contravention The powers to suspend, cancel or refuse to renew a Canadian
of certain regulatory provisions. Decisions made by the Minister aviation document are set out in the amended Aeronautics Act.
of Transport to take any of these administrative actions may be The Minister has the power to:
reviewed by a single member of the Tribunal and may be followed
by an appeal to a three-member panel. (a) suspend or cancel a document for contravention of any
provision in Part I of the Act or the regulations made under
The purpose of this scheme is to provide those affected by the Act (e.g. the Canadian Aviation Regulations [CARs]);
administrative decisions with an opportunity for a fair hearing
before an independent body. The TATC is not a (b) suspend a document on the grounds that an immediate
Transport Canada (TC) agency. It is composed of individuals threat to aviation safety exists or is likely to occur;
with experience in many different aspects of the transportation (c) suspend, cancel or refuse to renew a document on the grounds
industry. Its members, who have aviation industry experience, of:
will hear aviation cases as the need arises. (i) incompetence,
(ii) ceasing to meet the qualifications or fulfill the
conditions under which the document was issued
6.2 refuSAl to iSSue or AmenD A cAnADiAn (this includes medical grounds), or
AviAtion Document (iii) public interest reasons; and
The Minister’s power to refuse to issue or amend a Canadian (d) suspend or refuse to renew a document for failure to pay
aviation document is set out in the amended Aeronautics Act. monetary penalties for which the Tribunal has issued a
The four distinct grounds for those powers are as follows: certificate of nonpayment.
(a) incompetence of the applicant for the document or amendment; Where the Minister decides to suspend, cancel or refuse to renew
a Canadian aviation document, they must notify the document
(b) failure to meet the qualifications or fulfill the conditions
holder. The notice must include the decision, the grounds for
necessary for the issuance or amendment of the document;
the decision and the specific reasons for those grounds. The
(c) public interest reasons; and document holder has the right to request a review of the Minister’s
LRA
(d) failure by the applicant to pay monetary penalties for which decision. The notice must also inform the applicant of the steps
the Tribunal has issued a certificate. they must follow to obtain a review.
Where the Minister decides to refuse to issue or amend a Canadian The review process and the Tribunal’s authority are the same
aviation document, they must notify the applicant of the decision, as what is outlined in LRA 6.2 regarding the refusal to issue or
the grounds for the decision and the specific reasons those grounds amend a Canadian aviation document. The only difference is
apply. The applicant has the right to request a review of the that in the case of a suspension or cancellation of a Canadian
Minister’s decision. The Notice of Refusal to Issue or Amend a aviation document on the grounds that the holder of the document
Canadian Aviation Document Letter must inform the applicant has contravened a provision of the Act or regulations, the Tribunal
of the steps they must follow to obtain a review. may confirm the Minister’s decision or may substitute its own
decision for that of the Minister.
At the review, the Tribunal will consider whether or not the
Minister’s decision is justified, based on the facts of the case.
Both the applicant and the Minister will be given full opportunity 6.4 monetAry PenAltieS
to present evidence and make representations with respect to The power to assess a monetary penalty applies only to those
the decision under review. The applicant may call their own regulations referred to as designated provisions. These offences,
witnesses and cross-examine those called by the Minister. They generally of a regulatory nature, are designated and listed in
may also be represented by counsel or have another person CAR 103, Schedule II. Where a person contravenes a designated
appear on their behalf. provision, the Minister may assess an appropriate fine to be paid
In making its determination at the review, the Tribunal may as a penalty for the contravention. A notice of assessment of
confirm the Minister’s decision or, if it finds the decision is monetary penalty is then sent to inform the person that full
unjustified, it may refer the matter to the Minister for payment of the penalty will end the matter. The notice must also
reconsideration. inform the person of the steps they must follow to obtain a
review.
In the event that full payment is not received within 30 days and
no request for a review is filed with the Tribunal, the person
will be deemed to have committed the contravention and must
pay the penalty assessed.
If the alleged offender requests a review hearing, the process of
the hearing is the same as that set out in LRA 6.2 and LRA 6.3.
377
TC AIM March 25, 2021
6.5 APPeAlS
If a party fails to appear or be represented at a review hearing
without sufficient reason to justify their absence, that party is
not entitled to request an appeal of the determination.
A person affected by the Tribunal’s review determination may
request an appeal of the determination. The Minister may also
request an appeal of the Tribunal’s review determination with
respect to a suspension or cancellation of a Canadian aviation
document on the grounds of contravention of a provision of the
Act; contravention of the regulations; or with respect to a
monetary penalty. In all cases, the request for an appeal must
be made within 30 days after the Tribunal’s review determination.
The appeal is based on the merits of the decision and the appeal
panel is limited to considering the record of the evidence
introduced at the review hearing, other evidence that was not
available at the review hearing and oral arguments by the parties.
The appeal panel may allow the appeal or dismiss it. If the
Tribunal allows the appeal, it may send the matter back to the
Minister for reconsideration or, in the case of an alleged
LRA
378
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AIR
be identified by its colour. All aviation fuels absorb moisture from the air and contain water
Table 1.1—Fuel Grades and Colours in both suspended particles and liquid form. The amount of
suspended particles varies with the temperature of the fuel.
FUEL COLOUR When the temperature of the fuel is decreased, some of the
suspended particles are drawn out of the solution and slowly fall
AVGAS 80/87 red to the bottom on the tank. When the temperature of the fuel
AVGAS 100/130 green
increases, water particles from the atmosphere are absorbed to
100 LL blue
Aviation Turbine Fuels straw-coloured or maintain a saturated solution.
MOGAS P 87-90 (see NOTE 2) undyed As stated in AIR 1.3.2, water should be drained from aircraft
MOGAS R 84-87 (see NOTE 2) green fuel systems before flight. However, even with this precaution
undyed water particles in suspension will remain in the fuel. While this
is not normally a problem it becomes so when fuel cools to the
NOTES:
freezing level of water and the water particles change to ice
1. Good airmanship ensures that positive identification of the crystals. These may accumulate in fuel filters, bends in fuel
type and grade of aviation fuel is established before fuelling. lines, and in some fuel-selectors and eventually may block the
2. Transport Canada now approves the use of automotive fuel line causing an engine stoppage. Fuel anti-icing additives
gasoline for certain aircraft types under specific conditions. will inhibit ice crystal formation. Manufacturer approved
For additional information, refer to TP 10737E – Use of additives, such as ethylene-glycol-monomethyl-ether (EGME),
Automotive Gasoline (MOGAS) for General Aviation used in the prescribed manner have proven quite successful.
Aircraft, available from your TC Airworthiness Regional The aircraft manufacturer’s instructions for the use of anti-icing
office. (See GEN 1.1.2 for addresses.) fuel additives should therefore be consulted and carefully followed.
379
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Jet fuel, particularly Jet A-1, has low electrical conductivity and 1.4.2 Classification of Fires
requires time at rest to dissipate accumulated static charges.
Anti-static additives make jet fuel more conductive. The additives Table 1.2—Fire Classification
do not reduce the generation of static charges, but allow the
Class A fires: Fires in ordinary combustible materials. On
charges to be dissipated faster. Proper bonding/grounding does
these, water or solutions containing large
not eliminate the static charges accumulated in jet fuel. percentages of water are
Jet A-1 also has a low auto-ignition temperature (220°C), which most effective.
is the lowest temperature at which it will spontaneously ignite Class B fires: Fires in flammable liquids, greases, etc. On
in a normal atmosphere without an external source of ignition these a blanketing effect is essential.
(such as a flame or spark). Jet A-1 fuel spills onto hot surfaces
Class C fires: Fires in electrical equipment. On these
such as exhaust pipes or brakes can result in spontaneous ignition.
the use of a nonconducting extinguishing
agent is of
NOTES:
first importance.
1. Incidents of fuelling in enclosed spaces and/or with
inadequate bonding have resulted in death or injury. At low
1.4.3 Types of Extinguishers
temperature and humidity, a blower heater could cause
statically charged dust particles to build up and combine (a) Carbon Dioxide Extinguishers: Carbon dioxide extinguishers
with fuel vapours leading to catastrophic results. are acceptable when the principal hazard is a Class B or
Class C fire. Carbon dioxide portable installations should
2. Plastic fuel containers cannot be properly bonded or
not exceed five pounds of agent per unit to ensure extinguisher
grounded, which increases the chance of explosion and fire.
portability and to minimize crew compartment CO2
380
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AIR
upholstery fires. The size of a Halon 1211 extinguisher for
a given cubic space should not result in a concentration of 1 000 feet to the height at which the temperature becomes
more than 5%. Halon 1211 is at least twice as effective as -56.5°C and then remains constant.
CO2 and is heavier than air (so it “sinks”). Decomposed
Halon 1211 “stinks” so it is not likely to be breathed
unknowingly.
Halon 1301 is less toxic than Halon 1211 but it is also less
effective and is excellent for B or C class fires. A short-coming
appears to be the lack of a visible “stream” on discharge;
Halon 1301 turns into an invisible gas as it discharges.
381
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.5.3 Incorrect Setting on the Subscale The amount of error will be approximately 4% of the indicated
of the Altimeter altitude for every 11°C that the average temperature of the air
column between the aircraft and the “ground” differs from the
Although altimeters are calibrated using the Standard Atmosphere average temperature of the Standard Atmosphere for the same
sea level pressure of 29.92 inches of mercury, the actual sea level air column. In practice, the average temperature of the air column
pressure varies hour to hour, and place to place. To enable the is not known and “true” altitude is arrived at from knowledge
“zero” reference to be correctly set for sea level at any pressure of the outside air temperature (OAT) at flight level and use of a
within a range of 28.0 to 31.0 inches of mercury, altimeters computer. The “true” altitude found by this method will be
incorporate a controllable device and subscale. Whether a pilot reasonably accurate when the actual lapse rate is, or is near, that
inadvertently sets an incorrect pressure on the altimeter subscale of the Standard Atmosphere, i.e. 2°C per 1 000 feet. During the
or sets the correct pressure for one area and then, without altering winter when “strong” inversions in the lower levels are likely
the setting, flies to an area where the pressure differs, the result and altimeters “habitually” over-read, in any situation where
is the same – the “zero” reference to the altimeter will not be ground separation is marginal, a pilot would be well advised to
where it should be but will be “displaced” by an amount increase the altimeter error found using flight level temperature
proportional to 1 000 feet indicated altitude per 1 inch of mercury by 50%. Consider the aircraft in the above example; assume that
that the subscale setting is in error. As pressure decreases with the OAT at flight level in the vicinity of the mountain ridge was
altitude, a subscale setting that is higher than it should be will -20°C; what was the likely “true” altitude of the aircraft over
“start” the altimeter at a lower level, therefore, A TOO HIGH the mountain ridge?
SUBSCALE SETTING MEANS A TOO HIGH ALTIMETER
READING, that is the aircraft would be at a level lower than To calculate “true” altitude using a computer, the pressure altitude
the altimeter indicates; A TOO LOW SUBSCALE SETTING is required. In this case, the altimeter indicates 6 000 feet with
MEANS A TOO LOW ALTIMETER READING, that is the 29.80 inches of mercury set on the subscale, therefore, if the
aircraft would be at a level higher than the altimeter indicates. pilot altered the subscale to 29.92 inches of mercury momentarily,
As the first instance is the more dangerous, an example follows: the pilot would read a pressure altitude of 6 120 feet. Although
the indicated altitude is 6 000 feet, if the altimeter setting of the
A pilot at Airport A, 500 feet ASL, sets the altimeter to the nearest airport (B) was set, the indicated altitude would be
airport’s altimeter setting of 29.80 inches of mercury prior to 5 400 feet. With 29.20 inches of mercury set on the altimeter
departure for Airport B, 1 000 feet ASL, some 400 NM away. subscale if the aircraft was on the ground at B, the altimeter
A flight altitude of 6 000 feet is selected for the westbound flight would indicate the “true” altitude of 1 000 feet; assuming no
so as to clear a 4 800-foot mountain ridge lying across track pressure difference, it can be taken that the altimeter set to
about 40 NM from B. The pilot does not change the altimeter 29.20 inches of mercury would indicate the 1 000-foot level at
subscale reading until he makes radio contact with B when the mountain with no error due to temperature, therefore
25 NM out and receives an altimeter setting of 29.20 inches of temperature error will occur only between the 1 000-foot level
mercury. Ignoring other possible errors (see below), when the and the 5 400-foot level, i.e. 4 400 feet of airspace.
aircraft crossed the mountain ridge the actual ground clearance
was only 600 feet, not 1 200 feet as expected by the pilot. This (a) Set pressure altitude, 6 120 feet, against OAT, -20°C, in the
illustrates the importance of having the altimeter setting of the appropriate computer window.
nearest airport along the route set on the instrument. (b) Opposite 4 400 feet (44) on the inner scale read 4 020 feet
AIR
382
TC AIM March 25, 2021
sea level pressure. (If sea level pressure is not known and pressure 1.5.8 Pressure Drop
altitude is used also as indicated altitude, the resultant “true”
altitude will be the “true” altitude above the 29.92 level, wherever The “drop” in pressure associated with the increase in wind
it may be in relation to actual mean sea level). speeds extends throughout the mountain wave, that is downwind
and to “heights” well above the mountains. Isolating the altimeter
error caused solely by the mountain wave from error caused by
1.5.6 Effect of Mountains non-standard temperatures would be of little value to a pilot. Of
Winds which are deflected around large single mountain peaks main importance is that the combination of mountain waves and
or through the valleys of mountain ranges tend to increase speed non-standard temperature may result IN AN ALTIMETER
which results in a local decrease in pressure (Bernoulli’s OVERREADING BY AS MUCH AS 3 000 FT. If the aircraft
Principle). A pressure altimeter within such an airflow would in our example had been flying upwind on a windy day, the
be subject to an increased error in altitude indication by reason actual ground separation on passing over the crest of the ridge
of this decrease in pressure. This error will be present until the may well have been very small.
airflow returns to “normal” speed some distance away from the
mountain or mountain range. 1.5.9 Abnormally High Altimeter Settings
Winds blowing over a mountain range at speeds in excess of Cold dry air masses can produce barometric pressures in excess
about 50 kt and in a direction perpendicular (within 30°) to the of 31.00 in. of mercury. Because barometric readings of 31.00 in.
main axis of the mountain range often create the phenomena of mercury or higher rarely occur, most standard altimeters do
known as “Mountain” or “Standing Wave”. The effect of a not permit setting of barometric pressures above that level and
mountain wave often extends as far as 100 NM downwind of are not calibrated to indicate accurate aircraft altitude above
the mountains and to altitudes many times higher than the 31.00 in. of mercury. As a result, most aircraft altimeters cannot
mountain elevation. Although most likely to occur in the vicinity be set to provide accurate altitude readouts to the pilot in these
of high mountain ranges such as the Rockies, mountain waves situations.
have occurred in the Appalachians, elevation about 4 500 feet
ASL (the height of the ridge of our example). When aircraft operate in areas where the altimeter setting is in
excess of 31.00 in. of mercury and the aircraft altimeter cannot
Aware and the Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) cover be set above 31.00 in. of mercury, the true altitude of the aircraft
the mountain wave phenomena in some detail; however, aspects will be HIGHER than the indicated altitude.
directly affecting aircraft “altitude” follow.
Procedures for conducting flight operations in areas of abnormally
high altimeter settings are detailed in AIP Canada (ICAO)
1.5.7 Downdraft and Turbulence ENR 1.7.
Downdrafts are most severe near a mountain and at about the
same height as the top of the summit. These downdrafts may
reach an intensity of about 83 ft/s (5 000 ft/min) to the lee of
1.6 cAnADiAn runwAy friction inDex (crfi)
high mountain ranges, such as the Rockies. Although mountain
waves often generate severe turbulence, at times flight through 1.6.1 General
waves may be remarkably “smooth” even when the intensity of
AIR
The following paragraphs discuss the slippery runway problem
downdrafts and updrafts is considerable. As these smooth and suggest methods of applying runway coefficient of friction
conditions may occur at night, or when an overcast exists, or information to aircraft flight manual (AFM) data.
when no distinctive cloud has formed, the danger to aircraft is
enhanced by the lack of warning of the unusual flight conditions.
1.6.2 Reduced Runway Coefficients of Friction
Consider the circumstances of an aircraft flying parallel to a and Aircraft Performance
mountain ridge on the downwind side and entering a smooth
downdraft. Although the aircraft starts descending because of The accelerate-stop distance, landing distance and crosswind
the downdraft, as a result of the local drop in pressure associated limitations (if applicable) contained in the aircraft flight manual
with the wave, both the rate of climb indicator and the altimeter (AFM) are demonstrated in accordance with specified
will not indicate a descent until the aircraft actually descends performance criteria on runways that are bare, dry, and that have
through a layer equal to the altimeter error caused by the mountain high surface friction characteristics. Unless some factor has
wave, and, in fact, both instruments may actually indicate a been applied, these distances are only valid under similar runway
“climb” for part of this descent; thus the fact that the aircraft is conditions. Whenever a contaminant—such as water, snow or
in a downdraft may not be recognized until after the aircraft ice—is introduced to the runway surface, the effective coefficient
passes through the original flight pressure level which, in the of friction between the aircraft tire and runway is substantially
downdraft, is closer to the ground than previous to entering reduced. The stop portion of the accelerate-stop distance will
the wave. increase, the landing distance will increase and a crosswind may
present directional control difficulties. The problem has been
to identify, with some accuracy, the effect that the contaminant
has had on reducing the runway coefficient of friction and to
provide meaningful information to the pilot, e.g. how much more
383
TC AIM March 25, 2021
runway is needed to stop and what maximum crosswind can be (c) when a significant change in a runway surface condition
accepted. occurs;
(d) following every accident or incident in which winter
1.6.3 Description of Canadian Runway Friction conditions may have been a factor; and
Index (CRFI) and Method of Measurement (e) whenever the cleared width of the runway falls below full
The decelerometer is an instrument mounted in a test vehicle width.
that measures the decelerating forces acting on the vehicle when When available, a CRFI reading will be issued along with the
the brakes are applied. The instrument is graduated in increments RSC in order to provide an overall descriptive picture of the
from 0 to 1, the highest number being equivalent to the theoretical runway condition and to quantify braking action. Due to
maximum decelerating capability of the vehicle on a dry surface. mechanical and operational limitations, the runway friction
These numbers are referred to as the CRFI. It is evident that readings produced by decelerometers may be inaccurate under
small numbers represent low braking coefficients of friction certain surface conditions. As a result, runway friction readings
while numbers on the order of 0.8 and above indicate the braking will be taken and a CRFI will be provided to ATS or to pilots
coefficients to be expected on dry runways. only when any of the following conditions are present:
The brakes are applied on the test vehicle at 300-m (1 000-ft) (a) ice;
intervals along the runway within a distance of 10 m (30 ft) from
each side of the runway centreline at that distance from the (b) wet ice consisting of a thin film of water on ice;
centreline where the majority of aircraft operations take place (c) compacted snow;
at each given site. The readings taken are averaged and reported
(d) slush on ice;
as the CRFI number.
(e) dry snow not exceeding 2.5 cm (1 in.) in depth;
1.6.4 Description of Canadian Runway Friction (f) de-icing chemical solution or sand on ice; or
Index (CRFI) Reporting Method (g) frost.
Where an airport receives aeroplane operations in an air transport An RSC report must be issued for each CRFI measurement
service under Subpart 5 of Part VII of the CARs, CRFI is reported provided.
by runway thirds for runways greater than or equal to 1 829 m
(6 000 ft) in length. The following changes relating to runway conditions are
considered significant:
CRFI may be reported by runway thirds for runways less than
1 829 m (6 000 ft) in length where the aerodrome is equipped (a) any change in the RWYCC (if applicable);
to do so; however, CRFI will be reported by full runway lengths (b) a CRFI change of 0.05 or more;
as a default.
(c) any change in the contaminant type;
The aerodrome’s airport winter maintenance plan should be
(d) any change of 20% or more in the reportable contaminant
consulted for the latest information on CRFI reporting
coverage;
methodology for a given runway.
AIR
384
TC AIM March 25, 2021
When clearing is not underway or expected to begin within the substantial difference between the take-off and landing roll
next 30 minutes, a notation such as “Clearing expected to start aircraft performance under the same runway conditions. The
at (time in UTC)” will be added to the RSC report. When the minimum speed, in knots, at which hydroplaning will commence
meteorological conditions cause runway surface conditions to can be calculated by multiplying the square root of the tire pressure
change frequently, the RSC NOTAM will include the agency (PSI) by 7.7 for a non-rotating tire, or by 9 for a rotating tire.
and telephone number to contact for the current runway conditions.
This equation gives an approximation of the minimum speed
The full range of RSC/CRFI information will be available as a necessary to hydroplane on a smooth, wet surface with tires that
voice advisory from the control tower at controlled aerodromes are bald or have no tread. For example, the minimum hydroplaning
and from the FSS at uncontrolled aerodromes. speeds for an aircraft with tires inflated to 49 PSI are calculated
as:
Each new RSC NOTAM (AMSCR report) issued supersedes
the previous report for that aerodrome. An RSC NOTAM is Non-rotating tire: 7.7 X √49 = 54 kt; or
valid for 8 hours or 24 hours, based on the most recent observation
Rotating tire: 9 X √49 = 63 kt
of either the RSC or CRFI, after which time it is removed from
the database. An RSC NOTAM may also be cancelled if the When hydroplaning occurs, the aircraft’s tires are completely
reporting requirements are no longer met or the RSC NOTAM separated from the actual runway surface by a thin water film
was issued in error. and they will continue to hydroplane until a reduction in speed
permits the tires to regain contact with the runway. This speed
NOTE: will be considerably lower than the speed at which hydroplaning
The absence of an RSC NOTAM in no way indicates that runway commences. Under these conditions, the tire traction drops to
conditions are acceptable for operations. almost negligible values, and in some cases, the wheel will stop
rotating entirely. The tires will provide no braking capability
The CRFI portion of the report is titled ADDN NON-GRF/ and will not contribute to the directional control of the aircraft.
TALPA INFO: and is in the following format: title (CRFI), The resultant increase in stopping distance is impossible to
runway number, temperature (in degrees Celsius), runway CRFI predict accurately, but it has been estimated to increase as much
reading by full runway length or by runway thirds, and the as 700 percent. Further, it is known that a 10-kt crosswind will
observation time of the report using the 10-digit date-time group drift an aircraft off the side of a 200-ft wide runway in
format in UTC (YYMMDDHHMM). approximately 7 sec under hydroplaning conditions.
An RSC NOTAM is issued based on reporting requirements Notwithstanding the fact that friction values cannot be given
rather than on dissemination criteria. Therefore, conditions such for a wet runway and that hydroplaning can cause pilots serious
as “dry” or “wet” will be disseminated if reported. difficulties, it has been found that, under light or moderate rain
Information on taxiways and aprons, although not mandatory, conditions, well-drained runways seldom accumulate sufficient
can be disseminated in an RSC NOTAM if deemed to have an standing water for hydroplaning to occur.
impact on safe operations.
1.6.7 Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI)
1.6.6 Wet Runways Application to Aircraft Performance
AIR
Runway friction values are currently not provided during the The information contained in Tables 1 and 2 has been compiled
summer and when it is raining. Consequently, some discussion and is considered to be the best data available at this time because
of wet runways is in order to assist pilots in developing handling it is based upon extensive field test performance data of aircraft
procedures when these conditions are encountered. braking on winter-contaminated surfaces. The information
should provide a useful guide to pilots when estimating aircraft
A packed-snow or ice condition at a fixed temperature presents
performance under adverse runway conditions. The onus for the
a relatively constant coefficient of friction with speed, but this
production of information, guidance or advice on the operation
is not the case for a liquid (water or slush) state. This is because
of aircraft on a wet and/or contaminated runway rests with the
water cannot be completely squeezed out from between the tire
aircraft manufacturer. The information published in the TC AIM
and the runway and, as a result, there is only partial tire-to-
does not change, create any additional, authorize changes in, or
runway contact. As the aircraft speed is increased, the time in
permit deviations from regulatory requirements. These Tables are
contact is reduced further, thus braking friction coefficients on
intended to be used at the pilot’s discretion.
wet surfaces fall as the speed increases, i.e. the conditions in
effect become relatively more slippery, but will improve again Because of the many variables associated with computing
as the aircraft slows down. The situation is further complicated accelerate-stop distances and balanced field lengths, it has not
by the susceptibility of aircraft tires to hydroplane on wet runways. been possible to reduce the available data to the point where
CRFI corrections can be provided, which would be applicable
Hydroplaning is a function of the water depth, tire pressure and
to all types of operations. Consequently, only corrections for
speed. Moreover, the minimum speed at which a non-rotating
landing distances and crosswinds are included pending further
tire will begin to hydroplane is lower than the speed at which a
study of the take-off problem.
rotating tire will begin to hydroplane because a build up of water
under the non-rotating tire increases the hydroplaning effect. It should be noted that in all cases the Tables are based on
Pilots should therefore be aware of this since it will result in a corrections to aircraft flight manual (AFM) dry runway data
385
TC AIM March 25, 2021
386
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AIR
(b) Table 1 will also be conservative for turbojet- and turboprop-
powered aeroplanes with reverse thrust, and additionally, in
the case of turboprop-powered aeroplanes, with the effect
obtained from discing.
(c) The recommended landing distances in CRFI Table 1 are
based on standard pilot techniques for the minimum distance
landings from 50 ft, including a stabilized approach at VRef
using a glide slope of 3° to 50 ft or lower, a firm touchdown,
minimum delay to nose lowering, minimum delay time to
deployment of ground lift dump devices and application of
brakes, and sustained maximum antiskid braking until
stopped.
(d) Landing field length is the landing distance divided by 0.6
(turbojets) or 0.7 (turboprops). If the aircraft f light
manual (AFM) expresses landing performance in terms of
landing distance, enter the Table from the left-hand column.
However, if the AFM expresses landing performance in
terms of landing field length, enter the Table from one of
the right-hand columns, after first verifying which factor
has been used in the AFM.
387
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Landing Landing
Landing
Field Field
Distance 0.60 0.55 0.50 0.45 0.40 0.35 0.30 0.27 0.25 0.22 0.20 0.18 Length Length
(Feet) Dry
(Feet) Dry (Feet) Dry
60% 70%
Unfactored Recommended Landing Distances (Discing/Reverse Thrust)
Factor Factor
1 200 2 000 2 040 2 080 2 120 2 170 2 220 2 280 2 340 2 380 2 440 2 490 2 540 2 000 1 714
1 400 2 340 2 390 2 440 2 500 2 580 2 660 2 750 2 820 2 870 2 950 3 010 3 080 2 333 2 000
1 600 2 670 2 730 2 800 2 880 2 970 3 070 3 190 3 280 3 360 3 460 3 540 3 630 2 667 2 286
1 800 3 010 3 080 3 160 3 250 3 350 3 480 3 630 3 730 3 810 3 930 4 030 4 130 3 000 2 571
2 000 3 340 3 420 3 520 3 620 3 740 3 880 4 050 4 170 4 260 4 400 4 510 4 630 3 333 2 857
2 200 3 570 3 660 3 760 3 880 4 020 4 170 4 360 4 490 4 590 4 750 4 870 5 000 3 667 3 143
2 400 3 900 4 000 4 110 4 230 4 380 4 550 4 750 4 880 4 980 5 150 5 270 5 410 4 000 3 429
2 600 4 200 4 300 4 420 4 560 4 710 4 890 5 100 5 240 5 350 5 520 5 650 5 790 4 333 3 714
2 800 4 460 4 570 4 700 4 840 5 000 5 190 5 410 5 560 5 670 5 850 5 980 6 130 4 667 4 000
3 000 4 740 4 860 5 000 5 160 5 340 5 550 5 790 5 950 6 070 6 270 6 420 6 580 5 000 4 286
3 200 5 080 5 220 5 370 5 550 5 740 5 970 6 240 6 420 6 560 6 770 6 940 7 110 5 333 4 571
3 400 5 350 5 500 5 660 5 850 6 060 6 310 6 590 6 790 6 930 7 170 7 340 7 530 5 667 4 857
3 600 5 620 5 780 5 960 6 160 6 390 6 650 6 960 7 170 7 320 7 570 7 750 7 950 6 000 5 143
3 800 5 890 6 060 6 250 6 460 6 700 6 980 7 310 7 540 7 700 7 970 8 160 8 380 6 333 5 429
4 000 6 070 6 250 6 440 6 660 6 910 7 210 7 540 7 780 7 950 8 220 8 430 8 650 6 667 5 714
Application of the CRFI (c) The recommended landing distances in CRFI Table 2 are
(a) The recommended landing distances in Table 2 are based based on standard pilot techniques for the minimum distance
on a 95 percent level of confidence. A 95 percent level of landings from 50 ft, including a stabilized approach at VRef
confidence means that in more than 19 landings out of 20, using a glide slope of 3° to 50 ft or lower, a firm touchdown,
the stated distance in Table 2 will be conservative for properly minimum delay to nose lowering, minimum delay time to
executed landings with all systems serviceable on runway deployment of ground lift dump devices and application of
AIR
surfaces with the reported CRFI. brakes and discing and/or reverse thrust, and sustained
maximum antiskid braking until stopped. In Table 2, the
(b) The recommended landing distances in Table 2 take into air distance from the screen height of 50 ft to touchdown
account the reduction in landing distances obtained with and the delay distance from touchdown to the application
the use of discing and/or reverse thrust capability for a of full braking remain unchanged from Table 1. The effects
turboprop-powered aeroplane and with the use of reverse of discing/reverse thrust were used only to reduce the
thrust for a turbojet-powered aeroplane. Table 2 is based stopping distance from the application of full braking to a
on the landing distances recommended in Table 1 with complete stop.
additional calculations that give credit for discing
and/or reverse thrust. Representative low values of discing (d) Landing field length is the landing distance divided by 0.6
and/or reverse thrust effect have been assumed, hence the (turbojets) or 0.7 (turboprops). If the AFM expresses landing
data will be conservative for properly executed landings by performance in terms of landing distance, enter the Table from
some aeroplanes with highly effective discing and/or thrust the left-hand column. However, if the AFM expresses landing
reversing systems. performance in terms of landing field length, enter the
Table from one of the right-hand columns, after first verifying
which factor has been used in the AFM.
