Conducting Pre-Assessment: Lesson 5
Conducting Pre-Assessment: Lesson 5
Conducting Pre-Assessment: Lesson 5
Conducting Pre-Assessment
Contents:
1. Recognition of Prior Knowledge.
2. Pre-assessment.
Assessment Criteria:
1. Pre-assessment instrument are prepared in accordance with the number of applicants.
2. Context and procedures of pre-training assessment are well explained according to
guidelines.
3. Evidence is gathered using the assessment tools specified in the evidence plan.
4. Evidences are evaluated and feedbacks are discussed based on the result of the pre-
training assessment.
5. Current competencies and prior learning are determined and credited.
6. Characteristics and profile of learners are evaluated.
Information Sheet 5.1
Recognition of Prior Learning
Learning Objectives:
1. Define RPL.
2. Enumerate the advantages of RPL.
3. Determine evidences of competency.
4. Identify the criteria for assessing evidences of prior learning.
Recognition of Prior Learning
Recognition of prior learning refers to the acknowledgement of skills and knowledge
held as a result of formal training, work experience and/or life experience.
Recognition of prior learning or experience is a form of assessment used to determine
whether a person has achieved, through informal and formal learning and experience, the
required competence for entry and/ or credit in a recognised course or training program.
(Rumsey, 1994).
RPL is an essential component of competency-based training. It focuses on current
competency standards gained by individuals through:
Work experience
Life experience
Formal training
Informal training
Advantages of RPL
RPL allows you to complete formal education in a shorter period of time and at less
cost.
RPL means that you do not have to repeat or waste time learning what you have
already learned.
RPL increases your career and education options through recognized skills and
knowledge.
RPL allows for fairer access to studies that you wish to undertake.
Evidences for RPL
A trainee needs to provide sufficient evidence of his knowledge and skills by
submitting relevant documents and/or materials. The integrity of the RPL process cannot be
compromised, therefore the burden is on the trainee to supply as much evidence as possible
but it is with the trainer to confirm trainee’s competence.
Evidence could consist of any or all of the following:
Formal statement of result
Examples of work or resources which you have produced
Performance appraisal reports
References from current or previous employers
Position descriptions/job role
Details of formal training, seminars, conferences and workshops you have attended
which are relevant to the qualification.
Certificates of participation/achievements/awards/letters of commendation
Specific details of work and/or participation in projects
Written testimonials from managers or colleagues
Written validation from workplace supervisor
Documented workplace demonstration
RPL Assessment
The process includes an assessment of skills and knowledge against the elements and
performance criteria of the relevant unit. Trainee’s competency will be assessed against the
following six criteria.
Authenticity. Does the trainee have evidence of his skills and knowledge? (Include
formal qualifications, position descriptions, references and any other material to
support the claim. The evidence must be authenticated by the appropriate authority.
Currency. Are the skills and knowledge used in the work force now?
Quality. Are the skills and knowledge at a standard appropriate for current
requirements as per Competency Standards?
Relevance. Are the skills and knowledge relevant to the particular qualification?
Transferability. Are the skills and knowledge gained elsewhere relevant to the
particular qualification?
Validity. Can the applicant demonstrate a skill required for the course? (This may be
necessary for practical units.)
The perceived benefits of RPL for participants:
Formal recognition of work and life skills
Elimination of redundant learning
Reduction in time spent in college
More rapid access to higher paid and higher status jobs
The perceived benefits for the Training Institution:
Avoid wasting resources on retraining students who already possess relevant skills
and experience
Maximising places for those people who need training in the longer term, closer
liaison with industry
The perceived benefits for employers:
Speedier training of employees
Continuity of staff
More effective and efficient use of skills in the industry resulting in a balance between
labour supply and demand
Employees’ study leave requirements and time away from the workplace being kept
to a minimum
Information Sheet 5.2
Pre-assessment
Learning Objectives:
1. Identify and explain the purpose of pre-assessment.
2. Enumerate the materials needed for pre-assessment.
3. Develop TOS and test questionnaire.
Purpose of Pre-assessment
The following are some of the purpose of pre-assessment:
1. To determine trainee’s characteristics
Trainee’s characteristics are inputs in the preparation and scheduling of the activities
of each trainee. Training methods appropriate for the trainee will be dependent o his
characteristics and learning styles.
