R15 Firm and Market Structures - Q Bank
R15 Firm and Market Structures - Q Bank
R15 Firm and Market Structures - Q Bank
world
2. A market structure characterized by a single seller who has significant pricing power is best
described as:
A. monopoly.
B. monopolistic completion.
C. oligopoly.
3. A market structure characterized by few sellers and high barriers to entry into or exit from
the industry is best described as:
A. monopolistic competition.
B. oligopoly.
C. monopoly.
4. A market structure characterized by many sellers and high advertising and marketing
expenditure is best described as:
A. monopolistic competition.
B. monopoly.
C. oligopoly.
7. An industry comprises of four firms that produce an easily replicable product. The barriers to
entry are low. This industry is best characterized as:
A. an oligopoly.
B. monopolistic competition.
C. perfect competition.
8. Indus Manufacturing is one of many companies in an industry. Indus produces widgets which
are similar to those produced by its competitors up to the point they are labeled. The labeled
brand sells for £3.50 per unit. Other firms in the industry sell their products for £2.50 per
unit. This industry is best characterized as:
A. monopoly.
B. monopolistic competition.
C. perfect competition.
9. Acme Enterprises operates in an industry with many sellers who differentiate their products.
This industry is best characterized as:
A. oligopoly.
B. monopolistic competition.
C. perfect competition.
LO.b: Explain relationships between price, marginal revenue, marginal cost, economic
profit, and the elasticity of demand under each market structure.
11. Which of the following statements about the demand schedules in perfect competition is most
accurate?
A. The demand schedule faced by a firm is downward sloping, while the demand schedule
faced by the market is horizontal.
B. The demand schedule faced by a firm is horizontal, while the demand schedule faced by
the market is downward sloping.
C. The demand schedules faced by both the firm and the market are horizontal.
12. In a monopoly, a firm is operating at an average total cost of $15. The marginal cost is $10
which is equal to the marginal revenue. The firm produces 1000 units, charging a price of
$25 per unit. The total profit of this firm is closest to:
A. $10,000.
B. $15,000.
C. $25,000.
13. Which of the following statements about monopolistic competition is least accurate?
A. The demand curve for a firm is downward sloping.
B. In equilibrium, price = marginal revenue = marginal cost.
C. In long-run equilibrium, economic profits are zero.
14. The following equations show the demand and cost curves for a company:
Demand curve: P = 135-5 * Q
15. The demand schedule in a perfectly competitive market is given by P = 65 – 2.2Q (for Q ≤
55). The long-run cost structure of each company is:
Total cost: 243 + 3Q + 6Q2
Average cost: 243/Q + 3 + 6Q
Marginal cost: 3 + 9Q
New companies will enter the market at any price greater than:
A. 55.
B. 74.
C. 84.
17. Analyst 1: For firms operating under monopolistic competition, the supply curve is equal to
the average cost curve.
Analyst 2: For firms operating under monopolistic competition, the supply curve is equal to
the marginal cost curve.
Which analyst is most likely correct?
A. Analyst 1.
B. Analyst 2.
C. Neither.
LO.d: Describe and determine the optimal price and output for firms under each market
structure.
18. A firm in a perfectly competitive market is operating at a price which is less than the average
total cost, but it is more than the average variable cost. What is the most appropriate decision
with respect to operating this firm?
A. The firm should be shut down as it is not able to recover average total cost.
B. The firm should continue its operations in the short run. This will minimize the losses.
C. The available details are insufficient to reach a decision.
20. A firm in an industry characterized by monopolistic competition will most likely maximize
profits when its output quantity is set such that the:
A. average cost is minimized.
B. marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
C. total cost is minimized.
LO.e: Explain factors affecting long-run equilibrium under each market structure.
21. Two dominant companies operating in the smart phone manufacturing industry agree not to
reduce price below a certain limit. Based on whether or not each company honors the
agreement, the possibilities are:
Possibilities Company A honors Company A breaches
Company B honors Company A earns $1 million Company A earns $1.5 million
Company B earns $1 million Company B earns $0.5 million
Company B breaches Company A earns $0.5 million Company A earns $0.7 million
Company B earns $1.5 million Company B earns $0.7 million
Considering game theory and Nash equilibrium, what will be the most likely outcome?
A. Company A will agree and B will breach the agreement.
B. Both companies will breach the agreement.
C. Both companies will honor the agreement.
23. In a perfect competition, if companies are earning economic profit then over the long run the
supply curve will most likely:
A. remain unchanged.
B. shift to the left.
24. Analyst 1: Over time, the market share of the dominant company in an oligopolistic market
will most likely increase.
Analyst 2: Over time, the market share of the dominant company in an oligopolistic market
will most likely decrease.
Which analyst is correct?
