DATE : 13/09/2020 Test Booklet Code

G1
KANHA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

5. The CODE for this Booklet is G1.

6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.

7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.

11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

1. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is 5. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
hanging from a fixed support. The length of the diameter d and number density n can be
wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended expressed as :
from its free end. The expression for Young’s
1 1
modulus is : (1) (2)
2 nd2 2 n2  d2
Mg(L1  L) MgL
(1) (2) AL 1 1
AL 1 (3) 2 2 2 (4)
2n  d 2 nd
MgL MgL1 Answer (1)
(3) A(L  L) (4)
1 AL 6. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
Answer (3) velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of
2. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure
of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)

Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1) (1) 340 m (2) 320 m

(3) 300 m (4) 360 m
(1) 0.2 kg/m3 (2) 0.1 kg/m3
Answer (3)
(3) 0.02 kg/m3 (4) 0.5 kg/m3
7. The color code of a resistance is given below
Answer (1)
3. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on
a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy
received by the surface during time span of
1 minute is : The values of resistance and tolerance,
(1) 12 × 103 J respectively, are
(2) 24 × 103 J (1) 47 k, 10% (2) 4.7 k, 5%
(3) 48 × 103 J (3) 470 , 5% (4) 470 k, 5%
(4) 10 × 103 J Answer (3)
Answer (2) 8. When a uranium isotope 235
is bombarded
92 U
4. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to
89
the ends of a massless string. The string with a neutron, it generates 36 Kr , three
passes over a pulley which is frictionless neutrons and :
(see figure). The acceleration of the system in
91 101
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is : (1) 40 Zr (2) 36 Kr

103 144
(3) 36 Kr (4) 56 Ba

Answer (4)
9. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a
charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.
4 kg What is the magnitude of electric field at a
point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
6 kg  1 
  9  109 Nm2 C2 
 4  0 
(1) g/2 (1) 1.28 × 105 N/C
(2) g/5 (2) 1.28 × 106 N/C
(3) g/10 (3) 1.28 × 107 N/C
(4) g (4) 1.28 × 104 N/C
Answer (2) Answer (1)
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

10. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on 15. The ratio of contributions made by the electric
one surface of a small angle prism (with angle field and magnetic field components to the
of prism A) and emerges normally from the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is :
opposite surface. If the refractive index of the (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
material of the prism is , then the angle of (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : c
incidence is nearly equal to :
(3) 1 : c2 (4) c : 1
2A Answer (1)
(1)

16. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
(2) A respectively are attached to the two ends of a
rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
A
(3) The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
2
particle is nearly at a distance of :

A (1) 50 cm (2) 67 cm
(4)
2 (3) 80 cm (4) 33 cm

Answer (2) Answer (2)

11. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are 17. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of
connected to each other via a stop cock. A a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in
contains an ideal gas at standard temperature the right gap at a point which divides the
and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 
cock is suddenly opened. The process is : of the resistance wire is :
(1) adiabatic (2) isochoric (1) 1.0 × 10–1 m
(3) isobaric (4) isothermal (2) 1.5 × 10–1 m
Answer (1) (3) 1.5 × 10–2 m
12. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected (4) 1.0 × 10–2 m
to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The
Answer (1)
permeability of the material of the rod is :
18. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
(0 = 4× 10–7 T m A–1)
separation between coherent sources is halved
(1) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1 and the distance of the screen from the
(2) 2.4× 10–5 T m A–1 coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe
width becomes :
(3) 2.4 × 10–7 T m A–1
(1) half
(4) 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1
(2) four times
Answer (4)
(3) one-fourth
13. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance
is : (4) double
(1) 4.5 × 1013 J (2) 1.5 × 1013 J Answer (2)
(3) 0.5 × 1013 J (4) 4.5 × 1016 J 19. A charged particle having drift velocity of
Answer (1) 7.5 × 10 –4 m s –1 in an electric field of
3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of :
14. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V,
50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current (1) 2.5 × 106
in the circuit is, nearly : (2) 2.5 × 10–6
(1) 2.05 A (2) 2.5 A (3) 2.25 × 10–15
(3) 25.1 A (4) 1.7 A (4) 2.25 × 1015
Answer (2) Answer (1)
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

