Sample Exam It Service Management English

sample exam
VB_IS20F.EN_1.0
IT Service Management according to ISO/IEC 20000

Foundation
edition December 2007
content
2 introduction
3 sample exam
14 answer key
34 evaluation
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Introduction
This is the sample exam Foundation in IT Service Management according to ISO/IEC 20000.
This sample exam consists of 40 multiple-choice questions. Each multiple-choice question has a
number of possible answers, of which only one is the correct answer.
The maximum number of points that can be obtained for this exam is 40. Each correct answer is
worth one point. If you obtain 26 points or more you will pass.
The time allowed for this exam is 60 minutes.
No rights may be derived from this information.
Good luck!
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© EXIN, IS20F.EN 2/34

Sample exam
1 of 40
The Relationship processes describe the relationships with the business and with the suppliers.
What should the Relationship processes ensure?
A. that all parties understand the business needs, responsibilities and obligations
B. that the business and suppliers are directly informed of Major Incidents
C. that the service levels for all services are consistent in the supply chain
D. that there is a frequent contact between the suppliers and the business to resolve
dissatisfaction issues
2 of 40
Why are processes required?
A. to be able to define quality objectives in a structured manner

B. to ensure that service issues never arise
C. to provide consistency in the output from activities
D. to satisfy the needs of major outsource providers
3 of 40
What is a benefit to an organization when the services are delivered according to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. The environmental needs of the employees in the organization are well looked after.
B. The organization becomes more process focused and thereby more efficient.
C. The organization behaves in a socially responsible way.
D. The organization has less suppliers to deal with.
4 of 40
The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology can be applied to all ISO/IEC 20000 processes.
What does the Act phase of this methodology cover?
A. establishing the objectives and processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with
Customer requirements and the organization's policies
B. implementation of the processes
C. monitoring and measuring processes and services and reporting the results
D. taking the necessary actions to continually improve process performance

5 of 40
An approach to developing and implementing a Quality Management System consists of several

steps.
Which of the following is not a necessary step?
A. agreeing to the quality policy and objectives with the Change Manager
B. determining and providing the resources necessary to attain the quality objectives
C. determining the needs and expectations of Customers and other interested parties
D. establishing methods to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of each process
6 of 40
What is the primary purpose of analyzing Change records?
A. to be able to open a new Problem record, so proactive identification of Incidents is possible

B. to check if related Incident records are adequately closed
C. to detect increasing levels of Changes and emerging trends
D. to provide input to the Service Reporting process
7 of 40
Personnel should be competent on the basis of appropriate education and experience.
Which of the following is a best practice relating to competence?
A. Appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience need to be maintained.

B. At least two employees should be suitably trained for each role.
C. Employees should have at least a relevant bachelors degree.
D. Personnel should all have a relevant Security training according to ISO/IEC 27002.
8 of 40
Which standard describes the fundamental aspects of Quality Management Systems?
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001

9 of 40
What is the objective of the Service Continuity and Availability Management processes?
A. to ensure agreed effective communication towards Customers

B. to ensure that agreed levels of service commitments to Customers can be met in all
circumstances
C. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to Customers can be
met in all circumstances
D. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to providers can be met
in all circumstances
10 of 40
A group of activities within Release Management is roll-out, distribution and installation.
What should be ensured as part of these activities?
A. Changes are scheduled based upon priority and risk.

B. Contingency and back-out plans are available.
C. Redundant products, services and licenses are decommissioned.
D. The Release is tested to the satisfaction of the Customers.
11 of 40
Top management has to provide evidence of its commitment to developing, implementing and
improving its Service Management capability within the context of the organization's business and
Customers' requirements.
What is the best way that management can make this visible?
A. by outsourcing Change Management

B. by taking disciplinary action against underperforming employees
C. by taking part in the planning of new IT services
D. through leadership and actions

12 of 40
Which of the following is used as a set of guidance materials for IT governance?
A. CobITTM
B. ISO 9000
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. MOF
13 of 40
What is the objective of IT Service Management?
A. to provide critical services to business customers

B. to provide guaranteed service levels against business requirements
C. to provide management of services to meet business requirements
D. to provide services to the maximum level to the business
14 of 40
To which process shall Problem Management ensure that up-to-date information on Known Errors
and corrected Problems is available?
A. all ISO/IEC 20000 processes

B. Availability Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
15 of 40
Which type of event or activity can trigger a service Change, which would need to be catered for in
the Service Management plan?
A. Major Incident
B. Service improvement activities
C. System Lifecycle Management
D. Urgent Change

16 of 40
Why is it important that reviews are conducted at regular intervals during the Check phase of the
Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology?
A. to be able to allocate roles and responsibilities