A. Analyst 1.
B. Analyst 2.
C. Neither.
25. In a monopolistic market, consumer surplus decreases in the long run. This is most likely
because of:
A. a reduction in quantity produced.
B. an increase in prices.
C. both a reduction in quantity produced and increase in prices.
27. If a monopoly is regulated by the government, it will least likely base its prices on:
A. marginal cost.
B. long run average cost.
C. first degree price discrimination.
29. Which of the following statements about perfect competition is most accurate?
A. In equilibrium, price < marginal revenue = marginal cost.
B. In equilibrium, price = marginal revenue = marginal cost.
C. In equilibrium, price > marginal revenue = marginal cost.
31. If a government regulates a monopoly through marginal cost pricing, it will most likely
provide a subsidy to the monopoly when:
A. marginal cost is below the average total cost.
B. marginal cost is equal to the average total cost.
C. marginal cost is above the average total cost.
32. Which of the following models most likely describes a situation in which no firm can
increase profits by changing its price/output choice?
A. Kinked demand curve model.
B. Cournot model.
C. Dominant firm model.
33. Engro is the price leader in its market. One of its competitors tries to gain market share by
selling at a lower price set by Engro. The market share of Engro will most likely:
A. decrease.
B. increase.
C. stay the same.
34. The market price of a dominant firm in an oligopolistic market is most likely based on the:
A. market demand curve.
B. demand curve faced by the dominant firm (price leader).
C. demand curve faced by the other firms.
35. An airline segments customers into business travelers and leisure travelers. It then charges a
higher price for the business segment. This is most likely an example of:
A. first-degree price discrimination.
B. second-degree price discrimination.
C. third-degree price discrimination.
36. National Refinery of Pakistan is a monopoly enjoying very high barriers to entry. Its
marginal cost is PKR 5,000 and its average cost is PKR 8,000. A recent market study has
determined the price elasticity of demand to be 1.25. The company will most likely set its
price at:
A. 5,000.
B. 8,000.
C. 25,000.
LO.g: Describe the use and limitations of concentration measures in identifying market
structure.
37. A market has 5 suppliers, each of them with 20 percent of the market. What are the
concentration ratio and the HHI of the top three firms?
A. Concentration ratio 6 percent and HHI 12.
B. Concentration ratio 60 percent and HHI 1.2.
C. Concentration ratio 60 percent and HHI 0.12.
39. What is the 4-firm concentration ratio before and after merger?
A. Before merger – 75%, after merger – 90%.
B. Before merger – 80%, after merger – 90%.
C. Before merger – 85%, after merger – 95%.
41. One of the disadvantages of the Herfindahl-Hirschmann index is that the index:
A. is difficult to compute.
B. fails to reflect the effect of mergers.
C. fails to reflect low barriers to entry.
43. An analyst has gathered the following data for an industry comprising of five firms:
LO.h: Identify the type of market structure within which a firm operates.
44. A firm operates in an industry with very low barriers to entry. The number of players in the
market is high and they are competing with each other to provide goods at the lowest prices.
None of the players have any pricing power. The best characterization of this firm’s market
is:
A. monopolistic competition.
B. perfect competition.
C. oligopoly.
45. A firm operates in an industry where the barriers to entry are comparatively low. Its
competitors offer substitute products, but with differentiated features, quality and pricing.
The firm has some pricing power, but it is low due to high number of substitutes and high
number of competitors. The best characterization of this firm’s market is:
A. oligopoly.
B. monopolistic competition.
C. perfect competition.
46. A firm operates in an industry with very few players. The barriers to entry are high and the
firm has significant pricing power. The best characterization of this firm’s market is:
A. monopoly.
B. monopolistic competition.
C. oligopoly.
47. A firm operates in an industry where the average cost of production is falling over the
relevant range of consumer demand. The barriers to entry are very high and the firm has
significant pricing power. The best characterization of this firm’s market is:
A. monopoly.
B. oligopoly.
C. monopolistic competition.
Solutions
1. C is correct. Characteristics of perfect competition include many sellers, homogeneous
products and firms have no pricing power.
2. A is correct. In a monopoly, we have a single seller who has significant pricing power.
3. B is correct. In an oligopoly, we have relatively few sellers and the barriers to entry into or
exit from the industry are high.
7. C is correct. Even though there are only four firms in the industry, the barriers to entry are
low. This implies that other firms are voluntarily not entering the industry, making this most
likely a perfectly competitive environment.
8. B is correct. There are many competitors in the market, but there is evidence of branding and
product differentiation. These are characteristics of monopolistic competition.
10. B is correct. Oligopoly markets are characterized by a small number of firms that dominate
the market. There are so few firms in the relevant market that their pricing decisions are
interdependent.
11. B is correct. The demand schedule faced by a firm is horizontal, while the demand schedule
faced by the market as a whole is downward sloping.
