PRACTICE TEST 1

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about Google company and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.

1. Impediment to market penetration, price dominance, unjust benefits and fierce

competition characterize a monopoly market.
2. In the early 19th century, Standard Oil’s production constituted approximately 90% of
the total output in the U.S.
3. Google was accused of gaining unfair advantages over competitors by requiring
smartphone makers to load Google apps onto the phone before a customer buys it.
4. Yelp has filed a complaint against Google in the EU, stating that Google’s search
engine has biased for its own results.
5. EU does not take action against monopolies unless they exert pernicious effects on
consumers.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about the history of hamburgers and answer
the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

6. What kind of meat was mentioned as one of the ingredients of the Roman’s version of
hamburger?
7. What did the hamburger version in 1700 become part of?
8. Which invention had enabled affordable and delicious meals to be easily made from
meat?
9. What did the White Castle claim about their hamburgers?
10. Besides being a convenient takeout, what was another purpose that burgers were
reputed for?

Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with Norma Powell, who is a
financial advisor, and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11 Young people are tempted to live beyond their means because

A they consider they have a right to use credit cards and store cards.
B they may be unaware of the extent of the debts they incur.
C they may be unable to pay cash for consumer goods.
D they have become more materialistic as a result of using credit cards.

12 Norma believes the main reason young people get into debt is due to
A the large numbers of credit cards available to them.
B the overdrafts they create at university.
C the fact that they can't find a job.
D the lack of financial advice from parents.

13 She thinks that if parents have a responsible attitude to money,

A their children will be more likely to follow their advice.
B they will be able to demonstrate the dangers of getting into debt.
C their children will follow their advice but not their example.
D they will be able to build up some savings for their children.

14 A fixed amount of pocket money

A forces a child to save money.
B teaches a child to budget.
C makes a child feel independent.
D gives a child a saving strategy.

15 Teenagers sometimes find it difficult to save because

A they want to buy clothes all the time.
B they don't want to listen to their parents.
C they are influenced by friends and advertising.
D they have lost sight of what is important in life.
Your answers
11. 12 13. 14 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about a work of literature and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
 CRIME AND PUNISHMENT
16. Raskolnikov lives in ___________ ___________, and from the beginning of the story
he is unable to advance his education.
17. Selling his last worthy pieces to an _________ _____________, he is so desperate
that he devises a robbery and murdering plan.
18. Dostoyevsky’s searing prose brings to life the limitation of 19th century Saint
Petersburg, with examples from dark pubs to run-down buildings and __________
____________.
19. The author shows stories about characters such as Marmeladov, a miserable former
official who has pushed his family to the brink of collapse, and Svidrigailov, an
__________ ____________ royalty.
20. Leaving behind bright career prospects in the military, Fyodor had been captivated by
ideas of ________ ______________.
21. Many comrades of Dostoyevsky were killed, only to be subjected to mock execution
and ___________ ___________ from the Tsar.
22. In the 1864 novella "Notes from Underground," the belief that the contradictory
desire for human soul would never be fully satisfied by _________ _____________ was
asserted clearly.
23. Doctrines of ______ ________________ greatly endorsed by many of Dostoyevsky’s
current scholars have been emulated.
24. Raskolnikov isolates himself from mankind due to his fervent belief in his acumen to
__________
25. Dostoyevsky’s riveting narrative of the social and psychological turmoil depicts a
realistic picture of his punishment and the ____________ __________.

ADVANCED LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 2

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the Ant IPO delay and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.

1. Shanghai authorities disrupted Ant’s IPO at short notice on the grounds of its fragile
business plans.
2. Ant Group’s IPO would have been unprecedented in the fintech industry.
3. Interference from China is the main reason accounting for the questionable status of
Hong Kong as a major financial centre.
4. Winston Ma forecasts that the fintech industry will not cease to enjoy a period of
phenomenal growth in the wilderness.
5. Recent regulations from the Chinese government will shift the role of Ant Group as a
fintech company.

Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about Neptune and answer the questions.
Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in
the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

6. What is the distance between Neptune and the Sun?

7. What is Neptune’s core made up of besides water ice?
8. What gives Neptune blue color?
9. What can strong winds recorded on Neptune do?
10. What is the name of the spacecraft that has visited Neptune?

Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of an interview with an artist about the
subject of art and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what
you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11 How does Brendan feel about his work?

A He prefers negative criticism to no reaction at all.
B His intention is to provoke critics with his art.
C He believes his art can only be viewed subjectively.
D His definition of art is at odds with general opinion.

12 According to Brendan, standing on a chair

A is an example of what art should be.
B would be art if it was intended to be.
C is an example of mediocre art.
D would not be considered art by most people.

13 Brendan says that some successful artists

A are not very good at drawing.
B have not been able to create original art.
C lack the ability to express ideas.
D use excessively old-fashioned techniques.

14 Brendan doesn't think that

A throwing paint at a canvas would constitute art.
B it is difficult to come up with original ideas.
C critics are open-minded enough.
D modern art has nowhere left to go.

15 The invention of the camera

A allowed more people to indulge their passion for taking portraits.
B enabled photographers to imitate life more closely.
C meant that artists were no longer restricted to copying from life.
D changed the way society viewed the role of the artist.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about sleep and supply the blanks with the
missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the space provided.