20. Dimensions of stress are : 25. The solids which have the negative
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [ML0T–2] temperature coefficient of resistance are:

(3) [ML–1 T–2] (4) [MLT–2] (1) insulators only

Answer (3) (2) semiconductors only

21. For which one of the following, Bohr model is (3) insulators and semiconductors
not valid ? (4) metals
(1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) Answer (3)
(2) Deuteron atom 26. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
(3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+) with air as medium is 6 F. With the
introduction of a dielectric medium, the
(4) Hydrogen atom
capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity of
Answer (3) the medium is :
22. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac (0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2)
voltage source. When L is removed from the
(1) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2
circuit, the phase difference between current
 (2) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
and voltage is . If instead C is removed from
3 (3) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
 (4) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2
the circuit, the phase difference is again
3
between current and voltage. The power factor Answer (2)
of the circuit is : 27. The energy required to break one bond in DNA
(1) 0.5 is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly:

(2) 1.0 (1) 0.6 (2) 0.06

(3) –1.0 (3) 0.006 (4) 6
(4) zero Answer (2)
Answer (2) 28. The increase in the width of the depletion
region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
23. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in
water and water rises in it to a height h. The (1) reverse bias only
mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. (2) both forward bias and reverse bias
Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed
(3) increase in forward current
in water. The mass of water that will rise in this
tube is : (4) forward bias only
(1) 5.0 g Answer (1)
(2) 10.0 g 29. The quantities of heat required to raise the
temperature of two solid copper spheres of
(3) 20.0 g
radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in
(4) 2.5 g the ratio :
Answer (2)
9
24. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is (1)
4
coming from a star. The limit of resolution of
telescope whose objective has a diameter of 3
(2)
2 m is : 2
(1) 1.83 × 10–7 rad 5
(3)
(2) 7.32 × 10–7 rad 3
(3) 6.00 × 10–7 rad 27
(4)
(4) 3.66 × 10–7 rad 8
Answer (4) Answer (4)

4
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

30. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: 32. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
material are slightly out of tune and produce
beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
A
slightly decreased, the beat frequency
Y increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is
B 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:
(1) 524 Hz
(1) A B Y
(2) 536 Hz
0 0 0 (3) 537 Hz
0 1 1 (4) 523 Hz
1 0 1 Answer (1)

1 1 1 33. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of

16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the
(2) A B Y dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from
0 0 1 the centre of the dipole, situated on a line
making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is :
0 1 1
 1 
1 0 1   9  109 N m2 /C2 
 4  0 
1 1 0 (1) 200 V
(3) A B Y (2) 400 V
0 0 1 (3) zero

0 1 0 (4) 50 V

1 0 0 Answer (1)
34. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the
1 1 0
earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a
(4) A B Y height equal to half the radius of the earth?

0 0 0 (1) 32 N (2) 30 N

0 1 0 (3) 24 N (4) 48 N
Answer (1)
1 0 0
35. Which of the following graph represents the
1 1 1 variation of resistivity () with temperature (T)
Answer (4) for copper?

31. For transistor action, which of the following (1)

statements is correct?

(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should

have same size.

(2) Both emitter junction as well as the

T
collector junction are forward biased.
(2)
(3) The base region must be very thin and
lightly doped.

(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should

have same doping concentrations.