2. To recognize prior learning
CBT recognize prior learning. This is especially important when planning the learning
activities of each trainee. A pre-assessment is necessary to recognize the skills that are
already learned previously through training or experience of the trainee. Before
recognizing the prior learning however, pre-assessment should be done. It is
recommended that the knowledge are recognized:
a. Self-assessment
b. Portfolio assessment
c. Interview
After the self-assessment and portfolio assessment, it is necessary to make sure the
trainee has a prior learning for recognition. If in doubt about the portfolio submitted,
the ultimate test is to let him demonstrate the skill. Before the demonstration however,
it is more cost efficient to interview the trainee to establish the possibility that he can
demonstrate. The Institutional Competency Evaluation Tool is the best source of the
interview questions since these questions were based on the evidence plan.
d. Demonstration method (use the institutional evaluation tools)
The ultimate test of competency is demonstration skills.
The Institutional Competency Evaluation Tool is most appropriate for this
purpose.
1. Define the content categories. This is the scope or coverage of what was
taught- the classroom test- or what was intended to be taught (achievements
test).
2. Define the skills. This can be defined in general categories or in specific
behaviour.
3. Determine relative weights. For content and skills categories assign weighs
considering priorities and points for emphasis.
4. Complete the entries. Allocate the number of items in each category. It is
necessary to fill all the cells.
Prototype 1
Prototype 3
Prototype 4
3.4 Assessment Tools Development
Binomial-choice tests are tests that have only two (2) options such as true or
false, right or wrong, good or better and so on. A student who knows nothing of the
content of the examination would have 50% chance of getting the correct answer by
sheer guess work.
Obviously, the answer is FALSE because 100 years from 1898 is not
2000 but 1998.
Rule 2. Avoid using the words “always”, “never”, “often” and other adverbs that
tend to be either always true or always false.
Rule 3. Avoid long sentences as these tend to be “true”. Keep sentences short.
Example: Tests need to be valid, reliable and useful, although, it would require
a
great amount of time and effort to ensure that tests possess these test
characteristics.
Notice that the statement is true. However, we are also not sure which
part of the sentence is deemed true by the student. It is just fortunate
that in this case, all parts of the above sentence is true. The following
example illustrates what can go wrong in long sentences.
Example: Tests need to be valid, reliable and useful since it takes very little
amount of time, money and effort to construct tests with these
characteristics. _________
The first part of the sentence is true but the second part is debatable
and may, in fact, be false. Thus, a “true” response is correct and also,
a “false” response is correct.
Rule 4. Avoid trick statement with some minor misleading word or spelling
anomaly; misplaced phrases etc. A wise student who does not know the subject
matter may detect this strategy and this get the answer correctly.
Rule 5. Avoid quoting verbatim from reference materials or textbooks. This practice
sends the wrong signal to the students that it is necessary to memorize the textbook
word for word and thus, acquisition of higher level thinking skills are not given due
importance.
A generalization of the true-false test, the multiple choice type of test offers
the student with more than two (2) options per item to choose from.
In the set of options, there is a “correct” or “best” option while all the others
are considered “distracters”. The distracters are chosen in such a way that they are
attractive to those who do not know who actually know the answer.
Rule 1. Do not use unfamiliar words, terms and phrases. The ability of the item to
discriminate or its level of difficulty should stem from the subject matter rather than
from the wording of the question.
Example: What would be the system reliability of a computer system whose slave
and
peripherals are connected in parallel circuits and each one has a known
time
to failure probability of 0.05?
The qualifier “much” is vague and could have been replaced by more
specific
qualifiers like: “90% of the photosynthesis process” or some similar phrase
that would be more precise.
Example:
(Better) Who was the President of the Philippines after Corazon C. Aquino?
Example:
(Poor) Which of the following will not cause inflation in the Philippine economy?
(Better) Which of the following will cause inflation in the Philippine economy?
(Poor) What does the statement “Development patterns acquired during the formative
years are NOT unchangeable” imply?
a.
b.
c.
d.
(Better) What does the statement “Development patterns acquired during the
formative years are changeable” imply?
Rule 5. Each item stem should be as short as possible; otherwise you risk testing for
reading and comprehension skills.
The short story: May Day’s Eve, was written by which Filipino author?
If distracters had all been Filipino authors, the value of the item would be
greatly increased. In this particular instance, only the first three carry the
burden of the entire item since the last two can be essentially disregarded by
the students.
