Scince X Solved Paper

(i)
The question paper consists of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both
the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided.
(iv) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted
separately.
(v) Questions number 1 to 5 in Section A and 21 to 23 in Section B are short answer
type questions. These questions carry one mark each.
(vi) Questions number 6 to 10 in Section A and 24 to 25 in Section B are short answer
type questions and carry two marks each.
(vii) Questions number 11 to 17 in Section A and 26 to 29 in Section B are also short
answer type questions and carry three marks each.
(viii) Questions number 18 to 20 in section A and question number 30 in section B
are long answer type questions and carry five marks each.
Section A
Question 1 ( 1.0 marks)
Give an example of photochemical reactions.
Solution:
An example of photochemical reactions is the process of photosynthesis occurring in the leaves of green
plants.
Name a metal which offers higher resistance to the passage of electricity than copper.
Solution:
State a reaction in which SO2 acts as an oxidising agent.
Solution:
Sulphur dioxide oxidises hydrogen sulphide (H 2S) to sulphur (S).
Where will the image be formed by a concave mirror when an object is placed between
the pole and the focus point of the mirror?
Solution:
An image will form behind the mirror when an object is placed between pole and the focus of a concave
mirror.
Which has a higher resistance: a 50 W lamp bulb or a 25 W lamp bulb and how many
times?
Solution:
The resistance of 25 W lamp bulb has a higher value as compared to that of 50 W lamp bulb. Resistance of the
25 W lamp bulb will be double of that of the 50 W lamp bulb.
How is plaster of Paris chemically different from gypsum? How may they
be interconverted? Write one use of plaster of Paris.
Solution:
Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO 4.½H2O) while gypsum is calcium sulphate dihydrate
(CaSO4.2H2O).
Gypsum, when heated at a temperature of about 380 K, changes to plaster of Paris.
Plaster of Paris, when mixed with water, changes into hard mass called gypsum.
Plaster of Paris is used in hospitals for setting fractured bones.
Allotropy is a property shown by which class of substances, elements,

compounds or mixtures? Give one example of allotropy.
Solution:
The property of allotropy is shown by the elements.
Sulphur has two allotropes − rhombic sulphur and monoclinic sulphur.
Draw diagrams to distinguish between 'equatorial orbit' and 'polar orbit' of artificial satellites of
earth.
Solution:

With respect to air, the refractive indices of water and benzene are 1.33
and 1.50 respectively. Calculate the refractive index of benzene with
respect to water.
Solution:
Refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 ( 2µ1)
It is given that:
With respect to air, refractive index of water is 1.33.
With respect to air, refractive index of benzene is 1.50.
Therefore, with respect to water, refractive index of benzene = = 1.127
What is the cause of release of unusually large energies in nuclear fission

reactions? How is the energy per fission calculated?
OR
What is a thermal neutron? Draw a schematic diagram depicting fission of a U-235 nucleus on absorption of a
thermal neutron.
Solution:
Nuclear fission is a nuclear reaction where nucleus of a heavy atom splits into two lighter nuclei. In this
process, some nuclear mass gets destroyed and converted into energy. According to Einstein’s mass−energy
relation, when a mass is destroyed, it gets converted into a huge amount of energy. It is the destruction of
mass that is responsible for the release of unusually large energies in nuclear fission reactions.
This part of the question is out of current syllabus.
Or
Out of current syllabus
(a) State the relation between hydrogen ion concentration of an aqueous solution and its pH.
(b) The pH of an aqueous solution decreases from 3 to 2. Calculate how many times the hydrogen ion
concentration of the solution will change.
Solution:
(a) Following is the relation between hydrogen ion concentration of an aqueous solution and its pH.
(b) If the pH of the solution decreases from 3 to 2, then
Hence, hydrogen ion concentration will increase 10 times.
Explain the following regarding the manufacture of ammonia by Haber's process, The reaction being;
(i) This reaction is carried out at a high temperature even though it is an exothermic reaction.
(ii) To make ammonia, the mixture of N2 and H2 gases is passed over heated iron.
Solution:
(i) Haber’s process for the synthesis of ammonia is carried out at a high temperature because at low
temperatures, the reaction becomes very slow due to which the rate of formation of ammonia becomes very
slow.
(ii) Heated iron acts as a catalyst in the synthesis of ammonia. It accelerates the rate of reaction and hence
acts as a promoter.
(i) Distinguish between an addition polymer and a condensation polymer.

(ii) Choose one condensation polymer and one addition polymer from amongst the following:
nylon, teflon, neoprene, polyester
(iii) Write a chemical equation for the reaction involved in the formation of a polyamide.
Solution:
(i) Following are the differences between an addition and a condensation polymer:
Sl.No Addition Polymers Condensation Polymers
(a) These are obtained by the addition These are obtained by the
reactions of unsaturated condensation reactions between two
compounds containing double and different organic compounds (called
triple bonds. monomers).
(b) No simple molecule such as water Simple molecule such as water is

is eliminated during this process. eliminated during this process.
(c) For example, polythene is an For example, polyester is a

addition polymer. condensation polymer.
ii. One condensation polymer is polyester.
One addition polymer is teflon.
ii. Following is the chemical reaction involved in the formation of a polyamide.
(a) Write the chemical equation representing the reaction for the preparation of methanal from methanol.
(b) What happens when methanal is mixed with:

(i) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution and the mixture is warmed
(ii) Fehling's reagent and the mixture is warmed
(c) Complete the reaction equation:
CH3CHO + HCN→
OR
Write the formulae for the given compounds and name the functional groups present in each of them:
(i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Propanone (iii) Nitromethane
Solution:
(a) The chemical equation representing the reaction for the preparation of methanal from methanol is as
follows:
(b)
(i) When methanal is mixed with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution and the mixture is warmed, a shining
silver mirror is formed on the inner side of the test tube. Following is the reaction taking place.
(ii)
When methanal is mixed with Fehling's reagent and the mixture is warmed, a red precipitate of copper (I)
oxide is formed. Following is the reaction taking place.
(c)
OR
The formulae for the given compounds and the names of the functional groups present in them are as follows:
(i) Ethanoic acid: CH3COOH
Functional group: carboxylic acid group
(ii) Propanone: CH3COCH3
Functional group: ketonic group
(iii) Nitromethane: CH3NO2
Functional group: nitro group

A torch bulb is rated 2.5 V and 750 mA. Calculate (i) its power, (ii) its resistance and (iii) the energy
consumed if this bulb is lighted for four hours.
Solution:
It is given that:
Voltage (V) = 2.50 V
Current (I) = 750 mA = 0.75 A
The bulb is lighted for 4 hours.
Thus,
i) Power generated (P) = VI = 2.50 × 0.75 = 1.87 W
i) Resistance (R) = 3.33 Ω
iii) Energy consumed in 4 hours = Power × Time = P × t = 1.87 × 4 = 7.48 Wh
Name three forms in which energy from oceans is made available for use. What are OTEC power plants? How
do they operate?
Solution:
Energy from oceans is used as tidal energy, wave energy, and thermal energy.
What are OTEC power plants? How do they operate?
This question is out of current syllabus
Describe briefly the Big Bang Theory of the origin of universe.
Solution:
This question is out of current syllabus
(a) Write chemical equations for the reactions involved in obtaining pure alumina from the mineral bauxite
which has impurities of iron oxide and silica.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of the electrolytic tank cell used for the extraction of aluminium from alumina.
OR
(a) What is corrosion of metals? Name one metal which does not corrode and one which
corrodes on being kept in atmosphere.
(b) How will you show that the rusting of iron needs oxygen and moisture at the same
time?
Solution:
(a) The reaction involved in obtaining pure alumina from the mineral bauxite having impurities of iron oxide
and silica is:
(i)
The iron oxide and silica (sand) present in the bauxite ore do not dissolve in sodium hydroxide solution.
Therefore, they are separated by filtration.
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
OR
(a) The eating up of metals by the action of air and moisture on their surface is called corrosion.
Metal which does not corrode on being kept in the atmosphere is gold.
Metal which corrodes on being kept in the atmosphere is iron.
(b) Take three boiling tubes and label them as A, B, and C. Place clean iron nails, free from rust, in
each tube. Add water to tube A in such a manner that some parts of the nails are exposed to air and
seal it with the help of a rubber cork. Add boiled water to tube B in such a way that the nails are
completely submerged. Then, pour some amount of kerosene oil in the tube and seal it with the help
of a rubber cork. Add anhydrous calcium chloride to tube C and then seal it. Leave the tubes
undisturbed for two weeks and observe the changes.
It will be observed after two weeks that the nails in tubes BandC are clean. However, the nails in tube
Aare rusted.
In tube A, both moisture and oxygen were available and the nails started rusting after two weeks.
This shows that for rusting to take place, the presence of both oxygen and water is essential.
In tube B, the iron nails were in contact only with water as oxygen was not allowed to dissolve in
water by the layer of oil. As the nails did not rust even after two weeks when only water was
available, it shows that rusting cannot take place if only water is available.
In tube C, only oxygen was present as anhydrous calcium chloride absorbed all the moisture present
inside the tube. As the nails did not rust even after two weeks when only oxygen was available, it
shows that rusting cannot take place if only oxygen is available.
Conclusion:
The rusting of iron requires both oxygen and water.
1. Explain the following terms used in relation to defects in vision and corrections provided for them:
(i) Myopia (ii) Astigmatism (iii) Bifocal lenses (iv) Far sightedness
(b) Describe with a ray diagram how a person with myopia can be helped by spectacles.
OR
(a)What is a 'simple microscope? Draw diagrams to show the image formed by a simple microscope with the
eye focussed:
(i) on near point (ii) at infinity
(b)What is the maximum magnification obtainable by a simple microscope?
Solution:
(a)
(i)Myopia is also known as near sightedness. This means a person suffering from myopia can see nearby
objects clearly, but cannot see far-off objects clearly. Image of a nearby object is formed in front of retina for
a myopic eye. This defect may be caused because of either an increase in size of the eyeball or excessive
curvature of the eye lens. The defect of myopia can be corrected by wearing a concave lens of suitable power.
(ii) This part of the question is out of current syllabus
(iii) A bi-focal lens consists of both concave lens and convex lens. The upper portion of the lens is concave
lens and consequently lower portion is the convex lens. Generally people suffering from the defect of
presbyopia are prescribed to use bi-focal lens to correct the defect of vision. The upper portion of the lens i.e.,
concave part facilitates the distant vision whereas the lower part of the lens facilitates the nearby vision.
(iv) Far-sightedness is also known as hypermetropia. A person suffering from far-sightedness cannot see
nearby objects clearly, but can see distant objects clearly. This defect may be caused because of either a
decrease in size of the eyeball or the very high focal length of the eye lens. The defect of hypermetropia can
be cured by using a convex lens of appropriate power.
(b)
OR
This part of the question is out of current syllabus
(a) What are 'magnetic field lines'? How is the direction of a magnetic field at a point determined?
(b) Draw two field lines around a bar magnet along its length on its two sides and mark the field directions on
them by arrow marks.
(c) List any three properties of magnetic field lines.
Solution:
(a) Magnetic field is the space around the magnet where its influence can be detected. Magnetic
field lines are closed continuous curves which depict the magnetic field of a magnet. Outside of a
magnet, they are directed from North Pole to South Pole of the magnet.
The direction of magnetic field at a point is determined by placing a small magnetic compass at
that point. The direction towards which the North Pole of the compass needle points is taken to be
the direction of the magnetic field at that point.
(b)
(c) Three properties of magnetic field lines are:
(i) They always travel from North Pole to South Pole outside of a magnet.
(ii) They are closed continuous curves.
(iii) They never intersect each other.
Section B
Write the expanded form of the abbreviation AIDS.
Solution:
Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
Why is one arm in sub-metacentric chromosome longer than the other?
Solution:
What is 'Green House Effect'?
Solution:
The increase in the average temperature of the earth’s surface due to the increase in concentration of
greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, etc. is called greenhouse effect.
What is 'eutrophication'? Write its two harmful effects.

Solution:
List any four practices which help in protecting our environment.
OR
Describe any four modes of disposal of waste.
Solution:
Four ways of protecting the environment are:
i. Afforestation
ii. Reducing the use of fossil fuels
iii. Proper management of the resources
iv. Preventing air and water from getting polluted
OR
Four ways of waste disposal are:
i. Using separate bins for disposing biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes

ii. Reduction in the use of non-biodegradable wastes
iii. Composting of biodegradable wastes
iv. Separation of materials that can be reused or recycled
What is 'translocation'? Why is it essential for plants? Where in plants are the following synthesized: (i) Sugars
(it) Hormones
OR
What is 'clotting of blood'? Write a flow chart showing major events taking place in clotting of blood.
Solution:
The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is known as translocation. Translocation in plants occurs
by means of the vascular tissue known as phloem. Translocation is necessary because without it, the food
prepared by the leaves cannot reach other parts of the plant.
i. In plants, the synthesis of sugars takes place in the leaves by the process of photosynthesis.
ii. Hormones are synthesised away from their target site.
OR

Draw a diagram of human brain and label on it the following of its parts:
(i) Cerebrum (ii) Meninges
(iii) Medulla Oblongata (iv) Cerebellum
Solution:
Differentiate between 'self pollination' and 'cross pollination'. Describe 'double fertilization' in plants.
Solution:
Self pollination Cross pollination
When the transfer of pollen grains When the pollen grains are transferred
takes place from the stamen to the from the stamen of one flower to the
stigma of the same flower, it is known stigma of another flower, it is known as
as self pollination. cross pollination.
Double fertilisation
What is 'organic evolution'? How do embryological studies provide evidence for evolution?
Solution:

Explain the process of 'photosynthesis' in plants. List four factors which influence this process and describe
how each of them affects the rate of the photosynthesis process.
Solution:
Photosynthesis is the process by which plant cells prepare food (carbohydrates) from inorganic raw materials
such as carbon dioxide and water in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
The process of photosynthesis takes place in two phases:
Light reaction − It requires light which is absorbed by chlorophyll molecules to split water molecules into
hydrogen and oxygen. ATP and NADPH2 are produced during this phase and it occurs in the thylakoid
membrane of the chloroplasts.
Dark reaction − It does not require light energy and it occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts. In this phase,
the ATP and NADPH2 formed during light reaction are utilised and CO2 is reduced to form carbohydrates.
The four factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis are:
i. Sunlight − Sunlight provides the energy required for the preparation of food by plants. In the absence
of sunlight, photosynthesis cannot take place.
ii. Carbon dioxide − Carbon dioxide acts as the substrate for photosynthesis. During this process, carbon
dioxide and water are converted into carbohydrates.
iii. Water − During photosynthesis, water is photolysed into oxygen and hydrogen and it provides the
energy for photosynthesis.
iv. Chlorophyll − Chlorophyll is the green pigment present in the leaves which absorbs sunlight.
v.
Science 2005 Set 2 Close
Subjective Test
vii. Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set 1.
viii. Question 1 ( 1.0 marks)
ix. Why is much less heat generated in long electric cables than in filaments of electric bulbs?
x. Solution:
xi. Heat generated in a substance is directly proportional to the resistance of the substance. Resistance of
the electric cables is lesser than the tungsten filament. Thus, heat generated in the tungsten filament
is higher than in the electric cables.
xii. Question 3 ( 1.0 marks)
xiii. Write the chemical equation for the reaction of hot aluminium with steam.
xiv. Solution:
xv. The reaction of hot aluminium and steam is as follows:
xvi.
xvii. Question 7 ( 2.0 marks)
xviii. With respect to air, the refractive index of kerosene is 1.44 and that for diamond is 2.42. Calculate the
refractive index of diamond with respect to kerosene.
xix. Solution:
xx. Refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 ( 2µ1)

xxi. It is given that:
xxii. With respect to air, refractive index of kerosene is 1.44.
xxiii. With respect to air, refractive index of diamond is 2.42.
xxiv. Therefore, with respect to water, refractive index of benzene = = 1.68

xxv. Question 9 ( 2.0 marks)
xxvi. What justifies sulphuric acid being called the "king of chemicals"? Why does sugar turn black in
contact with concentrated sulphuric acid?
xxvii. Solution:
xxviii. Concentrated sulphuric acid is called the king of chemicals as it is a very strong acid and is highly
corrosive. When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to colourless cane sugar crystals, it dehydrates
sugar to a black mass of carbon known as sugar charcoal.
xxix.
xxx. Question 13 ( 3.0 marks)
xxxi. A torch bulb is rated 5.0 V and 500 mA. Calculate (i) its power, (ii) resistance and (iii) energy
consumed when it is lighted for four hours.
xxxii. Solution:
xxxiii. It is given that:

xxxiv. Voltage (V) = 5.0 V
xxxv. Current (I) = 500 mA = 0.5 A
xxxvi. The bulb is lighted for four hours.
xxxvii. Thus,
xxxviii. (i) Power generated (P) = VI = 0.5×5 = 2.5 W
xxxix. (ii) Resistance (R) = 10 Ω

xl. (iii) Energy consumed in time 4 hours = Power × Time = P × t = 2.5 ×4 = 10.0 Wh
xli. Question 16 ( 3.0 marks)
xlii. (a) Why is ZnO called an amphoteric oxide? Name another amphoteric oxide.
xliii. (b) What are alkalies? Give one example of alkalies.
xliv. Solution:
xlv. (a) Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide because it can react with both acids and bases.
xlvi. In acids:
xlvii. In bases:
xlviii. Aluminium hydroxide is also an amphoteric oxide.
xlix. (b) Alkalies are the bases which are soluble in water. An example of alkalies is sodium hydroxide.
l. Question 18 ( 5.0 marks)
li. (a) Draw a schematic labelled diagram of a domestic wiring circuit which includes (i) a main fuse (ii) a
power meter, (iii) one light point, and (iv) a power plug.
lii. (b) Why is it necessary to connect an earth wire to electric appliances having metallic covers?
liii. Solution:
liv.
lv. An earth wire is connected to electric appliances having metallic covers for safety purpose. The earth
wire has insulation of green colour and is usually connected to a metal plate deep in the earth. Earth
wire provides a low resistance conducting path to any current that has leaked out of the body of the
appliance. Thus, earth wire is used as a safety measure, especially for devices which have metallic
bodies, because metal is a good conductor of electricity.
lvi. Question 22 ( 1.0 marks)
lvii. Name the type of chromosome in which one arm is very long and the other is very short.
lviii. Solution:
lix. Out of current syllabus

lx. Question 25 ( 2.0 marks)
lxi. What are 'fabric filters'? Describe their function in controlling pollution of air.
lxii. Solution:
lxiii. Out of current syllabus

lxiv. Question 30 ( 5.0 marks)
lxv. List three differences between respiration in plants and respiration in animals. Describe with a labelled
diagram how gaseous exchange occurs through root hair in plants.
lxvi. Solution:
lxvii. Out of current syllabus
lxviii.
Subjective Test
lxx. Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set 1.
lxxi. Question 1 ( 1.0 marks)
lxxii. A green layer is gradually formed on a copper plate left exposed to air for a week in a bathroom. What
could this green substance be?
lxxiii. Solution:
lxxiv. This green substance is a mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide, CuCO 3.Cu(OH)2.
lxxv. Question 4 ( 1.0 marks)
lxxvi. Why is tungsten metal selected for making filaments of incandescent lamp bulbs?
lxxvii. Solution:
lxxviii. Tungsten metal is used for making filaments of incandescent lamps because it has a very high melting
point.
lxxix. Question 7 ( 2.0 marks)
lxxx. What is the activity series of metals? Rearrange the following metals in an increasing order of
reactivity:
lxxxi. Aluminium, Zinc, Mercury
lxxxii. Solution:
lxxxiii. The arrangement of metals in a vertical column in the order of decreasing reactivity is called activity
series.
lxxxiv. Following is the increasing order of reactivity of the given metals.
lxxxv. Mercury < Zinc < Aluminium
lxxxvi. Question 10 ( 2.0 marks)
lxxxvii. With respect to air the refractive index of ice is 1.31 and that of rock-salt is 1.54. Calculate the
refractive index of rock-salt with respect to ice.
lxxxviii. Solution:
lxxxix. Refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 ( 2µ1)

xc. It is given that:
xci. With respect to air, refractive index of ice is 1.31.
xcii. With respect to air, refractive index of rock-salt is 1.54.
xciii. Therefore, with respect to water, refractive index of rock-salt = 1.17

xciv. Question 13 ( 3.0 marks)
xcv. State the steps involved in the manufacture of oleum from sulphur. Write the chemical equations for
the reactions involved.
xcvi. Solution:
xcvii. Four steps are involved in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by the Contact process.
xcviii. Step I: Sulphur is burnt in air to produce sulphur dioxide.
xcix.
c. Step II: Sulphur dioxide is mixed with air and passed over vanadium (V) oxide catalyst heated to
450oC to form sulphur trioxide.
ci.
cii. Step III: Sulphur trioxide is dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid to form a thick fuming liquid
called oleum.
ciii.
civ. Step IV: Oleum is diluted with a calculated quantity of water to obtain sulphuric acid.
cv.
cvi. Question 17 ( 3.0 marks)
cvii. A torch bulb is rated 3.0 V and 600 mA. Calculate: (i) its power, (ii) its resistance and (iii) the energy
consumed if it is lighted for 4 hours.
cviii. Solution:
cix. It is given that:

cx. Voltage (V) = 3.0 V
cxi. Current (I) = 600 mA = 0.6 A
cxii. The bulb is lighted for 4 hours.
cxiii. Thus,
cxiv. (i) Power generated (P) = VI = 0.6 × 3 = 1.8 W
cxv. (ii) Resistance (R) =5Ω

cxvi. (iii) Energy consumed in time (t) = Power × Time = P × t = 1.8 × 4 = 7.2 Wh
cxvii. Question 19 ( 5.0 marks)
cxviii. Why is pure iron not used for making permanent magnets? Name one material used for making
permanent magnets. Describe how permanent magnets are made electrically. State two examples of
electrical instruments made by using permanent magnets.
cxix. Solution:
cxx. Permanent magnets can be made out of those materials which exhibit magnetic properties long after
the magnetic field is removed. Pure iron cannot sustain its magnetism for long time once the magnetic
field is removed. Therefore, it is very difficult to convert pure iron to permanent magnet. Therefore,
pure iron is not used to make permanent magnets.
cxxi. Electrically, permanent magnets are made by placing a ferromagnetic material such as steel inside a
DC current-carrying solenoid. Ferromagnetic materials have high magnetic sustainability i.e., they
sustain their magnetism even after removing the parent magnetic field.
cxxii. Two instruments where permanent magnets are used are electric motor and electric generator.
cxxiii. Question 21 ( 1.0 marks)
cxxiv. How are metacentric and acrocentric chromosomes different from each other in shape?
cxxv. Solution:
cxxvi. Out of current syllabus

cxxvii. Question 24 ( 2.0 marks)
cxxviii. Describe any one technique of controlling gaseous pollutants of air.

