PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Objective Type Test (Feb-2022) for Recruitment to the post of Principal in the
Department of Higher Education, Government of Punjab
READ INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE FILLING ANY DETAILS OR ATTEMPTING TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS.

Total Questions: 120

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Candidate’s Name ____________________________________________ Question
Booklet Set
Father’s Name ____________________________________________

Date of Birth
DD MM YYYY

OMR Response Sheet No. ______________________________________

Booklet Series No.
Roll No. __________________________

Candidate’s Signature (Please sign in the box)

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do so by the Invigilation Staff. However, in the
meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and subsequently fill the appropriate columns
given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical
Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet, supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in OMR sheet. Use
of Ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or illegible or
incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for orthopedically/visually
impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking correct responses on the OMR
sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 24 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire booklet to
confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly and there are no blank
pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then the candidate should
IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and obtain a new booklet of the same
series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in the relevant
column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their record regarding the
change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question carries 4 marks. There are four options for each
question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (one mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start answering the
Questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
 Section I
1. Which of the following „motto line‟ represents the University Grants Commission‟s
logo?
a) Gyan-Vigyan Vimukte b) Sa vidya ya Vimukte
c) Tamaso ma jyotirgamaya d) Asato ma sadgamaya

2. As per UGC regulations-2018, which of the following statement is not true?

a) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is similar to the

teaching staff of the university
b) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in colleges is similar to the
teaching staff of the colleges
c) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities and Colleges is
similar and does differ like teaching staff‟s promotion criteria
d) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is different from
the non-teaching staff of the university

3. Choose the right option for „The Punjab State Higher Education Council Bill, 2018
(Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018)‟ An Act-
a) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher
Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters
relating to Higher Education and to oversee its development with perspective
planning and monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or incidental
thereto.
b) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State
Higher Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of
Higher Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the
matters relating to Higher Education and to oversee its development with
perspective planning and monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto.
c) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State
Higher Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of
Overall Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the
matters relating to Overall Education and to oversee its development with
perspective planning and monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto.
d) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher &
Technical Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of
Higher & Technical Education in the State and for advising the State
Government in the matters relating to Higher & Technical Education and to
oversee its development with perspective planning and monitoring and for the
matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

4. The latest available General Financial Rules in practice is-

a) GFR-1963 b) GFR-2005 c) GFR-2017 d) GFR-2020

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 5. Form GFR-7 deals with-
a) Compilation Sheet b) Consolidated Accounts
c) Sale Account d) Accession Register

6. Which of the following Article of the Constitution refers that „all moneys received by or
deposited with any officer employed in connection with the affairs of the Union in his
capacity as such, other than revenues or public moneys raised or received by
Government, shall be paid into the Public Account‟.
a) Under Article 281 b) Under Article 282
c) Under Article 283 d) Under Article 284

7. All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government either as dues of Government

or for deposit, remittance or otherwise, shall be brought into Government Account
without delay, in accordance with such general or special rules as may be issued under-
a) Articles 150 and 283 (1) of the Constitution
b) Articles 145 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
c) Articles 150 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
d) Articles 155 and 283 (1) of the Constitution

8. Which of the following section of UGC Act deals with „Prohibition regarding giving of
any grant to a University not declared by the Commission fit to receive such grant‟-
a) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act b) Section 12 (A) of UGC Act
c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 16 (2) of UGC Act
9. Which of the following is true for NIRF & NAAC respectively?
a) NIRF has Five major Parameters while NAAC has Seven major Criteria
b) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Five major Criteria
c) NIRF has Five major Criteria while NAAC has Seven major Parameters
d) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Nine major Criteria
10. As per National Education Policy-2020, „PSSB‟ stands for-
a) Professional Set Standards Body
b) Professional Standard & Selection Body
c) Professional Standard Setting Body
d) Professional Scrutiny & Selection Body
11. As per National Education Policy 2020, India seeks to –
a) ensure equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities
for all
b) ensure inclusive, cost-effective, accountable and equitable quality education for
all
c) ensure inclusive education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all
d) ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning
opportunities for all

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12. Which of the following is a guiding Principle of National Education Policy 2020?
a) Synergy in curriculum across all levels of education
b) Pedagogy to be reconceptualised across all levels of education
c) Critical Assessment across all levels of education
d) Brain-Drain to be stopped at priority basis

13. Sub-section (1) of section 7 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION

COUNCIL BILL, 2018 (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) Search Committee b) Regulatory Bodies
c) Higher Education d) Private Colleges

14. The latest available Regulation for Open and Distance Learning Programmes and
Online Programmes is-
a) University Grants Commission (Open and Distance Learning Programmes and
Online Programmes) Regulations, 2020 (Amendment) 2021
b) University Grants Commission (Indira Gandhi National Open University)
Regulations, 2020, (Amendment) 2021
c) University Grants Commission (Distance Education Bureau) Regulations, 2020,
(Amendment) 2021
d) Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online Programmes Regulations,
2020, (Amendment) 2021
15. As per latest ODL & Online Programme Regulations, „A system to keep track of
delivery of eLearning Programmes, learner„s engagement, assessment, results, reporting
and other related details in one centralised location‟ is best possible through-
a) Synchronous Learning Approach b) Asynchronous Learning Approach
c) Swayam-Prabha d) Learning Management Systems

16. „SWAYAM‟ stands for-

a) Series Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
b) Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
c) Study Webs of Action for Learning of Young Aspiring Minds
d) Series of Webs for Active Learning of Young Aspiring Minds

17. Which of the following National Assessment Centre has been proposed to be set up as a
standard-setting body under Ministry of Education by NEP-2020?
a) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
b) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
c) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Application of Knowledge
for Holistic Development)
d) PARAKH (Perfect Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic
Development)

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18. Which of the following is of prime importance for becoming a successful Principal of a
College?
a) Resources b) Finances
c) Vision d) Acts & Ordinances

19. Match the duties of appropriate Government, Local authority and parents of section A
with their correct matches in section B

Section A Section B

1. Duty of appropriate A. To admit his or her child or ward, as the case may
Government and local be, to an elementary education in
authority the neighbourhood school.
2. Central Government and the B. To ensure that the child belonging to weaker
State Governments section disadvantaged group are not discriminated
against and prevented from pursuing and
completing elementary education on any grounds;
3. Duty of parents and C. To concurrent responsibility for providing funds
guardian for carrying out the provisions of this Act.
4. Duties of local authority D. To establish, within such area or limits of
neighbourhood, as may be prescribed, a school,
where it is not so established, within a period of
three years from the commencement of this Act.

a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

c) 1-C, 2-B. 3-A. 4-D d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

20. What are the objectives of Continuing Rehabilitation Education (CRE) programs?
i. To upgrade the knowledge and skills of in-service and practicing rehabilitation
professionals/ personnel, registered with the RCI under Section 19 of the RCI Act
of 1992.
ii. To update professional knowledge and skills of master trainers working in the field
of disability rehabilitation and special education.
iii. To provide job opportunities to special educators.
iv. To raise funds for special education institutes.

Choose the correct option:

a) iii and iv b) ii and iii c) i and iii d) i and ii

21. India‟s first AYUSH university will be set up in which state of India?
a) Sikkim b) Haryana c) Karnataka d) West Bengal

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22. State institutions according to NEP -2020 aim to offer law education considering
bilingual education for future lawyers and judges. Which of the following languages are
considered for this?

a) English and Hindi

b) English and Sanskrit
c) English and the language of the state of the institutions
d) Hindi and the language of the state of the institutions

23. Which of the following are the missions of NAAC?

i. To arrange for periodic assessment and accreditation of institutions of higher

education.
ii. To stimulate the academic environment for promotion of quantity of teaching
learning.
iii. To encourage self-evaluation, accountability, autonomy and innovations in higher
education;
iv. To undertake quantity-related research studies, consultancy and training
programmes, and
v. To collaborate with other stakeholders of higher education for quality evaluation,
promotion and sustenance.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, iii, v c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i, iv, v

24. According to the NEP - 2020, four structures will be set up as four independent
verticals within one umbrella Institution, the Higher Education Commission of India
(HECI). Which among the following does not come under the four independent
verticals?

a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)

b) National Assessment Council (NAC)
c) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC)
d) General Education Council (GEC)

25. NITI Aayog has recommended the replacement of Medical Council of India (MCI) with
a) National Medical Commission
b) National council of Medical Sciences
c) Medical Commission in India
d) National council of Medical Education

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26. Match the followings

Statutory body Function

A. BCI i) Regulates the standards of technical Education in
India
B. RCI ii) Regulates the standards of legal practice and legal
Education in India
C. MCI iii) Regulate and monitor services given to persons with
disability in India
D. AICTE iv) Regulates the standards of Medical Education in
India

Choose the correct answer from the given below options

a) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iii); D-(iv) b) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)
c) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i) d) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(iii)

27. NAAC provides highest Grade A++ with a Cumulative Grade Point Average (CGPA)
which is:
a) 3.51 - 4.00 b) 3.53 - 4.50 c) 3.53 - 5.50 d) 4.53 - 5.50

28. Which one of the following is not the feature of the System audit?
a) Verification of controls in the processing of information and installation of
systems to evaluate their effectiveness and also present some recommendations
and advice
b) Verifying and judging information subjectively
c) Examination and evaluation of the process in terms of computerization and data
processing.
d) Verification of controls in information processing and system installation to
assess their efficacy and provide some recommendations and advice

29. Which of the following is not the type of budget?

a) Zerobase – budget b) sales budget
c) De-nova budget d) energy budget

30. Which of the following is the correct sequence for Staff recruitment?
a) Interview, Job analysis, Advertisement, Selection and Appointment.
b) Advertisement, Interview, Job analysis, Selection and Appointment.
c) Job analysis, Advertisement, Interview, Selection and Appointment.
d) Advertisement, Job analysis, Interview, Selection and Appointment.

31. Principal of a college plans the target of activities and programmes to be undertaken in
next five years. This is an example of:
a) Grass root planning b) Perspective planning
c) System‟s approach to planning d) Micro planning

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32. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A budget is a balanced estimate of expenditure and receipts

of a given period of time.

Reason (R): In the hands of an educational administrator, the budget is a

record of past performance, a method of current control and a
projection of future plans.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

33. Which of the following committee constituted by the University Grants Commission
has recommended the PPP model in higher education?
a) Swami Ranganathan committee b) Dr. Swaminathan committee
c) Prof. Yashpal committee d) K.B. Pawar committee

34. Which of the following General financial rules say that, “No authority may incur any
expenditure or enter into any liability involving expenditure or transfer of moneys for
investment or deposit from public funds (Consolidated Fund / Contingency Fund and
the Public Accounts) unless the same has been sanctioned by a competent authority”?
a) GFR-17, Rule 15 b) GFR-17, Rule 19
c) GFR-17, Rule 22 d) GFR-17, Rule 24
35. The University Grants Commission of India has the following responsibilities:
i. Promote and coordinate higher education.
ii. Appointment of vice chancellors
iii. Maintain standard of teaching examination and research activities
iv. Advise Central and state government on measures to be taken for improving higher
education
v. Provide funds for higher education.

Choose the correct option:

a) Only i, iii, iv and v are correct b) Only i, ii, iii and v are correct
c) Only i, ii, iii and iv are correct d) All of the above are correct

36. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: University established by Central/ State act Under 2(f) of the UGC Act,
1956.

Statement II: Deemed to be university is declared by a notification of the Central

Government, on the advice of UGC, under section 6 of the UGC Act

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 1956. In the light of the above statement, choosing the most appropriate
answer from the option given below:
a) Both statements I and statement II are true
b) Both statements I and statement II are false
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

37. In the two sets given below

Set – I specifies the type of power exercised by an Educational Administrator and

Set - II gives the description of these powers.

Match the two and select your answer from the code.

Set - I (Type of power) Set - II (Description)

(A) Coercive power (i) The perception that the administrator has relevant
education and experience
(B) Reward power (ii) The perceived attractiveness of interaction
(C) Legitimate power (iii) The perceived ability to provide things liked by the
members
(D) Expert power (iv) The perception that decisions taken by the administrator
are appropriate in terms of the role assigned
(v) Perceived ability to provide consequences for not
performing
Code:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
b) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)
c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

38. Supervision in college administration should be primarily

a) Preventive and critical b) Preventive and corrective
c) Constructive and critical d) Constructive and creative

39. As per NAAC, which of the following is not an advantage of Grading (CGPA)
a) Letter grades converted to Numerical Grade Points
b) Qualitative measurements converted to grade points
c) Lesser scope for normalizing the scores
d) Extreme biases (if any) could be minimized

Principal (Higher Education) A-9

40. As per NEP-2020, the major characteristics of „Multidisciplinary Universities‟ will be-
a) having at least 20 departments b) having minimum of 3000 students
c) having at least 200 teachers d) having at least 120 female teachers

41. Vocational education will be integrated into all schools and higher education
institutions in a phased manner over the next decade. Which of the following
committee/commission has been proposed by NEP-2020 in this regard?
a) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)
b) National Commission for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)
c) National Committee for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)
d) National Commission for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)
42. A College Principal should-
i. Provide inspirational and motivational value-based academic and executive
leadership to the college through policy formation, operational management,
optimization of human resources and concern for environment and
sustainability;
ii. Conduct himself/herself with transparency, fairness, honesty, highest degree of
ethics and decision making that is in the best interest of the college;
iii. Act as steward of the College‟s assets in managing the resources responsibility,
optimally, effectively and efficiently for providing a conducive working and
learning environment;
iv. Promote the collaborative, shared and consultative work culture in the college,
paving way for innovative thinking and ideas;
v. Endeavour to promote a work culture and ethics that brings about fulfilling the
interest and satisfaction of Principal as an individual.

Choose the correct option-

a) i, iii & v only b) i, ii, iii & iv only
c) i, ii, iii & v only d) i, iii, iv & v only
43. PFMS stands for-
a) Personalized Financial Management System
b) Public Fund Management System
c) Public Financial Maintenance System
d) Public Financial Management System

44. Which section of UGC Act deals with- “University” means a University established or
incorporated by or under a Central Act, a Provincial Act or a State Act, and includes
any such institution as may, in consultation with the University concerned, be
recognised by the Commission in accordance with the regulations made in this behalf
under this Act.
a) Section 2 (e) of UGC Act b) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act
c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 13 (1) of UGC Act

Principal (Higher Education) A-10

45. Which of the following statements are not true regarding professional education
according to the New Educational Policy 2020?
i. Professional Education becomes an integral part of overall higher education system.
ii. Universities like agricultural, legal, health Science, technical and other universities
shall aim to become Uni-disciplinary institutions offering their disciplines.
iii. Technical education will not be offered within multidisciplinary education
institutions anymore.
iv. All institutions offering either professional or general education will aim to
organically evolve I to Institutions/clusters offering both seamlessly and in
integrated manner by 2030.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii b) ii and iii c) ii, iii, and iv d) i, ii, iii, iv

46. STEM Educational approach in undergraduate programme have showed

i. Positive Learning outcomes
ii. Decreased creativity and Innovation
iii. Increased creativity and Innovation
iv. Mastery of curricula across fields
v. Negative learning outcomes

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options

a) i, iii & iv b) ii, iv & v c) iii, v & i d) iv, i & ii

47. Education 4.0 is a desired approach to learning based on

i. Industrial Revolution 5.0
ii. Industrial Revolution 4.0
iii. Advanced technology
iv. Automation system and artificial intelligence
v. Evergreen Revolution

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options

a) i, iv & v b) ii, iii & iv c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

48. Keeping in view the continuous cycle of improvement, which of the following is in
proper sequence?
a) Plan-Do-Check-Act b) Plan-Check-Do-Act
c) Do-Check-Act-Plan d) Check-Do-Act-Plan

49. The chief responsibility of the Principal is to

a) Provide leadership in the institutional programme
b) Organize and administer the guidance programme
c) Listen to parental criticism
d) All of the above

Principal (Higher Education) A-11

50. Which of the following come under mandate of the University Grants Commission?
i. Promotion and coordination of University education
ii Determining and monitoring standards of teaching examination and research in
universities
iii. Organising continuous professional development programs for college and
university teachers
iv. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education
v. Disbursing and regulating grants to the Universities and colleges

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iv, v b) i, ii, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i ,iii, iv, v

51. Choice Based Credit System in higher education was recommended by

_______________ .
a) Justice Verma Commission
b) Administrative and Academic Reform committee of the UGC
c) Academic and Research committee of the UGC
d) Chattopadhyay Committee

52. Which of the following is best possible means to achieve long term objectives?
a) strategies b) policies
c) opportunities d) assertive efforts

53. Which of the following option is most suitable for decision making?
a) rules b) procedure c) goals d) policies

54. Which of the following is not a „Ranking Framework‟?

a) Time Ranking b) RS Ranking
c) QS Ranking d) ARWU Ranking

55. The first vertical of HECI, i.e. NHERC will exclude-

i. teacher education
ii. medical education
iii. legal education
iv. agricultural education

choose the correct option-

a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) i & iv

56. Latest available General Financial Rule 5 on „Removal of Doubts‟ says-

a) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these
Rules, the matter shall be referred to the Chairperson of University/College
Finance Committee.
b) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these
Rules, the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Finance for decision.