Answer (3) T

5
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

(3) 40. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100

turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic
field at the centre of the solenoid is :
(0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1)
(1) 3.14 × 10–4 T (2) 6.28 × 10–5 T
T (3) 3.14 × 10–5 T (4) 6.28 × 10–4 T
(4) Answer (4)
41. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be
(1) 30° < ib < 45°
(2) 45° < ib < 90°
T (3) ib = 90°
Answer (2) (4) 0° < ib < 30°
36. In a certain region of space with volume Answer (2)
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V
42. An electron is accelerated from rest through
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in
a potential difference of V volt. If the
this region is :
de Broglie wavelength of the electron is
(1) 0.5 N/C (2) 1 N/C 1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
(3) 5 N/C (4) zero (1) 102 V (2) 103 V
Answer (4) (3) 104 V (4) 10 V
37. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic Answer (3)
gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T,
43. Taking into account of the significant figures,
absolute temperature)
what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
3 5 (1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m
(1) kB T (2) kB T
2 2
(3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801 m
7 1
(3) kB T (4) kB T Answer (1)
2 2
44. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
Answer (1)
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
38. Find the torque about the origin when a force
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
of 3j N acts on a particle whose position
(1) 0.25 mm
vector is 2k m .
(2) 0.5 mm
(1) 6j Nm (2) 6 i Nm (3) 1.0 mm

(3) 6k Nm (4) 6i Nm

(4) 0.01 mm
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
45. The phase difference between displacement
39. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
and acceleration of a particle in a simple
frequency is incident on a photosensitive
harmonic motion is :
material. What will be the photoelectric
current if the frequency is halved and intensity 3
(1) rad
is doubled? 2
(1) four times 
(2) rad
(2) one-fourth 2
(3) zero (3) zero
(4) doubled (4)  rad
Answer (3) Answer (4)
6
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

46. Match the organism with its use in 49. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme
biotechnology. in photorespiration leads to the formation of
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
thuringiensis
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of (2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
aquaticus first rDNA (3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and
molecule 1 molecule of 2-C compound
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase (4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
tumefaciens
Answer (1)
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
typhimurium 50. In relation to Gross primary productivity and
Select the correct option from the following: Net primary productivity of an ecosystem,
which one of the following statements is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
correct?
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Gross primary productivity is always more
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
than net primary productivity
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
primary productivity are one and same
Answer (1)
(3) There is no relationship between Gross
47. Match the following
primary productivity and Net primary
(a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin
productivity
catalytic activity
(4) Gross primary productivity is always less
(b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate
than net primary productivity
bonds
(c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin Answer (1)
in fungi
51. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by
(d) Secondary (iv) Collagen nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous
metabolite plants is/are
Choose the correct option from the following
(1) Nitrate alone
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) Ammonia and oxygen
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Ammonia and hydrogen
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) Ammonia alone
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
52. Identify the incorrect statement.
48. The plant parts which consist of two
generations - one within the other (1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther water and minerals from root to leaf

(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male (2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary
gametes xylem and is lighter in colour
(c) Seed inside the fruit (3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule etc., heart wood is dark in colour

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d) (4) Heart wood does not conduct water but
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a) only gives mechanical support

Answer (3) Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

53. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the 59. Which of the following statements about
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus inclusion bodies is incorrect?
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to (1) These are involved in ingestion of food
particles
(1) Fungal diseases (2) Plant nematodes
(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(3) Insect predators (4) Insect pests
(3) These represent reserve material in
Answer (4) cytoplasm
54. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular (4) They are not bound by any membrane
algae?
Answer (1)
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria 60. Match the following diseases with the
(2) Anabaena and Volvox causative organism and select the correct
option.
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina
Column-I Column-II
(4) Laminaria and Sargassum
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
Answer (3)
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
55. Strobili or cones are found in
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(1) Pteris (2) Marchantia (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(3) Equisetum (4) Salvinia (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (3) (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
56. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
DNA helix during transcription. (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase Answer (1)
Answer (3) 61. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
completed
57. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to transport of oxygen (1) At the time of copulation
(2) After zygote formation
(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
O2 binding with haemoglobin (3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
ovum
(2) Higher H + conc. in alveoli favours the
(4) Prior to ovulation
formation of oxyhaemoglobin
Answer (3)
(3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin 62. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’
of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and
(4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is Marino rams?
mainly related to partial pressure of O2
(1) Mutational breeding
Answer (2) (2) Cross breeding
58. Identify the correct statement with regard to (3) Inbreeding
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(4) Out crossing
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components Answer (2)
takes place.
63. The number of substrate level
(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid
does not replicate its DNA. cycle is
(3) Nuclear Division takes place. (1) One (2) Two
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place. (3) Three (4) Zero

