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School of Computing and Mathematics
Examination Session X, 20XX

ITC218 ICT Project Management


This paper is for Distance Education (Distance), Study Centre Melbourne, Study
Centre Sydney and Study Centre Brisbane students.

EXAM CONDITIONS:
This is a closed book exam
Non-programmable calculator permitted
Notes are NOT permitted in the Exam
English Dictionary Permitted (printed copy only, unmarked and unannotated)
The student may NOT retain the question paper

WRITING TIME: 2 hours plus 10 minutes reading time


Writing is permitted during reading time

MATERIALS SUPPLIED BY UNIVERSITY:


2 x 12 page answer booklet
1 x General purpose answer sheet (GPAS)

MATERIALS PERMITTED IN EXAMINATION: Ruler - any type


2B Pencil/Eraser
(No electronic aids are permitted e.g. laptops, phones)

NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: Part A: 20 Multiple Choice Questions


Part B: 8 Short Answer Questions
VALUE: 40%

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1. All questions should be attempted.
2. The maximum possible mark for the paper is 100 marks. Part A is worth 20 marks
and Part B is worth 80 marks.
3. Be sure to include your name and student number on the General Purpose Answer
Sheet.
4. Complete the panel at the bottom of this page with your name and student number.

STUDENT NAME: …………………………………………. STUDENT ID: ……………………….


SIGNATURE …………………………………………………………………………………………….
CALCULATOR USED (IF ANY) …………………...…………………………………………………

 
 
 
1. In a Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract
A. The seller receives a predetermined fee plus an incentive bonus for
meeting certain objectives
B. The buyer pays the seller for both the time and materials required to
complete the work
C. A total or fixed price is negotiated or set as the final price for a product
or service
D. The seller is reimbursed for the total direct and indirect costs of doing
the work, and an additional fixed amount that does not change.

2. When a Project Sponsor adds small yet time- consuming features to the
system once the scope of the project has been approved, this is called:
A. Scope Grope
B. Scope Creep
C. Scope Leap
D. Scope Float

3. Which of the following is not an estimation technique used in Project


Management?
A. Time Boxing
B. Bottom-Up
C. Milestone Counting
D. Poker Planning

4. The project charter grants the project team the right to:
A. begin project execution
B. develop the project mission statement
C. create a detailed project plan
D. write a detailed business case

5. The document that describes why the project is needed, and may include
estimated costs and benefits, is called a:
A. program management plan
B. business case
C. SWOT analysis
D. guiding principle

6. The milestone schedule in the project charter:


A. is a schedule that provides detailed data for when each project
activity should begin.
B. is a detailed schedule that shows the planned duration for every
activity in the project.
C. is a summary-level schedule that identifies significant points or
events in the project.
D. is a summary-level schedule that shows how major project tasks
are sequenced.
7. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with managing projects
in a projectized organization?
A. Response times and decision-making are slow.
B. Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized.
C. Team members have difficulty focusing on project issues.
D. Traditional department barriers are reduced.

8. Which of the following is true of projects?

A. They have an indefinite beginning and end.


B. They are developed using regressive elaboration.
C. They have a unique purpose.
D. They are permanent in nature.

9. An important tool for project scope management is _____.

A. fast tracking
B. a Gantt chart
C. crashing
D. a work breakdown structure

10. Which of the following project management knowledge areas is an


overarching function that affects and is affected by the different knowledge
areas?

A. Project cost management


B. Project integration management
C. Project stakeholder management
D. Project communications management

11. From an agile project management perspective, which of these


constraints are considered to be fixed?
A. Quality and value
B. Resources and schedule
C. Scope and time
D. Customer satisfaction

12. All of the following factors influence the opportunities and threats an
organization must consider when performing a strategic analysis EXCEPT:
A. Competitors
B. Suppliers
C. regulatory agencies
D. employees
13. The addition of acceptance criteria factors to the milestones in a project
charter helps the team understand who will judge the quality of the deliverable
associated with each milestone, and _____:

A. that stakeholder’s role on the team.


B. the risk associated with each milestone.
C. the penalties for not achieving the desired quality.
D. the criteria or standards they will use.

14 Project management plans generally include all of the following elements


EXCEPT:
A. schedules and budgets
B. business case and recommendations
C. risks and quality considerations
D. communications and stakeholders

15 Risk is often considered in terms of impact to project success. Which of the


following is a valid measure of project success?

A. meeting the technical requirements


B. customer related measures such as customer satisfaction
C. measures related to the firm’s future including market share and
commercial success
D. all of these

16 Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to control quality. Which of


the following items is consistent with his quality control guidance?