388
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Figure 1.1—Crosswind Limits for CRFI The wind is 40° off the runway heading and produces a headwind
component of l5 kt and a crosswind component of l3 kt. The
recommended minimum CRFI for a l3-kt crosswind component
is .35. A takeoff or landing with a CRFI of .3 could result in
uncontrollable drifting and yawing.
The CRFI depends on the surface type, as shown in Table 4a.
It should be noted that:
(a) the CRFI values given in Table 4a are applicable to all
temperatures. Extensive measurements have shown that
there is no correlation between the CRFI and the surface
temperature. The case where the surface temperature is just
at the melting point (i.e. about 0°C) may be an exception,
as a water film may form from surface melting, which could
induce slippery conditions with CRFIs less than those in
Table 4a.
(b) the CRFI may span a range of values for various reasons,
such as variations in texture among surfaces within a given
surface class. The expected maximum and minimum CRFIs
for various surfaces are listed in Table 4b. Note that these
values are based on a combination of analyses of extensive
measurements and sound engineering judgment.
(c) the largest range in CRFI is to be expected for a thin layer
(3 mm or less in thickness) of dry snow on pavement
This chart provides information for calculating headwind and
(Table 4a). This variation may occur due to:
crosswind components. The vertical lines indicate the
(i) non-uniform snow coverage; and/or
recommended maximum crosswind component for reported CRFI.
(ii) the tires breaking through the thin layer.
Example:
In either case, the surface presented to the aircraft may range
CYOW CRFI 07/25 -4C .30 1201191200 from snow to pavement.
Tower Wind 110° 20 kt.
The range is the 95 percent confidence interval of a large set of measured data
AIR
snow depth greater than 3 mm to 25 mm
0.19 0.37 Dry snow on packed snow
snow depth 3 mm or less
on Various Substrates
0.12 0.31
snow depth greater than 3 mm to 25 mm
Dry Snow
0.12 0.25
snow depth 3 mm or less
Dry snow on ice
0.08 0.27
0.23 0.47
Bare ice
0.07 0.22
0 .1 .2 .3 .4 .5 .6 .7 .8 .9 1
Minimum braking CRFI Maximum braking
389
TC AIM March 25, 2021
1.7 Jet AnD ProPeller BlASt DAnger ground idle and take-off thrust settings, as some of the distances
shown in Figure 1.1 may need to be increased significantly. Pilots
Jet aircraft are classified into three categories according to engine should exercise caution when operating near active runways and
size. The danger areas are similar to those shown in Figure 1.1 taxiways. With the use of intersecting runways, there is an increased
and are used by ground control personnel and pilots. The danger possibility of jet blast or propeller wash affecting other aircraft at
areas have been determined for ground idle and take-off thrust the aerodrome. This can occur while both aircraft are on the
settings associated with each category. ground or about to take off or land. Pilots taxiing in close proximity
As newer aircraft are designed to handle more weight, larger to active runways should be careful when their jet blast or propeller
engines are being used. Executive jets may have thrusts of up to wash is directed towards an active runway. Pilots operating behind
15 000 lb; medium jets may have thrusts of up to 35 000 lb; and a large aircraft, whether on the ground or in the take-off or landing
some jumbo jets now have thrusts in excess of 100 000 lb. Therefore, phase, should be aware of the possibility of encountering localized
caution should be used when interpreting the danger areas for high wind velocities.
200 ft
450 ft 1 200 ft
600 ft 1 600 ft
500 ft
250 ft 80 ft
150 ft
275 ft
390
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3. Proceed to next
1.8 mArShAlling SignAlS marshaller as directed by
Marshalling signals for the guidance of aircraft on the ground tower/ground control
are set out in section 5 of ICAO Annex 2. These signals should Point both arms upward; move
be used in order to standardize signalling between ground and and extend arms outward to
flight personnel when required for aircraft entering, departing sides of body and point with
wands to direction of next
or manoeuvring within the movement area of an aerodrome.
marshaller or taxi area.
NOTES:
AIR
1. Marshalling signals are designed for use by the marshaller, 4.
with hands illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation Straight ahead
by the pilot, and facing the aircraft in a position: Bend extended arms at elbows
and move wands up and down
(a) for fixed-wing aircraft, on the left side of the aircraft, from chest height to head.
where best seen by the pilot; and
(b) for helicopters, where the marshaller can best be seen
by the pilot.
2. The aircraft engines are numbered from left to right, with
the No. 1 engine being the left outer engine. That is right
to left for a marshaller facing the aircraft. 5. a) Turn left (from pilot’s
3. Signals marked with an asterisk (*) are designed for use point of view)
with hovering helicopters. With right arm and wand
extended at a 90-degree angle
to body, make “come ahead”
signal with left hand. The rate
of signal motion indicates to
pilot the rate of aircraft turn.
391
TC AIM March 25, 2021
392
TC AIM March 25, 2021
*20. Land
15. Affirmative/all clear Cross arms with wands
Raise right arm to head level downwards and in front
with wand pointing up or of body.
display hand with “thumbs
up”; left arm remains at side
by knee.
NOTE:This signal is also used
as a technical/servicing
communication signal.
21. Fire
*16. Hover Move right-hand wand in
Fully extend arms and wands a “fanning” motion from
at a 90-degree angle to sides. shoulder to knee, while at the
same time pointing with left-
hand wand to area of fire.
22.
AIR
Hold position/stand by
*17. Move upwards Fully extend arms and wands
Fully extend arms and wands downwards at a 45-degree
at a 90-degree angle to sides angle to sides. Hold position
and, with palms turned up, until aircraft is clear for
move hands upwards. Speed next manoeuvre.
of movement indicates rate of
ascent.
23. Dispatch aircraft
Perform a standard salute
*18. with right hand and/or wand
Move downwards to dispatch the aircraft.
Fully extend arms and wands Maintain eye contact with
at a 90-degree angle to sides flight crew until aircraft has
and, with palms turned down, begun to taxi.
move hands down-wards.
Speed of movement indicates
rate of descent.
393
TC AIM March 25, 2021
394
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AIR
WORLD WIDE
+30º Approximative
upper limits of
dew point
Table 2.1—Example of an Aircraft With Serious icing—any power
+20º
NW EUROPE
a Stalling Speed of 60 MPH
D
OU
PERMISSIBLE
WIND-DEGREE Serious icing—
WIND SPEEDS descent power 0º Dew point (°C)
Light icing—cruise
90° (0.2 x 60 MPH stalling speed) 12 MPH or descent power
y
-10º
dit
mi
Hu
%
%
20
0%
lat
%
60
40
-20º
80
10
Re
395
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.4 low flying Guard wires do not sag the way the main conductors do and are
difficult to pick out even in good visibility. The only way to be
Before conducting any low flying, the pilot should be clear about safe is to avoid the span portion of the line and always cross at
the purpose and legality of the exercise. Accordingly, all a tower, maintaining a safe altitude, with as much clearance as
preparations in terms of assessment of the terrain to be overflown, possible.
weather, aircraft performance, and selection of appropriate charts
are important to the successful completion of the flight. (a) When following power lines, remain on the right-hand side
relative to your direction of flight and watch for cross lines
All known objects 300 feet or more AGL (or lower ones if deemed and guy cables.
hazardous) are depicted on visual navigational charts. However,
because there is only limited knowledge over the erection of (b) Expect radio and electrical interference in the vicinity of
man-made objects, there can be no guarantee that all such power lines.
structures are known, and accordingly, an additional risk is (c) For operational low flying, do an overflight and map
added to the already hazardous practice of low flying. check first.
Further, even though structures assessed as potential hazards (d) Leave yourself an “out”—cross at 45 degrees to the line.
to air navigation are required to be marked, including special (e) Reduce speed in low visibility (for VFR—one mile visibility;
high intensity strobe lighting for all structures 500 ft AGL and clear of cloud; 165 KIAS max.).
higher, the majority of aircraft collisions with man-made
structures occur at levels below 300 ft AGL (See Obstruction Warning— Intent ional low f ly ing is hazardous.
Markings – AGA 6.0). Transport Canada advises all pilots that low flying for weather
avoidance or operational requirements is a high-risk activity.
Another concern to low flying is the blasting operations associated
with the logging industry. The trajectory of debris from the
blasting varies with the type of explosives, substance being 2.4.2 Logging Operations
excavated and the canopy of trees, if any. These blasting activities Extensive use is made in logging operations of equipment
may or may not be advertised by NOTAM. potentially hazardous to aircraft operations. These include
highlead spars, grapple yarders and skyline cranes.
2.4.1 Flying Near Power Lines When highlead spars or grapple yarders are used, hauling and
Main power lines are easy to see, but when flying in their vicinity guyline cables radiate from the top of the spar or boom. Cables
you must take the time to look for what is really there and then may cross small valleys or be anchored on side hills behind the
use safe procedures. Remember, the human eye is limited, so if spar. While spars generally do not exceed 130 ft AGL and are
the background landscape does not provide sufficient contrast conspicuously painted, the cable system may be difficult to see.
you will not see a wire or cable. Although hydro structures are This type of equipment operates from a series of logging roads.
big and generally quite visible, a hidden danger exists in the
wires around them. Figure 2.4—Highlead Spar
HAUL CABLES
Flying Near Power Lines
cross much smaller cross
here Lighting Protection Wire here
nearly invisible
tower
side view
main conductors
very visible
By contrast, skyline cranes consist of a single skyline cable
guy wires guy wires anchored at the top and bottom of a long slope and supported
by one or several intermediate poles. This cable generally follows
The figure shown above emphasizes this point. The main the slope contour about 100 ft AGL, but may also cross draws
conductor cluster is made up of several heavy wires. These and gullies and may be at heights in excess of 100 ft AGL.
heavy, sagging conductors are about two inches in diameter and Skyline cables are virtually invisible from the air. Their presence
very visible, so they tend to distract one from seeing the guard is indicated by active or recently completed logging and the
or lightning protection wires, which are of much smaller diameter. absence of a defined series of logging roads, although a few
roads may be present.
396
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Figure 2.5—Skyline Crane of FL 600 and be blown downwind of the source for considerable
distances. Encounters affecting aircraft performance have
occurred 2 400 NM from the ash source and up to 72 hours after
an eruption.
Therefore: if an ash cloud is visible to a pilot, entry into the cloud
must be avoided.
The risk of entering ash in IMC or night conditions is particularly
dangerous, owing to the absence of a clear visual warning.
Therefore: if PIREPs, SIGMETs (see MET 6.0), NOTAM (see
MAP 3.0), and analysis of satellite imagery and/or ash cloud
trajectory forecasts indicate that ash might be present within a
Pilots operating in areas where logging is prevalent must be given airspace, that airspace must be avoided until it can be
aware when operating below 300 ft AGL that these types of determined to be safe for entry.
equipment exist and do not always carry standard obstruction
and paint markings. St. Elmo’s fire is usually a telltale sign of a night encounter,
although rapid onset of engine problems may be the first
indication. Pilots should exit the cloud expeditiously while
2.5 flight oPerAtionS in rAin following any engine handling instructions provided in the
An error in vision can occur when flying in rain. The presence aircraft flight manuals for such circumstances.
of rain on the windscreen, in addition to causing poor visibility, Pilots should be aware that they may be the first line of volcanic
introduces a refraction error. This error is because of two things: eruptions detection in more remote areas. In the initial phase of
firstly, the reduced transparency of the rain-covered windscreen any eruption there may be little or no information available to
causes the eye to see a horizon below the true one (because of advise pilots of the new ash hazard. If an eruption or ash cloud
the eye response to the relative brightness of the upper bright is observed, an urgent PIREP (see MET 2.5 and 2.1.1) should
part and the lower dark part); and secondly, the shape and pattern be filed with the nearest ATS unit.
of the ripples formed on the windscreen, particularly on sloping
ones, which cause objects to appear lower. The error may be
present as a result of one or other of the two causes, or of both, 2.7 flight oPerAtion neAr thunDerStormS
in which case it is cumulative and is of the order of about 5° in
angle. Therefore, a hilltop or peak 1/2 NM ahead of an aircraft 2.7.1 General
could appear to be approximately 260 ft lower, (230 ft lower at
1/2 SM) than it actually is. Thunderstorms are capable of containing nearly all weather
hazards known to aviation. These include tornadoes, turbulence,
Pilots should remember this additional hazard when flying in squall line, microburst, heavy updrafts and downdrafts, icing,
conditions of low visibility in rain and should maintain sufficient hail, lightning, precipitation static, heavy precipitation, low
altitude and take other precautions, as necessary, to allow for ceiling and visibility.
the presence of this error. Also, pilots should ensure proper
AIR
terrain clearance during en route flight and on final approach There is no useful correlation between the external visual
to landing. appearance of a thunderstorm and the severity or amount of
turbulence or hail within it. The visible thunderstorm cloud is
only a portion of a turbulent system of updrafts and downdrafts
2.6 flight oPerAtionS in volcAnic ASh that often extend far beyond. Severe turbulence may extend up
to 20 NM from severe thunderstorms.
Flight operations in volcanic ash are hazardous. Experience has
shown that damage can occur to aircraft surfaces, windshields Airborne or ground based weather radar will normally reflect
and powerplants. Aircraft heat and vent systems, as well as areas of precipitation. The frequency and severity of turbulence
hydraulic and electronic systems, can also be contaminated. associated with the areas of high water content generally increases
Powerplant failures are a common result of flight in volcanic the radar return. No flight path, through an area of strong or
ash, with turbine engines being particularly susceptible. very strong radar echoes separated by 40 NM or less, can be
Simultaneous power loss in all engines has occurred. In addition, considered free of severe turbulence.
volcanic ash is normally very heavy; accumulations of it within Turbulence beneath a thunderstorm should not be underestimated.
the wings and tail section have been encountered, with adverse This is especially true when the relative humidity is low. There
effects on aircraft weight and balance. may be nothing to see until you enter strong out-flowing winds
Aviation radar is not effective in detecting volcanic ash clouds. and severe turbulence.
There is no reliable information regarding volcanic ash The probability of lightning strikes occurring to aircraft is greatest
concentrations which might be minimally acceptable for flight. when operating at altitudes where temperatures are between
Recent data suggests that “old” volcanic ash still represents a -5°C and 5°C. Lightning can strike aircraft flying in clear air in
considerable hazard to safety of flight. Pilots are cautioned that the vicinity of a thunderstorm. Lightning can puncture the skin
ash from volcanic eruptions can rapidly reach heights in excess
397
TC AIM March 25, 2021
of an aircraft, damage electronic equipment, cause engine failure (vi) Turn up cockpit lights to its highest intensity to
and induce permanent error in magnetic compasses. minimize temporary blindness from lightning.
(vii) When using the auto-pilot, disengage the altitude
Engine Water Ingestion hold mode and the speed hold mode. The automatic
If the updraft velocity in the thunderstorm approaches or exceeds altitude and speed controls will increase manoeuvres
the terminal falling velocity of the falling raindrops, very high of the aircraft, thus increasing structural stresses.
concentrations of water may occur. It is possible that these (viii) Tilt the airborne radar antenna up and down
concentrations may exceed the quantity of water that a turbine occasionally. This may detect hail or a growing
engine is capable of ingesting. Therefore, severe thunderstorms thunderstorm cell.
may contain areas of high water concentration which could result (c) If you enter a thunderstorm:
in a flameout or structural failure of one or more engines. Note (i) Concentrate on your instruments; looking outside
that lightning can also cause compressor stalls or flameouts. increases the danger of temporary blindness
from lightning.
PIREP
(ii) Don’t change power settings; maintain the settings
Remember, a timely PIREP will allow you and others to make for turbulence penetration airspeed.
the right decision earlier. (iii) Don’t attempt to keep a constant rigid altitude; let
the aircraft “ride the waves”. Manoeuvres in trying
2.7.2 Considerations to maintain constant altitude increases stress on the
aircraft. If altitude cannot be maintained, inform
(a) Above all, never think of a thunderstorm as “light” even ATC as soon as possible.
though the radar shows echoes of light intensity. Avoiding (iv) Don’t turn back once you have entered a thunderstorm.
thunderstorms is the best policy. Remember that vivid and Maintaining heading through the storm will get you
frequent lightning indicates a severe activity in the out of the storm faster than a turn. In addition, turning
thunderstorm and that any thunderstorm with tops 35 000 ft manoeuvres increases stress on the aircraft
or higher is severe. Whenever possible:
(i) don’t land or take off when a thunderstorm is
approaching. The sudden wind shift of the gust front 2.8 low-level winD SheAr (wS)
or low-level turbulence could result in loss of control; Relatively recent meteorological studies have confirmed the
(ii) don’t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm even when existence of the “burst” phenomena. These are small-scale,
you can see through to the other side. Turbulence intense downdrafts which, on reaching the surface, spread
under the storm could be disastrous; outward from the downflow centre. This causes the presence of
(iii) avoid any area where thunderstorms are covering both vertical and horizontal wind shear (WS) that can be extremely
5/8 or more of that area; hazardous to all types and categories of aircraft.
(iv) don’t fly into a cloud mass containing embedded
thunderstorms without airborne radar; Figure 2.6—Low-Level Wind Shear
(v) avoid by at least 20 NM any thunderstorm identified
as severe or giving intense radar returns. This
AIR
398
TC AIM March 25, 2021
only warning. Alternate actions should be considered when a Figure 2.7—Wake Turbulence
wind shear has been reported.
Characteristics of microbursts include:
(a) Size - Approximately 1 NM in diameter at 2 000 ft AGL
with a horizontal extent at the surface of approximately 2 to
2 1/2 NM.
(b) Intensity - Vertical winds as high as 6 000 ft/min. Horizontal
winds giving as much as 45 kt at the surface (i.e. 90 kt
shear).
(c) Types - microbursts are normally accompanied by heavy
rain in areas where the air is very humid. However, in drier
areas, falling raindrops may have sufficient time and distance
to evaporate before reaching the ground. This is known as
VIRGA.
Vortex Strength
(d) Duration - The life-cycle of a microburst from the initial
The strength of these vortices is governed by the shape of the
downburst to dissipation will seldom be longer than 15 minutes
wings, and the weight and speed of the aircraft; the most
with maximum intensity winds lasting approximately
significant factor is weight. The greatest vortex strength occurs
2 - 4 minutes. Sometimes microbursts are concentrated into
under conditions of heavy weight, clean configuration, and slow
a line structure and under these conditions, activity may
speed. The strength of the vortex shows little dissipation at
continue for as long as an hour. Once microburst activity
altitude within 2 min of the time of initial formation. Beyond
starts, multiple microbursts in the same general area are
2 min, varying degrees of dissipation occur along the vortex
common and should be expected.
path; first in one vortex and then in the other. The break-up of
The best defence against wind shear is to avoid it altogether vortices is affected by atmospheric turbulence; the greater the
because it could be beyond your capabilities or those of your turbulence, the more rapid the dissipation of the vortices.
aircraft. However, if you do recognize WS, prompt action is
required. In all aircraft, the recovery could require full power Induced Roll
and a pitch attitude consistent with the maximum angle of attack Aircraft flying directly into the core of a vortex will tend to roll
for your aircraft. Aircraft equipped with wind shear detection with the vortex. The capability of counteracting the roll depends
and warning systems may be provided with guidance to escape on the wing span and control responsiveness of the aircraft.
WS or, in the case of Predictive Wind Shear Systems (PWSs), When the wing span and ailerons of a larger aircraft extend
to avoid it (see MET 2.3). For more information on WS, consult beyond the vortex, counter-roll control is usually effective, and
the Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E). the effect of the induced roll can be minimized. Pilots of short
If you experience WS, advise air traffic services (ATS) (see wing span aircraft must be especially alert to vortex situations,
RAC 6.1) and warn others, as soon as possible, by sending a even though their aircraft are of the high-performance type.
AIR
PIREP to the ground facility.
Helicopter Vortices
In the case of a helicopter, similar vortices are created by the
2.9 wAke turBulence rotor blades. However, the problems created are potentially
Wake turbulence is caused by wing-tip vortices and is a by-product greater than those caused by a fixed-wing aircraft because the
of lift. The higher air pressure under the wings tries to move to helicopter’s lower operating speeds produce more concentrated
the lower air pressure on top of the wings by flowing towards wakes than fixed-wing aircraft. Departing or landing helicopters
the wing tips, where it rotates and flows into the lower pressure produce a pair of high-velocity trailing vortices similar to wing-
on top of the wings. This results in a twisting rotary motion that tip vortices of large fixed-wing aircraft; the heavier the helicopter,
is very pronounced at the wing tips and continues to spill over the more intense the wake turbulence. Pilots of small aircraft
the top in a downward spiral. Therefore, the wake consists of should use caution when operating or crossing behind landing
two counter-rotating cylindrical vortices. or departing helicopters.
Vortex Avoidance
Avoid the area below and behind other aircraft, especially at low
altitude, where even a momentary wake turbulence encounter
could be disastrous.
399
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Pilots should be particularly alert in calm or light wind conditions closer than 2 500 feet, beware of possible drifting of the
where the vortices could: vortex on to your runway. Stay at or above the large aircraft’s
final approach flight path, note his touchdown point and
(a) remain in the touchdown area; land beyond if it is safe to do so.
(b) drift from aircraft operating on a nearby runway; (e) When landing after a large aircraft has departed from a
(c) sink into takeoff or landing path from a crossing runway; crossing runway, note the rotation point. If it is past the
intersection, continue the approach and land before the
(d) sink into the traffic pattern from other runway operations; intersection. If the large aircraft rotates prior to the
(e) sink into the flight path of VFR flights at 500 feet AGL and intersection, avoid flight below the large aircraft’s flight
below. path. Abandon the approach unless a landing is assured
well before reaching the intersection.
ATC will use the words “CAUTION – WAKE TURBULENCE”
to alert pilots to the possibility of wake turbulence. It is the pilots’
responsibility to adjust their operations and flight path to avoid
wake turbulence.
Air traffic controllers apply separation minima between aircraft.
See RAC 4.1.1 for these procedures which are intended to
minimize the hazards of wake turbulence.
400
TC AIM March 25, 2021
An aircraft conducting an IFR final approach should remain on (f) Wind-shift areas associated with troughs are frequently
glide path as the normally supplied separation should provide turbulent. The sharpness of the wind-shift is the important
an adequate wake turbulence buffer. However, arriving VFR factor. Also, ridge lines may also have rough air.
aircraft, while aiming to land beyond the touchdown point of a (g) In an area where significant CAT has been reported or is
preceding heavy aircraft, should be careful to remain above its forecast, it is suggested that the pilot adjust the airspeed to
flight path. If extending flight path, so as to increase the distance the recommended turbulent air penetration speed for the
behind an arriving aircraft, one should avoid the tendency to aircraft upon encountering the first ripple, since the intensity
develop a dragged-in final approach. Pilots should remember to of such turbulence may build up rapidly. In areas where
apply whatever power is required to maintain altitude until moderate or severe CAT is expected, it is desirable to adjust
reaching a normal descent path. The largest number of dangerous the airspeed prior to encountering turbulence.
encounters have been reported in the last half mile of the final
approach. Figure 2.8—Clear Air Turbulence
Be alert to adjacent large aircraft operations particularly upwind
of your runway. If an intersection takeoff clearance is received,
or parallel and cross runway operations are in progress, avoid
subsequent heading which will result in your aircraft crossing
below and behind a large aircraft.
NOTES:
1. If any of the procedures are not possible and you are on the
ground, WAIT! (2 minutes are usually sufficient). If on an
approach, consider going around for an other approach.
2. See AIR 1.7 for Jet and Propeller Blast Danger. (h) If jet stream turbulence is encountered with direct tailwinds
or headwinds, a change of flight level or course should be
initiated since these turbulent areas are elongated with the
2.10 cleAr Air turBulence (cAt) wind but are shallow and narrow. A turn to the south in the
These rules of thumb are given to assist pilots in avoiding clear Northern Hemisphere will place the aircraft in a more
air turbulence (CAT). They apply to westerly jet streams. The favourable area. If a turn is not feasible because of airway
Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E) available from restrictions, a climb or descent to the next flight level will
Transport Canada discusses this subject more thoroughly. usually result in smoother air.
(a) Jet streams stronger than 110 kt (at the core) have areas of (i) When jet stream turbulence is encountered in a crosswind
significant turbulence near them in the sloping tropopause situation, pilots wanting to cross the CAT area more quickly
above the core, in the jet stream front below the core and should, either climb or descend based on temperature change.
on the low-pressure side of the core. If temperature is rising – climb; if temperature is falling -
(b) Wind shear and its accompanying CAT in jet streams is descend. This will prevent following the sloping tropopause
or frontal surface and staying in the turbulent area. If the
AIR
more intense above and to the lee of mountain ranges. For
this reason, CAT should be anticipated whenever the flight temperature remains constant, either climb or descend.
path crosses a strong jet stream in the vicinity of a mountain (j) If turbulence is encountered with an abrupt wind-shift
range. associated with a sharp pressure trough, a course should be
(c) On charts for standard isobaric surfaces such as the 250 mbs established to cross the trough rather than to fly parallel to
charts, 30 kt isotachs spaced closer than 90 NM indicate it. A change in flight level is not as likely to reduce turbulence.
sufficient horizontal shear for CAT. This area is normally (k) If turbulence is expected because of penetration of a sloping
on the north (low-pressure) side of the jet stream axis, but tropopause, pilots should refer to the temperature. The
in unusual cases may occur on the south side. tropopause is where the temperature stops decreasing.
(d) CAT is also related to vertical shear. From the wind-aloft Turbulence will be most pronounced in the temperature-
charts or reports, compute the vertical shear in knots-per- change zone on the stratospheric side of the sloping
thousand feet. Turbulence is likely when the shear is greater tropopause.
than 5 kt per thousand feet. Since vertical shear is related (l) Both vertical and horizontal wind shear are greatly intensified
to horizontal temperature gradient, the spacing of isotherms in mountain wave conditions. Therefore, when the flight
on an upper air chart is significant. If the 5°C isotherms are path crosses a mountain wave, it is desirable to fly at
closer together than 2° of latitude (120 NM), there is usually turbulence-penetration speed and avoid flight over areas
sufficient vertical shear for turbulence. where the terrain drops abruptly. There may be no lenticular
(e) Curving jet streams are more apt to have turbulent edges clouds associated with the mountain wave.
than straight ones, especially jet streams which curve around
a deep pressure trough.
401
TC AIM March 25, 2021
This procedure should be practised to give the pilot full confidence. regulations, and depends on whether or not the operator has
It is recommended that the same procedure be used for unbroken an approved Operator’s Ground Icing Operations Program
snow conditions. using the Ground Icing Operations Standard as specified
in CAR 602.11 – Operating and Flight Rules Standards.
2.12 flight oPerAtionS in winter The reasons for the regulations are straightforward. The
degradation in aircraft performance and changes in flight
characteristics when frozen contaminants are present are
2.12.1 General wide ranging and unpredictable. Contamination makes no
The continuing number of accidents involving all types and distinction between large aircraft, small aircraft or
classes of aircraft indicates that misconceptions exist regarding helicopters, the performance penalites and dangers are just
the effect on performance of frost, snow or ice accumulation on as real.
aircraft. The significance of these effects are such that takeoff should
Most commercial transport aircraft, as well as some other aircraft not be attempted unless the pilot-in-command has determined,
types, have demonstrated some capability to fly in icing conditions as required by the CARs, that frost ice or snow contamination
and have been so certified. This capacity is provided by installing is not adhering to any aircraft critical surfaces.
de-icing or anti-icing equipment on or in critical areas of (b) Critical Surfaces: Critical surfaces of an aircraft mean the
equipment, such as the leading edges of the wings and empennage, wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal
engine cowls, compressor inlets, propellers, stall warning devices, stabilizers, vertical stabilizers or any other stabilizing surface
windshields and pitots. However, this equipment does not provide of an aircraft which, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-
any means of de-icing or anti-icing the wings or empennage of mounted engines, includes the upper surface of its fuselage.
an aircraft that is on the ground.