cxxix. Solution:
cxxx. Out of current syllabus

cxxxi. Question 30 ( 5.0 marks)
cxxxii. Explain the following aspects of photosynthesis in plants:

cxxxiii. (i) The role of chlorophyll
cxxxiv. (ii) Dark reaction
cxxxv. (iii) Calvin-Benson cycle
cxxxvi. Solution:
cxxxvii. (i) Role of chlorophyll − Chlorophyll is the green pigment present in the leaves, which absorbs sunlight
and converts it into chemical energy.
cxxxviii. (ii) Dark reaction − The dark reaction does not require sunlight and takes place in the stroma of the
chloroplast. During this phase, the ATP and NADPH 2 synthesised during the light reaction are utilised
for the reduction of CO2 to form carbohydrates.
cxxxix. (iii) Benson-Calvin cycle: Out of current syllabus
cxl.
Subjective Test
cxlii. (i) The question paper consists of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both
cxliii. the sections.
cxliv.
cxlv. (ii) All questions are compulsory.
cxlvi.
cxlvii. (iii) There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided.
cxlviii.
cxlix. (iv) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted
cl. separately.
cli.
clii. (v) Questions number 1 to 4 in Section A and 17 to 18 in Section B are short answer
cliii. type questions. These questions carry one mark each.
cliv.
clv. (vi) Questions number 5 to 8 in Section A and 19 to 20 in Section B are short answer
clvi. type questions and carry two marks each.
clvii.
clviii. (vii) Questions number 9 to 14 in Section A and 21 to 23 in Section B are also short
clix. answer type questions and carry three marks each.
clx.
clxi. (viii) Questions number 15 to 16 in section A and question number 24 in section B
clxii. are long answer type questions and carry five marks each.
clxiii.
clxiv.
clxv. Section A
clxvi. Question 1 ( 1.0 marks)
clxvii. Name the product other than water formed on burning of ethanol in air.
clxviii. Solution:
clxix. Carbon dioxide is formed along with water when ethanol is burnt in air.
clxx. Question 2 ( 1.0 marks)
clxxi. How can you show that the magnetic field produced by a given electric current in the wire decreases
as the distance from the increases?
clxxii. Solution:
clxxiii. A magnetic needle shows deflection when it is placed near a current-carrying electric wire. As the
magnetic needle is taken away from the wire, its deflection decreases and finally the needle align itself
along North−South direction. This indicates that the magnetic field produced by a given electric
current in the wire decreases as the distance from the increases.
clxxiv. Question 3 ( 1.0 marks)
clxxv. A ray of light is incident on a convex mirror as shown.
clxxvi.
clxxvii. Redraw the diagram after completing the path of the light ray after reflection from the mirror. (1)
clxxviii. Solution:
clxxix.
clxxx. Question 4 ( 1.0 marks)
clxxxi. Why does magnesium powder react much more rapidly than magnesium ribbon with dilute sulphuric
acid?
clxxxii. Solution:
clxxxiii. Magnesium powder particles provide more surface area for contact with the molecules of sulphuric
acid as compared to that of magnesium ribbon.
clxxxiv. Question 5 ( 2.0 marks)
clxxxv. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a concave mirror. It forms a real image four
times larger than the object. Calculate the distance of the image from the mirror.
clxxxvi. Solution:
clxxxvii. Image height, object height, image distance, and object distance are related as:
clxxxviii.
clxxxix. It is given that:
cxc. h` = 4h
cxci. u = −12 cm
cxcii.
cxciii. v = 12 × 4 = 48 cm
cxciv. Therefore, the image distance is 48 cm behind the mirror.
cxcv. Question 6 ( 2.0 marks)
cxcvi. (i) Draw a diagram to show how two resistors R 1 and R2 are connected in series.
cxcvii. (ii) In a circuit, if the two resistors of 5 ohm and 10 ohm are connected in series, how does the
current passing through the two resistors compare?
cxcviii. OR
cxcix. A bulb is rated at 5.0 volt, 100 mA. Calculate its
cc. (i) power and
cci. (ii) resistance
ccii. Solution:
cciii. i)
cciv. ii) Current through both the resistors will be the same.
ccv. OR
ccvi. Voltage (V) = 5.0 V
ccvii. Current (I) = 100 mA = 0.1 A
ccviii. i) Power = VI = 5 × 0.1 = 0.5 W
ccix. ii) Resistance = = 50 Ω
ccx. Question 7 ( 2.0 marks)
ccxi. Name the type of nuclear reaction by which the Sun produces its energy. List two conditions which are
present at the centre of the Sun responsible for this reaction.
ccxii. Solution:
ccxiii. Sun produces its energy by a reaction called nuclear fusion.

ccxiv. Two conditions which are present inside the sun that are responsible for nuclear fusion to occur are
very high temperature and very high pressure.
ccxv. Question 8 ( 2.0 marks)
ccxvi. Given below are the pH values of four different liquids:

ccxvii. 7.0, 14.0, 4.0, 2.0
ccxviii. Which of these could be that of
ccxix. (i) lemon juice,
ccxx. (ii) distilled water,
ccxxi. (iii) 1 M sodium hydroxide solution,
ccxxii. (iv) tomato juice
ccxxiii. Solution:
pH Liquid
7.0 Distilled water
14.0 1 M sodium hydroxide solution
4.0 Tomato juice
2.0 Lemon juice

ccxxiv. Question 9 ( 3.0 marks)
ccxxv. Distinguish between natural and artificial satellites.

ccxxvi. To launch an artificial satellite in an orbit around the Earth, what is the minimum:
ccxxvii. (i) Horizontal velocity required for the push?
ccxxviii. (ii) Height to lift the satellite from the ground?
ccxxix. Solution:
ccxxx. Out of current syllabus

ccxxxi. Question 10 ( 3.0 marks)
ccxxxii. (i) Name the raw materials used in the manufacture of sodium carbonate by Solvay process.
ccxxxiii. (ii) How is the sodium hydrogen carbonate formed during Solvay process separated from a mixture of
NH4Cl and NaHCO3?
ccxxxiv. (iii) How is sodium carbonate obtained from sodium hydrogen carbonate?
ccxxxv. Solution:
ccxxxvi. (i) The raw materials used in the manufacture of sodium carbonate by Solvay process are calcium
carbonate (CaCO3), ammonia gas (NH3), and sodium chloride solution (NaCl).
ccxxxvii. (ii) Sodium hydrogen carbonate formed during Solvay process is separated from a mixture of NH 4Cl
and NaHCO3 by the method of filtration.
ccxxxviii. (iii)Sodium carbonate is obtained from sodium hydrogen carbonate by heating it and then adding
calculated amount of water into it.
ccxxxix. Question 11 ( 3.0 marks)
ccxl. (a) What is the action on litmus of:

ccxli. (i) Dry ammonia gas
ccxlii. (ii) Solution of ammonia gas in water
ccxliii. (b) State the observations you would make on adding ammonium hydroxide to aqueous solutions of:
ccxliv. (i) Ferrous sulphate
ccxlv. (ii) Aluminium chloride
ccxlvi. OR
ccxlvii. Explain the following terms by giving one example of each.
ccxlviii. (i) Mineral
ccxlix. (ii) Ore
ccl. (iii) Gangue
ccli. Solution:
cclii. (a)
ccliii. (i) No action
ccliv. (ii) Solution of ammonia gas in water turns red litmus to blue. It behaves as a base.
cclv. (b)
cclvi. (i) When ammonium hydroxide is added to ferrous sulphate, a dirty green precipitate of iron (II)
hydroxide is produced.
cclvii.
cclviii. (ii) When ammonium hydroxide is added to the solution of aluminium chloride, a gelatinous white
precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is obtained.
cclix.
cclx. OR
cclxi. (i) Any elements or compounds, which occur naturally in the earth’s crust, are called minerals.
cclxii. For example, coal
cclxiii. (ii) Minerals from which metals can be extracted profitably are called ores.
cclxiv. For example, bauxite
cclxv. (iii) The earthy and unwanted impurities present in an ore are called gangue.
cclxvi. For example, silica
cclxvii. Question 12 ( 3.0 marks)
cclxviii. (i) How is methanal obtained from methanol?

cclxix. (ii) Write the chemical equation of the reaction involved in the preparation of methanal from
methanol.
cclxx. (iii) Mention one test of an aqueous solution of methanal in the biology laboratory.
cclxxi. OR
cclxxii. Complete the following reaction equations:
cclxxiii. (i)
cclxxiv. (ii)
cclxxv. (iii)
cclxxvi. Solution:
cclxxvii. (i) Methanal is prepared from methanol by controlled oxidation of methanol at a temperature of 873 K
− 923 K in presence of silver catalyst.
cclxxviii. (ii) The chemical equation representing the reaction for the preparation of methanal from methanol is
as follows:
cclxxix.
cclxxx. (iii)Methanol reduces Fehling’s reagent (blue colour) to give a red precipitate of copper (I) oxide,
Cu2O.
cclxxxi. OR
cclxxxii. (i)
cclxxxiii. (ii)
cclxxxiv. (iii)
cclxxxv. Question 13 ( 3.0 marks)
cclxxxvi. (i) Name the four gases commonly present in biogas.

cclxxxvii. (ii) List two advantages of using biogas over fossil fuels.
cclxxxviii. Solution:
cclxxxix. Out of current syllabus

ccxc. Question 14 ( 3.0 marks)
ccxci. What is a nuclear reactor? State one function each of coolant and moderator in a nuclear reactor.
ccxcii. Solution:
ccxciii. Nuclear reactor is a device which is used as an energy source. They get their energy from controlling
nuclear fission reaction and the energy released from the reaction is primarily used to generate
electricity.
ccxciv. The second part is out of current syllabus.
ccxcv. Question 15 ( 5.0 marks)
ccxcvi. (a) What is an electromagnet? What does it consist of?

ccxcvii. (b) Name one material in each case which is used to make a
ccxcviii. (i) Permanent magnet
ccxcix. (ii) Temporary magnet
ccc. (c) Describe an activity to show how you can make an electromagnet in your school laboratory.
ccci. Solution:
cccii. (a) When we magnetise a piece of magnetic material such as soft iron by keeping it inside a coil and
then passing current through it, the magnet so formed is called electromagnet.
ccciii. (b)
ccciv. (i) Steel is used to make permanent magnet.
cccv. (ii) Soft iron is used to make temporary magnets.
cccvi. (c) Take a coil of wire having N number of turns and then wound it around a soft iron core. Connect
the end of the wire with a battery and plug key and then let current pass through the coil. While
current is passing through the coil, bring a compass near the coil. It will be observed that compass
needle shows deflection. This shows that the coil will have a magnetic field of its own. The magnet so
formed is called an electromagnet.
cccvii. Question 16 ( 5.0 marks)
cccviii. What is an alloy? How is an alloy made? List two purposes of making alloys. Mention the constituents
and two properties of each of the following alloys:
cccix. (i) Stainless steel
cccx. (ii) Brass
cccxi. Solution:
cccxii. An alloy is a homogenous mixture of two or more metals. It sometimes contains a non-metal
component also.
cccxiii. It is made by heating the components in a definite proportion and then uniformly mixing them in the
molten state and then cooling.
cccxiv. Two purposes of making alloys are:
cccxv. (i) To make a substance resistant to corrosion
cccxvi. (ii) To make a substance strong and hard
cccxvii. Constituents of
cccxviii. Stainless steel: Iron, nickel, and chromium
cccxix. Two properties of stainless steel are:
cccxx. (i) It is resistant to corrosion.
cccxxi. (ii) It is more durable.
cccxxii. Constituents of
cccxxiii. Brass: Copper and Zinc
cccxxiv. Two properties of brass are:
cccxxv. (i) It is resistant to corrosion.
cccxxvi. (ii) It is more malleable.
cccxxvii. Section B
cccxxviii. Question 17 ( 1.0 marks)
cccxxix. Name the type of fission carried out by Amoeba.

cccxxx. Solution:
cccxxxi. Binary fission

cccxxxii. Question 18 ( 1.0 marks)
cccxxxiii. Write the expanded form of AIDS.

cccxxxiv. Solution:
cccxxxv. Expanded form of AIDS is Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.

cccxxxvi. Question 19 ( 2.0 marks)
cccxxxvii. Differentiate between tropic and nastic movements in plants. Give one example of each.
cccxxxviii. Solution:
cccxxxix. Tropic movement is the movement in plants which is directionally dependent on the stimulus. For
example, the movement of flower head of sunflower plant, which moves East to West along with the
sun
cccxl. Nastic movement in plants is not a part of the current syllabus.
cccxli. Question 20 ( 2.0 marks)
cccxlii. “Rapid increase of population disturbs the biotic environment.” Justify this statement taking any two
aspects.
cccxliii. Solution:
cccxliv. “Rapid increase of population disturbs the biotic environment.” This statement can be justified because
of the following reasons:
cccxlv. (i) Rapid increase in population leads to deforestation as more space is required to build houses, which
disturbs the oxygen-carbon dioxide balance in nature and causes soil erosion.
cccxlvi. (ii) Rapid increase in population causes an increased pollution due to increased number of vehicles on
roads and factories. Also, more sewage is generated whose disposal poses a major problem. Pollution
disturbs the biotic environment.
cccxlvii. Question 21 ( 3.0 marks)
cccxlviii. Write the functions of the following in the digestive process:

cccxlix. (i) Bile
cccl. (ii) Bicarbonate secreted by the duodenum
cccli. (iii) Pancreatic amylase
ccclii. Solution:
cccliii. (i) Bile is helpful in the emulsification of fats i.e., the breaking down of large fat droplets into smaller
fat globules, which the pancreatic enzymes can act upon.
cccliv. (ii) The pancreatic juice contains enzymes that require an alkaline medium to act. The bicarbonate
secreted by the duodenum provides this alkaline medium.
ccclv. (iii) The function of pancreatic amylase is to convert complex carbohydrates into glucose, which is
absorbed in the blood.
ccclvi. Question 22 ( 3.0 marks)
ccclvii. Give reasons for the following:

ccclviii. (i) The glottis is guarded by epiglottis.
ccclix. (ii) The lung alveoli are covered with blood capillaries.
ccclx. (iii) The wall of trachea is supported by cartilage rings.
ccclxi. Solution:
ccclxii. (i) The glottis is guarded by epiglottis because it prevents the entry of food in wind pipe. If the food
enters wind pipe, then it chokes it, leading to the death of the person.
ccclxiii. (ii) The lung alveoli are covered with blood vessels because the oxygen that we inhale dissolves in the
blood, present in these blood capillaries only, as it reaches the lungs.
ccclxiv. (iii) The wall of trachea is supported by cartilage rings because these rings prevent the air passage
from collapsing.
ccclxv. Question 23 ( 3.0 marks)
ccclxvi. Who proposed the “Theory of Natural Selection”? Explain this theory briefly.
ccclxvii. Solution:
ccclxviii. Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection. Natural selection is the increased survival
and reproductive success of individuals who are well adapted to live in an environment.
ccclxix. For example, the natural selection that occurred in beetles
ccclxx. The crows ate more red beetles as compared to green beetles. Because of natural selection, the beetle
population evolved from red to green to fit better in their environment. These factors led to an
increase in the population of green beetles.
ccclxxi. Question 24 ( 5.0 marks)
ccclxxii. (a) Draw a diagram of the human urinary system and label in it:
ccclxxiii. (i) Kidney
ccclxxiv. (ii) Ureter
ccclxxv. (iii) Urinary bladder
ccclxxvi. (iv) Urethra
ccclxxvii. (b) Name the two major components of normal human urine.
ccclxxviii. OR
ccclxxix. (a) Name the blood groups under ABO system.
ccclxxx. (b) Differentiate between universal donor and universal recipient under this system.
ccclxxxi. Solution:
ccclxxxii. (a)
ccclxxxiii.
ccclxxxiv. (b) Two major components of human urine are urea and water.
ccclxxxv. OR
ccclxxxvi. Out of current syllabus
ccclxxxviii. Galleries
Subjective Test
Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set 1.
How can you show that the magnetic field produced by a given electric current in the wire decreases as the
distance from the wire increases?
Solution:
When a compass is slowly brought near a current-carrying wire, the compass needle also slowly aligns itself
with the magnetic field of the wire. On the other hand, when the needle is taken away from the wire, the
needle slowly aligns itself with the earth’s magnetic field. This shows that magnetic field decreases as distance
from the wire increases.
Name the type of fission carried out by Amoeba.
Solution:
Binary fission
Differentiate between tropic and nastic movements in plants. Give one example of each.
Solution:
Tropic movement is the movement in plants which is directionally dependent on the stimulus. For example,
the movement of flower head of sunflower plant, which moves East to West along with the sun
Nastic movement in plants is out of the current syllabus.
Galleries
Subjective Test
Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set 1.
How can you show that the magnetic field produced by a given electric current in the wire decreases as the
distance from the wire increases?
Solution:
When a compass is slowly brought near a current-carrying wire, the compass needle also slowly aligns itself
with the magnetic field of the wire. On the other hand, when the needle is taken away from the wire, the
needle slowly aligns itself with the earth’s magnetic field. This shows that magnetic field decreases as distance
from the wire increases.
Name the type of fission carried out by Amoeba.
Solution:
Binary fission
Differentiate between tropic and nastic movements in plants. Give one example of each.
Solution:
Tropic movement is the movement in plants which is directionally dependent on the stimulus. For example,
the movement of flower head of sunflower plant, which moves East to West along with the sun
Nastic movement in plants is out of the current syllabus.
Galleries
Subjective Test
(i) The question paper consists of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both
the sections.
(iii) There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided.
(iv) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted
separately.
(v) Questions number 1 to 4 in Section A and 17 to 18 in Section B are short answer
type questions. These questions carry one mark each.
(vi) Questions number 5 to 8 in Section A and 19 to 20 in Section B are short answer
type questions and carry two marks each.

(vii) Questions number 9 to 14 in Section A and 21 to 23 in Section B are also short
answer type questions and carry three marks each.
(viii) Questions number 15 to 16 in section A and question number 24 in section B
are long answer type questions and carry five marks each.
Section A
What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?
Solution:
A catalyst changes the rate of reaction without taking part in the reaction itself.
Which class of compounds gives a positive Fehling’s test?
Solution:
Aldehydes give a positive Fehling’s test.
Approximately how many stars are there in the Milky Way?
Solution:
There are approximately 200 to 400 billion stars in Milky Way.
What is meant by the statement, “Potential difference between points A and B in an electric field is 1 volt”?
Solution:
It means that 1 joule of work will be done in order to move 1 coulomb of charge from point A to B.
State the ‘Law of Chemical Equilibrium’. Write an expression for the equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction
Solution:
Name the organic acid present in vinegar. Write a chemical equation which represents the commercial method
for the preparation of this acid from methanol.
Solution:
The organic acid present in vinegar is ethanoic (acetic) acid. The chemical equation which represents the
commercial method for the preparation of acetic acid from methanol is given below.
Distinguish between ‘artificial’ and ‘natural’ satellites. Why are artificial satellites called “eyes in the sky”?
Solution:
An electric lamp is marked 100 W, 220 V. It is used for 5 hours daily. Calculate
(i) its resistance while glowing
(ii) energy consumed in kWh per day
Solution:
(i) Resistance of a glowing lamp is related to its power and voltage as

Therefore, the resistance of the bulb when glowing is 484 Ω.
(ii) Power = 100 W = 0.1 kW
Energy = Power × Time
= 0.1 kW × 5 h
= 0.5 kWh
0.5 kWh is the amount of energy consumed by the bulb per day.
(a) Write the chemical name and formula of bleaching powder.
(b) Why does bleaching powder smell of chlorine when exposed to air?
(c) Write chemical equation to represent the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on bleaching powder.
Solution:
(a) The chemical name of bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride and its formula is .
(b) When exposed to air, bleaching powder reacts with carbon dioxide in air to produce calcium carbonate and
chlorine. Thus, it smells of chlorine.
(c) When bleaching powder is treated with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid, all the chlorine present in it is
liberated. The following equation shows the reaction taking place.
What is meant by ‘dehydrating agent’? Describe, with a chemical equation, an activity to show that
concentrated sulphuric acid is a strong dehydrating agent.
Solution:
A substance which can remove water from other substances is known as dehydrating agent.
On treating sugar with concentrated sulphuric acid, it dehydrates into black mass of carbon called sugar
charcoal. This is known as charring of sugar. Here, sulphuric acid removes hydrogen and oxygen atoms of
sugar in the form of water molecules.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Oxidation of ethanol with CrO3 produces ethanal while ethanol when oxidised with alkaline KMnO 4 produces
ethanoic acid.
(ii) Propanone forms addition product with HCN.
(iii) Alcohol supplied for industrial purposes is mixed with copper sulphate.
Solution:
(i) When ethanol reacts with chromic anhydride, only partial oxidation occurs and ethanol is formed. On the
other hand, when ethanol is heated with alkaline KMnO 4, it produces ethanoic acid due to complete oxidation.
(ii) When propanone reacts with hydrogen cyanide, a molecule of H—CN is added across the carbon-oxygen
double bond of propanone. Hence, addition reaction occurs.
(iii) To prevent the misuse of alcohol supplied for industrial purposes, it is made unfit for drinking. This can be
done by mixing it with poisonous substances such as copper sulphate, methanol, pyridine, etc. The alcohol
thus obtained is called denatured alcohol.
An object 50 cm tall is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. Its 20 cm tall image is formed on the
screen placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens.
Solution:
Object distance, image distance, object height, and image height are related as:
where m is the magnification of the image
It is given that:
Image distance (v) = +10 cm
Height of object (ho) = 50 cm
Height of image (hi) = −20cm (It is negative because a real image formed by a convex lens is always
inverted)
Therefore,
u = −4
Using the lens formula , we obtain
f = 2.86 cm
Therefore, the focal length of the lens is 2.86 cm.
(a) State one limitation of solar energy available from solar cells.
(b) What is the minimum wind velocity required to obtain useful energy with a windmill?
(c) Define the term ‘nuclear fission’.
Solution:
(a) The solar cells are costly and hence the energy available from them is expensive.
(b) 15 km/h is the minimum wind velocity required to obtain useful energy with a windmill.
(c) Nuclear fission is the process in which a radioactive atom splits up into smaller nuclei when struck with low
energy neutrons.
(a) State Ohm’s Law.
(b) Draw a schematic diagram of the circuit for studying Ohm’s Law.
Solution:
(a) Ohm’s Law states that at constant temperature, the current flowing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the potential difference across its ends.
(b)
(a) Name the chief ore of iron. Write its formula.
(b) How is an iron ore concentrated? Describe it briefly.
(c) Draw a labelled diagram of the blast furnace used in the extraction of iron from its concentrated ore.
OR
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of ‘Frasch process’ used for extracting sulphur.
(b) State the principle involved in the extraction of sulphur directly out of the ground.
Solution:
(a) Haematite is the chief ore of iron. Its formula is Fe 2O3.
(b) The iron ore is concentrated by the method of hydraulic washing. First the ore is crushed into smaller
pieces and then washed in stream of water to remove sand, clay, etc.
(c)
OR
A 14-year old student is not able to see clearly the questions written on the blackboard placed at a distance of
5 m from him.
(a) Name the defect of vision he is suffering from.
(b) With the help of labelled ray diagrams, show how this defect can be corrected.
(c) Name the type of lens used to correct this defect.
OR
(a) What is an electromagnet?