B. to be able to define the objectives and requirements that are to be achieved by Service
Management
C. to be able to establish the Service Management policy, objectives and plans
D. to determine whether the Service Management requirements are effectively implemented and
maintained
17 of 40
What is the certification audit primarily based on?
A. personnel records
B. process descriptions
C. reports by certified financial auditors
D. specifications
18 of 40
What is the correct way to make a change to a contract as a result of a major review of an
authorized contract?
A. through the Business Relationship Management process

B. through the Change Management process
C. through the Customer representative
D. through the Supplier Management process
19 of 40
Targets for resolution should be based on priority.
When scheduling Incident or Problem resolution, which of the following should not be taken into
account?
A. the available skills

B. the competing requirements for resources
C. the effort/cost to provide the method of resolution
D. the number of previously reported Incidents for the particular Configuration Item (CI)

20 of 40
What is a responsibility of the Service Provider with regard to Supplier Management as defined in
ISO/IEC 20000-1:2005?
A. to ensure that a process exists for the procurement of suppliers

B. to ensure that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with suppliers are aligned with SLAs of the
business
C. to ensure that subcontracted suppliers meet contractual requirements in all circumstances
D. to ensure that supplier processes and procedures are defined where outsourced
21 of 40
What details should be recorded as a baseline prior to implementing a plan for service
improvement?
A. backlog of changes for the service

B. number of staff involved
C. service quality and levels
D. time taken to operate the process
22 of 40
What is SixSigma®?
A. It is a quality instrument to measure defects in process outputs.

B. It is a six step maturity model to improve the capability of business processes.
C. It is a standard that is recently developed for improvement of IT processes.
D. It is a structured, statistically based approach to process improvement.
23 of 40
How should the Deming cycle be used?
A. as a model for continual improvement

B. as a model for customer orientation
C. as a model to be used during the design phase of the service
D. as a model to calculate the costs of service improvement

24 of 40
What is the definition of Availability?
A. a record containing details of which Configuration Items (CIs) are affected and how they are
affected by an authorized Change
B. a snapshot of the state of a service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
C. any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes or may
cause an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service
D. the ability of a component or service to perform its required function at a stated instant or over
a stated period of time
25 of 40
New or changed services need to be accepted before being implemented into the live
environment.
What shall be done after a new or changed service has been implemented?
A. A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is held comparing actual outcomes against those planned.
B. An approach needs to be defined for interfacing to projects that are creating or modifying
services.
C. Nothing additional: the new or changed service goes into Business As Usual and will be
managed as a normal service.
D. The manner in which the Change shall be reversed or remedied if unsuccessful needs to be
defined.
26 of 40
What is the recommendation with regard to the implementation of an emergency Change?
A. Only the senior manager should authorize emergency Changes.

B. The Change process should be completely bypassed.
C. There is a separate process for emergency Changes.
D. Where possible the Change process should be followed.

27 of 40
For which type of organizations is ISO/IEC 20000 appropriate for use?
A. for organizations to confirm that all of the ITIL® guidelines have been implemented
B. for organizations which need to demonstrate alignment to customer requirements
C. for organizations wishing to certify their services
D. for tool vendors to specify the Service Provider's processes
28 of 40
Any organization may be impacted by legislative or regulatory change in the future.
Where should this be covered?
A. in a Change request
B. in the Business Relationship Management process
C. in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. in the Service Management plan
29 of 40
What level of Capacity is targeted by Capacity Management?
A. sufficient Capacity to meet agreed current and future demands

B. sufficient Capacity to meet all current and future demands
C. sufficient Capacity to meet all development and operational requirements
D. sufficient Capacity to meet current demands only
30 of 40
What does a quality policy aim to define?
A. the formally expressed quality intentions and direction of an organization

B. the legal obligations that the organization must fulfill
C. the requirements of ISO/IEC 20000
D. the requirements of the customer as stated in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

31 of 40
Which audit is conducted by, or on behalf of, the organization itself for internal purposes and can
form the basis for an organization's self-declaration of conformity?
A. First party audit

B. Second party audit
C. Third party audit
D. Fourth party audit
32 of 40
In planning to implement Service Management, what does the plan need to say regarding tools
according to ISO/IEC 20000-2:2005?
A. The plan defines the tools as appropriate to support the processes.

B. The plan details the effects of new technologies and techniques on capacity.
C. The plan does not state any tools requirements.
D. The plan lists how every individual process is supported by a tool.
33 of 40
Why is a scope statement for ISO/IEC 20000 important?
A. It defines what the management system has been certified against

B. It details all of the companies that have been certified
C. It details all of the services that have been certified
D. It identifies which processes have been excluded from the scope
34 of 40
Where would an IT service for the customer normally be defined?
A. in the IT Framework
B. in the Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
C. in the Service Catalog or the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. in the Service Report

35 of 40
What is required to be included in Release Management procedures according to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. the authorization and implementation of emergency Changes

B. the investigation and prevention of Security Incidents
C. the recording of all reported Incidents
D. the updating and changing of configuration information and Change records
36 of 40
What should planning for new or changed services include?
A. budgets and staff resources

B. major non-conformities to all Underpinning Contracts (UCs)
C. recent Problems and Known Errors in the desktop environment
D. trends in Capacity growth of the current applications
37 of 40
What is required to be included in proposals for new or changed services according to ISO/IEC
20000?
A. an updated Operational Level Agreement

B. cost, organizational, technical and commercial impact
C. the policies, plans and procedures of each process or set of processes
D. the Service Management plan
38 of 40
What purpose can the ISO/IEC 20000 standard serve?
A. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be
assessed.
B. It defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.
C. It helps to decide on the requirements that need to be verified within the scope of a supply
agreement.
D. It provides a yardstick for the design of a Total Quality Management System.

