Assessing Neurologic System: Mabini Colleges
Assessing Neurologic System: Mabini Colleges
Assessing Neurologic System: Mabini Colleges
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Section
Multiple Choice
2) Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the central nervous
system are:
A) motor
B) visceral sensory
C) somatic sensory
D) interneurons
E) parasympathetic
3) Which of these neuroglial cells forms the myelin sheath in the central nervous system:
A) astrocytes
B) oligodendrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) ependymal cells
E) Schwann cells
5) The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:
A) axons
B) dendrites
C) neurolemmas
D) Schwann cells
E) satellite cells
14) Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly
diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid:
A) sodium
B) chloride
C) calcium
D) potassium
E) magnesium
15) An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell:
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) calcium
D) magnesium
E) both potassium and sodium
16) Nerve impulse transmissions occurring along myelinated neurons are called:
A) saltatory conduction
B) threshold
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C) graded potential
D) sodium-potassium pump
E) all-or-none response
18) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events that correlates to the sequence
of events of a nerve impulse:
1. the membrane becomes depolarized
2. sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward
3. the membrane becomes repolarized
4. potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward while sodium is actively
transported out of the cell
A) 3, 2, 4, 1
B) 2, 1, 4, 3
C) 2, 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4, 3
E) 4, 1, 3, 2
19) Which ion causes neurotransmitter vesicles to fuse with the axon's membrane during the
conduction of a nerve impulse from one neuron to the next:
A) chlorine
B) sodium
C) potassium
D) calcium
E) magnesium
21) The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called:
A) an ion
B) nerve glue
C) a neurotransmitter
D) the sodium-potassium pump
E) an action potential
22) Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc:
A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
E) receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, integration center, effector
25) The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as
__________ while the shallow grooves are termed __________.
A) sulci; gyri
B) gyri; sulci
C) ganglia; gyri
D) tracts; ganglia
E) receptors; effectors
26) A stroke in the primary motor area has caused Don to lose control over his skeletal muscles
on the right side of his body. What lobe of his brain was damaged:
A) occipital lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) frontal lobe
D) parietal lobe
E) pyramidal tract
27) Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can't vocalize the words. The
part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak is the:
A) longitudinal fissure
B) gyrus
C) central sulcus
D) Broca's area
E) primary motor area
28) The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the:
A) diencephalon
B) hypothalamus
C) brain stem
D) pineal gland
E) cerebellum
29) Which lobe contains the primary motor area and enables voluntary control of skeletal muscle
movements:
A) parietal lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) frontal lobe
E) diencephalon
34) The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood
pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the:
A) pons
B) medulla oblongata
C) midbrain
D) cerebrum
E) hypothalamus
36) Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to innermost
layers of the meninges:
A) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
B) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
C) arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
D) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
E) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
37) The dura mater located in the fissure that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum is:
A) falx cerebri
B) tentorium cerebelli
C) falx cerebelli
D) longitudinal fissure
E) corpus callosum
42) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in:
A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) the thalamus
D) the hypothalamus
E) sympathetic ganglia
43) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, going
from superior to inferior:
A) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
B) cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
C) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
D) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
E) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
44) Which one of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from
outermost to innermost layer:
A) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium
B) epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium
C) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
D) perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium
E) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium
47) The nerve that contains sensory fibers that are involved in hearing is:
A) cranial nerve II
B) cranial nerve III
C) cranial nerve V
D) cranial nerve VIII
E) cranial nerve IX
48) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the:
A) lumbar plexus
B) femoral plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus
E) obturator plexus
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49) Damage to this nerve results in "wristdrop," the inability to extend the hand at the wrist:
A) phrenic
B) axillary
C) obturator
D) radial
E) femoral
50) Which nervous system subdivision is a chain of two motor neurons consisting of a
preganglion and a postganglionic neuron:
A) somatic
B) central
C) autonomic
D) visceral
E) sensory
51) Which of the nerve plexuses serves the shoulder and arm:
A) sacral
B) phrenic
C) lumbar
D) brachial
E) cervical
52) The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body resulting from a combination of which two
nerves:
A) pudendal and femoral nerves
B) femoral and tibial nerves
C) pudendal and common peroneal nerves
D) common fibular and tibial nerves
E) pudendal and tibial nerves
53) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the:
A) central nervous system
B) voluntary nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system
E) peripheral nervous system
54) In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system:
A) has two motor neurons
B) has two afferent neurons
C) stimulates its effector cells
D) has both afferent and efferent fibers
E) has centers in the brain and spinal cord
55) Which one of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system:
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) most glands
E) abdominal organs
56) Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response during threatening situations is the role
of the:
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) cerebrum
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system
E) afferent nervous system
58) The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the:
A) central nervous system
B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) autonomic nervous system
D) motor division
E) sensory division
60) Which subdivision of the autonomic nervous system operates using the neurotransmitters
norepinephrine and epinephrine:
A) parasympathetic
B) somatic
C) sympathetic
D) peripheral
E) central
61) Which one of the following statements about aging is most accurate:
A) the brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life
B) synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35
C) despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways are available and ready
to be developed; therefore, additional learning can occur throughout life
D) learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation
E) increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances the ability to learn
NEUROLOGIC ASSESSMENT
Nursing Interview Guide to Collect Subjective Data
QUESTIONS FINDINGS
Current Symptoms
2. Seizure activity?
5. Ringing in ears
6. Change in vision?
8. Difficulty in swallowing?
10 . Memory Loss?