Principal (Higher Education) A-12

 c) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these
Rules, the matter shall be referred to the Board of University/College
Management.
d) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these
Rules, the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Education for decision.

57. Sub-section (1) of section 6 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION

COUNCIL BILL, 2018. (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) The powers and functions of the Member Secretary of the Council
b) The powers and functions of the Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Council
c) The powers and functions of the of the Council Members
d) The powers and functions of the Council for preparing State Higher Education
Plan

58. Which of the following is least important for becoming a successful Principal of a
College?
a) Geographical Location of the College
b) Number of Programmes in the College
c) Diversity of Teachers and Students
d) Finances

59. Equity and inclusion in Higher Education can be promoted by

i. Gender balance in admission
ii. Special curriculum for disadvantage groups
iii. Inclusive Curriculum
iv. Develop bridge course for students come from disadvantage groups
v. Enhance the digital divide

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options

a) i, iv & v b) ii, iv & v c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

60. Distance Education Bureau in India is a bureau of-

a) UGC b) AICTE c) IGNOU d) NIT

61. Which of the following are the rights of statutory auditors?

i. To receive remuneration
ii. To attend board of director‟s meeting
iii. To attend the general meeting
iv. To visit the branch office

Choose the correct option:

a) i & ii b) i, ii & iv c) i, ii, iii & iv d) i, iii & iv

Principal (Higher Education) A-13

62. What do you understand with the term Inter Corporate Deposits (ICD)?
a) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured long-term deposits made by a company
with an additional company.
b) Inter Corporate Deposits are secured short-term deposits made by a company
with another company.
c) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with another company
d) Inter Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with an alternative company

63. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Institutional autonomy guarantees academic freedom.

Statement II: Academic freedom is not possible without institutional autonomy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option
below:
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
64. Identify key result areas of the skill acquisition and knowledge awareness for livelihood
promotion (SANKALP) Project:

i. Institutional strengthening
ii. Promotion of handicraft and carpet sector skills
iii. Quality assurance
iv. Inclusion
v. Overseas employment through an agency
vi. Expanding skills through public private partnership
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
a) i, ii, iii and iv b) i, iii, iv and vi c) i, iii, iv and v d) ii, iv, v and vi

65. The major aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC is to:
a) Address the shortage of faculty in the Higher Education Institution
b) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty
c) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty
d) Strengthen the academia-industry linkage

66. Which combination of following characteristics correctly describes the Bureaucratic

Administration?
(i) Well defined rules
(ii) Established hierarchy

Principal (Higher Education) A-14

 (iii) Standard operating procedures
(iv) Good interpersonal relationships
(v) Combined responsibility of completing work

Code:
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) b) (i), (ii) and (v)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

67. Fundamental purpose for the existence of any institution is described by its-
a) Policies b) mission c) procedures d) strategy

68. Which of the following is not a criteria of NAAC evaluation?

a) Curricular Aspect b) Teaching Learning and Evaluation
c) Perception d) Student Support & Progression

69. As per NEP-2020, in relation to teacher education, which of the following statement is
wrong?
a) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. offered by such multidisciplinary HEIs will, by
2030, become the minimal degree qualification for school teachers.
b) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. will be a dual-major holistic Bachelor‟s degree.
c) The HEI offering the 4-year integrated B.Ed. may also run a 2-year B.Ed., for
students who have already received a Bachelor‟s degree in a specialized subject.
d) A 1-year B.Ed. may also be offered for candidates who have received a 3-year
undergraduate degree in a specialized subject.

70. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement is wrong for Curbing
Commercialization of Education-
a) Private HEIs having a philanthropic and public-spirited intent will be
encouraged through a progressive regime of fees determination
b) Transparent mechanisms for fixing of fees with an lower limit, for different
types of institutions depending on their accreditation
c) Multiple mechanisms with checks and balances will combat and stop the
commercialization of higher education
d) All education institutions will be held to similar standards of audit and
disclosure as a „not for profit‟ entity

71. Governance of universities was the main theme of

a) Radha Krishnan Commission b) Mudaliar Commission
c) Gajendra Gadkar Committee d) Yashpal Committee

72. „Board of Studies‟ is constituted

a) Department/Subject wise b) Faculty wise
c) University/College wise d) All of the Above

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73. Formative assessment of students means
a) Continuous evaluation b) External Evaluation
c) Self-Assessment d) None of the above

74. Controller of Examination is also a member of

a) Executive Council b) Finance Committee
c) Board of Studies d) (A) and (B) above

75. Which is the oldest university among the following?

a) Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar
b) Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot
c) Central University of Punjab, Bhatinda
d) Punjabi University, Patiala

76. The principals of colleges who are members of the Senate of the university are
classified under the category of
a) ex officio fellows b) ordinary fellows
c) academic fellows d) college fellows

77. Ordinances of the university are made, amended, repealed or added by

a) the Senate b) the Vice Chancellor
c) the Syndicate d) the Academic Council

78. NPST, as suggested by NEP-2020, stands for-

a) National Professional Standards for Teachers
b) New Professional Standards for Teachers
c) National Professional Set-up for Teachers
d) National Professional Standards for Training

79. Grants from state government to universities and colleges for creation of assets is often
of
a) Recurring nature b) Non Recurring nature
c) Both a and b above d) Non fluctuating nature

80. Which is the most important component of expenditure in higher educational

institutions?
a) Capital Expenditure
b) Library and research
c) Construction and maintenance of buildings
d) Salaries

Principal (Higher Education) A-16

81. According to the All India Survey of Higher Education 2019-20, the number of colleges
in Punjab is
a) 1089 b) 1079 c) 997 d) 993
82. According to the 10th report on All India Survey on Higher Education for 2019-20 the
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in Higher education in India is
a) 25.2% b) 26.1% c) 26.3% d) 27.1%
83. Which state has the largest number of women universities?
a) Maharashtra b) Kerala c) Rajasthan d) Tamil Nadu
84. Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is an initiative of
a) NAAC b) NCTE c) NIEPA d) AICTE
85. Which sections of the UGC Act are often referred to whenever NAAC peer team visits
any higher education institution?
a) 2 (f) b) 12(b)
c) Both (A) and (B) d) None of the above
86. National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA) is a
a) Central University b) Deemed to be University
c) State University d) Autonomous College
87. National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) is operationalized by
a) AICTE b) NAAC c) NCTE d) UGC

88. Who was the Chairman of the Committee which drafted the National Education Policy
2020?
a) Dr. KKasturirangan b) Dr. Anand Krishnan
c) Dr. Krishna Kumar d) Dr. S.Ravichandra Reddy

89. National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF) is to be framed by the

a) NAAC b) UGC c) GEC d) NAC
90. The Academic and Administrative Reforms Committee of UGC has given
recommendations in respect of curriculum development suggesting some needed steps.
Identify from the following list:
1. Development of Model Curriculum
2. Updation/ revision of curriculum to a limited extent every year and
substantially every three years
3. Updation of curriculum to be carried out in terms of current knowledge,
national and international developments
4. Fresh entrants to be given induction training
5. Curricular transactions and synergies of all faculty members

Choose the answer from the option given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 5

Principal (Higher Education) A-17

91. In higher educational institutions, Eminent Expert Committee (EEC) is to be constitute
by
a) Central Government b) Board of Governors
c) State Government d) The Vice Chancellor

92. Which of the following is not external audit evidence?

a) Quotation b) Confirmation from debtors
c) Goods received a note d) Confirmation from bankers

93. Grants under RUSA for quality improvement are meant for
a) State Universities b) Government Colleges
c) Government aided Colleges d) All of the above

94. With how many members as per Punjab Higher Education Commission Act 2014
„Accreditation Committee‟ is formed
a) Five b) Three c) Seven d) Two

95. Full form of AQAR is

a) Annual Quality Assessment Report
b) Annual Quality Assurance Report
c) Assessment of Quality Annual Report
d) Assurance of Quality and Accreditation Report

96. Which of the following are recent educational modes in distance education?
i. MOOCs
ii. Virtual labs
iii Open Air classroom
iv. Virtual Classroom
v. Integrated Classroom

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, ii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i and iv

97. Which one of the following is not included in the objectives of BGC Component (I)?
a) To provide grants to the colleges for strengthening basic infrastructure and meet
their basic needs like books & journals including book banks, scientific
equipment, campus development, teaching aids, and sports facilities
b) To support Visually Challenged Teachers
c) To encourage outreach activities, adult and continuing education in the
neighbouring areas where the college is located so that the society as a whole is
benefited
d) To support Travel Grant to the college teachers for presenting papers in
national/international conferences/seminars/symposia

Principal (Higher Education) A-18

 98. The highest college density is located at:
a) Maharashtra b) Punjab
c) Karnataka d) Uttar Pradesh
99. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement in relation to CMP is wrong?
a) Teachers doing outstanding work must be recognized and promoted, and given
salary raises
b) A robust merit-based structure of tenure, promotion, and salary structure will be
developed
c) In the context of careers, „tenure‟ refers to confirmation for permanent
employment, without assessment of performance and contribution.
d) A system of multiple parameters for proper assessment of performance will be
developed.

100. Which of the following is not an indicator of „Outreach & Inclusivity‟ parameter of
NIRF?
a) Percentage of Women
b) Economically & Socially Challenged Students
c) Facilities for Physically Challenged Students
d) Metric for number of Students

Section II
101. Malala Yousafzai Scholarship Bill has been introduced in
a) USA b) Pakistan c) India d) Sweden
102. Which one of the following is the first electric vehicle friendly highway in India?
a) Mumbai- Ahmedabad b) Delhi- Chandigarh
c) Chennai-Bengaluru d) Panipat-Ambala.
103. Women were allowed to sit for which exam following the Supreme Court interim
Order.
a) UPSC b) CDS c) JCO d) NDA
104. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in the field of cinema which is
presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film
Festivals, an organisation set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
2. The award was introduced by the Government of India to commemorate Dadasaheb
Phalke's contribution to Indian cinema who is popularly regarded as "the father of
Indian cinema".
3. Dadasaheb Phalke directed India's first full-length feature film, Alam Ara in 1931.
4. Legendary actor Rajinikanth was honoured with the 51st Dadasaheb Phalke Award
for his contribution to Indian Cinema.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Principal (Higher Education) A-19

105. The largest Aromatic Garden in India is situated in which of the following states?
a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Uttarakhand d) Sikkim

106. Iconic Indian comic book cartoon character, Chacha Chaudhary, whose brain works
faster than a computer, has been declared as the official mascot for which centrally-
sponsored programme?
a) Namami Gange Programme b) Ayushman Bharat Yojana
c) Digital India d) AMRUT
107. Which Indian Institute of Technology topped in overall category in the NIRF India
Rankings 2021?
a) IIT Roorkee b) IIT Madras
c) IIT Delhi d) IIT Kanpur

108. Consider the following statements regarding Tokyo Paralympics, 2021:

1. The Games featured 539 medal events in 22 sports

2. China topped the medal table, Great Britain finished second, the United States
finished third and India finished twenty fourth
3. India secured a total of 19 medals which includes 5 Gold, 8 Silver, and 6 Bronze
medals

Which of the above statement/s is correct?

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

109. Which state Police launched a new initiative called the „Pink Protection Project‟ for the
protection of women in public, private and digital spaces?
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka

110. Consider the following statements

1. The Booker Prize, a leading literary award in the English speaking world, is awarded
to the best novel of the year written in English and published in the UK and Ireland
2. Damon Galgut won the 2021 Booker Prize for Fiction for his novel „The Promise‟
3. Damon Galgut also won the Booker Prize for Fiction earlier in the years 2003 and
2010

Which of the above statement/s is correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Principal (Higher Education) A-20

111. Which of the following statements with respect to Ken-Betwa inter-linking of rivers
project, is/are Correct?

(i) This is the country‟s first river interlinking project.

(ii) The project aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in UP to Betwa
in MP.
(iii) The National Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA) has the powers to set up
SPV for individual link projects.
(iv) The project involves building a 77-metre tall and a 2-km wide Dhaudhan dam
and a 230-km canal.

a) i, ii and iii b) i, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i, ii, iv

112. A number is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will
continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces-

1, 4, 27, 16, ________, 36, 343

a) 121 b) 125 c) 244 d) 81

113. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. Then A
turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the
starting point?

a) 5km b) 4km c) 10km d) 8km

114. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth, the
seventh and the eleventh letters of the word DISTRIBUTION which of the following
will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed give X as answer.

a) O b) I c) X d) B

115. R is father of P. Q is sister of R. T is mother of Q. How is P related to T?

a) Grandmother b) Uncle
c) Granddaughter d) Aunt

116. If NOBLE is 48, NOVICE is 68, then what is CHILDREN?

a) 78 b) 69 c) 73 d) 63

117. What is mirror Image of ILAIALIIALAILAILA ?

a) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃IAII⅃AIA⅃I
b) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AII⅃AIA⅃I
c) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I
d) A⅃IA⅃IIA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I

Principal (Higher Education) A-21

118. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the
ball. Saurabh is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenny and Bunty are side by side behind
Saurabh. Zicco is behind Jenny and Bunty. Saurabh tries for the tackle but misses and
falls. Bunty trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?

a) Saurabh b) Zicco c) Jenny d) Bunty

119. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

gorblflur means seat belt
pixngorbl means car seat
arthtusl means tyre roof
Which word could mean "car tyre"?
a) gorbltusl b) flurgorbl c) arthflur d) pixnarth

120. It was Saturday on 31st December, 2005. What was the day of the week on Jan 31,
2010?
a) Saturday b) Sunday c) Monday d) Tuesday

******

Principal (Higher Education) A-22

 Rough Work

Principal (Higher Education) A-23

Principal (Higher Education) A-24
 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Objective Type Test (Feb-2022) for Recruitment to the post of Principal in the
Department of Higher Education, Government of Punjab
READ INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE FILLING ANY DETAILS OR ATTEMPTING TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS.

