ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF SPEECH AND HEARING

MANASAGANGOTHRI
MYSORE 570 006

ENTRANCE EXAMI NATION 2012-13

M.Sc. (AUDIOLOGY)

Time: 100 minutes Max.Marks I 00

Instructions: Answer all the questions

Each question carries one mark
Use ball point pen with black ink
Do not overwrite

Select the most appropriate answer from among the four alternatives given and
indicate it by marking an 'X' in the box adjacent to the correct answer (in the answer
sheet). For example, if c) is the correct answer for a given question, then indicate your
answer as shown below:
a) b) c) d)

••
If reference intensity is 10· W/m then 10· W/m corresponds to
12 2 8 2
I.
a) 40 decibels c) 60 decibels
b) 70 decibels d) 90 decibels

2. If peak to peak sound pressure is I the RMS value will

be a) 7.07 c) 0.707
b) I d) 0.1

3. Raymond Carhart is a/an

a) Otologist c) Speech Language Pathologist
b) Audiologist d) Psychologist

4. If the pressure ratio is 10:1, then ......... is the number of decibels

a) 20 c) 6
b) 10 d) 3

5. Upward spread of masking refers to

a) Low frequencies masking high c)High frequencies masking low
frequencies frequencies
b) High intensity masking low d) Low intensity masking high
intensity intensity

6. Loudness and intensity are related by the equation

a) L=kIe c) L=kl/e
e
b) I=kLe d) L=k x I
7. Pulsating tinnitus is common in clients with
a) NIHL c) Otosclerosis
b) Glomus tumor d) CSOM

8. Autophonia is commonly associated with

a) CSOM c) Meniere 's disease
b) Patulous Eustachian Tube d) AOM

9. Two tuning fork tests from which the concept of pure tone audiometry developed
are
a) Rinne and Schwabach c) Rinne and Weber
b) Schwabach and Bing d) Bing and Weber

I 0. SDT should be consistent with the best pure tone threshold s between
a) 250 Hz to 2 kHz c) 250 Hz to 4000 Hz
b) 500 Hz to 2000 Hz d) 500 to 4000 Hz

11. Standing waves occur in children around ............... frequency

a) 2000 Hz c) I000 Hz
b) 4000 Hz d) 6000 Hz

12. Precitronic KH 70 is a
a) Head phone c) Loud speaker
b) Bone vibrator d) Insert phone

13. Accordin g to ANSI 1996, AC type 3 audiometer should have a frequency range
from
a) 125 Hz -8kHz in octaves and mid c) 250 Hz - 8kHz in octaves and
octaves mid octaves excluding 750 Hz
and 1500 Hz
b) 250 Hz - 8kHz in octaves and mid d) 250 Hz - 8kHz in octaves
octaves

14. According to ANSI 1996, the head band tension of bone vibrator should be
a) 4.5 ± 0.5 N c) 5.4 ± 0.5 N
b) 5 ± 0.5 N d) 5.5 ± 0.5 N

15. According to ANSI 1996, NBS 9A is a/an

a) acoustic coupler c) mechanical coupler
b) artificial mastoid d) artificial ear

16. According to Martin et. al. (1974), the mean occlusion effect for normal hearing
subjects at 500 Hz is approximately
a) 30 c) 15
b) 5 d) 25

17. The type of the noise recomm ended for Doerfl er-Stewart test is
a) Pink noise c) Narrow band noise
b) Sawtooth noise d) White noise

2
18. Presence of shadow curve is an indication of
a) Organic hearing loss c) Psychogenic hea ring loss
b) Functional hearing loss d) Malingering

19. Roll-over index is calculated using the formula

a) (PB max -PB min)/PB max c) (PB max -PB min)/PB min
b) (PB max +PB min)/PB max d) (PB max +PB min)/PB min

20. In type IV Bekesy tracings separation of continuous and intermitten t tone

thresholds occur
a) Below 1000 Hz c) Below 500 Hz
b) Below 2000 Hz d) Below 4000 Hz

21. The process of temporal auditory summation is basically a

a) Middle ear phenomenon c) Cochlear phenomenon
b) Neural phenomenon d) External ear phenomenon

22. Fast ForWord is recommended when an individual has

a) Poor speech in nouise performan ce c) Poor temporal processing
b) Poor binaural hearing d) None of the above

23. Test which assesses the auditory temporal processing is

a) Pitch pattern test c) Quick speech in noise
b) Dichotic digits d) Staggered spondaic words

24. Abnormal binaural interaction test results can be obtained in

a) Low brainstem c) High brainstem
b) Auditory cortex d) Interhemisheric pathways

25. Air volume enclosed in the middle ear can be considered as

a) Acoustical spring c) Mechanical spring
b) Acoustical mass d) Mechanical mass

26. 3BIG tympanogram is obtained when admittance phase angle is between

a) 45° and 0° c) 0° and -45°
b) -90° and o
0
d) 90° and 45°

27. According to ANSI S3. 39 (1987) each immitance instrument should be provided
with calibration cavities of ..........., ........ and ............. cm3
a) 0.5, 2.0 and 5.0 c) 1.0, 2.0 and 3.0
b) 1.0, 2.5 and 5.0 d) 0.5, 2.0 and 4.0