Rule 7. All multiple choice options should be grammatically consistent with the
stem.
Example:
If the three angels of two triangles are congruent, then the triangles are:
The correct choice, “b” may be obvious from its length and explicitness
alone. The other choices are long and tend to explain why they must be the
correct choices forcing students to think that they are, in fact, not the correct
answers.
Rule 10. Avoid alternatives that are synonymous with others or those that, include
or overlap others.
Example:
What causes ice to transform from solid state to liquid state?
a. Change in temperature
b. Changes in pressure
c. Change in the chemical composition
d. Change in heat levels
The options a and d are essentially the same. Thus, a student who spots these
identical choices would right away narrow down the field of choices a,b,c.
The last distracter would play no significant role in increasing the value of the
item.
Rule 11. Avoid presenting sequenced items in the same order as in the text.
Rule 12: Avoid use of assumed qualifiers that many examinees may not be aware
of.
Rule 13. Avoid use of unnecessary words or phrases, which are not relevant to the
problem at hand (unless such discriminating ability is the primary intent of the
evaluation). The item’s value is particularly damaged if the unnecessary material is
designed to distract or mislead. Such items test the student’s reading
comprehension rather than knowledge of the subject matter.
Example:
The side opposite the thirty degree angle in a right triangle is equal to half the
length of the hypotenuse. If the sine of a 30-degree is 0.5 and its hypotenuse is
5, what is the length of the side opposite the 30-degree angle?
a. 2.5
b. 3.5
c. 5.5
d. 1.5
The sine of a 30-degree angle is really quite necessary since the first sentence
already gives the method for finding the length of the side opposite the thirty-
degree angle. This is a case of a teacher who wants to make sure that no
student in his class gets the wrong answer!
Note the previous example, knowledge of the sine of the 30-degree angle
would have led some students to use sine formula for calculation even if a
simpler approach would have sufficed.
Rule 16. Include as much of the item as possible in the stem. This allows less
repetition and shorter choice options.
Rule 17. Use the “None of the above” option only when the keyed answer is totally
correct. When choice of the “best” response is intended, “none of the above” is not
appropriate, since the implication has already been made that the correct response
may be partially inaccurate.
Rule 18. Note that use of “all of the above” may allow credit for partial knowledge.
In a multiple option item, (allowing only one option choice) if a student only knew
that two (2) options were correct, he could then deduce the correctness of “all of the
above”. This assumes you are allowed only one correct choice.
Rule 19. Having compound response choices may purposefully increase difficulty
of an item.
Rule 20. The difficulty of a multiple choice item may be controlled by varying the
homogeneity or degree of similarity of responses. The more homogeneous, the
more difficult the item.
The multiple response test is very similar to the multiple choice test. The only
difference is that in the multiple choice test there is only one correct response but in
the multiple response test there are two or more correct answers.
The rules for multiple choice test also apply to the multiple response test
except that there should be more options and there are more than one correct options.
A matching type test is composed of two columns; one is called stimulus and
the other, the response column. Each item in one column is to be matched with
another item to which it corresponds in the other column. The two columns should
always be on the same page.
This test is good for measuring factual knowledge but not very effective in
measuring higher levels of understanding. The rules for construction are the
following:
Rule 1. There should be two columns, written side by side, the stimulus column or
question column should be written to the left side and the response column to the
right. There should be short blank before each stimulus question where to write the
symbol of the response to which the question refers in the response column.
Rule 2. Directions should be clear in stating what items in the response column
should be matched within the stimulus column and vice versa and what symbols of the
response items should be written before the stimulus items to which they correspond.
Rule 3. The response column should contain more items, at least two more than the
stimulus column so that the pairing of items may not be done by the process of
elimination. This is to avoid the automatic pairing of the last items after all the others
have been paired. This is because the usual practice is to make the most probable
pairs and the remaining items are automatically paired.
Rule 4. Only items with the same relationship should be included in a single matching
series such as wars-dates, books-authors, countries-capital cities, positions-men,
etc. If there are different kinds of relationships, pairing may be done not only by
knowledge but also by logical relationship.
Rule 5. Order of items is not an important consideration but if the items in one
column should be arranged in some order, the items in the other column should be
arranged randomly.
Rule 6. The number of items in the stimulus column should be about ten. Making the
number very much lower than ten may make the test too short and easy but making
the number very much higher than ten makes pairing very laborious.