Total Questions: 120

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Candidate’s Name ____________________________________________ Question
Booklet Set
Father’s Name ____________________________________________

Date of Birth
DD MM YYYY

OMR Response Sheet No. ______________________________________

Booklet Series No.
Roll No. __________________________

Candidate’s Signature (Please sign in the box)

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do so by the Invigilation Staff. However, in the
meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and subsequently fill the appropriate columns
given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark
Reader (OMR) response sheet, supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in OMR sheet. Use of Ink
pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or illegible or
incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for orthopedically/visually impaired
candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 24 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire booklet to confirm
that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly and there are no blank pages. In
case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this
fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in the relevant
column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their record regarding the change
in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question carries 4 marks. There are four options for each question
and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (one mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start answering the
Questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
 Section I

1. Identify key result areas of the skill acquisition and knowledge awareness for livelihood
promotion (SANKALP) Project:

i. Institutional strengthening
ii. Promotion of handicraft and carpet sector skills
iii. Quality assurance
iv. Inclusion
v. Overseas employment through an agency
vi. Expanding skills through public private partnership

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

a) i, ii, iii and iv b) i, iii, iv and vi c) i, iii, iv and v d) ii, iv, v and vi

2. The latest available Regulation for Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online
Programmes is-

a) University Grants Commission (Open and Distance Learning Programmes and

Online Programmes) Regulations, 2020 (Amendment) 2021
b) University Grants Commission (Indira Gandhi National Open University)
Regulations, 2020, (Amendment) 2021
c) University Grants Commission (Distance Education Bureau) Regulations, 2020,
(Amendment) 2021
d) Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online Programmes Regulations,
2020, (Amendment) 2021

3. Ordinances of the university are made, amended, repealed or added by

a) the Senate b) the Vice Chancellor

c) the Syndicate d) the Academic Council

4. Which sections of the UGC Act are often referred to whenever NAAC peer team visits any
higher education institution?

a) 2 (f) b) 12(b)
c) Both (A) and (B) d) None of the above

Principal (Higher Education) B-2

5. Match the followings

Statutory body Function

A. BCI i) Regulates the standards of technical Education in India
B. RCI ii) Regulates the standards of legal practice and legal
Education in India
C. MCI iii) Regulate and monitor services given to persons with
disability in India
D. AICTE iv) Regulates the standards of Medical Education in India

Choose the correct answer from the given below options

a) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iii); D-(iv) b) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)
c) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i) d) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(iii)

6. Which of the following National Assessment Centre has been proposed to be set up as a
standard-setting body under Ministry of Education by NEP-2020?
a) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
b) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
c) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Application of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
d) PARAKH (Perfect Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic
Development)

7. Which of the following is true for NIRF & NAAC respectively?

a) NIRF has Five major Parameters while NAAC has Seven major Criteria
b) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Five major Criteria
c) NIRF has Five major Criteria while NAAC has Seven major Parameters
d) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Nine major Criteria

8. The first vertical of HECI, i.e. NHERC will exclude-

i. teacher education
ii. medical education
iii. legal education
iv. agricultural education

choose the correct option-

a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) i & iv

Principal (Higher Education) B-3

 9. Vocational education will be integrated into all schools and higher education institutions in
a phased manner over the next decade. Which of the following committee/commission has
been proposed by NEP-2020 in this regard?
a) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)
b) National Commission for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)
c) National Committee for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)
d) National Commission for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)

10. The highest college density is located at:

a) Maharashtra b) Punjab
c) Karnataka d) Uttar Pradesh

11. „Board of Studies‟ is constituted

a) Department/Subject wise b) Faculty wise
c) University/College wise d) All of the Above

12. Sub-section (1) of section 7 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION COUNCIL
BILL, 2018 (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) Search Committee b) Regulatory Bodies
c) Higher Education d) Private Colleges

13. Which of the following is a guiding Principle of National Education Policy 2020?
a) Synergy in curriculum across all levels of education
b) Pedagogy to be reconceptualised across all levels of education
c) Critical Assessment across all levels of education
d) Brain-Drain to be stopped at priority basis

14. Distance Education Bureau in India is a bureau of-

a) UGC b) AICTE c) IGNOU d) NIT

15. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement in relation to CMP is wrong?
a) Teachers doing outstanding work must be recognized and promoted, and given
salary raises
b) A robust merit-based structure of tenure, promotion, and salary structure will be
developed
c) In the context of careers, „tenure‟ refers to confirmation for permanent employment,
without assessment of performance and contribution.
d) A system of multiple parameters for proper assessment of performance will be
developed.

Principal (Higher Education) B-4

16. Which of the following is not external audit evidence?
a) Quotation b) Confirmation from debtors
c) Goods received a note d) Confirmation from bankers

17. With how many members as per Punjab Higher Education Commission Act 2014
„Accreditation Committee‟ is formed
a) Five b) Three c) Seven d) Two

18. Which of the following „motto line‟ represents the University Grants Commission‟s logo?
a) Gyan-Vigyan Vimukte b) Sa vidya ya Vimukte
c) Tamaso ma jyotirgamaya d) Asato ma sadgamaya

19. Which of the following is best possible means to achieve long term objectives?
a) strategies b) policies
c) opportunities d) assertive efforts

20. National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA) is a

a) Central University b) Deemed to be University
c) State University d) Autonomous College

21. According to the All India Survey of Higher Education 2019-20, the number of colleges in
Punjab is
a) 1089 b) 1079 c) 997 d) 993

22. Which one of the following is not the feature of the System audit?
a) Verification of controls in the processing of information and installation of systems
to evaluate their effectiveness and also present some recommendations and advice
b) Verifying and judging information subjectively
c) Examination and evaluation of the process in terms of computerization and data
processing.
d) Verification of controls in information processing and system installation to assess
their efficacy and provide some recommendations and advice

23. According to the NEP - 2020, four structures will be set up as four independent verticals
within one umbrella Institution, the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI). Which
among the following does not come under the four independent verticals?
a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)
b) National Assessment Council (NAC)
c) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC)
d) General Education Council (GEC)

Principal (Higher Education) B-5

24. Equity and inclusion in Higher Education can be promoted by
i. Gender balance in admission
ii. Special curriculum for disadvantage groups
iii. Inclusive Curriculum
iv. Develop bridge course for students come from disadvantage groups
v. Enhance the digital divide

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options

a) i, iv & v b) ii, iv & v c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

25. As per UGC regulations-2018, which of the following statement is not true?

a) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is similar to the

teaching staff of the university
b) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in colleges is similar to the teaching
staff of the colleges
c) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities and Colleges is
similar and does differ like teaching staff‟s promotion criteria
d) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is different from the
non-teaching staff of the university

26. Which of the following is the correct sequence for Staff recruitment?
a) Interview, Job analysis, Advertisement, Selection and Appointment.
b) Advertisement, Interview, Job analysis, Selection and Appointment.
c) Job analysis, Advertisement, Interview, Selection and Appointment.
d) Advertisement, Job analysis, Interview, Selection and Appointment.

27. NPST, as suggested by NEP-2020, stands for-

a) National Professional Standards for Teachers
b) New Professional Standards for Teachers
c) National Professional Set-up for Teachers
d) National Professional Standards for Training

28. As per NEP-2020, in relation to teacher education, which of the following statement is
wrong?
a) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. offered by such multidisciplinary HEIs will, by 2030,
become the minimal degree qualification for school teachers.
b) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. will be a dual-major holistic Bachelor‟s degree.
c) The HEI offering the 4-year integrated B.Ed. may also run a 2-year B.Ed., for
students who have already received a Bachelor‟s degree in a specialized subject.
d) A 1-year B.Ed. may also be offered for candidates who have received a 3-year
undergraduate degree in a specialized subject.

Principal (Higher Education) B-6

29. Choice Based Credit System in higher education was recommended by _______________ .
a) Justice Verma Commission
b) Administrative and Academic Reform committee of the UGC
c) Academic and Research committee of the UGC
d) Chattopadhyay Committee

30. The principals of colleges who are members of the Senate of the university are classified
under the category of
a) ex officio fellows b) ordinary fellows
c) academic fellows d) college fellows

31. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Institutional autonomy guarantees academic freedom.

Statement II: Academic freedom is not possible without institutional autonomy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option
below:
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

32. As per latest ODL & Online Programme Regulations, „A system to keep track of delivery
of eLearning Programmes, learner„s engagement, assessment, results, reporting and other
related details in one centralised location‟ is best possible through-
a) Synchronous Learning Approach b) Asynchronous Learning Approach
c) Swayam-Prabha d) Learning Management Systems

33. Principal of a college plans the target of activities and programmes to be undertaken in next
five years. This is an example of:
a) Grass root planning b) Perspective planning
c) System‟s approach to planning d) Micro planning

34. Which of the following come under mandate of the University Grants Commission?
i. Promotion and coordination of University education
ii. Determining and monitoring standards of teaching examination and research in
universities
iii. Organising continuous professional development programs for college and university
teachers
iv. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education
Principal (Higher Education) B-7
 v. Disbursing and regulating grants to the Universities and colleges.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iv, v b) i, ii, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i ,iii, iv, v

35. Full form of AQAR is

a) Annual Quality Assessment Report
b) Annual Quality Assurance Report
c) Assessment of Quality Annual Report
d) Assurance of Quality and Accreditation Report

36. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A budget is a balanced estimate of expenditure and receipts

of a given period of time.

Reason (R): In the hands of an educational administrator, the budget is a

record of past performance, a method of current control and a
projection of future plans.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

37. Sub-section (1) of section 6 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION COUNCIL
BILL, 2018. (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) The powers and functions of the Member Secretary of the Council
b) The powers and functions of the Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Council
c) The powers and functions of the of the Council Members
d) The powers and functions of the Council for preparing State Higher Education Plan

38. Controller of Examination is also a member of

a) Executive Council b) Finance Committee
c) Board of Studies d) (A) and (B) above

39. NAAC provides highest Grade A++ with a Cumulative Grade Point Average (CGPA)
which is:
a) 3.51 - 4.00 b) 3.53 - 4.50 c) 3.53 - 5.50 d) 4.53 - 5.50

Principal (Higher Education) B-8

40. As per National Education Policy 2020, India seeks to –
a) ensure equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for
all
b) ensure inclusive, cost-effective, accountable and equitable quality education for all
c) ensure inclusive education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all
d) ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning
opportunities for all

41. Which is the oldest university among the following?

a) Guru NanakDev University, Amritsar
b) BabaFarid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot
c) Central University of Punjab,Bhatinda
d) Punjabi University, Patiala

42. Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is an initiative of

a) NAAC b) NCTE c) NIEPA d) AICTE

43. Latest available General Financial Rule 5 on „Removal of Doubts‟ says-

a) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Chairperson of University/College Finance
Committee.
b) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Finance for decision.
c) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Board of University/College Management.
d) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Education for decision.

44. What do you understand with the term Inter Corporate Deposits (ICD)?
a) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured long-term deposits made by a company
with an additional company.
b) Inter Corporate Deposits are secured short-term deposits made by a company with
another company.
c) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with another company
d) Inter Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with an alternative company

Principal (Higher Education) B-9

45. As per NAAC,which of the following is not an advantage of Grading (CGPA)
a) Letter grades converted to Numerical Grade Points
b) Qualitative measurements converted to grade points
c) Lesser scope for normalizing the scores
d) Extreme biases (if any) could be minimized

46. All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government either as dues of Government or
for deposit, remittance or otherwise, shall be brought into Government Account without
delay, in accordance with such general or special rules as may be issued under-
a) Articles 150 and 283 (1) of the Constitution
b) Articles 145 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
c) Articles 150 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
d) Articles 155 and 283 (1) of the Constitution

47. What are the objectives of Continuing Rehabilitation Education (CRE) programs?
i. To upgrade the knowledge and skills of in-service and practicing rehabilitation
professionals/ personnel, registered with the RCI under Section 19 of the RCI Act of
1992
ii. To update professional knowledge and skills of master trainers working in the field of
disability rehabilitation and special education
iii. To provide job opportunities to special educators
iv. Raise funds for special education institutes

Choose the correct option:

a) iii and iv b) ii and iii c) i and iii d) i and ii

48. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: University established by Central/ State act Under 2(f) of the UGC Act,
1956.
Statement II: Deemed to be university is declared by a notification of the Central
Government, on the advice of UGC, under section 6 of the UGC Act 1956.
In the light of the above statement, choosing the most appropriate answer
from the option given below:
a) Both statement I and statement II are true
b) Both statement I and statement II are false
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

49. Which of the following is not the type of budget?

a) Zerobase – budget b) sales budget
c) De-nova budget d) energy budget

Principal (Higher Education) B-10

50. Which of the following General financial rules say that, “No authority may incur any
expenditure or enter into any liability involving expenditure or transfer of moneys for
investment or deposit from public funds (Consolidated Fund / Contingency Fund and the
Public Accounts) unless the same has been sanctioned by a competent authority”?
a) GFR-17, Rule 15 b) GFR-17, Rule 19
c) GFR-17, Rule 22 d) GFR-17, Rule 24

51. Choose the right option for „The Punjab State Higher Education Council Bill, 2018 (Punjab
Act No. 24 of 2018)‟ An Act-
a) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher Education
in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating to Higher
Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and monitoring
and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
b) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher
Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating
to Higher Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and
monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
c) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of Overall
Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating
to Overall Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and
monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
d) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher &
Technical Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher
& Technical Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the
matters relating to Higher & Technical Education and to oversee its development
with perspective planning and monitoring and for the matters connected therewith
or incidental thereto.

52. The latest available General Financial Rules in practice is-

a) GFR-1963 b) GFR-2005 c) GFR-2017 d) GFR-2020

53. As per NEP-2020, the major characteristics of „Multidisciplinary Universities‟ will be-
a) having at least 20 departments b) having minimum of 3000 students
c) having at least 200 teachers d) having at least 120 female teachers

54. Fundamental purpose for the existence of any institution is described by its-
a) Policies b) mission c) procedures d) strategy

Principal (Higher Education) B-11

55. Which combination of following characteristics correctly describes the Bureaucratic
Administration?
(i) Well defined rules
(ii) Established hierarchy
(iii) Standard operating procedures
(iv) Good interpersonal relationships
(v) Combined responsibility of completing work
Code:
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) b) (i), (ii) and (v)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

56. Keeping in view the continuous cycle of improvement, which of the following is in proper
sequence?
a) Plan-Do-Check-Act b) Plan-Check-Do-Act
c) Do-Check-Act-Plan d) Check-Do-Act-Plan

57. Which of the following is not a „Ranking Framework‟?

a) Time Ranking b) RS Ranking
c) QS Ranking d) ARWU Ranking

58. PFMS stands for-

a) Personalized Financial Management System
b) Public Fund Management System
c) Public Financial Maintenance System
d) Public Financial Management System

59. As per National Education Policy-2020, „PSSB‟ stands for-

a) Professional Set Standards Body
b) Professional Standard & Selection Body
c) Professional Standard Setting Body
d) Professional Scrutiny & Selection Body

60. „SWAYAM‟ stands for-

a) Series Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
b) Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
c) Study Webs of Action for Learning of Young Aspiring Minds
d) Series of Webs for Active Learning of Young Aspiring Minds

61. National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) is operationalized by

a) AICTE b) NAAC c) NCTE d) UGC

Principal (Higher Education) B-12

62. Grants under RUSA for quality improvement are meant for
a) State Universities b) Government Colleges
c) Government aided Colleges d) All of the above

63. India‟s first AYUSH university will be set up in which state of India?
a) Sikkim b) Haryana c) Karnataka d) West Bengal

64. Which of the following is not a criteria of NAAC evaluation?

a) Curricular Aspect b) Teaching Learning and Evaluation
c) Perception d) Student Support & Progression

65. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement is wrong for Curbing
Commercialization of Education-
a) Private HEIs having a philanthropic and public-spirited intent will be encouraged
through a progressive regime of fees determination
b) Transparent mechanisms for fixing of fees with an lower limit, for different types of
institutions depending on their accreditation
c) Multiple mechanisms with checks and balances will combat and stop the
commercialization of higher education
d) All education institutions will be held to similar standards of audit and disclosure as
a „not for profit‟ entity
66. In the two sets given below
Set – I specifies the type of power exercised by an Educational Administrator and
Set - II gives the description of these powers.
Match the two and select your answer from the code.
Set - I (Type of power) Set - II (Description)
(A) Coercive power (i) The perception that the administrator has relevant
education and experience
(B) Reward power (ii) The perceived attractiveness of interaction
(C) Legitimate power (iii) The perceived ability to provide things liked by the members
(D) Expert power (iv) The perception that decisions taken by the administrator
are appropriate in terms of the role assigned
(v) Perceived ability to provide consequences for not
performing
Code:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
b) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)
c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Principal (Higher Education) B-13

67. Which of the following option is most suitable for decision making?
a) rules b) procedure c) goals d) policies

68. Which of the following committee constituted by the University Grants Commission has
recommended the PPP model in higher education?
a) Swami Ranganathan committee b) Dr. Swaminathan committee
c) Prof. Yashpal committee d) K.B. Pawar committee

69. Which of the following section of UGC Act deals with „Prohibition regarding giving of any
grant to a University not declared by the Commission fit to receive such grant‟-

a) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act b) Section 12 (A) of UGC Act

c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 16 (2) of UGC Act

70. Which one of the following is not included in the objectives of BGC Component (I)?

a) To provide grants to the colleges for strengthening basic infrastructure and meet
their basic needs like books & journals including book banks, scientific equipment,
campus development, teaching aids, and sports facilities.
b) To support Visually Challenged Teachers
c) To encourage outreach activities, adult and continuing education in the
neighbouring areas where the college is located so that the society as a whole is
benefited.
d) To support Travel Grant to the college teachers for presenting papers in
national/international conferences/seminars/symposia.