28. Generation site of ABR wave II is

a) Proximal portion of the auditory c) Distal portion of the auditory
nerve nerve
b) Cochlear nucleus d) Synapse of the IHC and auditory
nerve

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29. How much of the initial responses of the TEOAE recordings are eliminated to
reduce the stimulus artifacts?
a) 2.5 ms c) 5.5 ms
b) 80 ms d) 20 ms

30. Band pass filter settings recommended in the recording of LLR is

a) 300-3000 Hz c) 150 - 1500 Hz
b) 1-300 Hz d) 30-300 Hz

31. A test in which nystagmu s is elicited by passing the repetiti ve series of visual
stimuli in front of the patient's eye is
a) Gaze c) Positional
b) Optokinetic d) Caloric

32. In butter fly chart 1000 and 1100 indicates

a) right central lesion c) right peripheral lesion
b) left peripheral lesion d) left central lesion

33. External auditory canal continues to mature ...............

a) Until 7 years of age c) Until 11 years of age
b) Un ti1 9 years of age d) Until 5 years of age

34. ASHA (2004) recommend s use of ............ ..... speech recognition test in the
hearing assessment protocol for children from 25 months through 60 months
a) NU-CHIPS c) PSI
b) WlPI d) Any of the above

35. Operant conditioning can be achieved by the chronologic/developmental age of

a) 6 months c) 3 months
b) 18 months d) 3 years of age

36. In which of the following conditions, the Audiologist may have to minim ize the
physical contact during hearing assessment ?
a) Autism Spectrum Disorder c) Mental Retardation
b) CAPD d) Physical Disabilities

37. EHDI stands for

a) Early Hearing Detection of Infants c) Early Hearing Detection of
Infants and children
b) Early Hearing Detection and d) Early Hearing Development
Intervention program for Infants

38. If an infant in the well-infant nursery does not pass an automated ABR testing, the
infant should not be re-screened by OAE testing , because
a) OAE gives same information as c) All the infants who donot pass in
ABR automated ABR will not pass in
OAE as well
b) Such infants are presumed to be at- d) All of the above
risk of having a subsequent
diagnosis of auditory
neuropathy /dyssynchrony

4
39. What modification in the protocol should be made to enhance the wave V latency
in the neonates?
a) Use a high-pass filter of 30 Hz and c) Using alternating polarity
electrode montage of Fz in nape of
neck
b) Increasing the time window to 25 d) All of the above
msecs

40. For screening an 8 month old infant, for outer and middle ear disorders, ASHA
( 1997) recommended initial tympanometric screening test criteria for referral as
(Ytm-Peak Admittance; TW-Tympanometric Width)
a) Ytm <0.2 mmho or TW>235 daPa c) Ytm >0.2 mmho or TW<235
daPa
b) Ytm <0.3 mmho or TW>200 daPa d) Ytm >0.3 mmho or TW<200
daPa

41. Training children regarding the functional use of language is referred to as

a) Semantics c) Pragmatics
b) Syntax d) All of the above

42. A contrived system of manual communication makes use of a sign system that
a) Has the same grammar as that of c) Has a different grammar from
the spoken language that of the spoken language
b) Makes use of signs and spoken d) None of the above
language

43. Rochester method makes use of a combination of

a) Speech reading alone c) Speech reading and finger
spelling
b) Speech reading and sign language d) Sign language alone

44. One of the purposes of the UNCRPD 2006 is to

a) Promote, protect and ensure the c) Promote, protect and ensure the
full and equal enjoyment of all full and equal enjoyment of
human right and fundamental certain human rights and
freedoms by all persons who are fundamental freedoms by all
under privileged persons with disabilities
b) Promote, protect and ensure the d) Promote, protect and ensure the
full and equal enjoyment of all full and equal enjoyment of
human right and fundamental human rights by all persons with
freedoms by all persons with disabilities and those who are
disabilities under privileged.

45. Visible phonetic analog of speech in the form of lip movements supplemented by
hand cues with vowel and consonant cues is provided in .................. method
a) Contrived system c) SEE2
b) Cued Speech d) ASL

5
46. If one or more of the subjects are taught outside the classroom by' a special
educator, then the child is said to be
a) Partially mainstreamed c) Full mainstreaming
b) Socially mainstreamed d) In a Self-contained class room

47. The method in which auditory training is not viewed as an activity to be set apart
from other educational procedures, and children are trained to classify and group
stimuli, to determine similarities and differences, and to generalize information
from one to another is
a) Acoupedic method c) Traditional approach
b) Cognitive Auditory Approach d) Verbotonal approach

48. When the child has most access to academic, social, and emotional support, one
can call it
a) Least Restricted Environment c) Main streaming
b) Integration c) None of the above

49. When using acoustic highlight s for AVT, the following is not used
a) Hand cues c) Use of pause
b) Rephrasing d) Speech reading

50. The minimal auditory capability test provides information for

a) Selection of device c) Selection of education method
b) Selection of therapy goals d) All of the above

51. Using only auditory cues in educational set-ups is not recommended since
a) Children with hearing impairment c) Devices given for children with
do not get benefit from only hearing impairment do not give
auditory cues them adequate auditory cues
b) Children have to make auditory- d) Teachers are not trained to give
visual association during their only auditory based training
development