Answer (2) Answer (1)

8
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

64. Choose the correct pair from the following 69. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
(1) Polymerases - Break the DNA into represents
fragments (1) Depolarisation of auricles
(2) Nucleases - Separate the two strands (2) Depolarisation of ventricles
of DNA
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(3) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
positions within DNA (4) Repolarisation of auricles
(4) Ligases - Join the two DNA Answer (2)
molecules
70. Which of the following statements is
Answer (4) not correct?
65. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that (1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
enters the human body is
C-peptide.
(1) Sporozoites
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(2) Female gametocytes linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(3) Male gametocytes
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
(4) Trophozoites in E.Coli.
Answer (1) (4) In man insulin is synthesised as a
66. Which of the following is not an attribute of a proinsulin
population?
Answer (2)
(1) Natality
71. The transverse section of a plant shows
(2) Mortality following anatomical features :
(3) Species interaction
(a) Large number of scattered vascular
(4) Sex ratio bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
Answer (3) (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
67. Select the correct events that occur during ground tissue
inspiration.
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal
muscles Identify the category of plant and its part :

(c) Pulmonary volume decreases (1) Monocotyledonous root

(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases (2) Dicotyledonous stem
(1) (c) and (d) (3) Dicotyledonous root
(2) (a), (b) and (d) (4) Monocotyledonous stem
(3) only (d) Answer (4)
(4) (a) and (b)
72. Select the correct statement.
Answer (4)
(1) Glucagon is associated with
68. According to Robert May, the global species hypoglycemia.
diversity is about
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
(1) 20 million
adipocytes.
(2) 50 million
(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(3) 7 million
(4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(4) 1.5 million
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
9
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

73. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for 77. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
control of microvilli is found in
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances (1) Ducts of salivary gland
(2) Release of Green House gases (2) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(3) Disposal of e-wastes (3) Eustachian tube
(4) Transport of Genetically modified
(4) Lining of intestine
organisms from one country to another
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
74. Match the following columns and select the 78. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
correct option. spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the
length of stem, thus increasing the yield of
Column-I Column-II
sugarcane crop.
(a) 6-15 pairs of (i) Trygon
(1) Gibberellin
gill slits
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes (2) Ethylene
caudal fin (3) Abscisic acid
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes (4) Cytokinin
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes Answer (1)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 79. Match the following columns and select the
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) correct option.
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Column-I Column-II
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
Answer (4) deaminase
75. Identify the wrong statement with regard to deficiency
Restriction Enzymes. (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
(1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic infection
sites. (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering. thuringiensis
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA (a) (b) (c) (d)
ligases.
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer (3) (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

76. Match the following with respect to meiosis (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization Answer (4)
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata 80. The ovary is half inferior in :
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(1) Mustard (2) Sunflower
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
(3) Plum (4) Brinjal
Select the correct option from the following
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer (3)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 81. Which one of the following is the most
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) abundant protein in the animals?
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (1) Collagen (2) Lectin
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Insulin (4) Haemoglobin
Answer (1) Answer (1)
10
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

82. If the distance between two consecutive base 88. Match the following columns and select the
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base correct option.
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the Column - I Column - II
length of the DNA is approximately (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(1) 2.5 meters (2) 2.2 meters
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(3) 2.7 meters (4) 2.0 meters
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
Answer (2)
histaminase,
83. The first phase of translation is
(1) Recognition of DNA molecule destructive

