The magnetic field outside a long straight current-

carrying wire depends on the distance R from the wire

axis according to:

A small 1-mm-diameter circular loop is at the center of

a large 20-cm-diameter loop. Both loops lie in the same
plane. The current in outer loop changes from 2 A to 10
A in 5 seconds. What is the induced current in the inner
loop if its resistance is 1 ohm?

The figure shows the motion of electrons in a wire that

is near the N pole of a magnet. The wire will be pushed:

The current is from left to right in the conductor shown.

The magnetic field is into the page and point S is at a
higher potential than point T. The charge carriers are
_____.

For loop of a current-carrying wire in a uniform

magnetic field the potential energy is a minimum if the
magnetic dipole moment of the loop is:
A bar magnet is moved at a steady speed of 1.0 m/s
towards a coil of wire which is connected to a center-
zero galvanometer. The magnet is now withdrawn
along the same path of 0.5 m/s. The deflection of the
galvanometer is in the:

Choose the correct statement concerning electric field

lines:

The direction of the magnetic field in a certain region

of space is determined by firing a test charge into the
region with its velocity in various directions in different
trials. The field direction is:

Two long straight wires carrying the same current 15 A

exert a force of 0.001 N per unit length on each other.
What is the distance between the wires?

A constant current is sent through a helical coil. The

coil:
An electron moves in the negative x direction, through
a uniform magnetic field in the negative y direction.
The magnetic force on the electric is in the ______.

An electric field is most directly related to:

A “coulomb” is:

With an electromagnet,

The magnetic field B inside a long ideal solenoid is

independent of:
Two long straight wires carrying the same current I and
separated by a distance r exert a force F on each other.
The current is increased to 4I and the separation is
reduced to r/6 . What will be the force between two
wires? Let Fo = F old.

An electron travels due north through a vacuum in a

region of uniform magnetic field that is also directed
due north. It will:

An electron is moving north in a region where the

magnetic field is south. The magnetic force exerted on
the electron is _____.

When a small voltage is generated across the width of a

conductor carrying current in an external magnetic
field, the effect is called the ____ effect.

Two long parallel straight wires carry equal currents in

opposite directions. At a point midway between the
wires, the magnetic field they produce is:
Lines of the magnetic field produced by a long straight
wire carrying a current are:

he figure below shows a rectangular coil of wire placed

in a magnetic field and free to rotate about axis AB. If
the current flows into the coil at C, the coil will:

If R is the distance from a magnetic dipole, then the

magnetic field it produces is proportional to:

A closed magnetic circuit of cast steel contains a 6 cm

long path of cross-sectional area 1 cm² and a 2 cm path
of cross-sectional area 0.5 cm². A coil of 200 turns is
wound around the 6 cm length of the circuit and a
current of 0.4 A flows. Determine the flux density in
the 2 cm path, if the relative permeability of the cast
steel is 750.

The magnetic dipole moment of a current-carrying loop

of wire is in the positive z direction. If a uniform
magnetic field is in the positive x direction the
magnetic torque on the loop is:
Suppose a 1-kΩ resistor will dissipate 1.05 W, and you
have many 1-W resistors of all common values. If
there‟s room for 20-percent resistance error, the
cheapest solution is to use:

A 10-Ω resistor dissipates 1 W of power when

connected to a dc voltage source. If the value of dc
voltage is doubles, the resistor will dissipate how much
power?

An inductor works by:

An advantage of a rheostat over a potentiometer is that:

Two inductors, having values of 44 mH and 88 mH, are

connected in series with a coefficient of coupling equal
to 1.0 (maximum possible mutual inductance). If their
fields reinforce, the net inductance (to two significant
digits) is:
The diagram shows an inductor that is part of a circuit.
The direction of the emf induced in the inductor is
indicated. Which of the following is possible?

Calculate the cross-sectional area, in mm², of a piece of

copper wire, 40 m in length and having a resistance of
0.25 Ω. Take the resistivity of copper as 0.02 × 10¯⁶ Ω-
m.

A wire has a resistance of 5.7 Ω. What will be the

resistance of another wire of the same material three
times as long and one half the cross-sectional area?

A major feature of a pot-core winding is:

A capacitor has capacitance C = 6 μF and a charge Q =

2 nC. If the charge is increased to 4 nC what will be the
new capacitance?
The mutual inductance between two coils, when a
current changing at 20 A/s in one coil induces an e.m.f.
of 10 mV in the other, is:

What is the effective capacitance of the circuit shown

below? C₁ = 10 μF, C₂ = 5 μF and C₃ = 4 μF

A parallel-plate capacitor has plates of area 0.1 m² and

carries a charge of 9 nC. What is the electric field
between the plates?

Which of the following does not affect the inductance

of a coil?

If a short circuit is placed across the leads of a resistor,

the current in the resistor itself would be ____.
Bleeder resistors:

Reading from left to right, the colored bands on a

resistor are yellow, violet, brown and gold. If the
resistor measures 513 Ω with an ohmmeter, it is:

A coil of copper wire has a resistance of 100 Ω when its

temperature is 0ᵒC. Determine its resistance at 70ᵒC if
the temperature coefficient of resistance of copper at
0ᵒC is 0.0043/ᵒC.

A meter-sensitivity control in a test equipment would

probably be:

Inductive reactance results in a current that ______.

Which has more resistance, a 100-ft length of No. 12
gage copper wire or a 100-ft length of No. 12 gage
aluminum wire?

A flat coil of wire, having 5 turns, has an inductance L.

The inductance of a similar coil having 20 turns is:

In a small inductance:

A metal-film resistor:

Of the following, which is not a common use of a

resistor?
A 220-Ω R₁, 2.2-kΩ R₂, and 200-Ω R₃ are connected
across 15 V of applied voltage. What happens to R_EQ
if the applied voltage is doubled to 30 V?

In the circuit shown R₁ > R₂ > R₃. Rank the three

resistors according to the current in them, least to
greatest.

When solving for the Thevenin equivalent resistance,

RTH:

What is the equivalent resistance between points 1 and

2 of the circuit shown below?

A Thevenin equivalent circuit consist of:

Kirchhoff‟s voltage law states that:

Resistor 1 has twice the resistance of resistor 2. The

two are connected in parallel and a potential difference
is maintained across the combination. What is the rate
thermal energy generation in 1?

Kirchhoff‟s current law states that:

In the dc circuit as shown, the high resistance voltmeter

gives a reading of +0.435 volt. What is the value of the
resistance R?

The resistance of resistor 1 is twice the resistance of

resistor 2. The two are connected in series and a
potential difference is maintained across the
combination. Then:
Two 110-V light bulbs, one “25 W” and the other
“100W”, are connected in series to a 110 V source.
Then:

In a series circuit, the largest resistance has:

Which of the following statements is true for the

junction in the network shown below?

When an additional resistor is connected across existing

parallel circuit, the total resistance _______.

A constant-voltage source:
If one of the resistors in a parallel circuit is removed,
the total resistance:

The output of a certain voltage divider is 9 V with no

load. When a load is connected, the output voltage:

A series circuit consists of a battery with internal

resistance r and an external resistor R. If these two
resistances are equal (r = R) Then the thermal energy
generated per unit time by the internal resistance r is:

Two wires made of the same material have the same

lengths but different diameters. They are connected in
series to a battery. The quantity that is the same for the
wires is:

Two resistances of 10 and 15 ohms, each respectively

are connected in parallel. The two are then connected in
series with a 5-ohm resistance. It is then connected
across a 12-V battery, what are the current and power?
Nine identical wires, each of diameter d and length L,
are connected in series. The combination has the same
resistance as a single similar wire of length L but whose
diameter is:

A power station supplies 60 kW to a load over 2,500 ft,

100 mm², two-conductor copper feeder, the resistance
of which is 0.078 ohm per 1000 ft. The bus bar voltage
is maintained constant at 600 V. Determine the load
current.

A battery is connected across a series combination of

two identical resistors. If the potential difference across
the terminals is V and the current in the battery is i,
then:

A complete short develops across one of five parallel

resistors on a PC board. The most likely result is:

In the context of the loop and junction rules for

electrical circuits a junction is:
A 50-microfarad is connected in series with a coil
having 50 ohms resistance and 150 mH inductance. The
source voltage is 100 sin (ωt – 30°) V. What is the
maximum power?

An inductor and a resistor are in series with a sinusoidal

voltage source. The frequency is set so that the
inductive reactance is equal to the resistance. If the
frequency is increased, then:

Capacitive reactance, Xc:

A series RC circuits is connected to an emf source

having angular frequency ω. The current:

Determine the power factor angle in the series circuit

which consists of R = 25 ohms, L = 0.2 H across a
power supply of 200 volts, 30 Hz?
In a sinusoidally driven series RLC circuit the current
lags the applied emf. The rate at which energy is
dissipated in the resistor can be increased by:

In a purely inductive circuit, the current lags the voltage

by:

In a sinusoidally driven series RLC circuit, the

inductive reactance is X_L = 200 Ω, the capacitive
reactance is Xc = 100 Ω, and the resistance is R = 50 Ω.
The current and applied emf would be in phase if:

A series circuit composed of 100-ohm resistor and a 20-

microfarad capacitor connected across a 240 V, 60 Hz
line. Which of the following answers is WRONG?

A series circuit composed of a 0.2 H inductor and a 74-

μF capacitor is connected to a 60 V variable frequency
source. At what frequency will the current be 4 amperes
with a lagging power factor?
When the frequency is increased, the impedance of a
parallel RL circuit ______.

In a purely capacitive circuit, the current:

In an RLC series circuit, which is connected to a source

of emf ε_m cos(ωt), the current lags the voltage by
45° if:

When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series

RC circuit is decreased, the phase angle ______.

What is the unit of the power factor?

For a sine wave, one-half cycle is often called a/an
______.

A coil of 25.0 μH and capacitor of 100 pF are

connected in series. The frequency is 5.00 MHz. What
is the impedance vector, R + jX?

Determine the phase angle in the series circuit which

consists of R = 25 ohms, L = 0.2 H across a power
supply of 200 volts, 30 Hz?

When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series

RC is increased, the impedance ________.

To decrease the phase angle below 45°, the following

condition must exist:
A load of 20 + j35 ohms is connected across a 220 volts
source. Determine the power factor and the VARS.

A capacitance is connected to a 115 V, 25 Hz mains

and takes 5 A. What current will it take when the
capacitance and the frequency are both doubled?

What is the main reason that alternating current

replaced direct current for general use?

In residential house wiring the hot wire is usually color-

coded ______.

The rms value of an ac current is:

What is the relationship between current through a
resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?

If the value of C in a series RLC circuit is increased, the

resonant frequency _______.

In the circuit shown below, what is the current after a

long time after closing of switch?

In the circuit shown below, what is the voltage across

capacitor when switch is closed at t = ∞?

In a series RLC circuit that is operating below the

resonant frequency, the current:
What is the time constant of the circuit in figure
shown?

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor
in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied
voltage?

A two-branch parallel circuit has a 20 Ω resistance and

1 H inductance in one branch and a 100 μF capacitor in
the second branch. It is fed from 100 V ac supply, at
resonance, what is the input impedance of the circuit?

A coil of resistance 25 Ω and inductance 150 mH is

connected in parallel with a 10 μF capacitor across a 60
V, variable frequency supply. Calculate (a) the resonant
frequency, (b) the dynamic resistance, (c) the current at
resonance and (d) the Q-factor at resonance.

For the circuit shown below different time constants are

given:
1. 0.5 x 10¯³ s
2. 2 x 10¯³ s
3. 0.25 x 10¯³ s
4. 10¯³ s
What are the charging and discharging time constants
respectively?
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series
to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what

percentage of the starting voltage after two time
constants?

A 0.5 μF capacitor is connected across a 10 V battery.

After a long time, the circuit current and voltage across
capacitor will be:

The circuit in figure is switched on at t = 0. At any time

t, i(t) =

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a

series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through
resonance?
An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it
overdamped, the value of R

An uncharged capacitor of 0.2 μF is connected to a 100

V, d.c. supply through a resistor of 100 kΩ. Determine
the capacitor voltage 10 ms after the voltage has been
applied.

In figure shown below, what is the current supplied by

battery immediately after switching on the circuit?

What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit?

A parallel LC circuit has a resonant frequency of 3.75

MHz and a Q of 125. What is the bandwidth?
n figure, the capacitor is charged to 1 V. At t = 0 the
switch is closed so that i = e¯ᵗ. When i = 0.37 A, what
is the voltage across capacitor?

What is the total reactance of a series RLC circuit at

resonance?

A two-branch tuned circuit has a coil of resistance R

and inductance L in one branch and capacitance C in
the second branch. If R is increased, the dynamic
resistance

n given circuit below, the switch was closed for a long

time before opening at t = 0. What is the voltage Vx at t
= 0^+?

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series

RLC circuit at resonance?
What is considered the maximum peak inverse voltage
for silicon diode rectifier?

At absolute zero temperature a semi-conductor behaves

as:

An electron in the conduction band:

What is the other name of negative electron?

A conductor material has a free-electron density of 10²⁴

electrons per cubic meter. When a voltage is applied, a
constant drift velocity of 1.5 × 10¯² meter/second is
attained by the electrons. If the cross-sectional area of
the material is 1 cm², calculate the magnitude of the
current. Electron charge is 1.6 x 10¯¹⁹ C.
For a PN-junction we generally have
I. Width of depletion layer
II. Junction barrier voltage
III. Reverse leakage current
Which of the above parameters will decrease when the
temperature of the junction rises?

Before doping the semiconductor material is generally

___________.

At room temperature when a voltage is applied to an

intrinsic semi-conductor:

The two types of current in a semiconductor are:

Calculate the effective densities of states in the

conduction band of germanium at 300 °K.
EG for silicon is 1.12 eV and for germanium is 0.72 eV
thus it can be concluded that:

The atomic mass unit in grams is the reciprocal of

______.

Determine the temperature coefficient of a 5-V Zener

diode (rated 25°C value) if the nominal voltage drops to
4.8 V at a temperature of 100°C.

n case a PN-junction is forward biased:

In the reverse-bias region the saturation current of a

silicon diode is about 0.1 μA (T = 20°C). Determine its
approximate value if the temperature is increased 40°C.
Given Pmax = 14 mW for each diode, determine the
maximum current rating of each diode (using the
approximate equivalent model).

Determine the diode current at 20°C for a silicon diode

with Is = 0.1 μA at a reverse-bias potential of -10 V.

Which of the following is the first postulate of Niels

Bohr to support his atomic structure theory?

Majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor are

______.

In a diode, the region near the junction consisting of

positive and negative ions is called the ________.
Which of following decays decreases the number of
both protons and neutrons by two and may result in a
stable nucleus?

What crystalline structure has a coordination number of

12?

Calculate the maximum fraction of the volume in a

simple cubic crystal occupied by the atoms. Assume
that the atoms are closely packed and that they can be
treated as hard spheres. This fraction is also called the
packing density.

What is considered the maximum forward current for

silicon diode rectifier?

In a semiconductor avalanche breakdown takes place:

The current flow across the base-emitter junction of a
PNP transistor:

A tuned amplifier uses __________load.

Using the given table of collector characteristics,

calculate beta ac at V_CE = 15 V and I_B = 30 μA.

A tuned amplifier is generally operated in

________operation.

In a junction transistor, the collector cut-off current

I_CBO reduces considerably by doping the:
In the figure below, if R₂ open-circuited:

A 35-mV signal is applied to the base of a properly

biased transistor with an r_e = 8 Ω and R_C = 1 kΩ.
Find the output signal voltage at the collector.

Transformer coupling introduces _______ distortion.

For a properly biased pnp transistor, I_C = 10 mA and

I_E = 10.2 mA. What is the level of I_B?

The output signal of a common-collector amplifier is

always:
A common base configuration of a PNP transistor is
analogous to _________of a FET.

When the transistor (CE arrangement) is in the cut off

region, the collector current is ____________.

In normal operation, the junctions of a p-n-p transistor

are:

When a transistor is driven to cut off, ideally the output

is _______.

Which of the following statements is false when a

silicon p-n junction diode is reversed biased:
If the gain versus frequency curve a transistor amplifier
is not flat, then there is _________ distortion.

When a transistor is driven to saturation, ideally the

output is ___________.

The current flow across the base-emitter junction of an

NPN transistor consists of:

The disadvantage of impedance matching is that it

________.

The output of a common-collector amplifier is always:

The base region of a PNP transistor is:

From the figure shown below, if an emitter bypass

capacitor is installed, what would be the new Av?

For a PNP transistor:

Which of the following statements is false about free

electrons in an n-type material:

The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the

frequency at which:
In class A operation, the input circuit of a FET is
_________biased.

Which symbol in the circuit shown represents a field

effect transistor?

Measurements taken with an E MOSFET indicate that

when V_GS = + 4V, I_D = 8 mA and when V_GS = +6
V, I_D = 32 mA. Determine the value of k.

In a FET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off

voltage, the depletion layers ___________.

Measurements on a DE MOSFET indicate that V_GS =

+2V, I_D = 16 mA and when V_GS = -2V, I_D = 8
mA. Calculate the value of V_GS(off)?
The input control parameter of a FET is _________.

A MOSFET is sometime called _______FET.

In a FET, there are _______ PN junctions.

In a FET, I_DSS is known as ___________.

A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ________ to

control the channel current.
When the bias in an FET stops the flow of current, the
condition is called:

In an enhancement-mode MOSFET:

_______has the highest input impedance.

The source terminal of a FET corresponds to the

__________ of a vacuum tube.

A FET has high input impedance because _______.

What is the value of V_P of a P channel JFET having
I_DSS = 12 mA and g_mo = 6500 μS?

The gate voltage in a FET at which the drain current

becomes zero is called _______voltage.

In a FET, I_DSS is known as ___________.

If the source-gate junction in an FET conducts:

The two important advantages of a FET are ________.

The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order of
_________.

Which type of amplifier circuit has the transistor or

FET biased exactly at cutoff or pinch-off when there is
no signal input?

In a P-channel JFET:

One of the main shortcomings of MOSFETs is that

they:

For an E MOSFET, k = 0.001 and V_GS(th) = +2.5 V.

What is the value of the drain current at the point on the
transconductance curve for which V_GS = +5.5 V?

The FET circuit given below in the figure, has R₁ = 3.5

MΩ, R₂ = 1.5 MΩ, R_S = 2kΩ, R_L = 20 kΩ and g_m
= 2.5 mS. Find its output impedance.
A full-wave rectifier uses two diodes, the internal
resistance of each diode may be assumed constant at 20
Ω. The transformer RMS secondary voltage from center
tap to each end of secondary is 50 V and load resistance
is 980 Ω. Find the mean load current.

A half-wave rectifier is used to supply 50 V DC to a

resistive load of 800 Ω. The diode has a resistance of 25
Ω. Calculate the maximum AC voltage required.

The applied input AC power to a half-wave rectifier is

100 watts. The DC output power obtained is 40 watts.
What is the rectification efficiency?

The two types of full-wave rectifier are:

An AC supply of 230 V is applied to a half-wave

rectifier circuit through a transformer of turn ratio 10:1.
Find the output DC voltage.
The DC output of a bridge type circuit is ________that
of equivalent center-tap circuit.

A full-wave rectifier is _____as effective as a half-

wave rectifier.

In a center-tap circuit _________transformer secondary

voltage is utilized.

Transformer is essential in a ________ rectifier.

For the same DC output, the center-tap circuit should

have ____ PIV as compared to bridge type circuit.
The primary function of a center-tapped transformer in
a power supply is to ___________.

The values of L and C in filter circuits for a half-wave

rectifier are ________ as compared to that of full-wave
rectifier.

The DC output of a bridge type rectifier is nearly

_______ than that of center tap circuit for a given
transformer.

In the center-tap circuit shown in the figure below, the

diodes are assumed to be ideal i.e. having zero internal
resistance. Find the average current, I_dc.

For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage

from a center-tap circuit is _____________than that of
bridge circuit.
A crystal diode having internal resistance rf = 20 Ω is
used for half-wave rectification. If the applied voltage v
= 50 sin ω t and load resistance R_L= 800 Ω, find the
I_m, I_dc and I_rms.

What is the maximum rectifier efficiency of a full-wave

rectifier?

In a full-wave rectifier, the DC load current equals 1 A.

How much dc current is carried by each diode?

For high voltage applications, _________ rectifier is

used.

A 1000 V power supply would use ________ as a filter

capacitor.
A 1000 V power supply would use ________ as a filter
capacitor.

The volt-ampere rating of a transformer in bridge

circuit is reduced by ______ as compared to that of a
center-tap circuit.

The output of a half-wave rectifier has AC component

________the DC component.

The power supply in a radio receiver generally employs

______ filter.

In filter circuit, ______ capacitor is generally used.

Gate characteristics of a thyristor:

The effect of the source inductance on the performance

of the single-phase and three-phase full converters:

A resistive load is to be supplied at 3 kV and 1100 A.

The thyristors available are rated at 800 V, 200 A.
Calculate the number of series connected thyristors
required.

At a room temperature of 30°C, what is the minimum

voltage and current required to fire a SCR?

A converter which can operate in both 3-phase and 6-

phase modes is a:
A thyristor half wave-controlled converter has a supply
voltage of 240 V at 50 Hz and a load resistance of 100
Ω. When the firing delay angle is 30°, what is the
average value of load current?

The distinguishing feature and principal advantage of

thyristors is that:

In a 3-phase semiconverter, for firing angle less than or

equal to 60°, free-wheeling diode conducts for:

A GTO like all the other power semiconductor deiced

requires protection against

When the SCR conducts, the forward voltage drop:

UJT oscillators are used for gate-triggering of thyristors
for

Which of the following methods will turn SCS off?

As compared to UJT, SUS:

What is the main difference between the function of the

SCR and that of the triac?

The date-sheet specifications of SCRs and those for

triacs:
Thyristors are used extensively in ______.

A triac is effectively:

In an SCR:

What device does not exhibit negative resistance

characteristic?

Turn-on time of an SCR in series with RL circuit can be

reduced by:
In series connected thyristors:

The frequency of ripple in the output of a 3-phase

semiconverter depends upon:
I. firing angle
II. load-resistance
III. supply frequency
IV. load inductance

The frequency of ripple in the output of a 3-phase

semiconverter depends upon:
I. firing angle
II. load-resistance
III. supply frequency
IV. load inductance

Turn – off time of a thysistor affects its:

A SCR is rated at 75 A peak, 20 A average. What is the

greatest possible delay in the trigger angle if the dc is at
rated value?
Which of the following is not a requirement for
oscillator operation?

Voltage-series feedback ___________the output

impedance of an op-amp.

The _______margin is defined as the angle of 180°

minus the magnitude of the angle at which the value
½βA½is unity (0 dB).

If the emitter resistance is not bypassed (i.e CE is not

connected across it), it results in __________.

Current-series feedback ________the bandwidth of an

op-amp.
The input impedance of a voltage-shunt feedback
amplifier is _________the input impedance of its op-
amp.

The input impedance of a voltage-shunt feedback

amplifier is _________the input impedance of its op-
amp.

The circuit recognition feature of the Colpitts oscillator

is:

The negative feedback circuit in an op-amp Wien-

bridge oscillator is used to:

In an amplifier with negative feedback, the gain of the

basic amplifier is 100 and it employs a feedback factor
of 0.02. If the input signal is 40 mV, determine voltage
gain with feedback.
The total phase shift around a negative feedback loop of
a common-emitter circuit is:

To sustain oscillations, the power gain of the amplifier

may be _____________.

For oscillations to exist and the voltage to sustain the

loop operations, the Barkhausen criterion tells us that
the loop gain βA must be exactly equal to _________.

The biggest advantage that LC oscillators have over RC

oscillators is the fact that LC oscillators generally:

A CE amplifier can be converted into oscillator by:

In RC phase-shift oscillator circuits:

Voltage-series feedback _________the input

impedance of an op-amp.

If the crystal frequency increases with temperature, we

say that the crystal has _________temperature
coefficient.

The input impedance of current-shunt feedback

amplifier is __________the input impedance of its op-
amp.

The transistor in the feedback circuit shown below has

β = 200. Determine feedback ratio. In the transistor,
under the conditions of operation, V_BE may be
assumed to be negligible.
In a practical phase-shift oscillator, each RC circuit
section produces a:

Wien bridge oscillator is most often used whenever:

The circuit recognition feature of the Hartley oscillator

is:

In a feedback series regulator circuit, the output voltage

is regulated by controlling the:

Adding a negative voltage-feedback network to an

amplifier will have no effect on the value of
_________for the circuit.
The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that
causes:

The tail current in a differential amplifier equals

______.

If the input voltage for the op amp shown in the figure

below, is -0.5 V, determine the output voltage.

A low pass active filter connection using an operational

amplifier will provide a constant output:

A second order high-pass filter has a low-end roll-off

of:
The roll-off rate of a second order filter is:

The operational amplifier will only slightly amplify

signals:

Calculate the output voltage „V₀‟ for the following non-

inverting op-amp summer, with V₁ = 2 V and V₂ = -1
V.

Which of the following statements are true about an

operational amplifier?

In the circuit shown below, determine the value of the

output voltage, V₀, when V₁ = + 1 V and V₂ = +3 V.
In the inverting amplifier of the figure shown below,
R_i = 1.5 kΩ and R_f = 2.5 kΩ. Determine the output
voltage when the input voltage is + 0.6 V.

A band pass active filter connection using an

operational amplifier will provide a constant output:

Most linear ICs are:

Why is the CMRR of an inverting amplifier always

lower than that of its op-amp?

What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse

generator?
In plasma deposition method of producing thin film,
what gas is used for silicon dioxide (SiO₂) film?

A P-Channel enhancement type MOSFET (the sort

used in MOS ICs) performs much the same function as
a PNP transistor, except that:

Calculate the output voltage of a noninverting amplifier

for values of V1 = 2 V, Rf =500 kΩ, and R1 = 100 kΩ.

For the summing op amp shown in the figure below,

determine the output voltage (V₀).

Why are virtually all switching-type integrated circuits

called “digital”?
Which of the following is the preferred method of
cleaning solder from plated through circuit board holes?

Which of the following is NOT a production process

employed in monolithic IC fabrication?

By carefully configuring the op-amp external circuit

components the op-amp can be made to function as:

What is the purpose of the group of ICs called “systems

interface circuits”?

A single op-amp circuit has a non-inverting input

through a voltage divider or R₁ = R₂ = 27 kΩ and on the
inverting input side. R_i = R_f 120 kΩ. The resulting
total output voltage characterizes this circuit as a/an:
Which of the following instruments is not a current
operated instrument?

A CRO can be built so that it will display signals from

________.

The voltage V and current i of a device are V = 100 sin

377t, i = 10 sin (377 t + 30°). The power P indicated by
wattmeter will be:

Which of the following instruments has the poorest

overload capacity?

Permalloy core is used in moving iron instruments to:

A DC meter has resistance of 0.1 Ω and current range is
0 – 100 A. If the range is to be extended to 0 – 500 A,
then meter requires how much shunt resistance?

A DC meter has resistance of 0.1 Ω and current range is

0 – 100 A. If the range is to be extended to 0 – 500 A,
then meter requires how much shunt resistance?

Which of the following instruments consumes the

lowest power in measurement?

The principle of operation of watthour meter depends

upon ________ effect.

For capacitance measurement, a ballistic galvanometer

should have:
Which of the following is an advantage of an
oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

To make a galvanometer into an ammeter, connect:

Which of the following contains a multirange AF

voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000
Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each
other to perform quieting tests?

Which of the following method is used for

measurement of high resistances?

Wien bridge is used for measurement of _______.

An ammeter whose resistance is 4 Ω, gives full scale
deflection for a current of 10 mA. Calculate the
resistance which must be connected in series with it in
order that it may be used as a voltmeter for voltages up
to 200 volts.

Power of a 100 kW transmitter can be measured by:

The fixed coil in an electrodynamometer is normally

used as a:

How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a

conventional oscilloscope?

Clamp-on ammeter is used for _____ current.

The deflecting torque for deflection of 45° in an
indicating instrument is 100 x 10¯⁶ N-m. The control is
exerted by a phosphor-bronze spring. Allowing a
maximum stress of 70 MPa, calculate the suitable
length of strip for control spring. Given that Young‟s
modulus is 112.8 GPa and the width of the strip of the
spring is 0.8 mm.

To view a signal on the CRT face it is necessary to

deflect the beam across the CRT with a horizontal seep
signal so that any variation of the vertical signal can be
observed. This horizontal sweep signal has a
______waveform.

What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used

with a voltmeter?

Which of the following AC bridges is preferred for the

measurement of inductance having high Q-factor?

In a ballistic galvanometer, damping follows:

The dc motor terminal voltage supplied by a solid-state
chopper for speed control purposes varies ____ with the
duty ratio of the chopper.

The phase-control rectifiers used for speed of dc motors

convert fixed ac supply voltage into:

A 474 V, DC shunt motor draws 12 A while supplying

the rated load at a speed of 80 rad/s. The armature
resistance is 0.5 Ω and the field winding resistance is
80 Ω. What external resistance to be added in the
armature circuit to limit the armature current to 125%
of its rated value?

If a self-excited dc generator after being installed, fails

to build up on its first trial run, what is the first thing to
do?

The magnetizing current drawn by transformers and

induction motors is the cause of their ______ power
factor.
A 220 V, d.c. generator supplies a load of 37.5 A and
runs at 1550 rev/min. Determine the shaft torque of the
diesel motor driving the generator, if the generator
efficiency is 78%.

The commutation process in a dc generator basically

involves:

Most commercial compound dc generator are normally

supplied by the manufacturers as over compound
machines because:

Retardation test on a dc shunt motor is used for finding

______ losses.

A 150 V DC motor of armature resistance 0.4 Ω has

back emf of 142 V. What is the armature current?
The voltage build-up process of a dc generator is
_____.

In practice, regenerative braking is used when:

Unlike a shunt motor, it is difficult for a series motor to

stall under heavy loading because:

A dc shunt motor is found suitable to drive fans

because they require:

A series motor is best suited for driving ______.

Which of the following load would be best driven by a
dc compound motor?

A shunt generator running at 1000 rpm has generated

an emf of 100 V. If the speed increases to 1200 rpm,
the generated emf will be nearly:

A 3-phase 4 pole induction motor works on 3-phase 50

Hz supply. If the slip of the motor is 4%. What will be
the actual speed?

The series-parallel system of speed control of series

motors widely used in traction work gives a speed
range of about _____.

A series motor is best suited for driving ______.

A 4-pole, 1200 rpm DC lap wound generator has 1520
conductors. If the flux per pole is 0.01 weber, the emf
of generator is

Which of the following dc generator cannot build up on

an open circuit?

The usual test for determining the efficiency of a

traction motor is the ______ test.

The e.m.f. equation of a transformer of secondary turns

N₂, magnetic flux density Bm, magnetic area of core a,
and operating at frequency f is given by:

Which one of the following types of generators does

not need equalizers for satisfactory parallel operation?
What is the difference between binary coding and
binary-coded decimal?

In the given figure, A = B = 1 and C = D = 0. Then Y =

____.

A 7-bit Hamming code is received as 1111101. What is

the corrected code? Assume even parity.

Internally, a computer's binary data are almost always

transmitted on parallel channels, commonly referred to
as the:

The binary-coded decimal (BCD) system can be used to

represent each of the 10 decimal digits as a(n):
The Ex-NOR is sometimes called the _____.

As applied to a flip flop the word edge triggered means:

What is the circuit in the given figure?

What is a disadvantage of CMOS in place of TTL?

When reading a Boolean expression, what does the

word "NOT" indicate?
A necessary condition for a weighted code to be self-
complementing is that the sum of its weights must be
equal to _____.

The circuit of the given figure realizes the function:

Each programmable array logic (PAL) gate product is

applied to an OR gate and, if combinational logic is
desired, the product is ORed and then:

If the output of a three-input AND gate must be a logic

LOW, what must the condition of the inputs be?

Which of the following is not a jump instruction?

Select the statement that best describes the parity
method of error detection:

By adding an OR gate to a simple programmable logic

device (SPLD) the foundation for a(n) _____ is made
possible.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of

using binary-coded decimal (BCD) instead of straight
binary coding?

What is the circuit of the given figure?

Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the

same Boolean expression as a(n):
Assertion (A): The access time of memory is lowest in
the case of DRAM.
Reason (R): DRAM uses refreshing cycle.

Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh

map?

What counter is given in the figure?

The content of a simple programmable logic device

(PLD) consists of:

Why does the TTL family use a totem-pole circuit on

the output?