52. Asking a person to identify the words that have the sound / m/ through speech
reading is referred to as
a) Synthetic approach c) Analytic approach
b) Analyt ic or synthet ic d) Analytic and synthetic

53. Reducing the level of competing noise during communi cation is a/an
. . . . . . . . . . . strategy
a) Anticipatory c) Available
b) Repair d) Anticipatory and repair

54. The process by which meaning of a message is obtained as a whole from an

incomplete auditory information is called
a) Auditory separation c) Auditory expansion
b) Auditory integration d) Auditory closure

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55. What steps should be taken to improve class room acoustics for a child with
APD?
a) Leaving the class room door c) The legs of the chairs be
opened furnished with tennis ball at the
end
b) Having movable chairs in the class d) All of the above
room

56. Training for comprehension of homophones would improve

a) Speech reading ability c) Ability to use communication
strategies
b) Auditory closure ability d) Auditory awareness

57. A graphical representation of the sensitivity of the microphone for signals arriving
at different directions/angles is called
a) Omnidirectional c) Directivity index
b) Sensitivity d) Polar pattern

58. At low input levels, low coherence function in a hearing aid is indicative of
a) More circuit noise c) More distortion
b) Less circuit noise d) Less distortion

59. The advantage of FM over AM in a classroom amplification system is that a

suitably designed receiver will respond only to the stronger of the two signals,
and this is called
a) Spill over c) Capture effect
b) Squelch effect d) None of the above

60. In an ear mould with horn effect, the acoustic impedance ........... as the tube
diameter is increased , and this facilitates ............ transmission
a) Increases, low frequency c) Does not change, high frequency
b) Decreases, high frequency d) Decreases, low frequency

61. For electro acoustic measurement of post-auricular hearing aids with earmold,
........... type of coupler is u sed
a) HA I c) HA 3
b) HA 2 d) HA 4

62. The volume control in an output compression hearing aid, has the following effect
a) Affects the MPO and knee-point , c) Affects the gain, but not the MPO
does not affect the gain and knee-point
b) Affects the gain and MPO but not d) Affects gain and knee-point, but
the knee-point not MPO

7
63. The front-back-ratio of a microphone is the
a) Difference between the frequency c) Ratio of the microphone output
responses of the microphone with for signals from front to sounds
signal from front and from rear originating from all direction s
b) Ratio of the output in response to d) Ratio of the microphone output
signals from rear to signals from for signals from front to sounds
front originating from rear

64. When the hearing aid is worn on the body, sound pressure level at the microphone
is ............ in the HF range and ......... in the LF range.
a) Decreased, increased c) I ncreased, does not change
b) Increase, increase d) Decreased, does not change

65. The objective of ................ tournament in hearing aid selection is to rank order
the available hearing aids/settings on a hearing aid based on a certain criterion.
a) Round-robin c) Simple up-down
b) Single elimination d) Modified simplex

66. K-Amp is an example of ........... type of circuit in a hearing aid.

a) KILL c) SILL
b) BILL d) TILL

67. In a digital hearing aid, the difference between the original signal and the
digitized signal is called the
a) Aliasing error c) Quantization error
b) Anti-aliasing error d) High frequency error

68. If a client using a compression hearing aid complains of not hearing I

understanding the speech well, then you have to
a) Increase the release time c) Reduce the compression threshold
b) Decrease the release time d) None of the above

69. ALDs can benefit individuals with

a) Normal hearing c) Normal hearing and hearing
impairm ent
b) Hearing impairment d) Profound hearing loss

70. A middle ear implant that works on the property that deformation of the material
occurs when a voltage is applied, is
a) Piezoelectric c) Electromechanical
b) Electromagnetic d) Transcranial

71. The components of tinnitus retraining therapy include

a) Directive counselling and sound c) Counselling and masking
therapy
b) Sound enrichment and wide band d) Masking and desensitization
noise exposure

8
72. If a family of gain curves at different input levels overlap, then the hearing aid is
a) Non-lin ear c) Linear at low levels
b) Linear d) None of the above

73. Which one of the following could be the explanation for the greatest loss in the
3000 to 6000 Hz region in NIHL cases?
a) Poor cochlear blood supply to the c) Orientation of the stapes foot
region corresponding below 3000 plate does not aim its primary
Hz and above 6000 Hz force toward the hair cells in 3000
to 6000 Hz region
b) Lesser susceptibil ity for damage of d) None of the above
the supporting structures of hair
cells in 3000 to 6000 Hz region

74. The most appropriate term for the auditory system's ability to modify its
susceptibility to damage from noise, depend ing on previous exposures is
a) Sensitivity of the auditory system c) Auditory conditioning
b) Auditory toughening d) Auditory exposure

75. If most of the energy of noise is contained in the lower end of the spectrum, then
the reading on the display using the 'A' network of the Sound Level Meter, will
be ........................... than wh en using the 'C' network of the Sound Level
Meter.
a) Much lower c) Equal
b) Much higher d) There will not be any reading on
the SLM

76. In SLM, the weighting network that is the reciprocal of 70 phon curve is
a) A c)B
b) C d)D
77. One noy is the perceived noisiness of random noise centered around ............ Hz
with a sound pressure level of ...........dB.
a) 2000 and 40 c) 1000 and 40
b) 2000 and 70 d) I 000 and 70

