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PHARMACOLOGY
POST-TEST
Prepared by: Dra. Elenita Arreglo

NAME: ___________________________________________________________________________________________

1. A client underwent total thyroidectomy. The nurse anticipates that the doctor will prescribed a lifetime
supply of
1. Levothyroxine
2. Propylthiouracil
3. Calcium
4. Methimazole
5. Iodine
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 1 and 5
e. 1 only

2. A client with megaloblastic anemia and experiencing peripheral numbness and tingling sensation will be
given
a. Folic Acid
b. Cyanocobalamine
c. Ferrous sulphate
d. Erythropoietin
e. None of the above

3. Which of the following is not a chemotherapeutic drug?

a. Hormone modulators
b. Methotrexate
c. 5 fluoro uracil
d. Rifampicin

Situation: A client with thyrotoxicosis is admitted in the emergency room because of thyroid
crisis, BP 190/110, HR 120and irregular RR 34 Temperature 39 degree Celsius, client is lethargic
with cold clammy extremities. The doctor orders the following: ECG, CXR, Propylthiouracil (PTU),
Metoprolol, Paracetamol and thyroid function tests. Answer questions 5 – 9
4. What should the nurse carry out first?
a. Thyroid function tests
b. ECG
c. Metoprolol
d. PTU
e. CXR

5. The nurse anticipates that the ECG of the above client will reveal
a. Heart blocks
b. Tachyarrhythmias
c. Bradyarrythmias
d. Flat line

6. PTU will act to

a. Decrease iodine storage of the thyroid gland
b. Increase synthesis of thyroid hormones
c. Decrease synthesis of thyroid hormones
d. Decrease body temperature

7. After administering Metoprolol, it is most important for the nurse to monitor for
a. ECG
b. Heart rate
c. BP
d. Urine output
 e. Temperature

8. Anti thyroid medications will have a primary adverse effect of

a. Thyroid enlargement
b. Dysrhythmias
c. Hypothyroidism
d. All of the above

9. Adrenergic agonist effect, except

a. Tachycardia
b. Bronchodilation
c. Vasoconstriction
d. Urinary incontinence
e. None of the above

10. Anticholinergic drugs will cause

a. Bronchodilation
b. Bradycardia
c. Increase gastric secretion
d. Bladder emptying
e. All of the above

11. Neuro muscular junction (NMJ) blockers will cause

a. Muscle relaxation
b. Muscle contraction
c. Enhance acetylcholine effect
d. Blocks acetylcholine enzyme

12. A sign of the primary adverse effect of insulin is

a. Palpitation
b. Dry and warm skin
c. Bradycardia
d. Flushing of the face

13. Majority of drug’s metabolism takes place in the

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. GIT
d. Skin

14. Half life refers to

a. Time it takes for the drug to reduce to half from the peak level it previously
achieved
b. Time it takes for the drug to be excreted after half the hour
c. Time it takes for the drug to be absorbed and metabolized in the body
d. Time is takes for the drug to be used by the body and totally be excreted in the kidneys

15. Critical concentration refers to

a. Therapeutic level
b. Over dose of drugs
c. Under dose of drugs
d. Higher than usual dose

16. Amine neurotransmitters, except

a. Acetylcholine
b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin

17. Anticholinesterase drugs act to

a. Enhance acetylcholinesterase
b. Increase acetylcholine in the junction
c. Blocks acetylcholine
d. None of the above

18. Anti alzheimer’s drug are anticholinesterase drug acting in the CNS. An example of which is
a. Neostigmine
b. Rivastigmine
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Physostigmine
19. Mr. James is a 56-year-old client with chronic renal failure. The nurse should recognize that this client
will be at particular risk for which condition?
a. Rapid development of drug toxicity
b. Development of allergic reaction to nephrotoxic drugs
c. Slow development of tolerance for drugs
d. Need for increased doses of prescribed drugs

20. A client who has had a long leg cast applied is to be discharged. When discussing pain management, the
nurse should advise the client to take the prescribed prn Tylenol with codeine:
a. just as a last resort
b. when the discomfort begins
c. before going to sleep
d. as the pain becomes intense

21. The physician orders a low dosage of an opiod to relieve the pain of a client with deep partial thickness
burns. The nurse recognizes that the preferred mode of administration during the emergent phase is:
a. oral c. intravenous
b. rectal d. intramuscular

22. A 60-year-old client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease. The client is started
with levodopa therapy. This drug will relieve and control symptoms by:
a. blocking the effects of acetylcholine
b. restoring dopamine levels in the brain
c. increasing the production of dopamine
d. promoting the production of Acetylcholine

23. Some drugs may be completely metabolized by the liver circulation before ever reaching the general
circulation. This effect is known as what?
a. Conjugation of drugs
b. Hepatic microsomal enzyme system
c. Blood-brain barrier
d. First-pass

24. Which of the following can produce a therapeutic response? A drug that is:
a. Bound to plasma albumin

b. Concentrated in the bile
c. Concentrated in the urine

d. Not absorbed from the GI tract


e. Unbound to plasma proteins

25. Anticholinergic agents achieve their effect in treating Parkinson’s disease by antagonizing which nervous
system?
a. Autonomic c. Peripheral
b. Parasympathetic d. Sympathetic

26. Myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis are the major complications of myasthenia gravis. Which of the
following is essential nursing knowledge when caring for a client in crisis?
a. weakness and paralysis of the muscles for swallowing and breathing occur in either crisis
b. cholinergic drugs should be administered to prevent further complications associated with the crisis
c. the clinical condition of the client usually improves after several days of treatment
d. loss of body function creates high levels of anxiety and fear