(b) List any of its two uses.
(c) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
(d) What is the purpose of the soft iron core used in making an electromagnet?
Solution:
(a) The student is suffering from myopia.
(b)
(c) A concave lens is used to correct this defect.
OR
(a) An electromagnet is a device used to produce magnetic field with the help of electricity.
(b) An electromagnet is used for lifting heavy loads. It is also used in automatic door locking systems.
(c)
(d) A soft iron is used as a core in order to strengthen the magnetic field created by the electromagnet.
Section B
Name the excretory unit of a kidney.
Solution:
Nephron
What are phytohormones?
Solution:
The growth hormones of plants are called phytohormones.

Point out two differences between an artery and a vein.
OR
What is ‘osmoregulation’? How does it take place in humans?
Solution:
Arteries Veins
Arteries are blood vessels which carry pure, Veins carry impure,
oxygenated blood. deoxygenated blood.
These are thick-walled and elastic. These are thin-walled and less
elastic.
OR
Explain ‘reflex action’ with a suitable example.
Solution:
The automatic action or response provoked by a stimulus is known as reflex action. The sensory nerves that
detect the stimulus are connected to nerves that move the muscles. Such a connection is called a reflex arc.
The reflex arc connections meet in a bundle in the spinal cord. The signal and the response that has taken
place reach the brain but the brain does not coordinate the reflex response.
For example, we withdraw our hands on touching any hot article.
Explain double fertilisation in plants.
Solution:
(a) What is a gene?

(b) Where are genes located?
(c) What is the nature of gene?
OR
Define ‘evolution’. Describe Darwin’s theory of evolution.

Solution:
(a) Genes are the parts of DNA which carry the necessary information required for carrying out the different
life processes.
(b) Genes are located on the DNA.
(c) Out of current syllabus
OR
Any change in the genetic material of individuals of a population which is transferred to the next generation is
called evolution.
Darwin’s theory of evolution:
It states that complex creatures evolved from more simplistic ancestors naturally over time. As random
genetic mutations occurred within an organism's genetic code, the beneficial mutations got preserved because
they aid in survival by a process known as natural selection. These beneficial mutations pass on to the next
generation. Over time, beneficial mutations accumulate and the result is an entirely different organism.
What is ‘soil erosion’? Mention its any two effects. Suggest two ways by which soil erosion can be checked.
Solution:
Soil erosion − The washing away of the top soil by heavy rains and wind is known as soil erosion. Soil erosion
causes the loss in the soil fertility and consequent desertification.
Soil erosion can be prevented by planting more trees because trees hold up the soil. The practice of terraced
farming on mountain slopes also prevents soil erosion.
(a) Draw a diagram of human ‘alimentary canal’.
(b) Label the following on the diagram drawn:

Oesophagus, Liver, Gall bladder, Duodenum
(c) What is the function of liver in the human body?
Solution:
(a) and (b)

(c) Liver: It is the largest gland in the digestive system. It secretes bile, which helps in the digestion of fats
into fatty acids and glycerol.

Subjective Test
(i) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.


(iii) There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in all the three questions of
five marks category. Only one option in such questions is to be attempted.

(iv) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.

(v) Questions number 1 to 6 in Section A and 17 to 19 in Section B are short answer type questions.
These questions carry one mark each.

(vi) Questions number 7 to 10 in Section A and 20 to 24 in Section B are short answer type questions
and carry two marks each.

(vii) Questions number 11 to 14 in Section A and 25 and 26 in Section B are also short answer type
questions and carry three marks each.

(viii) Questions number 15 and 16 in section A and question number 27 in section B are long answer type
questions and carry five marks each.
Balance the following chemical equation:

Solution:
In the balanced chemical equation of a chemical reaction, the number of atoms of the elements on the
reactant and product sides must be equal. The balanced chemical equation for the given reaction is:
Why is respiration considered an exothermic process?
Solution:
Respiration involves the breaking down of digested food using oxygen. As respiration produces a lot of energy
in the form of ATP, this process is exothermic in nature.
How does the flow of acid rain water into a river make the survival of aquatic life in the river difficult?
Solution:
Living organisms survive only in a narrow range of pH change. The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6. Hence,
when acid rain flows into rivers, it lowers the pH of river water. As a result, the survival of aquatic life
becomes difficult.
Draw the following diagram in your answer book and show the formation of image of the object AB with the
help of suitable rays.
Solution:
Why is the series arrangement not used for connecting domestic electric appliances in a circuit?
Solution:
In a domestic circuit, parallel connection of devices is preferable for several reasons:
1. In series connection, if one of the devices is defective, then the current of the entire circuit is cut off. As a
result, all the devices stop working.
In parallel connection, even if one device is defective, the others continue working.
2. In series connection, selective operation of devices is not possible, but this is not so in the case of parallel
connection.
3. In series connection, the same current passes through all the devices, regardless of the fact that different
devices require different values of current to operate.
In parallel connection, different values of current can be obtained for different devices according to their
requirements.
Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps, which one has a higher electrical resistance when in use?
Solution:
Electric power, , where V = Potential difference across the circuit
For 40 W bulb, , where R40 = Resistance offered by the 40 W bulb
For 60 W bulb, , where R40 = Resistance offered by the 60 W bulb
Therefore, (as the voltage difference remains the same)
Therefore, R40 > R60
So, the 40 W bulb has a higher electrical resistance when in use.
Write the chemical formula for washing soda. How may it be obtained from baking soda? Name an industrial
use of washing soda other than washing clothes.
Solution:
The chemical formula of washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O.

Washing soda can be obtained by heating baking soda. On heating, baking soda gives sodium carbonate,
carbon dioxide and water. Consequently, the recrystallisation of sodium carbonate gives washing soda. The
chemical equations involved in the process are:
Washing soda is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
Give an example of a decomposition reaction. Describe an activity to illustrate such a reaction by heating.
Solution:
Example of decomposition reaction:
2 g of lead nitrate is taken in a boiling tube and heated. On heating, lead nitrate decomposes to produce lead
oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. The chemical equation involved in the reaction is:
Draw ray diagrams to represent the nature, position and relative size of the image formed by a convex lens
for the object placed:
(a) at 2F1.
(b) between F1 and the optical centre O of lens.
Solution:
(a)
(b)
What is meant by the term, ‘magnetic field’? Why does a compass needle show deflection when brought near
a bar magnet?
Solution:
Magnetic field is the region around a magnet in which a magnetic material experiences a force because of that
magnet.
The needle of a compass is actually a small bar magnet. So, when a compass is brought near a bar magnet,
the compass needle enters the magnetic field of the bar magnet. Therefore, the needle experiences a force
because of the bar magnet and gets deflected.
(a) Why are covalent compounds generally poor conductors of electricity?
(b) Name the following compound:

(c) Name the gas evolved when ethanoic acid is added to sodium carbonate. How would you prove the
presence of this gas?
Solution:
(a) Since covalent compounds do not give rise to any ions in aqueous solutions, these compounds are
generally poor conductors of electricity.
(b) Since the given compound contains propane as the parent chain and ketone as the functional group, the
name of the given compound is (‘propan’ + ‘one’) propanone.
(c) Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to produce sodium ethanoate, carbon dioxide and water. The
chemical equation involved in the reaction is:
Hence, carbon dioxide is the gas evolved when ethanoic acid is added to sodium carbonate.
When carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water, it reacts with lime water to produce calcium carbonate
(a white precipitate which turns lime water milky) and water. This activity confirms the presence of carbon
dioxide gas. The chemical equation involved in the reaction is:
(a) What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from amongst the following oxides:
Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, H2O
(b) Why is it that non-metals do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids?
Solution:
(a) Metal oxides that react with both acids and bases to produce salt and water are known as amphoteric
oxides. For example, zinc reacts with an acid or a base to produce salt and water.
Amongst the given oxides, zinc oxide (ZnO) and aluminium oxide (Al 2O3) are amphoteric oxides.
(b) Non-metals are electron acceptors. Hence, they cannot donate electrons to H + ions to form hydrogen gas
(H2).
Two lamps, one related 60 W at 220 W at 220 V and the other 40 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to the
electric supply at 220 V.
(a) Draw a circuit diagram to show the connections.
(b) Calculate the current drawn from the electric supply.
(c) Calculate the total energy consumed by the two lamps together when they operate for one hour.
Solution:
(a)
(b) Electric current flowing through a bulb , i.e.,
Therefore,
Therefore, total current flowing through the circuit =
(c) Total energy consumed = Power × Time

That is, E = P × t
= (40 W + 60 W) × 1 h
= 100 Wh
=0.1 kWh
(a) Distinguish between the terms “overloading and short circuiting” as used in domestic circuits.
(b) Why are the coils of electric toasters made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Solution:
(a) Short-circuiting is the term used for defining the situation in which the neutral and live wires of an electric
circuit come in direct contact.
When too many electrical appliances are connected to a single socket, the appliances draw much more current
or power than the permissible limit from the main supply. This situation is termed as overloading.
(b) Resistivity of an alloy is much higher than its constituent metals. Moreover, alloys do not oxidise as easily
as the constituent metals at high temperature. Because of these reasons, coils of electric testers are made of
an alloy rather than a pure metal.
On the basis of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table given below, answer the questions that follow the table:
(a) Name the element which is in
(i) Ist group and 3rd period.
(ii) VIIth group and 2nd period.
(b) Suggest the formula for the following:
(i) oxide of nitrogen
(ii) hydride of oxygen
(c) In group VIII of the Periodic Table, why does cobalt with atomic mass 58.93 appear before nickel having
atomic mass 58.71?
(d) Besides gallium, which two other elements have since been discovered for which Mendeleev had left gaps
in his Periodic Table?
(e) Using atomic masses of Li, Na and K, find the average atomic mass of Li anf K and compare it wit the
atomic mass of Na. State the conclusion drawn from this activity.
(OR)
(a) Why do we classify elements?

(b) What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
(c) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his Periodic Table?
(d) In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, why was there no mention of Noble gases like Helium, Neon and Argon?
(e) Would you place the two isotopes of chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37 in different slots because of their different
atomic masses or in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same? Justify you answer.
Solution:
(a)
(i) The elements present in the Ist group of the periodic table are H, Li, Na, K, Rb and Cs. The only element
that belongs to the first group and third period is sodium (Na).
(ii) The elements present in the VIIth group are F, Cl, Br and I. The only element that belongs to the VII th
group and 2nd period is fluorine (F).
(b)
(i) Nitrogen belongs to the Vth group of the periodic table. The elements belonging to the V th group form oxides
having the general formula R2O5. Thus, the formula of the oxide formed by nitrogen is N2O5.
(ii) Oxygen belongs to the VIth group of the periodic table. The elements belonging to the VI th group form
hydrides having the general formula RH2. Thus, the formula of the hydride formed by oxygen is OH 2 or H2O.
(c)Elements with similar chemical properties are placed in the same group of the periodic table. Cobalt (Co),
rhodium (Rh) and iridium (Ir) have similar chemical properties. In group VIII of the periodic table, cobalt with
atomic mass 58.93 appears before nickel having atomic mass 58.71 so that the elements with similar
chemical properties may fall in the same group.
(d)Scandium (Sc) and germanium (Ge)
(e)From Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, the atomic masses of Li, Na and K are found to be 6.939, 22.99 and
39.102 respectively.
Thus, the average atomic mass of lithium and potassium is 23.0205, which is approximately equal to the
atomic mass of sodium (22.99). Thus, it can be concluded that the atomic mass of the middle element is the
average of the other two.
(OR)
(a) We classify elements for making order out of chaos and for understanding the properties of elements and
compounds.
(b) The two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table are:
(i) Elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic masses.
(ii) Elements are also arranged according to the properties of their hydrides and oxides.
(c) Mendeleev predicted the existence of some elements that had not been discovered in his time. Hence, he
left some gaps in his Periodic Table to leave the scope for the search for the yet undiscovered elements.
(d) Mendeleev did not mention noble gases such as helium, neon and argon in his Periodic Table because they
were still undiscovered in his time.
(e) Though Cl-35 and Cl-37 have different atomic masses, they should be placed in the same slot because
their chemical properties are the same.
(a) What is meant by dispersion of white light? Describe the formation of rainbow in the sky with the help of a
diagram.
(b) What is hypermetropia? Draw ray diagrams to show the image formation of an
object by:
(i) Hypermetropic eye.
(ii) Correction made with a suitable lens for hypermetropic eye.
OR
(a) Give reason for the following:
(i) Colour of the clear sky is blue.
(ii) The sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise.
(iii) We cannot see an object clearly if it is placed very close to the eyes.
(b) What is Presbyopia? Write two causes of this defect.
Solution:
(a) The splitting of white light into its component colours is called dispersion.
The water droplets present in air refract and disperse the incident white sunlight. The dispersed light then gets
reflected internally in the water droplets and finally gets refracted to come out of the droplets. Because of the
dispersion and internal reflection of light in the water droplets, light rays of different colours reach the eyes of
an observer. Consequently, the observer sees bands of light of different colours as rainbow.
(b) Hypermetropia: It is a defect of vision in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly, but has no
problems in seeing distant objects.
(i)
(ii)
OR
(a) Clear sky appears blue because of scattering of sunlight in the atmosphere. Among the different colours of
white sunlight, blue-coloured light rays get scattered the most by the air molecules and particles present in
the atmosphere. These scattered light rays get reflected again by the atmospheric particles. Therefore, blue-
coloured light enters our eyes from different directions. As a result of this, sky appears blue on a clear day.
Sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise because of refraction of sunlight through the
atmosphere. When the sun is just below the horizon, sunlight enters the earth's atmosphere obliquely and
gets refracted through the different layers of the atmosphere. As a result of this, sunlight gets bent and
reaches the eyes of an observer. Following the path of the light rays entering the eyes, the observer sees the
sun slightly above its actual position. As a result of this, sun can be seen about two minutes before the actual
sunrise.
When an object is brought closer to the human eye, the eye lens gradually becomes thicker and its focal
length decreases to focus the incoming rays onto the retina. The curvature of the eye lens is the maximum
and its focal length becomes the minimum when the object is at the near point of the eye. If the object is
brought closer to the eye, then the eye lens cannot adjust its curvature to focus the incoming rays onto the
retina. Therefore, the object cannot be seen clearly.
(b)Presbyopia is a defect of vision in which the eye is unable to see nearby objects clearly because of weak
power of accommodation.
Presbyopia is caused because of

1. Weak ciliary muscles
2. Diminishing flexibility of eye lens

Which one of the following is a renewable resource?
Natural gas, Petroleum, Ground water, Coal
Solution:
Among natural gas, petroleum, ground water and coal, only ground water is a renewable resource. It returns
to nature through the processes involved in the water cycle.
What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate on the reproduction process?
Solution:
Variations arise in the progeny as a result of inaccurate DNA copying and this leads to evolution.
How do autotrophs obtain CO2 and N2 to make their food?
Solution:
Autotrophs obtain CO2 from the atmosphere and N2 from the soil.
List any four characteristics of biogas on account of which it is considered an ideal fuel.
Solution:
Biogas is considered as an ideal fuel because it
Has a high calorific value
Produces no smoke on burning
Burns smoothly without any explosion
Leaves no residue on combustion
Discuss one limitation each for the extracting of energy from:
(a) wind
(b) tide
Solution:
(a) Limitation of wind energy:

Wind energy cannot be harnessed at places where wind speed is not at least 15 km/h.
(b) Limitation of tidal energy:
The rise and fall in sea water during a high tide or a low tide is not good enough to generate electricity on a
large scale.
Write one function of each of the following components of the transport system in human beings:
(a) Blood vessels
(b) Blood platelets
(c) Lymph
(d) Heart
Solution:
(a) Blood vessels help in transporting oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to different parts of the body.
(b) Platelets help in blood clotting.
(c) Lymph carries digested and absorbed fats from the intestines. It also provides immunity to the body.
(d) Heart acts as a pump and helps circulate blood through the entire body.
Name one sexually transmitted disease each caused due to bacterial infection and viral infection? How can
these be prevented?
Solution:
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease caused due to bacterial infection and AIDS is a sexually transmitted
disease caused due to viral infection.
Such diseases can be prevented by using condoms.
What are fossils? What do they tell about the process of evolution?
Solution:
Fossils are the remains of plants or animals that existed in the past.
They provide information about the evolutionary relationships between different species.

How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause of concern to us?
What causes this damage?
Solution:
Ultraviolet radiations split the oxygen molecules present in stratosphere into free oxygen atoms. These free
oxygen atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.
O2 → O+O
O2 + O → O3
Any damage to the ozone layer can cause diseases such as skin cancer and cataract. This can also adversely
affect crops.
The ozone layer is damaged as a result of chlorofluorocarbons. These are often used in refrigerators, air
conditioners and fire extinguishers.
How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings? How are lungs designed to maximise the
area for exchange of gases?
Solution:
(i) Oxygen enters the human body through the nasal passage and reaches the lungs.
(ii) Numerous alveoli are present in the lungs. These alveoli are surrounded by many blood capillaries. From
the alveoli, O2 is taken up by the red blood cells present in the blood capillaries.
(iii) Similarly, the CO2 from the various tissues is transported to the alveoli.
(iv) This CO2 is then released through the nasal passage during exhalation.
Alveoli are the sites of exchange of gases. Each lung contains 300−350 million alveoli. These alveoli increase
the surface area for gaseous exchange, making the process of respiration more efficient.
(a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label the following on it:
Nucleus, Dendrite, Cell body and Axon
(b) Name the part of neuron:
(i) where information is acquired.
(ii) through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
OR
(a) What is (i) phototropism and (ii) geotropism? With labelled diagrams describe an activity to show that light
and gravity change the direction that plant parts grow in.
(b) Mention the role of each of the following plant hormones:
(i) Auxin
(ii) Abscisic acid
Solution:
(a)
(b)
(i) Dendrites acquire stimulus or information from the other cells.
(ii) Axon carries away information from the cell body to the dendrite of the next neuron.
OR
(a)
(i) The bending of shoots or other plant parts in response to light is known as phototropism.
(ii) The bending or growth of roots towards gravity is known as geotropism.
Experiment:
Fill a conical flask with water and then cover the neck of the flask with a wire mesh. Place few germinating
seeds on the wire mesh. Then, take a cardboard box that is open from one side. Place the flask in the box and
keep this setup near a window. After 3-4 days, you will notice the shoots start bending towards light, while
the roots bend away from light.
(b)
(i) Auxin helps cells grow longer.
(ii) Abscisic acid inhibits growth and causes wilting of leaves.

Subjective Test
These are additional set 2 question
Solution:
Solution:
Draw a diagram to show the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. List any two properties of magnetic
field lines.
Solution:
Write the chemical formula for bleaching powder. How is bleaching powder prepared? For what purpose is it
used in paper factories?
Solution:
The chemical formula of bleaching powder is CaOCl 2.
Bleaching powder is prepared by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH) 2]. The chemical equation
involved in this reaction is:
It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper industries.
Name two metals which react violently with cold water. Write any three observations you would make when
such a metal is dropped into water. How would you identify the gas evolved, if any, during the reaction?
Solution:
Sodium and potassium react violently with cold water.
Observations:
They react violently with water.