71. Which of the following Article of the Constitution refers that „all moneys received by or
deposited with any officer employed in connection with the affairs of the Union in his
capacity as such, other than revenues or public moneys raised or received by Government,
shall be paid into the Public Account‟.

a) Under Article 281 b) Under Article 282

c) Under Article 283 d) Under Article 284

72. The chief responsibility of the Principal is to

a) Provide leadership in the institutional programme

b) Organize and administer the guidance programme
c) Listen to parental criticism
d) All of the above

Principal (Higher Education) B-14

73. Match the duties of appropriate Government, Local authority and parents of section A with
their correct matches in section B

Section A Section B

1. Duty of appropriate A. To admit his or her child or ward, as the case may
Government and local be, to an elementary education in
authority the neighbourhood school.
2. Central Government and the B. To ensure that the child belonging to weaker section
State Governments disadvantaged group are not discriminated against
and prevented from pursuing and completing
elementary education on any grounds;
3. Duty of parents and guardian C. To concurrent responsibility for providing funds for
carrying out the provisions of this Act.
4. Duties of local authority D. To establish, within such area or limits of
neighbourhood, as may be prescribed, a school,
where it is not so established, within a period of
three years from the commencement of this Act.

a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

c) 1-C, 2-B. 3-A. 4-D d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

74. Which of the following is not an indicator of „Outreach & Inclusivity‟ parameter of NIRF?

a) Percentage of Women
b) Economically & Socially Challenged Students
c) Facilities for Physically Challenged Students
d) Metric for number of Students

75. Supervision in college administration should be primarily

a) Preventive and critical b) Preventive and corrective

c) Constructive and critical d) Constructive and creative

76. Which state has the largest number of women universities?

a) Maharashtra b) Kerala c) Rajasthan d) Tamil Nadu

77. Governance of universities was the main theme of

a) Radha Krishnan Commission b) Mudaliar Commission

c) Gajendra Gadkar Committee d) Yashpal Committee

Principal (Higher Education) B-15

78. Which of the following are the missions of NAAC?
i. To arrange for periodic assessment and accreditation of institutions of higher education.
ii. To stimulate the academic environment for promotion of quantity of teaching learning.
iii. To encourage self-evaluation, accountability, autonomy and innovations in higher
education;
iv. To undertake quantity-related research studies, consultancy and training programmes,
and
v. To collaborate with other stakeholders of higher education for quality evaluation,
promotion and sustenance.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, iii, v c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i, iv, v

79. Who was the Chairman of the Committee which drafted the National Education Policy
2020?
a) Dr. KKasturirangan b) Dr.Anand Krishnan
c) Dr. Krishna Kumar d) Dr. S.Ravichandra Reddy

80. A College Principal should-

i. Provide inspirational and motivational value-based academic and executive leadership
to the college through policy formation, operational management, optimization of
human resources and concern for environment and sustainability;
ii. Conduct himself/herself with transparency, fairness, honesty, highest degree of ethics
and decision making that is in the best interest of the college;
iii. Act as steward of the College‟s assets in managing the resources responsibility,
optimally, effectively and efficiently for providing a conducive working and learning
environment;
iv. Promote the collaborative, shared and consultative work culture in the college, paving
way for innovative thinking and ideas;
v. Endeavour to promote a work culture and ethics that brings about fulfilling the interest
and satisfaction of Principal as an individual.

Choose the correct option-

a) i, iii & v only b) i, ii, iii & iv only
c) i, ii, iii & v only d) i, iii, iv & v only

81. Which section of UGC Act deals with- “University” means a University established or
incorporated by or under a Central Act, a Provincial Act or a State Act, and includes any
such institution as may, in consultation with the University concerned, be recognised by the
Commission in accordance with the regulations made in this behalf under this Act.
a) Section 2 (e) of UGC Act b) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act
c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 13 (1) of UGC Act

Principal (Higher Education) B-16

82. NITI Aayog has recommended the replacement of Medical Council of India (MCI) with
a) National Medical Commission
b) National council of Medical Sciences
c) Medical Commission in India
d) National council of Medical Education

83. Education 4.0 is a desired approach to learning based on

i. Industrial Revolution 5.0
ii. Industrial Revolution 4.0
iii. Advanced technology
iv. Automation system and artificial intelligence
v. Evergreen Revolution
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options
a) i, iv & v b) ii, iii & iv c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

84. Grants from state government to universities and colleges for creation of assets is often of
a) Recurring nature b) NonRecurring nature
c) Both a and b above d) Non fluctuating nature

85. Which of the following are recent educational modes in distance education?
i. MOOCs
ii. Virtual labs
iii. Open Air classroom
iv. Virtual Classroom
v. Integrated Classroom

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, ii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i and iv

86. STEM Educational approach in undergraduate programme have showed

i. Positive Learning outcomes
ii. Decreased creativity and Innovation
iii. Increased creativity and Innovation
iv. Mastery of curricula across fields
v. Negative learning outcomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options
a) i, iii & iv b) ii, iv & v c) iii, v & i d) iv, i & ii

87. The Academic and Administrative Reforms Committee of UGC has given
recommendations in respect of curriculum development suggesting some needed steps.
Identify from the following list:
1. Development of Model Curriculum

Principal (Higher Education) B-17

 2. Updation/ revision of curriculum to a limited extent every year and substantially
every three years
3. Updation of curriculum to be carried out in terms of current knowledge, national
and international developments
4. Fresh entrants to be given induction training
5. Curricular transactions and synergies of all faculty members

Choose the answer from the option given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 5

88. In higher educational institutions, Eminent Expert Committee (EEC) is to be constitute by

a) Central Government b) Board of Governors
c) State Government d) The Vice Chancellor

89. Which is the most important component of expenditure in higher educational institutions?
a) Capital Expenditure
b) Library and research
c) Construction and maintenance of buildings
d) Salaries

90. Formative assessment of students means

a) Continuous evaluation b) External Evaluation
c) Self-Assessment d) None of the above

91. Which of the following statements are not true regarding professional education according
to the New Educational Policy 2020?
i. Professional Education becomes an integral part of overall higher education
system
ii. Universities like agricultural, legal, health Science, technical and other
universities shall aim to become Uni-disciplinary institutions offering their
disciplines
iii. Technical education will not be offered within multidisciplinary education
institutions anymore
iv. All institutions offering either professional or general education will aim to
organically evolve I to Institutions/clusters offering both seamlessly and in
integrated manner by 2030

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii b) ii and iii c) ii, iii, and iv d) i, ii, iii, iv

Principal (Higher Education) B-18

92. The major aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC is to:
a) Address the shortage of faculty in the Higher Education Institution
b) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty
c) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty
d) Strengthen the academia-industry linkage

93. State institutions according to NEP -2020 aim to offer law education considering bilingual
education for future lawyers and judges. Which of the following languages are considered
for this?
a) English and Hindi
b) English and Sanskrit
c) English and the language of the state of the institutions
d) Hindi and the language of the state of the institutions

94. Which of the following is of prime importance for becoming a successful Principal of a
College?
a) Resources b) Finances
c) Vision d) Acts & Ordinances

95. Which of the following is least important for becoming a successful Principal of a College?
a) Geographical Location of the College
b) Number of Programmes in the College
c) Diversity of Teachers and Students
d) Finances

96. According to the 10th report on All India Survey on Higher Education for 2019-20 the
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in Higher education in India is
a) 25.2% b) 26.1% c) 26.3% d) 27.1%

97. National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF) is to be framed by the

a) NAAC b) UGC c) GEC d) NAC

98. Form GFR-7 deals with-

a) Compilation Sheet b) Consolidated Accounts
c) Sale Account d) Accession Register

99. Which of the following are the rights of statutory auditors?

i. To receive remuneration
ii. To attend board of director‟s meeting
iii. To attend the general meeting

Principal (Higher Education) B-19

 iv. To visit the branch office

Choose the correct option:

a) i & ii b) i, ii & iv c) i, ii, iii & iv d) i, iii & iv

100. The University Grants Commission of India has the following responsibilities:
i. Promote and coordinate higher education.
ii. Appointment of vice chancellors
iii. Maintain standard of teaching examination and research activities
iv. Advise Central and state government on measures to be taken for improving higher
education
v. Provide funds for higher education.

Choose the correct option:

a) Only i, iii, iv and v are correct b) Only i, ii, iii and v are correct
c) Only i, ii, iii and iv are correct d) All of the above are correct

Section II
101. Which Indian Institute of Technology topped in overall category in the NIRF India
Rankings 2021?
a) IIT Roorkee b) IIT Madras
c) IIT Delhi d) IIT Kanpur

102. Women were allowed to sit for which exam following the Supreme Court interim Order.
a) UPSC b) CDS c) JCO d) NDA

103. Iconic Indian comic book cartoon character, Chacha Chaudhary, whose brain works faster
than a computer, has been declared as the official mascot for which centrally-sponsored
programme?
a) Namami Gange Programme b) Ayushman Bharat Yojana
c) Digital India d) AMRUT

104. Malala Yousafzai Scholarship Bill has been introduced in

a) USA b) Pakistan c) India d) Sweden

105. It was Saturday on 31st December, 2005. What was the day of the week on Jan 31, 2010?
a) Saturday b) Sunday c) Monday d) Tuesday

Principal (Higher Education) B-20

106. Which of the following statements with respect to Ken-Betwa inter-linking of rivers
project, is/are Correct?
(i) This is the country‟s first river interlinking project.
(ii) The project aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in UP to Betwa in
MP.
(iii) The National Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA) has the powers to set up
SPV for individual link projects.
(iv) The project involves building a 77-metre tall and a 2-km wide Dhaudhan dam and
a 230-km canal.
a) i, ii and iii b) i, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i, ii, iv

107. If NOBLE is 48, NOVICE is 68, then what is CHILDREN?

a) 78 b) 69 c) 73 d) 63

108. Consider the following statements

1. The Booker Prize, a leading literary award in the English speaking world, is awarded to
the best novel of the year written in English and published in the UK and Ireland
2. Damon Galgut won the 2021 Booker Prize for Fiction for his novel „The Promise‟
3. Damon Galgut also won the Booker Prize for Fiction earlier in the years 2003 and 2010

Which of the above statement/s is correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

109. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the ball.
Saurabh is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenny and Bunty are side by side behind
Saurabh. Zicco is behind Jenny and Bunty. Saurabh tries for the tackle but misses and falls.
Bunty trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?
a) Saurabh b) Zicco c) Jenny d) Bunty

110. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

gorblflur means seat belt
pixngorbl means car seat
arthtusl means tyre roof
Which word could mean "car tyre"?
a) gorbltusl b) flurgorbl c) arthflur d) pixnarth

111. A number is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue
the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces-
1, 4, 27, 16, ________, 36, 343
a) 121 b) 125 c) 244 d) 81

Principal (Higher Education) B-21

112. What is mirror Image of ILAIALIIALAILAILA ?

a) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃IAII⅃AIA⅃I
b) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AII⅃AIA⅃I
c) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I
d) A⅃IA⅃IIA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I

113. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. ThenA
turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the
starting point?
a) 5km b) 4km c) 10km d) 8km

114. R is father of P. Q is sister of R. T is mother of Q. How is P related to T?

a) Grandmother b) Uncle
c) Granddaughter d) Aunt

115. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth, the
seventh and the eleventh letters of the word DISTRIBUTION which of the following will
be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed give X as answer.
a) O b) I c) X d) B

116. Which state Police launched a new initiative called the „Pink Protection Project‟ for the
protection of women in public, private and digital spaces?
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka

117. The largest Aromatic Garden in India is situated in which of the following states?
a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Uttarakhand d) Sikkim

118. Consider the following statements regarding Tokyo Paralympics, 2021:

1. The Games featured 539 medal events in 22 sports

2. China topped the medal table, Great Britain finished second, the United States
finished third and India finished twenty fourth
3. India secured a total of 19 medals which includes 5 Gold, 8 Silver, and 6 Bronze
medals

Which of the above statement/s is correct?

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Principal (Higher Education) B-22

119. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in the field of cinema which is
presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film
Festivals, an organisation set up by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
2. The award was introduced by the Government of India to commemorate Dadasaheb
Phalke's contribution to Indian cinema who is popularly regarded as "the father of
Indian cinema".
3. Dadasaheb Phalke directed India's first full-length feature film, Alam Ara in 1931.
4. Legendary actor Rajinikanth was honoured with the 51st Dadasaheb Phalke Award for
his contribution to Indian Cinema.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

120. Which one of the following is the first electric vehicle friendly highway in India?
a) Mumbai- Ahmedabad b) Delhi- Chandigarh
c) Chennai-Bengaluru d) Panipat-Ambala.

*******

Principal (Higher Education) B-23

 Rough Work

Principal (Higher Education) B-24

 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Objective Type Test (Feb-2022) for Recruitment to the post of Principal in the
PUNJAB PUBLIC
Department SERVICE
of Higher COMMISSION
Education, Government of Punjab
READ
READ
INSTRUCTIONS
INSTRUCTIONS
BEFORE
BEFORE
FILLING
FILLING
ANY
ANY
DETAILS
DETAILS
OROR
ATTEMPTING
ATTEMPTING
TOTO
ANSWER
ANSWER
THE
THE
QUESTIONS.
QUESTIONS.
Total Questions: 120
Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Candidate’s Name ____________________________________________ Question
Booklet Set
Father’s Name ____________________________________________

Date of Birth Category Code*

DD MM YYYY (*as given in the admit card)

OMR Response Sheet No. ______________________________________

Booklet Series
Roll No. __________ No.