(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA enzymes

(3) Recognition of an anti-codon (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome containing
Answer (2)
histamine
84. Which of the following hormone levels will
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the (a) (b) (c) (d)
graffian follicle? (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) High concentration of Progesterone (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Low concentration of LH
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Low concentration of FSH
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) High concentration of Estrogen
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
85. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are 89. Match the trophic levels with their correct
examples of species examples in grassland ecosystem.
(1) Convergent evolution (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
(2) Industrial melanism (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
(3) Natural selection (c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(4) Adaptive radiation
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
Answer (1)
Select the correct option
86. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) A person will have only two of the three (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
alleles.
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) When IA and IB are present together, they
express same type of sugar. (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles. Answer (4)
Answer (2) 90. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
87. Select the option including all sexually transfer of electrons from
transmitted diseases.
(1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2) PS-I to NADP+
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (3) PS-I to ATP synthase
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
Answer (4) Answer (4)

11
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

91. Embryological support for evolution was 95. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
disapproved by enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
(1) Alfred Wallace
the end of
(2) Charles Darwin (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(3) Oparin (3) G2 phase (4) M phase
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer Answer (1)
Answer (4) 96. In which of the following techniques, the
embryos are transferred to assist those
92. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
females who cannot conceive?
animals are exemplified by
(1) GIFT and ZIFT
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(2) ICSI and ZIFT
(3) Annelida (4) Ctenophora
(3) GIFT and ICSI
Answer (1)
(4) ZIFT and IUT
93. Which of the following would help in
Answer (4)
prevention of diuresis?
97. Which of the following statements are true for
(1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal the phylum-Chordata?
tubules due to aldosterone (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes head to tail and it is present throughout
their life.
vasoconstriction
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells the embryonic period only.
(4) More water reabsorption due to (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
undersecretion of ADH hollow.
Answer (1) (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and
94. Match the following columns and select the Cephalochordata.
correct option.
(1) (c) and (a) (2) (a) and (b)
Column-I Column-II (3) (b) and (c) (4) (d) and (c)
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A Answer (3)
butylicum 98. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to

(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid (1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose
of UV-B radiation
polysporum
(2) High reflection of light from snow
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid (3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red
purpureus rays
(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
temperature
lowering agent Answer (1)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 99. Match the following columns and select the
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
Answer (1) (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Answer (4)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 104. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) theory of inheritance was done by

Answer (2) (1) Sutton (2) Boveri

100. Which of the following statements is (3) Morgan (4) Mendel

correct? Answer (3)
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H- 105. The body of the ovule is fused within the
bond funicle at
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three (1) Micropyle (2) Nucellus
H-bonds (3) Chalaza (4) Hilum
(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine Answer (4)
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H- 106. Identify the correct statement with reference
bonds to human digestive system.
Answer (4) (1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
alimentary canal
101. Match the following concerning essential
elements and their functions in plants (2) IIeum is a highly coiled part

(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (3) Vermiform appendix arises from
duodenum
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(4) IIeum opens into small intestine
(c) Boron (iii) Required for
Answer (2)
chlorophyll
biosynthesis 107. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
occurs during
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene
Select the correct option
(3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (2)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
108. Floridean starch has structure similar to
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Mannitol and algin
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Laminarin and cellulose
Answer (2)
(4) Starch and cellulose
102. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
Answer (1)
substance governing seed dormancy?
109. The specific palindromic sequence which is
(1) Abscisic acid recognized by EcoRI is
(2) Phenolic acid (1) 5 - GGAACC - 3
(3) Para-ascorbic acid 3 - CCTTGG - 5
(4) Gibberellic acid (2) 5 - CTTAAG - 3
Answer (4) 3 - GAATTC - 5
103. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced (3) 5 - GGATCC - 3
amino acids by mixing the following in a 3 - CCTAGG - 5
closed flask
(4) 5 - GAATTC - 3
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
3 - CTTAAG - 5
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
Answer (4)

13
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

110. Select the correct match 114. The process responsible for facilitating loss
(1) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal of water in liquid form from the tip of grass
blades at night and in early morning is
dominant trait
(1) Root pressure (2) Imbibition
(2) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal
recessive trait, (3) Plasmolysis (4) Transpiration
chromosome-11 Answer (1)
(3) Thalassemia – X linked 115. Identify the wrong statement with reference
(4) Haemophilia – Y linked to immunity.