78. Speech interference level is the arithmetic average of the sound pressure level of
the noise in the
a) 500 Hz, I 000 Hz and 2000 Hz c) 500 Hz, 1500 Hz and 2000 Hz
octave bands octave bands
b) 500 Hz, 1000 Hz and 3000 Hz d) I 00 Hz, 2000 Hz and 3000 Hz
octave bands octave band s

79. The requirement for all the tests of hearing for the industrial workers is that
a) they should be preceded by 14 c) they should be preceded by 4
hours of 'noise free' condition hours of 'noise free' condition
b) It can be done immediately after d) they should be preceded by 6
noise exposure hours of 'noise free' cond ition

9
80. Attenuation provided by the hearing protective device is expressed in tenn s
a) NRR c) NCC
b) NFC d) CRR

81. Near the apex of the cochlea, the small openings which establi shes
communication between the scala vestibuli and scala tympani is called
a) Scala media c) Helicotrema
b) Spiral lamina d) Hamulus

82. The nerve innervations of cochlea include

a) Afferent bipolar cochlear sensory c) Autonomic nerve supply
neurons
b) Efferent neurons d) All of the above

83. Carcinoma denotes

a) Malignant tumor arising from c) Malignant tumor arising from
epithelial tissue muscle tissue
b) Benign tumor arising from d) Benign tumor arising from mu scle
epithelial tissue tissue

84. Sound pressures of 0.00002 Pa, in the frequency range from 1000 Hz to 5000 Hz
can produce a displacement of tympanic membrane of the order of
a) One tenth of the diameter of a c) One tenth of the diameter of the
hydrogen atom nucleus of a hydrogen atom
b) One tenth of the diameter of a d) One tenth of the diameter of an
hydrogen molecule electron of a hydrogen atom

85. Ratio of the peak response of a microphone at radius 'r' to the response average
over a sphere of radius 'r' is called
a) Directivity index c) Signal to noise ratio
b) Efficiency d) Directivity Factor

86. /wawa/ for 'water' is a syllable structure process referring to as

a) Reduplication c) Cluster reduction
b) Syllable deletion d) Final consonant deletion

87. Structures that are used as whole sentences to modify nouns are called
a) Relative clauses c) Relative pronouns
b) Prepositional phrases d) Complements

10
88. Leaming amounting to the formation of bonds, connections or associations
between stimuli and response is viewed as the basi c principle by the
a) Reinforcement Psychologists c) Stimulus-Response
Reinforcement
Psychologists
b) Stimulus-Response Psychologists d) Response Reinforcement
Psychologists

89. Pedigrees or family trees help the geneticist to

a) Show modes of inheritance c) Diagnose the condition
b) Anomalies or traits shared by the d) All the above
family member

90. At birth, which of these sense organs are poorly developed?

a) Smell and taste c) Organic sensitivity (hunger and
thirst)
b) Skin sensitivity d) Vision and hearing

91. The sensitivity of a test is defined as the

a) Proportion of people with positive c) Both a) and b)
result for the test
b) Proportion of people with negative d) None of the above
result for the test

92. Prevalence measures are useful for

a) Identifying risk factors c) Planning health services
b) Assessing etiology d) None of the above

93. Which of the following influences brain function by determining the level of
metabolism and the ionic composition of tissue fluids?
a) Meningeal layers c) Cerebro Spinal fluid
b) Blood -Brain barrier d) Potassium pump

94. The most frequent primary neoplasm of the middle ear cleft is
a) Sarcoma c) Squamons cell carcinoma
b) Melanoma d) Osteoma

95. A two dimensional graph in which the values of one variable are represented on
the vertical axis and the values of the other are represented on the horizontal axis
in order to characterize relationships in terms of their direction and strength is
called
a) Correlation graph c) Regression line
b) Scatter plot d) All the three -a), b) and c)

96. Assumptions for ANOVA include:

a) Equal variance , independent of c) Unequal variance, dependent on
observations observations
b) NPC , unequal variance, dependent d) NPC, equal variance, independent
on observations of observations

11
97. Random or chance errors in a study design is closely associated with the
following
a) Validity c) Sampling
b) Reliability d) Hypotheses

98. If 'z' scores are used, and the total area under the normal probability curve is set
equal to 1.00, the curve is said to be in the
a) Standard form c) Kurtosis form
b) Skewed form d) Non standard form

99. Equal opportunity, protection of rights and full participation of persons with
disability are the salient features of
a) RCI Act c) PWD Act
b) RTI Act d) National Trust Act

100. Early diagnosis and adequate treatment are the basis for
a) Primary prevention c) Territory prevention
b) Secondary prevention d) a) and c)

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 AUDIOLOGY 002
ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF SPEECH AND HEARING
MANASAGANGOTHRI
MYSORE 570 006

M. Sc. (AUDIOLOGY)
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2013-14

Time: 90 minutes Max. Marks 100

Instructions: Answer all the questions

Each question carries one mark
Use ball point pen with black ink
Do not overwrite
Each wrong answer will have a negative marking of 0.25.