Heat is evolved (i.e., the reaction is exothermic)
The evolved gas catches fire
Since the evolved gas is combustible (catches fire), it is hydrogen.
Firewood is our conventional fuel. List any four reasons for replacing it by the alternate sources of energy.
Solution:
Firewood should be replaced by alternate sources of energy because of the following reasons:
1. It is not a renewable source of energy

2. Use of firewood leads to deforestation
3. Burning of firewood causes release of gases that cause pollution
4. Cutting of firewood causes ecological imbalance
Name any two sexually transmitted diseases. What advice is given to prevent them?
Solution:
Syphilis and AIDS are two sexually transmitted diseases. Such diseases can be prevented by the use of
condoms.
Write any three differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Solution:
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
1. Aerobic respiration takes place 1. Anaerobic respiration takes place in

in the presence of oxygen. the absence of oxygen.
2. CO2 and H2O are the end 2. Lactic acid or ethanol and CO2 are
products of the reaction. the end products of the reaction.
3. More number of ATP is formed. 3. Less number of ATP is formed.

Subjective Test
These are additional set 3 questions
Solution:
Solution:
Draw a diagram to show the magnetic filed lines around a current carrying solenoid. What do you interpret
from the pattern of the field lines?
Solution:
From the pattern of the field lines around the current-carrying solenoid, it can be interpreted that:
a current-carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet and its two ends behave like the two poles of a magnet
the magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform
What is the chemical formula for Plaster of Paris? How is it prepared? State the common and the chemical
names of the compound formed when Plaster of Paris is mixed with water.
Solution:
The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is .
Plaster of Paris can be prepared by heating gypsum at 373 K. The chemical equation of this reaction is:
When Plaster of Paris is mixed with water, it changes into gypsum. The chemical equation of this reaction is:
The common name of the compound formed is gypsum, while its chemical name is calcium sulphate
dihydrate.
Name a metal for each case:
i. It does not react with cold as well as hot water but reacts with steam.
It does not react with any physical state of water.
ii. When calcium metal is added to water, the gas evolved does not catch fire but the same gas evolved
on adding sodium metal to water catches fire. Why is it so?
Solution:
(i) Aluminium (Al) or Iron (Fe)
Gold (Au) or Silver (Ag)
(ii) Since sodium is more reactive than calcium, more heat is evolved when the former reacts with water and
this causes it to catch fire.
Which one of the following gases is the major constituent of biogas?
Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon dioxide
Solution:
Methane is the major constituent of biogas.
(a) In the human body what is the role of (i) seminal vesicles and (ii) prostate gland?
(b) List two functions performed by testes in human beings.
Solution:
1. The secretions of seminal vesicles and prostate glands provide nutrition to sperms and also help in
their transport.
2. Two important functions of testes are
(i) Production of sperms
(ii) Production of a hormone called testosterone, which brings about secondary sexual characters in boys
(a) Name two different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms.
(b) Write any two differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Solution:
(a) Glucose can be broken down by either aerobic or anaerobic respiratory pathway to provide energy in
different organisms.
(b)
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
1. Aerobic respiration takes place 1. Anaerobic respiration takes place in

in the presence of oxygen. the absence of oxygen.
2. CO2 and H2O are the end 2. Lactic acid or ethanol and CO2 are
products of the reaction. the end products of the reaction.
3. More number of ATP is formed. 3. Less number of ATP is formed.

Subjective Test







Section A
In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of gas
collected over the other electrode?
Solution:
The balanced chemical equation for the electrolysis of water is:

It can be observed from the balanced chemical equation that the volumes of hydrogen and oxygen produced
during electrolysis are in the ratio 2: 1. Thus, the volume of hydrogen gas collected in the process is double
than that of oxygen.
What effect does an increase in concentration of H + (aq.) in a solution have on the pH of solution?
Solution:
The pH of the solution is indirectly proportional to the concentration of H + ions. Hence, with an increase in the
concentration of H+ (aq.) in a solution, the pH of the solution will decrease.
What happens when a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Solution:
When a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, sodium reacts with ethanol to give sodium ethoxide.
Hydrogen gas is evolved in the process. This reaction can be represented by the following equation.
Draw a schematic diagram of an electric circuit consisting of a battery of two cells each of 1.5 V, 5
Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω resistors and a plug key, all connected in series.
Solution:
The emf of each cell is 1.5 V.
When the two cells are connected in series, the emf of the battery becomes (1.5 + 1.5) V = 3 V.
Therefore, the schematicdiagram of the series circuit is as follows:
When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field the
largest?
Solution:
When a current-carrying conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field, the force
experienced by the conductor is the maximum.
State the rule which gives the direction of magnetic field associated with a current-carrying
conductor.
Solution:
The direction of the magnetic field produced around a current-carrying conductor is determined by the right-
hand thumb rule. According to this rule:
If one holds a current-carrying conductor with the right hand, such that the thumb points in the direction of
the current flowing through the conductor, then the other fingers will wrap around the conductor in the
direction of the field lines of the magnetic field due to the conductor.
(i) Name the products formed when sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved in the above.
Solution:
(i) When sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated, sodium carbonate (Na 2CO3), water (H2O), and carbon dioxide
(CO2) gas are formed.
(ii) The chemical equation involved in the above reaction can be represented as:
(i) What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate
taken in a test tube?
(ii) What type of reaction is this?
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction.
Solution:
(i) When a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate taken in a test tube, the
precipitation of a yellowish solid is observed. This yellowish solid is lead iodide. Potassium nitrate is formed
along with lead iodide.
(ii) This is a double displacement reaction.
(iii) The balanced chemical equation for the above reaction is:
What is an electric circuit? Distinguish between an open and a closed circuit.
Solution:
An electric circuit consists of electric devices (bulb, fan, etc.), switching devices (key, fuse, etc.) and source of
electricity (electric cell, battery, etc.). These are connected by conducting wires.
An open circuit is an incomplete circuit and current does not flow through it, while a closed circuit is a
complete circuit and current flows through it.
Calculate the resistance of an electric bulb which allows a 10 A current when connected to a 220 V
power source.
Solution:
Current flowing through the electric bulb, I = 10 A
Voltage of the source in the circuit, V = 220 V
According to Ohm’s law,
V=IR
Where, R is the resistance of the electric bulb
Therefore, the resistance of the electric bulb is 22 Ω.
(a) What is meant by periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the periodic table?
(b) Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties?
(c) How will the tendency to gain electrons change as we go from left to right across a period?
Why?
Solution:
(a) The properties of elements are not distinct and recur from time to time. In the periodic table, elements
are arranged in such a manner that the elements with similar properties are present in the same group.
(b) The properties of elements depend upon their electronic configurations.
The elements having similar electronic configurations have similar properties. As the elements of the same
group have similar electronic configurations, they have similar properties.
(c) As we move from left to right across a period in the periodic table, the tendency to gain electron
increases.
On moving from left to right across a period in the periodic table, there is an increase in the nuclear charge of
the elements. At the same time, the size of the elements decreases. As a result, the effective nuclear charge
acting on the valence electrons increases. Hence, the tendency to gain electrons increases.
(a) Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions of organic compounds.
(b) With a labelled diagram describe an activity to show the formation of an ester.
Solution:
(a) Esterification reaction is the reaction between carboxylic acids and alcohols. In such reactions, esters get
formed. Esters are sweet-smelling organic compounds with the general formula RCOOR. The general reaction
for esterification reaction is:
Alcohol and carboxylic acid can be re-obtained from an ester by treating it with an acid or a base. This
reaction is used in the preparation of soaps and is known as saponification reaction.
(b) 1 mL of ethanol and 1 mL of glacial acetic acid are taken in a test tube. 3-4 drops of concentrated
sulphuric acid are then added to a test tube. The resulting mixture in a water bath is then heated (as shown in
the figure) for 5 minutes. After this, the contents are poured in a beaker containing 20 mL water. A sweet-
smelling compound (ethyl ethanoalte) will be obtained as the product.
Formation of ester
When ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of an acid, ethyl ethanoate is formed. Ethyl ethanoate
is an ester and has a sweet smell.
For which position of the object does a convex lens form a virtual and erect image? Explain with
the help of a ray diagram.
Solution:
When an object is placed between the focus and the optical centre of a convex lens, a virtual and erect image
of the object is formed.
When the object is placed between the focus F 1 and optical centre O:
In this case, the image is formed on the same side as the object. This image is virtual, erect, and very large in
size. It is formed behind 2F1.
P’Q’ is the image.
PQ is the object.
F2 is the focus on the other side of the lens.
(a) Define the term ‘volt’.
(b) State the relation between work, charge and potential difference for an electric circuit.
Calculate the potential difference between the two terminals of a battery if 100 joules of work is
required to transfer 20 coulombs of charge from one terminal of the battery to the other.
Solution:
(a) Volt: Volt is the unit of potential difference between two points. If 1 joule work is done to move 1
coulomb positive charge from one point to another, then the potential difference between the points is 1 volt.
1 V = 1 J C−1
One volt is also defined as the potential difference across a resistance of 1 ohm when 1 ampere of current
flows through it
(b) The relation between work (W), charge (Q) and potential difference (V):
The work required to be done (W) to move a positive charge Q, between two points in a circuit having
potential difference V, is QV. That is,
W = QV
In the given problem:
Work, W =100 J
Charge, Q = 20 C
Therefore, the potential difference between the two terminals of a battery is

5 V.
(a) Distinguish between ionic and covalent compounds under the following properties:
(i) Strength of forces between constituent elements

(ii) Solubility of compounds in water
(iii) Electrical conduction in substances
(b) Explain how the following metals are obtained from their compounds by the reduction process:
(i) Metal M which is in the middle of the reactivity series.
(ii) Metal N which is high up in the reactivity series.
Give one example of each type
OR
(a) Distinguish between ‘roasting’ and ‘calcination’. Which of these two is used for sulphide ores
and why?
(b) Write a chemical equation to illustrate the use of aluminium for joining cracked railway lines.
(c) Name the anode, the cathode and the electrolyte used in the electrolytic refining of impure
copper.
Solution:
(a) (i) The forces of attraction between the constituent elements (positive and negative ions) of ionic
compounds are stronger than the forces of attraction between the constituent elements of covalent
compounds.
(ii) Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvents such as water and are insoluble in non-polar solvents such
as petrol, kerosene, etc.
Covalent compounds on the other hand dissolve readily in organic solvents such as alcohol and acetone, but
are insoluble in polar compounds.
(iii) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in their molten state or aqueous form, whereas covalent compounds
do not conduct electricity.
(b) (i) Metals that are present at the centre of the reactivity series are moderately-reactive. Therefore, metal
M is a moderately-reactive metal. After obtaining the metal oxides from ores, the metal oxides are reduced to
obtain the pure metals. As metal M is a moderately reactive metal, its oxide can be reduced by using coke
(carbon).
One example of metal M: Iron (Fe)
(ii) Metals that are present higher up in the reactivity series are very reactive metals. Hence, metal N is a
highly reactive metal. Oxides of highly reactive metals cannot be reduced by using coke. Therefore, these
metals are reduced by passing electric current throughtheir molten salts. This process is known as
electrolytic reduction.
One example of metal N: Sodium (Na)

OR
(a) Roasting involves the strong heating of an ore in the presence of an excess of air. On the other hand,
calcination involves the strong heating of an ore in the absence of air.
Among these two, the process that is used for sulphide ores is roasting. This is because on roasting, metals
sulphides get converted into metal oxides. This is done because the reduction of oxides is comparatively
easier than the reduction of sulphides.
(b) Aluminium is more reactive than iron and can be used for reducing iron oxide to iron. The equation for the
same is:
The iron produced in this reaction is in liquid (molten) state as this reaction is highly exothermic. This reaction
is known as ‘thermit reaction’ and is used for joining and repairing railway tracks or broken pieces of iron in
heavy machines.
(c) A large block of impure metal (copper) is made the anode and a thin strip of pure metal (copper) is made
the cathode. An acidified solution of copper sulphate (CuSO 4) is taken as the electrolyte.
(a) What is myopia? State the two causes of myopia. With the help of labelled ray diagram, show
(i) The eye defect myopia
(ii) Correction of myopia using a lens.
(b) Why is the normal eye unable to focus on an object placed within 10 cm from the eye?
OR
(a) What is dispersion of white light. What is the cause of such dispersion. Draw a diagram to
show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
(b) A glass prism is able to produce the spectrum when white light passes through it, but a glass
slab doesn’t produce any spectrum. Explain why it is so.
Solution:
(a) Myopia: It is a defect of vision in which a person cannot see distant objects clearly, but has no problems
in seeing nearby objects.
Causes of Myopia:
(i) Excessive curvature of eye lens
(ii) Elongation of the eyeball
(i) Ray diagram of the eye defect myopia

(ii) Ray diagram of the correction of myopia
(b) For a normal eye, the near point (i.e., the minimum focus distance) of the eye lens is 25 cm. The
curvature of the eye lens becomes the maximum (and hence, the focal length becomes the minimum) when
an object is placed exactly 25 cm from the eye lens. If an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm (i.e., within
the 25 cm distance from the eye lens), then the curvature of the eye lens cannot increase further. Therefore,
the focal length of the eye lens does not get adjusted to focus the light rays coming from the object onto the
retina. As a result, a blurry image of the object is formed on the retina.
OR
(a) Dispersion: The splitting of white light into its seven component colours is called dispersion.
Cause of dispersion:
Dispersion of white light occurs because of the varying speeds of different coloured lights through different
media. White light consists of seven colours. The speeds of these coloured lights are the same through air.
However, their speeds vary in other media. Therefore, when white light enters from one media to another, its
component colours get refracted by different angles. As a result, dispersion occurs.
Dispersion of white light by a glass prism
(b) The two faces of a glass prism are at an angle (angle of prism) with each other. Therefore, the angle of
incidence and the angle of emergence of a light ray become different in the case of a prism. Therefore, when
white light gets dispersed after entering a prism, its component colours spread more after refracting through
the opposite face of the prism.
In the case of a glass slab, the two opposite faces of the slab are parallel to each other. Therefore, the angle
of incidence and the angle of emergence of a light ray remain the same for a glass slab. Therefore, the
dispersed light rays combine to form white light after refracting through the second face of the glass slab.
Section B
Which compounds are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
Solution:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer.
Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
Solution:
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) copying is an essential part of reproduction as it passes genetic information from
the parents to the offspring. Therefore, it determines the body design of an individual.
Where does digestion of fat take place in our body?
Solution:
The digestion of fats takes place in the small intestine.
How is charcoal obtained from wood? Why is charcoal considered a better fuel than wood?
Solution:
Charcoal is obtained when wood is heated in the absence of air. This process is known as destructive
distillation of wood.
Charcoal is considered a better fuel than wood because the former has a better calorific value than wood.
Also, charcoal does not produce any smoke when burnt.
Describe how hydro-energy can be converted into electrical energy. Write any two limitations of
hydro-energy.
Solution:
In hydropower plants, a large amount of water is stored at a height. This stored water is then allowed to fall
on rotating turbines. The force of the running water (kinetic energy of running water) causes the turbines of
the plant to spin. The rotating turbines then spin the generator, which ultimately produces electricity. In this
manner, the kinetic energy of the running water is converted into mechanical energy and then finally into
electrical energy.
Two limitations of hydropower energy
 Causes a change in the course of rivers and lot of land is submerged under water.
 Fish and wildlife are affected drastically.
What is Chipko movement? Why should we conserve forests?
Solution:
The Chipko movement, which originated in Reni, Garhwal, was an agitation of tribal habitants directed against
deforestation in the region and their alienation from the forests.
We must conserve our forests to preserve biodiversity (range of different life forms) so as to avoid the loss of
ecological stability. A large number of tribes live in and around forests. If forests are not conserved effectively,
then these tribes may lose their habitat. If forests are not managed properly, then water resources, quality of
soil, and even the amount of rainfall in a particular region may get affected. In simple words, without forests,
life will become extremely difficult for human beings.
Suggest any four changes that you would like to be incorporated in the life-style of students of
your age to move towards a sustainable use of available resources.
Solution:
A student should incorporate the following changes in his/her life-style to move towards a sustainable use of
available resources:
(i) Prevent the cutting of trees and promote the planting of trees
(ii) Stop using plastic and polythene bags for carrying goods
(iii) Use recycled paper
(iv) Throw biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes into separate bins
(v) Waste minimum amount of water while using and repair leaking taps
(vi) Promote rainwater harvesting
Describe the role of the following in human beings:
(i) Seminal vesicles

(ii) Prostate gland
Solution:
(i) Seminal vesicles - The secretions of seminal vesicles contain many proteins and enzymes and thus
provide nutrition to the developing sperms.
(ii) Prostate gland - The prostate gland secretes a slightly alkaline fluid that lubricates the sperms and
neutralises the acidity of the vaginal tract.
What is ‘Phototropism’? How does it occur in plants? Describe an activity to demonstrate

phototropism.
Solution:
The growth movement of plants in response to light stimulus is known as phototropism.
In plants, the bending of shoots towards light is known as positive phototropism, while the bending of roots
away from light is known as negative phototropism.
Activity: Take two seedlings of mustard plant and keep them in a small bottle containing water. Close the
bottle with a split cork and keep it inside a wooden box (provided with a small opening on one side). After
this, keep the box near a light source in such a way that the opening in the box faces the light source.
Response of a plant to light
After 2-3 days, it will be observed that the shoots bend towards light, while the roots bend away from light.
This type of growth movement in response to light stimulus is known as phototropism.
Explain how the sex of the child is determined at the time of conception in human beings.
Solution:
Every somatic (body) cell of humans contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of these 23 pairs, the first 22
pairs (44 chromosomes) do not determine the sex of an individual and they are known as autosomes. The
remaining one pair determines the sex of the individual. This last pair is known as the sex chromosomes and
are represented as X and Y.
The male gametes have 22 autosomes and either an X or a Y sex chromosome.
On the other hand, the females have XX sex chromosomes, along with the 22 autosomes. This means that
their gametes can only have an X sex chromosome
Therefore, the sex of the child is determined by the type of the sperm (containing an X or a Y sex
chromosome) which fuses with the egg cell (containing an X chromosome) at the time of conception.
If the X gamete of the male fuses with the X gamete of the female, then the offspring will be female.
On the other hand, if the Y gamete of the male fuses with the X gamete of the female, then the offspring will
be male.
(a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart and label on it Aorta, Pulmonary arteries, Vena cava,
Left ventricle.
(b) Why is double circulation of blood necessary in human beings?
OR
(a) Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following on it: Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule,
Renal artery, Collecting duct.
(b) What happens to glucose that enters the nephron along with filtrate?
Solution:
(a)
(b) The movement of blood twice through the heart is known as double circulation. Double circulation is
necessary in human beings as it allows separation of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood for a more efficient
supply of oxygen to the body cells. This efficient system of oxygen supply is very useful in warm-blooded
animals such as human beings.
As we know, warm-blooded animals have to maintain a constant body temperature (by cooling themselves
when they are in a hotter environment and by warming their bodies when they are in a cooler environment).
Hence, they require more O2 for more respiration, so that they can produce more energy to maintain their
body temperature. Thus, the circulatory system of humans is more efficient because of the double circulatory
heart.
OR
(a)
(b) The glucose that enters the nephron along with the filtrate is selectively re-absorbed as the urine flows
along the tube.
Subjective Test







Section A
What happens when a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Solution:
When a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol, sodium reacts with ethanol to give sodium ethoxide.
Hydrogen gas is evolved in the process. This reaction can be represented by the following equation.
Which one of these has a higher concentration of H + ions?
1 M HCl or 1 M CH3COOH
Solution:
HCl is a stronger acid than CH3COOH. When added to water, HCl dissociates almost completely to give H + ions.
In contrast, in the case of CH3COOH, only partial ionisation occurs. This is why 1 M HCl solution has a higher
concentration of H+ ions than 1 M CH3COOH solution.