11. Tremors?
Past History
1. Head injury?
2. Meningitis?
3. Encephalitis?
5. Stroke?
6. Treatment received?
Family History
2. Stroke?
3. Alzheimer disease?
5. Brain cancer?
6. Huntington chorea
2. Smoking?
4. Daily diet?
Questions
Analysis of data
QUESTIONS FINDINGS
Mental Status
Cranial Nerves
2. Test Balance.
Reflexes
Rating
Procedure 5 4 3 2 1
7. Ask the client to read some words and to match the printed and
written words with pictures.
8. Ask the client to respond to simple verbal and written commands,
e.g., “point to your toes” or “raise your left arm”.
9. Determine the clients’ orientation to time, place, and person by
tactful questioning.
10. Listen for lapses memory.
11. Test the ability to concentrate or attention span by asking the client
to recite the alphabet or to count backward from 100.
12. Apply the Glasgow coma scale
Romberg’s Test
Ask the client to stand with feet together and arms resting at the sides,
first with eyes open, then closed.
Heel-Toe Walking
Ask the client to walk straight line, placing the heel of one foot directly in
front of the toes of the other foot.
Ask the client to abduct and extends the arms at shoulder height and
rapidly touch the nose alternately with one index finger and then the
other. Have the client repeat the test with the eyes closed if the test is
performed easily.
Ask the client to pat both knees with the palms of both hands and then
with the backs of the hands alternately at an ever-increasing rate.
Ask the client to touch the nose and then your index finger, held at a
distance at about 45 cm (18 in), at a rapid and increasing rate.
Fingers to Fingers
Ask the client to spread the arms broadly at shoulder height and then
bring the fingers together at the midline, First with eyes open and then
closed, first slowly and then rapidly.
Ask the client to touch each finger of one hand to the thumb of the same
hand as rapidly as possible.
Ask the client to place the heel of one foot just below the opposite knee
and run the heel down the shin to the foot. The client may also use a
sitting position for this test.
Ask the client to touch your finger with the large toe of each floor.
Ask the client to close the eyes and to respond by saying “yes or now”
whenever the client feels the cotton wisp touching the skin.
With a wisp of cotton, lightly touch one specific spot and then the same
spot on the other side of the body.
Test areas on the forehead, cheek, hand, lower arm, abdomen, foot, and
lower leg. Check a specific area of the limb first.
Ask the client to point to the spot where the touch was left.
Alternately, use the sharp and dull end of the sterile pin or needle to
lightly prick designated anatomic areas at random. The face is not tested
in this manner.
Touch skin areas with test tubes filled with hot or cold water.
Have the client respond say saying “hot,” or “cold,” “don’t know”.
Commonly, the middle fingers and the large toes are tested for the
kinesthetic sensation.
To test fingers, support the client’s arm with one hand and hold the client’s
palm in the other. To test the toes, place the client’s heels on the examining
table.
Grasp a middle finger or a big toe firmly between your thumb and index
finger, and exert the same pressure on both sides of the finger or toe while
moving it
Move the finger or toe until it is up, down or straight out, and ask the client to
identify the positions.
Alternately stimulate the skin with two pins simultaneously and then with
one pin. Ask whether the client feels one or two pinpricks.
Stereognosis
Extinction Phenomenon
NEUROLOGIC ASSESSMENT
POSTTEST
Direction: Choose the one best answer for each of the following multiple choice questions.
___ 1. Sensations of temperature, pain, and crude and light touch are carried by way of the
a. extrapyramidal tract.
b. corticospinal tract.
c. spinothalamic.
d. posterior tract.
___ 2. The cranial nerve that has sensory fibers for taste and fibers that result in the
“gag reflex” is the
a. vagus.
b. trigeminal.
c. hypoglossal.
d. Glossopharyngeal
___ 3. The nurse is assessning an older adult client when the client tells the nurse that she has
experienced transient blind spots for the last few days
a. Vagus nerve damage.
b. stroke
c. spinal cord compression
d. Parkinson’s disease.
___ 4. The nurse is planning a presentation to a group of adults on the topic of strokes. Which of the
following should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan.
a. Stroke is the number one cause of death in the United States.
b. Smoking and high cholesterol levels are at risk factors for stroke.
c. Clients who stroke while taking oral contraceptive pills are not at a higher risk.
d. Postmenopausal women taking estrogen are at greater risk for STROKE.
___ 5. The nurse is caring for a client during the immediate postoperative period after abdominal
surgery. While performing a “neuro check” the nurse should assess the client’s
a. Sensation
b. Deep tendon reflexes
c. Ability to speak
d. Recent memory
___ 6. The nurse is preparing to percuss a clients reflexes in his arms. To use the reinforcement
technique, the nurse should ask the client to
a. Clench the jaw
b. Stretch the opposite arm
c. Hold his neck toward the floor
d. Straighten his legs forward.
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