Select the most appropriate answer from among the four alternatives given and
indicate it by marking an 'X' in the box adjacent to the correct answer (in the answer
sheet). For example, if c) is the correct answer for a given question , then indicate your
answer as shown below:
a) b) c) d)

**
1. In FIG 6 strategy, the overall goal for hearing aid prescription is to

a) restore normal loudness perception c) restore normal and equal loudness

b) equalize loudness across frequency d) maximize comfort of listening
bands

2. 60 dB IL equals to

a) 60 dB SPL c) 66 dB SPL
b) 63 dB SPL d) 60 dB HL

3. To get an error-free digital representation of an analog signal, ... . . . . ... . .... filter is
included at the input to an ADC.

a) Anti imaging c) Anti quantizing

b) Anti biasing d) Anti aliasing

4. If an individual with an asymmetrical hearing loss prefers a monaural heari ng aid,

then fit the ear with

a) the PTA closer to 60 dB HL c) lesser degree of hearing loss

b) higher degree of hearing loss d) PTA close to 26 dB HL
5. To improve speech understanding in the presence of background noise which has
a spectrum similar to speech, ... .... ... strategy in hearing aids will help

a) reducing the low frequencies c) increasing high frequencies

b) directional microphone d) omnidirectional microphone

6. The Silhouette inductor is a device that can be used to couple the

a) transmitter unit of the FM device c) lapel microphone to the

to the microphone transmitter unit of the FM device
b) the receiver unit of an FM device d) lapel microphone to the receiver
to the hearing aid unit of the FM device

7. Bone anchored hearing aids are recommended for individuals with ... .. ...... type
of hearing loss ·

a) conductive and mixed c) mixed and sensorineural

b) sensorineural and auditory d) conductive and sensorineural
neuropathy

8. The . ....... of CIS speech coding strategy helps m better perception of the
temporal information in speech.

a) roving stimulation c) channel interaction

b) fixed electrodes stimulation d) high rate of stimulation

9. If the soft speech is not understood by a digital hearing aid user in quiet places , the
typical solution is to

a) reduce gain for low level sounds c) reduce gain for loud sounds
b) increase gain for low level sounds d) increase gain for loud sounds

10. Hearing aid gain prescription procedures based on threshold and loudness include

a) NAL-NL I and LGOB c) POGO and NAL-NLI

b) NAL-RP and POGO II d) SaclAdapt and Berger

11. Duration of the nystagmus is measured by calculating

a) total duration of slow phase c) total duration of fast phase

b) total duration of slow and fast d) duration of slow phase minus the
phase duration of fast phase
12. Compensated static acoustic admittance can be obtained by

a) subtracting the admittance of ear c) subtracting the admittance of

canal from overall admittance middle ear from overall
value admittance value

b) adding the admittance of ear canal d) adding the admittance of middle

to overall admittance ear to overall admittance value

13. Hair cells of the horizontal SCC is oriented in such a way that the depolarization
occurs when endolymph moves

a) towards ampulla c) away from utricle

b) towards saccule d) away from ampulla

14. The bandwidth of SOAEs are usually

a) l 00 Hz c) 50 Hz
b) 10 Hz d) 1 Hz

15. The frequency range of eye movement artifacts during the recording of human
auditory evoked potentials is in the range of

a) 500 - 1000 Hz c) 100 - 500 Hz

b) 50 - 100 Hz d) 0 - 50 Hz

16. To reduce the contribution of stimulus artifacts in TEOAE recording

a) first 1.5 ms data is eliminated c) first 2.5 ms data is eliminated

b) first 4.5 ms data is eliminated d) last 4.5 ms data is eliminated

17. Resting potential of the auditory nerve is approximately

a) + 70 to + 80 mV c) + 30 to +40 mV
b) - 30 to -40 m V d) - 70 to -80 mV

18. P300 is referred to as a

a) cognitive response c) obligatory response

b) exogenous response d) early response

19. In monaural MLD paradigm, the largest MLD value with reference to SmNm is
obtained for condition

a) SmNo c) SmNπ
b) SπNπ d) SπNo

20. Fail to false alarm during the silent periods of pure tone testing is an indication of

a) conductive hearing loss c) sensorineural hearing loss

b) functional hearing loss d) retro-cochlear pathology
21 . For Stenger effect to occur, two tones of

a) different frequencies and same c) same frequency and same

intensity should be presented intensity should be presented
b) same frequency and different d) different frequencies and different
intensities should be presented intensities should be presented

22. Formula to calculate spondee-error index (SERI) given by Chaiklin and Ventry
(1965) is

a) SERI =(NRE - OS - SL)/TE x 100 c) SERI =(NRE + OS - SL)/TE x

(NRE: No. of no-response errors 100
OS: No. of one syllable errors (NRE: No. of no-respon se errors
SL: Spondee from stimulus list OS: No. of one syllable errors
TE: total no. of error) SL: Spondee from stimulus list
TE: total no. of error)
b) SERI =(NRE - OS + SL)/TE x 100 d) SERI =(NRE + OS + SL)/TE x
(NRE: No. of no-response errors 100
OS: No. of one syllable errors (NRE: No . of no-response errors
SL: Spondee from stimulus list OS: No. of one syllable errors
TE: total no. of error) SL: Spondee from stimulus list
TE: total no. of error)