In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of gas
collected over the other electrode?
Solution:
The balanced chemical equation for the electrolysis of water is:
It can be observed from the balanced chemical equation that the volumes of hydrogen and oxygen produced
during electrolysis are in the ratio 2: 1. Thus, the volume of hydrogen gas collected in the process is double
than that of oxygen.
State the rule which gives the direction of magnetic field associated with a current-carrying
conductor.
Solution:
The direction of the magnetic field produced around a current-carrying conductor is determined by the right-
Define the term ‘induced current’.
Solution:
If a conducting wire is placed in a changing magnetic field or if a conducting wire moves in a magnetic field,
then a current is generated in the conducting wire. This electric current generated in the conducting wire
because of changing magnetic field is known as induced current.
Draw a schematic diagram of an electric circuit consisting of a battery of two cells each of 1.5 V, 5
Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω resistors and a plug key, all connected in series.
Solution:
The emf of each cell is 1.5 V.
When the two cells are connected in series, the emf of the battery becomes (1.5 + 1.5) V = 3 V.
Therefore, the schematicdiagram of the series circuit is as follows:

Crystals of copper sulphate are heated in a test tube for some time
(a) What is the colour of copper sulphate crystals
(i) before heating, and
(ii) after heating?
b) What is the source of liquid droplets seen on the inner upper side of the test tube during the
heating?
Solution:
(a) (i) The colour of copper sulphate crystals before heating is blue.
(ii) The colour of copper sulphate crystals after heating is white.
(b) The source of liquid droplets seen on the inner upper side of the test tube during heating is the water of
crystallisation present in the copper sulphate crystals before heating.
(i) What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate
taken in a test tube?
(ii) What type of reaction is this?
(iii) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction.
Solution:
(i) When a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate taken in a test tube, the
precipitation of a yellowish solid is observed. This yellowish solid is lead iodide. Potassium nitrate is formed
along with lead iodide.
(ii) This is a double displacement reaction.
(iii) The balanced chemical equation for the above reaction is:
A lamp rated 100 W at 220 V is connected to the mains electric supply. What current is drawn from
the supply line if the voltage is 220 V?
Solution:
The electric power (P) is related to potential difference (V) and current (I) as:
P=V×I
The power of the lamp, P = 100 W
Potential difference across the lamp, V = 220 V
Therefore, the current drawn by the lamp from the supply line is:
What is an electric circuit? Distinguish between an open and a closed circuit.
Solution:
An electric circuit consists of electric devices (bulb, fan, etc.), switching devices (key, fuse, etc.) and source of
electricity (electric cell, battery, etc.). These are connected by conducting wires.
An open circuit is an incomplete circuit and current does not flow through it, while a closed circuit is a
complete circuit and current flows through it.
(a) What is a homologous series of substances?
(b) In an organic compound, which parts largely determine its physical and chemical properties?
(c) Write a chemical equation to represent the reaction of ethanol with acidified solution of
potassium dichromate?
Solution:
(a) A homologous series is a series of carbon compounds that have different numbers of carbon atoms, but
contain the same functional group. All the functional groups form a homologous series.
(b) The physical properties of an organic compound are determined by both the number of carbon atoms and
the functional group. Its chemical properties are determined only by the functional group.
(c) Acidified potassium dichromate is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises ethanol to ethanoic acid.
(a) What is meant by periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the periodic table?
(b) Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties?
(c) How will the tendency to gain electrons change as we go from left to right across a period?
Why?
Solution:
(a) The properties of elements are not distinct and recur from time to time. In the periodic table, elements
are arranged in such a manner that the elements with similar properties are present in the same group.
(b) The properties of elements depend upon their electronic configurations.
The elements having similar electronic configurations have similar properties. As the elements of the same
group have similar electronic configurations, they have similar properties.
(c) As we move from left to right across a period in the periodic table, the tendency to gain electron
increases.
On moving from left to right across a period in the periodic table, there is an increase in the nuclear charge of
the elements. At the same time, the size of the elements decreases. As a result, the effective nuclear charge
acting on the valence electrons increases. Hence, the tendency to gain electrons increases.
(a) Define the term ‘coulomb’.
(b) State the relationship between the electric current, the charge moving through a conductor
and the time of flow.
Calculate the charge passing through an electric bulb in 20 minutes if the value of current is 200
mA.
Solution:
(a) Coulomb: Coulomb is the unit of electric charge.The amount of charge that passes through a conductor
when 1 ampere current flows through the conductor for 1 second is defined as 1 coulomb.
1C=1A×1s
(b) If a net charge Q, flows across any cross-section of a conductor in time t, then the current I flowing
through the cross-section is:
In the given problem:
Current flowing through the bulb, I = 200 mA = 0.2 A
Time of flow of current, t = 20 min = 1200 s
Therefore, Q = I × t = 0.2 × 1200 = 240 C
Hence, 240 C charge is passed through the bulb.
For which position of the object does a convex lens form a virtual and erect image? Explain with
the help of a ray diagram.
Solution:
When an object is placed between the focus and the optical centre of a convex lens, a virtual and erect image
of the object is formed.
When the object is placed between the focus F 1 and optical centre O:
In this case, the image is formed on the same side as the object. This image is virtual, erect, and very large in
size. It is formed behind 2F1.
P’Q’ is the image.
PQ is the object.
F2 is the focus on the other side of the lens.

(a) Distinguish between ionic and covalent compounds under the following properties:
(i) Strength of forces between constituent elements
(ii) Solubility of compounds in water
(iii) Electrical conduction in substances
(b) Explain how the following metals are obtained from their compounds by the reduction process:
(i) Metal M which is in the middle of the reactivity series.
(ii) Metal N which is high up in the reactivity series.
Give one example of each type
OR
(a) Distinguish between ‘roasting’ and ‘calcination’. Which of these two is used for sulphide ores
and why?
(b) Write a chemical equation to illustrate the use of aluminium for joining cracked railway lines.
(c) Name the anode, the cathode and the electrolyte used in the electrolytic refining of impure
copper.
Solution:
(a) (i) The forces of attraction between the constituent elements (positive and negative ions) of ionic
compounds are stronger than the forces of attraction between the constituent elements of covalent
compounds.
(ii) Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvents such as water and are insoluble in non-polar solvents such
as petrol, kerosene, etc.
Covalent compounds on the other hand dissolve readily in organic solvents such as alcohol and acetone, but
are insoluble in polar compounds.
(iii) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in their molten state or aqueous form, whereas covalent compounds
do not conduct electricity.
(b) (i) Metals that are present at the centre of the reactivity series are moderately-reactive. Therefore, metal
M is a moderately-reactive metal. After obtaining the metal oxides from ores, the metal oxides are reduced to
obtain the pure metals. As metal M is a moderately reactive metal, its oxide can be reduced by using coke
(carbon).
One example of metal M: Iron (Fe)

(ii) Metals that are present higher up in the reactivity series are very reactive metals. Hence, metal N is a
highly reactive metal. Oxides of highly reactive metals cannot be reduced by using coke. Therefore, these
metals are reduced by passing electric current throughtheir molten salts. This process is known as
electrolytic reduction.
One example of metal N: Sodium (Na)
OR
(a) Roasting involves the strong heating of an ore in the presence of an excess of air. On the other hand,
calcination involves the strong heating of an ore in the absence of air.
Among these two, the process that is used for sulphide ores is roasting. This is because on roasting, metals
sulphides get converted into metal oxides. This is done because the reduction of oxides is comparatively
easier than the reduction of sulphides.
(b) Aluminium is more reactive than iron and can be used for reducing iron oxide to iron. The equation for the
same is:
The iron produced in this reaction is in liquid (molten) state as this reaction is highly exothermic. This reaction
is known as ‘thermit reaction’ and is used for joining and repairing railway tracks or broken pieces of iron in
heavy machines.
(c) A large block of impure metal (copper) is made the anode and a thin strip of pure metal (copper) is made
the cathode. An acidified solution of copper sulphate (CuSO 4) is taken as the electrolyte.
(a) What is myopia? State the two causes of myopia. With the help of labelled ray diagram, show
(i) The eye defect myopia
(ii) Correction of myopia using a lens.
(b) Why is the normal eye unable to focus on an object placed within 10 cm from the eye?
OR
(a) What is dispersion of white light. What is the cause of such dispersion. Draw a diagram to
show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
(b) A glass prism is able to produce the spectrum when white light passes through it, but a glass
slab doesn’t produce any spectrum. Explain why it is so.
Solution:
(a) Myopia: It is a defect of vision in which a person cannot see distant objects clearly, but has no problems
in seeing nearby objects.
Causes of Myopia:
(i) Excessive curvature of eye lens
(ii) Elongation of the eyeball
(i) Ray diagram of the eye defect myopia
(ii) Ray diagram of the correction of myopia
(b) For a normal eye, the near point (i.e., the minimum focus distance) of the eye lens is 25 cm. The
curvature of the eye lens becomes the maximum (and hence, the focal length becomes the minimum) when
an object is placed exactly 25 cm from the eye lens. If an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm (i.e., within
the 25 cm distance from the eye lens), then the curvature of the eye lens cannot increase further. Therefore,
the focal length of the eye lens does not get adjusted to focus the light rays coming from the object onto the
retina. As a result, a blurry image of the object is formed on the retina.
OR
(a) Dispersion: The splitting of white light into its seven component colours is called dispersion.
Cause of dispersion:
Dispersion of white light occurs because of the varying speeds of different coloured lights through different
media. White light consists of seven colours. The speeds of these coloured lights are the same through air.
However, their speeds vary in other media. Therefore, when white light enters from one media to another, its
component colours get refracted by different angles. As a result, dispersion occurs.
Dispersion of white light by a glass prism
(b) The two faces of a glass prism are at an angle (angle of prism) with each other. Therefore, the angle of
incidence and the angle of emergence of a light ray become different in the case of a prism. Therefore, when
white light gets dispersed after entering a prism, its component colours spread more after refracting through
the opposite face of the prism.
In the case of a glass slab, the two opposite faces of the slab are parallel to each other. Therefore, the angle
of incidence and the angle of emergence of a light ray remain the same for a glass slab. Therefore, the
dispersed light rays combine to form white light after refracting through the second face of the glass slab.
Section B
Why are green plants called ‘Producers’?
Solution:
Green plants are called producers as they can synthesise their own food in the presence of sunlight by using
simple inorganic raw materials such as carbon dioxide, water and minerals. They are also known as
autotrophs.
Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
Solution:
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) copying is an essential part of reproduction as it passes genetic information from
the parents to the offspring. Therefore, it determines the body design of an individual.
Which compounds are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
Solution:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer.
Describe how hydro-energy can be converted into electrical energy. Write any two limitations of
hydro-energy.
Solution:
In hydropower plants, a large amount of water is stored at a height. This stored water is then allowed to fall
on rotating turbines. The force of the running water (kinetic energy of running water) causes the turbines of
the plant to spin. The rotating turbines then spin the generator, which ultimately produces electricity. In this
manner, the kinetic energy of the running water is converted into mechanical energy and then finally into
electrical energy.
Two limitations of hydropower energy
 Causes a change in the course of rivers and lot of land is submerged under water.
 Fish and wildlife are affected drastically.
How is charcoal obtained from wood? Why is charcoal considered a better fuel than wood?
Solution:
Charcoal is obtained when wood is heated in the absence of air. This process is known as destructive
distillation of wood.
Charcoal is considered a better fuel than wood because the former has a better calorific value than wood.
Also, charcoal does not produce any smoke when burnt.
Describe the role of the following in human beings:
(i) Seminal vesicles
(ii) Prostate gland
Solution:
(i) Seminal vesicles - The secretions of seminal vesicles contain many proteins and enzymes and thus
provide nutrition to the developing sperms.
(ii) Prostate gland - The prostate gland secretes a slightly alkaline fluid that lubricates the sperms and
neutralises the acidity of the vaginal tract.
An environmentalist on visit to your school suggested the use of three R’s to save the
environment. Explain what he meant by three R’s and how you would follow his advice at home.
Solution:
The three ‘R’s mentioned by the environmentalist are Reduce, Recycle and Reuse.
We can save our environment by practicing these three ‘R’s.
(a) Reduce: Reduce means using less. An example of this is reducing the wastage of electricity by switching
off lights and fans when not required.
(b) Recycle: Recycle means collecting the used and discarded items of paper, plastic, glass materials, and
sending them to the respective industries for making fresh paper, plastic, glass or metal objects. One should
encourage the use of products made from these recycled materials, instead of using products made from fresh
materials.
(c) Reuse: Reuse means using the same things again and again. For example, one should reuse packing
materials such as the cardboard and thermocol coverings of electronic items.
What is Chipko movement? Why should we conserve forests?
Solution:
The Chipko movement, which originated in Reni, Garhwal, was an agitation of tribal habitants directed against
deforestation in the region and their alienation from the forests.
We must conserve our forests to preserve biodiversity (range of different life forms) so as to avoid the loss of
ecological stability. A large number of tribes live in and around forests. If forests are not conserved effectively,
then these tribes may lose their habitat. If forests are not managed properly, then water resources, quality of
soil, and even the amount of rainfall in a particular region may get affected. In simple words, without forests,
life will become extremely difficult for human beings.
Explain how the sex of the child is determined at the time of conception in human beings.
Solution:
Every somatic (body) cell of humans contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of these 23 pairs, the first 22
pairs (44 chromosomes) do not determine the sex of an individual and they are known as autosomes. The
remaining one pair determines the sex of the individual. This last pair is known as the sex chromosomes and
are represented as X and Y.
The male gametes have 22 autosomes and either an X or a Y sex chromosome.
On the other hand, the females have XX sex chromosomes, along with the 22 autosomes. This means that
their gametes can only have an X sex chromosome
Therefore, the sex of the child is determined by the type of the sperm (containing an X or a Y sex
chromosome) which fuses with the egg cell (containing an X chromosome) at the time of conception.
If the X gamete of the male fuses with the X gamete of the female, then the offspring will be female.
On the other hand, if the Y gamete of the male fuses with the X gamete of the female, then the offspring will
be male.
What is ‘hydrotropism’? Describe an experiment to demonstrate ‘hydrotropism’’?
Solution:
The growth movement of a plant part in response to water is called ‘hydrotropism’.
Experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism:
Take two small beakers and label them as A and B. Fill beaker A with water. Now, make a cylindrical-shaped
roll from a filter paper and keep it as a bridge between beakers A and B, as shown in the figure. Attach few
germinating seeds in the middle of the filter-paper-bridge. After this, cover the entire set-up with a
transparent plastic container so that the moisture is retained.
It will be observed that the roots of the germinating seeds will grow towards beaker A.
This experiment demonstrates the phenomenon of hydrotropism.
(a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart and label on it Aorta, Pulmonary arteries, Vena cava,
Left ventricle.
(b) Why is double circulation of blood necessary in human beings?
OR
(a) Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following on it: Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule,
Renal artery, Collecting duct.
(b) What happens to glucose that enters the nephron along with filtrate?
Solution:
(a)
(b) The movement of blood twice through the heart is known as double circulation. Double circulation is
necessary in human beings as it allows separation of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood for a more efficient
supply of oxygen to the body cells. This efficient system of oxygen supply is very useful in warm-blooded
animals such as human beings.
As we know, warm-blooded animals have to maintain a constant body temperature (by cooling themselves
when they are in a hotter environment and by warming their bodies when they are in a cooler environment).
Hence, they require more O2 for more respiration, so that they can produce more energy to maintain their
body temperature. Thus, the circulatory system of humans is more efficient because of the double circulatory
heart.
OR
(a)
(b) The glucose that enters the nephron along with the filtrate is selectively re-absorbed as the urine flows
along the tube.

Subjective Test







Section A
What would be the colour of litmus in a solution of sodium carbonate?
Solution:
The aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is basic in nature. Hence, the colour of the litmus in the solution of
sodium carbonate will be blue.
Name a reducing agent that may be used to obtain manganese from manganese dioxide.
Solution:
Aluminium (Al) is a reducing agent that may be used for obtaining manganese from manganese dioxide.
Pb(NO3)2(s) PbO(s) + NO2(g) + O2 (g)
Solution:
The balanced chemical equation for the given reaction is:
Take down this figure into your answer book and complete the path of the ray.
Solution:
The ray of light will follow the path after refraction as follows.
Why does sky look blue on a clear day?
Solution:
Clear sky appears blue because among all the colours of white sunlight, the blue-coloured light gets scattered
the most.
Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium into another?
Solution:
Different media have different refractive indices. Due to this difference in the refractive indices, the speed of a
light ray in one medium is different from its speed in another medium. Hence, a light ray bends on moving
from one medium to another.
Define a combination reaction. Give one example of a combination reaction which is also
exothermic.
Solution:
In combination reactions, two or more substances combine to form a new compound. Only one product is
obtained in such reactions. The reactants in such reactions can be elements as well as compounds. The
general equation used to represent a combination reaction is:
A+Z AZ
For example, calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce calcium hydroxide.
A large amount of heat is also evolved during this process, which increases the temperature of the system.
Hence, the combination of calcium oxide and water is exothermic in nature.
A compound which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when mixed with a
proper quantity of water. Identify the compound. Write the chemical equation for its preparation.
For what purpose is it used in hospitals?
Solution:
The compound is plaster of Paris or calcium sulphate hemihydrate, .
The chemical equation for the preparation of plaster of Paris is:
In hospitals, it is used as a plaster for joining broken bones.
What is the minimum number of rays required for locating the image formed by a concave mirror
for an object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a virtual image by a concave mirror.
Solution:
At least two rays are required for locating the image formed by a concave mirror for an object.
The given figure shows the formation of a virtual image of an object by a concave mirror.
Here,
RQ is the object
is the virtual image

BPA is the concave mirror
F is the focus of the concave mirror
C is the centre of curvature of the mirror
Calculate the area of cross section of a wire if its length is 1.0 m, its resistance is 23 Ω and the
resistivity of the material of the wire is 1.84 × 10 −6Ω m.
Solution:
Resistance R of a wire is given as:
Where,
A is the area of cross-section of the wire
l = Length of the wire = 1 m
R = 23 Ω
ρ = Resistivity of the wire = 1.84 × 10 −6 Ωm
Therefore, the area of cross-section of the wire is 8 ×10 −8 m2.
An ore on heating in air produces sulphur dioxide. Which process would you suggest for its
concentration? Describe briefly any two steps involved in the conversion of this concentrated ore
into related metal.
Solution:
The ore on heating in air produces sulphur dioxide. Hence, the given ore is a sulphide ore and the process of
froth floatation is used for its concentration.
Two steps that are involved in the conversion of this concentrated ore into the related metal are:
(i) First, the concentrated ore is converted into its oxide by the process of roasting.
(ii) Once the metal oxide is obtained, it is reduced to metal by heating it with coke (carbon).
(iii) The metal obtained by the reduction processes contains a lot of impurities and needs purification.
The method that is most commonly used for purifying metals is electrolytic refining.
Give reasons for the following observations:
(a) The element carbon forms a very large number of compounds.
(b) Air holes of a gas burner have to be adjusted when the heated vessels get blackened by the
flame.
(c) Use of synthetic detergents causes pollution of water.
Solution:
(a) Carbon forms a large number of compounds. Two properties of carbon that help it to form so many
compounds are:
1. Catenation (the ability of carbon to combine with other atoms of carbon)

2. It forms strong covalent bonds with various elements like oxygen, nitrogen, chlorine, bromine, etc.
(b) Blackening (deposition of unburnt carbon particles) of the cooking vessels shows that incomplete
combustion of the gas is taking place. As complete combustion is not taking place, the maximum amount of
energy that can be obtained from the fuel cannot be obtained, i.e., gas is being wasted. Limited supply of air
results in the incomplete combustion of saturated hydrocarbons. Hence, the air holes of a gas burner have to
be adjusted so that a sufficiently oxygen-rich mixture is burnt and a clean blue flame is obtained.
(c) Synthetic detergents are non-biodegradable in nature and cannot be decomposed by micro-organisms.
Therefore, they remain as they are for a long time in nature, thereby causing water pollution. Hence, the use
of synthetic detergents causes pollution of water.
What is hypermetropia? State the two causes of hypermetropia. With the help of ray diagrams,
show:
(i) the eye-defect hypermetropia (ii) correction of hypermetropia by using a lens
Solution:
Hypermetropia: It is a defect of vision in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly, but has no
problems in seeing distant objects.
Hypermetropia is caused due to:
i. Reduction in the curvature of the lens

ii. Decrease in the size of the eyeball
(i)
(ii)
Two resistors, with resistances 5 Ω and 15 Ω are to be connected to a battery of emf 9 V so as to

obtain:
(i) minimum current
(ii) maximum current
(a) Show with the help of a diagram how you would connect the resistances in each case.
(b) Calculate the strength of the total current in the circuit in each of the two cases.
Solution:
(a) (i) For minimum current flow
In order to obtain the minimum current flowing through the circuit, the resistors must be connected in series
with each other.
(ii) For maximum current flow
In order to obtain the maximum current flowing through the circuit, the resistors must be connected in
parallel with each other.
(b) (i) For minimum current flow