27. A client with myasthenia gravis reports the occurrence of difficulty chewing. The physician prescribes
pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to increase muscle strength for this activity. The nurse instructs the
client to take the medication at what time, in relation to meals?
a. after dinner daily when most fatigued
b. before breakfast daily
c. as soon as arising in the morning
d. thirty minutes before each meal

28. All of the following symptoms are evidence of a superinfection except:

a. White oral plaques
b. Creamy vaginal discharge
c. Skin rash
d. none of these

29. After one week of antidepressant medication, Kate still manifests depression. The nurse evaluates this
as;
a. Unusual because action of antidepressant drug is immediate
b. Unexpected because therapeutic effectiveness takes within a few days
c. Expected because therapeutic effectiveness takes 2-4 weeks
d. Ineffective result because perhaps the drug's dosage is inadequate

30. Which of the following indicates effectiveness of Spirolactone, in the client with liver cirrhosis?
a. increase in weight
b. decrease in abdominal girth
c. increase in serum potassium level
d. decrease in jaundice

31. Mechanism of action : prazosin (Minipres) is an alpha 1 receptor blocker, the effect is
a. vasodilation
b. vasoconstriction
c. bradicardia
d. calcium channel blocker

32. Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated in:

a. Hypertension
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Migraines
d. Obstructive airway disease

33. The nurse providing teaching for a patient who has a new prescription for β-blockers will keep in mind
that these drugs may result in;
a. Tachycardia c. Bradycardia
b. Tachypnea d. Bradypnea

34. When giving IV cholinergic, the nurse must watch for symptoms of a cholinergic crisis. Which of the
following is a symptom of this reaction?
a. Diarrhea c. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension d. urinary retention

35. A patient took an accidental overdose of a cholinergic drug while at home. He goes to the emergency
department with severe abdominal cramping and bloody diarrhea. The nurse expects that which drug
will be used to treat this patient?
a. Atropine c. Lidocaine
b. Physostigmine d. Protamine sulfate

36. The nurse administering a cholinergic-blocking drug would expect to see which of the following effects
in the patient?
a. Miosis
b. Increased muscle rigidity
c. Increased bronchial secretions
d. Decreased GI motility and peristalsis

37. Teratogenic drugs, except

a. Thalidomide
b. Doxycycline
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Amoxicillin

38. The adverse reaction of the drug referring to the effect other than therapeutic effect
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Hypersensitivity
d. Arthus reaction

39. Pregnancy category wherein animal studies showed adverse effects but no adequate studies in human.
Potential benefits higher than risk
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
d. Category D
e. Category X

40. The absolute contraindication to drug therapy is

a. Hypersensitivity
b. Pregnancy
c. Lactation
d. Malignancy
 41. The criteria in choosing the right anti – infective drugs to patients, except
a. Broad spectrum
b. Least adverse effects
c. Microrganisms are highly sensitive to it
d. No exception

42. Over the counter drugs are

a. Relatively safe
b. No adverse effect
c. Requires prescription
d. All of the above

43. The client has a pancreatic problem is to receive Omeprazole (Prisolec) 120 mg PO TID. It is available
as 40 mg capsules. How many capsules will the nurse administer?
a. 2 capsules
b. 3 capsules
c. 4 capsules
d. 6 capsules

44. If the patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting and is unable to take the capsule, how many ml is
to be given IV if the available drug is 40mg/2 ml?
a. 2 ml
b. 3 ml
c. 4 ml
d. 6 ml

45. The doctor orders for Coamoxiclav (250 mg/5ml) for a 30 pound child with acute tonsillopharyngitis.
Recommended dose is 25mg/kg/day every 8 hours for 7 days/ Available is 60 ml. How many ml should
the patient receive par day to attain critical concentration?
a. 7 ml
b. 10 ml
c. 15 ml
d. 20 ml

Solution: convert first 30 pouns to kilogram, that is 30/2.2 = 13.6 kg

Get the desired dose 25mg/kg/day every 8 hrs = 25mg x 13.5 kg = 340mg/day (desired dose per
day. 340 mg/250mg x 5 ml = 6.8 or 7 ml/day
46. How many ml is to be given per dose?
a. 2.5 ml
b. 3.5 ml
c. 4 ml
d. 7.5 ml

Solution: 340mg/day divided by 3 (every 8 hours) = 113.3/dose

113.3 mg/250mg x 5 ml = 2.26 ml/ dose = 2.5 ml/dose
47. Order: Infuse 2 liters Lactated ringers solution. IV set 10 drops/ml. If the flow rate is 40 gtts/ml, how
long will the nurse infuse the IVF?
a. 8 hours
b. 9 hours
c. 10 hours
d. 11 hours
48. A patient is admitted with dehydration and sepsis. The doctor orders for infusion of dextrose 5% in
water at 125 ml/hr. the drop factor is 15 gtts/ml. What is the correct flow rate?
a. 15gtts/min
b. 20 gtts/min
c. 31 gtts/min
d. 125 gtts/min
49. A patient is to receive 20 meq of potassium chloride in 100 ml of normal saline solution over 30
minutes for hypokalemia. The microdrip administration set at 20 gtts/ml. What is the correct flow rate?
a. 20 gtts/min
b. 67 gtts/min
c. 72 gtts/min
d. 200 gtts/min
50. A doctor orders for a patient with sepsis Doxycyline 100 mg IV piggyback over 2 hours. The pharmacy
has mixed it in 100 ml of normal saline solution. What is the correct flow rate if the drop factor is 15
gtts/ml?
a. 13 gtts/min
b. 15 gtts/min
c. 26 gtts/min
d. 100 gtts/min