Answer (2) (1) When ready-made antibodies are directly

given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
111. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond
and peptide bond, respectively in their (2) Active immunity is quick and gives full
structure response.

(1) Glycerol, trypsin (3) Foetus receives some antibodies from

mother, it is an example for passive
(2) Cellulose, lecithin
immunity.
(3) Inulin, insulin
(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
(4) Chitin, cholesterol antibodies are produced in the host’s
Answer (3) body. It is called “Active immunity”.

112. The process of growth is maximum during Answer (2)

(1) Lag phase 116. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination
takes place by :
(2) Senescence
(1) Water currents only
(3) Dormancy
(2) Wind and water
(4) Log phase
(3) Insects and water
Answer (4)
(4) Insects or wind
113. Match the following columns and select the
Answer (4)
correct option.
117. Which is the important site of formation of
Column-I Column-II
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle cells?
ear and pharynx
(1) Peroxisomes
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(2) Golgi bodies
labyrinth
(3) Polysomes
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval
window (4) Endoplasmic reticulum

(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the Answer (2)

basilar membrane 118. Which of the following regions of the globe
exhibits highest species diversity?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Madagascar
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) Himalayas
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) Amazon forests
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Western Ghats of India
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer (3)
Answer (2)

14
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

119. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified 124. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic
from sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(1) Columnar epithelial cells
(1) Floating debris
(2) Chondrocytes
(2) Effluents of primary treatment
(3) Compound epithelial cells
(3) Activated sludge
(4) Squamous epithelial cells
Answer (1) (4) Primary sludge

120. Which of the following is correct about Answer (3)

viroids? 125. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat of
(2) They have DNA with protein coat (1) trypsinogen into trypsin
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat
(2) caseinogen into casein
(4) They have RNA with protein coat
(3) pepsinogen into pepsin
Answer (1)
(4) protein into polypeptides
121. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine,
strychnine and caffeine are produced by Answer (1)
plants for their
126. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Growth response
correct option.
(2) Defence action
Column-I Column-II
(3) Effect on reproduction
(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias
(4) Nutritive value
Answer (2) polyphagous pest

122. Match the following columns and select the (b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
correct option. symmetry and larva
Column-I Column-II
with bilateral
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens
symmetry
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
Gonadotropin (hCG) (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum (d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
glands (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Penis
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Answer (1)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 127. Presence of which of the following conditions
Answer (3) in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
123. Ray florets have (1) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(1) Superior ovary
(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(3) Half inferior ovary
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria
(4) Inferior ovary
Answer (4) Answer (2)

15
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

128. Match the following columns and select the 131. Which of the following refer to correct
correct option. example(s) of organisms which have evolved
due to changes in environment brought about
Column-I Column-II by anthropogenic action?
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
second and (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
seventh ribs
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated
Humerus animals like dogs.
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (1) (a) and (c)
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect (2) (b), (c) and (d)
with the sternum (3) Only (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Only (a)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) Answer (2)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 132. Identify the basic amino acid from the
following.
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Glutamic Acid
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) Lysine
Answer (3)
(3) Valine
129. How many true breeding pea plant varieties (4) Tyrosine
did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar
Answer (2)
except in one character with contrasting
133. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA
traits?
fragments can be visualized with the help of
(1) 2 (1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) 14 (2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) 8 (3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) 4 (4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light

Answer (2) Answer (1)

130. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may 134. The sequence that controls the copy number
of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
live for few days because
(1) Ori site
(1) the cockroach does not have nervous
(2) Palindromic sequence
system.
(3) Recognition site
(2) the head holds a small proportion of a
nervous system while the rest is situated (4) Selectable marker
along the ventral part of its body. Answer (1)

(3) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous 135. The roots that originate from the base of the
stem are
system while the rest is situated along the
dorsal part of its body. (1) Primary roots
(2) Prop roots
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of (3) Lateral roots
abdomen. (4) Fibrous roots
Answer (2) Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

136. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of 140. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
Cr2+ ion is decompose to form B. B when passed through
Cu 2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is
(1) 4.90 BM (2) 5.92 BM
formed. What is the formula of C from the
(3) 2.84 BM (4) 3.87 BM following ?