Flight safety during ground operations in conditions
conducive to frost, ice or snow contamination requires a
2.12.1.1 Fan Blade Ice Shedding Procedure knowledge of:
(a) General (i) adverse effects of frost, ice or snow on aircraft
Ice intake on high bypass jet engines has the potential to cause performance and flight characteristics, which are
significant fan blade damage. generally reflected in the form of decreased thrust,
decreased lift, increased drag, increased stall speed,
The Fan Blade Ice Shedding Procedure may be applied by aircrew trim changes, altered stall characteristics and
during conditions of freezing rain, freezing drizzle, freezing handling qualities;
fog or heavy snow. (ii) various procedures available for aircraft ground
Weather conditions of 1 SM visibility or less in snow or blowing de-icing and anti-icing, and the capabilities and
snow are considered high risk blade damage conditions. limitations of these procedures in various weather
conditions, including the use and effectiveness of
If icing conditions exceed 30 min or if significant engine vibration freezing point depressant (FPD) fluids;
occurs, the engines may be accelerated for approximately 30 s (iii) holdover time, which is the estimated time that an
prior to higher thrust operations. This may occur just prior to
AIR
application of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid
takeoff to check engine parameters and ensure normal engine is effective in preventing frost, ice, or snow from
operation. adhering to treated surfaces. Holdover time is
(b) Pilot Requirements calculated as beginning at the start of the final
application of an approved de-icing/anti-icing fluid
It is imperative that aircrew inform ATS of the intent to perform
and as expiring when the fluid is no longer effective.
this procedure, prior to entering an active runway.
The fluid is no longer effective when its ability to
Prior to approaching the active runway holding position, pilots absorb more precipitation has been exceeded. This
should advise ATS that they will require extra time on the runway produces a visible surface build-up of contamination.
threshold for ice shedding or any other potential delay. Recognition that final assurance of a safe takeoff
rests in the pre-takeoff inspection.
This information is required to ensure a timely departure and
to prevent an arriving flight from conducting an unplanned (c) The Clean Aircraft Concept: CARs prohibit takeoff when
missed approach. frost, ice or snow is adhering to any critical surface of the
aircraft. This is referred to as “The Clean Aircraft Concept”.
2.12.2 Aircraft Contamination on the Ground – It is imperative that takeoff not be attempted in any aircraft
Frost, Ice or Snow unless the pilot-in-command has determined that all critical
components of the aircraft are free of frost, ice or snow
(a) General Information: Where frost, ice or snow may reasonably
contamination. This requirement may be met if the pilot-in-
be expected to adhere to the aircraft, the Canadian Aviation
command obtains verification from properly trained and
Regulations require that an inspection or inspections be
qualified personnel that the aircraft is ready for flight.
made before takeoff or attempted takeoff. The type and
minimum number of inspections is indicated by the (d) Frozen Contaminants: Test data indicate that frost, ice or
403
TC AIM March 25, 2021
snow formations having a thickness and surface roughness Clear ice formations could break loose at rotation or during
similar to medium or coarse sandpaper, on the leading edge flight, causing engine damage on some aircraft types,
and upper surface of a wing, can reduce wing lift by as primarily those with rear-mounted engines. A layer of slush
much as 30% and increase drag by 40%. Even small amounts on the wing can also hide a dangerous sheet of ice beneath.
of contaminants have caused (and continue to cause) aircraft The formation of ice on the wing is dependent on the type,
accidents which result in substantial damage and loss of depth and liquid content of precipitation, ambient air
life. A significant part of the loss of lift can be attributed temperature and wing surface temperature. The following
to leading edge contamination. The changes in lift and drag factors contribute to the formation intensity and the final
significantly increase stall speed, reduce controllability, thickness of the clear ice layer:
and alter aircraft flight characteristics. Thicker or rougher
(i) low temperature of the fuel uplifted by the aircraft
frozen contaminants can have increasing effects on lift,
during a ground stop and/or the long airborne time
drag, stall speed, stability and control.
of the previous flight, resulting in a situation that
More than 30 factors have been identified that can influence the remaining fuel in the wing tanks is subzero. Fuel
whether frost, ice or snow will accumulate, cause surface temperature drops of up to 18°C have been recorded
roughness on an aircraft and affect the anti-icing properties after a flight of two hours;
of freezing point depressant fluids. These factors include (ii) an abnormally large amount of cold fuel remaining
ambient temperature; aircraft surface temperature; the in the wing tanks causing fuel to come in contact
de-icing and anti-icing f luid type, temperature and with the wing upper surface panels, especially in
concentration; relative humidity; and wind speed and the wing root area;
direction. Because many factors affect the accumulation of (iii) weather conditions at the ground stop, wet snow,
frozen contaminants on the aircraft surface, holdover times drizzle or rain with the ambient temperature around
for freezing point depressant fluids should be considered 0°C is very critical. Heavy freezing has been reported
as guidelines only, unless the operator’s ground icing during drizzle or rain even in a temperature range
operations program allows otherwise. between +8° to +14°C.
The type of frost, ice or snow that can accumulate on an As well, cold-soaking can cause frost to form on the upper
aircraft while on the ground is a key factor in determining and lower wing under conditions of high relative humidity.
the type of de-icing/anti-icing procedures that should be used. This is one type of contamination that can occur in above-
Where conditions are such that ice or snow may reasonably freezing weather at airports where there is normally no need
be expected to adhere to the aircraft, it must be removed for de-icing equipment, or where the equipment is deactivated
before takeoff. Dry, powdery snow can be removed by for the summer. This contamination typically occurs where
blowing cold air or compressed nitrogen gas across the the fuel in the wing tanks becomes cold-soaked to below-
aircraft surface. In some circumstances, a shop broom could freezing temperatures because of low temperature fuel
be employed to clean certain areas accessible from the uplifted during the previous stop, or cruising at altitudes
ground. Heavy, wet snow or ice can be removed by placing where low temperatures are encountered, or both, and a
the aircraft in a heated hangar, by using solutions of heated normal descent is made into a region of high humidity.
freezing point depressant fluids and water, by mechanical In such instances, frost will form on the under and upper
AIR
means (such as brooms or squeegees), or a combination of sides of the fuel tank region during the ground turn-around
all three methods. Should the aircraft be placed in a heated time, and tends to re-form quickly even when removed.
hanger, ensure it is completely dry when moved outside;
Frost initially forms as individual grains about 0.004 of an
otherwise, pooled water may refreeze in critical areas or
inch in diameter. Additional build-up comes through grain
on critical surfaces.
growth from 0.010 to 0.015 of an inch in diameter, grain
A frost that forms overnight must be removed from the layering, and the formation of frost needles. Available test
critical surfaces before takeoff. Frost can be removed by data indicate that this roughness on the wing lower surface
placing the aircraft in a heated hangar or by other normal will have no significant effect on lift, but it may increase
de–icing procedures. drag and thereby decrease climb gradient capability which
(e) The Cold-Soaking Phenomenon: Where fuel tanks are located results in a second segment limiting weight penalty.
in the wings of aircraft, the temperature of the fuel greatly Skin temperature should be increased to preclude formation
affects the temperature of the wing surface above and below of ice or frost prior to take-off. This is often possible by
these tanks. After a flight, the temperature of an aircraft refuelling with warm fuel or using hot freezing point
and the fuel carried in the wing tanks may be considerably depressant fluids, or both.
colder than the ambient temperature. An aircraft’s cold-
In any case, ice or frost formations on upper or lower wing
soaked wings conduct heat away from precipitation so that,
surfaces must be removed prior to takeoff. The exception
depending on a number of factors, clear ice may form on
is that takeoff may be made with frost adhering to the
some aircraft, particularly on wing areas above the fuel
underside of the wings provided it is conducted in accordance
tanks. Such ice is difficult to see and, in many instances,
with the aircraft manufacturer’s instructions.
cannot be detected other than by touch with the bare hand
or by means of a special purpose ice detector. (f) De-Icing and Anti-Icing Fluids: Frozen contaminants are
404
TC AIM March 25, 2021
most often removed in commercial operations by using however, this residue should be cleaned periodically.
freezing point depressant fluids. There are a number of SAE and ISO Type II fluids contain no less than 50% glycol
freezing point depressant fluids available for use on and have a minimum freeze point of -32°C. They are
commercial aircraft and, to a lesser extent, on general aviation considered “thickened” because of added thickening agents
aircraft. De-icing and anti-icing fluids should not be used that enable the fluid to be deposited in a thicker film and
unless approved by the aircraft manufacturer. to remain on the aircraft surfaces until the time of takeoff.
Although freezing point depressant fluids are highly soluble These fluids are used for de-icing (when heated) and anti-
in water, they absorb or melt ice slowly. If frost, ice or snow icing. Type II fluids provide greater protection (holdover
is adhering to an aircraft surface, the accumulation can be time) than do Type I fluids against frost, ice or snow
melted by repeated application of proper quantities of formation in conditions conducive to aircraft icing on the
freezing point depressant fluid. As the ice melts, the freezing ground.
point depressant mixes with the water, thereby diluting the These fluids are effective anti-icers because of their high
freezing point depressant. As dilution occurs, the resulting viscosity and pseudoplastic behaviour. They are designed
mixture may begin to run off the aircraft. If all the ice is to remain on the wings of an aircraft during ground operations
not melted, additional application of freezing point depressant or short-term storage, thereby providing some anti-icing
becomes necessary until the fluid penetrates to the aircraft protection and will readily flow off the wings during takeoff.
surface. When all the ice has melted, the remaining liquid When these fluids are subjected to shear stress (such as that
residue is a mixture of freezing point depressant and water experienced during a takeoff run), their viscosity decreases
at an unknown concentration. The resulting film could drastically, allowing the fluids to flow off the wings and
freeze (begin to crystallize) rapidly with only a slight causing little adverse effect on the aircraft’s aerodynamic
temperature decrease. If the freezing point of the film is performance.
found to be insufficient, the de-icing procedure must be
repeated until the freezing point of the remaining film is The pseudoplastic behaviour of SAE and ISO Type II fluids
sufficient to ensure safe operation. can be altered by improper de-icing/anti-icing equipment
or handling. Therefore, some North American airlines have
The de-icing process can be sped up considerably by using updated de-icing and anti-icing equipment, fluid storage
the thermal energy of heated fluids and the physical energy facilities, de-icing and anti-icing procedures, quality control
of high-pressure spray equipment, as is the common practice. procedures, and training programs to accommodate these
(g) SAE and ISO Type I Fluids: These fluids in the concentrated distinct characteristics. Testing indicates that SAE and ISO
form contain a minimum of 80% glycol and are considered Type II fluids, if applied with improper equipment, may
“unthickened” because of their relatively low viscosity. lose 20% to 60% of their anti-icing performance.
These fluids are used for de-icing or anti-icing, but provide All Type II fluids are not necessarily compatible with all
very limited anti-icing protection. Type I fluids; therefore, you should refer to the fluid
(h) SAE and ISO Type II Fluids: Fluids, such as those identified manufacturer or supplier for further information. As well,
as SAE Type II and ISO Type II, will last longer in conditions the use of Type II fluid over badly contaminated Type I
of precipitation. They afford greater margins of safety if fluid will reduce the effectiveness of the Type II fluid.
AIR
they are used in accordance with aircraft manufacturers’ SAE and ISO Type II fluids were introduced in North America
recommendations. in 1985, with widespread use beginning to occur in 1990.
Flight tests performed by manufacturers of transport Similar fluids, but with slight differences in characteristics,
category aircraft have shown that most SAE and ISO Type II have been developed, introduced, and used in Canada.
fluids flow off lifting surfaces by rotation speeds (Vr),
although some large aircraft do experience performance (i) Type III Fluids: Type III is a thickened freezing point depressant
degradation and may require weight or other takeoff fluid which has properties that lie between Types I and II.
compensation. Therefore, SAE and ISO Type II fluids should Therefore, it provides a longer holdover time than Type I, but
be used on aircraft with rotation speeds (Vr) above 100 KIAS. less than Type II. Its shearing and flow-off characteristics
Degradation could be significant on aeroplanes with rotation are designed for aircraft that have a shorter time to the rotation
speeds below this figure. point. This should make it acceptable for some aircraft that
have a Vr of less than 100 KIAS.
As with any de-icing or anti-icing fluid, SAE and ISO Type II
fluids should not be applied unless the aircraft manufacturer The SAE had approved a specification in AMS1428A for
has approved their use, regardless of rotation speed. Aircraft Type III anti-icing fluids that can be used on those aircraft
manufacturers’ manuals may give further guidance on the with rotation speeds significantly lower than the large jet
acceptability of SAE and ISO Type II fluids for specific rotation speeds, which are 100 KIAS or greater. No fluid
aircraft. has yet been identified that can meet the entire Type III
fluid specification. Pending publication of a Type III
Some fluid residue may remain throughout the flight. The Holdover Time Table and availability of suitable fluids, the
aircraft manufacturer should have determined that this Union Carbide Type IV fluid in 75/25 dilution may be used
residue would have little or no effect on aircraft performance for anti-icing purposes on low rotation speed aircraft, but
or handling qualities in aerodynamically quiet areas; only in accordance with aircraft and fluid manufacturer’s
405
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Tel. (toll-free in North America): .............. 1-888-830-4911 Rime ice commonly found in stratiform clouds is granular,
.......................................................................613-991-4071 opaque and pebbly and adheres to the leading edges of antennas
Fax: ................................................................ 613-991-1653 and windshields. Rime ice forms in low temperatures with a
Email: .............................................. publications@tc.gc.ca low concentration of small super-cooled droplets. It has little
Web site: .... www.tc.gc.ca/en/transport-canada/corporate/ tendency to spread and can easily be removed by aircraft de-icing
publications.html systems.
Clear ice commonly found in cumuliform clouds is glassy, smooth
and hard, and tends to spread back from the area of impingement.
Clear ice forms at temperatures at or just below 0°C with a high
concentration of large super-cooled droplets. It is the most serious
form of icing because it adheres firmly and is difficult to remove.
Frost may form on an aircraft in flight when descent is made
from below-freezing conditions to a layer of warm, moist air. In
these circumstances, vision may be restricted as frost forms on
the windshield or canopy.
Additional references on icing include MET 2.4 and the Air
Command Weather Manual (TP 9352E).
406
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.12.3.2 Aerodynamic Effects of Airborne Icing (c) If flaps are extended, do not retract them unless it can be
determined that the upper surface of the wing is clear of ice.
Commercial pilots are familiar with the classic aerodynamic
Retracting the flaps will increase the angle of attack at any
effects of ice accumulation on an aeroplane in flight. These can
given airspeed, possibly leading to the onset of roll upset.
include:
(d) Set appropriate power and monitor airspeed /angle of attack.
(a) reduced lift accompanied by significant increases in drag
and increases in weight; (e) Verify that wing ice protection is functioning symmetrically
by visual observation if possible. If not, follow the
(b) increases in stall speed and reduced stall angle of attack as
procedures in the aircraft flight manual.
ice alters the shape of an airfoil and disrupts airflow;
(c) reduced thrust due to ice disrupting the airflow to the engine 2.12.3.4 Tail Plane Stall
and/or degrading propeller efficiency. Ice ingested into a
jet engine may induce a compressor stall and/or a flame As the rate at which ice accumulates on an airfoil is related to
out; the shape of the airfoil, with thinner airfoils having a higher
collection efficiency than thicker ones, ice may accumulate on
(d) control restrictions due to water flowing back into control the horizontal stabilizer at a higher rate than on the wings. A
surfaces and freezing; tail plane stall occurs when its critical angle of attack is exceeded.
(e) ice adhering to rotor blades will degrade their aerodynamic Because the horizontal stabilizer produces a downward force to
efficiency. This means that an increase in power will be counter the nose-down tendency caused by the centre of lift on
required to produce an equivalent amount of lift. Therefore, the wing, stall of the tail plane will lead to a rapid pitch down.
during an autorotation this increase can only come from a Application of flaps, which may reduce or increase downwash
higher than normal rate of descent. In fact, it may not be on the tail plane depending on the configuration of the empennage
possible to maintain safe rotor RPM during the descent and (i.e. low set horizontal stabilizer, mid-set, or T-tail), can aggravate
flare due to ice contamination; or initiate the stall. Therefore, pilots should be very cautious in
(f) ice on the windshield or canopy will reduce or block vision lowering flaps if tail plane icing is suspected. Abrupt nose-down
from the flight deck or cockpit; and pitching movements should also be avoided, since these increase
the tail plane angle of attack and may cause a contaminated tail
(g) carburetor icing (see AIR 2.3). plane to stall.
A tail plane stall can occur at relatively high speeds, well above
2.12.3.3 Roll Upset the normal 1G stallspeed. The pitch down may occur without
Roll upset describes an uncommanded and possibly uncontrollable warning and be uncontrollable. It is more likely to occur when
rolling moment caused by airflow separation in front of the the flaps are selected to the landing position, after a nose-down
ailerons, resulting in self-deflection of unpowered control pitching manoeuvre, during airspeed changes following flap
surfaces. It is associated with flight in icing conditions in which extension, or during flight through wind gusts.
water droplets flow back behind the protected surfaces before Symptoms of incipient tail plane stall may include:
freezing and form ridges that cannot be removed by de-icing
equipment. Roll upset has recently been associated with icing (a) abnormal elevator control forces, pulsing, oscillation,
AIR
conditions involving large super-cooled droplets; however, it or vibration;
theoretically can also occur in conventional icing conditions (b) an abnormal nose-down trim change (may not be detected
when temperatures are just slightly below 0°C. if autopilot engaged);
The roll upset can occur well before the normal symptoms of (c) any other abnormal or unusual pitch anomalies (possibly
ice accretion are evident to the pilot, and control forces may be leading to pilot induced oscillations);
physically beyond the pilot’s ability to overcome. Pilots may
(d) reduction or loss of elevator effectiveness (may not be
receive a warning of incipient roll upset if abnormal or sloppy
detected if the autopilot is engaged);
aileron control forces are experienced after the autopilot is
disconnected when operating in icing conditions. (e) sudden change in elevator force (control would move down
if not restrained); and/or
Corrective Actions
(f) a sudden, uncommanded nose-down pitch.
If severe icing conditions are inadvertently encountered, pilots
should consider the following actions to avoid a roll upset: Corrective Actions
(a) Disengage the autopilot. The autopilot may mask important If any of the above symptoms occur, the pilot should consider
clues or may self disconnect when control forces exceed the following actions unless the aircraft f light manual
limits, presenting the pilot with abrupt unusual attitudes dictates otherwise:
and control forces. (a) Plan approaches in icing conditions with minimum flap
(b) Reduce the angle of attack by increasing speed. If turning, settings for the conditions. Fly the approach on speed for
roll wings level. the configuration.
407
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) If symptoms occur shortly after flap extension, immediately with smaller droplets, higher liquid water content and
retract the flaps to the previous setting. Increase airspeed conventional icing.
as appropriate to the reduced setting.
(c) Apply sufficient power for the configuration and conditions. 2.12.3.6 Detecting Large Super-Cooled Droplets
Observe the manufacturer’s recommendations concerning Conditions in Flight
power settings. High power settings may aggravate tail
Visible clues to flight crew that the aircraft is operating in large
plane stall in some designs.
super-cooled droplets conditions will vary from type to type.
(d) Make any nose-down pitch changes slowly, even in gusting Manufacturers should be consulted to assist operators in
conditions, if circumstance allow. identifying the visible clues particular to the type operated.
(e) If equipped with a pneumatic de-icing system, operate several There are, however, some general clues of which pilots should
times to attempt to clear ice from the tail plane. be aware:
(a) ice visible on the upper or lower surface of the wing aft of
WARNINGS the area protected by de-icing equipment (irregular or jagged
lines of ice or pieces that are self-shedding);
(a) At any flap setting, airspeed in excess of the manufacturer’s
recommendations for the configuration and environmental (b) ice adhering to non-heated propeller spinners farther aft
conditions, accompanied by uncleared ice on the tail plane, than normal;
may result in a tail plane stall and an uncontrollable nose- (c) granular dispersed ice crystals or total translucent or opaque
down pitch. coverage of the unheated portions of front or side windows.
(b) Improper identity of the event and application of the wrong This may be accompanied by other ice patterns on the
recovery procedure will make an already critical situation windows such as ridges. Such patterns may occur within a
even worse. This information concerning roll upset and tail few seconds to one half minute after exposure to large
plane stall is necessarily general in nature, and may not be super-cooled droplets;
applicable to all aircraft configurations. Pilots must consult (d) unusually extensive coverage of ice, visible ice fingers or
their aircraft flight manual to determine type specific ice feathers on parts of the airframe on which ice does not
procedures for these phenomena. normally appear; and
(e) significant differences between airspeed or rate of climb
2.12.3.5 Freezing Rain, Freezing Drizzle, and Large Super-
expected and that attained at a given power setting.
Cooled Droplets
Additional clues significant at temperatures near freezing:
The classical mechanism producing freezing rain and/or freezing
drizzle aloft involves a layer of warm air overlaying a layer of (a) visible rain consisting of very large droplets. In reduced
cold air. Snow falling through the warm layer melts, falls into visibility selection of landing or taxi lights “on” occasionally
the cold air, becomes supercooled, and freezes on contact with will aid detection. Rain may also be detected by the audible
an aircraft flying through the cold air. Freezing rain and freezing impact of droplets on the fuselage;
drizzle are therefore typically found near warm fronts and trowals, (b) droplets splashing or splattering on the windscreen. The 40
AIR
both of which cause warm air to overlay cold air. Freezing rain to 50 micron droplets covered by Appendix C to Chapter 525
or freezing drizzle may also occur at cold fronts, but are less of the Airworthiness Manual icing criteria (Appendix C
common and would have a lesser horizontal extent due to the lists the certification standard for all transport category
steeper slope of the frontal surface. The presence of warm air aeroplanes for flight in known icing), are so small that they
above has always provided a possible escape route to pilots who cannot usually be detected; however freezing drizzle droplets
have encountered classical freezing precipitation aloft through can reach sizes of 0.2 to 0.5 mm and can be seen when they
a climb into the warm air. hit the windscreen;
Recent research has revealed that there are other non-classical (c) water droplets or rivulets streaming on windows, either
mechanisms that produce freezing precipitation aloft. Flights heated or unheated. Streaming droplets or rivulets are
by research aircraft have encountered freezing drizzle at indicators of high liquid water content in any sized droplet;
temperatures down to -10° C at altitudes up to 15000 feet ASL. and/or
There was no temperature inversion—that is, no warm air aloft—
(d) weather radar returns showing precipitation. Whenever the
present in either case. Pilots must be aware that severe icing may
radar indicates precipitation in temperatures near freezing,
be encountered in conditions unrelated to warm air aloft. They
pilots should be alert for other clues of large super-cooled
must also understand that, if non-classical freezing drizzle is
droplets.
encountered in flight, the escape route of a climb into warmer
air may not be immediately available; however, climbing remains
the preferred escape route. It should allow the aircraft to reach 2.12.3.7 Flight Planning or Reporting
an altitude above the formation region, while a descent may keep Pilots should take advantage of all information available to avoid
the aircraft in freezing precipitation. It should be noted that, or, at the very least, to plan a safe flight through known icing
while ascending, the aircraft might get closer to the source region conditions. As well as FAs, TAFs, and METARs, pilots should
408
TC AIM March 25, 2021
ask for pertinent SIGMETs and any PIREPs received along the discernible; sense of depth and orientation is lost; only
planned route of flight. Significant Weather Prognostic Charts very dark, nearby objects can be seen. Whiteout occurs
should be studied, if available. Weather information should be over an unbroken snow cover and beneath a uniformly
analyzed to predict where icing is likely to be found, and to overcast sky, when with the aid of the snowblink effect,
determine possible safe exit procedures should severe icing be the light from the sky is about equal to that from the snow
encountered. Pilots should routinely pass detailed PIREPs surface. Blowing snow may be an additional cause.”
whenever icing conditions are encountered.
Light carries depth perception messages to the brain in the form
of colour, glare, shadows, and so on. These elements have one
2.12.4 Landing Wheel-Equipped Light Aircraft on thing in common, namely, they are all modified by the direction
Snow Covered Surfaces of the light and changes in light intensity. For example, when
shadows occur on one side of objects, we subconsciously become
During the course of each winter, a number of aircraft accidents
aware that the light is coming from the other. Thus, nature
have occurred due to pilots attempting to land wheel-equipped
provides many visual clues to assist us in discerning objects and
aircraft on surfaces covered with deep snow. This has almost
judging distances. What happens if these clues are removed?
invariably resulted in the aircraft nosing over.
Let’s suppose that these objects on the ground and the ground
Light aircraft should not be landed on surfaces covered with itself are all white. Add to that, a diffused light source through
snow unless it has previously been determined that the amount an overcast layer which is reflected back in all directions by the
of snow will not constitute a hazard. white surface so that shadows disappear. The terrain is now
virtually devoid of visual clues and the eye no longer discerns
2.12.5 Use of Seaplanes on Snow Surfaces the surface or terrain features.
The operation of float-equipped aircraft or flying boats from Since the light is so diffused, it is likely that the sky and terrain
snow covered surfaces will be permitted by Transport Canada will blend imperceptibly into each other, obliterating the horizon.
under the following conditions: The real hazard in whiteout is the pilot not suspecting the
phenomenon because the pilot is in clear air. In numerous whiteout
(a) the pilot and operator will be held responsible for confining accidents, pilots have flown into snow-covered surfaces unaware
all flights to those snow conditions found to be satisfactory that they have been descending and confident that they could
as a result of previous tests or experimental flights in that “see” the ground.
type of aircraft;
Consequently, whenever a pilot encounters the whiteout conditions
(b) passengers should not be carried; and described above, or even a suspicion of them, the pilot should
(c) a thorough inspection of the float or hull bottom, all struts immediately climb if at low level, or level off and turn towards
and fittings, all wing fittings, bracing, wing tip floats and an area where sharp terrain features exist. The flight should not
fittings should be carried out after every flight to ensure proceed unless the pilot is prepared and competent to traverse
that the aircraft is airworthy. the whiteout area on instruments.
Seaplanes should not be landing on, or taking off from, snow In addition, the following phenomena are known to cause whiteout
surfaces except under conditions of deep firm snow, which and should be avoided if at all possible:
AIR
should not be drifted or heavily crusted.
(a) water-fog whiteout resulting from thin clouds of super-cooled
Flights should not be attempted if there is any adhesion of ice water droplets in contact with the cold snow surface.
or snow to the under surface of the float or hull. When landing Depending on the size and distribution of the water droplets,
or forced landing a ski or float equipped aeroplane on unbroken visibility may be minimal or nil in such conditions.
snow surfaces, the procedure in AIR 2.11.4 is recommended.
(b) blowing snow whiteout resulting from fine snow being
plucked from the surface by winds of 20 kt or more. Sunlight
2.12.6 Landing Seaplanes on is reflected and diffused resulting in a nil visibility whiteout
Unbroken Snow Conditions condition.
It has been found practically impossible to judge altitude when (c) precipitation whiteout resulting from small wind-driven
landing a skiplane or seaplane under certain conditions of surface snow crystals falling from low clouds above which the sun
and light. Under such conditions the procedures for landing is shining. Light reflection complicated by spectral reflection
seaplanes on glassy water should be used (see AIR 2.11.4). from the snow flakes and obscuration of land marks by
falling snow can reduce visibility and depth perception to
2.12.7 Whiteout nil in such conditions.
If at all possible, pilots should avoid such conditions unless they
Whiteout (also called milky weather) is defined in the Glossary
have the suitable instruments in the aircraft and are sufficiently
of Meteorology (published by the American Meteorological
experienced to use a low-speed and minima rate of descent
Society) as:
technique to land the aircraft safely.
“An atmospheric optical phenomenon of the polar regions
in which the observer appears to be engulfed in a uniformly
white glow. Neither shadows, horizon, nor clouds are
409
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.13 flight oPerAtionS in mountAinouS AreAS 2.16 verticAl PAth control on non-PreciSion
The importance of proper training, procedures and pre-flight APProAcheS (nPAS)
planning when flying in mountainous regions is emphasized.