12. A is correct. The firm is selling at $25 and the average total cost is $15. The firm is making a
profit of $10 per unit. This will result in a total profit of $10,000.
13. B is correct. For monopolistic completion, price > marginal revenue = marginal cost (in
equilibrium).
15. C is correct. The long-run competitive equilibrium occurs where MC = AC = P for each
company.
By equating MC and AC,
3 + 9Q = 243/Q + 3 + 6Q
3Q + 9Q2 = 243 + 3Q + 6Q2
3Q2 = 243
Q= 9
The equilibrium price can be found by using the following equation: P = 3 + 9Q = 84.
Any price above 84 yields an economic profit because P = MC > AC, so new companies will
enter the market. Note that the demand curve for the market is not needed for this problem.
16. C is correct. Under perfect competition, the supply function is well defined and is equal to
the marginal cost schedule of the firm.
17. C is correct. Firms operating under monopolistic competition do not have well-defined
supply functions, so neither the marginal cost curve nor the average cost curves are supply
curves in this case.
18. B is correct. In perfect competition, if the firm is operating where price is less than average
total cost and more than average variable cost; the firm is recovering all variable cost and
some part of fixed cost. In this scenario, it is best to continue operations in short run, which
will minimize the losses.
19. B is correct. The optimal price level is 60 units because it produces the highest profit.
Output (units) Price ($/unit) Total Revenue ($) Total Costs ($)
20 4,800 96,000 20,800 75,200
40 4,600 184,000 64,800 119,200
60 4,400 264,000 122,800 141,200
80 4,200 336,000 244,800 91,200
100 4,000 400,000 350,800 49,200
20. B is correct. The profit maximizing choice is the level of output where marginal revenue
equals marginal cost.
21. B is correct. Based on game theory and the available information, it is most likely that both
companies will breach the agreement.
22. B is correct. When companies have similar market shares, competitive forces tend to
outweigh the benefits of collusion.
23. C is correct. The economic profit will attract new entrants to the market and encourage
existing companies to expand capacity.
24. B is correct. The dominant company’s market share tends to decrease as profits attract entry
by other companies.
25. C is correct. In monopoly, in the long run, consumer surplus is reduced because of reduction
in quantity produced and increase in prices.
26. B is correct. Economies of scale and regulation may sometimes make monopolies more
efficient than perfect competition.
27. C is correct. Government regulation may attempt to improve resource allocation by requiring
the monopolist to institute average cost pricing or marginal cost pricing. The monopolist will
least likely be allowed to institute first degree price discrimination.
28. A is correct. Under an oligopolistic pricing strategy, competitors will not follow a price
increase but will cut their prices in response to a price decrease by a competitor. Hence the
demand curve is kinked.
29. B is correct. In perfect competition, at equilibrium, price = marginal revenue = marginal cost.
30. C is correct. In first degree price discrimination, the entire consumer surplus is captured by
the producer. The consumer surplus falls to zero.
31. A is correct. Under marginal cost pricing, a subsidy is provided to the monopolist if MC <
ATC.
32. B is correct. The Cournot model describes a special case of Nash equilibrium, in which no
firm can increase profits by changing its price/output choice.
33. B is correct. As prices decrease, smaller firms will leave the market rather than sell below
cost. The most likely scenario is that Engro (market leader) will decrease prices and its
market share will increase.
34. B is correct. The dominant company determines its profit maximizing quantity by equating
its marginal revenue and marginal cost. The price is then set based on the dominant
company’s demand curve.
35. C is correct. In first-degree price discrimination, a company is able to charge each customer
the highest price the customer is willing to pay. In second-degree price discrimination, a
company offers a menu of quantity-based pricing options designed to induce customers to
self-select based on how highly they value the product. The scenario given in the question is
an example of third-degree price discrimination where customers are segregated by
demographic or other traits.
( )
37. C is correct. The concentration ratio for the top three firms is 20 + 20 + 20 = 60 percent.
The HHI is 0.202 * 3 = 0.12
38. A is correct. The biggest limitation of N firm concentration ratio is that it is insensitive to
mergers of two firms with large market shares. Hence, it does not give the right result in this
type of situations.
39. B is correct. The 4-firm concentration ratio before merger is 30 + 20 + 15 + 15 = 80%. After
merger of A and B, the ratio will be 50 + 15 + 15 + 10 = 90%. This industry is highly
concentrated.
40. B is correct. Before merger 4-firm HHI = 0.302 + 0.202 + 0.152 + 0.152 = 0.175
After merger 4-firm HHI = 0.502 + 0.152 + 0.152 + 0.102 = 0.305
41. C is correct. The HHI does not reflect low barriers to entry that may restrict the market power
of companies currently in the market.
42. B is correct. The top four companies in the industry comprise 77% percent of industry sales: