Damodaran Valuation
Damodaran Valuation
Damodaran Valuation
Aswath Damodaran
In relative valuation, the value of an asset is compared to the values assessed by the market for similar or comparable assets. To do relative valuation then,
we need to identify comparable assets and obtain market values for these assets convert these market values into standardized values, since the absolute prices cannot be compared This process of standardizing creates price multiples. compare the standardized value or multiple for the asset being analyzed to the standardized values for comparable asset, controlling for any differences between the rms that might affect the multiple, to judge whether the asset is under or over valued
Aswath Damodaran
While there are more discounted cashow valuations in consulting and corporate nance, they are often relative valuations masquerading as discounted cash ow valuations.
The objective in many discounted cashow valuations is to back into a number that has been obtained by using a multiple. The terminal value in a signicant number of discounted cashow valuations is estimated using a multiple.
Aswath Damodaran
If you think Im crazy, you should see the guy who lives across the hall Jerry Seinfeld talking about Kramer in a Seinfeld episode
If you are going to screw up, make sure that you have lots of company Ex-portfolio manager
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So, you believe only in intrinsic value? Heres why you should still care about relative value
Even if you are a true believer in discounted cashow valuation, presenting your ndings on a relative valuation basis will make it more likely that your ndings/recommendations will reach a receptive audience. In some cases, relative valuation can help nd weak spots in discounted cash ow valuations and x them. The problem with multiples is not in their use but in their abuse. If we can nd ways to frame multiples right, we should be able to use them better.
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You can standardize either the equity value of an asset or the value of the asset itself, which goes in the numerator. You can standardize by dividing by the
Earnings of the asset
Price/Earnings Ratio (PE) and variants (PEG and Relative PE) Value/EBIT Value/EBITDA Value/Cash Flow
Asset or Industry Specic Variable (Price/kwh, Price per ton of steel ....)
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Denitional Tests
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Descriptive Tests
What is the average and standard deviation for this multiple, across the universe (market)? What is the median for this multiple?
The median for this multiple is often a more reliable comparison point.
How large are the outliers to the distribution, and how do we deal with the outliers?
Throwing out the outliers may seem like an obvious solution, but if the outliers all lie on one side of the distribution (they usually are large positive numbers), this can lead to a biased estimate.
Are there cases where the multiple cannot be estimated? Will ignoring these cases lead to a biased estimate of the multiple? How has this multiple changed over time?
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Analytical Tests
What are the fundamentals that determine and drive these multiples?
Proposition 2: Embedded in every multiple are all of the variables that drive every discounted cash ow valuation - growth, risk and cash ow patterns. In fact, using a simple discounted cash ow model and basic algebra should yield the fundamentals that drive a multiple The relationship between a fundamental (like growth) and a multiple (such as PE) is seldom linear. For example, if rm A has twice the growth rate of rm B, it will generally not trade at twice its PE ratio Proposition 3: It is impossible to properly compare rms on a multiple, if we do not know the nature of the relationship between fundamentals and the multiple.
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Application Tests
Given the comparable rms, how do we adjust for differences across rms on the fundamentals?
Proposition 5: It is impossible to nd an exactly identical rm to the one you are valuing.
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There are a number of variants on the basic PE ratio in use. They are based upon how the price and the earnings are dened. Price:
is usually the current price (though some like to use average price over last 6 months or year) Time variants: EPS in most recent nancial year (current), EPS in most recent four quarters (trailing), EPS expected in next scal year or next four quartes (both called forward) or EPS in some future year Primary, diluted or partially diluted Before or after extraordinary items Measured using different accounting rules (options expensed or not, pension fund income counted or not)
EPS:
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Mean Standard Error Median Kurtosis Skewness Minimum Maximum Count 500th largest 500th smallest
Current PE 41.41 2.42 20.76 1062.81 27.78 0.40 6841.25 4032 54.50 11.31
Trailing PE Forward PE 41.53 30.90 3.64 1.10 19.39 19.21 700.63 252.62 24.21 12.48 1.22 2.57 7184.00 1430.00 3492 2281 43.98 31.13 11.13 14.29
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To understand the fundamentals, start with a basic equity discounted cash ow model. With the dividend discount model,
P0 = DPS1 r ! gn
P0 =
FCFE1 r ! gn
Proposition: Other things held equal, higher growth rms will have higher PE ratios than lower growth rms. Proposition: Other things held equal, higher risk rms will have lower PE ratios than lower risk rms Proposition: Other things held equal, rms with lower reinvestment needs will have higher PE ratios than rms with higher reinvestment rates. Of course, other things are difcult to hold equal since high growth rms, tend to have risk and high reinvestment rats.
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For a rm that does not pay what it can afford to in dividends, substitute FCFE/Earnings for the payout ratio.
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In this model, the PE ratio for a high growth rm is a function of growth, risk and payout, exactly the same variables that it was a function of for the stable growth rm. The only difference is that these inputs have to be estimated for two phases the high growth phase and the stable growth phase. Expanding to more than two phases, say the three stage model, will mean that risk, growth and cash ow patterns in each stage.
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A Simple Example
Assume that you have been asked to estimate the PE ratio for a rm which has the following characteristics: Variable High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase Expected Growth Rate 25% 8% Payout Ratio 20% 50% Beta 1.00 1.00 Number of years 5 years Forever after year 5 Riskfree rate = T.Bond Rate = 6% Required rate of return = 6% + 1(5.5%)= 11.5%
# (1.25) 5 & 0.2 * (1.25) * %1" 5( 5 $ (1.115) ' 0.5 * (1.25) * (1.08) PE = + = 28.75 (.115 - .25) (.115 - .08) (1.115) 5
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160
140
120
PE Ratio
100
80
60
40
20
0 5% 10% 15% 20% 25% 30% 35% 40% 45% 50% Expected Growth Rate
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PE Ratios and Length of High Growth: 25% growth for n years; 8% thereafter
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PE
Ratio
23
PE and Payout
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30
25
20
15
10
0 Mexico Malaysia Singapore Taiwan Hong Kong Venezuela Brazil Argentina Chile
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In July 2000, a market strategist is making the argument that Brazil and Venezuela are cheap relative to Chile, because they have much lower PE ratios. Would you agree? Yes No What are some of the factors that may cause one markets PE ratios to be lower than another markets PE?
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Country UK Germany France Switzerland Belgium Italy Sweden Netherlands Australia Japan US Canada
PE 22.02 26.33 29.04 19.6 14.74 28.23 32.39 21.1 21.69 52.25 25.14 26.14
Dividend Yield 2-yr rate 2.59% 5.93% 1.88% 5.06% 1.34% 5.11% 1.42% 3.62% 2.66% 5.15% 1.76% 5.27% 1.11% 4.67% 2.07% 5.10% 3.12% 6.29% 0.71% 0.58% 1.10% 6.05% 0.99% 5.70%
10-yr rate 5.85% 5.32% 5.48% 3.83% 5.70% 5.70% 5.26% 5.47% 6.25% 1.85% 5.85% 5.77%
10yr - 2yr -0.08% 0.26% 0.37% 0.21% 0.55% 0.43% 0.59% 0.37% -0.04% 1.27% -0.20% 0.07%
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Correlations
Correlation between PE ratio and long term interest rates = -0.733 Correlation between PE ratio and yield spread = 0.706
Regression Results
PE Ratio = 42.62 - 3.61 (10yr rate) + 8.47 (10-yr - 2 yr rate) R2 = 59% Input the interest rates as percent. For instance, the predicted PE ratio for Japan with this regression would be: PE: Japan = 42.62 - 3.61 (1.85) + 8.47 (1.27) = 46.70 At an actual PE ratio of 52.25, Japanese stocks are slightly overvalued.
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Predicted PE Ratios
Country Actual PE Predicted PE Under or Over Valued UK 22.02 20.83 5.71% Germany 26.33 25.62 2.76% France 29.04 25.98 11.80% Switzerland 19.6 30.58 -35.90% Belgium 14.74 26.71 -44.81% Italy 28.23 25.69 9.89% Sweden 32.39 28.63 13.12% Netherlands 21.1 26.01 -18.88% Australia 21.69 19.73 9.96% Japan 52.25 46.70 11.89% United States 25.14 19.81 26.88% Canada 26.14 22.39 16.75%
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Country Argentina Brazil Chile Hong Kong India Indonesia Malaysia Mexico Pakistan Peru Phillipines Singapore South Korea Thailand Turkey Venezuela
PE Ratio 14 21 25 20 17 15 14 19 14 15 15 24 21 21 12 20
Interest Rates 18.00% 14.00% 9.50% 8.00% 11.48% 21.00% 5.67% 11.50% 19.00% 18.00% 17.00% 6.50% 10.00% 12.75% 25.00% 15.00%
GDP Real Growth 2.50% 4.80% 5.50% 6.00% 4.20% 4.00% 3.00% 5.50% 3.00% 4.90% 3.80% 5.20% 4.80% 5.50% 2.00% 3.50%
Country Risk 45 35 15 15 25 50 40 30 45 50 45 5 25 25 35 45
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Regression Results
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Predicted PE Ratios
Country Argentina Brazil Chile Hong Kong India Indonesia Malaysia Mexico Pakistan Peru Phillipines Singapore South Korea Thailand Turkey Venezuela
PE Ratio 14 21 25 20 17 15 14 19 14 15 15 24 21 21 12 20
Interest Rates 18.00% 14.00% 9.50% 8.00% 11.48% 21.00% 5.67% 11.50% 19.00% 18.00% 17.00% 6.50% 10.00% 12.75% 25.00% 15.00%
GDP Real Growth 2.50% 4.80% 5.50% 6.00% 4.20% 4.00% 3.00% 5.50% 3.00% 4.90% 3.80% 5.20% 4.80% 5.50% 2.00% 3.50%
Country Risk 45 35 15 15 25 50 40 30 45 50 45 5 25 25 35 45
Predicted PE
13.57 18.55 22.22 23.11 18.94 15.09 15.87 20.39 14.26 16.71 15.65 23.11 19.98 20.85 13.35 15.35
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A market strategist argues that stocks are over priced because the PE ratio today is too high relative to the average PE ratio across time. Do you agree?
Yes No
If you do not agree, what factors might explain the higher PE ratio today?
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Regression Results
There is a strong positive relationship between E/P ratios and T.Bond rates, as evidenced by the correlation of 0.69 between the two variables., In addition, there is evidence that the term structure also affects the PE ratio. In the following regression, using 1960-2003 data, we regress E/P ratios against the level of T.Bond rates and a term structure variable (T.Bond T.Bill rate)
E/P = 2.03% + 0.753 T.Bond Rate - 0.355 (T.Bond Rate-T.Bill Rate) (2.19) (6.38) (-1.38) R squared = 50.85%
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T. Bond Rate = T.Bond Rate - T.Bill Rate = Expected E/P Ratio = Expected PE Ratio =
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Company Name Coca-Cola Bottling Molson Inc. Ltd. 'A' Anheuser -Busch Cor by Distiller ies Ltd. Chalone Wine Gr oup Ltd. Andr es Wines Ltd. 'A' Todhunter Int'l Br own-For man 'B' Coor s (Adolph) 'B' PepsiCo, Inc. Coca-Cola Boston Beer 'A' Whitman Cor p. Mondavi (Rober t) 'A' Coca-Cola Enter pr ises
Hansen Natur al Cor p
Tr ailing PE 29.18 43.65 24.31 16.24 21.76 8.96 8.94 10.07 23.02 33.00 44.33 10.59 25.19 16.47 37.14
9.70
Expected Gr owth 9.50% 15.50% 11.00% 7.50% 14.00% 3.50% 3.00% 11.50% 10.00% 10.50% 19.00% 17.13% 11.50% 14.00% 27.00%
17.00%
Standar d Dev 20.58% 21.88% 22.92% 23.66% 24.08% 24.70% 25.74% 29.43% 29.52% 31.35% 35.51% 39.58% 44.26% 45.84% 51.34%
62.45%
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A Question
You are reading an equity research report on this sector, and the analyst claims that Andres Wine and Hansen Natural are under valued because they have low PE ratios. Would you agree? Yes No Why or why not?
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R squared (adjusted) = 63.1% t-ratio 3.78 6.29 -3.84 prob 0.0010 0.0001 0.0009
Variable Coefcient SE Constant 13.1151 3.471 Growth rate 1.21223 19.27 Emerging Market -13.8531 3.606 Emerging Market is a dummy: 1 if emerging market 0 if not
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Predicted PE = 13.12 + 1.2122 (7.5) - 13.85 (1) = 8.35 At an actual price to earnings ratio of 8.9, Telebras is slightly overvalued.
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In contrast to the 'comparable rm' approach, the information in the entire cross-section of rms can be used to predict PE ratios. The simplest way of summarizing this information is with a multiple regression, with the PE ratio as the dependent variable, and proxies for risk, growth and payout forming the independent variables.
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PE versus Growth
Current PE vs Expected Growth in EPS January 2004: US Companies
1 20 1 00
80
60
40
Current PE
20 0 -20
20
40
60
80
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a. Predictor s: ( Constant), PAYOUT, Regre ssion Be ta , Expected Gr owth in EPS: next 5 years
Co effici entsa,b Unstandardized Coefficients Mode l 1 B (Constant) Expected G rowth in EPS: next 5 years Regr ession B eta PAYOUT 9.475 .814 6.283 6.E-02 Std. Error .96 1 .04 6 .43 7 .01 4 .375 .298 .092 Standar dized Coefficients Beta t 9.862 17.55 8 14.37 5 4.161 Sig. .000 .000 .000 .000
a. Dependent Va riable: Current PE b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighted by Mar ket Cap
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The basic regression assumes a linear relationship between PE ratios and the nancial proxies, and that might not be appropriate. The basic relationship between PE ratios and nancial variables itself might not be stable, and if it shifts from year to year, the predictions from the model may not be reliable. The independent variables are correlated with each other. For example, high growth rms tend to have high risk. This multi-collinearity makes the coefcients of the regressions unreliable and may explain the large changes in these coefcients from period to period.
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Pear son Correlation Sig. (2 -tailed) N Pear son Correlation Sig. (2 -tailed) N
Regr ession Beta .031 .228 1472 1 . 6933 -.183** .000 4187
Regression Bet a
PAYOUT
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Assume that you were given the following information for Dell. The rm has an expected growth rate of 10%, a beta of 1.20 and pays no dividends. Based upon the regression, estimate the predicted PE ratio for Dell.
Predicted PE =
Dell is actually trading at 22 times earnings. What does the predicted PE tell you?
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In its simple form, there is no basis for believing that a rm is undervalued just because it has a PE ratio less than expected growth. This relationship may be consistent with a fairly valued or even an overvalued rm, if interest rates are high, or if a rm is high risk. As interest rate decrease (increase), fewer (more) stocks will emerge as undervalued using this approach.
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In January 2004,
33% of rms had PE ratios lower than the expected 5-year growth rate 67% of rms had PE ratios higher than the expected 5-year growth rate 38.1% of rms had PE ratios less than the expected 5-year growth rate in September 1991 65.3% of rm had PE ratios less than the expected 5-year growth rate in 1981.
In comparison,
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The PEG ratio is the ratio of price earnings to expected growth in earnings per share. PEG = PE / Expected Growth Rate in Earnings Denitional tests:
Is the growth rate used to compute the PEG ratio
on the same base? (base year EPS) over the same period?(2 years, 5 years) from the same source? (analyst projections, consensus estimates..)
Is the earnings used to compute the PE ratio consistent with the growth rate estimate?
No double counting: If the estimate of growth in earnings per share is from the current year, it would be a mistake to use forward EPS in computing PE If looking at foreign stocks or ADRs, is the earnings used for the PE ratio consistent with the growth rate estimate? (US analysts use the ADR EPS)
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Tr ailing PE 29.18 43.65 24.31 16.24 21.76 14.00% 8.96 8.94 10.07 23.02 33.00 44.33 10.59 25.19 16.47 37.14 9.70
22.66
Gr owth 9.50% 15.50% 11.00% 7.50% 24.08% 3.50% 3.00% 11.50% 10.00% 10.50% 19.00% 17.13% 11.50% 14.00% 27.00% 17.00%
0.13
Std Dev 20.58% 21.88% 22.92% 23.66% 1.55 24.70% 25.74% 29.43% 29.52% 31.35% 35.51% 39.58% 44.26% 45.84% 51.34% 62.45%
0.33
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The average PEG ratio for the beverage sector is 2.00. The lowest PEG ratio in the group belongs to Hansen Natural, which has a PEG ratio of 0.57. Using this measure of value, Hansen Natural is the most under valued stock in the group the most over valued stock in the group What other explanation could there be for Hansens low PEG ratio?
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To understand the fundamentals that determine PEG ratios, let us return again to a 2-stage equity discounted cash ow model
P0 = " (1+ g)n % EPS0 * Payout Ratio *(1+ g)* $1 ! # (1+ r) n & r-g + EPS0 * Payout Ratio n *(1+ g)n *(1+ g n ) (r -g n )(1+ r)n
Dividing both sides of the equation by the earnings gives us the equation for the PE ratio. Dividing it again by the expected growth g
" (1+ g)n % Payout Ratio *(1 + g) * $ 1 ! # (1 + r) n & Payout Ratio n * (1+ g)n * (1+ g n ) PEG = + g(r - g) g(r - gn )(1 + r)n
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Risk and payout, which affect PE ratios, continue to affect PEG ratios as well.
Implication: When comparing PEG ratios across companies, we are making implicit or explicit assumptions about these variables.
Dividing PE by expected growth does not neutralize the effects of expected growth, since the relationship between growth and value is not linear and fairly complex (even in a 2-stage model)
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A Simple Example
Assume that you have been asked to estimate the PEG ratio for a rm which has the following characteristics: Variable High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase Expected Growth Rate 25% 8% Payout Ratio 20% 50% Beta 1.00 1.00 Riskfree rate = T.Bond Rate = 6% Required rate of return = 6% + 1(5.5%)= 11.5% The PEG ratio for this rm can be estimated as follows:
# (1.25) 5 & 0.2 * (1.25) * %1" 5( 0.5 * (1.25) 5 * (1.08) $ (1.115) ' PEG = + = 115 or 1.15 .25(.115 - .25) .25(.115 - .08) (1.115) 5
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Proposition 1: High risk companies will trade at much lower PEG ratios than low risk companies with the same expected growth rate.
Corollary 1: The company that looks most under valued on a PEG ratio basis in a sector may be the riskiest rm in the sector
Proposition 2: Companies that can attain growth more efciently by investing less in better return projects will have higher PEG ratios than companies that grow at the same rate less efciently.
Corollary 2: Companies that look cheap on a PEG ratio basis may be companies with high reinvestment rates and poor project returns.
Proposition 3: Companies with very low or very high growth rates will tend to have higher PEG ratios than rms with average growth rates. This bias is worse for low growth stocks.
Corollary 3: PEG ratios do not neutralize the growth effect.
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0.5
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Tr ailing PE 29.18 43.65 24.31 16.24 21.76 8.96 8.94 10.07 23.02 33.00 44.33 10.59 25.19 16.47 37.14 9.70
22.66
Gr owth 9.50% 15.50% 11.00% 7.50% 14.00% 3.50% 3.00% 11.50% 10.00% 10.50% 19.00% 17.13% 11.50% 14.00% 27.00% 17.00%
0.13
Std Dev 20.58% 21.88% 22.92% 23.66% 24.08% 24.70% 25.74% 29.43% 29.52% 31.35% 35.51% 39.58% 44.26% 45.84% 51.34% 62.45%
0.33
P EG 3.07 2.82 2.21 2.16 1.55 2.56 2.98 0.88 2.30 3.14 2.33 0.62 2.19 1.18 1.38 0.57
2.00
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Analyzing PE/Growth
Given that the PEG ratio is still determined by the expected growth rates, risk and cash ow patterns, it is necessary that we control for differences in these variables. Regressing PEG against risk and a measure of the growth dispersion, we get: PEG = 3.61 -.0286 (Expected Growth) - .0375 (Std Deviation in Prices) R Squared = 44.75% In other words,
PEG ratios will be lower for high growth companies PEG ratios will be lower for high risk companies
We also ran the regression using the deviation of the actual growth rate from the industry-average growth rate as the independent variable, with mixed results.
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Applying this regression to Hansen, the predicted PEG ratio for the rm can be estimated using Hansens measures for the independent variables:
Expected Growth Rate = 17.00% Standard Deviation in Stock Prices = 62.45%
Plugging in, Expected PEG Ratio for Hansen = 3.61 - .0286 (17) - .0375 (62.45) = 0.78 With its actual PEG ratio of 0.57, Hansen looks undervalued, notwithstanding its high risk.
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This analysis, which is restricted to rms in the software sector, can be expanded to include all rms in the rm, as long as we control for differences in risk, growth and payout. To look at the cross sectional relationship, we rst plotted PEG ratios against expected growth rates.
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PEG Ratio
0 -20
20
40
60
80
1 00
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The relationship in not linear. In fact, the smallest rms seem to have the highest PEG ratios and PEG ratios become relatively stable at higher growth rates. To make the relationship more linear, we converted the expected growth rates in ln(expected growth rate). The relationship between PEG ratios and ln(expected growth rate) was then plotted.
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PEG Ratio
0 0 1 2 3 4 5
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Co ef fici entsa,b Unstandard ized Coefficients Mode l 1 (Constant) Regr ession B eta PAYOUT LNGROWTH B 4.308 .539 6.E-03 -1.042 Std. Er ror .15 5 .03 8 .00 1 .05 5 Standar dized Coefficients Beta .293 .116 -.404 t 27. 774 14. 249 5.262 -18.86 Sig. .000 .000 .000 .000
a. Dependent Va riable: PE G Ratio b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap
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Consider Dell again. The stock has an expected growth rate of 10%, a beta of 1.20 and pays out no dividends. What should its PEG ratio be?
If the stocks actual PE ratio is 23, what does this analysis tell you about the stock?
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The PEG ratio is biased against low growth rms because the relationship between value and growth is non-linear. One variant that has been devised to consolidate the growth rate and the expected dividend yield: PEGY = PE / (Expected Growth Rate + Dividend Yield) As an example, Con Ed has a PE ratio of 16, an expected growth rate of 5% in earnings and a dividend yield of 4.5%.
PEG = 16/ 5 = 3.2 PEGY = 16/(5+4.5) = 1.7
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The relative PE ratio of a rm is the ratio of the PE of the rm to the PE of the market. Relative PE = PE of Firm / PE of Market While the PE can be dened in terms of current earnings, trailing earnings or forward earnings, consistency requires that it be estimated using the same measure of earnings for both the rm and the market. Relative PE ratios are usually compared over time. Thus, a rm or sector which has historically traded at half the market PE (Relative PE = 0.5) is considered over valued if it is trading at a relative PE of 0.7. Relative PE ratios are also used when comparing companies across markets with different PE ratios (Japanese versus US stocks, for example).
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To analyze the determinants of the relative PE ratios, let us revisit the discounted cash ow model we developed for the PE ratio. Using the 2-stage DDM model as our basis (replacing the payout ratio with the FCFE/Earnings Ratio, if necessary), we get
" (1+ g j )n % ' Payout Ratio j *(1 + g j ) * $ 1 ! (1+ rj )n & # Payout Ratio j,n *(1 + g j )n *(1 + g j,n ) + rj - g j (rj - g j,n )(1 + rj )n Relative PE j = " (1+ g m ) n % ' Payout Ratio m * (1+ g m )* $ 1 ! # (1+ rm )n & Payout Ratio m,n * (1+ g m )n *(1 + gm, n ) + rm - gm= Payout, growth and risk of the m - gm,n )(1+ rm )n (r rm where Payout , g , r
j j j
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Consider the following example of a rm growing at twice the rate as the market, while having the same growth and risk characteristics of the market: Firm Market Expected growth rate 20% 10% Length of Growth Period 5 years 5 years Payout Ratio: rst 5 yrs 30% 30% Growth Rate after yr 5 6% 6% Payout Ratio after yr 5 50% 50% Beta 1.00 1.00 Riskfree Rate = 6%
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Estimating Relative PE
The relative PE ratio for this rm can be estimated in two steps. First, we compute the PE ratio for the rm and the market separately:
PE firm
5 " (1.20) % 0.3 * (1.20) * $ 1! # (1.115) 5 & 0.5 * (1.20)5 * (1.06) = + = 15.79 (.115 - .20) (.115 -.06) (1.115)5
PE market
" (1.10)5 % 0.3 * (1.10) * $ 1! # (1.115)5 & 0.5 * (1.10) 5 *(1.06) = + = 10.45 5 (.115 - .10) (.115-.06) (1.115)
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In this example, consider a rm with twice the risk as the market, while having the same growth and payout characteristics as the rm: Firm Market Expected growth rate 10% 10% Length of Growth Period 5 years 5 years Payout Ratio: rst 5 yrs 30% 30% Growth Rate after yr 5 6% 6% Payout Ratio after yr 5 50% 50% Beta in rst 5 years 2.00 1.00 Beta after year 5 1.00 1.00 Riskfree Rate = 6%
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Estimating Relative PE
The relative PE ratio for this rm can be estimated in two steps. First, we compute the PE ratio for the rm and the market separately:
PE firm " (1.10) 5 % 0.3 * (1.10) * $ 1 ! 5 # (1.17) 5 & 0.5 * (1.10) * (1.06) = + = 8.33 (.17 - .10) (.115- .06) (1.17)5
PE market
" (1.10)5 % 0.3 * (1.10) * $ 1! # (1.115)5 & 0.5 * (1.10) 5 *(1.06) = + = 10.45 5 (.115 - .10) (.115-.06) (1.115)
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3.5
1.5
0.5
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Relative PE ratios seem to be unaffected by the level of rates, which might give them a decided advantage over PE ratios.
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1.00
0.80
0.60
Ford Chrysler GM
0.40
0.20
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On a relative PE basis, all of the automobile stocks looked cheap in 2000 because they were trading at their lowest relative PE ratios than 1993. Why might the relative PE ratio be lower in 2000 than in 1993?
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Co ef fici entsa,b Unstandard ized Coefficients Mode l 1 (Constant) RELPAYO U RELG R Regr ession B eta B .379 4.E-02 .506 .251 Std. Er ror .03 8 .00 9 .02 9 .01 7 Standar dized Coefficients Beta .092 .375 .298 t 9.862 4.161 17. 558 14. 375 Sig. .000 .000 .000 .000
a. Dependent Va riable: RELPE b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap
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While Price earnings ratios look at the market value of equity relative to earnings to equity investors, Value earnings ratios look at the market value of the operating assets of the rm (Enterprise value or EV) relative to operating earnings or cash ows. The form of value to cash ow ratios that has the closest parallels in DCF valuation is the value to Free Cash Flow to the Firm, which is dened as: EV/FCFF = (Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt-Cash) EBIT (1-t) - (Cap Ex - Deprecn) - Chg in Working Cap
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Reverting back to a two-stage FCFF DCF model, we get: ! (1 + g)n $ FCFF (1 + g) # 10 n& FCFF (1+ g)n (1+ g ) " (1+ WACC) % 0 n V0 = + WACC - g (WACC - g )(1 + WACC)n n
V0 = Value of the rm (today) FCFF0 = Free Cashow to the rm in current year g = Expected growth rate in FCFF in extraordinary growth period (rst n years) WACC = Weighted average cost of capital gn = Expected growth rate in FCFF in stable growth period (after n years)
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Value Multiples
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Most analysts nd FCFF to complex or messy to use in multiples (partly because capital expenditures and working capital have to be estimated). They use modied versions of the multiple with the following alternative denominator:
after-tax operating income or EBIT(1-t) pre-tax operating income or EBIT net operating income (NOI), a slightly modied version of operating income, where any non-operating expenses and income is removed from the EBIT EBITDA, which is earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization.
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Assume that you have computed the value of a rm, using discounted cash ow models. Rank the following multiples in the order of magnitude from lowest to highest? Value/EBIT Value/EBIT(1-t) Value/FCFF Value/EBITDA What assumption(s) would you need to make for the Value/EBIT(1-t) ratio to be equal to the Value/FCFF multiple?
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V0 = FCFF0
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In this case of MCI there is a big difference between the FCFF and short cut measures. For instance the following table illustrates the appropriate multiple using short cut measures, and the amount you would overpay by if you used the FCFF multiple.
Free Cash Flow to the Firm = EBIT (1-t) - Net Cap Ex - Change in Working Capital = 3356 (1 - 0.36) + 1100 - 2500 - 250 = $ 498 million $ Value Correct Multiple FCFF $498 31.28382355 EBIT (1-t) $2,148 7.251163362 EBIT $ 3,356 4.640744552 EBITDA $4,456 3.49513885
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1. The multiple can be computed even for rms that are reporting net losses, since earnings before interest, taxes and depreciation are usually positive. 2. For rms in certain industries, such as cellular, which require a substantial investment in infrastructure and long gestation periods, this multiple seems to be more appropriate than the price/earnings ratio. 3. In leveraged buyouts, where the key factor is cash generated by the rm prior to all discretionary expenditures, the EBITDA is the measure of cash ows from operations that can be used to support debt payment at least in the short term. 4. By looking at cashows prior to capital expenditures, it may provide a better estimate of optimal value, especially if the capital expenditures are unwise or earn substandard returns. 5. By looking at the value of the rm and cashows to the rm it allows for comparisons across rms with different nancial leverage.
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Enterprise Value Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt - Cash = EBITDA Earnings before Interest, Taxes and Depreciation
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FCFF1 V0 = WACC - g
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Now the Value of the rm can be rewritten as, EBITDA (1- t) + Depr (t) - Cex - ! Working Capital Value = WACC - g Dividing both sides of the equation by EBITDA,
Value (1- t) Depr (t)/EBITDA CEx/EBITDA ! Working Capital/EBITDA = + EBITDA WACC- g WACC -g WACC - g WACC - g
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A Simple Example
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In this case, the Value/EBITDA multiple for this rm can be estimated as follows:
(1- .36) .10 -.05 + (0.2)(.36) 0.3 0 = 8.24 .10 -.05 .10 - .05 .10 - .05
Value = EBITDA
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Company Name KLLM Trans. Svcs. Ryder System Rollins Truck Leasing Cannon Express Inc. Hunt (J.B.) Yellow Corp. Roadway Express Marten Transport Ltd. Kenan Transport Co. M.S. Carriers Old Dominion Freight Trimac Ltd Matlack Systems XTRA Corp. Covenant Transport Inc Builders Transport Werner Enterprises Landstar Sys. AMERCO USA Truck Frozen Food Express Arnold Inds. Greyhound Lines Inc. USFreightways Golden Eagle Group Inc. Arkansas Best Airlease Ltd. Celadon Group Amer. Freightways Transfinancial Holdings Vitran Corp. 'A' Interpool Inc. Intrenet Inc. Swift Transportation Landair Services CNF Transportation Budget Group Inc Caliber System Knight Transportation Inc Heartland Express Greyhound CDA Transn Corp Mark VII Coach USA Inc US 1 Inds Inc. Average
Value $ 114.32 $ 5,158.04 $ 1,368.35 $ 83.57 $ 982.67 $ 931.47 $ 554.96 $ 116.93 $ 67.66 $ 344.93 $ 170.42 $ 661.18 $ 112.42 $ 1,708.57 $ 259.16 $ 221.09 $ 844.39 $ 422.79 $ 1,632.30 $ 141.77 $ 164.17 $ 472.27 $ 437.71 $ 983.86 $ 12.50 $ 578.78 $ 73.64 $ 182.30 $ 716.15 $ 56.92 $ 140.68 $ 1,002.20 $ 70.23 $ 835.58 $ 212.95 $ 2,700.69 $ 1,247.30 $ 2,514.99 $ 269.01 $ 727.50 $ 83.25 $ 160.45 $ 678.38 $ 5.60
EBITDA Value/EBITDA $ 48.81 2.34 $ 1,838.26 2.81 $ 447.67 3.06 $ 27.05 3.09 $ 310.22 3.17 $ 292.82 3.18 $ 169.38 3.28 $ 35.62 3.28 $ 19.44 3.48 $ 97.85 3.53 $ 45.13 3.78 $ 174.28 3.79 $ 28.94 3.88 $ 427.30 4.00 $ 64.35 4.03 $ 51.44 4.30 $ 196.15 4.30 $ 95.20 4.44 $ 345.78 4.72 $ 29.93 4.74 $ 34.10 4.81 $ 96.88 4.87 $ 89.61 4.88 $ 198.91 4.95 $ 2.33 5.37 $ 107.15 5.40 $ 13.48 5.46 $ 32.72 5.57 $ 120.94 5.92 $ 8.79 6.47 $ 21.51 6.54 $ 151.18 6.63 $ 10.38 6.77 $ 121.34 6.89 $ 30.38 7.01 $ 366.99 7.36 $ 166.71 7.48 $ 333.13 7.55 $ 28.20 9.54 $ 64.62 11.26 $ 6.99 11.91 $ 12.96 12.38 $ 51.76 13.11 $ (0.17) NA 5.61
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A Test on EBITDA
Ryder System looks very cheap on a Value/EBITDA multiple basis, relative to the rest of the sector. What explanation (other than misvaluation) might there be for this difference?
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While low value/EBITDA multiples may be a symptom of undervaluation, a few questions need to be answered:
Is the operating income next year expected to be signicantly lower than the EBITDA for the most recent period? (Price may have dropped) Does the rm have signicant capital expenditures coming up? (In the trucking business, the life of the trucking eet would be a good indicator) Does the rm have a much higher cost of capital than other rms in the sector? Does the rm face a much higher tax rate than other rms in the sector?
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The multiple of value to EBITDA varies widely across rms in the market, depending upon:
how capital intensive the rm is (high capital intensity rms will tend to have lower value/EBITDA ratios), and how much reinvestment is needed to keep the business going and create growth how high or low the cost of capital is (higher costs of capital will lead to lower Value/EBITDA multiples) how high or low expected growth is in the sector (high growth sectors will tend to have higher Value/EBITDA multiples)
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R Square .34 0
a. Predictor s: ( Constant), Reinvestment Rate, Expected Gr owth in Revenues: next 5 years, Eff Tax Rat e
Co ef fici entsa,b Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 B (Constant) Eff T ax Rate Expected G rowth in Revenues: next 5 year s Reinvestment Rate a. Dependent Va riable: EV /EBITDA b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap 10. 073 -.152 .907 -.015 Std. Er ror .768 .022 .039 .006 -.174 .563 -.062 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta t 13.121 -6.878 23.464 -2.420 Sig. .00 0 .00 0 .00 0 .01 6
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Coefficientsa,b Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 (Constant) Mar ket Debt t o Capital Reinv Ra te Tax Rat e B 8.419 .58 9 -.051 -.152 Std. Er ror 1.2 79 .021 .009 .029 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .511 -.099 -.095 t 6.580 28. 035 -5.472 -5.236 Sig. .00 0 .00 0 .00 0 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: EV/EBITDA b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - Weig hted by Marke t Capitalization
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The price/book value ratio is the ratio of the market value of equity to the book value of equity, i.e., the measure of shareholders equity in the balance sheet. Price/Book Value = Market Value of Equity Book Value of Equity Consistency Tests:
If the market value of equity refers to the market value of equity of common stock outstanding, the book value of common equity should be used in the denominator. If there is more that one class of common stock outstanding, the market values of all classes (even the non-traded classes) needs to be factored in.
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Dening the return on equity (ROE) = EPS0 / Book Value of Equity, the value of equity can be written as:
P0 = BV 0 * ROE * Payout Ratio * (1 + gn ) r-gn
If the return on equity is based upon expected earnings in the next time period, this can be simplied to,
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The price-book value ratio of a stable rm is determined by the differential between the! return on equity and the required rate of return on its projects.
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The Price-book ratio for a high-growth rm can be estimated beginning with a 2-stage discounted cash owg)n % model: " (1+
' EPS0 * Payout Ratio * (1 + g) * $ 1 ! # (1+ r) n & EPS0 * Payout Ratio n * (1+ g)n *(1+ g n ) P0 = + r -g (r - g n )(1+ r) n
where
ROE = Return on Equity in high-growth period ROEn = Return on Equity in stable growth period
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Assume that you have been asked to estimate the PBV ratio for a rm which has the following characteristics: High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase Length of Period 5 years Forever after year 5 Return on Equity 25% 15% Payout Ratio 20% 60% Growth Rate .80*.25=.20 .4*.15=.06 Beta 1.25 1.00 Cost of Equity 12.875% 11.50% The riskfree rate is 6% and the risk premium used is 5.5%.
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3.5
Ratios Value
Price/Book
1.5
0.5
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Regressing PBV ratios against ROE for banks yields the following regression: PBV = 0.81 + 5.32 (ROE) R2 = 46% For every 1% increase in ROE, the PBV ratio should increase by 0.0532.
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Bank Banca di Roma SpA Commerzbank AG Bayerische Hypo und Vereinsbank AG Intesa Bci SpA Natexis Banques Populaires Almanij NV Algemene Mij voor Nijver Credit Industriel et Commercial Credit Lyonnais SA BNL Banca Nazionale del Lavoro SpA Banca Monte dei Paschi di Siena SpA Deutsche Bank AG Skandinaviska Enskilda Banken Nordea Bank AB DNB Holding ASA ForeningsSparbanken AB Danske Bank AS Credit Suisse Group KBC Bankverzekeringsholding Societe Generale Santander Central Hispano SA National Bank of Greece SA San Paolo IMI SpA BNP Paribas Svenska Handelsbanken AB UBS AG Banco Bilbao Vizcaya Argentaria SA ABN Amro Holding NV UniCredito Italiano SpA Rolo Banca 1473 SpA Dexia
Actual 0.60 0.74 0.82 1.12 1.12 1.17 1.20 1.20 1.22 1.34 1.36 1.39 1.40 1.42 1.61 1.66 1.68 1.69 1.73 1.83 1.87 1.88 2.00 2.12 2.15 2.18 2.21 2.25 2.37 2.76
Predicted 1.03 1.10 1.09 1.22 1.20 1.27 1.31 1.17 1.47 1.39 1.73 1.68 1.54 1.70 1.80 1.82 1.57 2.45 1.74 1.39 2.20 1.69 1.80 1.97 1.69 2.03 2.10 1.65 1.69 1.61
Under or Over -41.33% -32.86% -24.92% -8.51% -6.30% -7.82% -8.30% 2.61% -16.71% -3.38% -21.40% -17.32% -9.02% -16.72% -10.66% -9.01% 7.20% -30.89% -0.42% 31.37% -15.06% 11.15% 11.07% 7.70% 27.17% 7.66% 5.23% 36.23% 39.74% 72.04%
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Given the relationship between price-book value ratios and returns on equity, it is not surprising to see rms which have high returns on equity selling for well above book value and rms which have low returns on equity selling at or below book value. The rms which should draw attention from investors are those which provide mismatches of price-book value ratios and returns on equity - low P/BV ratios and high ROE or high P/BV ratios and low ROE.
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MV/BV
ROE-r
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Price to Book vs ROE: Largest Market Cap Firms in the United States: September 2003
20 SAP DE LL
G PFE EBAY DAZN Q COM AMAT BSX GS K O RCL MMM MDT WMT BMY JNJ K MB ABN SC 0 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 PG MRK MO FNM UL
BUD
10
PBV Ratio
70
ROE
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12
TelAzteca
10
TelNZ Carlton
Vimple
Cable&W
AsiaSat HongKong
2
APT CallNet Anonima
TelIndo TelPeru
Televisas
0 0 10 20 30 40 50 60
ROE
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16 14 12 10
BUD G PFE O RCL MMM PG UL MRK MDT WMT D QCOM T SM AMAT EBAY
PBV R atio
8 6 4 2 70 60 50 40
FNM MB K FRE SC 30 20
AOL V IA/B 1 2 3 4
ROE
10 0
Regressio n Beta
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10.00
50.00%
9.00
40.00%
8.00 30.00%
7.00 20.00%
6.00
Return on Equity Price to Book
-10.00% 3.00
-20.00% 2.00
1.00
-30.00%
0.00 1983 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991 Year PBV ROE 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
-40.00%
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a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Square measures the proportion of the variability in the dependent varia ble about the origin explained by regre ssion. This CANNOT b e compared to R Squar e for models which include an intercept. b. Predictors: ROE, R egr ession B eta, PAYOU T, Expected Growth in EPS: next 5 year s
Co effici entsa,b,c Unstandardized Coefficients Mode l 1 B Expected G rowth in EPS: next 5 years PAYOUT Regr ession B eta ROE a. Dependent Va riable: PBV Ratio b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin c. Weighted Least Squares R egre ssion - Weig hted by Marke t Cap 8.E-02 2.E-03 .599 .140 Std. Error .00 4 .00 1 .04 2 .00 3 Standar dized Coefficients Beta .256 .017 .151 .628 t 21.93 5 1.551 14.24 9 50.73 1 Sig. .000 .121 .000 .000
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a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Squar e mea sur es the prop or tion of the va riability in the depende nt variable about the origin explained by regression. This CA NNOT be compare d to R Square for models which include an inter cept. b. Predictors: ROE, Payout Ra tio, B ETA
Coefficientsa ,b,c Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 Payout Ratio BE TA ROE B 8.E-03 1.399 .10 4 Std. Er ror .002 .114 .004 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .074 .291 .537 t 3.667 12. 279 28. 148 Sig. .00 0 .00 0 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PB V b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin c. Weighted Least Squares R egre ssion - Weighted by Marke t Capitalization
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a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept m odel) , R Square mea sur es the proportion of the va riability in the d ependent va riable about the origin explained b y regression. This CANNOT be compared to R Square f or models which include an inter cept. b. Predictors: ROE, Payout Ratio, BETA
Coefficientsa ,b Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 Payout Ratio BE TA ROE B 5.E-03 .80 5 9.E-02 Std. Er ror .001 .088 .003 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .076 .213 .579 t 4.148 9.164 29. 414 Sig. .00 0 .00 0 .00 0
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Mode l 1
R Sq uare a .664
a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Square mea sur es the prop or tion of the va riability in the depende nt va riable about the origin explained b y regression. This CANNOT be compare d to R Square for models which include an intercept. Co ef fici entsa,b,c,d b. Predictors: B ETA, ROE
Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 B ROE BE TA .189 .973 Std. Er ror .007 .073 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .597 .276 t 28.912 13.359 Sig. .00 0 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PBV b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin c. Weighted Least Square s R egression - Weighted by Mar ket Capitalization d. Selecting only cases for which Net Income > 0
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While the price to book ratio is a equity multiple, both the market value and the book value can be stated in terms of the rm. Value/Book Value = Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt Book Value of Equity + Book Value of Debt
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To see the determinants of the value/book ratio, consider the simple free cash ow to the rm model:
FCFF1 V0 = WACC - g
V0 ROC - g = BV WACC - g
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The value/BV ratio for this rm can be estimated as follows: Value/BV = (.12 - .05)/(.10 - .05) = 1.40 The effects of ROC on growth will increase if the rm has a high growth phase, but the basic determinants will remain unchanged.
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R Square .575
a. Predictors: ( Constant), Market Debt to Cap ital, Expected Growth in Revenues: next 5 years, ROC
Co ef fici entsa,b Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 B (Constant) Expected G rowth in Revenues: next 5 year s ROC Marke t Debt to Capital 3.041 1.E-02 9.E-02 -.066 Std. Er ror .133 .008 .004 .003 .026 .446 -.473 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta t 22.838 1.3 30 22.992 -23.04 Sig. .00 0 .18 4 .00 0 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: Value/BV of Capital b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap
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The price/sales ratio is the ratio of the market value of equity to the sales. Price/ Sales= Market Value of Equity Total Revenues Consistency Tests
The price/sales ratio is internally inconsistent, since the market value of equity is divided by the total revenues of the rm.
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500
400
300
200
100
0 <0.1 0.10.2 0.20.3 0.30.4 0.40.5 0.5- 0.75-1 1-1.25 1.25- 1.5- 1.75-2 2-2.5 2.5-3 3-3.5 3.5-4 0.75 1.5 1.75 4-5 5-10 >10
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The price/sales ratio of a stable growth rm can be estimated beginning with a 2-stage equity valuation model:
P0 = DPS1 r ! gn
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" (1+ g) % ' EPS0 * Payout Ratio * (1 + g) * $ 1 ! # (1+ r) n & EPS0 * Payout Ratio n * (1+ g)n *(1+ g n ) P0 = + r -g (r - g n )(1+ r) n
When the growth rate is assumed to be high for a future period, the dividend discount model can be written as follows: n
n ' " * $ 1 ! (1+ g) % Net Margin * Payout Ratio * (1+ g)* ) # P0 (1+ r)n & Net Marginn * Payout Ratio n * (1+ g) n *(1 + gn ) , = + , Sales 0 ) r -g (r - gn )(1 + r)n ) , ( +
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The key determinant of price-sales ratios is the prot margin. A decline in prot margins has a two-fold effect.
First, the reduction in prot margins reduces the price-sales ratio directly. Second, the lower prot margin can lead to lower growth and hence lower pricesales ratios. Expected growth rate = Retention ratio * Return on Equity = Retention Ratio *(Net Prot / Sales) * ( Sales / BV of Equity) = Retention Ratio * Prot Margin * Sales/BV of Equity
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Length of Period Net Margin Sales/BV of Equity Beta Payout Ratio Expected Growth Riskless Rate =6%
' " * (1.20)5 % 0.10 * 0.2 * (1.20) * $ 1 ! ) # (1.12875)5 & 0.06 * 0.60 * (1.20) 5 * (1.06) , PS = ) + , = 1.06 (.12875 - .20) (.115 -.06) (1.12875) 5 ) , ( +
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1.6
1.4
1.2
PS Ratio
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
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Regressing PS ratios against net margins, PS = -.39 + 0.6548 (Net Margin) R2 = 43.5% Thus, a 1% increase in the margin results in an increase of 0.6548 in the price sales ratios. The regression also allows us to get predicted PS ratios for these rms
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One of the limitations of the analysis we did in these last few pages is the focus on current margins. Stocks are priced based upon expected margins rather than current margins. For most rms, current margins and predicted margins are highly correlated, making the analysis still relevant. For rms where current margins have little or no correlation with expected margins, regressions of price to sales ratios against current margins (or price to book against current return on equity) will not provide much explanatory power. In these cases, it makes more sense to run the regression using either predicted margins or some proxy for predicted margins.
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30
PKSI 20 LCOS INTM SCNT MQST CNET 10 NETO SPLN ONEM -0 PSIX EDGR INTW RAMP CSGP CLKS BIZZ FATB RMII ABTL TURF ALOY INFO PPOD GSVI ATHY IIXL AMZN ITRA ACOM EGRP ANET TMNT GEEK ELTX BUYX ROWE CBIS MMXI FFIV ATHM DCLK NTPA SONEPCLN SPYG
A d j P S
APNT BIDS
-0.8
-0.6 AdjMargin
-0.4
-0.2
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This is not surprising. These rms are priced based upon expected margins, rather than current margins.
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Solution 1: Use proxies for survival and growth: Amazon in early 2000
Hypothesizing that rms with higher revenue growth and higher cash balances should have a greater chance of surviving and becoming protable, we ran the following regression: (The level of revenues was used to control for size)
PS = 30.61 - 2.77 ln(Rev) + 6.42 (Rev Growth) + 5.11 (Cash/Rev) (0.66) (2.63) (3.49)
R squared = 31.8% Predicted PS = 30.61 - 2.77(7.1039) + 6.42(1.9946) + 5.11 (.3069) = 30.42 Actual PS = 25.63 Stock is undervalued, relative to other internet stocks.
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You can always estimate price (or value) as a multiple of revenues, earnings or book value in a future year. These multiples are called forward multiples. For young and evolving rms, the values of fundamentals in future years may provide a much better picture of the true value potential of the rm. There are two ways in which you can use forward multiples:
Look at value today as a multiple of revenues or earnings in the future (say 5 years from now) for all rms in the comparable rm list. Use the average of this multiple in conjunction with your rms earnings or revenues to estimate the value of your rm today. Estimate value as a multiple of current revenues or earnings for more mature rms in the group and apply this multiple to the forward earnings or revenues to the forward earnings for your rm. This will yield the expected value for your rm in the forward year and will have to be discounted back to the present to get current value.