In the Pacific area, the combined effect of the great mountain 2.16.1 Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT)
system and the adjacent Pacific Ocean lead to extremely Controlled Flights Into Terrain (CFIT) continue to be a major
changeable weather conditions and a variety of weather patterns. threat to civil aviation safety in Canada. A stabilized final
Some of the factors to be taken into consideration regarding the approach during an NPA has been recognized by the ICAO CFIT
effect on aircraft performance when operating under these Task Force as an aid to prevent CFIT. The step-down technique
conditions include the following: presumed by NPA procedure design may have been appropriate
(a) elevation of the airport; for early piston transport aircraft, but it is less suited to larger
jet transport aircraft.
(b) temperature and pressure;
When using the step-down technique, the aircraft flies a series
(c) turbulence and wind effect; and
of vertical descents during the final approach segment as it
(d) determination of safe takeoff procedures to ensure clearance descends and levels off at the minimum IFR altitudes published
over obstacles and intervening high ground. for each segment of the approach. The successive descents and
In the western mountainous region VFR routes may be marked level-offs result in significant changes in power settings and
by diamonds on visual navigation charts. The routes are marked pitch attitudes and for some aircraft, may prevent the landing
for convenience to assist pilots with pre-flight planning. The configuration from being established until landing is assured.
diamond marks do not imply any special level of facilities and Using the step-down technique, the aircraft may have to be
services along the route. Pilots are cautioned that the use of the flown at minimum IFR altitudes for each segment of the approach
marked routes does not absolve them from proper pre-flight and consequently be exposed to reduced obstacle separation for
planning or the exercising of good airmanship practices during extended periods of time. A premature descent or a missed
the proposed flight. Alternative unmarked routes are always level-off could render the aircraft vulnerable to a CFIT accident.
available, the choice of a suitable route for the intended flight Many air operators require their flight crews to use a stabilized
and conditions remains the sole responsibility of the pilot-in- approach technique which is entirely different from that envisaged
command. in the original NPA procedure design. The stabilized approach
is calculated to achieve a constant rate of descent at an approximate
3° flight path angle with stable airspeed, power setting, and
2.14 flight oPerAtionS in SPArSely SettleD attitude, and also with the aircraft configured for landing. The
AreAS of cAnADA safety benefits derived from the stabilized final approach have
(See AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 1.5) been recognized by many organizations including ICAO, the
FAA and TCCA. Those air operators not already doing so are
encouraged to incorporate stabilized approach procedures into
2.14.1 Single-Engine Aircraft Operations in their SOPs and training syllabi.
Northern Canada
AIR
CAUTION:
(See AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 1.5)
Caution should be exercised when descending below the MDA
while following an FMS-generated vertical path. Unlike vertically
2.15 flight oPerAtionS At night guided approaches, which have their OCSs verified below the
DA, OCSs on LNAV procedures below the MDA have NOT
There are many risks associated with operating aircraft in dark-
been assessed. As a result, obstacles may penetrate the computer-
night conditions where maintaining orientation, navigation and
generated flight path. Pilots are reminded to visually scan for
weather avoidance may become extremely difficult. Takeoff and
obstacles before descending below the MDA.
landing may be particularly dangerous for both VFR and IFR
pilots. VASI and PAPI are calibrated for a defined geometric vertical
A variety of illusions may result at night because of a lack of path angle. In cold temperatures, a non-temperature compensated
outside visual cues. Your best defense, if you do not hold an barometric FMS-generated vertical path may be lower than that
instrument rating, is to receive some instrument training, and of a calibrated VASI or PAPI. In high temperatures, a barometric
to be aware of the illusions and their counter measures. FMS-generated vertical path will be higher than that of a
calibrated VASI or PAPI. Pilots should be aware of this limitation
and operate accordingly.
410
TC AIM March 25, 2021
2.16.2 Stabilized Approach stabilized manner. When conducting an NPA using an angular
vertical profile, the vertical path may be intercepted prior to the
An approach is considered stabilized when it satisfies the FAF at a higher altitude.
associated conditions, typically defined by an air operator in
their company operations manual (COM) or SOPs, as they may Ideally, the angle to be used for an angular vertical path is obtained
relate to the: from the approach chart. If the approach chart does not contain
a published constant descent angle, the angle may be calculated
(a) range of speeds specific to the aircraft type; using an approved method provided to the flight crew in the air
(b) power setting(s) specific to the aircraft type; operator’s SOPs or by using tables such as those found in
Appendix 1 of Advisory Circular (AC) 700-028. Flight crew
(c) range of attitudes specific to the aircraft type;
members must be aware of the risks associated with manually
(d) configuration(s) specific to the aircraft type; calculating the descent angle as a calculation error could lead
(e) crossing altitude deviation tolerances; to the use of the wrong descent angle. It is strongly recommended
that flight crew members become proficient with manually
(f) sink rate; and calculating the descent angle before doing so under high workload
(g) completion of checklists and flight crew briefings. conditions.
Stabilized approach procedures should be defined for all Regardless of the type of vertical path control technique used
approaches and may include the following: on an NPA, the lateral “turning” portion of the missed approach
may not be executed prior to the MAP. However, the climb
(a) a flight profile should be stabilized at an altitude not lower
portion of a missed approach procedure may be commenced at
than 1 000 ft above the threshold when in IMC;
any point along the final approach. In addition, during cold
(b) a flight profile should be stabilized at an altitude not lower weather operations, a temperature correction must be applied
than 500 ft above the threshold; to all minimum altitudes, no matter what type of vertical control
(c) a flight profile should remain stabilized until landing; path technique is used.
(d) a go-around is required if a flight profile is not stabilized Except in the case of an air operator conducting operations in
in accordance with these requirements or if the flight profile accordance with an exemption to Paragraph 602.128(2)(b) of the
subsequently becomes destabilized. CARs, a flight crew member may not descend below the MDA
if the visual references required to land have not been acquired.
A correction to the MDA may be required to ensure that the
2.16.3 Vertical Path Control Techniques
aircraft does not descend below the MDA during the transition
There are typically three vertical path control techniques available from a descent to the climb required by a missed approach
for an NPA: procedure.
(a) step-down; In 2013, NAV CANADA will begin the publication of approach
(b) constant descent angle; or charts which include constant descent angle information in a
tabular form and in the profile view. The inclusion of this
(c) stabilized constant descent angle (SCDA). information is intended to facilitate the use of the stabilized
AIR
approach techniques described in AC 700-028 and to reduce the
NOTE:
possibility of calculation errors.
Constant descent angle is equivalent to ICAO’s constant angle
descent, and SCDA is considered a form of ICAO’s continuous To facilitate the stabilized descent, some avionics, such as
descent final approach (CDFA). In the interest of respecting baro-VNAV-capable (barometric vertical navigation) and
terminology already in use in the Canadian civil aviation industry WAAS-capable (wide area augmentation system) systems,
and standardization with NAV CANADA charting, the above generate a calculated vertical profile and the guidance to follow
terminology has been adopted. this profile. When conducting an NPA, the vertical guidance
generated by the navigation system is advisory only. Flight crew
While NPA procedures themselves are not inherently unsafe, members must use the barometric altimeter as the primary altitude
the use of the step-down descent technique to conduct an NPA reference to ensure compliance with any and all altitude
is prone to error and is therefore discouraged where other methods restrictions. Special consideration is required when using advisory
are available. When using the step-down technique during the vertical guidance generated by WAAS-capable equipment. Flight
final approach segment, the flight crew member flies an unstable crew members should refer to the manufacturer’s operating
vertical profile by descending and levelling off at the minimum guides or limitations.
altitudes published for each segment of the approach and then,
if the required visual references have been acquired, descending Further information and descriptions of the techniques available
from the MDA to a landing. for conducting the vertical portion of an NPA are contained in
AC 700-028. <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/reference-centre/
The risks associated with conducting an NPA can be mitigated advisory-circulars/advisory-circular-ac-no-700-028>
by using an angular vertical profile instead of the step-down
technique described above. The use of an angular vertical profile
increases the likelihood of the approach being conducted in a
411
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.0 MEDICAL INFORMATION Pilots operating at this altitude or higher should be alert for
unusual difficulty completing routine calculations and should
take corrective action if difficulties are noted. To avoid
3.1 generAl heAlth hypoxia, do not fly above 10 000 ft ASL (3 050 m) without
supplemental oxygen or cabin pressurization.
A healthy pilot is as essential to a safe flight as a mechanically
sound aircraft. There is no precise regulation that tells pilots (b) Anaemic hypoxia
whether they are fit to fly and there is no pre-flight inspection Oxygen in blood is carried by haemoglobin, which is found
to ensure fitness. Therefore, individuals must base their decision in red blood cells. When the red blood cell count decreases,
to fly on common sense, good judgement, and training prior to or the haemoglobin does not function properly, less oxygen
each flight. While flying an aircraft, a pilot must not have any can be carried by the blood. This can occur in conditions
condition that impairs alertness, reaction time or decision-making such as heavy bleeding, some cancers, sickle cell anaemia,
ability. Persons with conditions that could result in sudden or or carbon monoxide poisoning, to name a few. A person
subtle incapacitation, such as epilepsy, heart disease, diabetes suffering from anaemia may notice symptoms such as
requiring insulin, or psychiatric illnesses, cannot be medically breathlessness, fatigue, or chest pain, and symptoms will
certified until their case is reviewed by the Civil Aviation worsen at higher altitudes, as the effects of hypoxia and
Medicine Branch. Conditions such as anaemia, acute infections anaemia are additive.
and gastrointestinal illnesses are temporarily disqualifying.
(c) Ischaemic hypoxia/stagnant hypoxia
When there is any doubt about their health, pilots should consult
their physician or Civil Aviation Medical Examiner (CAME). The term ischaemia refers to inadequate supply of blood,
and ischaemic hypoxia occurs when there is inadequate
blood flow to body tissues. This can occur with constriction
3.1.1 Mandatory Medical Reporting
of blood vessels (for example, this is often seen in fingers
Pilots are reminded that section 6.5 of the Aeronautics Act requires and toes exposed to cold) as well as in situations of low
them to identify themselves as the holder of a pilot’s licence blood pressure and cardiac output such as fainting, or during
prior to the commencement of any examination by a physician exposure to high sustained accelerations (stagnant hypoxia).
or optometrist. Section 6.5 further requires that the attending Oxygen therapy is not very helpful in this form of hypoxia.
physician or optometrist notify the Minister of any finding that The best remedy is to correct the underlying cause.
may constitute a hazard to aviation safety.
(d) Histotoxic hypoxia
Section 6.5 also deems the pilot to have consented to the release
Histotoxic hypoxia refers to an inability of the cells of the
of aviation-related findings by the physician or optometrist to
body to use the oxygen available. This type of hypoxia is
the Minister.
rare in pilots, but it can occur with certain conditions such
as cyanide poisoning, chemical poisoning, and intoxication
3.2 SPecific AeromeDicAl fActorS with certain drugs. Histotoxic hypoxia can also be caused
by high blood alcohol levels.
3.2.1 Hypoxia
3.2.2 Carbon Monoxide
AIR
Catalytic heaters consume oxygen and can produce carbon nitrogen. For this reason, as the aircraft ascends, nitrogen bubble
monoxide. For this reason they should not be used on an aircraft. formation may take place, causing the bends. After dives of less
than 33 ft (1 atmosphere pressure), where decompression stops
3.2.3 Hyperventilation were not required, flights up to altitudes of 8 000 ft ASL (2 440
m) should be avoided for 12 hr. Where decompression stops have
Hyperventilation most commonly occurs in association with been required while returning to the surface, the interval should
anxiety, fear, or during intense concentration on a difficult task, be 24 hr. For flights above 8 000 ft ASL (2 440 m), the interval
such as performing a complicated approach procedure. Normally, is 24 hr regardless of the type of dive, as even pressurized aircraft
the rate of breathing is controlled by the amount of carbon dioxide may lose cabin pressurization.
in the lungs and in the blood. In hyperventilation, carbon dioxide
is blown off and the level of carbon dioxide in the blood drops
below normal. Pilots may notice dizziness, a feeling of coldness, 3.5 viSion
a sensation like a tight band around the head and pins and needles The retina of the eye is more sensitive to hypoxia than any part
in the hands and feet, and cramping and spasms of the hands of the body; one of the first symptoms of hypoxia is a decrease
and feet. Paradoxically, they will often feel as though they cannot in night vision. For this reason, pilots flying at night are advised
get enough air. Continued hyperventilation may result in a loss to use oxygen, if available, from the ground up.
of consciousness. The symptoms of hyperventilation, particularly
the shortness of breath, are not unlike those of hypoxia, so rather Many factors affect vision. Hypoxia, carbon monoxide poisoning,
than trying to make the diagnosis, follow the procedure below: alcohol, drugs, fatigue and smoking are only a few of these.
After time spent in bright sunlight, the eye is slow to adapt to
(a) Breathe oxygen, if available, at 100 percent. If hypoxia is darkness and this may reduce night vision. To improve dark
the cause, the symptoms will improve markedly after three adaption, pilots should use sunglasses during the day to avoid
or four breaths. eye fatigue. At night, cockpit lights should be kept low to maintain
(b) If the symptoms persist, consciously slow the rate of the dark adaption needed to see clearly outside the cockpit.
breathing to 10–12 breaths per minute and do not breathe Despite modern electronics, pilots still fly in a “see-and-be seen”
deeply. Breathing slowly and deeply into a paper bag is world. For best results, good vision is only one of the requirements.
helpful, although obviously not always practical during In the cockpit, it must be reinforced with good visual scan
flight. Keep the respiratory rate slow until the symptoms practices, especially at night. Such practices are an acquired,
disappear. If below 8 000 ft ASL (2 440 m), hypoxia is not an inherent, skill. In performing a visual scan, the eyes
unlikely to be the cause of the problem. should be focused at a range that will ensure detection of traffic
while there is still time to take avoiding action. This requires
3.3 DecomPreSSion SickneSS that pilots take an object on the horizon, focus on it and then
scan all sectors of the sky, refocusing as needed to avoid “empty-
At ground level, the body tissues are saturated with nitrogen, field myopia” (empty-sky myopia), which can result from gazing
the inert gas that makes up 80 percent of our atmosphere. During at a featureless landscape or cloudscape. Conscientious scanning
a rapid ascent, the rapid lowering of the external barometric of all sections of the sky, interspersed with brief interludes of
pressure allows the nitrogen gas to form small bubbles (an example focusing on distant objects, will improve a pilot’s ability to detect
AIR
of this phenomenon is the bubbles formed when a bottle of pop distant aircraft. A clean canopy is also essential, particularly
is opened). The nitrogen bubbles form in and around blood with bright sunlight. Spots on the windshield easily lead to dazzle
vessels, joints and muscles, causing pain and cramps (the bends). glare and can interfere with long-range focus.
They can also form under the skin, causing itching and tingling
(the creeps), or in the lung, causing chest pain and shortness of The same scan is required at night, with one difference: the part
breath (the chokes). Severe cases may result in a loss of of the eye that is best suited for night vision is not in the centre.
consciousness. The risks associated with decompression sickness An object detected in barely adequate light will disappear if
increase with high rates of climb, age, obesity, physical activity viewed directly, but will often reappear if one looks 10 to 15°
and low temperatures. Flight operations above a cabin altitude to one side of the object.
of 20 000 ft ASL (6 100 m) should not be attempted unless crew Technological changes and medical experience has brought
members and passengers have completed specialized high-altitude forward a proliferation in the availability and options in eye
indoctrination training. When decompression sickness is surgery directed at improving visual acuity. The Civil Aviation
encountered, an immediate descent to a lower altitude is required. Medicine Branch continues to monitor this progress and has
adapted the medical guidelines regarding certification for flight
3.4 ScuBA Diving to reflect the growing body of knowledge and experience in this
important area. The most recent information and recommendations
Although normally decompression sickness does not occur below on eye surgery can be found on the following Civil Aviation
20 000 ft ASL (6 100 m), people who fly after scuba diving may Medicine Web site:
develop the symptoms at much lower altitudes. Atmospheric <https://tc.canada.ca/en/aviation/medical-fitness-aviation/
pressure beneath the water increases by one atmosphere for assessing-medical-fitness-pilots-air-traffic-controllers/refractive-
every 33 ft (10 m) of descent. Divers who breathe pressurized eye-surgery>.
air for more than a few minutes supersaturate their tissues with
413
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.6 miDDle-eAr AnD SinuS DiScomfort accidents. False impressions of position may also be encountered
if pilots align the aircraft with a sloping cloudbank or when the
or PAin horizon is distorted or apparently bent by the Northern Lights.
The middle ear is similar to a box: closed at one end by a flexible The rule of survival when disorientated is RELY ON YOUR
cover (the ear drum) and drained at the other end by a thin, FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS!
straight tube (the Eustachian tube). As the aircraft climbs, air
in the body cavities expands as the barometric pressure decreases. In their training, all pilots should be exposed to disorientation
Normally, air will escape from the middle ear and the sinuses by their instructors and should have had experience in recovering
and pilots will only notice their ears “popping”. The outlet of from unusual attitudes. Such experience will help overcome
the Eustachian tubes, however, is narrow and, if the pilot has a subsequent, unexpected instances of disorientation. Pilots without
head cold or a throat infection, local swelling may narrow it. On instrument flight training must maintain a visual horizon at all
ascent, air may still be able to escape, but on descent—particularly times and should never flight plan VFR into areas where bad
at high rates—the outlet may close like a flap, preventing air weather or low visibility may be encountered. An instrument
from re-entering the middle-ear cavity. The increasing ambient rating does not prevent disorientation, but the training required
air pressure will then force the eardrum inward. This can lead to obtain the rating provides the pilot with the ability to
to severe pain and decreased hearing. overcome it.
414
TC AIM March 25, 2021
It should go without saying that recreational drug use has no As soon as a pilot realizes that she is pregnant, she should seek
place in aviation and illicit drug use may result in the refusal to prenatal care from a qualified physician or midwife and she
issue, refusal to renew, or suspension of a medical certificate. should ensure that her maternity-care provider is aware that she
is a pilot. Should problems develop with the pregnancy before
NOTE: the 30th week, the Regional Aviation Medical Officer (RAMO)
The regulation specific to the use of alcohol or drugs by crew must be notified.
members is included in the RAC chapter, Annex 2.0, Canadian
Aviation Regulations, 602.03 (<https://lois-laws.justice.gc.ca/ In the first trimester, nausea and vomiting are common and may
eng/regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.html#s-602.03>). be worsened by turbulence, engine fumes and G forces. In the
first and second trimester, there is an increased likelihood of
fainting, but this is uncommon in a sitting position. However,
3.11 AnAeStheticS G tolerance may be reduced. A relative anaemia may occur after
the second trimester and may affect the pilot’s susceptibility to
Questions are often asked about flying after anaesthetics. With hypoxia. Hypoxia is not a problem for the foetus below 10 000 ft
AIR
spinal or general anaesthetics, or with serious operations, pilots ASL (3 050 m).
should not fly until their doctor says it is safe to do so. It is
difficult to generalize about local anaesthetics used in minor Cosmic radiation is of particular concern because of the unborn
operations or dental work. Allergic reactions to these, if they child’s susceptibility to ionizing radiation. Dose equivalent is
occur, are early and by the time the anaesthetic has worn off the the measure of the biological harmfulness of ionizing radiation,
risk of side effects has passed. However, after extensive procedures and the present international unit of dose equivalent is the
(such as the removal of several wisdom teeth), common sense sievert (Sv). One sievert is equal to 1 000 millisieverts (mSv).
suggests waiting at least 24 hr before flying. The current recommendation is that the foetus shoud be exposed
to no more than 1 mSv during the entire pregnancy, and no more
than 0.5 mSv in any given month of pregnancy. For comparative
3.12 BlooD DonAtion purposes, the recommended annual limit for occupational ionizing
In a completely healthy individual, the fluid reduction caused radiation exposure for an adult is 50 mSv, with a 5-year average
by donating one unit of blood is replaced within several hours. of no more than 20 mSv per year.
In some people, however, the loss of blood causes disturbances Cosmic radiation is greater at the poles than at the equator and
to the circulation that may last for several days. While the effects i ncreases with alt it ude. On t ranspola r f lig hts at
at ground level are minimal, flying during this period may entail 41 000 ft ASL (12 505 m), the estimated exposure is about
a risk. Generally, active pilots should not donate blood, but if 0.012 mSv/h, although in a solar flare this can increase by a
blood has been donated they should wait at least 48 hr factor of 10. The exposure at the equator is about one-half of
before flying. this. A flight from Athens to New York at 41 000 ft ASL (12 505 m)
would expose a pilot to approximately 0.09 mSv. A pilot flying
500 hours per year at 35 000 ft ASL (10 675 m) between 60° and
90° latitude would be exposed to 1.73 mSv annually. Although the
415
TC AIM March 25, 2021
radiation risk to the foetus is small, it does still exist. The decision In absolute figures, G tolerance is affected by the peak value,
to expose the foetus to this minimal degree of radiation rests the duration of the G force and the rate of onset. If the rate of
with the pilot. In general, flying shorter flights at lower latitudes onset is very high, positive G can result in unconsciousness,
will decrease exposure to ionizing radiation. Further information known as G-loss of consciousness (G-LOC), without any other
can be obtained from the Regional Medical Office or from the symptoms.
FAA Advisory Circular (AC) 120-61B, dated November 21,
The increased weight of limbs and organs interferes with
2014: <https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_
movement, and forces greater than +3G make it almost impossible
circulars/index.cfm/go/document.information/
to escape from an aircraft in uncontrolled flight. Fine movements
documentID/1026386>.
are less affected. Heavy equipment such as a protective helmet
Pilots with a normal pregnancy are considered temporarily unfit can cause problems with increasing G. At about +6G a pilot’s
and should cease flying after the 30th week of pregnancy. The head would be flexed on the chest by the increased weight of a
pilot may resume her flying privileges six weeks after delivery crash helmet.
if there are no significant medical issues. A brief medical report
from her attending physician should be forwarded to the RAMO. Figure 3.1—The G Axes
Air traffic controllers may work until the onset of labour, and
may resume their duties six weeks after delivery. A medical
report of fitness should be forwarded to the regional office.
3.15.1 What is G?
G is the symbol for the rate of change of velocity and so represents
both a force and a direction. The most common example is the
force of gravity (g), which is 32 ft/s2. This means a body in a
vacuum would fall at a speed that increases by 32 ft/s in each
second of the fall. By international convention, G is described The most serious effect of positive G is the draining of blood
in three planes relative to the body. These are transverse (Gx), away from the head toward the feet, causing (stagnant) hypoxia
lateral (G y), and longitudinal (Gz) (see Figure 3.1). of the brain; the first symptom is vision deterioration. As G
forces are experienced, the blood pressure to the retina decreases
Convention also requires an indication of whether the force is because the weight of the column of blood between the heart
positive (+) or negative (-). For example, acceleration from the and the eye (and therefore the work of the heart) increases.
AIR
feet to the head is positive Gz and from the head to the feet is Therefore, the retinal blood supply decreases. Vision, beginning
negative Gz. The effect of acceleration on the body is due to the in the periphery, starts to become dim and colourless; this is
displacement of blood and tissues. It is important to realize that called “grey-out.” As the G forces increase further, the blood
the displacement is caused by the inertia of the tissues and this flow in the back of the eye will be completely interrupted and
will be opposite in direction to the acceleration force. If you “black-out” (temporary loss of vision) will occur, although the
were fired into the air from a cannon, the acceleration would be pilot remains conscious. There is a delay of 5–7 s between the
upward, but inertia would result in a relative downward onset of G and the visual changes because of the oxygen dissolved
displacement of your organs and blood. in the fluids of the eyeball. If G forces stabilize, there may be
Only Gx and Gz are of practical significance to civilian pilots an improvement in the visual symptoms after l0–12 s because
and the most significant result of Gx is disorientation; thus, when the body’s reflexes automatically increase blood pressure.
we speak of positive or negative G, we are referring to Gz unless Grey-out begins at about +2G and black-out is usually complete
otherwise noted. at +4G in the relaxed, unprotected pilot. As the G force increases,
hypoxia of the brain develops and consciousness is usually lost
3.15.2 The Effects of G in the unprotected pilot at over +6G (G-LOC). When the G forces
decline, consciousness is quickly recovered, but there is always
G tolerance varies greatly with the individual. Because the
a brief period of confusion on awakening.
symptoms are caused by the displacement of blood and tissues,
we would expect that a pilot with good muscle tone would have Negative G is poorly tolerated. Here, because the acceleration
a better tolerance. This is correct. Tolerance is lowered by obesity, is from feet to head, blood pressure in the eyes and the brain is
ill health, low blood pressure, pregnancy and many medications. increased so “red-out” (a red haze in the vision) is experienced.
It may vary from day to day in relation to fatigue, smoking, Negative G in excess of -5G may cause rupture of small blood
hypoxia or hangovers. vessels in the eyes and prolonged negative G may cause brain
416
TC AIM March 25, 2021
0 to 02 = .0 03 to 08 = .1 09 to 14 = .2
3.15.3 G Straining Manoeuvres
15 to 20 = .3 21 to 26 = .4 27 to 32 = .5
Valsalva’s manoeuvre consists of bearing down against a closed
glottis (the trap door between the throat and chest) while holding 33 to 38 = .6 39 to 44 = .7 45 to 50 = .8
the nose. The same procedure, without holding the nose but with 51 to 56 = .9 57 to 60 = 1.0 —
the mouth held closed, elevates the blood pressure and increases
G tolerance temporarily. This manoeuvre is widely used by
acrobatic pilots and may increase G tolerance by about +2G. 4.2 conDuct of exPerimentAl teSt flightS
Valsalva’s manoeuvre is the original anti-G straining manoeuvre, The C of A requires that aircraft be maintained and operated in
but it is difficult to maintain. accordance with the aircraft type certificate, Weight and Balance
Report and Aircraft Flight Manual. If, for test demonstration or
3.15.4 Dealing with G experimentation, an aircraft is to be flown outside of the approved
Aircraft Flight Manual envelope, with unapproved equipment
G tolerance is affected by diet and good physical conditioning.
installed, with equipment intentionally disabled, or with
High tolerance requires adequate hydration and normal blood
inoperative equipment not covered by an approved Minimum
sugar; hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar) markedly lowers
Equipment List or maintenance deferral action, the C of A will
tolerance. Tensing the muscles in the calves and thighs to reduce
be invalid. In these cases, flights may only be authorized through
blood pooling and squatting down in the seat or leaning slightly
a Flight Permit issued by TC.
forward while tensing the abdominal muscles, all reduce the
distance between the heart and the brain and increase blood It must be emphasized that experimentation beyond the limitations
pressure. Physical training can be beneficial, but pilots who wish imposed by the aircraft certification documentation (type
to develop high G tolerance do best with a weight-lifting program certificate, C of A, Aircraft Flight Manual, Minimum Equipment
rather than intensive aerobic training. Moderate aerobic List) may be hazardous as it can reduce the safety margins
training—20–30 min daily—and running distances less than designed into the aircraft and, thus, jeopardize the safety of the
5 km is helpful, but long-distance running decreases G tolerance crew. Consequently, experimental or developmental flight testing
by slowing the resting heart rate, which increases the chance of should normally be conducted only under controlled conditions
sudden loss of consciousness (G-LOC). A well-trained, by specifically qualified aircrew after adequate engineering
experienced pilot can tolerate up to 9G for as long as 30 s, but analysis and planning have taken place.
there is a lot of individual variation. Acrobatic pilots who regularly Before a test flight, the determinations of the conditions and
fly high G manoeuvres develop high tolerance, but quickly lose limits of testing, normal and emergency procedures specific to
AIR
it if they are no longer exposed. the test, and expected aircraft handling characteristics are
essential if risks are to be minimized. If companies or individuals
4.0 MISCELLANEOUS wish to conduct a flight test program, they should apply for a
Flight Permit and consult with the aircraft manufacturer and
TC, who can help them to assess the risks and their capability
4.1 Air time AnD flight time to conduct the tests safely.
Air Time is the period of time commencing when the aircraft Careful planning, covering all foreseeable exigencies, is critical
leaves the supporting surface and terminating when it touches to safe testing.
the supporting surface at the next point of landing.
Flight Time is the total time from the moment an aircraft first 4.3 PrActice SPinS
moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until
Intentional practice spins conducted at low altitudes have resulted
the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight. This should
in fatal accidents. All practice spin recoveries should be completed
be recorded in all Pilot Log Books.
no less than 2 000 feet AGL, or at a height recommended by the
manufacturer, whichever is the greater.
417
TC AIM March 25, 2021
factored gust, manoeuvre and emergency landing loads specified loads and the aircraft restraints involved, the following is only
in the type approval of the aircraft. a generalized approval process and requires review by the
Regional Managers, Aircraft Maintenance and Commercial and
The air carrier, through his flight crew and persons responsible Business Aviation.
for loading aircraft, must ensure that the cargo, as loaded, does
not cause the aircraft to be unairworthy. Examples of typical (a) The carrier (applicant) reviews the preceding regulations,
loads and capacities may be provided by the aircraft manufacturer, aircraft data and reference material, relates that to type(s)
given the calculated strength of ropes, belts, nets and containers. of aircraft involved and submits application to the Regional
Unusual loads (pipe lengths, drill rod, fuel barrels, etc.) present Manager, Aircraft Maintenance for engineering approval.
unique problems and are likely to require specific approval of (Application includes manufacturer’s aircraft data and type
the restraint system. Where doubt exists as to the adequacy of approval or certificated data, sample typical loads and
the proposed method of restraint, the air carrier must submit a proposed methods of restraint.)
substantiating load and strength analysis to the Regional Manager (b) Concurrently, the carrier submits an application to the
of Airworthiness for engineering approval against the requirements Regional Manager, Air Carrier concerning operational
of the aircraft certification or approval basis. procedures for each aircraft type involved (including
training) in an amendment to the Operations Manual.
418
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(c) Following joint review, the Regional Manager, Aircraft To qualify for a special flight operations certificate to permit
Maintenance may issue engineering approval of the the operation of balloons with fare-paying passengers, operators
application and the Regional Manager, Commercial and must:
Business Aviation may process the Operations Manual
(a) maintain balloons in accordance with the requirements
amendment. These are then both forwarded to the carrier.
of CAR 605;
The air operator issues the amendment to the Operations
Manual. (b) ensure that the balloons are properly equipped for the area
and type of operation; and
4.5 colliSion AvoiDAnce – uSe of (c) employ flight crew members who meet the requirements
of CAR 623.21, namely, who:
lAnDing lightS (i) are at least eighteen years of age,
Several operators have for some time been using a landing light(s) (ii) hold a Balloon Pilot Licence issued by
when flying at the lower altitudes and within terminal areas, Transport Canada,
both during daylight hours and at night. Pilots have confirmed (iii) hold a Medical Certificate, Category 1 or 3,
that the use of the landing light(s) greatly enhances the probability (iv) have accumulated a minimum of 50 hours flight-time
of the aircraft being seen. An important side benefit for improved in untethered balloons or are the holder of a Canadian
safety is that birds seem to see aircraft showing lights in time Balloon Licence with a valid Flight Instructor Rating
to take avoidance action. Therefore, it is recommended that all - Balloon Category, and
aircraft show a landing light(s) during the takeoff and landing (v) demonstrate annually a satisfactory level of
phases and when flying below 2000 feet AGL within terminal knowledge and ability to perform normal and
areas and aerodrome traffic zones. emergency operating procedures on the specific AX
class of balloon to be operated.
4.6 uSe of StroBe lightS
The use of high intensity strobe lights while taxiing or awaiting
4.8 PArAchute JumPing/SkyDiving
takeoff holding short of the active runway can be very distracting, Parachuting or skydiving is a high-risk activity that can result
particularly to pilots in the final stages of approach or during in death or serious injury. As such, any individual participating
the initial landing phase. in this activity must take full responsibility for their personal
safety.
It is recommended that high intensity strobe lights not be used
while the aircraft is on the ground when they adversely affect Transport Canada does not regulate the sport of parachuting
ground personnel or other pilots. Circumstances permitting, directly. Transport Canada does not regulate or have licensing
high intensity strobe lights should be activated anytime the or certification requirements for parachute equipment, parachute
aircraft is occupying an active runway, including awaiting takeoff packers/riggers, parachuting instructors or coaches.
clearance while holding on the active runway. They should be It is strongly recommended that persons participating in
extinguished after landing once clear of the active runway. parachuting activities be conversant with the procedures and
High intensity strobe lights should not be used in-flight when standards established by associations representing parachuting
AIR
there is an adverse ref lection from clouds or other activities. In Canada, that association is:
weather phenomena. Canadian Sport Parachuting Association (CSPA)
204-1468 Laurier Street
4.7 mAnneD free BAlloon oPerAtionS Rockland ON K4K 1C7
Pilots and owners of balloons, like all other aircraft pilots and Tel.: ............................................................... 613-419-0908
owners, must comply with the CARs with respect to crew Transport Canada regulations pertaining to parachuting are in
licensing, aircraft registration and operating procedures. place to ensure the safety and efficiency of the air navigation
system in which parachuting takes place and to ensure the safety
4.7.1 Balloon Operations with Fare-Paying of persons and property on the ground.
Passengers CAR 602.26 states, “Except where permitted in accordance with
CAR 603.17 states, “No person shall operate a balloon under section 603.37, no pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall permit,
this Division unless the person complies with the provisions of and no person shall conduct, a parachute descent from the aircraft
a special flight operations certificate - balloons issued by the (a) in or into controlled airspace or an air route; or
Minister pursuant to Section 603.18.”
(b) over or into a built-up area or an open-air assembly
of persons.”
419
TC AIM March 25, 2021
CAR 603.37 states, “…a pilot-in-command may permit and a Alerting devices provide the pilot with a visual and/or aural
person may conduct a parachute descent under this Division if alarm to direct the pilot’s attention to a situation that may require
the person complies with the provisions of a special flight an immediate intervention by the pilot.
operations certificate - parachuting issued by the Minister
Good operating practices suggest a popped circuit breaker can
pursuant to Section 603.38.”
indicate that there is a potential problem being protected. The
practice of attempting one reset should only be considered if the
4.9 hAng gliDer AnD PArAgliDer oPerAtionS equipment rendered unusable is considered essential for the
continued safety of the flight. Depending on the amperage of
Hang gliders and paragliders are not required to be registered the circuit breaker and its location within the circuit being
or to bear identification marks. There are no airworthiness protected, resetting a popped circuit breaker may create a more
standards or requirements imposed by the CARs. The CARs do adverse situation than simply leaving the circuit breaker out.
not impose any training requirements for hang glider or paraglider Indiscriminately resetting popped circuit breakers should be
pilots, and the regulations do not require these pilots to hold any avoided.
pilot licence or permit to operate their aircraft. There is, however,
a requirement to successfully complete a written examination Crew members are cautioned against pulling circuit breakers
before piloting hang gliders and paragliders in controlled airspace. on board an aircraft in order to silence an alerting or warning
Section 602.29 of the CARs outlines airspace requirements for device that may in fact be providing a valid warning or alarm.
hang gliders and paragliders. Hang glider operators may use an Examples of such alarms include landing gear warning horn
ultralight aeroplane to tow a hang glider. Before doing so, these with certain flap/slat combinations, overspeed warnings, ground
operators are required to notify Transport Canada. proximity warning system alerts and washroom smoke detectors.
Deactivating the alerting or warning device by pulling circuit
The Hang Gliding and Paragliding Association of Canada (HPAC) breakers compromises or may compromise the safety of flight.
has developed standards for pilot ratings, competitions, setting Exceptions would be acceptable for an obvious malfunction
records, safety procedures and reporting, as well as for solo and resulting in continuous erroneous warnings. In these cases, a
two-place pilot instruction. Information regarding HPAC defect entry in the aircraft journey log book must be made.
operations and procedures may be obtained from:
Margit Nance
Executive Director 4.12 DeSign eye reference Point
Hang Gliding and Paragliding Association of Some aircraft manufacturers provide reference points which the
Canada (HPAC) pilot uses while making the seat adjustments. These reference
308-1978 Vine Street points could be something as simple as two balls affixed to the
Vancouver BC V6K 4S1 glare shield which the pilot must line up visually. In a two-pilot
E-mail:........................................................admin@hpac.ca aircraft the reference points could be formed by three balls in a
Tel.: .................................................................877-370-2078 triangle and each pilot would adjust the seat until the respective
reference balls line up. The intent, of course, is to have the pilot
adjust the seat in order for the eyes of the pilot to be at the
4.10 ultrA-light AeroPlAne optimum location for visibility, inside and outside the cockpit,
AIR
420
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(d) the chosen seat position should be comfortable for the Exhaust plumes are defined as visible or invisible emissions
pilot. from power plants, industrial production facilities or other
industrial systems that release large amounts of vertically directed
unstable gases. High temperature exhaust plumes may cause
4.13 firSt AiD kitS on PrivAtely owneD significant air disturbances, such as turbulence and vertical shear.
AnD oPerAteD AircrAft Other identified potential hazards include, but are not necessarily
CAR 602.60 requires a first aid kit to be carried on board every limited to, reduced visibility, oxygen depletion, engine particulate
power-driven aircraft, other than an ultra-light aeroplane. For contamination, exposure to gaseous oxides, and/or icing.
a list of recommended items that should be carried in a first aid When able, pilots should fly upwind of possible exhaust plumes.
kit on board aircraft that are privately owned and operated, refer Encountering a plume may result in airframe damage, aircraft
to Part 9—First Aid of the Aviation Occupational Health and upset, and/or engine damage/failure. These hazards are most
Safety Regulations (SOR/2011-87). <https://laws-lois.justice. critical during low altitude flight in calm and cold air, especially
gc.ca/eng/regulations/sor-2011-87/page-10.html#h-781458> in and around approach and departure corridors or in airport
traffic areas.
4.14 SurvivAl ADviSory informAtion When a plume is visible via smoke or a condensation cloud,
remain clear and realize that a plume may have both visible and
A basic survival manual should be carried, appropriate to the
invisible characteristics. Exhaust stacks without visible plumes
area of flight.
may still be in full operation, and airspace in the vicinity should
Private pilots should obtain some training in certain aspects of be treated with caution. As with mountain wave turbulence or
survival if they have never spent time in the bush in winter or CAT, an invisible plume may be encountered unexpectedly.
summer. Those planning to fly above the tree line should obtain
Whether plumes are visible or invisible, the total extent of their
more specialized training.
turbulent effect is difficult to ascertain. Some studies predict
Locating and saving people in aeronautical emergencies has that the significant turbulent effects of a thermal plume can
been greatly improved by the changes implemented by the extend over 1 000 ft above the top of the stack or cooling tower.
SARSAT/COSPAS members. Today the SARSAT/COSPAS Any effects will be more pronounced where the plume is very
system provides global detection capability by satellite. The hot and the surrounding air is calm, stable and cold. Fortunately,
improvements in reliability of ELTs in conjunction with the studies also predict that crosswinds help dissipate the effects.
global application SARSAT/COSPAS systems has greatly However, the size of the tower or stack is not a good indicator
increased the chances of early detection and location of crash of the plume’s predicted effect. The effects are primarily related
survivors. The carriage of food is no longer a critical item in to the heat or size of the plume effluent, the ambient air
survival and is left as a personal choice of the individual operator. temperature, and the wind speed affecting the plume. Smaller
(See AIP Canada (ICAO) GEN 1.5) aircraft can expect to be affected at a higher altitude than heavier
aircraft.
4.15 PotentiAl flight hAzArDS for AircrAft Pilots are encouraged to reference the CFS for the location of
structure(s) emitting exhaust plumes, such as cooling towers,
AIR
power plant stacks, exhaust fans and other similar structures.
4.15.1 Avoid Flight in the Vicinity of Exhaust
Plumes Pilots encountering hazardous plume conditions should report
time, location and intensity (light, moderate, severe or extreme)
Figure 4.1—Visible and Invisible Plumes to the facility with which they are maintaining radio contact.
Visible Plume Invisible Plume 4.15.2 Pilot Procedures When Exposed to Laser
and Other Directed Bright Light Sources
4.15.2.1 General
Directed bright light sources projected near airports or into any
navigable airspace can cause potential flight control disruptions
and/or eye injury to pilots, crew members, and passengers. The
number of laser illuminations affecting aircraft has significantly
increased during the past few years. In particular, the number
of laser incidents reported involving law enforcement helicopters
has substantially increased.
Canada and the USA have both recorded numerous instances
of laser exposures that have been disruptive to flight operations.
Flight crews may be startled; they may be affected by glare,
flash blindness and/or afterimage due to laser occurrences.
421
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Directed bright light sources, particularly laser beams, projected (b) Turn on additional exterior lights to help ground laser safety
near airports or into any navigable airspace can cause two flight observers locate the aircraft, so they can respond by turning
safety concerns: off the laser beam.
(a) The primary concern is when non-injurious, bright, directed (c) Turn on thunderstorm lights to minimize cockpit illumination
light unexpectedly enters the cockpit. Depending on the effects.
brightness level, the light could startle (a) flight crew (d) Engage the autopilot.
member(s); cause glare, making it difficult to see out the
windscreen; or cause temporary vision impairment (flash (e) Have one flight crew member stay on the instruments to
blindness and/or afterimage). The illumination and glare minimize the effects of a possible illumination while in the
may be short—one or a few bright flashes—but the startle area of expected laser activity.
and afterimage effects could persist for many seconds or (f) Consider using notch filter eye spectacles that protect against
even minutes. 514- and 532-nanometre laser wavelengths, if flying a
(b) A secondary concern is a laser beam so powerful that it helicopter engaged in surveillance or medical evacuation.
causes temporary or permanent eye injury to pilots, crew
members, or passengers. Fortunately, this is only a remote 4.15.2.2.2 Incident Procedures
possibility because the laser power required to cause eye
If a laser beam illuminates a pilot in flight, the pilot should:
injury greatly exceeds that of lasers in common use today.
(a) Immediately look away from the laser source or try to shield
Therefore, the most likely in-flight safety hazard is a bright
their eyes with their hand or a hand-held object to avoid, if
non-injurious flash causing disruption in the cockpit workflow.
possible, looking directly at the laser beam.
This disruption poses significant flight safety hazards when the
cockpit workload increases below 10 000 ft AGL, such as during (b) Immediately alert the other flight crew member(s) and advise
critical phases of flight (approach and landing); in dense traffic them of the illumination and its effect on their vision.
areas (terminal environment and en route areas); and in proximity (c) If vision is impaired, immediately transfer control of the
to airports. aircraft to the other flight crew member. If other flight crew
Even laser pointers can cause pilots to become distracted from members have been illuminated, engage the autopilot (if
their immediate tasks. Reports of pilots exposed to persons using equipped).
laser pointers have been increasing in number. Pilots flying law (d) Be very cautious of spatial disorientation effects (e.g. the
enforcement helicopters have been particularly targeted by lasers. leans). After regaining vision, they should check cockpit
instruments for proper flight status.
4.15.2.2 Procedures (e) Resist the urge to rub their eyes after a laser illumination,
The primary purpose of this subsection is to outline preventive as this action may cause further eye irritation or damage.
measures and incident procedures that pilots can follow to either (f) Contact ATC and advise of a “LASER ILLUMINATION”.
prevent potential illuminations or minimize cockpit disruption. Use this terminology for all laser incident/accident reports.
For simplicity, the following procedures refer to laser illumination If the situation dictates, declare an emergency.
incidents; however, the same procedures should be applied
AIR
regardless of the source, whether it is a laser or any other directed (g) When time permits, provide ATC with an incident report
bright light, such as a searchlight. that includes the laser location, direction, and beam colour
as well as the length of exposure (flash or intentional
tracking) and the effect on the crew.
4.15.2.2.1 Preventive Procedures
During aircraft operations into navigable airspace where laser NOTE:
illuminations are anticipated, flight crews should: To ensure that TC has sufficient information to analyze and
investigate occurrences, please complete the “Directed Bright
(a) Consult NOTAMs for temporary laser activity. The NOTAM Light Illumination Incident Report/Questionnaire” at <http://
should include the location and time of the laser operations. wwwapps.tc.gc.ca/wwwdocs/Forms/26-0751E_1405-03_E_X.
Avoid known permanent laser displays (e.g. Disney World). pdf> and send the completed form to <services@tc.gc.ca>.
In the USA, these sites are published in the Airport/Facility
Directory, a Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
4.15.2.2.3 Medical Follow-up Procedures After an
publication available at <www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_
In-flight Illumination
info/aeronav/digital_products/dafd/>. Currently, there is
only one permanent laser display site in Canada, located at A crew member who has been subjected to a significant
the Shaw Millennium Park in Calgary, Alta., (510258N illumination and who experiences persistent symptoms, such as
1140530W 5 NM SW AIRPORT) but it is only being used pain or visual abnormalities (e.g. f lash blindness and/or
for special events (e.g. Canada Day). A NOTAM is published afterimage), should seek immediate medical attention. In addition,
on those specific days. they should contact a RAMO or an aviation medical officer at
the earliest opportunity. The medical officer will provide
assistance in locating the nearest ophthalmologist or medical
422
TC AIM March 25, 2021
NOTE:
Because diagnosis can be difficult, especially for medical
personnel who rarely, if ever, see laser eye injuries, it should not
be automatically assumed that a particular symptom, abnormality
or injury was caused by a given laser exposure.
Civil Aviation Medicine New Brunswick, Nova Scotia, Prince Edward Island,
Transport Canada Newfoundland and Labrador
330 Sparks Street
Civil Aviation Medicine
Place de Ville, Tower C, Room 617
Transport Canada
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
330 Sparks Street
Tel.: 613-990-1311 Place de Ville, Tower C, Room 617
Fax: 613-990-6623 Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
Tel.: 1-800-305-2059
Fax: 613-990-6623
Quebec Ontario
Civil Aviation Medicine Civil Aviation Medicine
Transport Canada Transport Canada
330 Sparks Street 4900 Yonge Street, 4th Floor
AIR
Place de Ville, Tower C, Room 617 North York ON M2N 6A5
Ottawa ON K1A 0N8
Tel.: 1-800-305-2059
Tel.: 1-800-305-2059 Fax: 416-952-0569
Fax: 613-990-6623
423
TC AIM March 25, 2021
AIR
424
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RPA
AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (mRPAS)—LESS
AIRCRAFT THAN 250 g
Micro remotely piloted aircraft systems (mRPAS) are made up
1.0 GENERAL INFORMATION of a remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) weighing less than 250 g
and its control station. The weight of the control station is not
The following parts of this chapter provide detailed information factored in to the weight calculation when determining whether
for the safe operation of a remotely piloted aircraft system (RPAS). an RPA is a micro RPA (< 250 g) or a small RPA (250 g to 25 kg).
This information is intended to be used in conjunction with However, the weight of any payload carried by the RPA, such
regulations and associated standards found in Part IX of the as an optional camera, a lens filter, pegs, propeller guards, stickers,
Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs). Part IX rules apply and lights, will be considered part of the total weight. The micro
regardless of the purpose of the RPAS use (e.g. recreational, RPA could thus reach 250 g or more and be made in the category
commercial, work, research). of small RPA from 250 g to 25 kg and have to comply with
Subpart 1 of Part IX of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs),
This chapter has been organized to follow the order in which
requiring, among other things, an RPA registration and an RPA
information is described in Part IX of the CARs with a description
pilot certification.
of the regulation, ways to meet the regulation’s objective, and
additional related information. Pilots of mRPASs are not subject to Subpart 1 of Part IX of the
CARs, so they are not required to register their RPAs or obtain
While an RPA refers to the aircraft vehicle itself, RPAS includes
a certificate to fly them. However, they must adhere to CAR 900.06
the aircraft as well as the related system components – battery,
and ensure they do not operate their RPA in such a reckless or
payload, control station, and command and control (C2) link.
negligent manner as to endanger or be likely to endanger aviation
As RPA is defined as a navigable aircraft under CAR 101.01 - safety or the safety of any person. While there are no prescriptive
Subpart 1, other sections of the CARs may also apply, such as elements of the regulation that inform the pilot how to accomplish
CAR 601.04 and 601.16, and section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act. this objective, there is an expectation that the pilot of an mRPA
These regulations restrict the use of airspace to all “aircraft”. should use good judgment, identify potential hazards, and take
For more information, refer to RAC 2.8.6 Class F Airspace in all necessary steps to mitigate any risks associated with the
the Transport Canada Aeronautical Information Manual (TC AIM). operation. This should include having an understanding of the
environment in which the RPA pilot is operating, with particular
The Part IX of the CARs is enforced by delegated peace officers
attention paid to the possibility of aircraft or people being in the
such as a member of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP)
same area.
or by Transport Canada (TC) inspectors and investigators. TC
is also partnering with other provincial and municipal law As a rule of thumb:
enforcement agencies to obtain delegation to enforce Part IX.
(a) Maintain the mRPA in direct line of sight;
Refer to TC AIM LRA 6.4 for more information on monetary
penalties and to CAR 103 Schedule II, where they are designated (b) Avoid flying your mRPA above 400 ft in the air;
and listed. (c) Keep a safe distance between your mRPA and other people;
In addition to Part IX and other regulations in the CARs, other (d) Stay far away from aerodromes, water aerodromes, and
regulations apply when an RPAS is flown. The provisions of heliports;
the Criminal Code could apply if an individual is creating
mischief, fatigued, flying under the influence of alcohol or (e) Avoid flying near critical infrastructure;
drugs, or endangering the safety of people or an aircraft. Other (f) Stay clear of aircraft at all times;
rules such as the Privacy Act, the Personal Information Protection (g) Conduct a pre-flight inspection of your mRPA;
and Electronic Documents Act, or provincial privacy legislation
may also apply. Be respectful of people’s privacy. It is a good (h) Keep the mRPA close enough to maintain the connection
practice to let people know you will be flying in the area and with the remote controller;
what you are doing with your RPA; you should also obtain an (i) Follow the manufacturer’s operational guidelines; and
individual’s consent if you are going to record private information.
(j) Avoid advertised events.
Privacy guidelines can be found online at <canada.ca/drone-
safety>. These guidelines will help you avoid flying in a negligent or
reckless manner and being subject to monetary fines. They will
Be mindful of other laws that may apply to drone flying like the
also help ensure that you enjoy a safe flight and minimize the
Species at Risk Act, Marine Mammal Regulations, Migratory
risk of an incident. Remember: if you feel that a flight is risky,
Birds Regulations, etc.
do not fly.
If CARs 601.04 and 601.16 as well as section 5.1 of the Aeronautics
Act prohibit for all “aircraft” the use of airspace, they therefore
apply to micro RPAs because they are considered aircraft under
425
TC AIM March 25, 2021
the Aeronautics Act and the CARs. For more information, see 3.1.1 Modifying a Registration
RPA
RAC 2.8.6 Class F Airspace in the Transport Canada Aeronautical
Information Manual (TC AIM).
3.1.1.1 Cancelling a Registration
Micro RPAs are therefore prohibited from entering the following
An RPA registration is cancelled once any of the conditions
zones without proper authorization:
detailed in CAR 901.07 are met. It is the responsibility of the
(a) Class F Special Use Restricted airspace; registered owner to notify the Minister within 7 days if their
(b) Zones for which a NOTAM for forest fire aircraft operating registered RPA is destroyed, permanently out of service, missing
restrictions has been issued; and for more than 60 days, missing with a terminated aircraft search,
or transferred to a new owner. The registration is also cancelled
(c) Zones in which section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act restricts if the owner of the aircraft dies, the entity that owns the aircraft
the use of airspace for all aircraft. ceases to exist, or the owner no longer meets the requirements
A pilot that is found to have created a hazard either to aviation of CAR 901.04.
safety or to people on the ground is subject to an individual Notification can be provided to the Minister through the Drone
penalty of $1,000 and/or a corporate penalty of $5,000 Management Portal.
(CAR 103, Schedule II).
It is important to note that the registration is cancelled immediately
when any of the conditions above are met and not when the
3.0 SMALL REMOTELY PILOTED Minister is notified.
AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (sRPAS)—250 g If an RPA for which the registration has been cancelled and for
TO 25 kg which the Minister has been notified has been found, fixed, or
otherwise brought back into service, an application for a new
registration must be completed.
3.1 regiStrAtion Failure to notify the Minister in accordance with CAR 901.07
All small remotely piloted aircraft (sRPA) in Canada must be may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate
registered, and the registration number must be on the aircraft penalties of up to $5,000.
and clearly visible (Canadian Aviation Regulation [CAR] 901.02,
901.03). The method of marking the registration on the RPA is 3.1.1.2 Change of Name or Address
left to the discretion of the owner. The RPA pilot should consult
the manufacturer’s instructions to ensure affixing the registration Registered owners of RPAs are required to notify the Minister
will not affect the aircraft’s airworthiness. The registration within 7 days of a change of name or address. Notification can
should be located on the main body of the aircraft and not on be provided to the Minister through the Drone Management
frangible or removable parts such as batteries, motor mounts, Portal.
or payloads; it should contrast with the primary colour of the Failure to notify the Minister in accordance with CAR 901.08
RPA and be clearly visible when the aircraft is not in motion; may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate
and it should be durable because, in most cases, the registration penalties of up to $5,000.
will stay with the RPA for the duration of its service life regardless
of any changes of ownership. If the marking degrades (e.g.
permanent marker wears off or a label’s glue wears out) such 3.2 generAl oPerAtion AnD flight ruleS
that the number is no longer visible, the pilot is responsible for This subpart describes general rules for small RPASs; these
making the number visible again (e.g. re-write or create a new rules apply to both basic and advanced operations unless there
label). are specific exclusions.
Registration is completed online through the Drone Management
Portal (<www.canada.ca/drone-safety>) and a registration number 3.2.1 Line-of-sight
is provided immediately once the required information is
Visual line-of-sight (VLOS) RPAS operations rely on the LOS
submitted and the associated fee is paid. In order to register a
concept to ensure safety and regulatory compliance. This concept
small RPA, the applicant must meet the requirements of
assumes an imaginary line between the pilot, through the control
CAR 901.04.
station, and the RPA, unimpeded by any obstacles or excessive
A pilot is required to present proof of registration, digital or distance. Line-of-sight can be broken into two distinct categories:
physical, upon request from a peace officer or a person delegated 1. Visual line-of-sight by way of the pilot keeping a visual
by the Minister of Transport such as a Transport Canada inspector reference with the RPA unaided throughout the flight.
(CAR 103.02(1) and 901.09). Failure to register, mark, or present
2. Radio line-of-sight (RLOS), which is a function of the C2
proof of registration of an RPA can result in individual penalties
data link between the control station and the RPA for the
of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
purposes of managing the flight. Both the VLOS and the
RLOS share the same foundational idea but can have different
applications in RPA operations.
426
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RPA
The CARs define VLOS as “unaided visual contact at all times In cases where a public authority has established a security
with the remotely piloted aircraft that is sufficient to be able to perimeter around an emergency area (e.g. fire, police incident,
maintain operational control of the aircraft, know its location, earthquake, or flood) RPA pilots are required to stay outside of
and be able to scan the airspace in which it is operating to detect the perimeter unless they are acting in the service of the public
and avoid other aircraft or objects.” (CAR 900.01). CAR 901.11(1) authority that created the perimeter, acting to save a human life,
requires that pilots operating RPASs maintain VLOS at all times or working with first responders such as police or fire authorities
during flight. Losing sight of the RPA behind buildings or trees (CAR 901.12).
or into clouds or fog is strictly prohibited even for a short period
Security perimeters can generally be identified as places where
of time.
public officials limit or restrict access, where caution or police
Maintaining VLOS can be achieved by an individual pilot keeping perimeter tape has been erected, or where first responders are
the RPA within sight for the duration of the flight or by using on the scene. It is critical that RPA pilots and their aircraft do
one or more trained visual observers. The RPA must remain in not enter or fly over these areas as they may conflict with or
VLOS with the pilot or at least one visual observer at all times. prevent lifesaving activities.
The pilot may take his or her eyes off the aircraft for brief moments
Failure to respect these perimeters can result in individual
to operate the control station or perform other flight-critical
penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to
tasks without being considered to have lost VLOS. If a task will
$5,000.
require extended loss of visual contact, the pilot should use a
visual observer or land the aircraft until the task is complete.
3.2.3 Airspace
While the maximum range for VLOS is not prescribed by
regulation, pilots are required to determine the maximum distance
the RPA can travel away from them before it becomes a hazard 3.2.3.1 Canadian Domestic Airspace
(CAR 901.28(c)). The factors to consider when determining this Canadian RPA pilots are required to keep their RPA within CDA
range are discussed in paragraph 3.2.6.2(a) Limitations of the as detailed in RAC subpart 2.2 of the TC AIM and the Designated
Eye in this chapter. However, the manufacturer’s instructions Airspace Handbook (DAH) (CAR 901.13).
or user manual takes precedence in this matter and should be
consulted prior to determining the maximum range. Failure to remain within CDA can result in individual penalties
of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
It is important to note that the regulations require VLOS be
unaided. Pilots and visual observers may not use binoculars,
telescopes, or zoom lenses to maintain VLOS, but unmagnified 3.2.3.2 Controlled Airspace
night-vision devices are permitted for night VLOS operations RPA pilots are required to keep their RPA clear of controlled
provided they are able to detect all light within the visual spectrum airspace unless:
(CAR 901.39(2)). Glasses, such as sunglasses or prescription
(a) the pilot holds a Pilot Certificate - RPA (VLOS) - Advanced
glasses, are not considered to be aids and are permitted.
Operations as described in section 3.4.1 of this chapter;
Maintaining VLOS is a fundamental requirement for safe RPA
(b) the RPAS manufacturer has declared that the unit meets
operations as it is the primary, and often only, means of avoiding
the appropriate safety assurance profile as described in
other airborne traffic. Failure to maintain VLOS can result in
section 3.4.3 of this chapter; and
individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties
of up to $5,000. (c) the RPA pilot has received an authorization from the
appropriate air navigation service provider (ANSP) as
described in section 3.4.4 of this chapter.