Example:
Match the capital towns in column B with the provinces in Column A and
write the letter symbol of each town in Column B before the province in Column A to
which it corresponds.
A B
___________ 1. Cagayan a. Malolos
___________ 2. Pampanga b. Pasig
___________ 3. Rizal c. Vigan
___________ 4. Bulacan d. Lucena
___________ 5. Ilocos Sur e. Tugugarao
___________ 6. Isabela f. Lingayen
___________ 7. Zambales g. San Fernando
___________ 8. Pangasinan h. Daet
___________ 9. Batangas i. Laoag
___________ 10. Ilocos Norte j. Bangued
k. Ilagan
l. Iba
m. Batangas
Essays
The essay test is the traditional type of examination in which the subject or examinee
is made to discuss, enumerate, compare, state, explain, analyse, or criticize (Good,
559).
A. According to Brevity:
1. Simple recall question. This type of question demands a short response, a
sentence or two, to a question which usually begins with what, who, where,
and when. This is also of the enumeration type.
2. Short answer question. The answer to this question may be a statement, a
phrase or a sentence.
3. Discussion Type. This type of question starting with explain, describe,
interpret, compare, contrast, outline, and the like.
G. Analysis
Examples:
a) Give an analysis of the present structure of the government.
b) Analyze the economic policies of the government.
c) Make an analysis of the educational system of the country.
H. Summary
Examples:
a) Summarize the discussion about the Philippine Revolution.
b) Make a summary of the chapter on the Fil-American War.
c) Summarize the lecture on evaluation.
I. Evaluation or Criticism
Examples:
a) Evaluate the results of killing of Benigno Aquino, Jr.
b) Criticize the infrastructure program of the government.
c) What were the good results of martial law?
J. Outline
Examples:
a) Make an outline on the unit of culture.
b) Outline the steps in making soap.
c) Outline the lesson on rice production.
K. Classification.
Examples:
a) Classify the countries of the world according to population.
b) Make a scientific classification of animals.
c) Make a classification of the provinces according to income.
M. Narration
Examples:
a) Narrate the story of Rizal and his loves.
b) Narrate the biography of Andres Bonifacio.
c) Narrate the events that led to the proclamation of martial law.
Rule 1. Phrase the direction in such a way that students are guided on the key
concepts to be included.
Example:
Write an essay on the topic: “Plan Photosynthesis” using the following
keywords and phrases: Chlorophyll, sunlight, water, carbon dioxide, oxygen,
by-product, stomata.
Note that the students are properly guided in terms of the keywords that the
teacher is looking for in this essay examination.
Rule 2. Inform the students on the criteria to be used for grading their essays. This
rule allows the students to focus o relevant and substantive materials rather than
on peripheral and unnecessary facts and bits of information.
Example:
Write an essay on the topic: “Plant Photosynthesis” using the keywords
indicated. You will be graded according to the following criteria: (a)
coherence, (b) accuracy of statements, (c) use of keywords, (d) clarity, and (e)
extra points for innovative presentation of ideas.
Rule 4. Decide on your essay grading system prior to getting the essays of your
students.
Rule 5. Evaluate all of the students’ answer to one question before proceeding to
the next question.
Rule 6. Evaluate answers to essay questions without knowing the identity of the
writer.
Rule 7. Whenever possible, have two or more persons grade each answer.
a. Using the procedures we have discussed, what would you include in a summary of
Bacon’s essay?
b. How does the law of supply and demand explain the current increase in fruit and
vegetable prices?
c. Based on your Knowledge, what statistical procedure is appropriate for this
problem?
Analysis- Breaking a piece of material into its parts and explaining the relationship between
the parts.
a. What are the major points that E.B. White used to develop the thesis of this essay?
b. What factors in the American Economy are affecting the current price of steel?
c. What is the relationship of probability to statistical analysis?
a. How might style of writing and the thesis of a given essay be related?
b. How are long-term and short-term consumer loan interest rates related to the prime
rate?
c. How would you proceed if you were going to do an experiment on calorie intake?
a. Does Hemingway use adjectives effectively to enhance his term in The Old Man and
the Sea?
b. How successful would the proposed federal income tax cut be in controlling inflation
as well as decreasing unemployment?
c. How well does the Stillman Diet meet the criteria for an ideal weight reduction plan?