Two resistors of resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series as:
The equivalent resistance of the circuit is given as:
R = R1 + R2 = 5 + 15 = 20 Ω
According to Ohm’s law:
V = IR
Where,
V = emf of the battery = 9 V
I = Total current flowing through the circuit
(ii) For maximum current flow
Two resistors of resistances R1 and R2 are connected in parallel as:
The equivalent resistance of the circuit is given as:
According to Ohm’s law:
V = IR
Where,
V = emf of the battery = 9 V
I = Total current flowing through the circuit
(a) Which two criteria did Mendeleev use to classify the elements in his periodic table?
(b) State Mendeleev’s periodic law.
(c) Why could no fixed position be given to hydrogen in Mendeleev’s periodic table?
(d) How and why does the atomic size vary as you go:
(i) from left to right along a period?
(ii) down a group?
OR
(a) Why did Mendeleev have gaps in his periodic table?
(b) State any three limitations of Mendeleev’s classification.
(c) How does electronic configurations of atoms change in a period with increase in atomic
number?
Solution:
(a) The two criteria used by Mendeleev to classify the elements in his periodic table are:
i. Atomic mass: elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic masses.
ii. The formulae of the hydrides and the oxides formed by the various elements.
(b) Mendeleev’s Periodic Law states that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic
masses. This means that if elements are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic masses, then their
properties will get repeated after regular intervals.
(c) Mendeleev positioned hydrogen in the first column above the alkali metals. He did so because hydrogen
and alkali metals have similar properties. For example, hydrogen reacts with halogens, oxygen, and sulphur to
form compounds whose formulae are similar to those of alkali metals.
However, hydrogen also resembles halogens in many ways. Like halogens, hydrogen is a gas, and exists as a
diatomic molecule (H2). It forms covalent compounds like halogens and unlike alkali metals. Hence, it can also
be placed above the halogen group.
Therefore, Mendeleev was not able to explain the positioning of hydrogen. In other words, the position of
hydrogen in Mendeleev’s periodic table was not justified. This was one of the limitations of Mendeleev’s
periodic table.
(d) (i) As we move across the periodic table from left to right in a period, atomic size decreases as effective
nuclear charge increases.
(ii) As we move down a group in the periodic table, atomic size increases as new shells are being added.
OR
(a) Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table. He had predicted that some elements were yet to be
discovered. He left these gaps deliberately so that these undiscovered elements could get a place in his
periodic table when they would be discovered in the future. Hence, he left some gaps in his Periodic Table.
(b) Three limitations of Mendeleev’s classification are as follows:
(i) The position of hydrogen was not justified in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
(ii) Although Mendeleev arranged the elements in the increasing order of their atomic masses, there were
instances where he placed an element with a slightly higher atomic mass before an element with a slightly
lower atomic mass. For example, cobalt, whose atomic mass is 58.9, was placed before nickel whose atomic
mass is 58.7.
(iii) The discovery of isotopes revealed another limitation of Mendeleev’s periodic table. Atoms of the same
elements having different number of neutrons are called isotopes. For example, the isotopes of chlorine are
Cl-35 and Cl-37. They have the same chemical properties, but different atomic masses. Since Mendeleev’s
periodic table was based on the atomic masses of elements, isotopes would be placed in different columns,
despite the fact that they represent the same element.
(c) The atomic numbers of elements increase by one on moving from left to right in the periodic table.
Therefore, the number of electrons also increases by one.
Hence, on moving across the periodic table from left to right, the valence electrons will increase by one, while
the valence shell remains the same.
(a) What is a magnetic field? How can the direction of magnetic field lines at a placed by
determined?
(b) State the rule for the direction of the magnetic field produced around a current carrying
conductor. Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines due to a current carrying conductor. Draw a
sketch of the pattern of filed lines due to a current flowing through a straight conductor.
OR
(a) What is a solenoid? Draw a sketch of the pattern of field lines of the magnetic field through and
around a current carrying solenoid.
(b) Consider a circular loop of a wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass through
the loop clockwise. Apply the right hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic field inside
and outside the loop.
Solution:
(a) Magnetic field is the region around a magnet in which a magnetic material experiences a force because of
that magnet.
The direction of magnetic field lines at a place can be determined by placing a magnetic compass in the field.
The direction along which the magnetic needle of the compass aligns itself gives the direction of the magnetic
field lines.
(b) The direction of the magnetic field produced around a current-carrying conductor is determined by the
right-hand thumb rule. According to this rule:
OR
(a) Solenoid: A solenoid is a coil of several circular turns of insulated conducting wire, wrapped closely in the
shape of a cylinder.
(b) The direction of the magnetic field inside the loop will be in the downward direction, i.e., from the top of
the table towards its bottom.
The direction of the magnetic field outside the loop will be in the upward direction, i.e., from the bottom of the
table towards its top.
[The direction of the magnetic field produced around a current-carrying conductor is determined by the right-
direction of the field lines of the magnetic field due to the conductor.]
Section B
What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?
Solution:
Xylem is the water-conducting tissue of plants. If the xylem of a plant is removed, then the conduction of
water will not take place. As a result, the plant will die.
Define ‘chemotropism.’
Solution:
Chemotropismis the growth movement in plants in response to chemical stimulus. For example, the growth of
pollen tube through stigma and style, towards the ovule in the ovary, is an example of positive chemotropism.
What are the two main components of our environment?
Solution:
Biotic and abiotic factors are the two main components of our environment.
What is water harvesting? Mention any two water harvesting structures.
Solution:
Rainwater harvesting is the method of collecting rainwater for future use. Harvesting of rainwater is essential
for ensuring the availability of usable water. The underlying concept is to make rainwater percolate below the
ground, so that the level of groundwater gets replenished.
Khadins and Nadis are two water harvesting structures that are prominent in Rajasthan. Small pits, lakes,
earthen dams, sand and limestone reservoirs, and rooftop water collecting units are some of the structures
that are used for water harvesting.
List any four measures for conserving forests.
Solution:
Four measures for conserving forests
(i) People should show their participation in saving the forests by protesting against the cutting of trees. The
Chipko Andolan was one such proactive movement aimed at protecting forests.
(b) Planting of trees should be promoted. The rate of afforestation must be more than that of deforestation.
(c) Some people cut precious trees such as Chandan to earn money. The government should take legal steps
to catch these wood smugglers.
(d) The inhabitants of forests must not be bothered by forest officials. Doing otherwise would result in clashes
between the tribal people and the government officials, thereby enhancing naxal activities in the forests.
What are ‘nastic’ and ‘curvature’ movements? Give one example of each.
Solution:
Nastic movements are non-directional movements that show response towards stimuli such as light,
temperature, humidity, etc. The direction of nastic movements is independent of the direction of stimulus.
Opening and closing of flowers is an example of photonastic response.
Curvature movements involve curving or bending of a plant in response to any stimuli. The curving of the
stem tip towards light, due to the hormone auxin, is an example of curvature movement.
(a) Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy.
(b) Choose the renewable sources of energy from the following list:
Coal, biogas, sun, natural gas
Solution:
(a)
Renewable sources of energy Non-renewable sources of energy
Renewable sources of energy are Non-renewable sources of energy are

the sources of energy that are the sources of energy that are
replenished at a rate faster than consumed at a rate faster than the
the rate at which they are rate at which they are
consumed. replenished.
Renewable sources of energy are Non-renewable sources of energy are

known as inexhaustible sources of known as exhaustible sources of
energy as they can be easily energy as they get easily exhausted
regenerated at a constant rate. and the resources of this type are
limited in nature.
Examples of renewable sources of Examples of non-renewable resources

energy include sunlight, wind, tides, of energy are fossil fuels, which
and geothermal energy. include coal, petroleum, and natural
gas.
(b) Sun and biogas are the renewable sources of energy among coal, biogas, sun and natural gas.
What is biogas? Why is biogas considered an ideal fuel for domestic use?
Solution:
The gas made from the anaerobic digestion of agricultural and animal wastes is called biogas. When the
biomass (agricultural and animal wastes) is decomposed in the absence of oxygen, it releases biogas.
Biogas is considered as an ideal fuel because it:
(i) Has a high calorific value
(ii) Produces no smoke on burning
(iii) Burns smoothly without any explosion
(iv) Leaves no residue on combustion
List any three differences between pollination and fertilization.
Solution:
Pollination Fertilisation
Pollination is the process of transfer of pollens Fertilisation is the process of

from the anther of one flower to the stigma of the fusion of the male and female
same flower or another flower. gametes.
Before pollination, the chromosome number is After fertilisation, the

reduced to half as a result of meiotic division. chromosome number is
doubled.
Pollination occurs only in plants. Fertilisation occurs in both

plants and animals.
Explain analogous organs and homologous organs. Identify the analogous and homologous organs
amongst the following:
Wings of an insect, wings of a bat, forelimbs of frog, forelimbs of a human.
Solution:
Analogous organs: These are organs that have different origins, but perform similar functions.
Homologous organs: These are organs that are similar in origin (or are embryologically similar), but
perform different functions.
The wings of an insect and those of a bat are examples of analogous organs.
The forelimbs of frog and those of a human are examples of homologous organs.
(a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label on it.
Oesophagus, Gallbladder, Liver and Pancreas.
(b) Explain the statement, ‘Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion’
OR
(a) Draw a diagram of excretory system in human beings and label on it:
Aorta, vena cava, urinary bladder, urethra.
(b) List two vital functions of the kidney
Solution:
(a)
Human alimentary canal

(b) Bile does not contain any enzyme, but it plays an important role in digestion as it performs the following
functions:
1. The bile salts break down large fat globules into smaller globules so that the pancreatic enzymes can
easily act on them. This is referred to as emulsification of fats.
2. The food entering the small intestine is acidic and it has to be made alkaline so that the pancreatic
enzymes can act on it. This function is performed by bile juice.
OR
(a)
Human excretory system
[Aorta and vena cava are components of the circulatory system.]
(b) The two vital functions of kidney are:
1. It filters the wastes out of the blood and forms urine.
2. It also maintains the water balance of the body.
3.
Science Prac. 2009 Set A Close

Subjective Test
5.
6. 1. Attempt all questions.
7.
8. 2. There are 30 multiple choice questions in total. Only one of the options in every question is
correct.
9.
10. 3. The question paper consists of two sections – Section A and Section B. Each of the 20
questions in Section A carries half mark and each of the 10 questions in Section B carries one mark.
11.
12. 4. 15 minutes additional time will be given to you to read the questions.
13.
14. Section A
15. Question 1 ( 0.5 marks)
16. The correct procedure for preparing a colloidal solution of egg albumin in water is:
17. (1) to break the egg shell, take only the white portion and to add it to water with constant stirring.
18. (2) to break the egg shell, take only the yellow portion and to add it to boiling water with constant
stirring.
19. (3) to boil the egg first, to break the egg shell, to add the white portion to ice cold water and to mix.
20. (4) to boil the egg first, to break the egg shell, to add the yellow portion to water and to mix.
21. Solution:
22. Answer: (1)
23. A colloidal solution of egg albumin in water can be prepared by breaking the egg shell and then taking
only the white portion. Then, to the white portion, slightly warm water should be added, with constant
stirring, to form the colloidal solution.
25. Four students (A), (B), (C) and (D) independently observed the evaporation of water under different
conditions, and recorded the temperature of water at regular intervals as shown below.
Placing of experimental set up Temperature recording for 15

Student
in/under minutes
(A) sun increased gradually
(B) open air decreased gradually
initially increased, then became

(C) a fan
constant
initially increased, then gradually

(D) a corner of the room
decreased
26. The correct recording of observations is that of the student:

27. (1) (A)
28. (2) (B)
29. (3) (C)
30. (4) (D)
31. Solution:
32. Answer: (1)
33. When water is kept in the sun, it absorbs heat energy from sun’s rays. As a result, its temperature
increases.
35. A student takes a mixture of sand and ammonium chloride in china dish and heats it under a funnel
fitted with a plug over a flame. He would observe that:
36. (1) solid sand gets deposited on the lower cooler parts of the funnel while solid ammonium chloride
remains in the china dish.
37. (2) sand and ammonium chloride get deposited on hotter parts of the funnel.
38. (3) ammonium chloride gets deposited on the cooler parts of the funnel and sand remains in the china
dish.
39. (4) sand collects on cooler parts of the funnel while ammonium chloride melts in the china dish.
40. Solution:
41. Answer: (3)
42. Sand is a non-sublimable solid and ammonium chloride is a sublimable solid. Being a sublimable solid,
ammonium chloride changes directly from the solid to the gaseous state on heating, and gets
deposited on the cooler parts of the funnel.
43. On the other hand, sand remains in the china dish.
45. A student takes some water in a beaker and heats it over a flame for determining its boiling point. He
keeps on taking its temperature readings. He would observe that the temperature of water:
46. (1) keeps on increasing regularly
47. (2) keeps on increasing irregularly
48. (3) first increases slowly, then decreases rapidly and eventually becomes constant
49. (4) first increases gradually and then becomes constant
50. Solution:
51. Answer: (4)
52. The boiling point of water is 100°C. Hence, the temperature of water cannot go beyond this under
normal circumstances. Therefore, the temperature of water in a beaker will first increase gradually till
it reaches 100°C. Then, it will remain constant at 100°C.
54. While performing an experiment on verifying the laws of reflection of sound, a student is to choose
between (i) a narrow or a wide tube and (ii) a strong or a faint source of sound.
55. The observed experimental difference, between the values of angle of incidence and angle of
reflection, is likely to be minimum when he chooses a:
56. (1) narrow tube and a faint source
57. (2) wide tube and a faint source
58. (3) narrow tube and a strong source
59. (4) wide tube and a strong source
60. Solution:
61. Answer: (3)
62. A narrow tube would provide less chances of multiple reflection of a sound from the inner walls of the
tube. The amplitude of the sound will not vanish after reflecting from the walls of the tube, and a
proper reflection will take place from its walls if the strength of the incident sound is strong. Hence, if
a narrow tube and a strong source are used, then the observed experimental difference between the
values of the angles of incidence and reflection will be the minimum.
64. The magnitude of zero error of the spring balance and least count of the measuring cylinder, shown
here, are, respectively:
65.
66. (1) 2.5 g and 0.1 mL
67. (2) 5.0 g and 0.1 mL
68. (3) 2.5 g and 0.2 mL
69. (4) 5.0 g and 0.2 mL
70. Solution:
71. Answer: (4)
72. For the spring balance:
73. Each small division =
74.
75. It can be observed that the zero error of the spring balance is equal to two small divisions.
76. Two small divisions = 2 × 2.5 g = 5.0 g
77. Therefore, the zero error of the spring balance is 5.0 g.
78. For the measuring cylinder:
79. The least count of the measuring cylinder is the least measurement that can be measured by the
device.
80. Each small division =
81.
82. Therefore, the least count of the measuring cylinder is 0.2 mL.
84. For plotting temperature-time graph for a hot body, as it cools to room temperature, a student is to
choose one each from each of the following pairs.
85. A: Calorimeter
86. (i) blackened from outside
87. (ii) polished from outside
88. B: Base for keeping the calorimeter
89. (i) insulated
90. (ii) metallic
91. In order to get the correct graph he should prefer to choose:
92. (1) A (i), B (ii)
93. (2) A (ii), B (ii)
94. (3) A (i), B (i)
95. (4) A (ii), B (i)
96. Solution:
97. Answer: (4)
98. For plotting the temperature-time graph for a hot body, as it cools to room temperature, the body
should not absorb heat from outside. The polished surface of a calorimeter ensures that no heat
enters from the outside.
99. The base for keeping the calorimeter should be insulated to prevent heat transfer from the floor.
101. A student sets up a slinky on a smooth table top in the manner shown here.
102.
103. How can he produce transverse waves in the slinky by moving its free end Q?
104. (1) at an angle of 45° with the table top
105. (2) backward and forward along the length of the slinky
106. (3) up and down
107. (4) left and right
108. Solution:
109. Answer: (4)
110. When the slinky is moved left and right, transverse waves are produced in it, as shown in the
following figure:
111.
113. A student carefully observes the parts labelled A and B in the given diagram and classifies the
plant correctly as:
114.
115. (1) a bryophyte
116. (2) a pteridophyte
117. (3) a gymnosperm
118. (4) an angiosperm
119. Solution:
120. Answer: (4)
121. In the given figure, label A represents a flower and label B represents a flowering bud. Hence,
the plant belongs to the division angiosperm. Angiosperms are flowering plants in which seeds are
enclosed inside fruits.
123. Four students (A − D), independently observed parenchyma under the microscope and
labelled the parts, marked I, II, III, IV, V, as per the record given below.
124.
Student I II III IV V
A Cell membrane Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

B Cytoplasm Cell membrane Vacuole Cell wall Nucleus
Cell
C Vacuole Cell wall Nucleus Cytoplasm
membrane
D Cell wall Inter cellular space Nucleus Cytoplasm Vacuole
125. The labelling has been done correctly by student:

126. (1) A
127. (2) B
128. (3) C
129. (4) D
130. Solution:
131. Answer: (4)
132. The labelling in the given diagram is not clear. Labels IV and V both seem to represent
vacuole. The labelling of the cell wall is also not clear. However, the labelling done by student D seems
to be the most appropriate.
134. A specimen of a fish was given to students to identify the externally visible chordate feature in
it. The students would look for:
135. (1) Operculum
136. (2) Notochord
137. (3) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
138. (4) Post anal tail
139. Solution:
140. Answer: (4)
141. The presence of notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord and post anal tail are the characteristic
features of all chordates. Among these, post anal tail is the only externally visible chordate feature in
the specimen of a fish.
143. A student adds a few drops of the universal indicator to a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid in
the way shown here. He would observe that the colour of the solution changes from colourless to:
144.
145. (1) red
146. (2) yellow
147. (3) violet
148. (4) green
149. Solution:
150. Answer: (1)
151. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid. With strong acids, the universal indicator gives red colour.
Thus, the colour of the hydrochloric acid solution will change from colourless to red.
153. A student takes some zinc granules in a test tube and adds dilute hydrochloric acid to it. He
would observe that the colour of the zinc granules changes to:
154. (1) white
155. (2) black
156. (3) brown
157. (4) yellow
158. Solution:
159. Answer: (1)
160. Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce zinc chloride and hydrogen gas. Therefore, there
will be no effect on the colour of the zinc granules.
162. The ‘set up’, used in the laboratory, to collect sulphur dioxide, is that shown in figure:
163.
164. (1) I
165. (2) II
166. (3) III
167. (4) IV
168. Solution:
169. Answer: (1)
170. SO2 is heavier than air and as a result, is collected by the upward displacement of air in a jar.
172. A student determines the focal length of a device X, by focussing the image of a far off object
on the screen positioned as shown in the figure below.
173.
174. The device X is a:
175. (1) Convex lens
176. (2) Concave lens
177. (3) Convex mirror
178. (4) Concave mirror
179. Solution:
180. Answer: (4)
181. It can be observed that the parallel rays of light falling on device X reflect and converge at a
point on the screen. Since concave mirrors tend to focus all the incoming parallel rays after reflection,
device X is a concave mirror.
183. A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab.
184.
185. For measuring the angle of incidence, he must position the protractor in the manner shown in
figure:
186. (1) A
187. (2) B
188. (3) C
189. (4) D
190. Solution:
191. Answer: (2)
192. The protractor must be placed along the normal to the base so that its zero degree marking
line (base) coincides with the normal, and its readings lie on the side of the incident ray, as shown
below.
193.
195. In an experiment on finding the equivalent resistance of two resistors, connected in series, a
student connects the terminals of the voltmeter, to:
196. (1) one terminal of each of the two resistors and these terminals are not interconnected.
197. (2) one terminal of each of the two resistors and these terminals are also interconnected.
198. (3) both the terminals of each of the two resistors.
199. (4) both the terminals of one resistor and one terminal of the other resistor.
200. Solution:
201. Answer: (1)
202. To find the equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in series, the student should
connect the terminals of the voltmeter across the combination, as shown in the given figure:
203.
204. Hence, the terminals connected with the voltmeter are not interconnected.
206. In the experiment to show that CO2 is given out during respiration, the student uses:
207. (1) Lime water
208. (2) Alcohol
209. (3) KOH solution
210. (4) Iodine solution
211. Solution:
212. Answer: (1)
213. CO2 turns limewater milky. So, the presence of CO2 can be detected by using limewater.
215. Raisins are soaked in water for determining the percentage of water absorbed by raisins. The
formula, used by a student, for calculating the percentage of water absorbed, is:
216. (1)
217. (2)
218. (3)
219. (4)
220. Solution:
221. Answer: (2)
223. The steps, necessary for setting up the experiment, “To demonstrate that light is necessary
for photosynthesis” are not given here in proper sequence.
224. I. Keep the potted plant in sunlight for 3 to 4 hours.
225. II. Keep the potted plant in darkness for about 48 hours.
226. III. Cover a leaf of the plant with a strip of black paper.
227. IV. Pluck the leaf and test it for starch.
228. The correct sequence of steps is:
229. (1) I, III, IV, II
230. (2) I, IV, III, II
231. (3) II, IV, III, I
232. (4) II, III, I, IV
233. Solution:
234. Answer: (4)
235. Section B
237. Four students, (A), (B), (C) and (D) observed the colour and solubility of iron, sulphur and iron
sulphide in carbon disulphide. The tick mark (||) represents ‘soluble’, and cross mark (&mnCross;)
represents ‘insoluble’, in carbon disulphide. Their observations are tabulated below.
Student Colour Solubility in carbon disulphide
Fe S FeS Fe S FeS
(A) Yellow Silvery Greyish (||) (&mnCross;) (||)

silver
(B) Silvery Orange Reddish (&mnCross;) (||) (||)

brown
(C) Grey Yellow Greyish (&mnCross;) (||) (&mnCross;)

black
(D) Silvery White Silvery (||) (&mnCross;) (&mnCross;)

white
238. The student, who correctly reported the observations, is student:
239. (1) (A)
240. (2) (B)
241. (3) (C)
242. (4) (D)
243. Solution:
244. Answer: (3)
245. Fe is grey in colour, S is yellow in colour, and FeS is greyish black. Among these, only sulphur
is soluble in carbon disulphide (CS2).
247. Four students A, B, C and D while performing an experiment on establishing the relation
between the loss of weight of a small solid when fully immersed in tap water, and the weight of water
displaced by it, used for different shapes of overflow cans containing water as shown.
248.
249. The arrangement, that would give correct results, is that of student:
250. (1) (A)
251. (2) (B)
252. (3) (C)
253. (4) (D)
254. Solution:
255. Answer: (3)
256. The correct result will be given by the beaker in which the water column is the closest to the
outlet or opening of the overflow can. This is because as soon as the solid object is dropped into the
overflow can, all the displaced water (equal to the volume of the object) would flow out from the
outlet.
257. This will not be the case with the cans in which the water columns are away from the outlet.
When the object is dropped in such a can, the total quantity/amount of water displaced by the object
will not flow out from the opening. It is clear from the figure that student C has the correct
arrangement for the experiment.
259. Which one of the following is the correct step, in the procedure for making a temporary slide
of human cheek cells?
260. (1) Place the cheek cell scrapings in a watch glass containing water.
261. (2) Place cheek cell scrapings in the centre of a clean slide.
262. (3) Dip the toothpick, containing cheek cell scrapings, in the stain and then transfer to a clean
slide.
263. (4) Obtain cheek cells, directly on the slide, using its edge to scrape the inside of the cheek.
264. Solution:
265. Answer: (2)
266. Cheek cells are obtained by scraping the inside of cheek and then placing the scrapings at the
centre of a clean slide. Cheek cells are polygonal cells without a cell wall.
268. While observing the occurrence of plasmolysis in onion peel cells, four students (W−Z)
respectively placed the peels in four different liquids (A−D): (A): Water, (B): Sugar solution, (C):
Alcohol and (D): Safranin
269. The correct choice of liquid is that of student:
270. (1) W
271. (2) X
272. (3) Y
273. (4) Z
274. Solution:
275. Answer: (2)
276. Solution: Sugar solution is a hypertonic solution. If onion peel cells are placed in sugar
solution, more water leaves the cell resulting in plasmolysis.
278. A student takes Cu, Al, Fe and Zn strips, separately in four test tubes labelled as I, II, III and
IV respectively. He adds 10 mL of freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution to each test tube and
observes the colour of the metal residue in each case.
279.
280. He would observe a black residue in the test tubes:
281. (1) (I) and (II)
282. (2) (I) and (III)
283. (3) (II) and (III)
284. (4) (II) and (IV)
285. Solution:
286. Answer: (4)
287. Al and Zn are more reactive than Fe. So, they can displace Fe from ferrous sulphate solution.
As a result, Fe gets precipitated as a black solid. Hence, the student will observe a black residue in
test tubes II and IV.
289. Four students observed the colour and odour of acetic acid and its reaction with sodium
hydrogen carbonate. They tabulated their observations as given below.
Colour of acetic Odour of acetic Action with sodium hydrogen

Student
acid acid carbonate
A blue fruity gas evolves without bubbles
B colourless smell of vinegar effervescence
C light green odourless gas evolves without bubbles
D light brown rotten egg effervescence
290. The correct set of observation is that of student:

291. (1) A
292. (2) B
293. (3) C
294. (4) D
295. Solution:
296. Answer: (2)
297. Acetic acid is colourless and has a strong smell like vinegar. When it reacts with sodium
hydrogen carbonate, effervescence occurs. This is due to the formation of carbon dioxide gas.
298.
300. The following ‘precautions’ were listed by a student in the experiment on study of ‘Dependence
of current on potential difference’.
301. (A) Use copper wires as thin as possible for making connections.
302. (B) All the connections should be kept tight.
303. (C) The positive and negative terminals of the voltmeter and the ammeter should be correctly
connected.
304. (D) The ‘zero error’ in the ammeter and the voltmeter should be noted and taken into
consideration while recording the measurements.
305. (E) The ‘key’ in the circuit, once plugged in, should not be taken out till all the observations
have been completed.
306. The ‘precautions’ that need to be corrected and revised are:
307. (1) (A), (C) and (E)
308. (2) (C) and (E)
309. (3) (B) and (E)
310. (4) (A) and (E)
311. Solution:
312. Answer: (4)
313. The precautions (A) and (E) need to be corrected and revised.
314. For precaution (A):
315. As resistance is inversely proportional to the area of cross-section of a wire, using thin copper
wires for circuit connections would increase their equivalent resistance. This would cause an unwanted
potential drop across the wires. Hence, precaution (A) needs to be corrected and revised by the
student.
316. For precaution (E):
317. Once plugged in, the ‘key’ in the circuit must be plugged out after noting each observation.
This is because it takes some time for noting down an observation. For noting another observation,
the key is plugged in once again. Hence, precaution (E) needs to be corrected and revised by the
student.
319. For three circuits, shown here
320.
321. the same two resistors R1 and R2 have been connected in parallel in all the circuits but the
voltmeter and the ammeter have been connected in three different positions. The relation between the
three voltmeter and ammeter reading would be:
322. (1) V1 = V2 = V3 and I1 = I2 = I3
323. (2) V1≠ V2≠ V3 and I1 = I2 = I3
324. (3) V1 = V2 = V3 and I1≠ I2≠ I3
325. (4) V1≠ V2≠ V3 and I1≠ I2≠ I3
326. Solution:
327. Answer: (3)
328. In all the given figures, the voltmeters are connected in parallel with resistors R1 and R2.
Hence, the readings of all the three voltmeters would be the same, i.e., V1 = V2 = V3.
329. It is given that I1 is the current flowing through resistor R2; I2 is the current flowing through R1
and I3 is the current flowing through the external circuit. Hence, I1 ≠ I2 for R1 ≠ R2, and I3 = I1 + I2.
Hence, we can write I1 ≠ I2 ≠ I3.
331. Four stages of binary fission in amoeba are shown below. The stage at which nuclear fission
and cytokineses are observed is, stage
332.
333. (1) I
334. (2) II
335. (3) III
336. (4) IV
337. Solution:
338. Answer: (2)
339. Nuclear fission is the process in which the nucleus divides to form two smaller nuclei, whereas
cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm to form two daughter cells. Both these processes can be
observed in stage II.
341. Four students, A, B, C and D, make the records given below, for the parts marked X and Y in
this diagram.
342.
Student X Y
A Stoma Guard cell
B Guard cell Stoma
C Epidermal cell Stoma
D Stoma Epidermal cell
343. The correct record, out of these, is that of student:

344. (1) A
345. (2) B
346. (3) C
347. (4) D
348. Solution:
349. Answer: (1)
350. In the given diagram, label X is the stoma, while label Y is the guard cell.
351. Stoma is the stomatal opening which is surrounded by two distinct epidermal cells known as
the guard cells.
352.
Science Prac. 2009 Set C Close

Subjective Test
354. 1. Attempt all questions.
355.
356. 2. There are 30 multiple choice questions in total. Only one of the options in every
question is correct.
357.
358. 3. The question paper consists of two sections – Section A and Section B. Each of the
20 questions in Section A carries half mark and each of the 10 questions in Section B carries one
mark.
359.
360. 4. 15 minutes additional time will be given to you to read the questions.
361.
362. 5. The answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on SIDE-2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only. In no case, pencil is to be used. Read “General Instructions for Candidates”
and “Example, How to write and darken circle on SIDE. – 2” as given on SIDE – 1 carefully.
363.
364. 6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page and
writing particulars and marking responses on SIDE-2 of the Answer Sheet.
365.
366. 7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with him/her.
367.
368. 8. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on SIDE-2
of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidates
should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and
the Answer Sheet.
369.
370. 9. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any
stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll Number anywhere else except in the
specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
371.
372. 10. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
373. Section A
375. While doing an experiment on plotting the temperature vs. time graph of hot water
as it cools, we can get a good graph
376. (1) only by noting the temperature of hot water every 30 seconds throughout.
377. (2) only by noting the temperature of hot water every 1 minute throughout.
378. (3) by noting the temperature of hot water every 1 minute to start with and every 2
minutes later on.
379. (4) by noting the temperature of hot water every 2 minutes to start with and every 1
minute later on.
380. Solution:
381. Answer: (1)
382. We can get a good graph when readings are taken after short intervals of time. Therefore, we
can get a good graph by noting the temperature of hot water every 30 seconds throughout.
384. In an experiment on determining the velocity of a pulse propagating through a
stretched string, the stop-watch should be started and stopped at instants corresponding to
the ones shown in
385.
386. (1) Figure 1 and Figure 2
390. Solution:
391. Answer: (2)
392. In figure 1, the disturbance is just started in the string, and in figure 3, it finally reaches the
rigid support. Therefore, to measure the velocity of the propagation of the pulse, the stop watch
should be started and stopped at the instants corresponding to figures 1 and 3 respectively.
394.
395. The diagrams given above, show tissues of some plants and/or animals. The
diagrams showing animal tissues are
396. (1) I and III
397. (2) II and III
398. (3) I and IV
399. (4) II and IV
400. Solution:
401. Answer: (4)
402. Diagram II shows the muscle tissue and diagramIV shows the neural tissue.
403. DiagramsI and III have cells with a cell wall and a large-sized vacuole. Hence, these are plant
tissues.
405. The animal whose figure is given below is included in its phylum because of the part
labelled as
406.
407. (1) I
408. (2) II
409. (3) III
410. (4) IV
411. Solution:
412. Answer: (3)
413. The animal shown in the figure is an earthworm. The earthworm belongs to phylum Annelida
because of the character III labelled in the figure. Label III represents metameric segmentation,
which is a characteristic feature of phylum Annelida.
415. A student mixed some acetic acid with water. He would have observed the solution
formed as
416. (1) Green and transparent
417. (2) Pink and opaque
418. (3) Yellow and transparent
419. (4) Colourless and transparent
420. Solution:
421. Answer: (4)
422. Both acetic acid and water are colourless and transparent liquids. Therefore, when these two
liquids are mixed, the resultant mixture is colourless and transparent.
424. While performing an experiment on determining the focal length of a convex lens a
student obtains a sharp inverted image of the laboratory window grills on the screen and
measures the distance d between the screen and the lens. She then repeats the experiment
and takes a distant tree as the object in the second case. In order to get a sharp image on
the screen, she will now need to move the screen
425. (1) slightly nearer to the lens
426. (2) slightly farther away from the lens
427. (3) very close to the lens
428. (4) very far away from the lens
429. Solution:
430. Answer: (1)
431. A convex lens always forms the images of nearer objects beyond its focus. Therefore, the
student will obtain the image of the window grills beyond the focus of the lens, i.e., away from the
lens. The rays of light coming from the distant tree converge at the focus of the lens. Hence, in order
to get the image of the distant object, the student will have to move the screen slightly nearer to the
lens.
433. Out of the two circuits shown here, the two resistors R1 and R2 have been correctly
connected in series in
434.
435. (1) circuit A only
436. (2) circuit B only
437. (3) both circuits A and B
438. (4) neither of the two circuits
439. Solution:
440. Answer: (3)
441. In both the circuits, the same amount of current is flowing through the two resistors.
Therefore, the resistors in both the circuits are connected in series.
443. In an experiment on studying the dependence of the current (I), flowing through a
given resistor on the potential difference (V) applied across it, a student is to change the
value of the current. For doing this, he can change the
444. (1) number of cells used or by setting the battery eliminator
445. (2) resistor itself
446. (3) ammeter used in the circuit
447. (4) voltmeter used in the circuit
448. Solution:
449. Answer: (1)
450. For a given resistor, the current flowing through the circuit is directly proportional to the
potential difference. Therefore, in order to change the current flowing through the circuit, the student
can change the number of cells used.
452. A student by mistake mixed sulphur powder with iron filings. The following
techniques were suggested to him to separate the sulphur from the mixture, out of which
he has to choose one:
453. A. dissolving in carbon disulphide, filtration, evaporation
454. B. dissolving in water at room temperature and filtration
455. C. dissolving in hot water, filtration and evaporation
456. D. dissolving in ice cold water and filtration
457. The correct technique is
458. (1) A
459. (2) B
460. (3) C
461. (4) D
462. Solution:
463. Answer: (1)
464. Sulphur dissolves in carbon disulphide, but iron does not. Therefore, after dissolving the
sulphur powder-iron filings mixture in carbon disulphide, the iron filings remain undissolved.
Thereafter, by the method of filtration, the iron filings can be obtained. After filtration, the dissolved
sulphur can be re-obtained by evaporating the remaining mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide.
466. Four students did their experiment on studying the cooling caused by evaporation of
alcohol and recorded the following as their observations:
467. A. After dipping in alcohol, the cotton plug absorbs alcohol and becomes pale blue.
468. B. After attaching the cotton plug dipped in alcohol to the bulb of the thermometer
and exposing the thermometer to air, the temperature starts falling
469. C. After evaporation is complete, temperature starts increasing
470. D. Tiny bubbles of alcohol escape from the surface of the cotton plug.
471. The correct observations are those of students
472. (1) B and D
473. (2) B and C
474. (3) A and C
475. (4) A and D
476. Solution:
477. Answer: (2)
478. During evaporation, the liquid particles absorb energy from the surroundings to regain the
energy lost. As a result of this absorption of energy, the surroundings become cooler. Therefore, when
exposed to air, the alcohol absorbed by the cotton plug starts evaporating and the temperature starts
falling. Hence, the observation made by student B is correct.
479. When evaporation is complete, there is no more absorption of energy from the surroundings.
Consequently, the temperature starts increasing. Hence, the observation made by student C is also
correct.
481. A student does the labelling, indicated below, for the apparatus used for separating
a mixture of camphor and sand
482.
483. The parts that have been incorrectly labelled are
484. (1) I, II, VII
485. (2) III, IV, V
486. (3) II, III, VI
487. (4) VII, V, I
488. Solution:
489. Answer: (3)
490. Label II should be cotton plug, label III should be inverted funnel and label VI should be
tripod stand.
492. The figure given below shows plant cells which had been placed in
493.
494. (1) an isotonic solution
495. (2) a hypertonic solution
496. (3) an isosmotic solution
497. (4) a hypotonic solution
498. Solution:
499. Answer: (2)
500. The figure shows that the cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. In a hypertonic solution, a cell
tends to lose water to the surrounding solution due to exosmosis. Consequently, the plasma
membrane shrinks and the cell is said to be plasmolysed.
502. On putting few drops of an unknown liquid on pH strip, the colour of pH strip
changed to green. The liquid taken is likely to be
503.
504. (1) water
505. (2) dilute hydrochloric acid
506. (3) lemon juice
507. (4) dilute sodium hydroxide solution
508. Solution:
509. Answer: (1)
510. The green colour of the pH strip indicates that the liquid is neither acidic nor basic; it is
neutral. Water is a neutral liquid (pH = 7). Hence, the liquid is likely to be water.
512. The following set-up is used for the preparation of sulphur dioxide gas
513.
514. For this set-up identify the only correct statement from the following:
515. (1) Tip of the delivery tube should not dip in the sulphuric acid
516. (2) Tip of the thistle funnel should not dip in the sulphuric acid
517. (3) Burner is not required
518. (4) Wire gauze is not required
519. Solution:
520. Answer: (1)
521. The tip of the delivery tube should not dip in the sulphuric acid. If it is dipped, the sulphur
dioxide produced will not pass through the delivery tube. The tip of the delivery tube should be in the
space above the sulphuric acid.
523. The chemical required in the experiment to show that carbon dioxide gas is released
during respiration, is
524. (1) Potassium bicarbonate
525. (2) Potassium dichromate
526. (3) Potassium permanganate
527. (4) Potassium hydroxide
528. Solution:
529. Answer: (4)
530. To confirm that carbon dioxide gas is released during respiration, potassium hydroxide can be
used. Carbon dioxide reacts with potassium hydroxide to produce a white precipitate of potassium
carbonate. This white precipitate confirms the presence of carbon dioxide.
531.
533. The formula used for calculating the percent water absorbed, when pre-weighed dry
raisins are placed in water for two hours, and weighed again is
534. (1)
535. (2)
536. (3)
537. (4)
538. Solution:
539. Answer: (2)
541. To prepare a good temporary mount of the petunia leaf peel showing many stomata,
the student has to get the peel from the
542. (1) tip of the leaf
543. (2) upper surface of the leaf
544. (3) lower surface of the leaf
545. (4) point of attachment of the leaf to its petiole
546. Solution:
547. Answer: (3)
548. Petunia is a dicot plant and possesses dorsiventral leaves. In dorsiventral leaves, the stomata
are more on the lower epidermis than on the upper epidermis.
550. Which of the following experimental arrangements is correct for determination of
melting point of ice?
551.
552. (1) I
553. (2) II
554. (3) III
555. (4) IV
556. Solution:
557. Answer: (2)
558. The thermometer should be kept upright, and should not be tilted. Also, the bulb should be
surrounded from all sides by the substance whose temperature has to be measured. The bulb should
not touch the surface of the container. Salt lowers the melting point of ice. Hence, the accurate
melting point of ice cannot be determined from the mixture of ice cubes and salt. Hence, the
experimental arrangement II is correct for determining the melting point of ice.
560. A student is given an iron cube of side 1 cm, a measuring cylinder of range 100 mL
and least count 1 mL and a spring balance of range 100 gwt and least count 1 gwt. He can
use these to measure
561. (1) both the mass and the volume of the given iron cube
562. (2) neither the mass nor the volume of the given iron cube
563. (3) only the mass of the given iron cube but not its volume
564. (4) only the volume of the given iron cube but not its mass
565. Solution:
566. Answer: (1)
567. Side of the iron cube, s = 1cm
568. Volume of the iron cube, s3 = 1 cm3
569. Range of the measuring cylinder = 100 mL = 100 cm 3
570. Least count of the measuring cylinder = 1 mL = 1 cm 3
571. Therefore, the least distance that can be measured by the measuring cylinder is 1 cm 3.
572. Hence the volume of the iron cube can be measured by the measuring cylinder.
573. Range of the spring balance = 100 gwt = 0.98 N
574. Least count of the spring balance = 1 gwt = 0.0098 N
575. Therefore, the least distance that can be measured by the spring balance is 0.0098 N.
576. Density of iron = 7.874 g / cm3
577. Therefore, mass of the iron cube, m = Volume × Density
578. = 7.874 g / cm3 × 1 cm3
579. = 7.874 g
580. Weight of the iron cube = m ×g = 7.874 × 10−3 × 9.8 = 0.077 N
581. Hence, the mass of the iron cube can be measured by the spring balance.
583. Three students are given three identical solids. They measure the volume of water
overflowing out of the three overflow cans as shown. When they dip these solids completely
in water the volumes of overflow water are denoted as V A, VB, and VC.
584.
585. It will be found that
586. (1) VA = VB = VC
587. (2) VA = VB ≠ VC
588. (3) VA ≠ VB = VC
589. (4) VC = VA ≠ VB
590. Solution:
591. Answer: (3)
592. Students B and C have their beakers filled to the same level. Therefore, the volumes of water
overflowing from their beakers will be the same (V B = VC).
593. Student A has his beaker filled to a level that is a little lower than the levels of water present
in the beaker belonging to students B and C. Therefore, the volume of water overflowing from his
beaker will be less than the volumes of water overflowing from the beakers belonging to students B
and C.
594. ∴
595. Section B
597. A teacher gave an impure sample of alum containing fine sand as impurity to a
student. He asked him to recover pure alum from this sample. The correct procedure to be
followed would be to
598. (1) dissolve the impure sample of alum in water, filter and evaporate the filtrate
599. (2) dissolve the impure sample of alum in alcohol and filter
600. (3) move a magnet over the impure sample of alum
601. (4) dissolve the impure sample of alum in carbon disulphide, filter and evaporate the
filtrate to dryness.
602. Solution:
603. Answer: (1)
604. The impure sample of alum should be dissolved in water, and then filtered. The filtrate should
then be evaporated to re-obtain the crystals of pure alum.
606.
607. To prepare a slide of cells like those shown above, the cells must have been obtained
by
608. (1) taking an onion peel
609. (2) scraping the uppermost inside lining of the cheek
610. (3) squashing tissue from the spinal cord of frog
611. (4) crushing the thigh muscles of a cockroach
612. Solution:
613. Answer: (2)
614. Cheek cells are polygonal cells without a cell wall, as shown in the figure. Cheek cells are
obtained by scraping the inside lining of cheek.
616. A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through rectangular glass slab for
three different values of angle of incidence (∠i), namely 30°, 45°, 60°. He produces the
incident ray and measures the perpendicular distance, l, between the produced incident ray
and the emergent ray
617.
618. He will observe that
619. (1) ‘l’ keeps on increasing with increase in angle of incidence
620. (2) ‘l’ keeps on decreasing with increase in angle of incidence
621. (3) ‘l’ remains the same with three angles of incidence
622. (4) ‘l’ is maximum for ∠i = 45° and is less than this value both for ∠i = 30° and for ∠i
= 60°
623. Solution:
624. Answer: (1)
625. The perpendicular distance between the produced incident ray and the emergent ray is known
as lateral shift. Lateral shift is given by the relation
626.
627. Where,
628. t = Thickness of the slab
629. i = Angle of incidence
630. r =Angleof reflection
631. It is evident from the relation that as the angle of incidence increases, lateral shift also
increases.
633. A student, using the same two resistors, battery, ammeter and voltmeter, sets up
two circuits, connecting the two resistors, first in series and then in parallel. If the ammeter
and voltmeter readings in the two cases, are (I1, I2) and (V1, V2) respectively, he is likely to
observe that
634.
635. (1) I1 = I2 but V1 ≠ V2
636. (2) I1 < I2 but V1 = V2
637. (3) I1 > I2 but V1 = V2
638. (4) I1 = I2 and V1 = V2
639. Solution:
640. Answer: (2)
641. It is given that I1 is the current flowing through the circuit shown in the first figure, where the
resistors are connected in series, and I2 is the current flowing through the circuit shown in the second
figure, where the resistors are connected in parallel. The supply voltage in both cases is the same.
642. ∴I1 < I2
643. In both the figures, the voltmeter measures the value of the supplied voltage. Therefore, the
reading of the voltmeter in both the cases is the same.
644. ∴V1 = V2
646. Two students, while doing their experiments on verifying the laws of reflection of
sound are provided with the following choices:
647. (i) using a narrow tube or a wide tube
648. (ii) using a faint source or a strong source of sound
649. The difference between the measured values of the angle of incidence and angle of
reflection is likely to be larger for the student using the combination of
650. (1) narrow tube and faint source
651. (2) narrow tube and strong source
652. (3) wide tube and faint source
653. (4) wide tube and strong source
654. Solution:
655. Answer: (3)
656. A wide tube will provide more chances of multiple reflection of a sound from the walls of the
tube. The amplitude of the sound will vanish after reflecting from the walls of the tube, and an
improper reflection will take place from its walls if the strength of the incident sound is faint. Hence, if
a wide tube and a faint source are used, then the observed experimental difference between the
values of the angles of incidence and reflection will be the greatest.
658.
659. I II
660. Of the two plants I and II, whose figures are given above,
661. (1) both are pteridophytes because both possess roots and leaves
662. (2) both are angiosperms because both possess roots and leaves
663. (3) II is a pteridophyte as its leaves resemble those of the fern and may bear sori
664. (4) II is an angiosperm as it bears flowers and fruits.
665. Solution:
666. Answer: (4)
667. In the given question, the plant shown in figure I belongs to the division pteridophytes as its
leaves are similar to those of a fern, and may bear sori.
668. The plant shown in figure II belongs to the division angiosperm. Angiosperms are flower-
bearing plants in which the seeds are enclosed inside fruits.
670. A student took two tubes containing 2 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid and added zinc
granules to test tube (A) and solid sodium carbonate to test tube (B) as shown below:
671.
672. The correct observation would be
673. (1) Rapid reaction in both the test tubes
674. (2) Slow reaction in (A) and rapid reaction in (B)
675. (3) Rapid reaction in (A) but a slow reaction in (B)
676. (4) No reaction in any of the test tubes
677. Solution:
678. Answer: (1)
679. The student will observe rapid reactions in both the test tubes. In test tube A, the zinc
granules will react with hydrochloric acid. Hydrogen gas will evolve as a result.
680. In test tube B, sodium carbonate will react with hydrochloric acid. Carbon dioxide gas will be
evolved as a result. The reactions in the two test tubes are as follows:
681.
683. A student took four test tubes I, II, III, and IV containing aluminium sulphate,
copper sulphate, ferrous sulphate and zinc sulphate solution respectively. He placed an iron
strip in each of them. He found a brown deposit formed in test tube
684.
685. (1) I
686. (2) II
687. (3) III
688. (4) IV
689. Solution:
690. Answer: (2)
691. Iron (Fe) is more reactive than copper (Cu). Hence, Fe can displace Cu from copper sulphate
solution to produce iron sulphate and a brown deposit of copper. On the other hand, aluminium (Al)
and zinc (Zn) are more reactive than Fe. Therefore, Fe cannot displace Al and Zn from aluminium
sulphate and zinc sulphate solutions. Hence, the student will observe a brown deposit in test tube II.
693. The two diagrams, given below, aim to show the sequence of events of the binary
fission in amoeba and budding in yeast.
694. Binary fission in Amoeba
695.
696. Budding in yeast
697.
698. The correct sequences of events in the two diagrams respectively are
699. (1) (I, II, III, IV) and (V, VI, VII)
700. (2) (IV, III, II, I) and (VII, VI, V)
701. (3) (II, III, I, IV) and (VI, V, VII)
702. (4) (III, I, II, IV) and (VI, VII, V)
703. Solution:
704. Answer: (3)
705. The sequence of the binary fission in Amoeba is as follows:
706.
707. The sequence of budding in yeast is as follows:
708.
710. A star-shaped black paper was used to cover a leaf in a destarched plant as shown
below. The plant was left in sunlight for four hours and then the leaf was plucked, black
paper, removed and tested for the presence of starch. The areas which turned blue-black
when iodine solution was added were.
711.
712. (1) I, II, III, IV
713. (2) I, III, IV
714. (3) Only II
715. (4) Only IV
716. Solution:
717. Answer: (2)
718. Blue-black colour would have appeared only on the exposed portions of the leaf. This indicates
the presence of starch in the leaf. Hence, labels I, III and IV will give positive test for starch with
iodine. The masked star-shaped area of the leaf (II) did not synthesise starch.