39 of 40
Why is it important for Service Providers to provide documents and records?
A. It is part of the requirements (evidence) to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant

B. to be able to uniquely identify and record all Configuration Items (CIs) in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)
C. to ensure effective planning, operation and control of Service Management
D. to ensure employees are aware of the relevance and importance of their work activities
40 of 40
Who should be recommended to support the Senior Responsible Owner in his/her responsibility
for the delivery of the management system?
A. a decision taking group

B. the Change Advisory Board (CAB)
C. the senior customer representative
D. the service managers

Answer Key
1 of 40
The Relationship processes describe the relationships with the business and with the suppliers.
What should the Relationship processes ensure?
A. that all parties understand the business needs, responsibilities and obligations
B. that the business and suppliers are directly informed of Major Incidents
C. that the service levels for all services are consistent in the supply chain
D. that there is a frequent contact between the suppliers and the business to resolve
dissatisfaction issues
A. Correct. The Relationship processes cover Supplier Management and Business Relationship
Management, and together they should ensure that the business drivers of the customer are
understood and that the responsibilities and obligations of all parties are understood and
documented.
B. Incorrect. The process for a Major Incident should include communication across all areas
involved in resolution as well as to the customers affected. However, this is managed within
the Incident Management process and is the responsibility of a nominated manager of the
Major Incident. It is therefore outside of the scope of the Relationship processes.
C. Incorrect. It is not necessary for the services levels to be consistent across all suppliers, and in
fact it is unlikely that this will be the case. It is however necessary that supplier service levels
are aligned with those of the business, so that the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) agreed
with the customer can be met.
D. Incorrect. The business should not have direct contact with the suppliers. The service provider
is responsible for managing the suppliers to ensure the quality of the services provided to the
business.
2 of 40
Why are processes required?
A. to be able to define quality objectives in a structured manner

B. to ensure that service issues never arise
C. to provide consistency in the output from activities
D. to satisfy the needs of major outsource providers
A. Incorrect. The processes should support the quality objectives.

B. Incorrect. Service issues are a part of day to day life; processes will help to minimize their
impact.
C. Correct. A predictable approach is required.
D. Incorrect. Touch points with suppliers are needed to demonstrate end to end quality control.

3 of 40
What is a benefit to an organization when the services are delivered according to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. The environmental needs of the employees in the organization are well looked after.
B. The organization becomes more process focused and thereby more efficient.
C. The organization behaves in a socially responsible way.
D. The organization has less suppliers to deal with.
A. Incorrect. The ISO/IEC 20000 standard is driven by the business needs of the customer, not
the environmental needs of the employees of the organization.
B. Correct. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based standard. The service management processes
covered in the standard deliver the best possible service to meet a customer’s business needs
within agreed resource levels.
C. Incorrect. The ISO/IEC 20000 standard focuses on meeting the business needs of the customer
via a process-based approach. The social behavior of the organization is not considered.
D. Incorrect. Compliance to the ISO/IEC 20000 standard will ensure that suppliers are effectively
managed, however delivering services according to ISO/IEC 20000 does not mean that there
are less suppliers to deal with.
4 of 40
The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology can be applied to all ISO/IEC 20000 processes.
What does the Act phase of this methodology cover?
A. establishing the objectives and processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with
Customer requirements and the organization's policies
B. implementation of the processes
C. monitoring and measuring processes and services and reporting the results
D. taking the necessary actions to continually improve process performance
A. Incorrect. This action is taken during the Plan phase of the methodology.
B. Incorrect. This action is taken during the Do phase of the methodology.
C. Incorrect. These are the actions taken during the Check phase.
D. Correct. This action is taken during the Act phase of the methodology.

5 of 40
An approach to developing and implementing a Quality Management System consists of several

steps.
Which of the following is not a necessary step?
A. agreeing to the quality policy and objectives with the Change Manager
B. determining and providing the resources necessary to attain the quality objectives
C. determining the needs and expectations of Customers and other interested parties
D. establishing methods to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of each process
A. Correct. The quality policy and quality objectives need to be agreed with more people, not only
with the Change Manager.
B. Incorrect. This is a step involved in developing and implementing a Quality Management
System.
C. Incorrect. This is a step involved in developing and implementing a Quality Management
System.
D. Incorrect. This is a step involved in developing and implementing a Quality Management
System.
6 of 40
What is the primary purpose of analyzing Change records?
A. to be able to open a new Problem record, so proactive identification of Incidents is possible

B. to check if related Incident records are adequately closed
C. to detect increasing levels of Changes and emerging trends
D. to provide input to the Service Reporting process
A. Incorrect. Problem records are opened based upon Incident analysis.