23. Which of the following results would be observed in case of a lesion in the
efferent auditory system?

a) hearing Joss with no problem in c) hearing loss with difficulty m

understanding speech in noise understanding speech in noise
b) normal hearing with no problem in d) normal hearing with difficulty m
understanding speech in noise understanding speech in noise

24. The binaural .beat phenomena best occur for two frequencies that are

a) 2 to 10 Hz apart c) 20 to 40 Hz apart
b) 50 to 100 Hz apart d) 100 to 200 Hz apart

25. QuickSIN is a test of

a) monaural low redundancy c) binaural integration

b) monaural interaction d) binaural interaction

26. In cases with retro-cochlear pathology, Bekesy tracing at high frequencies would
show

a) continuous tone tracing being 20 c) pulsed tone tracing being 20 dB

dB below the pulsed tone tracing below the continuous tone tracing
b) both will overlap d) pulsed to tracing within 10 dB of
continuous tracing
27. An example of a manual form of communication that has its own grammar is

a) Cued speech c) American Sign Language

b) Signed English d) Finger spelling

28. A technique where a child with hearing impairment is encouraged to speak and
then the therapist imitates the speech of the child is

a) Maternal reflective method c) Acoupedic approach

b) Box technique d) Mother and child technique

29. According to ANSI (2002), the steady background noise in an average sized
classroom should not exceed

a) 35 dB C c) 35 dB A
b) 50 dB SPL d) 50 dB C

30. In individuals with usable hearing only up to 1500 Hz, it is better to use

a) auditory and visual modalities c) auditory and tactile modalities

b) visual and tactile modality d) auditory modality alone

31. The parameter that is not of major importance when considering a child for
integration is
a) aided performance c) communication abilities
b) degree of hearing loss d) intellectual abilities

32. For individuals with deaf-blindness, the device that can be used is
a) Optacon c) cochlear implants
b) talking glove systems d) all of the above

33. SIFTER by Anderson (1989) provides information to

a) audiologists regarding children c) teachers regarding children who

who are at-risk for hearing loss. are at-risk for developmental of
educational problems because of
hearing loss.
b) teachers regarding children who d) teachers regarding how they
are at-risk for hearing loss. · should teach children with deaf-
blindness.

34. Communication breakdowns are more likely to occur during a conversation with
individuals with hearing impairment if are used

a) rare words c) passive verb forms

b) inanimate subjects d) all of the above
35. The Jena technique of speech reading teaches individuals to

a) rapidly recognize individual c) recognize sentences

phonemes and syllables
b) recognize words and sentences d) all of the above

36. Signals in decreasing signal-to-noise ratios can be used to train individuals with
problems in

a) monaural separation c) temporal processing

b) binaural integration d) all of the above

37. In auditory-verbal practice, making identification based on several related

descriptions is an example of

a) auditory sequencing c) auditory comprehensi on

b) auditory cognition d) auditory identification

38. The words /chew/ and /shoe/ are examples of

a) homowords c) homophenes
b) homophones d) homoplanes

39. LACE is a technique to be used by

a) Adult hearing aid users c) Individuals with APO

b) Individuals with LD d) a&c

40. Children using hearing aids have difficulty hearing the sound If/ because

a) It has a high frequency c) It has low intensity

b) It occurs seldom d) It has high frequency and low
intensity

41. If a hearing protection device has a noise reduction rating of 27 dB,

the attenuation provided by it would be

a) 5 dB c) 15 dB
b) 10 dB d) 20 dB

42. The Committee on Hearing and Bioacoustics recommends the low fence
to be .. ........ . ....... . . ...whereas, AAO recommends the low fence to be ... ....... ...

a) 35 dB, 25 dB c) 20 dB, 15 dB
b) 25 dB, 25 dB d) 25 dB, 35 dB
43. A worker is exposed to noise for 2 hours at 85 dBA, 2 hours at 87 dBA, 2 hours at
89 dBA and 2 hours at 92 dBA. The noise dose for this worker will be

a) 80.3% c) 85.3%
b) 85% d) 83.5%

44. The 'A' frequency weighting network of SLM approximate the ear's responses
characteristics below

a) 30 dB c) 45 dB
b) 10 dB d) 53 dB

45. Noise reduction coefficient is defined as

a) multiple numbers used to express c) most convenient method to

the overall noise absorbing estimate the adequacy of hearing
efficiency of acoustic material protector attenuation
b) a single number used to express d) multiple numbers used to express
the overall noise absorbing the overall noise reflecting
efficiency of acoustic materia l efficiency of acoustic material

46. As per OSHA regulations, the permissible noise level is

a) 85 dBA for 8 hours with a 5 dB c) 90 dBA for 8 hours with a 3 dB

time intensity trade time intensity trade
b) 90 dBA for 8 hours with a 5 dB d) 85 dBA for 8 hours with a 3 dB
time intensity trade time intensity trade

47. The first signs of ear development is paralle l with

a) primitive streak c) neural groove

b) neural folds d) neural tube

48. The high risk factor that has been dropped from the HRR in the JCIH position
statement of 2007 is

a) NICU stay for >5 days c) premature delivery

b) low birth weight d) hyperbillirubinemia

49. The development of brain occurs from

a) ectoderm c) endoderm
b) mesoderm d) all the above
50. An individualized education program does not deal with

a) evaluating, reviewing and c) having parent-teacher meetings

documenting the student's
progress towards goals related to
hearing loss and communication
access.
b) preparing progress reports with d) excluding children with poor
supporting data. language abi lities.