A. identify all team members and their needs


B. establish measurement systems
C. prove effects
D. expend necessary efforts to exceed requirements

17. All of the following methods have proven to be useful techniques to help
project teams identify the risks that might impact the project EXCEPT:

A. reviewing risk checklists


B. deriving lessons learned
C. interviewing stakeholders
D. brainstorming among team members and subject matter experts

18. Changing the timing of non critical tasks while keeping within project time
constraints is known as:
A. Resource levelling.
B. Resource smoothing.
C. Resource management.
D. Resource adjustment.
19. The primary objective of risk quantification is to:
A. Improve the accuracy of risk assessment.
B. Take the guesswork out of the risk management process.
C. Compare the cost of risk response development to the risk’s expected
monetary value.
D. Determine which risk events warrant responses.

20. Why is it important to have a disputes clause in a contract defining the


procedures to be used to resolve problems?
A. Having a defined process will facilitate the resolution of disputes as
soon as possible.
B. The tracking of claims is important in case of subsequent litigation.
C. Disputes can be brought before an Arbitration Board for resolution only
when the formal procedure has been followed.
D. There may be an adverse relationship formed without such a
procedure.
PART B – 8 Short Answer Questions

Question 1 (10 marks)

A. Compare and contrast the advantages and limitations of using financial


models in project selection to using scoring models in project selection.
(7 marks)

B. There are both financial and non-financial criteria that need to be


considered when selecting which projects will be supported within an
organisation. Give three reasons why an organisation may support projects
that do not have high profit margins. (3 marks)

Question 2 (10 marks)

A. List the main activities that are performed by the project manager in the
executing stage. (4 marks)

B. Identify and describe the three steps that the team should follow in order to
define project scope and create a project scope statement.
(6 marks)

Question 3 (10 marks)

A. Discuss how the behaviours of a project manager might be different in an


agile project life cycle, versus a plan-driven or traditional project life cycle?
(6 marks)

B. Describe the process of achieving stakeholder satisfaction. Why is it


important to consider stakeholder satisfaction? (4 marks)

Question 4 (10 marks)

A. Describe the 4 phases of a Change Management Plan and give one tip for
success in each phase (6 marks)

B. Explain the role of Emotional Intelligence in Project Management and how


Project Managers can improve their emotional intelligence (10 marks)
Question 5 (10 marks)
 
A. Describe two ways that a project manager can resolve resource overloads.
Under what circumstances should each be used? (6 marks)

B. The project manager at a software company predicts her project’s costs


based on previous projects she has worked on that were similar. (She takes
into account the differences between her current and previous projects, as
well.)

What type of cost estimating is she using?

What are the advantages and disadvantages of this approach? (4 marks)


Question 6 (10 marks)

The table below shows a number of tasks required for the successful
completion  of  a  project.    
Task Duration Dependencies Successors ES EF LS LF Critical
Path

A 10 None B, C, D

B 4 A E

C 12 A E

D 3 A F

E 4 B, C F

F 3 D, E G

G 4 F None

 
A. Draw a network diagram for this project hi-lighting the critical path and
complete the table. (4 marks)
B. Which task(s) in this project is/are not on the critical path? (2 marks)
C. Calculate the free slack for the task(s) you identified in part B
(2 marks)
D. Calculate the total duration of the project (2 marks)
 
Question 7 (10 marks)

A. Identify and describe three risk identification techniques. Describe


some of the benefits of each technique?
(6 marks)

B. Identify and describe two leadership styles. Discuss the advantages


and disadvantages of each of the identified leadership styles.
(4 marks)
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 8 Case Study (10 marks)
 
In this scenario:
 
You are the owner/manager for a small local IT business, employing 5 full-
time staff and 2 part-time staff in total.

You have been approached to undertake a large project, involving the


installation of 150 new desktops for a new wholesale distribution centre in the
local area.

As part of the contract you would be expected to provide ongoing hardware


and software support in a timely manner.

Based on this introduction, answer questions A, B and C:

A. Identify 4 stakeholders and indicate the influence they have on the


project
(4 marks)
 
B. Develop a stakeholder communications analysis for this project. Your
answer should include all stakeholders you mentioned in question 1.
Outline the communication mechanism you use with each individual
stakeholder, its frequency, along with a short description of the content
of the communication.
(4 marks)
 
C. Briefly outline 2 quality control issues that could influence project
success.
(2 marks)
 

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