B. Incorrect. To check if Incident records are adequately closed, Incident records shall be
analyzed.
C. Correct. Analysis of Change records allows for trend identification.
D. Incorrect. The purpose of analyzing Change records is to detect increasing levels of Changes
and emerging trends.

7 of 40
Personnel should be competent on the basis of appropriate education and experience.
Which of the following is a best practice relating to competence?
A. Appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience need to be maintained.

B. At least two employees should be suitably trained for each role.
C. Employees should have at least a relevant bachelors degree.
D. Personnel should all have a relevant Security training according to ISO/IEC 27002.
A. Correct. This is a best practice according to the standard.

B. Incorrect. This is relevant to availability of resources, however not a best practice for
competency.
C. Incorrect. A bachelors degree is not a requirement, relevant training for the role is.
D. Incorrect. This is a specific training for Security, but not a best practice for competency in
general.
8 of 40
Which standard describes the fundamental aspects of Quality Management Systems?
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO/IEC 15504
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. ISO/IEC 27001
A. Correct. ISO 9000 is part of a family of standards for Quality Management Systems.
B. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 15504 is the Process Assessment standard.
C. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is the IT Service Management standard focused on the IT Service
Management System.
D. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 27001 his is the Security Management standard focused on the Security
Management System

9 of 40
What is the objective of the Service Continuity and Availability Management processes?
A. to ensure agreed effective communication towards Customers

B. to ensure that agreed levels of service commitments to Customers can be met in all
circumstances
C. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to Customers can be
met in all circumstances
D. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to providers can be met
in all circumstances
A. Incorrect. Effective communication is not the objective of the process Service Continuity and
Availability Management. It is more relevant to Service Reporting.
B. Incorrect. Managing levels of service is the objective of the Service Level Management
process.
C. Correct. This is the objective of the Service Continuity and Availability Management processes.
D. Incorrect. Service Continuity and Availability Management is a process between a supplier and
a Customer. Not between a supplier and a provider.
10 of 40
A group of activities within Release Management is roll-out, distribution and installation.
What should be ensured as part of these activities?
A. Changes are scheduled based upon priority and risk.

B. Contingency and back-out plans are available.
C. Redundant products, services and licenses are decommissioned.
D. The Release is tested to the satisfaction of the Customers.
A. Incorrect. This is part of Change Management as opposed to Release Management.

B. Incorrect. This is part of the documentation procedure, not of the roll-out, distribution and
installation.
C. Correct. This is a best practice according to the standard.
D. Incorrect. This is part of Release verification and acceptance.

11 of 40
Top management has to provide evidence of its commitment to developing, implementing and
improving its Service Management capability within the context of the organization's business and
Customers' requirements.
What is the best way that management can make this visible?
A. by outsourcing Change Management

B. by taking disciplinary action against underperforming employees
C. by taking part in the planning of new IT services
D. through leadership and actions
A. Incorrect. Outsourcing Change Management is insufficient evidence to show top management

commitment.
B. Incorrect. This is not sufficient action to ensure that commitment from top management is
visible.
C. Incorrect. Taking part in the planning of new services is insufficient action to ensure that
commitment from top management is visible.
D. Correct. Top management can make their commitment visible by showing strong leadership
and taking firm actions.
12 of 40
Which of the following is used as a set of guidance materials for IT governance?
A. CobITTM
B. ISO 9000
C. ISO/IEC 20000
D. MOF
A. Correct. CobiTTM is ISACA’s guidance for IT governance.

B. Incorrect. ISO 9000 is the generic Quality Management System standard.
C. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is the IT Service Management standard.
D. Incorrect. MOF is the service management framework from Microsoft.

13 of 40
What is the objective of IT Service Management?
A. to provide critical services to business customers

B. to provide guaranteed service levels against business requirements
C. to provide management of services to meet business requirements
D. to provide services to the maximum level to the business
A. Incorrect. The customer services will be more than critical services.

B. Incorrect. The services are not guaranteed, the service is simply being provided.
C. Correct. The focus for IT Service Management needs to be on agreed business requirements.
D. Incorrect. The customers may not require “maximum” levels.
14 of 40
To which process shall Problem Management ensure that up-to-date information on Known Errors
and corrected Problems is available?
A. all ISO/IEC 20000 processes

B. Availability Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
A. Incorrect. According to the standard Problem Management shall make this information
available to the Incident Management process, not to all ISO/IEC processes.
B. Incorrect. According to the standard Problem Management shall make this information
available to the Incident Management process.
C. Incorrect. According to the standard Problem Management shall make this information
available to the Incident Management process.
D. Correct. Problem Management shall make this information available to the Incident
Management process, to allow for Incident matching.