3.2.1.2 Radio line-of-sight (RLOS)
All three conditions must be met to gain access to controlled
The signal used by most small RPAs is often transmitted in the
airspace and each will be discussed in an individual section of
2.4 GHz part of the electromagnetic spectrum, mainly because
this chapter.
of range performance and the fact that it is a part of the spectrum
that does not require a licence to transmit. This frequency band For the purposes of RPAS operations, controlled airspace includes
is crowded by many users, and an RPA pilot can experience Class A, B, C, D, and E. Class F airspace can be controlled
electromagnetic interference from these other devices. In addition, airspace, uncontrolled airspace, or a combination of both.
signals in this band are susceptible to interruption by physical A basic description of controlled airspace can be found below.
interference from buildings and trees. It is critical, therefore, to Additional information can be found in the DAH and in the
ensure that there is uninterrupted RLOS between the control subpart RAC 2.8 of the TC AIM. Flight within each class is
station and the RPA, regardless of the distance between the two. governed by specific rules applicable to that class and are
A control station that is powerful enough to transmit a signal a contained in CAR 601.01, Division I — Airspace Structure,
few kilometres away may nevertheless be unable to control an Classification and Use. CAR 601 can be found at <https://lois-
RPA a few metres away if there is an obstacle or interference laws.justice.gc.ca/eng/regulations/SOR-96-433/FullText.
in RLOS. html#s-601.01>.
427
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(a) Class A Airspace from the surface to an altitude of 3 000 ft AGL. It can also
RPA
RPA Pilots wishing to operate in Class A airspace require often exist from 2 200 ft AGL and up in a control area
specific authorization from both TC and NAV CANADA. extension surrounding a control zone. When this type of
See section 3.6.1 of this chapter for information about airspace is not associated with an airport it usually begins
SFOC - RPAS. at 700 ft AGL and extends to 12 500 ft ASL, but the exact
size and shape of the space is dependent on local airspace
Class A airspace is generally defined as high-level airspace management needs. Class E airspace is depicted on all
starting at FL 180 or approximately 18 000 ft in Southern VNCs and VTAs as well as in the DAH and the National
Domestic Airspace, FL 230 in Northern Domestic Airspace, Research Council Canada Drone Site Selection Tool.
and FL 270 in Arctic Domestic Airspace. This type of
airspace is not denoted on aeronautical charts. Given the (f) Class F Airspace
high-level nature of Class A airspace, it is rarely a concern Class F Airspace is special use airspace and can be either
for small RPA pilots. More information on Class A airspace restricted or advisory. Class F can be controlled airspace,
can be found in the TC AIM RAC 2.8.1. uncontrolled airspace, or a combination of both, depending
(b) Class B Airspace on the classification of the airspace surrounding it.
(i) Class F Restricted Airspace
RPA pilots wishing to operate in Class B airspace require
specific authorization from both Transport Canada and the Class F restricted airspace is denoted as CYR
ANSP. See section 3.6.1 of this chapter for information followed by three numbers (e.g. CYR123). The letter
about SFOC - RPAS. D for danger area will be used if the restricted area
is established over international waters. Class F
Class B airspace is generally defined as low-level controlled restricted airspace is identified on all VNCs and
airspace and exists between 12 500 ft and the floor of Class VTAs as well as the National Research Council
A airspace but it may include some control zones and control Canada Drone Site Selection Tool and should be
areas that are lower. The specific dimensions of Class B avoided by all airspace users except those approved
airspace in Canada can be found in the DAH. by the user agency. CYRs can be found over federal
(c) Class C Airspace prisons and some military training areas, for example.
Additional information can be found in RAC 2.8.6
Class C airspace is considered an advanced operating
of the TC AIM. To gain access to Class F Restricted
environment. See section 3.4.3 of this chapter for more
airspace, RPA pilots should contact the user agency
information.
as listed for the specific block of airspace in the DAH.
Class C airspace is controlled airspace and generally exists (ii) Class F Advisory Airspace
around large airports and extends from the surface to an
altitude of 3 000 ft AGL, but the exact size and shape of the Class F Advisory airspace is denoted as CYA
space is dependent on local airspace management needs. followed by three numbers (e.g. CYA123). Class F
Class C airspace is depicted on all VFR Navigation advisory airspace is identified on all VNCs and
Charts (VNC) and VFR Terminal Area Charts (VTA) as (VTAs as well as the National Research Council
well in the DAH and the National Research Council Canada Canada Drone Site Selection Tool. CYA denotes
Drone Site Selection Tool. airspace reserved for a specific application such as
hang-gliding, flight training, or helicopter operations.
(d) Class D Airspace RPA pilots are not restricted from operating in
Class D airspace is considered an advanced operating advisory airspace and no special permission is
environment. See section 3.4.3 of this chapter for more required, but pilots should be aware of the reason
information. the airspace has the advisory and take steps to
Class D airspace is controlled airspace and generally exists identify any additional risks and mitigate them. Many
around medium-sized airports and extends from the surface activities in a CYA often bring directly piloted
to an altitude of 3 000 ft AGL, but the exact size and shape (manned) aircraft into airspace below 400 ft AGL
of the space is dependent on local airspace management and are therefore a greater risk to RPA operations.
needs. Class D airspace is depicted on all VNCs and VTAs Additional information can be found in RAC 2.8.6
as well in the DAH and the National Research Council of the TC AIM.
Canada Drone Site Selection Tool.
(e) Class E Airspace
Class E airspace is considered an advanced environment.
See section 3.4.3 of this chapter for more information.
Class E airspace is controlled airspace for aircraft operating
under IFR and can exist around an airport as a control zone
or away from an airport where an operational need exists
to control IFR aircraft. Class E control zones usually extend
428
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(g) Class G Airspace airspace may occur could result in individual penalties of $1,000
RPA
Class G airspace exists in any space that is not Class A, B, or corporate penalties of $5,000.
C, D, E, or F. Class G airspace is uncontrolled and is
considered the basic operating environment for RPAS, 3.2.4 Flight Safety
assuming the conditions regarding proximity to people, RPA pilots are legitimate airspace users but are new entrants
airports, and heliport are met. These will be discussed in into a complex environment. It is the responsibility of the RPA
RAC 3.2.14 and 3.2.35. pilots to take their role in the aviation environment seriously
and ensure all necessary steps are taken to mitigate any possible
3.2.3.3 Drone Site Selection Tool risks. RPA pilots must keep in mind that the risk of injuring a
This online interactive tool provides information regarding person is greater than colliding with another aircraft, and a good
airspace restrictions around airports, heliports, and aerodromes safety margin should be kept according to the situation, especially
to facilitate flight planning and ensure compliance with the for advanced operations within 30 m of the public. It is the RPA
regulations. It was designed to help RPA pilots determine areas pilot’s responsibility to manage the flight to ensure a safe outcome.
where drone flight is prohibited, restricted, or potentially He or she is to use all resources available to make appropriate,
hazardous. The Drone Site Selection Tool can be found at <https:// safe decisions to continue with the RPA flight or to end or
cnrc.canada.ca/en/drone-tool/>. re-schedule operations if needed.
The tool is powered by a Google Earth engine that uses colour If, during an operation, the pilot becomes aware of any situation
to identify areas that require additional caution or where RPA that endangers aviation safety or the safety of persons on the
flights are prohibited according to a basic or advanced RPA ground he or she must immediately cease the operation until it
operation category. Users should start by selecting the appropriate is safe to continue (CAR 901.16). Failure to do so may result in
category of drone operations (i.e. basic or advanced). Areas individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties
filled with red are prohibited. Areas filled with yellow require of up to $5,000.
additional caution due to other air traffic. Areas filled with
orange require permission from NAV CANADA, Parks Canada, 3.2.5 Right of Way and Risk of Collision
National Defence, or an airport operator.
RPA pilots must give way to all other aircraft, including balloons,
When a user clicks on the control zones, information is displayed gliders, airships, and hang gliders heavier than air aircraft
regarding the emergency contact information, airspace class, (CAR 901.17). It is critical that this rule is respected and that
flight permission requirements, and more. It is important that RPA pilots take their role in ensuring collision avoidance seriously
the user verify the information before initiating the RPAS as pilots of other aircraft may not be able to see the RPA as well
operation; it is the pilot’s responsibility to contact the responsible as the RPA pilot can see and hear other aircraft. RPA pilots must
authorities if he or she wishes to enter restricted airspace. not operate so close to another aircraft as to create the risk of
collision (CAR 901.18). If a collision with another aircraft becomes
Data regarding airports and heliports comes from the Canada
likely, RPA pilots must take immediate action to exit the area
Flight Supplement (CFS), a NAV CANADA publication, and is
by the quickest means possible. This often means rapidly reducing
updated every 56 days. The airspace data comes from the
altitude.
Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH) of NAV CANADA.
The national park data was extracted from the Canada Lands Failure to give way to other aircraft or to remain far enough
Surveys web services. A limited amount of data has been added away from other aircraft to avoid the risk of collision may result
manually to extend and improve upon the tool. An example of in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties
this is the inclusion of the restrictions surrounding Quebec of up to $5,000 and could constitute endangering an aircraft
corrections facilities as identified in NAV CANADA’s under the Criminal Code.
AIP Supplement 20/19.
3.2.6 Detecting and Avoiding Traffic
3.2.3.4 Inadvertent Entry Into Controlled Airspace
RPA pilots must be aware of not only the airspace in which they 3.2.6.1 General
are operating but also the surrounding airspace, specifically When flying an RPA within VLOS, pilots practise “detect-and-
their proximity to controlled airspace and restricted airspace, avoid” (DAA) as a primary method of minimizing the risk of
both laterally and vertically. If the RPAS operation is taking collision with other aircraft. DAA requires the pilot to look away
place at a location from which the RPA might enter controlled from the control station and become aware of his/her aircraft
or special use airspace in the event of a fly-away, the RPA pilot and the surrounding environment. If the pilot can acquire skills
should have the contact information for the appropriate ANSP to compensate for the limitations of the human eye, the DAA
or user agency immediately available. In the event that the RPA practice can be greatly improved and effective in facilitating a
enters or is about to enter controlled airspace or special use safer flight environment altogether. More information on how
airspace, the pilot must immediately notify the appropriate air pilots can improve their visual skills is available in 3.2.6.2(b)
traffic control (ATC) unit, flight service station (FSS), or user Visual Scanning Technique.
agency (CAR 901.15). Failure to notify the appropriate agency
or agencies when unauthorized entry into controlled or restricted
429
TC AIM March 25, 2021
In addition, the RPA pilot has other tools to detect traffic, such (b) Visual Scanning Technique
RPA
as hearing an approaching aircraft, monitoring a local ATC Avoiding collisions requires effective scanning from before
frequency, and using transponder or ADS-B monitoring devices, takeoff until the aircraft comes to a stop at the end of a
which are becoming more common. flight. The best way to avoid collisions is by learning how
to use your eyes for efficient scanning, as well as
3.2.6.2 Seeing Traffic understanding the visual limitations described above and
(a) Limitations of the Eye not overestimating your visual abilities.
The eye is the primary means of identifying what is Before takeoff, visually scan the airspace around your
happening around us, as 80% of our information intake is intended take-off location. Assess traffic audibly as well,
conducted through the eyes. During flight we depend on listening for engine sounds and, if possible, radio
our eyes to provide basic input necessary for flying, such transmissions. After takeoff, keep scanning throughout the
as proximity to other air traffic, direction, speed, and altitude flight to ensure that no other traffic will be a hazard to your
of the RPA. A basic understanding of the eyes’ limitations aircraft.
in target detection is important for avoiding collisions. Scanning your eyes over a large area of sky at once without
Vision is influenced by atmospheric conditions, glare, stopping to focus on anything is ineffective. Because the
lighting, temperature, aircraft design, and so forth. On a eyes can focus only on a narrow viewing area, effective
sunny day, for example, glare is worse. Glare makes it hard scanning is achieved through short, regularly spaced eye
to see what is at a distance as well as making the scanning movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the
process uncomfortable. central visual field. Movement can be detected more
effectively through peripheral vision, so this pause in a
Vision can be affected by different levels of illumination: visual scan allows for easier detection of threats such as
aircraft and birds. An effective scan is a continuous process
(i) Bright illumination: reflected off of clouds, water,
used by the pilot and observer to cover all areas of the sky
snow, and desert terrain; produces glare resulting
visible from the control station.
in eye strain.
(ii) Dark Adaptation: Eyes must have at least 20 to 30 Although horizontal back-and-forth eye movements seem
minutes to adjust to reduced light conditions. to be preferred by most pilots, every pilot should develop
(A) Red light helps night vision; however, it distorts a scanning pattern that is most comfortable for them and
colour and makes details hard to perceive; then adhere to it to assure optimum scanning. Pilots should
(B) Light adaptation can be destroyed in seconds, realize that their eyes may require several seconds to refocus
though closing one eye may preserve some. when switching views between items in or on the control
station and distant objects. The eyes will also tire more
Additionally, vision is impaired by exposure to altitudes quickly when forced to adjust to distances immediately
above 5 000 ft ASL, carbon monoxide inhaled from smoking after close-up focus, as required for scanning the control
and exhaust fumes, a deficiency of Vitamin A in one’s diet, station. While there is no “one size fits all” technique for
and prolonged exposure to bright sunlight. an optimum scan, many pilots use some form of the “block”
One significant limitation of the eye is the time required system scan. This scan involves dividing the sky into blocks,
for accommodation, or refocusing of objects both near and each spanning approximately 10 to 15 degrees of the horizon
far. It takes 1 to 2 seconds for the eyes to adjust during and 10 to 15 degrees above it. Imagine a point in space at
refocusing. Considering that you may need up 10 seconds the centre of each block. Focus on each point to allow the
to spot aircraft traffic, identify it, and take action to avoid eye to detect a conflict within the foveal field, as well as
a mid-air collision, each second is critical. Looking at an objects in the peripheral area around the centre of each
empty area of the sky causes empty field myopia and will scanning block.
impair your ability to focus. You should look at a cloud Good scanning requires constant attention-sharing with
patch or tree line to allow your eyes to focus. other piloting tasks, and pilots should remember that good
Another eye limitation is the narrow field of vision. While scanning is easily degraded by conditions such as boredom,
the eyes can observe an approximate 200-degree arc of the illness, fatigue, preoccupation with other tasks or ideas,
horizon at one glance, only a very small centre area called and anxiety.
the fovea, in the rear of the eye, has the ability to send clear,
sharply focused messages to the brain. All other visual 3.2.6.3 Hearing Traffic
information that is not processed directly through the fovea
will be less detailed. More information is available in subpart One advantage an RPA pilot has over a pilot of a manned aircraft
AIR 3.5 Vision. is the ability to hear approaching traffic. The first indication an
RPA pilot will have of approaching traffic will often be the noise
from the engines and/or rotors, both of which can be useful cues
to direct the pilot’s attention to traffic detection. Even though
these noise cues can be distorted by terrain, buildings, or wind,
430
TC AIM March 25, 2021
they are still a credible means for the RPA pilot to focus on RPA pilot, and it is a responsibility that should be taken very
RPA
identifying approaching aircraft until they can be visually seriously as the lives of the people in the other aircraft may
acquired. depend on it.
(a) Monitoring Air Traffic Frequencies
3.2.7 Fitness of Crew Members
It is possible that an RPA pilot will have access to a radio
for monitoring ATC frequencies. This radio may be part of All members of the crew including the visual observers, pilots,
a pilot’s risk-mitigation efforts in the event of a non-standard and others involved in the operation of the RPAS must not be
operation. In any event, this radio can be an extremely under the influence of any drugs or alcohol or fatigued when
valuable source of traffic information, provided the RPA conducting an operation with an RPAS (CAR 901.19). Additional
pilot is aware of the correct frequency to monitor. Aviation information can be found in the TC AIM AIR – Airmanship,
frequencies can be found on aviation maps as well as in Part 3.0 Medical Information.
the CFS. It is strictly prohibited under CAR 901.19 to act as a pilot or
crew member of an RPAS within 12 hours after consuming an
Table 3.1—Air Traffic Frequencies
alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, or
while using any drug that impairs a person’s faculties. It is also
strictly prohibited under PART VIII.1 section 320.14(1) of the
Frequency (MHz) Usage Criminal Code for a person to act as a pilot or crew member of
an RPA while the person’s ability to operate is impaired, to any
degree, by alcohol, drugs, or a combination of both. All aircraft
126.7 Uncontrolled airspace pilots and crew members must remain fit to fly.
If an RPA pilot takes prescription drugs, it is his or her duty to
ensure they do not alter his or her ability to safely engage in
123.2 Uncontrolled, unassigned aerodromes RPA operations. It is each individual’s responsibility to consult
with a physician in a case of doubt and to advise other members
While monitoring the radio, a pilot can build up a mental of the team of the situation if deemed necessary.
picture of the other traffic in the local area and, depending Cannabis became legal, for both recreational and medical
on the level of the pilot’s knowledge of aviation, he or she purposes, in Canada in October 2018 by virtue of the Cannabis
can use the radio calls from other aircraft to determine Act. Whether it is used recreationally or medically, cannabis has
potential hazards to the RPA operation. the potential to cause impairment and adversely affect aviation
In accordance with section 33 of the Radiocommunication safety. All aircraft pilots and flight crew members (including
Regulations, a person may operate radio apparatus in the RPA pilots and visual observers) must abstain from cannabis
aeronautical service [...] only where the person holds [a use for at least 28 days when conducting operations with an
Restricted Operator Certificate with Aeronautical RPAS.
Qualification (ROC-A), issued by Innovation, Science and Fatigue is as dangerous as drugs or alcohol when it comes to
Economic Development Canada]. Also, all radio equipment impairment and is oftentimes harder to detect. Fatigue will
used in aeronautical services must be licensed by influence judgment, motor response, and mental capability. Its
Industry Canada. effects can be present without the person realizing it, making it
For more information on the standard radio phraseology particularly dangerous. It is important to consider that sleep
used in aviation, see Innovation, Science and Economic itself is not the only factor influencing the degree of a person’s
Development’s study guide RIC-21 for the ROC-A, COM fatigue. Lack of sleep, work-related stress, family issues,
1.0 in the TC AIM, or NAV CANADA’s VFR Phraseology emotional state, and general health are all factors that contribute
Guide. to the fatigue level of a particular individual. A comprehensive
guide to manage fatigue, the Fatigue Risk Management
System (FRMS) Toolbox for Canadian Aviation, is available on
3.2.6.4 Avoiding a Collision Transport Canada’s Web site: <www.tc.gc.ca/en/services/aviation/
Once an aircraft is detected and it is determined to be a conflict, commercial-air-services/fatigue-risk-management/frms-toolbox.
the RPA pilot is responsible for avoiding a mid-air collision. The htm>. It is a great tool to help understand, manage, and mitigate
best way to fulfill this obligation will vary depending on the the risks associated with fatigue in an aeronautical context.
scenario, and RPA pilots should plan how they are going to react It is not just fatigue, alcohol, or drugs that can leave a crew
to a potential collision prior to taking off or launching to ensure member unfit for duties. Illness and many other conditions may
their strategy best fits the operation. The fastest method of diminish crew members’ ability to perform their functions and
resolving a potential conflict is likely reducing altitude. might render them unfit for the operation. It is the responsibility
The RPA pilot must always give way to other airspace users of individual crew members to conduct a self-assessment to
(CAR 901.17), and RPA pilots should recognize that the pilot of ensure they are fit before accepting any duties related to the
the other aircraft likely will not see the RPA with sufficient time operation.
to react. The responsibility of avoiding a collision lies with the
431
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Reviewing a checklist prior to flight can help a crew member the pilot of its relative distance, altitude, flight path, and other
RPA
determine if they are fit to fly. A simple IM SAFE checklist can hazards (e.g. terrain, weather, structures) to prevent it from
be found below but several other examples can be found online. creating a collision hazard.
If the answer to any of the questions below is “Yes”, you are
The visual observer will also help the RPA pilot to keep the
likely not fit to act as a crew member.
operational environment sterile (that is, free of irrelevant
conversation) during the flight and minimize the disturbances
Table 3.2—IM SAFE Checklist
to the RPA pilot and crew.
Illness Visual observers are not required to possess an RPA pilot
I Are you suffering from any illnesses that could certificate.
impair your ability to complete your duties?
Medication 3.2.9 Compliance With Instructions
M Are you under the influence of any drugs (over-
the-counter, prescription, or recreational) that will In any type of safety-critical operation there is a requirement
impair your ability to complete your duties? for one person to have the final word on how and when various
tasks will be performed. In aviation this person is called the
Stress
pilot-in-command or pilot. For RPAS operations all crew members
S Are personal or professional matters causing stress
are required to follow the instructions of the pilot.
to the point that you are distracted or otherwise
impaired? Failure to follow the instructions of the pilot can result in unsafe
Alcohol situations and may be punishable by individual penalties of up
A Have you consumed any alcohol within the to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
previous 12 hours?
Fatigue 3.2.10 Living Creatures
F Have you had sufficient rest in the previous RPA pilots are prohibited from operating an RPA with a living
24 hours and do you feel alert? creature on board (CAR 901.22). As with the entirety of Subpart
Eating and drinking I of Part IX, this regulation applies only to sRPAs. In order to
E Have you had sufficient and proper nutrition and operate large RPAs for the purpose of carrying persons, an
hydration? SFOC - RPAS issued in accordance with CAR 903.03 is required
(see subpart 3.6 of this chapter).
Failure to abstain from acting as a crew member of an RPAS
while unfit may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 The operation of an sRPA with a living creature on board may
and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000. Acting as a crew result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate
member within 12 hours of consuming alcohol or while under penalties of up to $5,000.
the influence of drugs or alcohol may result in individual fines
of $5,000 and/or corporate penalties of $15,000. 3.2.11 Procedures
Before beginning an operation, the crew should agree upon RPA pilots are required to establish emergency procedures for
consistent communication language specific to the mission at control station failures, equipment failures, RPA failures, lost
hand. Important information sought by the pilot could be the links, flyaways, and flight terminations. The procedures
RPA’s relative distance, altitude, and flight path in relation to established must allow the aircraft to be operated within any
manned aircraft but also other hazards like terrain, weather, and limitations prescribed the by manufacturer and should be
structures. The visual observer must be able to determine the reviewed by the pilot on a regular basis to ensure they contain
RPA’s proximity to all aviation activities and sufficiently inform the most up-to-date information and be available to the pilot at
the crew station during all phases of flight in either a written or
432
TC AIM March 25, 2021
digital format. Caution should be exercised if the procedures 3.2.12 Pre-flight Information
RPA
are on the same mobile device that is being used to pilot the
RPAS. Following all emergencies, the PIC should log the events
3.2.12.1 Pre-flight Inspections
and follow-up actions in accordance with CAR 901.49.
Pre-flight inspections should be conducted before every takeoff
(a) Control Station Failure
the aircraft conducts in order to verify the physical, mechanical,
Whether the RPAS is controlled via a laptop, RC, or another and electronic integrity of the RPAS. The following is a brief
device, its crew should have troubleshooting items committed example of components to be inspected prior to flight and is not
to memory for immediate action. Pilots should know and all-encompassing. In all instances, the RPAS manufacturer’s
be prepared for how their aircraft will respond to a crashed instruction manual shall be consulted to determine all the
app, powered down transmitter, or low battery scenario. components that must be inspected or require a function check
(b) Equipment Failure prior to flight. The initial inspection to confirm the RPAS is in
a fit and safe state for flight is the most extensive to be conducted
While some equipment will not be flight-critical, crews before each new day of operations and should include a thorough
should know which items require aircraft grounding and inspection of the following components, in compliance with the
which are safe to fly without. Establishing a manufacturer- RPAS manufacturer’s operating manual recommendations,
advised minimum equipment list is a good practice. including (but not limited to):
(c) RPA Failure (a) Airframe;
Crews should be aware of items that will cause a critical (b) Landing gear;
failure of the RPA and what flight condition these failures
will create. While fixed wings may glide, most multirotors (c) Power plant;
will descend with varying levels of control. Immediate (d) Propellers/rotors;
actions should involve establishing a safe area and preparing
(e) Battery or fuel;
for injury or incident response.
(f) Control station/receivers/transmitter;
(d) Lost Link
(g) Control station device and cables (tablet, phone, laptop, or
Immediate action items should include troubleshooting
other).
(which, depending on the system used, may involve
reorienting antennas), confirming or exchanging the cable The crew also needs to be briefed on the following points before
connection, or selecting a flight termination system. The takeoff:
crew should monitor the aircraft and the airspace until (a) Roles and responsibilities of each individual crew member;
connection can be regained or the aircraft lands safely;
otherwise, flyaway procedures should be initiated. (b) Flight plans and anticipated procedures (e.g. command
hand-off);
(e) Flyaway
(c) Emergency and contingency plans;
A flyaway indicates an unresponsive aircraft and should
warrant immediate action by the crew to mitigate associated (d) Location of the safety equipment and who is trained to
risks both in airspace and on the ground. After initial use it;
troubleshooting, action should be taken to alert the ANSP (e) Public management plan.
of a deviation from the planned flight path and any potential
conflict that may exist. This is why it is critical that pilots Just after takeoff, a brief test flight should be conducted first
understand the airspace surrounding their operating within short VLOS range in order to verify commands response,
environment both laterally and vertically. flight behaviours, response to current weather conditions, and
crew cohesion beforehand.
(f) Flight Termination
A brief inspection should also be conducted after each landing
Flight termination can take many forms and may be as (e.g. battery change) and a full inspection should be conducted
simple as a normal landing or as complex as a fragmentation after each crash or malfunction, or when changing location.
system or parachute. Another common flight termination
system is return-to-home, or RTH. Crews should know
when and how to activate RTH and how to cancel or override,
if possible.
433
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.2.12.2 Fuel and/or Energy as an altitude reference in their RPAS. TC AIM GEN 1.4 provides
RPA
additional information on units of measurement used in aviation.