Subjective Test







Section A
Name the part of our eyes that helps us to focus near and distant objects in quick succession.
Solution:
The part of our eyes that helps us to focus near and distant objects in quick succession is eye lens.

The outer surface of a hollow sphere of aluminium of radius 50 cm is to be used as a mirror. What will be the
focal length of this mirror? Which type of spherical mirror will it provide?
Solution:
The focal length of the mirror will be
The outer surface of a hollow sphere of aluminium will act as a convex mirror.
What is nature of the image formed by a concave mirror if the magnification produced by the mirror is + 4?
Solution:
The nature of the image formed by a concave mirror if its magnification is +4, will be virtual, erect and larger
than the object.
A charged particle enters at right angles into a uniform magnetic field as shown. What should be the nature of
charge on the particle if it begins to move in a direction pointing vertically out of the page due to its
interaction with the magnetic field?
Solution:
The nature of charge on the particle should be positive.
On what basis is a chemical equation balanced?
Solution:
Law of conservation of mass forms the basis of balancing chemical equations. In a balanced chemical
equation, the number of atoms of each element is equal on both sides of the equation.
State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to a large number of carbon
compounds.
Solution:
The two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to large number of carbon
compounds are—
1. The ability to catenate

2. Tetravalency of carbon atom
Write any two observations in an activity which may suggest that a chemical reaction has taken place. Give an
example in support of your answer.
Solution:
A chemical change can be confirmed by any of the following observations:
 Change in temperature
 Evolution of gas
For example: Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce calcium hydroxide. During this process, a
large amount of heat is also evolved, which increases the temperature of the system. This confirms that a
chemical reaction has taken place.
Also, when calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
In this reaction, calcium carbonate breaks down to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide. Here, evolution of
the gas (carbon dioxide) confirms that a chemical reaction has taken place.
What are fossil fuels? Write two disadvantages of burning fossil fuels.
Solution:
Fossil fuels are those fuels that were formed by remains of dead animals and plants that got buried deep
inside the earth millions of years ago. Fossil fuels mainly contain hydrocarbons. Coal, petroleum and natural
gas are fossil fuels.
Disadvantages of burning fossil fuels:
1. The burning of fossil fuels produces large amounts of acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and
nitrogen dioxide. These acidic gases combine with rainwater to form acids such as sulphuric acid and
nitric acid. Acid rains have been observed in many parts of the world after the industrial revolution in
Europe.
2. Fossil fuels such as coal leave a lot of ash content after burning. This ash is mostly thrown into rivers,
leading to their pollution. Such contaminated water causes serious health problems.
3. The burning of fossil fuels produces smoke, leading to air pollution.
4. The burning of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide − a greenhouse gas which is the main cause for
global warming.
5. Fossil fuels have a limited supply on the earth. They cannot be replenished at the same rate at which
they are used.
(Any two points will serve the purpose)
Two coils A and B of insulated wires are kept close to each other. Coil A is connected to a galvanometer while
coil B is connected to a battery through a key. What would happen if
(i) a current is passed through coil B by plugging the key, and
(ii) the current is stopped by removing the plug from the key?
Explain your answer mentioning the name of the phenomena involved.
Solution:
(i) When current is made to pass through coil B, by plugging the key in, for that instant, the galvanometer
connected to coil A shows a deflection, i.e., current passes through coil A as well.
(ii) When current is stopped through coil B by taking the plug of the key out, for that instant, the
galvanometer connected to coil A again shows a deflection, this time, however, in the opposite direction. That
is, a current passes through coil A in the opposite direction.
The observations are made because whenever we change the current in the coil B, the magnetic field
associated with it and the coil A in its proximity changes. At the very instant of plugging the key in or taking
the plug out, there is an instantaneous flow of current and a change in the magnetic field associated with the
coil B. During this instantaneous moment, the current in coil B reaches from zero to the maximum or from the
maximum to zero. This changing magnetic field of coil B induces a current in the coil A.
The phenomenon is known as electromagnetic induction.
What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of a solenoid through which a steady current
flows. What does the pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicate?
Solution:
A solenoid is a coil of several circular turns of insulated conducting wire, wrapped closely in the shape of a
cylinder.
Pattern of magnetic field lines of a solenoid through which a steady current flows:
The pattern of magnetic field lines inside a current-carrying solenoid indicates that the magnetic field is
uniform, i.e., strength of the magnetic field is the same, everywhere inside the solenoid.
What is Hypermetropia (far sightedness)? Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect can be corrected using
a lens.
Solution:
Hypermetropiais a defect of vision in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly, but has no problems in
seeing distant objects.
Corrected vision for a hypermetropic eye by using a convex lens:
Mention any four limitations in harnessing wind energy on a large scale.
Solution:
Four limitations in harnessing wind energy on a large scale are as follows:
i) Wind mills or wind energy plants can only be built in places where wind blows at a high speed for the
greater part of a year.
ii) For a large-scale windmill to be productive, the wind speed must be atleast 15 km/h.
iii) A large-scale windmill establishment requires large area of land.
iv) The initial cost of establishment of the farm is quite high.
At what distance should an object be placed from a lens of focal length 25 cm to obtain its image on a screen
placed on the other side at a distance of 50 cm from the lens? What will be the magnification produced in this
case?
Solution:
Given that,
Focal length, f = 25 cm
Image distance, v = 50 cm
Form the lens formula,
Or, u = −50 cm
Magnification,
The object must be placed 50 cm away from the lens, on the other side to produce a magnification of −1.

Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have the same number of electronic shells but different
number of electrons in their outermost shell. It was found that elements A and G combine to form an ionic
compound. This compound is added in a small amount to almost all vegetable dishes during cooking. Oxides
of elements A and B are basic in nature while those of E and F are acidic. The oxide of D is almost neutral.
Based on the above information answer the following questions:
(i) To which group or period of the periodic table do the listed elements belong?
(ii) What would be the nature of compound formed by a combination of elements B and F?
(iii) Which two of these elements could definitely be metals?
(iv) Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room temperature?
(v) If the number of electrons in the outermost shell of elements C and G be 3 and 7 respectively, write the
formula of the compound formed by the combination of C and G.
Solution:
(i) The elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H belong to the third period of the periodic table and to the following
groups.
A belongs to group 1
B belongs to group 2
C belongs to group 3
D belongs to group 14
E belongs to group 15
F belongs to group 16
G belongs to group 17
H belongs to group 18
(ii) The compounds formed by B and F would be ionic in nature.
(iii) Elements A and B are definitely metals.
(iv) Element H is most likely to found in gaseous state at room temperature.
(v) The formula of the compound will be CG3.
No chemical reaction takes place when granules of a solid, A, are mixed with the powder of another solid, B.
However when the mixture is heated, a reaction takes place between its components. One of the products, C,
is a metal and settles down in the molten state while the other product, D, floats over it. It was observed that
the reaction is highly exothermic.
(i) Based on the given information make an assumption about A and B and write a chemical equation for the
chemical reaction indicating the conditions of reaction, physical state of reactants and products and thermal
status of reaction.
(ii) Mention any two types of reactions under which above chemical reaction can be classified.
Solution:
(i) Solid A is assumed to be MnO2 and solid B to be Aluminium (Al).
When the mixture of MnO2 and Al is heated, manganese (Mn) is produced in molten state and aluminium oxide
(Al2O3) floats over it. Mn is produced in the molten state as a lot of heat energy is released in the process.
The chemical equation for the reaction can be written as:
(ii) The types of reaction under which the above reaction is classified are—
1. Redox reaction
2. Displacement reaction
Name the functional group of organic compounds that can be hydrogenated. With the help of suitable example
explain the process of hydrogenation mentioning the conditions of the reaction and any one change in physical
property with the formation of the product. Name any one natural source of organic compounds that are
hydrogenated.
Solution:
The functional group of organic compounds that can be hydrogenated are ‘alkenes’ and ‘alkynes’
Hydrogen can be added to unsaturated hydrocarbons in the presence of nickel to yield saturated
hydrocarbons. In this reaction, nickel acts as a catalyst.
Onhydrogenation, the unsaturated fatty acids which are liquid at room temperature become saturated and
change to solid.
A natural source of organic compound that is hydrogenated is vegetable oil.
Derive the expression for the heat produced due to a current ‘I’ flowing for a time interval ‘t’ through a
resistor ‘R’ having a potential difference ‘V’ across its ends. With which name is the relation known? How much
heat will an instrument of 12W produce in one minute if it is connected to a battery of 12V?
OR
Explain with the help of a labelled circuit diagram how you will find the resistance of a combination of three
resistors, or resistance R1, R2 and R3, joined in parallel. Also mention how you will connect the ammeter and
the voltmeter in the circuit when measuring the current in the circuit and the potential difference across one of
the three resistors of the combination.
Solution:
Consider a resistor of resistance R. Let the current flowing through this resistor be I and the potential
difference across it be V.
In time t, let Q amount of charge flows through the resistor.
Work done on moving this charge, W = VQ ... (1)
According to the definition of electric current,
Q=I×t
Putting this in equation (1),
W=V×I×t
This work done is dissipated as heat.
Hence,
Heat produced, H = W = VIt
H = VIt ... (2)
According to Ohm’s law, V = IR.
Putting this in equation (2),
H = IR × It
This relation is known as Joule’s law of heating.
Power, P = 12 W
Potential difference, V =12 V
Time duration of current flow, t = 1 min = 60 s

H=P×t
= 12 W × 60 s
= 720 J
The heat generated by the instrument of 12 W in a minute is 720 J.
OR
The given figure shows a circuit consisting of three resistors R1, R2 and R3 connected in parallel. The total
current in the circuit (I) gets divided among the three resistors as I1, I2 and I3.
Thus,
I = I1 + I2 + I3
Applying Ohm’s law to each resistor,
Let the equivalent resistance of the circuit be Req.
Applying Ohm’s law to the equivalent circuit,

Using these,
An ammeter has to be connected in series with the combination of all three resistors so that the current
passes through the ammeter becomes equal to the total current through the circuit.
The voltmeter has to be connected in parallel to that resistor across which the potential difference has to be
measured.
Write the names and symbols of two most reactive metals belonging to group 1 of the periodic table. Explain
by drawing electronic structure how either one of the two metals reacts with a halogen. With which name is
the bond formed between these elements known and what is the class of the compound so formed known?
State any four physical properties of such compounds.
OR
What is meant by refining of metals? Name the most widely used method of refining impure metals produced
by various reduction processes. Describe with the help of a labelled diagram how this method may be used for
refining of copper.
Solution:
Two most reactive elements of group 1 of the periodic table are sodium (Na) and potassium (K)
As the ions of sodium and chlorine are oppositely charged, they attract each other by strong
electrostatic forces. The reaction between sodium and chlorine can be represented as follows:
The bond formed between these elements is known as ionic or electrostatic bond.
Sodium chloride belongs to the class ionic compounds.
Following are the four physical properties of ionic compounds.
1. Ionic compounds exist in solid state

2. Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points
3. Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvents such as water and insoluble in non-polar or organic
solvents (kerosene and petrol).
4. Ionic compounds conduct electricity in their molten or aqueous state.
OR
Refining is the process of obtaining pure metal from its impure sample.
Electrolytic refining is the most widely used method of refining impure metals produced by various reduction
processes.
Electrolytic refining of copper
In this process, anode is made of a large block of impure metal and cathode is made of a thin strip of
pure metal. The electrolyte used in the process is acidified copper sulphate solution.
When electric current is passed through the electrolyte, the positively charged metal ions present in
the electrolyte get attracted towards the negatively charged cathode. When metal ions reach near the
cathode, they gain electrons from it and get deposited there. Hence, as the time increases, the
cathode becomes thicker and thicker.
As the metal ions from the electrolyte move towards the cathode, an equal amount of ions are
released by the anode into the solution. Therefore, as the time increases, the size of the block of
impure metal keeps on decreasing i.e. anode becomes thinner and thinner.
The soluble impurities present in the impure metal block go into the electrolytic solution. And the insoluble
impurities settle down at the bottom of the container below the anode and are known as anode mud.
Section B
Name the hormone that helps in regulating level of sugar in our blood. Name the gland that secrets it.
Solution:
Insulin helps in regulating sugar level in our blood. This hormone is secreted by pancreas gland.
A person lives near a forest. Make a list of four items which he can get from the forest to meet his daily
needs.
Solution:
Four products that a person will get from the forest are − timber, firewood, honey and animal meat.
Name the green dot like structures in some cells observed by a student when a leaf peel was viewed under a
microscope. What is this green colour due to?
Solution:
The green dot-like structures in some cells observed by the student when a leaf peel was viewed under a
microscope are chloroplasts. The green colour is due to the presence of green pigment chlorophyll.
What is phototropism? Describe an activity to demonstrate phototropism.
Solution:
The growth movement in plants in response to light stimulus is known as phototropism.
To demonstrate phototropism in plants a sunflower plant is taken and kept in sunlight. It will be observed that
the flower head of sunflower will move from east to west along with the movement of Sun. This shows that
the flower head of sunflower is positively phototropic and moves in response to sunlight stimulus.
List any two differences between pollination and fertilisation.
Solution:
Pollination Fertilization
Pollination is the transfer of pollen Fertilization is the fusion of male and

grains carrying male gametes from the female gamete to form a zygote. It is
anther to pistil of a flower. Pollination is also of two types—internal fertilization
of two types—self pollination and cross and external fertilization.
pollination.
Pollination occurs with the help of Fertilization occurs after pollination when
certain agents such as wind, water or the pollen grain resides on stigma and
animals forms a pollen tube to transfer the male
gamete into the embryo sac in the
ovary.
Give one example each of characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired in humans. Mention the
difference between the inherited and the acquired characters.
Solution:
Eye colour or hair colour of a person is an example of inherited character whereas body weight is an example
of acquired character.
The basic difference between inherited and acquired character is that inherited character is passed on from
parent to offspring. On the other hand, acquired characters are acquired by an individual during his lifetime
depending upon his lifestyle.
How is ozone formed in the higher level of atmosphere? “Damage to the ozone layer is a cause of concern”.
Justify this statement.
Solution:
The ozone layer is continuously formed in the atmosphere because of the action of UV rays on molecular
oxygen. The high-energy UV radiations break down O2 molecules present in upper layers of the atmosphere
into nascent oxygen.
Then, this free oxygen atom combines with an oxygen molecule to form ozone.
“ Damage to the ozone is a cause of concern”; this is because ozone depletion has created an hole in the
ozone layer over the Arctic region.
Damage in the ozone layer allows the harmful UV rays to reach the earth surface. UV rays can cause—
 skin cancer, ageing and corneal cataracts in human beings.

 death of many phytoplankton leading to the increase in the rate of global warming. Increase in the
global warming rate, in turn, leads to the melting of Arctic ice cap. This may further result in the
increase in the sea level.
Thus, it is justified to say that damage to the ozone is a cause of concern.

Write the full form of DNA. Name the part of the cell where it is located? Explain its role in the process of
reproduction of the cell.
Solution:
The full form of DNA is Deoxyribonucleic acid.
It is the genetic material found in the chromosomes, which are present in the nucleus of a cell.
It is a chemical that carries genetic information required by the cells to divide and produce proteins.
DNA plays an important role in the reproduction of a cell. The reproducing cell produces an identical copy of
DNA through some cellular mechanism. Since the newly formed copy of DNA lacks an organised cellular
structure, the cell gets divided to provide cell cover to the newly formed DNA. Thus, two daughter cells are
formed from the single cell as a result of the copying of DNA.
Explain the process of digestion of food in mouth, stomach and small intestine in human body.
OR
(a) List the three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis. Explain the role of stomata in this
process.
(b) Describe an experiment to show that “sunlight is essential for photosynthesis”.
Solution:
The process of digestion of food in mouth, stomach and small intestine is described as follows:
Mouth—Digestion of food begins in the mouth. Saliva present in mouth contains a digestive enzyme, called
salivary amylase, which breaks down starch into sugar.
Stomach—Stomach stores and mixes the food received from the oesophagus with gastric juices. The main
components of gastric juice are hydrochloric acid, mucus and pepsinogen.
Hydrochloric acid dissolves bits of food and creates an acidic medium. In this medium, pepsinogen is
converted to pepsin, which is a protein-digesting enzyme. Mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from
the action of HCl.
Small intestine—Small intestine is the site for complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
Small intestine produces intestinal juice from the glands present in its wall. The intestinal juice helps in further
digestion of food. Small intestine also obtains digestive juices from liver and pancreasthat helps in mixing of
food.
The liverproduces bile juice that causes emulsification of fats and the pancreas produces pancreatic juice for
digesting proteins and emulsified fats.
This digested food is finally absorbed through the intestinal walls.
OR
a. The events that occur in plants during photosynthesis are—
 Absorption of sunlight by the green pigment chlorophyll

 Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and the splitting of water molecule into oxygen and
hydrogen
 Reduction of carbon dioxide into glucose
Role of stomata
Stomata are tiny pores present mainly on the surfaces of leaves. They are also present on the surface of
young stems and roots. Stomata are mainly engaged in the exchange of gases (entry of CO 2 and release of
O2) associated with photosynthesis.
b. Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis
Place a healthy, green, potted plant in a dark room for 1−2 days. This is done to ensure that the plant
consumes all its reserve food and the leaves do not contain any starch. Then, cover a portion on both sides of
a green leaf with two uniform pieces of black paper. Fix the cover in position with two paper clips.
Now, expose this plant to bright light. After a few hours, remove the leaf and decolourise it with alcohol. Now,
test the presence of food (starch) by putting iodine solution on the leaf.
It can be observed that the covered portion of the leaf does not show any presence of starch (food).
This is because plants store the food prepared by through the process of photosynthesis as starch. Starch
reacts with iodine solution to give blue−black colour.
In the performed experiment, only those portions of the leaf that were exposed to sunlight could
photosynthesise. Hence, the uncovered portion of the leaf gives blue−black colour when tested with iodine.
The covered portion of the leaf did not receive any sunlight. Hence, starch was not produced in this portion.
So, it does not change its colour when treated with iodine solution.
Thus, it can be concluded that the sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.
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(i)

(ii) All questions are compulsory.

(v) Questions number 1 to 5 in Section A and 21 to 23 in Section B are short answer

type questions. These questions carry one mark each.

(vi) Questions number 6 to 10 in Section A and 24 to 25 in Section B are short answer

type questions and carry two marks each.

(vii) Questions number 11 to 17 in Section A and 26 to 29 in Section B are also short

answer type questions and carry three marks each.

(viii) Questions number 18 to 20 in section A and question number 30 in section B

Question 2 ( 1.0 marks)

Question 3 ( 1.0 marks)

State a reaction in which SO2 acts as an oxidising agent.

Sulphur dioxide oxidises hydrogen sulphide (H 2S) to sulphur (S).

Question 4 ( 1.0 marks)

Question 5 ( 1.0 marks)

Gypsum, when heated at a temperature of about 380 K, changes to plaster of Paris.

Plaster of Paris is used in hospitals for setting fractured bones.

Question 7 ( 2.0 marks)

Allotropy is a property shown by which class of substances, elements,

The property of allotropy is shown by the elements.

Sulphur has two allotropes − rhombic sulphur and monoclinic sulphur.

Question 8 ( 2.0 marks)

Question 9 ( 2.0 marks)

Refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 ( 2µ1)

With respect to air, refractive index of water is 1.33.

With respect to air, refractive index of benzene is 1.50.

Therefore, with respect to water, refractive index of benzene = = 1.127

Question 10 ( 2.0 marks)

What is the cause of release of unusually large energies in nuclear fission

This part of the question is out of current syllabus.

Out of current syllabus

Question 11 ( 3.0 marks)

(b) If the pH of the solution decreases from 3 to 2, then

Hence, hydrogen ion concentration will increase 10 times.

Question 12 ( 3.0 marks)

Question 13 ( 3.0 marks)

(i) Distinguish between an addition polymer and a condensation polymer.

(b) No simple molecule such as water Simple molecule such as water is

(c) For example, polythene is an For example, polyester is a

ii. One condensation polymer is polyester.

One addition polymer is teflon.

ii. Following is the chemical reaction involved in the formation of a polyamide.

Question 14 ( 3.0 marks)

(b) What happens when methanal is mixed with:

(i) Ethanoic acid: CH3COOH

Functional group: carboxylic acid group

(ii) Propanone: CH3COCH3

Functional group: ketonic group

(iii) Nitromethane: CH3NO2

Functional group: nitro group

Question 15 ( 3.0 marks)

Voltage (V) = 2.50 V

Current (I) = 750 mA = 0.75 A

The bulb is lighted for 4 hours.

i) Power generated (P) = VI = 2.50 × 0.75 = 1.87 W

i) Resistance (R) = 3.33 Ω

iii) Energy consumed in 4 hours = Power × Time = P × t = 1.87 × 4 = 7.48 Wh

Question 16 ( 3.0 marks)

What are OTEC power plants? How do they operate?