SLEEP AND MENTAL HEALTH

16. The culprit behind our ________________ relationship to sleep originates from our
ancient understanding of the subject.
17. Parents of small children have a disposition to be in routine negotiations.
18. Every reversal becomes a drama, every disappointment turns into a catastrophe and
every excitement shifts into _________
19. An innovatively ___________ ___________ approach to bedtimes when growing up
can be considered an expression of independence and individuality.
20. There are various ways of expressing our perceptions about lives, ranging from
positive narratives to appalling tales of complete ignorance and ____________
21. When exhaustion sets in, we tend to think in a __________ ____________ way.
22. When we lie in bed, we think that we bear a resemblance to a ______ ____________,
for instance, a rabbit or a squirrel.
23. Given the harsh grown-up life, we need to be free to ______________ ________ this.
24. It is inferred from curled squirrel position that mental problems cannot be universally
handled by ____________ __________.
25. It is not until we have treated ourselves with a ______ _____________ or a long
night’s sleep that we understand the reasons to live.
PRACTICE TEST TEST 3
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about office life and decide whether these
statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.

1. Antony Slumbers believed that employee productivity was the reason for the
establishment of the office.
2. Open-plan offices were characterized by constant distraction and work inefficiency.
3. Unexpected meetings have yet to be proven to foster sudden inspiration or
recognition..
4. Lack of monitoring from bosses is assumed to obstruct straightforward exchange.
5. Some research has pointed out that firms opting out of rigidity tend to draw the best
workforce.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on Black Fungus in India and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

6. Which form do the moles causing black fungal infection take?

7. Among Covid 19 patients, who are most vulnerable to black fungal infection?
8. Which problem with the nose may a patient experience when he or she suffers from
black fungal infection?
9. According to top Indian doctors, what is the culprit behind the rise of infections?
10. Which treatment do patients receive when the infection is identified on time?
..
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a radio interview with a member of a
language revival action group and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.

11. The bill that was recently passed by the Scottish Parliament
A states that Gaelic is the official language of Scotland.
B enables Gaelic to be taught in Scottish schools.
C has benefited teaching in Scottish schools.
D represents a victory for Philip McNair's action group.

12. One of the action group's aims is to

A encourage family members to speak Gaelic at home.
B provide teachers with the incentive and the means to teach in Gaelic.
C recruit and train more language teachers in secondary schools.
D provide Scottish schools with equipment for language learning.

13. McNair attributes the revival of interest in Gaelic to

A the success of a similar language revival campaign in Wales.
B fears that Scottish Gaelic would suffer the same fate as Manx.
C the fact that the Isle of Man now has several hundred Gaelic speakers.
D the fact that Gaelic had been officially declared a dead language.

14. According to McNair, an important factor in achieving the group's goal is

A the view that Gaelic is part of Scotland's cultural heritage.
B the political autonomy that Scotland has finally won for itself.
C the necessary backing to put ideas into practice.
D the pride people take in having a strong cultural identity.

15. How does he regard the latest developments?

A optimistically
B stoically
C impassively
D fanatically

Your answers
 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about Asian unicorn start-ups and supply
the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

UNICORN STARTUPS
16. Bain & Company report has attributed the boom of unicorns in the region to the
increase in private equity investment and ______ ________________.
17. ___________ __________ is the term used to describe a startup company valued at
over $100 billion.
18. August 2020 marks the milestone of Grab in introducing financial services, such as
loans, ____________ __________, health insurance, and a pay-later program.
19. Besides being a service provider for mobile payments, logistics, and food delivery,
Go Jek is a _________
20. Hyal Route owns the largest independent _______ _______________, shared fiber
network platform in Myanmar and Cambodia
21. Traveloka is an online-based company, mainly dealing with flight tickets,
____________ __________, and so on.
22. In the ecosystem of OVO, __________ ____________, business partners and
members are able to conduct digital payment and smart financial services.
23. Store images have been convertible into shelf insights thanks to the combination of
artificial intelligence, machine learning engines and detailed ____________ from Trax.
24. Revolution Precrafted allows customers to live in aesthetically adorned properties by
creating a wide range of customized, ____________ spaces.
25. Singapore and Indonesia will no longer be the exclusive _______ _______________
for unicorns.

PRACTICE TEST 4

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the power of quiet leadership and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. The Extrovert Ideal characterizes great leaders with the qualities of extrovertness,
responsiveness, confidence and impromptu speaking.
2. According to one study, the higher senior leaders scored on the extrovert scale, the less
their staff became satisfied with them.
3. Intrinsic motivation paves the way for the pursuit for materialism.
4. The way leadership courses are designed may undermine the confidence of introverted
people.
5. Inimical attitude can stand out in a world full of soundbites, forcefulness and extreme
thinking.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about the history of fish and chips and
answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What was the status of potatoes before the 18th century?
7. What was the primary target of bread-crumbed filets?
8. Apart from the development of railroad system, what stimulated the shipping of fish to
inland regions?
9. What are the most common supplementary ingredients of fish and chips in the UK?
10. Besides being clean from printers, how was the newspapers used for wrapping?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with two authors called Simon Chirk
and Naomi Glenn, who are talking about getting started as a novelist and choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. Simon thinks that young would-be authors should
A. attempt to get known in another field first.
B. secure the support of a publisher from the outset.
C. devote themselves to the more lucrative types of writing.
D. have sufficient intrinsic motivation to meet the challenge.

12. Naomi suggests that unpublished writers need to avoid

A. trying to combine writing with another occupation.
B. exhausting themselves with a gruelling routine.
C. attempting to work with outdated equipment.
D. becoming distracted from the task in hand.

13. Naomi agrees with Simon's point that a first novel should
A. explore an aspect of a glamorous lifestyle.
B. reflect the writer's own personal experience.
C. seek to replicate elements of recent bestsellers.
D. feature appealing characters in an everyday setting.

14. Naomi and Simon disagree about the extent to which young novelists should
A. do research into unfamiliar subject areas or periods.
B. aim for established genres with large readerships.
C. allow prospective publishers to suggest a theme.
D. concentrate on producing a strong narrative.

15. What point does Naomi make about teenage fiction?

A. Feedback from readers can be very stimulating.
B. Novels need to deal with sophisticated issues.
C. The long-term rewards can be worthwhile.
D. It's easy to develop a loyal following.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about hacking and supply the blanks with
the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the space provided.
THE SECRET LIVES OF THE HACKER
16. In broad terms, hacking can be conceived as ingenious __________ ____________
since this activity aims to exploit the properties of things in an unanticipated manner.
17. The way that Galileo used crooked glass to __________ ____________ can be seen
as a hacking activity.
18. NASA engineers used a hack to save Apollo 13, with a book, a plastic bag and a
___________ ___________.
19. In order to establish a call, phone providers utilized ______ _____________.
20. Many hackers are propelled by the desire to understand the operation of a system, to
____________ and hidden secrets.
21. Steve Wozniak found source of inspiration from his early explorations to embark on
______________ ________.
22. There is an analogy between some types of hackers and security forces working to
protect their __________.
23. Greed, fame, nonconformity and the yearnings to hurt others for _________
___________ are what propel hackers.
24. Another type of hackers is _________ _____________ who aim to deceive people.
25. While hackers themselves value their actions, other people deem what they do as
______ ____________.

PRACTICE TEST 5

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about a chance to rethink the world and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Slightly more than half of English population survived the Black Death after the first
wave of the pandemic.
2. The collapse of the exploitative feudal system could be attributed to the shortage of
agricultural land as against increased labour force.
3. Troop commuting and consumer goods factories provided a nesting ground for the
spread of Spanish flu.
4. In 1948, calls for a unified medical service poured out which led to the establishment
of the Britain’s National Health Service.
5. Online learning will replace traditional schooling in the wake of the Covid-19
pandemic.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about five green projects in China. What
does the speaker say about each of the issues? Choose five answers from the box and
write the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A.The project capitalizes on the market forces to solve environmental pollution.
B. This architectural feat is created based on previous experience of similar constructions.
C. Recently, this project has been entirely accomplished, adding 1GW of the estimated
5.5 GW to the local electricity grid.
D. The purpose of the project is to increase the arability of land in the Gobi desert.
E. Located in a crowded coastal city, this construction has attracted more than 63 million
tourists, mainly from Korea and Japan.
F. In this project, an emitter is bound to produce a fixed amount of carbon into the
atmosphere.
G. There have been grave misgivings from the scientific community about the feasibility
of the project.
H. A combination of two buildings adorned with plants helps to solve air pollution in a
city.
I. The construction is a marketing tactic spreading the image of a national icon.
J. The construction acts as an educational center enhancing visitors’ environmental
consciousness.

Five green projects

6. The Green Towers in Nanjing
7. The China Eden Project
8. The Datong Solar Power Top Runner Base
9. The carbon trading market
10. The Great Green Wall
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a radio interview in which two academics called
John Farrendale and Lois Granger, taking part in a discussion on the subject of
attitudes to work and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. Lois agrees with John's point that

A most people dread the prospect of unemployment.
B the psychological effects of unemployment can be overstated.
C some people are better equipped to deal with unemployment than others.
D problems arise when unemployment coincides with other traumatic events.

12. Lois agrees with the listener who suggested that

A work is only one aspect of a fulfilling life.
B voluntary work may be more rewarding than paid work.
C not everybody can expect a high level of job satisfaction.
D people should prepare for redundancy as they would for retirement.

13. What is John's attitude towards people who see work as a 'means to an end'?
A He doubts their level of commitment to the job.
B He accepts that they have made a valid choice.
C He fears it will lead to difficulties for them later.
D He feels they may be missing out on something important.

14. When asked about so-called 'slackers' at work, John points out that
A they accept the notion that work is a necessary evil.
B people often jump to unfair conclusions about them.
C their views are unacceptable in a free labour market.
D such an attitude has become increasingly unacceptable.

15. Lois quotes the psychologist Freud in order to

A show how intellectual ideas have shifted over time.
B provide a contrast to the ideas of Bertrand Russell.
C question the idea that a desire to work is a natural thing.
D lend weight to John's ideas about increased social mobility

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about the history of chocolate and supply
the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

HISTORY OF CHOCOLATE
16. Central and South America are the places where chocolate was first ________
_________.
17. Liquid chocolate was traditionally added with water, chili or ________
18. Chocolate was used in a wide range of events, from ___________ ___________ to
burial.
19. Chocolate was already a tasty and gratifyingly bizarre ___________ ___________
before the British realized its value.
20. Chocolate is reputed to maintain body warmth, create the pure blood cycle, preserve
the ____________ __________ and rejuvenate cardiovascular organ.
21. Chocolate was labelled as an ___________ owing to its revitalizing effect on female
consumers.
22. The poor was able to gain access to so-called “the food of the gods” because of the
transformation from _____________ chocolate to cocoa powder.
23. The plummet in the price of sugar, coupled with intense rivalry among
______________________ corporations led to the rise in popularity of milk chocolate.
24. There was a huge variety of chocolate bars, boxes and shapes for __________
____________ to pick up.
25. It is scientifically proven that dark chocolate which consists of caffeine, theobromine
and __________ ____________ could trigger happiness, great health and reductions in
stress
PRACTICE TEST 6

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk with the author of a book called The Dolphin
Way and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG).
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. According to the author, Gen Z are very familiar with digital technology and
computers because they have grown up with them.
2. Having a healthy diet will teach children how to find useful information and get rid of
junk stuff on the Internet.
3. Jellyfish and tiger parenting are opposite to each other and there cannot be any
compromise between them.
4. Most Gen Z need a strong sense of purpose in what they do as they are highly public-
spirited.
5. The new era requires every Gen Z to optimally make use of Google by asking the right
questions.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about teeth. What is said about them?
Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order.
A. The accessories made from teeth that the Vikings put on were regarded as lucky
charms.
B. Barbers and blacksmiths had a knack for dentistry.
C. Only after the complete formation of the child set of teeth can the presence of wisdom
teeth be felt.
D. An average person has more adult teeth than milk teeth.
E. Grills and virtual filters can now serve to beautify teeth.
F. The majority of British mature people reported having dental filling at least seven
times during their life.
G. The substitution of toothpaste for natural parts has resulted in a lucrative industry.
H. Sharks have the ability to replenish their teeth once they are lost.
I. A 7-year-old boy was found to have 536 teeth inside his mouth.
J. In the Middle East, children used to be instructed to burn their baby teeth in order to
avoid hardship in the afterlife.

Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-16, listen to part of an interview with two students called Jolie
and Alan about a TV series they watch called ‘The Sensing Brain’ and choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. What point is made about a good sense of smell?

A It is a natural ability that is hard to improve.
B Some people have a far better one than others.
C It can be developed in a similar way to other abilities.
D Some people exaggerate how poor theirs is.

12. What does Jolie say about describing perfumes?

A Experts use a vocabulary that is hard for people to understand.
B Some perfumes are too complex to be described.
C Ordinary people sometimes fail to use words appropriately.
D Some perfumes require a particularly specialist vocabulary.

13. What does Alan say about synthetic smells?

A They are able to mislead people into believing they are natural.
B They have a greater effect on people than natural ones.
C They are seen as more unpleasant than natural ones.
D They vary in their popularity with the public.

14. When talking about smell and the brain, Alan reveals
A his belief that humans have superior smelling abilities to some animals.
B his doubts about whether humans and animals should be compared.
C his suspicion of those who report on experiments in the media.
D his awareness of the problems of conducting accurate studies.

15. Alan and Jolie agree that listening to music while studying
A is beneficial if the music chosen is not too emotional.
B has an undesirable effect on their powers of concentration.
C helps the mind to focus on things that are important.
D has different effects depending on the material being studied.

16. When talking about the next episode of the programme, Jolie shows that she
A is worried about the amount of information there is on the internet.
B has doubts about how good the internet is for people.
C believes the internet makes her own life more difficult.
D trusts in her brain’s capacity to evaluate information on the internet

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

Part 4. For questions 17-25, listen to an interview with Pfizer CEO Albert Bourla on
Covid-19 vaccine manufacturing outlook and supply the blanks with the missing
information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS taken from
the recording for each answer in the space provided.

Both Pfizer and Moderna may not suffer from intensified pressure in vaccine
manufacturing despite a soaring in the number of individuals who could become eligible
to get the vaccine. Instead, a ramp-up in alterations to administer more vaccines is
considered the 17_________at the moment. Pfizer CEO Albert Bourla shared his
confidence in the company’s ability to deliver the vaccines on time thanks to the
18___________ with the US government. This is viewed as a(n) 19 ______________
contrast to the hitherto popular conception that vaccine supply can be insufficient. For the
time being, around 20_________ ____________ have been released. Because of a
21___________ ___________ of an extra dose in the vial and rising productivity in
manufacturing, it is also possible to expect an increased pace of vaccine output on a
22____________ _________ all year round. The six doses have been submitted to all
23___________ ___________ and already been approved by the FDA, WHO, EU,
Switzerland authorities, 24______________________ authorities etc. Pfizer’s
manufacturing team is now 25___________ ___________ in virtually impossible speeds.
 PRACTICE TEST 07

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the struggles for independence in many
countries and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given
(NG). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Several Catalan politicians leading the independence movement were arrested for
holding the illegal referendum.
2. Most secessions across the globe come from ethnocultural groups who demand
independence for their homelands.
3. One of the prerequisites for a region to become a state is that it is recognized by other
states, according to the 1933 Montevideo Convention.
4. No country can simultaneously form diplomatic relations with both China and Taiwan.
5. The establishment of both Somaliland and Eritrea has led to civil wars in these newly-
formed countries.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about journalism. What is said about it?
Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order.
A. Not only intense competition among the media but also emerging business models
originate from the Internet.
B. Journalism is grounded on the notion of freedom of expression.
C. People are captivated by the conflict and bias featured in online sources.
D. Technology provided by tech giants unwittingly results in unselective and unchecked
information.
E. Newspaper has always been a form of tax record.
F. Journalists employ the term “fake news” to accuse populist leaders and interest groups
of deceiving the general public.
G. Journalists should try to discount human input in their articles.
H. Heroic journalists expose child-related abuse perpetrated by paedophiles.
I. The history of journalism is in many ways defined by technological change.
J. Radio reports by BBC brought the atrocities of a civil war to the world.

Your answers
 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a discussion programme, in which a

teacher called Simon and a business journalist called Trina are talking about the issue
of change, and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you
hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. What does Simon say about change when discussing linguistic expressions?
A It is an inevitable part of life.
B It is generally perceived as unwelcome.
C Its significance has altered over time.
D It brings improvements when they're least expected.

12. What do they agree about change in the business community?

A It is regarded as synonymous with progress.
B It is seen as unfortunate but necessary.
C It never seems to be questioned.
D. It can lead to undesirable results.

13. What does Trina dislike about feedback forms?

A the scale of the reaction they can provoke
B the disharmony they can create within organisations
C the extent of their use in the world of education
D the justification they give to managers who want to introduce changes

14. When discussing day-to-day routines, Simon and Trina agree that people
A make too much fuss about small-scale changes.
B find that changes in the workplace mirror those in daily life.
C only like change that clearly benefits them personally.
D experience an ongoing cycle of resisting and accepting change,

15. In Simon's view, people will really enjoy an activity if

A they do it on a regular basis.
B they keep on changing it slightly.
C it represents a change for them.
D it coincides with their expectations..

Your answers
 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a discussion on gender pay gap and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
In response to the PM’s proposal on gender pay gap, several skeptics hold the conviction
that her point is mistaken since the 16______________________ recorded merely
indicates an upsurge in maternity leave. Psychologist Jordan Peterson, when asked what
his 17______________________ was to the PM’s motion, referred to the egalitarian
18______________________ between males and females. According to him, a minority
of men who have remunerative jobs can substantially 19______________________,
which is the rationale behind such a misapprehension about gender pay gap. One barrier
limiting women’s access to top occupations is the fixed 20______________________
involved. One obvious example is the predominance of males in a
21______________________, which requires employees to work
22______________________ of more than 10 hours per day. The comprehensive
explanation is women’s greater responsibility in childcare, yet it is still impossible to
23______________________ such burden. Mr. Jordan believed this could hardly be
considered gender stereotypes, as reducing 24______________________, including
25______________________, to solely one variable can be highly problematic.

For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about private education and decide whether these
statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Enrollment in private primary schools has registered greater increase compared with
that in private secondary schools over the last 15 years.
2. The demand for private schools stems from profound socio-economic changes.
3. Private education plays an important role in solving illiteracy in several massive states
in Pakistan.
4. Inclusivity is one noticeable factor that many private schools lack.
5. High levels of tuition fee in the private sector are understandable considering the high
quality of education that private schools offer.
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about lung cancer. What is said about it?
Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order.
A. Lung cancer is by far the leading cause of death among cancer patients.
B. Heavy smokers and former ones are the main targets of the US national lung-screening
trial.
C. Lung cancer remains a death penalty until further advances in screening can be
achieved.
D. Most nations rely on Nelson’s report to implement complete screening systems.
E. Women reap more benefits from screening than their male counterparts in terms of
reduced mortality rates.
F. Half a million US citizens underwent lung-screening trial every year for three years.
G. The invisibility of initial symptoms exacerbates the severity of the disease.
H. Biopsies are highly recommended for patients before being diagnosed positive with
cancer.
I. Treating the smallest nodules as positive could reduce the rate of false positives.
J. CT scans are a completely reliable method in diagnosing lung cancer.
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a programme in which Amanda and Peter,
two founders of a fruit juice company called Topfruit, talk about their business and
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What opinion is expressed about the way Topfruit was set up?
A It is surprising that it worked out so smoothly.
B Working with friends certainly saved time and energy.
C Having a single founder would have made the launch simpler.
D Since the founders had such similar views it was hard to allocate roles.

12. What is the positive culture of the company mainly attributed to?
A guaranteed salary increases
B the nature of the product that is being sold
C strict adherence to staff monitoring procedures
D certain criteria in the recruitment process

13. How do both founders feel about running their company now?
A They are fed up with dealing with daily problems.
B They feel anxious about whether its success will continue.
C They enjoy the challenges they face in their work.
D They feel pleased that they have acquired a good grasp of business.
14. When describing past mistakes in staffing, Amanda reveals
A her belief that good qualifications are the key factor.
B her acceptance that it is vital to admit failures early on.
C her trust that improvements can be made to the process.
D her fear that senior appointments are impossible to get right.

15. What gives Topfruit an advantage over its larger competitors?

A The emphasis on ingredients which fit market trends.
B The product research based on scientific models.
C The clarity of the labelling.
D The extremely sophisticated advertising.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about gender equality and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
An inspirational song titled 16______________________ is composed by singer and
activist Chris Williamson as an encouragement for females to go with their gut. Back in
history, a 17______________________, including Alice Paul and Lucy Burns, however,
were intent on pushing the gender equality campaigns forward. Among these campaigns
was an enormous parade held in 1913 March in Washington D.C, with the participation
of marchers, floats, bands, chariots, 18______________________, etc. There were also a
performance of 19______________________ at the Treasury building and a large public
meeting featuring eminent rhetoricians. Despite the presence of
20______________________, many male dissidents blatantly expressed their objections
to the campaign by spitting, flinging objects and 21______________________ at female
marchers. Undeterred by these obstacles, the National Women’s party was founded,
persevering in 22______________________, with an estimated 2000 women taking part
in the 23______________________ between January 9th 1917 and June 4th 1919. The
preposterous harassment and imprisonment of 33 females by police in 1917 was later
regarded by a 24______________________ as against the law. The rights were finally in
the hands of women thanks to the unrelenting efforts of more than fifty
25______________________ campaigns and hundreds of other campaigns.

PRACTICE TEST 9
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about Going Zero Waste and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Going zero waste doesn’t necessarily mean completely eradicating trash.
2. While several factors prevent American cities from conducting zero waste initiatives
effectively, most American corporations actually ensure 100% of waste diverted away
from landfill.
3. Only Unilever, Procter & Gamble and Microsoft successfully apply innovative
strategies to reduce waste or power consumption.
4. UVQ carries out its zero waste initiative by changing the form of matter of trash with a
chemical converter.
5. One effortless way to reduce trash lies in our own lifestyles, not in any innovation or
machine.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about diplomatic immunity. What is said
about it? Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order..
A. Most violations committed by diplomats can be overlooked.
B. A German man was to blame for his death in the accident of June 2017.
C. Host country is occasionally delegated prosecution from the convict’s home country.
D. Diplomats are allowed to carry out their duties with little regard for host countries’
legal systems.
E. The practice of diplomatic immunity originated from ancient Indian poetry.
F. Over 16 million dollars in fines to diplomats has not been settled yet.
G. Unsettled criminal case is one side effect of diplomatic immunity.
H. Thanks to diplomatic immunity, diplomats will not be subject to imprisonment and
execution for the rest of their life.
I. The Mongol Empire paid the price for violating agreements not to execute messengers.
J. The Vienna Convention stipulates that diplomats are not required to comply with their
host country’s laws.

Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with a couple who work as
photographers in Africa and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.

11. Why do Bob and Hilary find it hard to organise their photographic trips?
A Ceremonies take place at irregular intervals.
B The information they receive is unreliable.
C The precise timing of events is unpredictable.
D Important messages may not reach them in time.

12. Hilary feels that she and Bob are accepted by the communities they visit because
A they don't rush into things.
B they make influential friends.
C they avoid getting involved with them
D they are able to explain their aims to them

13. When living with a group of people in a remote area, Bob and Hilary
A avoid adopting local eating habits.
B make a point of dressing in local clothes.
C depend on the hospitality of their hosts.
D take a supply of basic provisions with them.

14. Hilary explains that they gain access to very private ceremonies thanks to
A their persistent requests.
B changing attitudes in Africa.
C their long-term relationships with people.
D an acceptance of their role in the ceremonies.

15. Bob and Hilary feel that the significance of their work is that
A it will prevent certain traditions from dying out.
B it portrays traditional ceremonies in a positive way.
C it encourages young Africans to appreciate their heritage.
D it allows comparisons with similar traditions elsewhere.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about how farm animals are linked to
climate change and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE
THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space
provided.
Vehicles and 16______________________ from heavy industry are universally viewed
as the two primary sources of greenhouse gas emissions, which accelerate climate
change. In Australia, methane from livestock, rather than cars or
17______________________, accounts for the third largest share of greenhouse gases.
Interviewed at a cattle sale in Braidwood, George Sheriff said the large amount of
methane emitted by livestock through 18______________________ or bottom birds
could be an enormous burden on farmers in case a carbon tax is imposed. The Rudd
Government, nevertheless, has recently spent lavishly on a research project aiming to
mitigate the influence of 19______________________. In fact, the vast majority of
methane is generated from the front end of the 20______________________ instead of
from the rear end as widely perceived. The frequency that people flatulate might increase
should they consume excessive 21______________________. Similarly, the production
of methane in livestock can speed up if they are put into a 22 ______________________
with unregulated diet. Indeed, besides the sequestering of gases by dung beetles, Martin’s
cattle also follow a self-regulating diet with salts, minerals, and
23______________________. His objections to the government’s research project was
shared by 24______________________ in the Senate- Barnaby Joycer, who dismissed
the program as a sort of 25______________________.

PRACTICE TEST 20

For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about blockchain technology and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Decentralization is inherent to a blockchain system that has higher security than a
traditional bank.
2. Blockchain features immutability which ensures the safety of the transaction data.
3. Instead of relying on the third party, the validation of bitcoin transactions is confined
to participants from certain places.
4. Only by adopting blockchain technology can banks and companies keep up with the
growth rate of fintech startups.
5. Blockchain technology will prevent the government from abusing their power to
disadvantage their citizens.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about five trends in the future of E-
commerce in 2021. What does the speaker say about each of the issues? Choose five
answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
A. The approach helps to resolve a tough problem related to the process of taking orders
and sending products to customers.
B. Companies invest in the human touch as a novel way to enhance their brand image.
C. This solution is created in response to a change in web tracking and targeting method.
D. UX baseline is not required when more consumers are shifting to shopping online.
E. A successful brand is one that appears on the customers’ search, not the one that pops
up after an unbranded search.
F. Augmented reality helps users imagine how products look like on their bodies before
deciding whether to buy or not.
G. Customer retention involves repeated communication through general advertisements
on social media.
H. A product-based strategy makes sure that customers will be satisfied with the products
they’ve bought and will come back.
I. In the E-commerce world, the winners are the ones who can provide a simple and data-
driven operating model.
J. This is a creative tool for a business to deal with returned products that can cause grave
damage.
Five trends
1. The omnichannel approach
2. The incorporation of AR
3. Stores becoming fulfillment centers
4. A new way for brand building
5. Brand loyalty enhancement
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a discussion in which a developer, Faye
Mannia, and an environmentalist, Peter Green, talk about a new government-run trial
and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11 At the beginning of the discussion, it can be inferred that Faye believes the listeners
A are confident their government always acts wisely.
B are unfamiliar with current property values.
C may be biased against her point of view.
D have no knowledge of the trials whatsoever.

12 Peter says that the new government plan

A will lead to a reduction in the diversity of wildlife.
B has not been supported by a single scientist.
C should be delayed by at least ten years.
D may cause property prices to rise too quickly.

13 Faye mentions the iron ore mine in Brazil

A to point out that development is occurring on a global scale.
B to show the importance of increasing employment opportunities.
C to highlight the dangers of allowing poverty to spread.
D to illustrate the need to respond to changing priorities.

14 Peter fears that those involved in the new plan

A will break the law and go unpunished.
B cannot be trusted to pay for the habitats they destroy.
C will use it to their advantage.
D are unlikely to make any compromises during negotiations.

15 Faye accuses environmentalists of

A using the media to attack developers.
B having a lack of foresight.
C not appreciating historic buildings.
D ignoring the wishes of the general public
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about climate change adaptation and
supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is oftentimes misperceived as the world’s fiscal
sponsor, the omniscient and practically immeasurable 16______________________ for
any suffering nations. Indeed, the drive behind this organization’s assistance is likened to
a 17______________________’s, which is nothing but pressurizing the hard-hit
countries to fulfill its requirements. Such a paradox can be seen in the case of Malawi in
1990s-2000s. Besides the HIV/AIDS epidemic that was diminishing overall life
expectancy and 18______________________, the South East Asian country was also
harshly deteriorated by a food shortage due to extreme weather. Under the IMF’s policy
conditions to the early 1990s 19______________________, Malawi had to sell off its
20______________________ to private companies while abandoning its agricultural
subsidy program. The IMF’s suspension of economic aid as a punishment against the
Malawi government for violating such commitments was heavily criticized, with Action
Aid’s 21______________________ of the food crisis being the accusation. In fact, the
emergency situations were completely overlooked by the organization’s rigid approach to
22______________________. It is by now crystal clear that IMF’s assistance was
intrinsically a loan at an 23______________________, an exchange for natural resources
and a vicious circle of corruption and inflation. Therefore, a handful of nations are
24______________________ this financial trap. Free market principles can be a cure for
everything if only 25______________________ the urgency to care for the best interests
of citizens.
TEST 22

PART 1: You will hear an extract of a book review of a classic English novel “Heart of
Darkness” addressing the psychological and social effects of the early European colonization of
Africa. Listen and fill in the table with NO MORE THREE WORDS.

- Marlow’s 1. ____________________ is inspected by a doctor before he departs for

Africa.
- Marlow’s own mind is 2. ____________________upon his travels.
Marlow - He encounters 3. ____________________ women knitting black wool, a doctor who
seems 4. ____________________ at analyzing 5. ____________________ of men.
- He is intimidated by the slaves 6. ____________________and Europeans.
- Despite his former 7. ____________________, he lies to Kuztz’s intended.
- In Marlow’s opinion, Kurtz merely shows a 8. ____________________ by impaling
native heads on his fence posts.
Kurtz
- Marlow threatens to 9. ____________________ him rather than express reason.
- Kurtz dies on the journey back to Europe when he comes to terms with the darkness
that previously 10. ____________________ him.
PART 2: You will hear part of a commencement of J.K. Rowling at Harvard school. Listen
and complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.
Harvard has not only given Rowling an honour but also 11. ____________________________.
She has to breathe deeply, 12. ____________________________ and convince herself that she is
at the world’s largest Gryffindor reunion.
She might inadvertently influence the audiences to get rid of promising careers in some
professional fields for 13. _______________________ of being 14.
__________________________.
What Rowling wants to extol may seem 15. ________________________________ .
Her parents thought that her overactive imagination was
16. ______________________________ .
Now she knows that the irony strikes with the force of 17. ______________________________
Her parents’ car had hardly rounded the corner at the end of the road when she
18. _________________German and 19. ______________________ down the Classics corridor.
Of all the subjects on this planet, she thinks they would have been hard put to name one less
useful than 20. ______________________.

PART 3: You will hear two sports commentators called Heidi Stokes and Rob Aslett taking part
in a discussion on the subject of gyms. Listen and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear.
21. What do Rob and Heidi think about government proposals regarding the problem of obesity?
A. They amplify the role of dietary factors.
B. They represent a radical solution that must be worth trying.
C. They are attempting to accommodate too many varied perspectives.
D. They overstate the extent to which the fitness industry can help.
22. Heidi agrees with the suggestion that regular gym attendance
A. may lead to obsessive behaviour in some cases.
B. can demoralize people from keeping fit in other ways.
C. generally forms the basis of a healthy lifestyle.
D. could be harder to keep up in rural areas.
23. When asked about motivation, Rob suggests that many gym clients lose interest
A. if they don't make it part of a wider fitness regime.
B. if they don't get good value for money.
C. if they don't find it enjoyable on a social level.
D. if they don't perceive real gains in personal fitness.
24. What does Heidi suggest about membership levels in gyms?
A. Inadequate facilities will reduce people’s interest.
B. Most recruit more people than they can cope with.
C. Gym management requires economic and scheduling ability.
D. It is impossible to predict demand with any accuracy.
25. Rob thinks the key to successful gym marketing lies in
A. remaining true to the core values of fitness and strength.
B. joining forces with providers of related activities.
C. specialising in the needs of certain key groups.
D. alluring to a wide cross-section of the population.
LISTENING TEST 23- WEEK 15

I. LISTENING SECTION (5/20 points).

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
 Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghesaukhinghexongcảbaphần.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trên bài.

PART 1. Questions 1-10

You will hear an interview in a TV show about Teletubbies. Listen and fill in the blanks
with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.( 2 points-0.2/ each)

According to the author, Teletubbies are famous (1) __________________ characters.

Po’s voice was given a bit (2)________________ by a five-foot tall actress.
The person who played Laa Laa was a/an (3)_______________.
A (4)____________adds (5)_____________ to Dipsy’s speak.
The physical requirements for Teletubby roles were onerous, which included wrapping
about fourteen blankets round yourself, tying a (6)_____________on your head, cover up
the face so you can‘t see or breathe, go (7)______________ and jump up and down for
11 hours.
The Teletubbies’ outdoor set was located on a (8)___________________.
A man accused a Teletubby of being homosexual for running around with a purse and (9)
______________.
Though retired from the show, Teletubbies are still selling merchandise such as
Teletubby antenna (10)________________ in order to raise fund for research in autism.
 AUTHENTIC LISTENING PRACTICE FOR THE GIFTED

PART 2: Questions 11-20

You will hear five short extracts in which people are talking about their involvement in
award-winning projects related to the natural world.( 2 points-0.2/ each)

TASK ONE
For questions 11-15, choose from the list (A-H) what special feature of the project each speaker
mentions.

A. the utilization of a disparate element.

B. The reprocessing of sectional natural deposit.
C. The ineluctable connexion with the local governing group.
D.Space technology being adopted.
E.A derivative from another region.
F. An amalgam of superannuated as well as au courant approaches.
G. The ontogenesis of a multi-purpose system.
H. A fortuitous finding laid foundation for an approach.

11. Speaker 1: ____

12. Speaker 2: ____
13. Speaker 3: ____
14. Speaker 4: ____
15. Speaker 5: ____

TASK TWO
For questions 16-20, choose from the list (A-H) what positive effect of receiving the award each
speaker appreciated.

A. Muffling those who animadvert upon the scheme.

B. The possibility of relevant information being spread.
C.The amelioration of the initial concept.
D. Regional economy was typified by acceleration.
E. The increment of perception in endangered species.
F. Breakthrough in technology was gifted.
G.The project entailed the larger recruitment of personnels.
H.The opinion of local individuals altered

16. Speaker 1: ____

17. Speaker 2: ____
18. Speaker 3: ____
19. Speaker 4: ____
20. Speaker 5: ____

pg. 30
 AUTHENTIC LISTENING PRACTICE FOR THE GIFTED
PART 3:Questions 21-25
You will hear a program in which Rachel and Ian White talk about their office supplies
company. For questions 21-25, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear.
21.How did the members of the Brisbane Business Network help Rachel and Ian?

A. by galvanizing them into pressing on when being crestfallen

B. by making them heed the idea of snowballing too briskly
C. by kitting them up with the idea of expediency
D. by enjoining feasible sources of financial backing

22.What do Rachel and Ian say about culling one from website design companies?

A. Reconnoiter other websites they have set up.

B. Cinch the ubiquity of your type of business.
C. Divine whether they have the makings of a top-drawer.
D. Attest that you can touch bases with them later if necessary.

23.As regards marketing, they espouse the idea of

A. rejuvenating the database on a regular basis.

B. winnowing tedious techniques out.
C. scrambling to strike up a one-to-one relationship with the clientele.
D. visiting periodically to edify clients on developments.

24.When they are asked for assistance with budgeting, they were pacified to find that

A. they eclipsed their competitors.

B. their accounts were getting more meticulously done.
C. their business was becoming resurgent.
D. their objectives were highly pertinent.

25.Rachel and Ian found it pragmatic to teach others about business plans since

A. they became cognizant of how much they had imbibed over the years.
B. the students equipped them with initiatives and sapience.
C. it jogged their memories of things they obliterated.
D. this helped delineate what they hadn’t fathomed out before.

pg. 31
AUTHENTIC LISTENING PRACTICE FOR THE GIFTED

pg. 32