Estimation of the fuel/energy consumption for the operations
should be considered prior to takeoff and described in the flight For instance, an RPA operation may have a limit of 400 ft AGL,
planning summary. It is important to take into consideration but in a location like Calgary, this altitude equates to approximately
that the stated endurance of the aircraft with a given amount of 4 000 ft ASL, as the Calgary airport is at 3 600 ft ASL. An
fuel/energy is a suggested indication from the manufacturer that RPA pilot monitoring ATC radio frequencies in this situation
might change according to different variables. Those factors might get confused when trying to determine the location of
might include but are not limited to environmental factors (e.g. aircraft if differing altitude measurements are used. In another
wind, outside temperature, and altitude), human factors (e.g. scenario, an RPA flying near Tofino, BC would have a much
piloting skills and/or behaviour), fuel/energy sources quality easier time trying to reconcile AGL and ASL as the Tofino
(e.g. quality of the fuel or battery), and mechanical factors (e.g. airport is only at 80 ft ASL.
engine malfunction, motor friction). The aircraft might not (a) Station Height
operate properly or predictably when its fuel/energy levels are
low. Unexpected circumstances might arise between the initiation Station height is the altitude measured at a weather reporting
of the return procedure and the landing of the aircraft. Therefore, station, often an aerodrome, relative to sea level.
it is recommended that the pilot consider factors that might (b) Above Ground Level (AGL)
influence the aircraft endurance and plan the flight time
accordingly. AGL involves an altitude of zero feet (or metres) measured
when the RPA is sitting on the ground and, as the aircraft
Finally, it is important to consider that RPASs are multi- flies, altitude changes are measured in reference to the
component systems and that the factors listed above will influence ground below the RPA, or the initial ground position. In an
the endurance of other components such as the remote control, RPA, this altitude is often calculated by a GPS position or
ground station, first-person view (FPV) goggles, etc. These a downward-pointing laser rangefinder.
should also be taken into consideration when estimating the
It is important to note that many RPAs reference their altitude
endurance of the RPAS. Refer to the manufacturer’s instructions
AGL from the point of launch. This means that the aircraft’s
provided to verify the aircraft and the components endurance
altitude AGL may have to be inferred as the aircraft travels
rating. In the absence of specific guidance from the manufacturer,
over uneven ground. For operations with large ground level
it is recommended that pilots take a cautious approach.
height changes where the aircraft is operated near the
operational limit of 400 ft, a buffer may need to be included
3.2.13 Maximum Altitude to prevent exceeding the allowable maximum altitude.
In uncontrolled airspace, RPAs are normally limited by regulation (c) Above Sea Level (ASL)
to a maximum altitude of 400 ft AGL or 100 ft above the tallest
ASL requires a pressure measurement from a local weather
obstruction within 200 ft laterally (CAR 901.25). However, if a
station, which is then input into a pressure altimeter on the
pilot is operating under an SFOC - RPAS, the conditions of the
aircraft. This will then provide an altitude read-out which
SFOC may state a maximum altitude higher or lower than 400 ft
is relative to sea level. Traditional aircraft and some larger
(CAR 903.01). In controlled airspace, the maximum altitude
RPAs will be equipped with pressure altimeters and use
permitted for a specific flight will be determined by the ANSP;
ASL altitude measurements.
in most cases, this will be NAV CANADA. The RPA pilot must
keep the RPA in VLOS at all times, regardless of the altitude
allowed by the ANSP. The maximum altitude possible in VLOS 3.2.13.2 Measuring Altitude
depends on several factors including the RPA’s visibility, colour, (a) Pressure Altimeters
size, etc. The vast majority of small RPAs are not visible at more
than 400 ft AGL in good weather conditions. The pressure altimeter used in aircraft is a relatively accurate
instrument for measuring flight level pressure but the altitude
information indicated by an altimeter, although technically
3.2.13.1 Types of Altitudes “correct” as a measure of pressure, may differ greatly from
In aviation, the altitude at which an aircraft flies is normally the actual height of the aircraft above mean sea level or
measured as above sea level (ASL). RPASs usually display above above ground. As well, the actual height of the aircraft
ground level (AGL) altitude from the launch site location. The above ground will vary as the aircraft flies between areas
difference between AGL and ASL can be a few feet, or as much of different pressure.
as several thousands of feet, so it is important to know what For more information on pressure altimeters and their uses
type of altitude your RPA control station is displaying. This is and errors, see subpart 1.5 Pressure Altimeter in the AIR—
important because traditional aviation aircraft are usually flown Airmanship chapter of the TC AIM.
with reference to ASL, so procedures and communication will
be conducted using altitudes in feet ASL that may seem odd to
an RPA pilot. Please also note that the unit of measurement used
in aviation for altitudes, elevations, and heights is feet. Conversion
to feet AGL would be difficult for an RPA pilot using metres AGL
434
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(b) Global Positioning System (GPS) Altimeters (b) use the right RPAS in accordance with CAR 901.76 and
RPA
The GPS receiver in an RPA typically needs to clearly see CAR Standard 922 Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems Safety
a minimum of four satellites to get an accurate position over Assurance. This eligibility is written on the RPAS certificate
the earth. GPS is a helpful aid to aviation, but it is important of registration.
to recognize that there are errors that may affect the accuracy Different Systems for Measuring Distance - km/SM/NM
of the position and altitude calculated and displayed by your
km: The kilometre is a standard metric measurement that is the
RPA. In altitude, errors resulting from poor satellite
most commonly used in the world; 1 km equals 1 000 m. Most
geometry, reception masking by obstacles, or atmospheric
maps and software will use the metric system.
interference can result in errors of up to 75 ft (approx. 23 m).
SM: The statute mile comes from the imperial system and refers
For more information on GPS and other GNSSs, see subpart
more commonly to the U.S survey mile, which is equal to 5 280
5.1 Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) in the COM—
ft or 1 609.347 metres. It is most commonly used in the U.S.A.
Communication chapter of the TC AIM.
and the United Kingdom and is still commonly used in aviation.
3.2.14 Horizontal Distance NM: A nautical mile represents one latitudinal minute of the
earth spheroid. The most commonly used spheroid for calculating
RPA pilots are required to remain 100 ft or 30 m from people the nautical mile is the WGS84 geoid, which equates 1 nautical
not associated with the operation. The distance from people mile to 6 046 ft, 1 825 metres, or 1.15 statute mile. It is the main
must be maintained regardless of the altitude at which the RPAS distance unit used in aviation and marine applications.
is operating.
Two methods can be used to measure distances at the field site
It is the RPA pilot’s responsibility to plan the route of flight in without being directly on the ground. Using the scale on your
a manner that ensures the RPA does not fly within 30 m of any maps or chart, calculate the distance using a metric or imperial
person, except for crew members and other people involved in ruler and translate the distance calculated on the map. For
the operation. (CAR 901.26) Examples of people involved in the example, if the map scale is 1:20 000, then 1 linear centimetre
operation are: construction site or mine workers, film crews, or calculated on the map represents 20 000 centimetres on the
wedding guests and others involved in a wedding (facility staff, ground. The second method would consist of using an online
caterers, etc.). These people are considered part of the operation Geographic Information System platform (e.g. Google Earth
if they have been briefed on the RPA hazard and have the and ArcGIS Earth) that has spatial calculation tools that provide
opportunity to leave the RPA operation site if they are instant measurements of the terrain surface.
uncomfortable with it. People inside vehicles or inside buildings
are not factored into the 30-metre horizontal distance rule
(CAR 901.26). Even if an RPA can fly within 30 m of vehicles,
3.2.15 Site Survey
buildings, crew members, or other people involved in the
operation, this needs to be done safely (CAR 900.06). The RPA 3.2.15.1 Understanding Your Area of Operation
pilot should have contingency plans in place in the event that a It is important to understand your area of operation prior to
person not associated with the operation comes within 30 m of conducting your flight mission. Multiple options are available
the RPA and should be prepared to take immediate action to for this preliminary step, including looking at satellite imagery
restore the safety buffer. Some examples of contingency plans or topographic/aviation maps and visiting the site in person.
may be rerouting the RPA, returning to land, or holding over a Satellite imagery is now freely available on the web through
secure area until the minimum distance can be restored. Whatever multiple service providers and applications (e.g. Google Earth
action is taken to maintain the safety distance, the pilot must and Bing). The GeoGratis spatial products portal of Natural
ensure the RPA does not fly within 30 m of one person while Resources Canada also offers free topographic information,
trying to remain 30 m away from another person. Pre-planning Digital Elevation Models (DEMs), satellite imagery, and more.
and site preparation during the site survey have proven to be Aviation charts are available at a cost through NAV CANADA
effective at reducing the risks associated with maintaining the and through mobile and web apps. Ensure that these third-party
required 30-metre safety buffer. applications are using up-to-date and official NAV CANADA
Operations between 30 m and 5 m from another person are information. It is best to use site coordinates in order to localize
considered “near people” and are an advanced operation. the area of operation on a map or other imagery source. If
coordinates are not available, using a landmark, nearby structure,
To operate an RPA “near people”, the RPA pilot needs to:
or point of reference is a reasonable substitute.
(a) possess a Pilot Certificate - Advanced Operations; and
435
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Once the site has been identified, the following points must be 3.2.16 Other Pre-flight Requirements
RPA
defined:
Prior to commencing flight the pilot must be satisfied that the
(a) Operation boundaries; RPA has a sufficient amount of fuel/energy to safely complete
(b) Airspace classes and applicable regulatory requirements; the flight, the crew members have received sufficient instruction
to perform their duties, and any required emergency equipment
(c) Routes and altitudes to be followed during the entire is on site, with its location and method of operation known and
operation; readily accessible.
(d) Proximity of manned aircraft and/or aerodromes;
In addition to the requirements above, the pilot must determine
(e) Location and height of nearby obstacles; the maximum distance the RPA can safely be flown from the
(f) Security measures for warning the public of the RPAS control station for the planned flight. This distance may vary
operations site; depending on the environment (e.g. visibility, cloud cover, and
wind), the location (e.g., a background of buildings can make
(g) Predominant weather conditions for the area of operation; the RPA difficult to see), and the RLOS (the strength of the radio
(h) Minimum separation distances from persons; signal and the presence of interfering signals).
(i) An alternate landing site in case of precautionary or
emergency landing; and 3.2.17 Serviceability of the RPAS
(j) Aviation maps and symbols. All RPASs, just like all aircraft, must be inspected before flight
to ensure they are safe to operate and also after landing at the
conclusion of the flight to check that they are safe for the next
3.2.15.2 Locating Local Aerodromes and Airports
flight. The RPA pilot is responsible for ensuring that the RPA
To identify an aerodrome or an airport, it is recommended that is serviceable and the RPAS has been maintained (CAR 901.29).
a combination of aeronautical charts and the CFS issued by The list below is generic in nature but includes points for
NAV CANADA be used. The two main charts used by pilots inspection applicable to most RPAs. For details, refer to the
are the VNC, meant for low- to medium-altitude flights at a manufacturer’s instructions for the specific type of RPAS.
1:500 000 scale, and the VTA, meant for providing information
Following the “walk around” or RPAS visual inspection, a fully
about the most congested airspace within Canada at a scale of
charged battery can then be installed for the next flight. For a
1:250 000. The CFS is a reference document updated every 56
larger RPAS, a normal engine ground run can be carried out on
days containing all the information relevant to the registered
the ground for a check of the flight controls and avionics systems.
aerodromes and certified airports in Canada. For information
Just after takeoff, a short test flight and/or a ground run should
regarding water aerodromes, refer to the Canada Water Aerodrome
be completed to make sure all controls and switches are
Supplement (CWAS).
functioning and correct.
To identify the different symbols presented on the maps and
charts, you should refer to the legend presented in the first pages 3.2.17.1 Airframe (All Types)
of the charts and the CFS. Information with regard to date of
Depending on the weight of the aircraft (25kg or less), pick up
publication, author, projection, scale, and more would also be
the RPAS or walk around it and inspect the entire aircraft. Pay
found there.
attention to the following:
(a) Check all antennas, ensuring they are secure and in good
3.2.15.3 Identifying Classes of Airspace
condition;
To identify the classes of airspace present at the field site, it is
(b) Check the battery emplacement and secure attachment, and
recommended that you use resources such as the Drone Site
ensure that there are no cracks;
Selection Tool, the CFS, the aeronautical charts of the area of
operation, and the DAH. Airspace will be classified according (c) Check that all lights are operating normally;
to the Canadian airspace classification (a range from A to G). (d) Check the pitot tube (if applicable) and make sure it is secure
Anyone holding an RPA Pilot Certificate (Basic or Advanced) and clear of any obstructions;
can operate within uncontrolled airspace only, in class G and (e) Check that the GPS is receiving satellites and providing a
some class F airspace. navigation solution (if applicable).
For flight within controlled airspace, the RPA pilot must: For fixed wings, check:
(a) possess an RPA Pilot Certificate - Advanced Operations; (a) Wings, ensuring that they are securely attached to fuselage;
(b) receive an authorization from the local ANSP; and (b) Wing leading edge surfaces;
(c) use the right RPAS in accordance with CAR 901.76 and (c) Top and bottom of wing surfaces;
CAR Standard 922 Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems Safety
Assurance. This eligibility is written on the RPAS certificate (d) Wing tip surfaces;
of registration. (e) Rear of wing and all flight control surfaces for freedom of
movement, security, and any skin damage (composite/metal).
436
TC AIM March 25, 2021
For rotary aircraft: The battery and spare batteries necessary to complete the
RPA
operation should be adequately charged before flight to complete
(a) Inspect the top and bottom of the airframe arms for cracks,
the mission.
loose parts, or signs of damage;
(b) Check that the levels of all fluids (oil/hydraulic fluid) are Be careful not to pinch the wires when installing the battery,
within limits and ensure there are no leaks. attaching the connectors, and closing the battery door.
Check that the landing gear is secure, as applicable. The battery and spare batteries (if applicable) necessary to
complete the operation should be adequately charged before
Larger RPASs may have retractable or fixed landing gear and flight to complete the mission.
may have wheel brakes. Check for leaks on oleos and leaks in
the brake system as appropriate. Check brake wear indicators Check that all flight interface is functioning normally.
if applicable.
For servicing and scheduled maintenance items, always refer to
3.2.18 Availability of RPAS Operating Manuals
the manufacturer’s maintenance manual. If in doubt, contact In order to ensure the RPAS can be operated within the limitations
the manufacturer directly for technical support. specified by the manufacturer, it is important that the pilot and
crew members have access to the most current system operating
Inspect skids or wheels as applicable depending on type,
manuals. These manuals can be available either in digital format
especially the attachment points, which should be secure with
or in print; the key is that they are immediately available for the
no cracks. In addition, check for cracks in welds.
pilot and crew members (CAR 901.30).
Pilots found to be operating autonomous RPAs for which they planning and/or in Canadian regions where pilots are not familiar
RPA
are unable to take immediate control are subject to individual with the weather patterns at a given time. The portal gives pilots
penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to access to a large array of data and graphs giving punctual
$5,000. measurements of weather conditions along the Canadian weather
stations system. Data is freely available to download in .csv
3.2.21 Takeoffs, Launches, Approaches, Landings, format. Thirty-year averages (1981-2010/ 1971-2000/ 1961-1990)
are also available for analysis. For example, this would help a
and Recovery
pilot to establish when the ground is snow-free and the air
Prior to conducting an RPAS operation the pilot must ensure temperature is above 5°C according to the last 30 years, permitting
that there is no likelihood of a collision with another aircraft, a the planning mission in advance.
person, or an obstacle and that the site chosen is suitable for the
For medium- to short-term predictions of the weather, multiple
operation (CAR 901.33).
online and broadcast versions exist. ECCC offers daily weather
When choosing a site for an RPA’s takeoff, launch, landing, or forecasts and forecasts up to two weeks in advance on its Web site,
recovery, the pilot should ensure that he or she has the land <https://weather.gc.ca/canada_e.html>. Weather radar data is
owner’s permission to use the site and that the site is free of available for up to 3 hours and satellite imagery is offered at
obstacles that could interfere with the operation of the RPA. varying time intervals for the present day. This source of weather
Obstacles include physical obstacles like trees, buildings, or information can be used for mission planning and/or the same day.
open water as well as non-physical obstacles like electronic or
For same-day weather information one of the most detailed
magnetic interference. It is also important that the site selected
sources of information is the online tool provided by
be secured to ensure bystanders do not venture too close to or
NAV CANADA called the Aviation Weather Web Site (AWWS):
enter the take-off or landing area. Securing a site can be done
<https://flightplanning.navcanada.ca/>. This Web site is one of
by erecting physical barriers to ensure the public does not access
the main sources of weather forecasts, reports, and charts used
the area during the operation or by having crew members perform
for flight planning by aviation professionals. For more information
a crowd control function. It is important that the RPA pilot
regarding the AWWS, how to interpret different charts and
understand and follow any municipal, provincial, and federal
reports, and the general procedures associated with the Web
laws and regulations when securing a site. In some situations,
site, see the MET—Meteorology chapter of the TC AIM.
restricting public access to a site may not be allowed.
Additionally, there are a variety of weather apps available that
3.2.22 Minimum Weather Conditions pull weather data from a variety of sources. Check to ensure
you are using NAV CANADA official data whenever possible.
The weather is a primary concern for pilots of all types and
should be something of which they have a thorough understanding. Finally, no matter what tool is used, which preparations have
The minimum weather requirements for sRPA pilots are different been made, and what the given predictions are for the day of
from those of more traditional aircraft pilots and even large operation, it is essential to evaluate the weather at the site before
RPAs. For sRPAs, the weather need only be sufficient to ensure launching the operation. Weather is a complex science and can
the aircraft can be operated in accordance with the manufacturer’s be subject to unpredicted fluctuations, especially on a small
instructions (i.e. temperature, wind, precipitation, etc.) and to geographic scale. Never operate an RPAS if the weather on site
allow the pilot or visual observer to keep the RPA within VLOS is outside your manufacturer’s recommended operating limits,
at all times. or if you judge based on your experience that local weather could
adversely affect your flight, even if the weather forecasts say
otherwise.
3.2.22.1 Sources of Weather Information
Climate data, weather forecasts, and real-time weather conditions 3.2.22.2 Micro vs. Macro Climate Environments
are a central pillar of every aeronautical operation. Aircraft are
particularly vulnerable to the elements due to the medium in (a) Micro Climate
which they operate, as the atmosphere does not provide any Micro climate is defined as climatic variations localized in
shielding from the weather. Various sources of information are a small or restricted area that differs from the surrounding
available for monitoring weather and ensuring the safe conduct region. It is important to consider small climatic variations
of the RPAS operations. Depending on the time scale at which when planning RPAS flights. The altitude, nearby water
the weather or climate needs to be determined, different sources bodies, topography, ground surface, and obstacles are all
of weather information might be required. factors that can and will influence the conditions experienced
For climatic and long-term predictions of a few months or more at a specific site. Those variations might manifest themselves
Environment and Climate Change Canada’s (ECCC) Canadian in the form of variable wind strength and/or directions,
Climate Normals is available on the ECCC Web site: <http:// convecting/advecting air movements, variable temperatures,
climate.weather.gc.ca/climate_normals/>. This tool is more localized precipitation, variable visibility levels, and more.
suitable for evaluating whether operations at a given time/location These must be considered carefully; weather forecasts for
would be possible given the historical climatic patterns. This the region might be good, but localized variations might
should be used as a means of evaluation for long-term operation compromise flight operation safety.
438
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Due to the nature of most RPAS VLOS flights, which are Local factors such as waterbodies and topography might create
RPA
flown at low altitudes and over short distances, it is most heterogeneous visibility levels on a large or small scale. Flight
likely that the pilot will experience some impact from the planning should take those variables into consideration.
micro climate at the site. Recognizing factors that might
influence weather patterns at the site prior to takeoff will 3.2.22.5 Clouds
help mitigate possible accidents or annoyances during the
operations. Due to the high variability of micro climate it RPA pilots are prohibited from entering clouds as the RPA would
is hard to establish the site-specific conditions on a given no longer be within VLOS.
day, before being physically there. Clouds are a great source of meteorological information for
(b) Macro Climate pilots since they are a direct manifestation of the atmospheric
conditions at a given moment. Clouds are classified as low,
A macro climate will describe the overall climate of a large
middle, or high altitude clouds and vertical development clouds.
area and represents the normal climatic patterns. This is
The cloud ceiling is important information for RPAS flight and
what the pilot needs to consider as the general pattern for
is established based on the lowest layer of clouds on that day.
the operation, and it serves as a first step when considering
Cloud conditions and types will be influenced by the presence
weather information in flight planning. As mentioned above,
of weather fronts, atmospheric pressure, winds, and topography.
the low flight altitude of most RPASs makes it more likely
Information regarding cloud conditions for a given day can be
they will be subject to micro climatic variations. Macro
found on the AWWS Cloud and Weather chart. For more
climate will be more significant for beyond visual line-of-
information on this matter, please see MET–Meteorology 4.11
sight (BVLOS) flight over a large area, as a simpler means
Clouds and Weather Chart of the TC AIM.
to evaluate weather due to the altitude and distance covered
by the RPAS.
3.2.22.6 Precipitation
3.2.22.3 Wind In the absence of manufacturer guidelines for f lights in
precipitation, it is recommended that pilots avoid flying in
RPA pilots should refer to the manufacturer’s RPAS operating/
precipitation as it might compromise the airworthiness of the
flight manual with regards to the aircraft’s wind speed tolerance.
aircraft and create hazards.
If no such recommendation is made, the pilot should exercise
common sense and avoid conducting an RPAS flight in winds Precipitation is atmospheric water vapour produced from
that might compromise safety. condensation that falls under gravitational force toward the
ground. Precipitation will manifest itself in liquid (drizzle and
Wind is the movement of air across the earth’s surface and is
rain) or solid forms (hail, snow pellets, snow ice prisms, and ice
one of the most important weather phenomena for pilots of all
pellets) and will have significant impact on RPAS operations.
types of aircraft. Wind speeds are expressed in kilometres per
Exposure to precipitation can impact an RPAS’ ability to perform
hour (km/h) or knots (kt) and the direction will represent where
as expected. RPASs have varying levels of tolerance with respect
winds originated.
to precipitation. Refer to the RPAS manufacturer’s operating/
RPA pilots will most likely be subject to surface wind, which flight manual to verify the aircraft capability in precipitation.
generally extends a couple thousand feet AGL. Surface winds
vary depending on surface roughness, temperature, waterbodies, 3.2.22.7 Fog
and obstacles (see the paragraph on micro climate above), and
they can therefore be very different from one geographical Do not operate an RPAS in fog if visibility is too poor to maintain
location to the next. Wind speed in aviation weather forecasts proper VLOS with the RPA, even if it is equipped with lights.
is usually expressed in knots and is classified according to the Fog represents condensed water droplets found at the ground
Beaufort Wind Scale (see AIM MET 2.6 Pilot Estimation of level, or in other words, a low-level cloud. It usually brings
Surface Wind), which is a scale ranging from breeze to hurricane. precipitation in the form of drizzle and will cause low visibility
Upper-level winds will not influence the vast majority of RPA conditions at ground level. This is of high concern for RPAS
pilots as the altitude is much higher than standard flight altitude. operations in VLOS, as direct visual contact will be greatly
However, BVLOS flights with a large RPAS and a specially reduced in fog. Fog is dynamic, thus conditions at takeoff might
trained crew might be conducted within this environment. change during the operation and cause a threat to the RPA,
manned aircraft, and the public.
3.2.22.4 Visibility
3.2.22.8 Temperature
For an RPAS flight conducted in VLOS, visibility should be at
a minimum equal to or greater than the extent of the desired Air temperature is also an important concept for RPA pilots.
operation. While there is no minimum visibility prescribed in Since the human body is accustomed to a narrow temperature
Part IX of the CARs, the visibility must be sufficient to keep range, cold temperature can physically impair the efficiency of
the RPA in VLOS at all times. pilots and ground crews if they are not dressed properly. A pilot’s
dexterity can decrease significantly and cold temperature stress
Visibility is dynamic, can change rapidly, and might require the can add to other stress, such as that caused by fatigue. Cold
pilot to adjust or end an ongoing operation if conditions change.
439
TC AIM March 25, 2021
temperature will directly affect all other components of the 3.2.23 Icing
RPA
weather system and thus have a great impact on the aircraft
itself. You must operate the RPAS within the operational limits Icing refers to atmospheric water droplets that are often defined
set by the manufacturer of the RPA, as each aircraft will have as supercooled (< 0 °C), which freeze upon contact with a surface.
a different range of temperature tolerance. Operating an RPA Icing intensity is classified from trace to severe and icing types
outside of those suggested ranges will compromise the are rime, clear, and mixed ice. Icing is common on all types of
airworthiness and safety of the aircraft, and your operation. It is aircraft and RPAs are no exception. Icing can occur before and
also important to consider that RPASs are multi-component during the flight, greatly compromising the ability of the aircraft
systems. Although the aircraft might be approved for a certain to operate properly. Formation of ice on the propeller and frame
temperature range, other parts of the system might not be— of the aircraft will increase take-off weight, change the aircraft’s
particularly if you have made any modifications to the payload aerodynamic properties, and prevent components from operating
or aircraft. Consider all components when assessing flight properly. Critical surfaces such as wings, control surfaces, rotors,
suitability in the field. propellers, and horizontal and vertical stabilizers should all be
confirmed clear of contamination prior to takeoff and must
RPASs are operated within the airspace and are therefore subject remain so, or the flight be terminated. Refer to the RPAS
to atmospheric temperature changes, due to the adiabatic lapse operating/flight manual provided by the manufacturer to verify
rate. Under normal conditions, atmospheric air temperature will the aircraft’s tolerance of icing. In the absence of an RPAS Safety
decrease with an increase in altitude due to lower atmospheric Assurance, it is recommended that you avoid flying in icing
pressure. This phenomenon is called the adiabatic lapse rate. conditions unless a method exists to de-ice and provide anti-ice
Water vapour content within the air column will decrease the capabilities in flights. For more details about icing, please see
lapse rate experienced, as more latent energy is required for an MET—Meteorology subpart 2.4 of the TC AIM.
equal change in temperate change in moist air. The adiabatic
lapse rate of unsaturated air is 3°C/1 000 ft and1.5°C/1 000 ft
for saturated air. Those values are set as standard but will be
3.2.24 Formation Flight
variable in real-world scenarios as the water content will dictate Formation flights between two or more RPAs or between an
the precise lapse rate value. RPA pilots need to take the lapse RPA and another aircraft are permitted. If a formation flight is
rate into consideration if operating in high-altitude BVLOS to be undertaken, it must be pre-arranged; impromptu formations
flight or within a high-altitude environment as the weather are not permitted (CAR 901.36). Formation flights of more than
forecast and the conditions experienced by the aircraft might 5 RPAs that are controlled by a single pilot from the same control
differ greatly. station are only authorized under an SFOC - RPAS (CAR 903.01 e).
The purpose of the pre-arrangement requirement is to ensure
3.2.22.9 Sun that all the pilots associated with the operation are aware of how
Sun will influence the conditions encountered by the RPAS in the aircraft are to be flown to eliminate the risk of collision
direct and indirect ways. The pilot and visual observers need to (CAR 901.18 prohibits the operation of an RPA in such proximity
be aware of the sun glare that might prevent them from maintaining to another aircraft as to create a risk of collision) and to identify
proper visual line-of-sight with the RPA. Crew members should and mitigate any risks associated with the flight.
take care to reduce the amount of time facing into the sun and
looking at the sky. In the event that the RPA is flying in line 3.2.25 Operation of Moving Vehicles, Vessels, and
with the sun, the crew should stare to the side of the aircraft and Manned Aircraft
the sun. Polarized sunglasses can cause visibility issues on tablet
Pilots are prohibited from operating an RPA while at the same
displays, so they may not be a viable option for all crew members.
time operating a moving vehicle (CAR 901.37). If it necessary
Solar activities can also create geomagnetic interferences that to operate an RPA from a moving vehicle, there must be a
have been shown to impact the navigation system (e.g. GPS, dedicated person operating the vehicle while the pilot operates
GLONASS) and electronic components of the RPAS, specifically the RPAS. If a visual observer is used in the operation, they are
the C2 link. For more information about the solar activity forecast also prohibited from operating the vehicle while performing
in Canada, refer to the Space Weather Canada forecast Web site: their duties as a visual observer (CAR 901.20(4)).
<www.spaceweather.gc.ca/index-en.php> When launching from a vehicle (e.g. a boat) that is in motion or
<www.spaceweather.gc.ca/forecast-prevision/fluence/sffl-en. that will be in a different location when the RPA is recovered,
php> consider that the return to home (RTH) automatic function may
register the initial position at takeoff. Some RPASs give you the
It is recommended that pilots refer to the Energetic Electron option of using the launch point or alternatively, going to the
Fluence forecast and use caution in periods of moderate or higher location of the transmitter. Plan ahead for manual landing, or
radiation. The greater the electron fluence, the lesser the range other landing procedures, in a specifically designated location
and quality of the C2 link, and the greater the possibility of and adjust the contingency plans to avoid having the RPAS
lost link. return to a dangerous location.
440
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Failure to abide by these prohibitions may result in individual Aircraft are easier to identify at night, but it is more difficult
RPA
penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to to determine the range of these aircraft. It is therefore possible
$5,000. the RPAS could be within VLOS, but much farther away
than what would be by day operations.
3.2.26 First-person View (FPV) Devices Manned aircraft will also be easier to detect but may be at
FPV offers an immersive RPA piloting experience but cuts the a greater distance and appear much closer than they
pilot off from his or her surroundings and greatly affects detect actually are.
and avoid capability (i.e. the pilot’s ability to scan for other Depth perception at night is difficult, which affects the
aircraft). If you are using an FPV system that reduces the field assessment of relative position. Although it may be easier
of view of the pilot, visual observers must be used. The number to spot aircraft lights at night, judging the distance to an
of visual observers needed will depend on the complexity and aircraft is challenging.
area of the operation. The area surrounding the pilot should also (b) Noise
be safe and free of hazards, as the FPV will also prevent the
pilot from being aware of his or her own surroundings. In some cases sound may be the only way to detect other
aircraft when operating at night. For this reason it is important
that the crew enforce a sterile environment around the control
3.2.27 Night Flight station and anywhere visual observers are stationed. Any
There are risks associated with night flight that result from unnecessary talking or noise should be avoided to ensure
operating in an environment of reduced visibility. From the RPA the best chance of detecting other aircraft. Sound is also
pilot’s perspective, the greatest concern is maintaining VLOS useful to monitor your own aircraft’s performance when
with the RPA and detecting and avoiding unlit objects on or near visual cues are limited. Rapidly changing motor sounds on
the ground like trees and power lines. a multirotor may indicate wind at altitude, for example.
Night is legally defined in aviation as the period of time that (c) Vision
starts at the end of evening civil twilight and ends at the start Vision can be affected at night, and there are several illusions
of morning civil twilight. In the evening, civil twilight ends that can affect the pilot or observer’s ability to detect aircraft.
when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6° below the horizon and is Additional information on vision can be found in AIR 3.5
descending, approximately 25-35 min after sunset. In the morning, Vision of the TC AIM.
civil twilight begins when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6° below
the horizon and is ascending, approximately 25-35 min before
the sunrise. The evening civil twilight is relative to the standard 3.2.27.2 Aircraft Lighting
meridians of the time zones, the period of time that begins at Traditional aircraft are equipped with special lights to aid in
sunset and ends at the time specified by the Institute for National their detection and orientation. Traditional aircraft are required
Measurement Standards of the Standards Council of Canada to have position lights, which include a red light on the port side
and available at: <https://www.nrc-cnrc.gc.ca/eng/services/ (left side when sitting in the pilot’s seat), a green light on the
sunrise/index.html>. starboard side (right side when sitting in the pilot’s seat), and a
Night, in practice, is when you cannot effectively see the hazards white light on the tail. An observer can determine which way
that would be visible during the day. In these situations, a day an aircraft is travelling by identifying the lights they can see.
site survey is advisable to ensure separation between the RPAS For example, if the observer can see a red and white light, the
flight path and any dangers that are not visible. aircraft is travelling across their field of view from right to left
and moving away from them. If the observer can see only a
Night operations are permitted in both the basic and advanced green light the aircraft is moving across their field of view from
operating environments provided that the RPA is equipped with left to right and may be moving towards them. If the observer
position lights sufficient to allow the aircraft to be visible to the can see both a green light and a red light, the aircraft is coming
pilot and any visual observer. at them.
Aircraft are also equipped with anti-collision lighting, typically
3.2.27.1 Detecting Aircraft During Night Operations an omnidirectional rotating or flashing red beacon. This light
(a) Scanning Technique can be affixed to either the top or bottom of the aircraft. Some
aircraft are equipped with strobe lights, landing lights, or
The approach to scanning the sky for aircraft at night is
recognition lights. Strobe lights are generally white and attached
much the same as scanning the sky during the day; however,
to the wing tips or the sides of the aircraft. They flash in a
limitations of equipment and human physiology should be
repeating pattern and make an aircraft very visible, especially
taken into account. With sufficient lighting on the aircraft,
at night. Landing lights are generally white and affixed to the
it is very often easier to track your aircraft and other aircraft
inboard sections of the wing, the front of the fuselage, or the
than doing so during the day.
landing gear. Landing lights will be brightest when an aircraft
is coming towards the observer. Not all aircraft will have landing
lights on when flying at night so they should not be relied upon
to detect aircraft. Recognition lights are generally white and
441
TC AIM March 25, 2021
affixed to the sides of the aircraft. Unlike strobe lights, they do 3.2.29.2 Advertised Events
RPA
not flash and generally point in the direction of flight much like
An SFOC – RPAS for an advertised event is needed when a pilot
a landing light.
is operating an RPAS less than 100 ft away from the boundaries
Not all aircraft are required to have lights when operating at of an advertised event (CAR 901.41 and 903.01(f)). For reference,
night. Some aircraft such as those used by law enforcement see also the following sections and subpart in this chapter: 3.4.6—
pilots, military, and first responders may have mission Operations Near People, 3.4.7—Operations Over People, and
requirements that necessitate operations without lights. RPA 3.6—Special Flight Operations – RPAS.
pilots and visual observers should be particularly alert for an
The boundaries of an advertised event (outdoor event including
aircraft that may only be identifiable by sound.
a concert, performance, festival, market, amusement park, or
sporting event) are limited by perimeter fences and the gates
3.2.27.3 Use of Lights where people are restricted by the event personnel, volunteers,
Pilots operating RPASs at night shall ensure their RPA is lighted and security or peace officers.
sufficiently to ensure the pilot and the visual observer (if used) Where no such perimeter is defined for outdoor advertised events
can maintain VLOS with the RPA. It’s the pilot’s responsibility like marathons, triathlons, cycling, swimming, skiing, fishing
to ensure the lights are functioning prior to takeoff or launch. derbies, sailing, cruise ships, fireworks, and so on, it is expected
that the boundaries of the advertised event be at least 100 ft from
3.2.27.4 Night Vision Goggles people participating in the advertised event and 100 ft from the
track of the sporting event for all categories of RPA pilot
Night vision goggles can be used to supplement the RPAS crew’s certificates and models of RPAs.
view of the RPA but caution should be exercised as night vision
may inhibit the pilot’s ability to detect and avoid other aircraft.
Many aircraft are equipped with LEDs instead of the traditional 3.2.30 Handovers
incandescent lights. These LED lights may emit light that is If an RPAS command handover is to be conducted during the
outside the combined visible and near infrared spectrum of night operation, a handover plan agreed upon by all responsible parties
vision goggles and, as a result, may not visible. For this reason has to be established before takeoff (CAR 901.42). The plan must
it is required that all RPA crews have a method of detecting all lay out the procedures to follow for the handover, the plan to
light within the visible spectrum. The simplest way to meet this mitigate the loss of control during the handover, and the plan
requirement is to employ a visual observer using unaided vision for how the see and avoid measures are to be continued during
as part of the detect and avoid system. the exchange.
For more information and further guidance on the regulation of services (i.e. aircraft separation or conflict resolution) that they
RPA
lasers, refer to sections 601.20, 601.21, 601.22, and 901.43 of the provide to VFR or IFR aircraft.
CARs.
In order to ensure the safe operation of all aircraft in controlled
In addition, if the RPA pilot intends to carry or deliver payloads airspace, RPAs need to obtain authorization from the ANSP (either
with an RPA, the pilot must also comply with Transportation NAV CANADA for civil-controlled airspace or the Department
of Dangerous Goods Regulations and Canadian Transportation of National Defence in the case of military-controlled airspace)
Agency (CTA) regulations, as applicable. before operating in controlled or transponder airspace.
A pilot may operate an RPAS when the aircraft is transporting
a payload referred to in CAR 901.43 (1) if the operation is 3.2.34.1 Transponder-required Airspace
conducted in accordance with an SFOC - RPAS. For more Transponders are required in all Class A, B, and C airspace as
information, see section 3.6.1 of this chapter. well as some Class D and Class E airspace. The requirement for
a transponder in Class D and E airspace can be found in the
3.2.32 Flight Termination Systems DAH (CAR 601.03). Additional information can be found in
COM subpart 8.2 of the TC AIM.
A Flight Termination System is a system that, upon initiation,
terminates the flight of an RPA in a manner so as not to cause
significant damage to property or severe injury to persons on 3.2.34.2 Transponder Requirements
the ground. In order to avoid flyaway situations and safeguard ANSPs may allow an RPAS to enter transponder-required airspace
other airspace users, RPASs that lack redundancies may need without a transponder if the pilot requests permission prior to
to have an independent flight termination system that can be entering the area and aviation safety is not likely to be affected
activated by the RPA pilot. The process and procedures for (CAR 901.46(2)). Except when permitted by the ANSP, all aircraft
initiating and activating a flight termination system vary flying in transponder-required airspace including RPAs are
significantly depending the manufacturer and operating required to have transponders (CAR 901.46(1)).
procedures for each system. Initiation of a flight termination
system may only be done if it does not endanger aviation safety The decision as to whether aviation safety is likely to be affected
or the safety of any person (CAR 901.44). Attachment of a flight depends on a variety of factors that may not be readily apparent
termination system to an RPAS which is not standard equipment to the RPA pilot. These factors may include the volume of air
for the RPAS is a modification and must meet the requirements traffic in the area, a potential emergency or priority situation,
of CAR 901.70. system capability, equipment failures, and a myriad of other
factors. RPA pilots should understand that ANSPs may not be
able to grant all requests to enter transponder airspace without
3.2.33 Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) a transponder. Flexibility and patience on the part of the pilot
RPAs are prohibited from being equipped with ELTs (CAR 901.45). will be required.
RPAs are permitted to have other types of tracking devices that Entering transponder airspace without a transponder or without
would allow pilots to locate them without notifying first permission from the ANSP puts other aircraft in the area at risk
responders. and may result in individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or
corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
ELTs provide an emergency signal to SAR in the event of a
missing aircraft. In order to ensure valuable resources are not
dispatched to find missing aircraft where no life is at stake, 3.2.35 Operations at or in the Vicinity of an
RPAs are not permitted to have ELTs on board. More information Aerodrome, Airport, or Heliport
on ELTs can be found in SAR part 3.0 Emergency Locator
Operations in the vicinity of or at aerodromes, airports, and
Transmitter (ELT) of the TC AIM.
heliports are higher risk. Operations inside a 3-NM (5.6 km)
Pilots operating RPAs equipped with ELTs are subject to radius from the centre of airports or a 1-NM (1.8 km) radius
individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties from the centre of heliports are prohibited to RPA pilots holding
of up to $5,000. a basic certificate (CAR 901.47).
Operations inside a 3-NM (5.6 km) radius from the centre of
3.2.34 Transponders and Automatic Pressure- airports or a 1-NM (1.8 km) radius from the centre of heliports
Altitude Reporting Equipment are reserved for RPA pilots holding an advanced certificate.
Transponders augment the capabilities of surveillance, allowing When operating an RPA in the vicinity of an airport or heliport
ANSPs to determine an aircraft’s position and, when a transponder located outside controlled airspace, the RPA pilot should establish
is capable of pressure-altitude reporting, its altitude. Small RPAs communication with the aerodrome operator. RPAs should stay
are not typically equipped with transponders and, as a result, clear of the established traffic pattern and shall give way at all
they pose a challenge from an air traffic surveillance perspective times to manned aircraft (CAR 901.17).
due to their small size, low operating altitude and lack of a
If the airport or heliport is inside controlled airspace, the RPA
common altitude reference system. For that reason, ANSPs
pilot needs an advanced pilot certificate, has to receive an
cannot offer these aircraft the same, traditional air traffic
authorization from the appropriate ANSP as described in section
443
TC AIM March 25, 2021
3.4.4 of this chapter, and requires a manufacturer declaration mandatory action and any other maintenance action, modification,
RPA
that the RPA meets the appropriate safety assurance profile as or repair performed on the system (CAR 901.48(3)).
described in section 3.4.3 of this chapter. See subsection 3.2.3.2
for information about RPA operation in controlled airspace. See 3.2.37 Incidents and Accidents
section 3.4.5 of this chapter for information on the established
procedure (as per CAR 901.73) and communication with an A pilot who operates an RPA shall immediately cease operations
airport or heliport located outside controlled airspace if any of the listed incidents or accidents (CAR 901.49(1)) occur,
until such time as an analysis is undertaken as to the cause of
An aerodrome means any area of land, water (including the the occurrence and corrective actions have been taken to mitigate
frozen surface thereof) or other supporting surface used, the risk of recurrence:
designed, prepared, equipped, or set apart for use either in whole
or in part for the arrival, departure, movement, or servicing of (a) injuries to any person requiring medical attention;
aircraft and includes any buildings, installations, and equipment (b) unintended contact between the aircraft and persons;
situated thereon or associated therewith. All registered and
certified aerodromes are listed in the CFS or the CWAS. (c) unanticipated damage incurred to the airframe, control
station, payload, or command and control links that adversely
An airport means an aerodrome in respect of which an airport affects the performance or flight characteristics of the
certificate issued under Subpart 302 of the CARs is in force. In aircraft;
practice, you can tell if an aerodrome has a certificate by looking
(d) any time the aircraft is not kept within horizontal boundaries
in the CFS for the word “Cert” in the Operator (OPR) section.
or altitude limits;
A heliport means an aerodrome in respect of which a heliport
(e) any collision with or risk of collision with another aircraft;
certificate issued under Subpart 305 of the CARs is in force.
(f) any time the aircraft becomes uncontrollable, experiences
An operation within 3 NM (5.6 km) of an aerodrome conducted
a flyaway, or is missing; and
under the authority of the Minister of National Defence is possible
if the operation is conducted in accordance with an SFOC – RPAS. (g) any incident not referred to in paragraphs (a) to (f) for which
To be issued an SFOC for the operation of an RPA within 3 NM a police report has been filed or for which a CADORS report
of an aerodrome operated under the authority of the Minister of has resulted.
National Defence (CAR 903.01(h)), the pilot must receive The RPA pilot shall keep a record of the incident or accident
authorization from the Department of National Defence analyses for a period of 12 months after the day on which the
aerodrome authorities. If the aerodrome is in controlled airspace, record is created (CAR 901.49(2)). An RPAS incident report for
the pilot needs an advanced RPA pilot certificate and requires an RPAS operated under an SFOC does not need to be sent to
a manufacturer declaration stating that the RPA meets the TC unless it meets one of the conditions listed above, from (a)
appropriate safety assurance profile as described in section 3.4.3 to (g).
of this chapter. See section 3.6.1 for information about
SFOC – RPAS. In addition to the criteria listed in CAR 901.49, certain types of
RPAS occurrences need to be reported to the TSB, including
when:
3.2.36 Records
(a) an RPA weighing more than 25 kg is involved in an accident,
Every owner of an RPAS shall keep a record containing the as defined by paragraph 2(1)(a) of the TSB Regulations; or
names of the pilots and other crew members who are involved
in each flight and, in respect of the system, the time of each (b) a person is killed or sustains a serious injury as a result of
flight or series of flights. This record shall be available to the coming into direct contact with any part of a small RPA
Minister on request and is retained for a period of 12 months (an aircraft with a maximum take-off weight of at least
after the day on which it is created (CAR 901.48 1)(a)). 250 g [0.55 lb] but not more than 25 kg [55 lb]), including
parts that have become detached from the small RPA; or
Every owner of an RPAS shall keep a record containing the
particulars of any mandatory action and any other maintenance (c) a collision occurs between an RPA of any size or weight
action, modification, or repair performed on the system, including and a manned aircraft.
the names of the persons who performed them and the dates The purpose of an aviation safety investigation into an aircraft
they were undertaken. In the case of a modification, the accident or incident is to prevent a reoccurrence; it is not to
manufacturer and model, as well as a description of the part or determine or assign blame or liability. The TSB, established
equipment installed to modify the system and, if applicable, any under the CTAISB Act, is responsible for investigating all aviation
instructions provided to complete the work are required. This occurrences in Canada involving civil aircraft registered both
record shall be available to the Minister on request and is retained in Canada and abroad. A team of investigators is on 24-hr standby.
for a period of 24 months after the day on which it is created
TC AIM GEN 3.0 provides additional information on aircraft
(CAR 901.48(1)(b)).
accident reporting to the TSB, including time limits and what
Every owner of an RPAS who transfers ownership of the system information to report. An RPA is defined as an aircraft in
to another person shall also deliver to that person at the time of the CARs.
transfer all of the records containing the particulars of any
444
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RPA
CAR 101.01 defines a remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) as “a
navigable aircraft, other than a balloon, rocket, or kite that is 3.3.1 General
operated by a pilot who is not on board.”
Basic Operations require sRPA pilots to have the necessary
When a drone is tethered to the ground in a way that prevents qualifications and skills.
it from being manoeuvred or navigated, it no longer meets the
Basic Operations are for those intending to operate an RPA:
definition of an RPA and the regulatory requirements contained
in Part IX of the CARs no longer apply; instead, operators of (a) in uncontrolled airspace (CAR 901.14);
tethered objects must meet the obstruction requirements of CAR (b) at a distance of 100 ft (30 m) or more from another person
Standard 621 Chapter 11. except from a crew member or other person involved in the
This interpretation recognizes that drones that are prevented operation (CAR 901.26);
from being navigated along a path pose a different set of hazards (c) at a distance of three nautical miles (5.6 km) or more from
from drones that are free-flying. If the RPA is being manoeuvred the centre of an airport or an aerodrome operated under the
or navigated while on the tether, it is navigable and it once again authority of the Minister of National Defence or one nautical
meets the definition of an RPA, and Part IX of the CARs will mile (1.8 km) or more from the centre of a heliport (CAR
apply. 901.47).
A tether can be used to extend the flight time of the RPAS by For more information, refer to 3.2.35 Operations at or in the
supplying power to the RPA from the ground. A tether can also Vicinity of an Aerodrome, Airport, or Heliport.
be used as a means to mitigate the risk of the flyaway by physically
restricting the drone from reaching certain locations. A tether Pilots carrying out Basic RPA operations without a Pilot
should not be used as a means to circumvent or exempt an Certificate - Small Remotely Piloted Aircraft (for basic or
operation from the safety requirements of Part IX. advanced operations) may be subject to individual penalties of
up to $1,000 and/or corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
As an example:
(a) A drone tethered to the ground by a power cable hovering 3.3.2 Pilot Requirements
at a specific location without pilot input while it serves to
boost a communication signal does not meet the definition
3.3.2.1 Pilot Certificate
of an RPA.
A Pilot Certificate - Small Remotely Piloted Aircraft (VLOS)
(b) An RPA attached to a line while it is being manoeuvred or
- Basic Operations is issued by the Minister to those that are at
navigated by a pilot does meet the definition of an RPA,
least 14 years of age and have successfully completed the RPAS
and the regulations governing sRPASs apply.
Basic Operations examination (CAR 901.54, 901.55). A person
(c) A tether should not be used for the sole purpose of exclusion of less than 14 years of age may fly in basic operations if they
from the safety requirements of Part IX. Tethered RPAs are under the direct supervision of the holder of a basic or
should comply with the requirements of Part IX that are advanced RPA pilot certificate (CAR 901.54 (2)).
applicable to the type of operation being performed.
The addition of a tether is considered a modification to an RPA. 3.3.2.2 Recency Requirements
Therefore, if a safety assurance declaration has been made under
Holders of the Basic or Advanced RPA pilot certificate must
CAR section 901.76 for Advanced Operation, the installation of
keep up their skills and knowledge by showing that they have
a tether will invalidate these safety assurance declarations unless
met the recency requirements within the last 24 months (section
(a) the modification was performed according to the instructions
921.04 of CAR Standard 921). This involves being issued a Basic
from the manufacturer of the part or equipment used to modify
or Advanced RPA pilot certificate (CAR 901.55 or 901.64) and
the system (CAR 901.70 (b)), or (b) the pilot installing the tether
successfully completing a flight review (CAR 901.64(c)) or
is able to demonstrate that the system continues to meet the
recurrent training (section 921.04 of CAR Standard 921), including
technical requirements set out in Standard 922 — RPAS Safety
attendance of a safety seminar or self-paced study program
Assurance that are applicable to the operations referred to in
endorsed by Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), or
subsection 901.69(1) for which the declaration was made
completion of an Advanced RPAS recurrent training program
(CAR 901.70 (a)).
which includes human factors, environmental factors, route
Best practices dictate that tethered RPAS operations should not planning, operations near aerodromes/airports, and applicable
be conducted closer to people than the length of the tether regulations, rules and, procedures.
restraining the RPA. For example, if the length of the tether is
RPA pilots who fail to maintain recency but continue to undertake
120 m, a safety margin of more than 120 m from people extending
operations may receive individual penalties of up to $1,000 and/
laterally from the point the tether is attached to the ground should
or corporate penalties of up to $5,000.
be maintained.
445
TC AIM March 25, 2021
446
TC AIM March 25, 2021
Manufacturers failing to maintain or demonstrate adherence to 3.4.5 Operations at or in the Vicinity of an Airport
RPA
these requirements may be subject to individual penalties of or Heliport—Established Procedure
$3,000 and/or corporate penalties of $15,000.
Advanced RPA pilots are required by CAR 901.73 to conduct
their operations in accordance with the established procedure.
3.4.4 Operations in Controlled Airspace The official TC established procedure is stated below and should
Operations in controlled airspace are advanced operations, and be followed when the pilot is operating an RPA in an advanced
the RPAS must have the relevant manufacturer’s safety assurance environment at or in the vicinity of an uncontrolled airport,
declaration (CAR Standard 922), which states that the RPA has heliport, or water airport. Please also refer to the Drone Site
the required positional accuracy, at least +/- 10 m laterally and Selection Tool.
+/- 16 m altitude. The required accuracy for operations within RPA pilots must make every reasonable attempt to contact the
controlled airspace is identified for purposes of communications airport, heliport, or water airport operator to fly within the zones
with other users of the airspace (e.g. the control tower) in order indicated by orange-shaded shapes on the Drone Site Selection
to provide a minimum confidence related to the altitude and Tool. If unable to establish communications with air traffic
position reports from an RPA pilot (CAR Standard 922.04). This through the airport operator, the advanced RPA pilot is required
eligibility, stipulated in 922.04, is written on the RPAS certificate to establish communications with and avoid other aircraft using
of registration. standard radio and visual procedures.
The ANSP unit may approve the use of airspace above 400 ft TC established procedure:
AGL only within the airspace under that unit’s jurisdiction,
subject to all other provisions (CARs 901.71 (2)). (a) Ensure that you have a pilot certificate—RPA (VLOS)—
advanced operations.
The RPA pilot must communicate with the ANSP in the area of
operations in advance of the operations ANSP. A pilot may not (b) Adhere to the CARs, and prior to your RPA operation,
operate an RPA in controlled airspace unless he or she has consult the CFS to research the airport/heliport/water airport
received a written RPAS Flight Authorization from the ANSP where operations are to be conducted so that you understand
(CAR 901.71(1)). The pilot must then comply with all instructions the relevant information.
given by the ANSP (901.72). An ANSP Flight Authorization (c) Contact the airport operator to establish communications
Request can be completed on NAV CANADA’s Web site: <http:// and exchange information regarding air traffic for the
www.navcanada.ca/EN/products-and-services/RPAS/Pages/ duration of the proposed operation.
default.aspx>.
(d) Comply with the airport operator’s guidance, schedule, and
The following is required: other requests.
(a) the date, time, and duration of the operation; (e) If you are unable to establish communications with the
(b) the category, registration number, and physical characteristics airport operator, contact air traffic on the applicable
of the aircraft; frequency found in the CFS. This could mean making a
general position report initially to attract attention and
(c) the vertical and horizontal boundaries of the area of inform other airport airspace users. Use standard radio
operation; communication procedures. The person operating the VHF
(d) the route of the flight to access the area of operation; Radio must have a valid Restricted Operator Certificate
with Aeronautical Qualification (ROC-A). TC AIM COM 1.0
(e) the proximity of the area of operation to manned aircraft
provides additional information on radiotelephony
approaches and departures and to patterns of traffic formed
procedures.
by manned aircraft;
A radio call generally consists of four parts: the call-up, the
(f) the means by which two-way communications with the
reply, the message, and the acknowledgement, for example:
appropriate ATC unit will be maintained;
(i) Pilot Call-up:
(g) the name, contact information, and pilot certificate number (A) Who you are talking to—Determine if it is
of any pilot of the aircraft; airport traffic or a specific aircraft.
(h) the procedures and flight profiles to be followed in the case (B) Who you are—Include the category of the
of a lost command and control link; aircraft you are operating (RPA).
(C) Where you are—Provide cardinal quadrant or
(i) the procedures to be followed in emergency situations; distance and direction relative to the runway
(j) the process and the time required to terminate the operation; as well as the RPA’s altitude in feet ASL, which
and is the standard in aviation.
(k) any other information required by the ANSP that is necessary (ii) Station Reply: Wait for a reply on that frequency.
for the provision of air traffic management. (iii) Pilot Message: State your intentions and the duration
of the operation.
(iv) Station Acknowledgement: Wait for an
acknowledgement on that frequency.
447
TC AIM March 25, 2021
(f) Respect the limits of the privileges granted by your TC remote. This 922.06 eligibility is written on the RPAS certificate
RPA
RPAS certificate with regards to Part IX of the CARs. of registration.
(g) Always give way to manned aircraft and keep the RPAS
within VLOS (CAR 901.11, 901.17, and 901.18). 3.5 flight reviewerS
RPA pilots should note that they are not obligated to follow this
established procedure if their operational area is located outside 3.5.1 General
of the orange-shaded areas depicted on the Drone Site Selection
Tool. The procedure is applicable only if pilots are within The flight review is an in-person, holistic operational assessment
uncontrolled airspace. The orange areas on the Drone Site of an RPA pilot’s skills. Flight Reviews are conducted by qualified
Selection Tool represent the areas with the highest air traffic flight reviewers who have undergone additional Transport Canada
due to approach, landing, and take-off patterns at the airport/ testing and are monitored closely by both the self-declared RPAS
heliport/water airport in question and are therefore protected. training organization with which they associate as well as
Transport Canada. In addition to confirming that advanced
Even if no established procedure is in place for the area outside category applicants have the CARs required documentation –
of the orange areas on the Drone Site Selection Tool, pilots are site survey (CAR 901.24), normal checklists and emergency
required to apply due diligence. If a pilot chooses to fly in these checklists (CAR 901.27) – they are also acting to validate the
areas and sees other aircraft being operated, it is recommended identity and knowledge of the candidate as well as their operational
that the pilot land the RPA and reassess the situation. If regular and flight skills.
aircraft activities are observed in those areas, it is recommended
that RPA pilots contact the airport/heliport/water airport operator
3.5.2 Pilot Requirements
to have a better understanding of the local traffic patterns and
to coordinate their operations.
3.5.2.1 Flight Reviewer Rating
Although registered and certified aerodrome operators can
prohibit someone from using their ground installations, they Flight Reviewers must meet and maintain several requirements
cannot forbid the use of the airspace surrounding a registered before they are able to qualify as flight reviewers. Flight reviewers
or certified aerodrome. Airspace access is regulated through must be over 18, have a good record with respect to aviation,
the CARs, and any aircraft and pilot meeting the requirements and have no enforcement action against them, past or pending.
therein could use the airspace. They are expected to read, understand, and comply with TP115395
(Flight Reviewer’s Guide for Pilots of RPAS) and meet the
NOTE: knowledge requirements outlined in TP-15263 (Knowledge
Under Section 5.1 of the Aeronautics Act, only the Minister or Requirements for Pilots of sRPAS). Additionally, they must hold
delegate can restrict access to airspace: <https://laws.justice. an Advanced RPA pilot Certificate for at least 6 months before
gc.ca/eng/acts/A-2/page-7.html>. qualifying to write the flight reviewer exam to receive the
endorsement and must remain affiliated with a TP-15263 Self-
Declared RPAS Training provider to exercise the privileges of
3.4.6 Operations Near People their endorsement.
Operations near people (section 922.05 of CAR Standard 922)
are those less than 100 ft (30 m) but more than 16.4 ft (5 m) 3.5.2.2 Examination
horizontally from people, except for the crew or people involved
in the operation. For these operations, the pilot must have their The flight reviewer exam is available in the Drone Management
Advanced RPA pilot certificate (CAR 901.64) and the RPAS Portal to Advanced Certificate holders with more than 6 months
must have the relevant Manufacturer’s Declaration (CAR 901.76). of experience. The examination is 30 questions, requires a mark
This eligibility, stipulated in CAR Standard 922, is written on of 80% to pass, and focuses on both advanced category operations
the RPAS certificate of registration. and flight review requirements. Once successful, applicants pay
a fee to have the flight reviewer endorsement added to their pilot
certificate. To exercise the privileges of a flight reviewer, the
3.4.7 Operations Over People reviewer must remain associated to at least one TP15263 Self-
Operations that pose the highest risks when it comes to the Declared RPAS Training Provider, though multiple associations
system reliability of the RPAS are those over people (CAR are also permitted.
922.06) less than 16.4 ft (5 m) away who are not included in the
crew and are not involved in the operation. For these operations, 3.5.3 Conduct of Flight Reviews
the pilot must have his or her Advanced RPA pilot certificate
(CAR 901.64), and the RPAS must have the relevant manufacturer’s Flight reviews are conducted in-person at a site of the candidate’s
declaration (CAR 901.76) required by Standard 922 — RPAS choosing. They can be conducted in controlled or uncontrolled
Safety Assurance, confirming that no single failure of the RPAS airspace though as the flight review itself is not exempt from
may result in severe injury to a person on the ground and that complying with Part IX of the CARs, the applicant must be able
any combination of failures of the RPAS which may result in to meet the requirements to operate within that airspace with
severe injury to a person on the ground must be shown to be the exception of having the Advanced RPA pilot certificate.
448
TC AIM March 25, 2021
RPA
assessment items. If any of the 8 assessed items are determined
to not meet the requirements or if the candidate displays unsafe
flying or behaviour, does not complete an appropriate site survey,
lacks training or competency, or does not use effective scanning
techniques, the flight review is marked a failure. Candidates
who have failed flight reviews may reattempt after 24 hours
have elapsed.
Following a successful flight review, the reviewer shall enter
the required information into the Drone Management Portal
within 24 hours. The successful candidate will then be
automatically notified via email and routed to the Drone
Management Portal to pay for the issuance of the Advanced
RPA pilot certificate.
3.6.1 General
Not every operational consideration can be addressed through
regulation. This is particularly true in industries where technology
is rapidly evolving such as the RPAS industry. Part IX of the
CARs allows the Minister to issue an SFOC - RPAS to allow
certain operations that are not covered by the Part IX regulation.
These operations include:
(a) RPAS with a maximum take-off weight greater than 25kg;
(b) BVLOS operations;
(c) foreign operators;
(d) operations at altitudes greater than 400 ft AGL;
(e) operation of more than 5 RPAs from a single control station;
(f) operation at a special aviation event or an advertised event;
(g) operations with restricted payloads;
(h) operations within 3 NM of an aerodrome operated under
the authority of the Minister of National Defence;
(i) any other operation determined by the Minister to require
an SFOC.
449