51. dB IL is equal to

a) 20 log10 I/Io c) 30 log10 P/Po

b) 10 log10 I/Io d) 10 log10 I+Io

52. The serum bilirubin levels needed for exchange transfusion is a function of
a) infant's birth weight c) both a and b
b) infant's gestational age d) neither a nor b

53. As per the ASHA guidelines for Audiologic Screening (1997), the screening
intensity level for conditioned play audiometry is

a) 20 dB HL at 1000 Hz, 2000 Hz, c) 20 dB Hz SPL at 1000 Hz, 2000

and 4000 Hz Hz and 4000 Hz
b) 20 dB HL at 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, and d) 20 dB SPL at 500 Hz, 1000 Hz
2000 Hz and 2000 Hz

54. For severe high frequency sensori-neural hearing loss, NAL-NL l prescribes

a) more gain than other fitting c) similar gain to the other fitting
methods methods
b) less gain than other fitting methods d) none of the above

55. When two omnidirectional microphones are combined to make a directional

microphone, the internal noise of the directional microphone is dB
higher than internal noise of omnidirectional microphone

a) 3 c) 6
b) 5 d) 7

56. Monomeric membrane refers to

a)single layer of hair cells on basilar c) tympanic membrane position at

membrane peak pressure
b) single layer of outer hair cells on d) healed perforation
basilar membrane
57. Masking dilemma occurs when it is

a) bilateral sensorineural hearing loss c) bilateral conductive hearing loss

b) unilateral sensorineural hearing d) unilateral conductive hearing loss
loss

58. The physiologic substrate of clinical seizure activity is

a) abnormal neuronal discharge c) repeated disturbances in cerebral

blood flow
b) hyperactive glial potentials d) autoimmune mechanism

59. Out of the A, B and C weighting networks used in sound level meters, the one
which has an almost flat frequency response is

a) A- weighting network c) B- weighting network

b) C- weighting network d) all of the above

60. One of the training program that is not for management of children with (C)APD
is

a) Fast forward c) Computer-assisted training

b) Earobics d) IDEA

61. A direct vertical plane localization can be performed by children in the age range
of

a) 7-9 months c) 9-13 months

b) 13-16 months d) None of the above

62. TORCH infections does not include

a) Rubella c) Herpes Zoster

b) Cytomegalo virus d) None of the above

63. ACE speech coding strategy in a cochlear implant is a combination of

a) MSPEAK and CIS c) SPEAK and CIS

b) SAS and CIS d) SPEAK and HiRes

64. The maximum octave band levels (in dB) allowed when testing hearing in the
250-8000 Hz range is

a) highest for supra aural earphones c) independent of transducer

b) highest for 'ear not covered' d) highest for insert phones
condition
65. The pressure reference used to determine dB SPL is

a) 204 dynes/cm2 c) 2.04 dynes/cm 2

b) 0.204 dynes/cm 2 d) 0.000204 dynes/cm 2

66. Bilateral schwannomas are commonly seen in

a) Wardenburg syndrome c) Myasthenia gravis

b) Treacher-collin 's syndrome d) Vonrecklinghausen' s disease

67. Mumps typically leads to

a) bilateral sensorineural hearing loss c) unilateral conductive hearing loss

b) unilateral sensorineural hearing loss d) bilateral conductive hearing loss

68. Cochleovestibular schwannoma is

a) benign in nature c) benign or malignant depending on

the location
b) malignant in nature d) benign in the beginning
and malignant later

69. The two tuning fork tests that have audiometric versions are

a) Weber and Bing c) Weber and Rinne

b) Rinne and Bing d) Schwabach and Weber

70. Stria vascularis is involved in

a) sensory presbyacusis c) metabolic presbyacusis

b) neural presbyacusis d) conductive presbyacusis

71. Acoustic radiation from the bone vibrator mainly affects hearing thresholds at

a) low frequencies c) mainly at 250 Hz

b) high frequencies d) mainly at 1 kHz

72. IA in 'BCTE+IA' refers to

a) IA of transducer used to present c) IA of tone

pure tone
b) IA of noise d) IA of transducer used to present
noise

73. Standing-wave artifact in pure tone audiometry commonly affects the hearing
thresholds at

a) 250 Hz c) 8000 Hz
b) 1000 Hz d) Both a & b
74. Mastoid placement of the bone vibrators is preferred over forehead placement
because

a) higher test-retest reliability c) strength of vibration needed to

reach threshold is lesser
b) lower intersubject variability d) middle ear component makes
bigger contribution for normal
threshold

75. Audiometers are designed to have a pulse duration of 225 ms because tone

a) less than this yields poorer c) more than this yields better
thresholds thresholds
b) less than this cannot be generated d) more than this can lead to
tolerance problem