15 of 40
Which type of event or activity can trigger a service Change, which would need to be catered for in
the Service Management plan?
A. Major Incident
B. Service improvement activities
C. System Lifecycle Management
D. Urgent Change
A. Incorrect. This is an event within a process, the process is designed to handle these events,
and so it does not affect the Service Management plan.
B. Correct. Improving the service implies changes to the processes and service and consequently
affects the Service Management plan.
C. Incorrect. System Lifecycle Management manages the lifecycle of IT systems; this does not
affect the Service Management plan.
D. Incorrect. This is an event within a process. The process is designed to handle these events,
and so this does not affect the Service Management plan.
16 of 40
Why is it important that reviews are conducted at regular intervals during the Check phase of the
Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology?
A. to be able to allocate roles and responsibilities

B. to be able to define the objectives and requirements that are to be achieved by Service
Management
C. to be able to establish the Service Management policy, objectives and plans
D. to determine whether the Service Management requirements are effectively implemented and
maintained
A. Incorrect. This is a part of implementing the Service Management plan.

B. Incorrect. This is a part of the Service Management plan. During the Check phase it is
important to review if the objectives are being achieved.
C. Incorrect. This is a part of Management responsibility.
D. Correct. This is a part of the standard with regard to the Check phase.

17 of 40
What is the certification audit primarily based on?
A. personnel records
B. process descriptions
C. reports by certified financial auditors
D. specifications
A. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based standard. Although various records and

documents may be used as evidence in a certification audit, process-related documents (e.g.
process descriptions) will form the basis of the evidence.
B. Correct. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based standard. The certification audit will be primarily
based upon process-related documentation (such as process descriptions) which can be used
to assess the range of processes covered in the standard.
C. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based standard, and therefore process-related
documents (e.g. process descriptions) will form the basis of the evidence. Reports by certified
financial auditors will provide relevant evidence to audit Budgeting and Accounting for IT
Services, but will not provide information across all processes.
D. Incorrect. ISO/IEC 20000 is a process-based standard. Although various records and
documents may be used as evidence in a certification audit, process-related documents (e.g.
process descriptions) will form the basis of the evidence.
18 of 40
What is the correct way to make a change to a contract as a result of a major review of an
authorized contract?
A. through the Business Relationship Management process

B. through the Change Management process
C. through the Customer representative
D. through the Supplier Management process
A. Incorrect. The Business Relationship Management process is responsible for setting up service
review meetings to discuss changes to the service scope, SLA, contract etc. Changes to the
contract(s) resulting from these meetings will be subject to the Change Management process.
B. Correct. Any changes to the contract shall be subject to the Change Management process.
C. Incorrect. These representatives will be involved via other processes (e.g. Business
Relationship Management process).
D. Incorrect. Supplier Management is responsible for having a process in place for a major review
of the contract. Any changes to the contract shall be subject to the Change Management
process.

19 of 40
Targets for resolution should be based on priority.
When scheduling Incident or Problem resolution, which of the following should not be taken into
account?
A. the available skills

B. the competing requirements for resources
C. the effort/cost to provide the method of resolution
D. the number of previously reported Incidents for the particular Configuration Item (CI)
A. Incorrect. This is a relevant aspect for scheduling Incident or Problem resolution.

B. Incorrect. This is a relevant aspect for scheduling Incident or Problem resolution.
C. Incorrect. This is a relevant aspect for scheduling Incident or Problem resolution.
D. Correct. This is not relevant when scheduling resolution. It is relevant when identifying
Problems.
20 of 40
What is a responsibility of the Service Provider with regard to Supplier Management as defined in
ISO/IEC 20000-1:2005?
A. to ensure that a process exists for the procurement of suppliers

B. to ensure that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with suppliers are aligned with SLAs of the
business
C. to ensure that subcontracted suppliers meet contractual requirements in all circumstances
D. to ensure that supplier processes and procedures are defined where outsourced
A. Incorrect. This is outside the scope of the standard.

B. Correct. A focus on end-to-end Service management is essential plus it is required by the
standard.
C. Incorrect. This is the responsibility of the Lead Suppliers.
D. Incorrect. The Service Provider needs to retain management control, but does not define the
supplier processes.

21 of 40
What details should be recorded as a baseline prior to implementing a plan for service
improvement?
A. backlog of changes for the service

B. number of staff involved
C. service quality and levels
D. time taken to operate the process
A. Incorrect. This may be one of the measures if backlog of changes is to be reduced but there
may be other details too.
B. Incorrect. This may be one of the measures if staff numbers are to be improved but there may
be other details too.
C. Correct. The standard recommends the collection of service quality and levels as a baseline so
that actual improvement can be measured.
D. Incorrect. This may be one of the measures if time taken is to be improved but there may be
other details too.
22 of 40
What is SixSigma®?
A. It is a quality instrument to measure defects in process outputs.

B. It is a six step maturity model to improve the capability of business processes.
C. It is a standard that is recently developed for improvement of IT processes.
D. It is a structured, statistically based approach to process improvement.
A. Incorrect. It is not only a quality instrument, it encompasses an improvement methodology.

B. Incorrect. It is not a maturity model.
C. Incorrect. It is developed in the 80’s for general business processes.
D. Correct.

23 of 40
How should the Deming cycle be used?
A. as a model for continual improvement

B. as a model for customer orientation
C. as a model to be used during the design phase of the service
D. as a model to calculate the costs of service improvement
A. Correct. This is the focus of the cycle.

B. Incorrect. The focus of the cycle is on continual improvement and not specifically customer
orientation.
C. Incorrect. The model can be used during the design phase, but the focus is on continual
improvement during all phases.
D. Incorrect. Cost models as part of budgeting and accounting would do this.
24 of 40
What is the definition of Availability?
A. a record containing details of which Configuration Items (CIs) are affected and how they are
affected by an authorized Change
B. a snapshot of the state of a service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
C. any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes or may
cause an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service
D. the ability of a component or service to perform its required function at a stated instant or over
a stated period of time
A. Incorrect. This is the definition of a Change record.

B. Incorrect. This is the definition of a Baseline.
C. Incorrect. This is the definition of an Incident.
D. Correct. This is the definition of Availability.

25 of 40
New or changed services need to be accepted before being implemented into the live
environment.
What shall be done after a new or changed service has been implemented?
A. A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is held comparing actual outcomes against those planned.
B. An approach needs to be defined for interfacing to projects that are creating or modifying
services.
C. Nothing additional: the new or changed service goes into Business As Usual and will be
managed as a normal service.
D. The manner in which the Change shall be reversed or remedied if unsuccessful needs to be
defined.
A. Correct. This clause is part of the standard.

B. Incorrect. This is part of Plan Service Management (Plan), and not relevant after new or
changed services have been implemented.
C. Incorrect. According to the standard a PIR is a necessity. Doing nothing additional is no option.
D. Incorrect. This clause is part of Change Management. And this should already be in place
or defined before implementing.
26 of 40
What is the recommendation with regard to the implementation of an emergency Change?
A. Only the senior manager should authorize emergency Changes.

B. The Change process should be completely bypassed.
C. There is a separate process for emergency Changes.
D. Where possible the Change process should be followed.
A. Incorrect. The authorization of the emergency Change is part of the process and there is no
recommendation about who does this.
B. Incorrect. It is not recommended to bypass the whole process although some activities may be
bypassed and covered later.
C. Incorrect. There is a requirement for a separate policy for emergency Changes but not a
recommendation for a separate process.
D. Correct. It is recommended that the Change process should be followed where possible
although any activities bypassed should be undertaken as soon as possible.

27 of 40
For which type of organizations is ISO/IEC 20000 appropriate for use?
A. for organizations to confirm that all of the ITIL® guidelines have been implemented
B. for organizations which need to demonstrate alignment to customer requirements
C. for organizations wishing to certify their services
D. for tool vendors to specify the Service Provider's processes
A. Incorrect. ITIL® is much deeper than ISO/IEC 20000 therefore it will not confirm that all of ITIL®
has been implemented.
B. Correct. This is referenced within the scope of the standard.
C. Incorrect. It is the management system that gets certified not the services.
D. Incorrect. Service Providers specify their processes based upon ISO/IEC 20000 and ITIL®.
28 of 40
Any organization may be impacted by legislative or regulatory change in the future.
Where should this be covered?
A. in a Change request
B. in the Business Relationship Management process
C. in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. in the Service Management plan
A. Incorrect. A legislative or regulatory change may result in a Change request once the change
happens, but the Service Management plan is the place to anticipate such triggers.
B. Incorrect. The Business Relationship Management process is likely to gather the information
about such changes but the Service Management plan is the place to anticipate such triggers.
C. Incorrect. The Service Level Agreement may be impacted by such changes once they happen
but the Service Management plan is the place to anticipate such triggers.
D. Correct. The Service Management plan should cover Service Management processes and
service changes triggered by events such as these.

29 of 40
What level of Capacity is targeted by Capacity Management?
A. sufficient Capacity to meet agreed current and future demands

B. sufficient Capacity to meet all current and future demands
C. sufficient Capacity to meet all development and operational requirements
D. sufficient Capacity to meet current demands only
A. Correct. The objective is to ensure the service provider has sufficient Capacity to meet the
current and future agreed demands of the Customer's business needs.
B. Incorrect. There is no objective to meet all demands but to meet agreed demands.
C. Incorrect. There is no specific mention of development and operational requirements.
D. Incorrect. The objective is to provide sufficient Capacity to meet current demands but also
agreed future demands.
30 of 40
What does a quality policy aim to define?
A. the formally expressed quality intentions and direction of an organization

B. the legal obligations that the organization must fulfill
C. the requirements of ISO/IEC 20000
D. the requirements of the customer as stated in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
A. Correct. A statement defined to deliver focus to the organization.

B. Incorrect. The document will record any policy statements pertinent to the obligations but not
the obligations themselves.
C. Incorrect. These detail the needs of the Quality Management System, not of the policy.
D. Incorrect. These would provide input to the definition of the policies but these would not be
the policies themselves.

31 of 40
Which audit is conducted by, or on behalf of, the organization itself for internal purposes and can
form the basis for an organization's self-declaration of conformity?
A. First party audit

B. Second party audit
C. Third party audit
D. Fourth party audit
A. Correct. A first-party audit is conducted for internal purposes.

B. Incorrect. A second party audit will be conducted by Customers of the organization or by other
persons on behalf of the Customers.
C. Incorrect. The third party audit will be conducted by external independent organizations.
D. Incorrect. The fourth party audit is not a known concept.
32 of 40
In planning to implement Service Management, what does the plan need to say regarding tools
according to ISO/IEC 20000-2:2005?
A. The plan defines the tools as appropriate to support the processes.

B. The plan details the effects of new technologies and techniques on capacity.
C. The plan does not state any tools requirements.
D. The plan lists how every individual process is supported by a tool.
A. Correct. If tools are used to support a process, there is a need to define them.
B. Incorrect. This is a requirement of Capacity Management (6.5c) and not of the plan to
implement Service Management.
C. Incorrect. The plan does require that tools are defined if used.
D. Incorrect. There is no requirement that every individual process must be supported by a tool.

33 of 40
Why is a scope statement for ISO/IEC 20000 important?
A. It defines what the management system has been certified against

B. It details all of the companies that have been certified
C. It details all of the services that have been certified
D. It identifies which processes have been excluded from the scope
A. Correct. The scope statement shows what the management system was tested against in order
to award certification.
B. Incorrect. Only one company can be awarded a certificate (single legal entity).
C. Incorrect. It is the management system that is being certified not the services.
D. Incorrect. All processes within the scope of the standard must be audited.
34 of 40
Where would an IT service for the customer normally be defined?
A. in the IT Framework
B. in the Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
C. in the Service Catalog or the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. in the Service Report
A. Incorrect. The IT Framework provides a structure for service management but would not define
the service itself.
B. Incorrect. The OLA would define a support arrangement behind the prime customer service.
C. Correct. The Service Catalog or the SLA would define the service for the customer.
D. Incorrect. The Service Report would provide details of service performance not define the
service.

35 of 40
What is required to be included in Release Management procedures according to ISO/IEC 20000?
A. the authorization and implementation of emergency Changes

B. the investigation and prevention of Security Incidents
C. the recording of all reported Incidents
D. the updating and changing of configuration information and Change records
A. Incorrect. This is part of the Change Management procedures.

B. Incorrect. This is part of the Information Security Management procedures.
C. Incorrect. This is part of the Incident Management procedures.
D. Correct. According to the standard this is a requirement. Release management procedures
shall include the updating and changing of configuration information and Change records.
36 of 40
What should planning for new or changed services include?
A. budgets and staff resources

B. major non-conformities to all Underpinning Contracts (UCs)
C. recent Problems and Known Errors in the desktop environment
D. trends in Capacity growth of the current applications
A. Correct. When planning new or changed services it should be considered how this affects the
budget and workload.
B. Incorrect. Major non-conformities to all Underpinning Contracts are not relevant to planning
for new or changed services.
C. Incorrect. Recent Problems and Known Errors in the desktop environment have normally no
relation to planning for new or changed services.
D. Incorrect. This indicates the Capacity growth for current applications, it does not need to
provide any relevant information for new or changed services.

37 of 40
What is required to be included in proposals for new or changed services according to ISO/IEC
20000?
A. an updated Operational Level Agreement

B. cost, organizational, technical and commercial impact
C. the policies, plans and procedures of each process or set of processes
D. the Service Management plan
A. Incorrect. This is not relevant.

B. Correct. This is part of the standard.
C. Incorrect. Documenting these documents is part of Do, revising is part of Act (in de PDCA-
methodology). This is no part of the proposals for new or changed services.
D. Incorrect. This plan is much broader than only new or changed services.
38 of 40
What purpose can the ISO/IEC 20000 standard serve?
A. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be
assessed.
B. It defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.
C. It helps to decide on the requirements that need to be verified within the scope of a supply
agreement.
D. It provides a yardstick for the design of a Total Quality Management System.
A. Incorrect. The standard requires that service performance is assessed by monitoring and
reporting against service level targets. However, it does not define specific KPIs, as these will
differ depending upon the situation (organization, services, agreed targets etc).
B. Correct. The Specification (Part 1) of the standard defines the requirements to be satisfied in a
certification audit.
C. Incorrect. The requirements need to be driven by the business needs of the customer, not by
the standard. The standard can help to ensure that suppliers are managed towards the
provision of quality services.
D. Incorrect. This is not the purpose of the ISO/IEC 20000 standard. The Specification (Part 1) of
the standard defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.

39 of 40
Why is it important for Service Providers to provide documents and records?
A. It is part of the requirements (evidence) to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant.

B. to be able to uniquely identify and record all Configuration Items (CIs) in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)
C. to ensure effective planning, operation and control of Service Management
D. to ensure employees are aware of the relevance and importance of their work activities
A. Incorrect. Producing documents should never be a goal solely to become ISO/IEC 20000
compliant.
B. Incorrect. This is part of Configuration Management.
C. Correct. To manage Service Management, documents and records are needed. As a result, the
Service Provider has evidence that it is in control. Producing documents should never be a
goal solely to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant.
D. Incorrect. This is part of competence, awareness and training and is not relevant to
documentation.
40 of 40
Who should be recommended to support the Senior Responsible Owner in his/her responsibility
for the delivery of the management system?
A. a decision taking group

B. the Change Advisory Board (CAB)
C. the senior customer representative
D. the service managers
A. Correct. The standard states that the Senior Responsible Owner should be supported by a
decision taking group with sufficient authority to define policy and to enforce decisions.
B. Incorrect. The Change Advisory Board is an important group with a specific function which is
not as wide as the management system.
C. Incorrect. The senior customer representative may provide input to requirements for the
management system but will not be responsible for its delivery.
D. Incorrect. The service managers will implement the management system that is the
responsibility of the Senior Responsible Owner.

Evaluation
The table below shows the correct answers to the questions in this sample examination.
number answer points number answer points

1 A 1 21 C 1
2 C 1 22 D 1
3 B 1 23 A 1
4 D 1 24 D 1
5 A 1 25 A 1
6 C 1 26 D 1
7 A 1 27 B 1
8 A 1 28 D 1
9 C 1 29 A 1
10 C 1 30 A 1
11 D 1 31 A 1
12 A 1 32 A 1
13 C 1 33 A 1
14 D 1 34 C 1
15 B 1 35 D 1
16 D 1 36 A 1
17 B 1 37 B 1
18 B 1 38 B 1
19 D 1 39 C 1
20 B 1 40 A 1

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sample exam

IT Service Management according to ISO/IEC 20000

EXIN International B.V.

The time allowed for this exam is 60 minutes.

No rights may be derived from this information.

Copyright © 2007 EXIN

CMMI ® is a registered trademark of Carnegie Mellon University.

Six Sigma® is a registered trademark and service mark of Motorola, Inc.

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 2/34

What should the Relationship processes ensure?

Why are processes required?

A. to be able to define quality objectives in a structured manner

What does the Act phase of this methodology cover?

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 3/34

An approach to developing and implementing a Quality Management System consists of several

Which of the following is not a necessary step?

What is the primary purpose of analyzing Change records?

A. to be able to open a new Problem record, so proactive identification of Incidents is possible

Personnel should be competent on the basis of appropriate education and experience.

Which of the following is a best practice relating to competence?

A. Appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience need to be maintained.

Which standard describes the fundamental aspects of Quality Management Systems?

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 4/34

A. to ensure agreed effective communication towards Customers

A group of activities within Release Management is roll-out, distribution and installation.

What should be ensured as part of these activities?

A. Changes are scheduled based upon priority and risk.

A. by outsourcing Change Management

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 5/34

Which of the following is used as a set of guidance materials for IT governance?

What is the objective of IT Service Management?

A. to provide critical services to business customers

A. all ISO/IEC 20000 processes

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 6/34

A. to be able to allocate roles and responsibilities

What is the certification audit primarily based on?

A. through the Business Relationship Management process

Targets for resolution should be based on priority.

A. the available skills

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 7/34

A. to ensure that a process exists for the procurement of suppliers

A. backlog of changes for the service

A. It is a quality instrument to measure defects in process outputs.

How should the Deming cycle be used?

A. as a model for continual improvement

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 8/34

What is the definition of Availability?

What is the recommendation with regard to the implementation of an emergency Change?

A. Only the senior manager should authorize emergency Changes.

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 9/34

For which type of organizations is ISO/IEC 20000 appropriate for use?

Any organization may be impacted by legislative or regulatory change in the future.

Where should this be covered?

What level of Capacity is targeted by Capacity Management?

A. sufficient Capacity to meet agreed current and future demands

What does a quality policy aim to define?

A. the formally expressed quality intentions and direction of an organization

© EXIN, IS20F.EN 10/34

A. First party audit

A. The plan defines the tools as appropriate to support the processes.