Answer ( 1 ) (1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) Cu(OH)2

(3) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 (4) CuSO4
137. Match the following and identify the correct
option. Answer ( 1 )

(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + 141. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
Ca(HCO3)2 reaction.

(b) Temporary (ii) An electron  Glucose  Fructose

Sucrose  H2 O 
hardness of deficient hydride
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at
water
300 K, the value of r G○ at the same
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas temperature will be :
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar (1) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
structure (2) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) Answer ( 4 )

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 142. Identify the incorrect match.
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) Name IUPAC Official Name
Answer (4) (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

138. The mixture which shows positive deviation (b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
from Raoult’s law is (c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(1) Benzene + Toluene (d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(2) Acetone + Chloroform (1) (b), (ii) (2) (c), (iii)
(3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane (3) (d), (iv) (4) (a), (i)
(4) Ethanol + Acetone Answer ( 3 )
Answer (4) 143. Which of the following is a basic amino
acid ?
139. Identify the correct statement from the
following : (1) Alanine (2) Tyrosine

(1) Blister copper has blistered appearance (3) Lysine (4) Serine
due to evolution of CO2. Answer ( 3 )
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
144. What is the change in oxidation number of
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
carbon in the following reaction?
(3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
shapes.
(4) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% (1) 0 to + 4 (2) – 4 to + 4
carbon. (3) 0 to – 4 (4) + 4 to + 4
Answer ( 3 ) Answer (2)
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

145. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives 150. An increase in the concentration of the

(1) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose reactants of a reaction leads to change in

(2) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose (1) heat of reaction

(3) -D-Fructose +-D-Fructose (2) threshold energy
(4) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose (3) collision frequency
Answer ( 2 ) (4) activation energy
146. The number of Faradays(F) required to Answer ( 3 )
produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2
(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is 151. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
(1) 2 (2) 3
known as
(3) 4 (4) 1
(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
147. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl 2 (g), the (3) Cross Aldol condensation
correct option is :
(4) Aldol condensation
(1) rH > 0 and rS < 0
Answer (3)
(2) rH < 0 and rS > 0
(3) rH < 0 and rS < 0 152. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable
than a secondary butyl carbocation because
(4) rH > 0 and rS > 0
of which of the following ?
Answer ( 3 )
(1) + R effect of – CH3 groups
148. The following metal ion activates many
(2) – R effect of – CH3 groups
enzymes, participates in the oxidation of
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is (3) Hyperconjugation
responsible for the transmission of nerve
signals. (4) – I effect of – CH3 groups

(1) Copper (2) Calcium Answer ( 3 )

(3) Potassium (4) Iron 153. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in 0.1 M
Answer ( 3 ) NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2
is 2 × 10–15
149. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) 2 × 10–8 M
(1) The transition metals and their
compounds are known for their catalytic (2) 1 × 10–13 M
activity due to their ability to adopt
(3) 1 × 108 M
multiple oxidation states and to form
complexes. (4) 2 × 10–13 M
(2) Interstitial compounds are those that are Answer ( 4 )
formed when small atoms like H, C or N
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of 154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
metals.
(1) Li2
(3) The oxidation states of chromium in
(2) C2
CrO24 and Cr2O72 are not the same.
(3) O2
(4) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+ (d6) in water. (4) He2

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 4 )
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

155. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to 159. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
form pent-2-ene is structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The
atomic radius is
(a) -Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule 2
(1)  288 pm
4
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
4
(d) Dehydration reaction (2)  288 pm
3
(1) (a), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d)
4
(3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (3)  288 pm
2
Answer ( 4 )
3
(4)  288 pm
156. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in 4
determining which property of colloidal Answer ( 4 )
solution?
160. Paper chromatography is an example of
(1) Solubility
(1) Partition chromatography
(2) Stability of the colloidal particles
(2) Thin layer chromatography
(3) Size of the colloidal particles
(3) Column chromatography
(4) Viscosity
(4) Adsorption chromatography
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
157. The number of protons, neutrons and
175 161. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
electrons in 71 Lu, respectively, are
– O – O – linkage?
(1) 104, 71 and 71 (1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(2) 71, 71 and 104 (2) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(3) 175, 104 and 71 (3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(4) 71, 104 and 71 (4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )
158. Identify the correct statements from the
162. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
following :
4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
and frozen food.
(1) 200 s (2) 500 s
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
(3) 1000 s (4) 100 s
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
Answer ( 2 )
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline. 163. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas. in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

(1) (a) and (c) only (1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane

(2) (b) and (c) only (2) n-Heptane

(3) (c) and (d) only (3) n-Butane

(4) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) n-Hexane

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G1)

164. Match the following : 168. The correct option for free expansion of an
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is
Oxide Nature
(1) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0
(a) CO (i) Basic
(2) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(3) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(4) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Answer ( 4 )
Which of the following is correct option?
(a) (b) (c) (d) 169. Which one of the followings has maximum
number of atoms ?
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer (1) (4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
Answer (3)
165. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total
170. Identify compound X in the following sequence
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the
of reactions
cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2
is : CH3 CHO
[Use atomic masses (in g mol –1) : N = 14,
Ar = 40] Cl2/h H2 O
X 373 K
(1) 12 bar (2) 15 bar
(3) 18 bar (4) 9 bar CH2Cl CHCl2
Answer ( 2 )
166. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as (1) (2)
one of the product. Its structure is
CH2 – CH2 – CH3 CH2 – CH = CH2 CCl3 Cl

(1) (2)
(3) (4)

CH2CH2CH3 CH = CH – CH3
Answer ( 2 )

(3) (4) 171. Which of the following is the correct order of

increasing field strength of ligands to form
Answer ( 2 ) coordination compounds?
167. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point (1) SCN– < F – < CN– < C2 O2–
4
depression for the solution of molality
0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in (2) F – < SCN– < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–

benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal

places) : (3) CN– < C2 O24 – < SCN– < F –
(1) 0.80 K (2) 0.40 K
(4) SCN– < F – < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–
(3) 0.60 K (4) 0.20 K
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 4 )
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172. Which of the following is a natural polymer? 176. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives

(1) poly (Butadiene-styrene) I

(2) polybutadiene
(1) + CH3OH
(3) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(4) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene OH

Answer ( 4 )
(2) + C2H5I
173. Which of the following set of molecules will
have zero dipole moment?
I
(1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (3) + C2H5OH
(2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene OH

(3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,

carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene (4) + CH3I

(4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,

1,4-dichlorobenzene Answer (4)

Answer ( 3 ) 177. Which of the following amine will give the

carbylamine test?
174. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
NHCH3
MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following
compound(s) crystallise(s)?
(1)
(1) Only NaCl
N(CH3)2
(2) Only MgCl2

(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 (2)

(4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2 NHC2H5

Answer ( 1 )
(3)
175. Which of the following is not correct about
carbon monoxide ? NH2

(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.

(4)
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than Answer ( 4 )
oxyhaemoglobin.
178. Reaction between acetone and
methylmagnesium chloride followed by
(3) It is produced due to incomplete
hydrolysis will give :
combustion.
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol (2) Tert. butyl alcohol
(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin (3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )

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179. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using 180. Which of the following is a cationic
detergent?
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained
at anode will be (1) Sodium stearate
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(1) Oxygen gas (2) H2S gas
(3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(3) SO2 gas (4) Hydrogen gas
(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )

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