76. As the air-bone gap widens, the plateau width

a) becomes narrower c) remains constant

b) becomes wider d) crosses 40 dB

77. The procedure given by Jerger and Tiilman (1960) to measure the sensorineural
hearing sensitivity is

a) MLD c) SAL
b) FIT d) PTCs

78. According to ANSI S 3.6 (2004), the tolerance limits for frequency accuracy are
between

a) ± 1 & ± 2 % c) ± 15 & ± 16%

b) ± 7 & ± 8% d) ± 19 & ±20%

79. In directional microphone (using dual microphones), near field and far field refers
to sound coming from a distance of within

a) 10 times of microphone spacing c) 30 times of microphone spacing

and more than l 00 times of and less than 40 times of
microphone spacing respectively microphone spacing respectively
b) 20 times of microphone spacing d) 10 times of microphone spacing
and more than 40 times of and less than 100 times of
microphone spacing respectively microphone spacing respectively

80. For severe to profound hearing loss, the three compression features that are most
suitable include

a) input compression, high knee point c) input compression, low knee

and high compression ratio point and high compression ratio
b) output compression, low knee d) output compression ,- high knee
point and ratio, output limiting point and ratio, output limiting
compression control compression control
81. If sound travelling at a speed of 340 m/s takes 25 µs to to travel betwee n front
and rear mic, calculate the distance between the two microphone s

a) 8.5 mm c) 9 mm
b) 8.8 mm d) 7 mm

82. Articulation index-weighted directivity index is defined as

a) ratio of the microphone output for c) sum and average of directivity

sounds coming from 0° azimuth to index at each frequency added to
the average of microphone output articulation index weighting of
for sounds coming from all other the frequency bands for speech
directions intelligibility
b) sum and average of directivity d) sum and average of directivit y
index at each frequency multiplied index at each frequency
by articulation index weighting of substracted from articulation
the frequency bands for speech index weighting of the frequency
intelligibility bands for speech intelligibility

83. The assumption of a Weiner filter is that

a) noise is stationary, speech c) both noise and speech are

fluctuates stationary
b) noise is fluctuating, speech is d) both noise and speech fluctuates
stationary

84. The phoneme groups /p, b, m,/ and /t, d, n, 1/ are examples of

a) viseme groups c) voicing groups

b) analytic groups d) none of the above

85. For a flat hearing loss of 60 dB, NAL-NLl prescribes approximately less
output than DSL for frequency below l kHz and above 4 kHz

a) 5 dB c) 15 dB
b) 10 dB d) 20 dB

86. BILL hearing aids have

a) high knee point for low frequency, c) low knee point for low frequency,
low knee point for high frequency high knee point for high
frequency
b) low knee point for both low & high d) high knee point for low inten sity,
frequency low knee point for high intensity

87. Loudness is strongly dependent on

a) sound pressure c) duration
b) spectrum d) envelope
88. A behavior performed in order to obtain a reward , escape from or avoid a
punishment is:

a) -unconditional response c) conditional response

b) aversive response d) operant response

89. A client hailing from Sub-Himalayan region , is brought with the complaint of
congenital hearing impairment along with deformed and protruding bony joints.
The condition might be caused by

a) Iodine deficiency c) Vitamin C deficiency

b) Iron deficiency d) None of the above

90. The inheritance pattern that has been found to be associated with Muscular
dystrophy is

a) Autosomal Recessive c) Sex-linked recessive

b) Autosomal dominant d) All the above

91. The term 'small for gestational age' is a standard clinical diagnosis when the birth
weight for a full term baby is

a) <2500 g c) <1000 g
b) <1 500 g d) All the above

92. Middle ear and tympanic membrane is supplied by all except

a) Styloid artery c) Posterior auricular artery

b) Carticotympanic artery d) Middle meningeal artery

93. A 19- year old patient complains of the recent onset of tremors , which occurs
when he lifts a cup to drink or tries to retrieve food with fork. When his index
fingers are approximated, the tremor worsens. A sister of his has history of liver
disease. This description is suggestive of

a) Wilson 's disease c) Huntington 's disease

b) Parkinson's disease d) All the above

94. Tensor veli palatini tenses the velum and also dialates the

a) Uvula c) Velopharyngeal cavity

b) Auditory tube d) Nasal cavity

95. A model of psychopathology that suggest that psychological disorders result from
acquiring dysfunctional ways of thinking and acting is

a) Medical model c) Behavioral model

b) Cognitive model d) Client centered model
 ALL INDIA INSTITUTE OF SPEECH AND HEARING
MANASAGANGOTHRI
MYSORE- 570 006

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2013

M.Sc. (Audiology)

ANSWER KEYS

1 a 21 b 41 b 61 b 81 a

2 a 22 a 42 a 62 c 82 b

3 d 23 d 43 d 63 c 83 c

4 a 24 a 44 d 64 d 84 a

5 b 25 a 45 b 65 d 85 b

6 b 26 a 46 b 66 d 86 c

7 a 27 c 47 d 67 b 87 a

8 d 28 a 48 b 68 a 88 d

9 b 29 c 49 a 69 a 89 a

10 a 30 a 50 d 70 c 90 d

11 b 31 b 51 b 71 b 91 a

12 a 32 d 52 a 72 d 92 d

13 a 33 c 53 a 73 c 93 a

14 d 34 d 54 b 74 c 94 b

15 d 35 a 55 a 75 a 95 b

16 c 36 a 56 d 76 a 96 a

17 d 37 b 57 c 77 c 97 a

18 a 38 c 58 a 78 a 98 a

19 a 39 d 59 b 79 a 99 b

20 b 40 d 60 d 80 d 100 c