Candidate’s Signature (Please sign in the box)

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do so by the Invigilation Staff. However, in the
meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and subsequently fill the appropriate columns
given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark
Reader (OMR) response sheet, supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in OMR sheet. Use of Ink
pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or illegible or
incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for orthopedically/visually impaired
candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 24 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire booklet to confirm
that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly and there are no blank pages. In
case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this
fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in the relevant
column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their record regarding the change
in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question carries 4 marks. There are four options for each question
and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (one mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start answering the
Questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
 Section I

1. Which of the following are the missions of NAAC?

i. To arrange for periodic assessment and accreditation of institutions of higher
education.
ii. To stimulate the academic environment for promotion of quantity of teaching learning.
iii. To encourage self-evaluation, accountability, autonomy and innovations in higher
education;
iv. To undertake quantity-related research studies, consultancy and training programmes,
and
v. To collaborate with other stakeholders of higher education for quality evaluation,
promotion and sustenance.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, iii, v c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i, iv, v

2. According to the NEP - 2020, four structures will be set up as four independent verticals
within one umbrella Institution, the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI). Which
among the following does not come under the four independent verticals?
a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)
b) National Assessment Council (NAC)
c) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC)
d) General Education Council (GEC)

3. Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is an initiative of

a) NAAC b) NCTE c) NIEPA d) AICTE

4. National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) is operationalized by

a) AICTE b) NAAC c) NCTE d) UGC

5. Which one of the following is not included in the objectives of BGC Component (I)?
a) To provide grants to the colleges for strengthening basic infrastructure and meet
their basic needs like books & journals including book banks, scientific equipment,
campus development, teaching aids, and sports facilities.
b) To support Visually Challenged Teachers
c) To encourage outreach activities, adult and continuing education in the
neighbouring areas where the college is located so that the society as a whole is
benefited.
d) To support Travel Grant to the college teachers for presenting papers in
national/international conferences/seminars/symposia.

Principal (Higher Education) C-2

 6. What do you understand with the term Inter Corporate Deposits (ICD)?
a) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured long-term deposits made by a company
with an additional company.
b) Inter Corporate Deposits are secured short-term deposits made by a company with
another company.
c) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with another company
d) Inter Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with an alternative company

7. Which of the following is of prime importance for becoming a successful Principal of a

College?
a) Resources b) Finances
c) Vision d) Acts & Ordinances

8. Which of the following committee constituted by the University Grants Commission has
recommended the PPP model in higher education?
a) Swami Ranganathan committee b) Dr. Swaminathan committee
c) Prof. Yashpal committee d) K.B. Pawar committee

9. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: University established by Central/ State act Under 2(f) of the UGC Act,
1956.
Statement II: Deemed to be university is declared by a notification of the Central
Government, on the advice of UGC, under section 6 of the UGC Act 1956.
In the light of the above statement, choosing the most appropriate answer
from the option given below:
a) Both statement I and statement II are true
b) Both statement I and statement II are false
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

10. Which sections of the UGC Act are often referred to whenever NAAC peer team visits any
higher education institution?
a) 2 (f) b) 12(b)
c) Both (A) and (B) d) None of the above

11. India‟s first AYUSH university will be set up in which state of India?
a) Sikkim b) Haryana c) Karnataka d) West Bengal

Principal (Higher Education) C-3

12. Which of the following option is most suitable for decision making?
a) rules b) procedure c) goals d) policies

13. Which of the following is not a „Ranking Framework‟?

a) Time Ranking b) RS Ranking
c) QS Ranking d) ARWU Ranking

14. Which of the following come under mandate of the University Grants Commission?
i. Promotion and coordination of University education
ii. Determining and monitoring standards of teaching examination and research in
universities
iii. Organising continuous professional development programs for college and university
teachers.
iv. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
v. Disbursing and regulating grants to the Universities and colleges.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iv, v b) i, ii, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i ,iii, iv, v

15. The University Grants Commission of India has the following responsibilities:
i. Promote and coordinate higher education.
ii. Appointment of vice chancellors
iii. Maintain standard of teaching examination and research activities
iv. Advise Central and state government on measures to be taken for improving
higher education
v. Provide funds for higher education.

Choose the correct option:

a) Only i, iii, iv and v are correct b) Only i, ii, iii and v are correct
c) Only i, ii, iii and iv are correct d) All of the above are correct

16. Which is the most important component of expenditure in higher educational institutions?
a) Capital Expenditure
b) Library and research
c) Construction and maintenance of buildings
d) Salaries

17. Identify key result areas of the skill acquisition and knowledge awareness for livelihood
promotion (SANKALP) Project:
i. Institutional strengthening
ii. Promotion of handicraft and carpet sector skills
iii. Quality assurance
iv. Inclusion

Principal (Higher Education) C-4

 v. Overseas employment through an agency
vi. Expanding skills through public private partnership

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

a) i, ii, iii and iv b) i, iii, iv and vi c) i, iii, iv and v d) ii, iv, v and vi

18. As per latest ODL & Online Programme Regulations, „A system to keep track of delivery
of eLearning Programmes, learner„s engagement, assessment, results, reporting and other
related details in one centralised location‟ is best possible through-
a) Synchronous Learning Approach b) Asynchronous Learning Approach
c) Swayam-Prabha d) Learning Management Systems

19. The latest available General Financial Rules in practice is-

a) GFR-1963 b) GFR-2005 c) GFR-2017 d) GFR-2020

20. As per UGC regulations-2018, which of the following statement is not true?

a) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is similar to the

teaching staff of the university
b) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in colleges is similar to the teaching
staff of the colleges
c) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities and Colleges is
similar and does differ like teaching staff‟s promotion criteria
d) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is different from the
non-teaching staff of the university

21. Sub-section (1) of section 6 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION COUNCIL
BILL, 2018. (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) The powers and functions of the Member Secretary of the Council
b) The powers and functions of the Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Council
c) The powers and functions of the of the Council Members
d) The powers and functions of the Council for preparing State Higher Education Plan

22. Education 4.0 is a desired approach to learning based on

i. Industrial Revolution 5.0
ii. Industrial Revolution 4.0
iii. Advanced technology
iv. Automation system and artificial intelligence
v. Evergreen Revolution
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options
a) i, iv & v b) ii, iii & iv c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

Principal (Higher Education) C-5

23. Which combination of following characteristics correctly describes the Bureaucratic
Administration?

(i) Well defined rules

(ii) Established hierarchy
(iii) Standard operating procedures
(iv) Good interpersonal relationships
(v) Combined responsibility of completing work

Code:
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) b) (i), (ii) and (v)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

24. As per NEP-2020, in relation to teacher education, which of the following statement is
wrong?

a) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. offered by such multidisciplinary HEIs will, by 2030,
become the minimal degree qualification for school teachers.
b) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. will be a dual-major holistic Bachelor‟s degree.
c) The HEI offering the 4-year integrated B.Ed. may also run a 2-year B.Ed., for
students who have already received a Bachelor‟s degree in a specialized subject.
d) A 1-year B.Ed. may also be offered for candidates who have received a 3-year
undergraduate degree in a specialized subject.

25. Which of the following section of UGC Act deals with „Prohibition regarding giving of any
grant to a University not declared by the Commission fit to receive such grant‟-

a) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act b) Section 12 (A) of UGC Act

c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 16 (2) of UGC Act

26. PFMS stands for-

a) Personalized Financial Management System

b) Public Fund Management System
c) Public Financial Maintenance System
d) Public Financial Management System

27. Ordinances of the university are made, amended, repealed or added by

a) the Senate b) the Vice Chancellor

c) the Syndicate d) the Academic Council

Principal (Higher Education) C-6

28. Match the followings
Statutory body Function
A. BCI i) Regulates the standards of technical Education in India
B. RCI ii) Regulates the standards of legal practice and legal
Education in India
C. MCI iii) Regulate and monitor services given to persons with
disability in India
D. AICTE iv) Regulates the standards of Medical Education in India

Choose the correct answer from the given below options

a) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iii); D-(iv) b) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)
c) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i) d) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(iii)

29. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement is wrong for Curbing
Commercialization of Education-
a) Private HEIs having a philanthropic and public-spirited intent will be encouraged
through a progressive regime of fees determination
b) Transparent mechanisms for fixing of fees with an lower limit, for different types of
institutions depending on their accreditation
c) Multiple mechanisms with checks and balances will combat and stop the
commercialization of higher education
d) All education institutions will be held to similar standards of audit and disclosure as
a „not for profit‟ entity
30. The highest college density is located at:
a) Maharashtra b) Punjab
c) Karnataka d) Uttar Pradesh

31. National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA) is a

a) Central University b) Deemed to be University
c) State University d) Autonomous College

32. Distance Education Bureau in India is a bureau of-

a) UGC b) AICTE c) IGNOU d) NIT

33. Which of the following is the correct sequence for Staff recruitment?
a) Interview, Job analysis, Advertisement, Selection and Appointment.
b) Advertisement, Interview, Job analysis, Selection and Appointment.
c) Job analysis, Advertisement, Interview, Selection and Appointment.
d) Advertisement, Job analysis, Interview, Selection and Appointment.

Principal (Higher Education) C-7

34. The chief responsibility of the Principal is to

a) Provide leadership in the institutional programme

b) Organize and administer the guidance programme
c) Listen to parental criticism
d) All of the above

35. Who was the Chairman of the Committee which drafted the National Education Policy
2020?

a) Dr. KKasturirangan b) Dr.Anand Krishnan

c) Dr. Krishna Kumar d) Dr. S.Ravichandra Reddy

36. What are the objectives of Continuing Rehabilitation Education (CRE) programs?

i. To upgrade the knowledge and skills of in-service and practicing rehabilitation

professionals/ personnel, registered with the RCI under Section 19 of the RCI Act of
1992
ii. To update professional knowledge and skills of master trainers working in the field
of disability rehabilitation and special education
iii. To provide job opportunities to special educators
iv. Raise funds for special education institutes

Choose the correct option:

a) iii and iv b) ii and iii c) i and iii d) i and ii

37. „Board of Studies‟ is constituted

a) Department/Subject wise b) Faculty wise

c) University/College wise d) All of the Above

38. Which of the following is least important for becoming a successful Principal of a College?

a) Geographical Location of the College

b) Number of Programmes in the College
c) Diversity of Teachers and Students
d) Finances

39. In higher educational institutions, Eminent Expert Committee (EEC) is to be constitute by

a) Central Government b) Board of Governors
c) State Government d) The Vice Chancellor

Principal (Higher Education) C-8

40. All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government either as dues of Government or
for deposit, remittance or otherwise, shall be brought into Government Account without
delay, in accordance with such general or special rules as may be issued under-
a) Articles 150 and 283 (1) of the Constitution
b) Articles 145 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
c) Articles 150 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
d) Articles 155 and 283 (1) of the Constitution
41. Which of the following Article of the Constitution refers that „all moneys received by or
deposited with any officer employed in connection with the affairs of the Union in his
capacity as such, other than revenues or public moneys raised or received by Government,
shall be paid into the Public Account‟.
a) Under Article 281 b) Under Article 282
c) Under Article 283 d) Under Article 284
42. Which of the following General financial rules say that, “No authority may incur any
expenditure or enter into any liability involving expenditure or transfer of moneys for
investment or deposit from public funds (Consolidated Fund / Contingency Fund and the
Public Accounts) unless the same has been sanctioned by a competent authority”?
a) GFR-17, Rule 15 b) GFR-17, Rule 19
c) GFR-17, Rule 22 d) GFR-17, Rule 24
43. Which of the following are recent educational modes in distance education?
i. MOOCs
ii. Virtual labs
iii. Open Air classroom
iv. Virtual Classroom
v. Integrated Classroom
Choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, ii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i and iv

44. Choice Based Credit System in higher education was recommended by _______________ .
a) Justice Verma Commission
b) Administrative and Academic Reform committee of the UGC
c) Academic and Research committee of the UGC
d) Chattopadhyay Committee

45. „SWAYAM‟ stands for-

a) Series Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
b) Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
c) Study Webs of Action for Learning of Young Aspiring Minds
d) Series of Webs for Active Learning of Young Aspiring Minds

Principal (Higher Education) C-9

46. Which of the following National Assessment Centre has been proposed to be set up as a
standard-setting body under Ministry of Education by NEP-2020?
a) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
b) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
c) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Application of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
d) PARAKH (Perfect Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic
Development)

47. Full form of AQAR is

a) Annual Quality Assessment Report
b) Annual Quality Assurance Report
c) Assessment of Quality Annual Report
d) Assurance of Quality and Accreditation Report

48. National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF) is to be framed by the

a) NAAC b) UGC c) GEC d) NAC

49. In the two sets given below

Set – I specifies the type of power exercised by an Educational Administrator and
Set - II gives the description of these powers.
Match the two and select your answer from the code.
Set - I (Type of power) Set - II (Description)

(A) Coercive power (i) The perception that the administrator has relevant
education and experience
(B) Reward power (ii) The perceived attractiveness of interaction
(C) Legitimate power (iii) The perceived ability to provide things liked by the members
(D) Expert power (iv) The perception that decisions taken by the administrator
are appropriate in terms of the role assigned
(v) Perceived ability to provide consequences for not
performing
Code:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
b) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)
c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Principal (Higher Education) C-10

50. Controller of Examination is also a member of
a) Executive Council b) Finance Committee
c) Board of Studies d) (A) and (B) above

51. Which of the following is true for NIRF & NAAC respectively?
a) NIRF has Five major Parameters while NAAC has Seven major Criteria
b) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Five major Criteria
c) NIRF has Five major Criteria while NAAC has Seven major Parameters
d) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Nine major Criteria

52. Match the duties of appropriate Government, Local authority and parents of section A with
their correct matches in section B

Section A Section B
1. Duty of appropriate A. To admit his or her child or ward, as the case may
Government and local be, to an elementary education in
authority the neighbourhood school.
2. Central Government and the B. To ensure that the child belonging to weaker section
State Governments disadvantaged group are not discriminated against
and prevented from pursuing and completing
elementary education on any grounds;
3. Duty of parents and guardian C. To concurrent responsibility for providing funds for
carrying out the provisions of this Act.
4. Duties of local authority D. To establish, within such area or limits of
neighbourhood, as may be prescribed, a school,
where it is not so established, within a period of
three years from the commencement of this Act.

a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

c) 1-C, 2-B. 3-A. 4-D d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

53. NAAC provides highest Grade A++ with a Cumulative Grade Point Average (CGPA)
which is:
a) 3.51 - 4.00 b) 3.53 - 4.50 c) 3.53 - 5.50 d) 4.53 - 5.50

54. As per National Education Policy 2020, India seeks to –

a) ensure equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for
all
b) ensure inclusive, cost-effective, accountable and equitable quality education for all
c) ensure inclusive education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all
d) ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning
opportunities for all

Principal (Higher Education) C-11

55. Fundamental purpose for the existence of any institution is described by its-
a) Policies b) mission c) procedures d) strategy

56. The principals of colleges who are members of the Senate of the university are classified
under the category of
a) ex officio fellows b) ordinary fellows
c) academic fellows d) college fellows

57. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement in relation to CMP is wrong?
a) Teachers doing outstanding work must be recognized and promoted, and given
salary raises
b) A robust merit-based structure of tenure, promotion, and salary structure will be
developed
c) In the context of careers, „tenure‟ refers to confirmation for permanent employment,
without assessment of performance and contribution.
d) A system of multiple parameters for proper assessment of performance will be
developed.

58. NPST, as suggested by NEP-2020, stands for-

a) National Professional Standards for Teachers
b) New Professional Standards for Teachers
c) National Professional Set-up for Teachers
d) National Professional Standards for Training

59. Equity and inclusion in Higher Education can be promoted by

i. Gender balance in admission
ii. Special curriculum for disadvantage groups
iii. Inclusive Curriculum
iv. Develop bridge course for students come from disadvantage groups
v. Enhance the digital divide

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options

a) i, iv & v b) ii, iv & v c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

60. Which section of UGC Act deals with- “University” means a University established or
incorporated by or under a Central Act, a Provincial Act or a State Act, and includes any
such institution as may, in consultation with the University concerned, be recognised by the
Commission in accordance with the regulations made in this behalf under this Act.
a) Section 2 (e) of UGC Act b) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act
c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 13 (1) of UGC Act

Principal (Higher Education) C-12

61. Which of the following „motto line‟ represents the University Grants Commission‟s logo?
a) Gyan-Vigyan Vimukte b) Sa vidya ya Vimukte
c) Tamaso ma jyotirgamaya d) Asato ma sadgamaya

62. Which one of the following is not the feature of the System audit?
a) Verification of controls in the processing of information and installation of systems
to evaluate their effectiveness and also present some recommendations and advice
b) Verifying and judging information subjectively
c) Examination and evaluation of the process in terms of computerization and data
processing.
d) Verification of controls in information processing and system installation to assess
their efficacy and provide some recommendations and advice

63. Which of the following statements are not true regarding professional education according
to the New Educational Policy 2020?
i. Professional Education becomes an integral part of overall higher education
system.
ii. Universities like agricultural, legal, health Science, technical and other
universities shall aim to become Uni-disciplinary institutions offering their
disciplines.
iii. Technical education will not be offered within multidisciplinary education
institutions anymore.
iv. All institutions offering either professional or general education will aim to
organically evolve I to Institutions/clusters offering both seamlessly and in
integrated manner by 2030.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii b) ii and iii c) ii, iii, and iv d) i, ii, iii, iv

64. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A budget is a balanced estimate of expenditure and receipts
of a given period of time.
Reason (R): In the hands of an educational administrator, the budget is a
record of past performance, a method of current control and a
projection of future plans.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Principal (Higher Education) C-13

65. Governance of universities was the main theme of
a) Radha Krishnan Commission b) Mudaliar Commission
c) Gajendra Gadkar Committee d) Yashpal Committee

66. The latest available Regulation for Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online
Programmes is-

a) University Grants Commission (Open and Distance Learning Programmes and

Online Programmes) Regulations, 2020 (Amendment) 2021
b) University Grants Commission (Indira Gandhi National Open University)
Regulations, 2020, (Amendment) 2021
c) University Grants Commission (Distance Education Bureau) Regulations, 2020,
(Amendment) 2021
d) Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online Programmes Regulations,
2020, (Amendment) 2021

67. Which of the following is not external audit evidence?

a) Quotation b) Confirmation from debtors

c) Goods received a note d) Confirmation from bankers

68. As per National Education Policy-2020, „PSSB‟ stands for-

a) Professional Set Standards Body

b) Professional Standard & Selection Body
c) Professional Standard Setting Body
d) Professional Scrutiny & Selection Body

69. As per NEP-2020, the major characteristics of „Multidisciplinary Universities‟ will be-

a) having at least 20 departments b) having minimum of 3000 students

c) having at least 200 teachers d) having at least 120 female teachers

70. Grants under RUSA for quality improvement are meant for
a) State Universities b) Government Colleges
c) Government aided Colleges d) All of the above

71. According to the 10th report on All India Survey on Higher Education for 2019-20 the
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in Higher education in India is
a) 25.2% b) 26.1% c) 26.3% d) 27.1%

Principal (Higher Education) C-14

72. Latest available General Financial Rule 5 on „Removal of Doubts‟ says-
a) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Chairperson of University/College Finance
Committee.
b) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Finance for decision.
c) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Board of University/College Management.
d) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Education for decision.

73. The major aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC is to:
a) Address the shortage of faculty in the Higher Education Institution
b) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty
c) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty
d) Strengthen the academia-industry linkage

74. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Institutional autonomy guarantees academic freedom.

Statement II: Academic freedom is not possible without institutional autonomy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option
below:
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

75. Form GFR-7 deals with-

a) Compilation Sheet b) Consolidated Accounts
c) Sale Account d) Accession Register

76. Which of the following is a guiding Principle of National Education Policy 2020?
a) Synergy in curriculum across all levels of education
b) Pedagogy to be reconceptualised across all levels of education
c) Critical Assessment across all levels of education
d) Brain-Drain to be stopped at priority basis

Principal (Higher Education) C-15

77. Which of the following is best possible means to achieve long term objectives?
a) strategies b) policies
c) opportunities d) assertive efforts

78. The Academic and Administrative Reforms Committee of UGC has given
recommendations in respect of curriculum development suggesting some needed steps.
Identify from the following list:
1. Development of Model Curriculum
2. Updation/ revision of curriculum to a limited extent every year and substantially
every three years
3. Updation of curriculum to be carried out in terms of current knowledge, national
and international developments
4. Fresh entrants to be given induction training
5. Curricular transactions and synergies of all faculty members

Choose the answer from the option given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 5

79. NITI Aayog has recommended the replacement of Medical Council of India (MCI) with
a) National Medical Commission
b) National council of Medical Sciences
c) Medical Commission in India
d) National council of Medical Education

80. Which state has the largest number of women universities?

a) Maharashtra b) Kerala c) Rajasthan d) Tamil Nadu

81. Grants from state government to universities and colleges for creation of assets is often of
a) Recurring nature b) Non Recurring nature
c) Both a and b above d) Non fluctuating nature

82. Which of the following is not an indicator of „Outreach & Inclusivity‟ parameter of NIRF?
a) Percentage of Women
b) Economically & Socially Challenged Students
c) Facilities for Physically Challenged Students
d) Metric for number of Students

83. Which of the following is not the type of budget?

a) Zerobase – budget b) sales budget
c) De-nova budget d) energy budget

Principal (Higher Education) C-16

84. As per NAAC, which of the following is not an advantage of Grading (CGPA)
a) Letter grades converted to Numerical Grade Points
b) Qualitative measurements converted to grade points
c) Lesser scope for normalizing the scores
d) Extreme biases (if any) could be minimized

85. Formative assessment of students means

a) Continuous evaluation b) External Evaluation
c) Self-Assessment d) None of the above

86. Which of the following is not a criteria of NAAC evaluation?

a) Curricular Aspect b) Teaching Learning and Evaluation
c) Perception d) Student Support & Progression

87. Which is the oldest university among the following?

a) Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar
b) Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot
c) Central University of Punjab, Bhatinda
d) Punjabi University, Patiala

88. STEM Educational approach in undergraduate programme have showed

i. Positive Learning outcomes

ii. Decreased creativity and Innovation
iii. Increased creativity and Innovation
iv. Mastery of curricula across fields
v. Negative learning outcomes

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options

a) i, iii & iv b) ii, iv & v c) iii, v & i d) iv, i & ii

89. Vocational education will be integrated into all schools and higher education institutions in
a phased manner over the next decade. Which of the following committee/commission has
been proposed by NEP-2020 in this regard?

a) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)

b) National Commission for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)
c) National Committee for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)
d) National Commission for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)

Principal (Higher Education) C-17

90. Principal of a college plans the target of activities and programmes to be undertaken in next
five years. This is an example of:
a) Grass root planning b) Perspective planning
c) System‟s approach to planning d) Micro planning
91. Which of the following are the rights of statutory auditors?
i. To receive remuneration
ii. To attend board of director‟s meeting
iii. To attend the general meeting
iv. To visit the branch office
Choose the correct option:
a) i & ii b) i, ii & iv c) i, ii, iii & iv d) i, iii & iv
92. With how many members as per Punjab Higher Education Commission Act 2014
„Accreditation Committee‟ is formed
a) Five b) Three c) Seven d) Two
93. Keeping in view the continuous cycle of improvement, which of the following is in proper
sequence?
a) Plan-Do-Check-Act b) Plan-Check-Do-Act
c) Do-Check-Act-Plan d) Check-Do-Act-Plan
94. Choose the right option for „The Punjab State Higher Education Council Bill, 2018 (Punjab
Act No. 24 of 2018)‟ An Act-
a) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher Education
in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating to Higher
Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and monitoring
and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
b) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher
Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating
to Higher Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and
monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
c) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of Overall
Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating
to Overall Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and
monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
d) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher &
Technical Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher
& Technical Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the
matters relating to Higher & Technical Education and to oversee its development
with perspective planning and monitoring and for the matters connected therewith
or incidental thereto.

Principal (Higher Education) C-18

 95. The first vertical of HECI, i.e. NHERC will exclude-
i. teacher education
ii. medical education
iii. legal education
iv. agricultural education
choose the correct option-
a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) i & iv
96. Sub-section (1) of section 7 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION COUNCIL
BILL, 2018 (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) Search Committee b) Regulatory Bodies
c) Higher Education d) Private Colleges
97. State institutions according to NEP -2020 aim to offer law education considering bilingual
education for future lawyers and judges. Which of the following languages are considered
for this?
a) English and Hindi
b) English and Sanskrit
c) English and the language of the state of the institutions
d) Hindi and the language of the state of the institutions
98. According to the All India Survey of Higher Education 2019-20, the number of colleges in
Punjab is
a) 1089 b) 1079 c) 997 d) 993
99. Supervision in college administration should be primarily
a) Preventive and critical b) Preventive and corrective
c) Constructive and critical d) Constructive and creative
100. A College Principal should-
i. Provide inspirational and motivational value-based academic and executive
leadership to the college through policy formation, operational management,
optimization of human resources and concern for environment and sustainability;
ii. Conduct himself/herself with transparency, fairness, honesty, highest degree of
ethics and decision making that is in the best interest of the college;
iii. Act as steward of the College‟s assets in managing the resources responsibility,
optimally, effectively and efficiently for providing a conducive working and
learning environment;
iv. Promote the collaborative, shared and consultative work culture in the college,
paving way for innovative thinking and ideas;
v. Endeavour to promote a work culture and ethics that brings about fulfilling the
interest and satisfaction of Principal as an individual.
Choose the correct option-
a) i, iii & v only b) i, ii, iii & iv only
c) i, ii, iii & v only d) i, iii, iv & v only

Principal (Higher Education) C-19

 Section II
101. The largest Aromatic Garden in India is situated in which of the following states?
a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Uttarakhand d) Sikkim

102. Which Indian Institute of Technology topped in overall category in the NIRF India
Rankings 2021?
a) IIT Roorkee b) IIT Madras
c) IIT Delhi d) IIT Kanpur

103. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. ThenA
turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the
starting point?
a) 5km b) 4km c) 10km d) 8km

104. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the ball.
Saurabh is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenny and Bunty are side by side behind
Saurabh. Zicco is behind Jenny and Bunty. Saurabh tries for the tackle but misses and falls.
Bunty trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?

a) Saurabh b) Zicco c) Jenny d) Bunty

105. Which of the following statements with respect to Ken-Betwa inter-linking of rivers
project, is/are Correct?

(i) This is the country‟s first river interlinking project

(ii) The project aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in UP to Betwa in
MP
(iii) The National Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA) has the powers to set up
SPV for individual link projects
(iv) The project involves building a 77-metre tall and a 2-km wide Dhaudhan dam and
a 230-km canal

a) i, ii and iii b) i, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i, ii, iv

106. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

gorblflur means seat belt
pixngorbl means car seat
arthtusl means tyre roof

Which word could mean "car tyre"?

a) gorbltusl b) flurgorbl c) arthflur d) pixnarth

Principal (Higher Education) C-20

107. What is mirror Image of ILAIALIIALAILAILA ?

a) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃IAII⅃AIA⅃I
b) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AII⅃AIA⅃I
c) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I
d) A⅃IA⅃IIA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I

108. R is father of P. Q is sister of R. T is mother of Q. How is P related to T?

a) Grandmother b) Uncle
c) Granddaughter d) Aunt

109. It was Saturday on 31st December, 2005. What was the day of the week on Jan 31, 2010?
a) Saturday b) Sunday c) Monday d) Tuesday

110. Which state Police launched a new initiative called the „Pink Protection Project‟ for the
protection of women in public, private and digital spaces?
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka

111. Consider the following statements:

1. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in the field of cinema which is
presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of
Film Festivals, an organisation set up by the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting.
2. The award was introduced by the Government of India to commemorate
Dadasaheb Phalke's contribution to Indian cinema who is popularly regarded as
"the father of Indian cinema".
3. Dadasaheb Phalke directed India's first full-length feature film, Alam Ara in 1931.
4. Legendary actor Rajinikanth was honoured with the 51st Dadasaheb Phalke
Award for his contribution to Indian Cinema.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

112. Malala Yousafzai Scholarship Bill has been introduced in

a) USA b) Pakistan c) India d) Sweden

113. Women were allowed to sit for which exam following the Supreme Court interim Order.
a) UPSC b) CDS c) JCO d) NDA

Principal (Higher Education) C-21

114. If NOBLE is 48, NOVICE is 68, then what is CHILDREN?
a) 78 b) 69 c) 73 d) 63
115. Which one of the following is the first electric vehicle friendly highway in India?
a) Mumbai- Ahmedabad b) Delhi- Chandigarh
c) Chennai-Bengaluru d) Panipat- Ambala.

116. A number is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will
continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces-
1, 4, 27, 16, ________, 36, 343
a) 121 b) 125 c) 244 d) 81
117. Consider the following statements regarding Tokyo Paralympics, 2021:
1. The Games featured 539 medal events in 22 sports
2. China topped the medal table, Great Britain finished second, the United States finished
third and India finished twenty fourth
3. India secured a total of 19 medals which includes 5 Gold, 8 Silver, and 6 Bronze
medals
Which of the above statement/s is correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
118. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth, the
seventh and the eleventh letters of the word DISTRIBUTION which of the following will
be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed give X as answer.
a) O b) I c) X d) B
119. Iconic Indian comic book cartoon character, Chacha Chaudhary, whose brain works faster
than a computer, has been declared as the official mascot for which centrally-sponsored
programme?
a) Namami Gange Programme b) Ayushman Bharat Yojana
c) Digital India d) AMRUT
120. Consider the following statements
1 The Booker Prize, a leading literary award in the English speaking world, is awarded to
the best novel of the year written in English and published in the UK and Ireland
2 Damon Galgut won the 2021 Booker Prize for Fiction for his novel „The Promise‟
3 Damon Galgut also won the Booker Prize for Fiction earlier in the years 2003 and 2010
Which of the above statement/s is correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

*******
Principal (Higher Education) C-22
Principal (Higher Education) C-23
 Rough Work

Principal (Higher Education) C-24

Principal (Higher Education) C-25
 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Objective Type Test (Feb-2022) for Recruitment to the post of Principal in the
Department of Higher Education, Government of Punjab
READ INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE FILLING ANY DETAILS OR ATTEMPTING TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS.

Total Questions: 120

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Candidate’s Name ____________________________________________ Question
Booklet Set
Father’s Name ____________________________________________

Date of Birth
DD MM YYYY

OMR Response Sheet No. ______________________________________

Booklet Series No.
Roll No. __________________________

Candidate’s Signature (Please sign in the box)

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do so by the Invigilation Staff. However, in the
meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and subsequently fill the appropriate columns
given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark
Reader (OMR) response sheet, supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in OMR sheet. Use of Ink
pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or illegible or
incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for orthopedically/visually impaired
candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 24 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire booklet to confirm
that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly and there are no blank pages. In
case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this
fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in the relevant
column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their record regarding the change
in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question carries 4 marks. There are four options for each question
and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (one mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start answering the
Questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
 Section I
1. Sub-section (1) of section 6 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION COUNCIL
BILL, 2018. (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) The powers and functions of the Member Secretary of the Council
b) The powers and functions of the Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Council
c) The powers and functions of the of the Council Members
d) The powers and functions of the Council for preparing State Higher Education Plan

2. As per National Education Policy 2020, India seeks to –

a) ensure equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for
all
b) ensure inclusive, cost-effective, accountable and equitable quality education for all
c) ensure inclusive education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all
d) ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning
opportunities for all

3. Which one of the following is not included in the objectives of BGC Component (I)?
a) To provide grants to the colleges for strengthening basic infrastructure and meet
their basic needs like books & journals including book banks, scientific equipment,
campus development, teaching aids, and sports facilities.
b) To support Visually Challenged Teachers
c) To encourage outreach activities, adult and continuing education in the
neighbouring areas where the college is located so that the society as a whole is
benefited.
d) To support Travel Grant to the college teachers for presenting papers in
national/international conferences/seminars/symposia.

4. Latest available General Financial Rule 5 on „Removal of Doubts‟ says-

a) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Chairperson of University/College Finance
Committee.
b) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Finance for decision.
c) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Board of University/College Management.
d) Where a doubt arises as to the interpretation of any of the provisions of these Rules,
the matter shall be referred to the Ministry of Education for decision.

Principal (Higher Education) D-2

 5. Which of the following „motto line‟ represents the University Grants Commission‟s logo?
a) Gyan-Vigyan Vimukte b) Sa vidya ya Vimukte
c) Tamaso ma jyotirgamaya d) Asato ma sadgamaya

6. Which state has the largest number of women universities?

a) Maharashtra b) Kerala c) Rajasthan d) Tamil Nadu

7. Ordinances of the university are made, amended, repealed or added by

a) the Senate b) the Vice Chancellor
c) the Syndicate d) the Academic Council

8. Fundamental purpose for the existence of any institution is described by its-

a) Policies b) mission c) procedures d) strategy

9. Which is the oldest university among the following?

a) Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar
b) Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot
c) Central University of Punjab, Bhatinda
d) Punjabi University, Patiala

10. As per NAAC, which of the following is not an advantage of Grading (CGPA)
a) Letter grades converted to Numerical Grade Points
b) Qualitative measurements converted to grade points
c) Lesser scope for normalizing the scores
d) Extreme biases (if any) could be minimized

11. As per latest ODL & Online Programme Regulations, „A system to keep track of delivery
of eLearning Programmes, learner„s engagement, assessment, results, reporting and other
related details in one centralised location‟ is best possible through-
a) Synchronous Learning Approach b) Asynchronous Learning Approach
c) Swayam-Prabha d) Learning Management Systems

12. State institutions according to NEP -2020 aim to offer law education considering bilingual
education for future lawyers and judges. Which of the following languages are considered
for this?
a) English and Hindi
b) English and Sanskrit
c) English and the language of the state of the institutions
d) Hindi and the language of the state of the institutions

Principal (Higher Education) D-3

13. NITI Aayog has recommended the replacement of Medical Council of India (MCI) with
a) National Medical Commission
b) National council of Medical Sciences
c) Medical Commission in India
d) National council of Medical Education

14. National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) is operationalized by

a) AICTE b) NAAC c) NCTE d) UGC

15. The Academic and Administrative Reforms Committee of UGC has given
recommendations in respect of curriculum development suggesting some needed steps.
Identify from the following list:
1. Development of Model Curriculum
2. Updation/ revision of curriculum to a limited extent every year and substantially
every three years.
3. Updation of curriculum to be carried out in terms of current knowledge, national
and international developments
4. Fresh entrants to be given induction training
5. Curricular transactions and synergies of all faculty members

Choose the answer from the option given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 5
16. The University Grants Commission of India has the following responsibilities:
i. Promote and coordinate higher education.
ii. Appointment of vice chancellors
iii. Maintain standard of teaching examination and research activities
iv. Advise Central and state government on measures to be taken for improving
higher education
v. Provide funds for higher education.
Choose the correct option:
a) Only i, iii, iv and v are correct b) Only i, ii, iii and v are correct
c) Only i, ii, iii and iv are correct d) All of the above are correct

17. All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government either as dues of Government or
for deposit, remittance or otherwise, shall be brought into Government Account without
delay, in accordance with such general or special rules as may be issued under-
a) Articles 150 and 283 (1) of the Constitution
b) Articles 145 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
c) Articles 150 and 284 (1) of the Constitution
d) Articles 155 and 283 (1) of the Constitution

Principal (Higher Education) D-4

18. Which of the following is not the type of budget?
a) Zerobase – budget b) sales budget
c) De-nova budget d) energy budget

19. What do you understand with the term Inter Corporate Deposits (ICD)?
a) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured long-term deposits made by a company
with an additional company.
b) Inter Corporate Deposits are secured short-term deposits made by a company with
another company.
c) Inter-Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with another company
d) Inter Corporate Deposits are unsecured short-term deposits made by a company
with an alternative company

20. Full form of AQAR is

a) Annual Quality Assessment Report
b) Annual Quality Assurance Report
c) Assessment of Quality Annual Report
d) Assurance of Quality and Accreditation Report

21. Which of the following is least important for becoming a successful Principal of a College?
a) Geographical Location of the College
b) Number of Programmes in the College
c) Diversity of Teachers and Students
d) Finances

22. Match the followings

Statutory body Function

A. BCI i) Regulates the standards of technical Education in India
B. RCI ii) Regulates the standards of legal practice and legal
Education in India
C. MCI iii) Regulate and monitor services given to persons with
disability in India
D. AICTE iv) Regulates the standards of Medical Education in India

Choose the correct answer from the given below options

a) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iii); D-(iv) b) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)
c) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i) d) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(iii)

Principal (Higher Education) D-5

23. Grants under RUSA for quality improvement are meant for
a) State Universities b) Government Colleges
c) Government aided Colleges d) All of the above

24. Equity and inclusion in Higher Education can be promoted by

i. Gender balance in admission
ii. Special curriculum for disadvantage groups
iii. Inclusive Curriculum
iv. Develop bridge course for students come from disadvantage groups
v. Enhance the digital divide
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options
a) i, iv & v b) ii, iv & v c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

25. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: University established by Central/ State act Under 2(f) of the UGC Act, 1956.
Statement II: Deemed to be university is declared by a notification of the
Central Government, on the advice of UGC, under section 6 of the UGC
Act 1956.
In the light of the above statement, choosing the most appropriate answer from the option
given below:
a) Both statement I and statement II are true
b) Both statement I and statement II are false
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

26. Which of the following section of UGC Act deals with „Prohibition regarding giving of any
grant to a University not declared by the Commission fit to receive such grant‟-
a) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act b) Section 12 (A) of UGC Act
c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 16 (2) of UGC Act

27. Supervision in college administration should be primarily

a) Preventive and critical b) Preventive and corrective
c) Constructive and critical d) Constructive and creative

28. Which of the following statements are not true regarding professional education according
to the New Educational Policy 2020?

i. Professional Education becomes an integral part of overall higher education

system.
ii. Universities like agricultural, legal, health Science, technical and other
universities shall aim to become Uni-disciplinary institutions offering their
disciplines.

Principal (Higher Education) D-6

 iii. Technical education will not be offered within multidisciplinary education
institutions anymore.
iv. All institutions offering either professional or general education will aim to
organically evolve I to Institutions/clusters offering both seamlessly and in
integrated manner by 2030.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iii b) ii and iii c) ii, iii, and iv d) i, ii, iii, iv

29. Which of the following is not a „Ranking Framework‟?

a) Time Ranking b) RS Ranking
c) QS Ranking d) ARWU Ranking

30. Which of the following is the correct sequence for Staff recruitment?
a) Interview, Job analysis, Advertisement, Selection and Appointment.
b) Advertisement, Interview, Job analysis, Selection and Appointment.
c) Job analysis, Advertisement, Interview, Selection and Appointment.
d) Advertisement, Job analysis, Interview, Selection and Appointment.

31. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement in relation to CMP is wrong?

a) Teachers doing outstanding work must be recognized and promoted, and given
salary raises
b) A robust merit-based structure of tenure, promotion, and salary structure will be
developed
c) In the context of careers, „tenure‟ refers to confirmation for permanent employment,
without assessment of performance and contribution.
d) A system of multiple parameters for proper assessment of performance will be
developed.

32. Who was the Chairman of the Committee which drafted the National Education Policy
2020?

a) Dr. K Kasturirangan b) Dr. Anand Krishnan

c) Dr. Krishna Kumar d) Dr. S.Ravichandra Reddy

33. Grants from state government to universities and colleges for creation of assets is often of
a) Recurring nature b) Non Recurring nature
c) Both a and b above d) Non fluctuating nature

Principal (Higher Education) D-7

34. As per NEP-2020, which of the following statement is wrong for Curbing
Commercialization of Education-

a) Private HEIs having a philanthropic and public-spirited intent will be encouraged

through a progressive regime of fees determination
b) Transparent mechanisms for fixing of fees with an lower limit, for different types of
institutions depending on their accreditation
c) Multiple mechanisms with checks and balances will combat and stop the
commercialization of higher education
d) All education institutions will be held to similar standards of audit and disclosure as
a „not for profit‟ entity

35. As per NEP-2020, the major characteristics of „Multidisciplinary Universities‟ will be-
a) having at least 20 departments b) having minimum of 3000 students
c) having at least 200 teachers d) having at least 120 female teachers

36. Which of the following is of prime importance for becoming a successful Principal of a
College?

a) Resources b) Finances
c) Vision d) Acts & Ordinances

37. Education 4.0 is a desired approach to learning based on

i. Industrial Revolution 5.0
ii. Industrial Revolution 4.0
iii. Advanced technology
iv. Automation system and artificial intelligence
v. Evergreen Revolution

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options

a) i, iv & v b) ii, iii & iv c) i, iii & iv d) i, ii & iv

38. The highest college density is located at:

a) Maharashtra b) Punjab
c) Karnataka d) Uttar Pradesh

39. With how many members as per Punjab Higher Education Commission Act 2014
„Accreditation Committee‟ is formed

a) Five b) Three c) Seven d) Two

Principal (Higher Education) D-8

40. Which of the following come under mandate of the University Grants Commission?
i. Promotion and coordination of University education
ii. Determining and monitoring standards of teaching examination and research in
universities
iii. Organising continuous professional development programs for college and
university teachers.
iv. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
v. Disbursing and regulating grants to the Universities and colleges.

Choose the correct option:

a) i, ii, iv, v b) i, ii, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i ,iii, iv, v

41. Which of the following is a guiding Principle of National Education Policy 2020?
a) Synergy in curriculum across all levels of education
b) Pedagogy to be reconceptualised across all levels of education
c) Critical Assessment across all levels of education
d) Brain-Drain to be stopped at priority basis

42. „SWAYAM‟ stands for-

a) Series Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
b) Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
c) Study Webs of Action for Learning of Young Aspiring Minds
d) Series of Webs for Active Learning of Young Aspiring Minds

43. In the two sets given below

Set – I specifies the type of power exercised by an Educational Administrator and

Set - II gives the description of these powers.

Match the two and select your answer from the code.

Set - I (Type of power) Set - II (Description)

(A) Coercive power (i) The perception that the administrator has relevant
education and experience
(B) Reward power (ii) The perceived attractiveness of interaction
(C) Legitimate power (iii) The perceived ability to provide things liked by the members
(D) Expert power (iv) The perception that decisions taken by the administrator
are appropriate in terms of the role assigned
(v) Perceived ability to provide consequences for not
performing

Principal (Higher Education) D-9

 Code:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

a) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
b) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)
c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

44. Match the duties of appropriate Government, Local authority and parents of section A with
their correct matches in section B

Section A Section B

1. Duty of appropriate A. To admit his or her child or ward, as the case

Government and local may be, to an elementary education in
authority the neighbourhood school.
2. Central Government and the B. To ensure that the child belonging to weaker
State Governments section disadvantaged group are not
discriminated against and prevented from
pursuing and completing elementary education
on any grounds;
3. Duty of parents and guardian C. To concurrent responsibility for providing funds
for carrying out the provisions of this Act.
4. Duties of local authority D. To establish, within such area or limits of
neighbourhood, as may be prescribed, a school,
where it is not so established, within a period of
three years from the commencement of this Act.

a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

c) 1-C, 2-B. 3-A. 4-D d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

45. The chief responsibility of the Principal is to

a) Provide leadership in the institutional programme
b) Organize and administer the guidance programme
c) Listen to parental criticism
d) All of the above

46. Which of the following General financial rules say that, “No authority may incur any
expenditure or enter into any liability involving expenditure or transfer of moneys for
investment or deposit from public funds (Consolidated Fund / Contingency Fund and the
Public Accounts) unless the same has been sanctioned by a competent authority”?
a) GFR-17, Rule 15 b) GFR-17, Rule 19
c) GFR-17, Rule 22 d) GFR-17, Rule 24

Principal (Higher Education) D-10

47. A College Principal should-
i. Provide inspirational and motivational value-based academic and executive
leadership to the college through policy formation, operational management,
optimization of human resources and concern for environment and sustainability;
ii. Conduct himself/herself with transparency, fairness, honesty, highest degree of
ethics and decision making that is in the best interest of the college;
iii. Act as steward of the College‟s assets in managing the resources responsibility,
optimally, effectively and efficiently for providing a conducive working and
learning environment;
iv. Promote the collaborative, shared and consultative work culture in the college,
paving way for innovative thinking and ideas;
v. Endeavour to promote a work culture and ethics that brings about fulfilling the
interest and satisfaction of Principal as an individual.
Choose the correct option-
a) i, iii & v only b) i, ii, iii & iv only
c) i, ii, iii & v only d) i, iii, iv & v only
48. Vocational education will be integrated into all schools and higher education institutions in
a phased manner over the next decade. Which of the following committee/commission has
been proposed by NEP-2020 in this regard?
a) National Committee for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)
b) National Commission for the Integration of Vocational Education (NCIVE)
c) National Committee for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)
d) National Commission for Combining Vocational Education (NCCVE)
49. Which of the following is true for NIRF & NAAC respectively?
a) NIRF has Five major Parameters while NAAC has Seven major Criteria
b) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Five major Criteria
c) NIRF has Five major Criteria while NAAC has Seven major Parameters
d) NIRF has Seven major Parameters while NAAC has Nine major Criteria
50. Which of the following are the missions of NAAC?
i. To arrange for periodic assessment and accreditation of institutions of higher
education
ii. To stimulate the academic environment for promotion of quantity of teaching
learning
iii. To encourage self-evaluation, accountability, autonomy and innovations in higher
education
iv. To undertake quantity-related research studies, consultancy and training
programmes, and
v. To collaborate with other stakeholders of higher education for quality evaluation,
promotion and sustenance
Choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, iii, v c) ii, iii, iv, v d) i, iv, v

Principal (Higher Education) D-11

51. PFMS stands for-
a) Personalized Financial Management System
b) Public Fund Management System
c) Public Financial Maintenance System
d) Public Financial Management System

52. Choose the right option for „The Punjab State Higher Education Council Bill, 2018 (Punjab
Act No. 24 of 2018)‟ An Act-

a) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher

Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher Education
in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating to Higher
Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and monitoring
and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
b) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher
Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating
to Higher Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and
monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
c) to establish and incorporate a Commission to be known as the Punjab State Higher
Education Commission for planned and co-ordinated development of Overall
Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the matters relating
to Overall Education and to oversee its development with perspective planning and
monitoring and for the matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
d) to establish and incorporate a Council to be known as the Punjab State Higher &
Technical Education Council for planned and co-ordinated development of Higher
& Technical Education in the State and for advising the State Government in the
matters relating to Higher & Technical Education and to oversee its development
with perspective planning and monitoring and for the matters connected therewith
or incidental thereto.

53. „Board of Studies‟ is constituted

a) Department/Subject wise b) Faculty wise
c) University/College wise d) All of the Above

54. Choice Based Credit System in higher education was recommended by _______________ .
a) Justice Verma Commission
b) Administrative and Academic Reform committee of the UGC
c) Academic and Research committee of the UGC
d) Chattopadhyay Committee

Principal (Higher Education) D-12

55. As per NEP-2020, in relation to teacher education, which of the following statement is
wrong?

a) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. offered by such multidisciplinary HEIs will, by 2030,
become the minimal degree qualification for school teachers.
b) The 4-year integrated B.Ed. will be a dual-major holistic Bachelor‟s degree.
c) The HEI offering the 4-year integrated B.Ed. may also run a 2-year B.Ed., for
students who have already received a Bachelor‟s degree in a specialized subject.
d) A 1-year B.Ed. may also be offered for candidates who have received a 3-year
undergraduate degree in a specialized subject.

56. Which section of UGC Act deals with- “University” means a University established or
incorporated by or under a Central Act, a Provincial Act or a State Act, and includes any
such institution as may, in consultation with the University concerned, be recognised by the
Commission in accordance with the regulations made in this behalf under this Act.

a) Section 2 (e) of UGC Act b) Section 2 (f) of UGC Act

c) Section 12 (B) of UGC Act d) Section 13 (1) of UGC Act

57. As per National Education Policy-2020, „PSSB‟ stands for-

a) Professional Set Standards Body
b) Professional Standard & Selection Body
c) Professional Standard Setting Body
d) Professional Scrutiny & Selection Body

58. Which of the following committee constituted by the University Grants Commission has
recommended the PPP model in higher education?

a) Swami Ranganathan committee b) Dr. Swaminathan committee

c) Prof. Yashpal committee d) K.B. Pawar committee

59. National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA) is a

a) Central University b) Deemed to be University

c) State University d) Autonomous College

60. Controller of Examination is also a member of

a) Executive Council b) Finance Committee

c) Board of Studies d) (A) and (B) above

Principal (Higher Education) D-13

61. Identify key result areas of the skill acquisition and knowledge awareness for livelihood
promotion (SANKALP) Project:
i. Institutional strengthening
ii. Promotion of handicraft and carpet sector skills
iii. Quality assurance
iv. Inclusion
v. Overseas employment through an agency
vi. Expanding skills through public private partnership
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
a) i, ii, iii and iv b) i, iii, iv and vi c) i, iii, iv and v d) ii, iv, v and vi

62. Keeping in view the continuous cycle of improvement, which of the following is in proper
sequence?
a) Plan-Do-Check-Act b) Plan-Check-Do-Act
c) Do-Check-Act-Plan d) Check-Do-Act-Plan

63. The principals of colleges who are members of the Senate of the university are classified
under the category of
a) ex officio fellows b) ordinary fellows
c) academic fellows d) college fellows

64. NPST, as suggested by NEP-2020, stands for-

a) National Professional Standards for Teachers
b) New Professional Standards for Teachers
c) National Professional Set-up for Teachers
d) National Professional Standards for Training

65. Which of the following is not external audit evidence?

a) Quotation b) Confirmation from debtors
c) Goods received a note d) Confirmation from bankers

66. The latest available General Financial Rules in practice is-

a) GFR-1963 b) GFR-2005 c) GFR-2017 d) GFR-2020
67. Formative assessment of students means
a) Continuous evaluation b) External Evaluation
c) Self-Assessment d) None of the above

68. Distance Education Bureau in India is a bureau of-

a) UGC b) AICTE c) IGNOU d) NIT

Principal (Higher Education) D-14

69. Which of the following option is most suitable for decision making?
a) rules b) procedure c) goals d) policies

70. Principal of a college plans the target of activities and programmes to be undertaken in next
five years. This is an example of:
a) Grass root planning b) Perspective planning
c) System‟s approach to planning d) Micro planning

71. Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is an initiative of

a) NAAC b) NCTE c) NIEPA d) AICTE
72. Form GFR-7 deals with-
a) Compilation Sheet b) Consolidated Accounts
c) Sale Account d) Accession Register
73. Which of the following is not a criteria of NAAC evaluation?
a) Curricular Aspect b) Teaching Learning and Evaluation
c) Perception d) Student Support & Progression
74. Which of the following is not an indicator of „Outreach & Inclusivity‟ parameter of NIRF?
a) Percentage of Women
b) Economically & Socially Challenged Students
c) Facilities for Physically Challenged Students
d) Metric for number of Students

75. NAAC provides highest Grade A++ with a Cumulative Grade Point Average (CGPA)
which is:
a) 3.51 - 4.00 b) 3.53 - 4.50 c) 3.53 - 5.50 d) 4.53 - 5.50
76. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A budget is a balanced estimate of expenditure and receipts
of a given period of time.
Reason (R): In the hands of an educational administrator, the budget is a
record of past performance, a method of current control and a
projection of future plans.
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Principal (Higher Education) D-15

77. The latest available Regulation for Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online
Programmes is-
a) University Grants Commission (Open and Distance Learning Programmes and
Online Programmes) Regulations, 2020 (Amendment) 2021
b) University Grants Commission (Indira Gandhi National Open University)
Regulations, 2020, (Amendment) 2021
c) University Grants Commission (Distance Education Bureau) Regulations, 2020,
(Amendment) 2021
d) Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online Programmes Regulations,
2020, (Amendment) 2021
78. As per UGC regulations-2018, which of the following statement is not true?
a) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is similar to the
teaching staff of the university
b) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in colleges is similar to the teaching
staff of the colleges
c) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities and Colleges is
similar and does differ like teaching staff‟s promotion criteria
d) Process of promotion of Library staff under CAS in Universities is different from the
non-teaching staff of the university

79. According to the All India Survey of Higher Education 2019-20, the number of colleges in
Punjab is
a) 1089 b) 1079 c) 997 d) 993

80. The first vertical of HECI, i.e. NHERC will exclude-

i. teacher education
ii. medical education
iii. legal education
iv. agricultural education
Choose the correct option-
a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) i & iv
81. The major aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC is to:
a) Address the shortage of faculty in the Higher Education Institution
b) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty
c) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty
d) Strengthen the academia-industry linkage
82. According to the 10th report on All India Survey on Higher Education for 2019-20 the
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in Higher education in India is
a) 25.2% b) 26.1% c) 26.3% d) 27.1%

Principal (Higher Education) D-16

83. Which sections of the UGC Act are often referred to whenever NAAC peer team visits any
higher education institution?
a) 2 (f) b) 12(b)
c) Both (A) and (B) d) None of the above

84. National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF) is to be framed by the

a) NAAC b) UGC c) GEC d) NAC

85. In higher educational institutions, Eminent Expert Committee (EEC) is to be constitute by

a) Central Government b) Board of Governors
c) State Government d) The Vice Chancellor

86. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Institutional autonomy guarantees academic freedom.

Statement II: Academic freedom is not possible without institutional autonomy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option
below:
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

87. Governance of universities was the main theme of

a) Radha Krishnan Commission b) Mudaliar Commission
c) Gajendra Gadkar Committee d) Yashpal Committee
88. Which of the following are recent educational modes in distance education?
i. MOOCs
ii. Virtual labs
iii. Open Air classroom
iv. Virtual Classroom
v. Integrated Classroom
Choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii, iv, v b) i, ii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i and iv
89. Sub-section (1) of Section 7 of THE PUNJAB STATE HIGHER EDUCATION COUNCIL
BILL, 2018 (Punjab Act No. 24 of 2018) deals with-
a) Search Committee b) Regulatory Bodies
c) Higher Education d) Private Colleges

Principal (Higher Education) D-17

90. What are the objectives of Continuing Rehabilitation Education (CRE) programs?
i. To upgrade the knowledge and skills of in-service and practicing rehabilitation
professionals/ personnel, registered with the RCI under Section 19 of the RCI Act
of 1992.
ii. To update professional knowledge and skills of master trainers working in the
field of disability rehabilitation and special education.
iii. To provide job opportunities to special educators.
iv. Raise funds for special education institutes.

Choose the correct option:

a) iii and iv b) ii and iii c) i and iii d) i and ii

91. Which is the most important component of expenditure in higher educational institutions?
a) Capital Expenditure
b) Library and research
c) Construction and maintenance of buildings
d) Salaries

92. Which of the following is best possible means to achieve long term objectives?
a) strategies b) policies
c) opportunities d) assertive efforts

93. Which combination of following characteristics correctly describes the Bureaucratic

Administration?
(i) Well defined rules
(ii) Established hierarchy
(iii) Standard operating procedures
(iv) Good interpersonal relationships
(v) Combined responsibility of completing work

Code:
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) b) (i), (ii) and (v)
c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

94. Which one of the following is not the feature of the System audit?
a) Verification of controls in the processing of information and installation of systems
to evaluate their effectiveness and also present some recommendations and advice
b) Verifying and judging information subjectively
c) Examination and evaluation of the process in terms of computerization and data
processing.
d) Verification of controls in information processing and system installation to assess
their efficacy and provide some recommendations and advice

Principal (Higher Education) D-18

 95. According to the NEP - 2020, four structures will be set up as four independent verticals
within one umbrella Institution, the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI). Which
among the following does not come under the four independent verticals?
a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)
b) National Assessment Council (NAC)
c) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC)
d) General Education Council (GEC)
96. Which of the following National Assessment Centre has been proposed to be set up as a
standard-setting body under Ministry of Education by NEP-2020?
a) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
b) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
c) PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Application of Knowledge for
Holistic Development)
d) PARAKH (Perfect Assessment, Record, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic
Development)
97. Which of the following Article of the Constitution refers that „all moneys received by or
deposited with any officer employed in connection with the affairs of the Union in his
capacity as such, other than revenues or public moneys raised or received by Government,
shall be paid into the Public Account‟.
a) Under Article 281 b) Under Article 282
c) Under Article 283 d) Under Article 284
98. India‟s first AYUSH university will be set up in which state of India?
a) Sikkim b) Haryana c) Karnataka d) West Bengal
99. STEM Educational approach in undergraduate programme have showed
i. Positive Learning outcomes
ii. Decreased creativity and Innovation
iii. Increased creativity and Innovation
iv. Mastery of curricula across fields
v. Negative learning outcomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options
a) i, iii & iv b) ii, iv & v c) iii, v & i d) iv, i & ii
100. Which of the following are the rights of statutory auditors?
i To receive remuneration
ii To attend board of director‟s meeting
iii To attend the general meeting
iv To visit the branch office
Choose the correct option:
a) i & ii b) i, ii & iv c) i, ii, iii & iv d) i, iii & iv
Principal (Higher Education) D-19
 Section II
101. Women were allowed to sit for which exam following the Supreme Court interim Order.
a) UPSC b) CDS c) JCO d) NDA

102. Consider the following statements

1. The Booker Prize, a leading literary award in the English speaking world, is awarded
to the best novel of the year written in English and published in the UK and Ireland
2. Damon Galgut won the 2021 Booker Prize for Fiction for his novel „The Promise‟
3. Damon Galgut also won the Booker Prize for Fiction earlier in the years 2003 and
2010

Which of the above statement/s is correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

103. Which Indian Institute of Technology topped in overall category in the NIRF India
Rankings 2021?
a) IIT Roorkee b) IIT Madras
c) IIT Delhi d) IIT Kanpur

104. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the ball.
Saurabh is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenny and Bunty are side by side behind
Saurabh. Zicco is behind Jenny and Bunty. Saurabh tries for the tackle but misses and falls.
Bunty trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?
a) Saurabh b) Zicco c) Jenny d) Bunty

105. Malala Yousafzai Scholarship Bill has been introduced in

a) USA b) Pakistan c) India d) Sweden

106. A number is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will
continue the same pattern and fill in the blank spaces-
1, 4, 27, 16, ________, 36, 343
a) 121 b) 125 c) 244 d) 81

107. Consider the following statements:

1. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in the field of cinema which is
presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of
Film Festivals, an organisation set up by the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting.
2. The award was introduced by the Government of India to commemorate
Dadasaheb Phalke's contribution to Indian cinema who is popularly regarded as
"the father of Indian cinema".

Principal (Higher Education) D-20

 3. Dadasaheb Phalke directed India's first full-length feature film, Alam Ara in 1931.
4. Legendary actor Rajinikanth was honoured with the 51st Dadasaheb Phalke
Award for his contribution to Indian Cinema.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

108. Which state Police launched a new initiative called the „Pink Protection Project‟ for the
protection of women in public, private and digital spaces?
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka

109. Which one of the following is the first electric vehicle friendly highway in India?
a) Mumbai- Ahmedabad b) Delhi- Chandigarh
c) Chennai-Bengaluru d) Panipat-Ambala.

110. Iconic Indian comic book cartoon character, Chacha Chaudhary, whose brain works faster
than a computer, has been declared as the official mascot for which centrally-sponsored
programme?
a) Namami Gange Programme b) Ayushman Bharat Yojana
c) Digital India d) AMRUT

111. It was Saturday on 31st December, 2005. What was the day of the week on Jan 31, 2010?
a) Saturday b) Sunday c) Monday d) Tuesday

112. The largest Aromatic Garden in India is situated in which of the following states?
a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Uttarakhand d) Sikkim

113. R is father of P. Q is sister of R. T is mother of Q. How is P related to T?

a) Grandmother b) Uncle
c) Granddaughter d) Aunt

114. What is mirror Image of ILAIALIIALAILAILA ?

a) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃IAII⅃AIA⅃I
b) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AII⅃AIA⅃I
c) A⅃IA⅃IA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I
d) A⅃IA⅃IIA⅃AI⅃AIA⅃I

Principal (Higher Education) D-21

115. Which of the following statements with respect to Ken-Betwa inter-linking of rivers
project, is/are Correct?
(i) This is the country‟s first river interlinking project.
(ii) The project aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in UP to Betwa in
MP.
(iii) The National Interlinking of Rivers Authority (NIRA) has the powers to set up
SPV for individual link projects.
(iv) The project involves building a 77-metre tall and a 2-km wide Dhaudhan dam and
a 230-km canal.
a) i, ii and iii b) i, iii, iv c) ii, iii, iv d) i, ii, iv
116. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth, the
seventh and the eleventh letters of the word DISTRIBUTION which of the following will
be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed give X as answer.
a) O b) I c) X d) B

117. If NOBLE is 48, NOVICE is 68, then what is CHILDREN?

a) 78 b) 69 c) 73 d) 63

118. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

gorblflur means seat belt
pixngorbl means car seat
arthtusl means tyre roof
Which word could mean "car tyre"?
a) gorbltusl b) flurgorbl c) arthflur d) pixnarth

119. Consider the following statements regarding Tokyo Paralympics, 2021:

1. The Games featured 539 medal events in 22 sports

2. China topped the medal table, Great Britain finished second, the United States finished
third and India finished twenty fourth
3. India secured a total of 19 medals which includes 5 Gold, 8 Silver, and 6 Bronze
medals
Which of the above statement/s is correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
120. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. ThenA
turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the
starting point?
a) 5km b) 4km c) 10km d) 8km

*****

Principal (Higher Education) D-22

 Rough Work

Principal (Higher Education) D-23

Principal (Higher Education) D-24