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Global Crossing lost $1.9 billion in 2001 and is expected to continue to lose money for the next 3 years. In a discounted cashow valuation (see notes on DCF valuation) of Global Crossing, we estimated an expected EBITDA for Global Crossing in ve years of $ 1,371 million. The average enterprise value/ EBITDA multiple for healthy telecomm rms is 7.2 currently. Applying this multiple to Global Crossings EBITDA in year 5, yields a value in year 5 of
Enterprise Value in year 5 = 1371 * 7.2 = $9,871 million Enterprise Value today = $ 9,871 million/ 1.1385 = $5,172 million (The cost of capital for Global Crossing is 13.80%) The probability that Global Crossing will not make it as a going concern is 77% and the distress sale value is only a $ 1 billion (1/2 of book value of assets). Adjusted Enterprise value = 5172 * .23 + 1000 (.77) = 1,960 million
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a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Square measures the proport ion of the variability in the dependent varia ble about the origin explained by regre ssion. This CANNOT be compared to R Squar e for models which include an intercept. b. Predictors: Net Mar gin, Regression Beta, PAYOUT, Expe cted Growth in EPS: Co efficiyears next 5 entsa,b,c
Unstandardized Coefficients Mode l 1 B Expected G rowth in EPS: next 5 years PAYOUT Regr ession B eta Net Margin a. Dependent Va riable: PS_RATIO b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin 4.E-02 -.011 .549 .234 Std. Error .00 4 .00 1 .04 3 .00 4
Standar dized Coefficients Beta .136 -.110 .156 .799 t 10.19 5 -9.425 12.65 8 59.92 6 Sig. .000 .000 .000 .000
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a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept m odel) , R Sq uare measures the proportion of the variab ility in the dependent varia ble about the origin explained by regression. This CANNO T be compar ed to R Square for models which include an intercept. b. Predictors: Net Mar gin, Payout Ra tio, BETA Coefficientsa ,b,c
Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 Payout Ratio BE TA Net Margin B 5.E-03 .93 7 .11 0 Std. Er ror .002 .095 .004 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .065 .261 .516 t 2.777 9.909 26. 153 Sig. .00 6 .00 0 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PS b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin c. Weighted Least Squares R egre ssion - Weighted by Marke t Capitalization
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Mode l 1
R Sq uare a .696
a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Square measures the proport ion of the variability in the depen dent variable abou t the origin explaine d by re gression. This CANNOT be compared to R Squar e for models which include an intercept. b. Predictors: Net Mar gin, Payout Ra tio, BETA Coefficientsa ,b,c
Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 Payout Ratio BE TA Net Margin B 7.E-03 .14 2 .14 3 Std. Er ror .001 .087 .003 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .083 .030 .766 t 4.962 1.631 47. 061 Sig. .00 0 .10 3 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PS b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin c. Selecting only cases for which Ne t Income > .00
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Mode l 1
R Sq uare .519
Coefficientsa ,b,c Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 (Constant) Net Margin Payout Ratio B 2.E-02 .24 3 8.E-03 Std. Er ror .081 .007 .002 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .737 .079 t .242 34. 627 3.719 Sig. .80 8 .00 0 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PS b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighted by Mar ket Capitalization c. Selecting only cases for which Ne t Income > 0
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The value/sales ratio is the ratio of the market value of the rm to the sales. Value/ Sales= Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt-Cash Total Revenues
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If pre-tax operating margins are used, the appropriate value estimate is that of the rm. In particular, if one makes the assumption that
Free Cash Flow to the Firm = EBIT (1 - tax rate) (1 - Reinvestment Rate)
Then the Value of the Firm can be written as a function of the after-tax operating margin= (EBIT (1-t)/Sales
n ( + " % (1 + g) *(1 - RIRgrowth)(1 + g) * $1 ! n' n (1 + WACC) & Value (1 - RIR stable)(1 + g) * (1 + g n ) # * = After - tax Oper. Margin * + * Sales 0 WACC - g (WACC - g n )(1 + WACC) n * ) ,
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Consider, for example, the Value/Sales ratio of Coca Cola. The company had the following characteristics:
After-tax Operating Margin =18.56% Sales/BV of Capital = 1.67 Return on Capital = 1.67* 18.56% = 31.02% Reinvestment Rate= 65.00% in high growth; 20% in stable growth; Expected Growth = 31.02% * 0.65 =20.16% (Stable Growth Rate=6%) Length of High Growth Period = 10 years Cost of Equity =12.33% E/(D+E) = 97.65% After-tax Cost of Debt = 4.16% D/(D+E) 2.35% Cost of Capital= 12.33% (.9765)+4.16% (.0235) =12.13%
( + " (1.2016)1 0 % * (1- .65)(1.2016)* $1! 10' 10 Value of Firm 0 (1- .20)(1.2016) * (1.06) # (1.1213) & * = .1856* + = 6.10 * Sales 0 .1213- .2016 (.1213- .06)(1.1213)1 0 * ) ,
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VVTV
MBAY
TOO BFCI
SCC
TLB PCCC V / S a l e s SATH WSM JWL ORLY ZLC LTD AZO IPAR ANN ZQK PIR RAYS MDLK MENS MNRO CAO ROST PSS DBRN WLSN TWMC DAP AEOS BKE IBI MDA PSUN PLCE CLE FOSL
CWTR MIKE LE LIN SCHS GBIZ ITN PGDA PBY CHRS GADZ FINL HMY FNLY SPGLA ZANY MLG
0.5 MTMC ANIC CELL FLWS ROSI MHCO -0.0 MSEL VOXX JILL SAH PSRC GDYS RET.TO
-0.000
0.150
0.225
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You have been hired to value Coca Cola for an analyst reports and you have valued the rm at 6.10 times revenues, using the model described in the last few pages. Another analyst is arguing that there should be a premium added on to reect the value of the brand name. Do you agree? Yes No Explain.
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One of the critiques of traditional valuation is that is fails to consider the value of brand names and other intangibles. The approaches used by analysts to value brand names are often ad-hoc and may signicantly overstate or understate their value. One of the benets of having a well-known and respected brand name is that rms can charge higher prices for the same products, leading to higher prot margins and hence to higher price-sales ratios and rm value. The larger the price premium that a rm can charge, the greater is the value of the brand name. In general, the value of a brand name can be written as:
Value of brand name ={(V/S)b-(V/S)g }* Sales (V/S)b = Value of Firm/Sales ratio with the benet of the brand name (V/S)g = Value of Firm/Sales ratio of the rm with the generic product
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AT Operating Margin Sales/BV of Capital ROC Reinvestment Rate Expected Growth Length Cost of Equity E/(D+E) AT Cost of Debt D/(D+E) Cost of Capital Value/Sales Ratio
Coca Cola 18.56% 1.67 31.02% 65.00% (19.35%) 20.16% 10 years 12.33% 97.65% 4.16% 2.35% 12.13% 6.10
Generic Cola Company 7.50% 1.67 12.53% 65.00% (47.90%) 8.15% 10 yea 12.33% 97.65% 4.16% 2.35% 12.13% 0.69
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Value of Cokes Brand Name= ( 6.10 - 0.69) ($18,868 million) = $102 billion Value of Coke as a company = 6.10 ($18,868 million) = $ 115 Billion Approximately 88.69% of the value of the company can be traced to brand name value
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a. Predictors: ( Constant), Expected G rowth in Revenue s: next 5 year s, After-tax Oper ating Ma rgin, Mar ket Debt t o Capital
Co ef fici entsa,b Unstandardized Coefficie nts Mode l 1 (Constant) After-tax Oper ating Margin Marke t Debt to Capital Expected G rowth in Revenues: next 5 year s a. Dependent Va riable: EV /Sales b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap B 1.252 .135 -.043 8.E-02 Std. Er ror .118 .004 .003 .009 Standardized Coefficie nts Be ta .605 -.300 .175 t 10.576 32.945 -14.99 8.7 56 Sig. .00 0 .00 0 .00 0 .00 0
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As presented in this section, there are dozens of multiples that can be potentially used to value an individual rm. In addition, relative valuation can be relative to a sector (or comparable rms) or to the entire market (using the regressions, for instance) Since there can be only one nal estimate of value, there are three choices at this stage:
Use a simple average of the valuations obtained using a number of different multiples Use a weighted average of the valuations obtained using a nmber of different multiples Choose one of the multiples and base your valuation on that multiple
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This procedure involves valuing a rm using ve or six or more multiples and then taking an average of the valuations across these multiples. This is completely inappropriate since it averages good estimates with poor ones equally. If some of the multiples are sector based and some are market based, this will also average across two different ways of thinking about relative valuation.
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In this approach, the estimates obtained from using different multiples are averaged, with weights on each based upon the precision of each estimate. The more precise estimates are weighted more and the less precise ones weighted less. The precision of each estimate can be estimated fairly simply for those estimated based upon regressions as follows: Precision of Estimate = 1 / Standard Error of Estimate where the standard error of the predicted value is used in the denominator. This approach is more difcult to use when some of the estimates are subjective and some are based upon more quantitative techniques.
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This is usually the best way to approach this issue. While a range of values can be obtained from a number of multiples, the best estimate value is obtained using one multiple. The multiple that is used can be chosen in one of two ways:
Use the multiple that best ts your objective. Thus, if you want the company to be undervalued, you pick the multiple that yields the highest value. Use the multiple that has the highest R-squared in the sector when regressed against fundamentals. Thus, if you have tried PE, PBV, PS, etc. and run regressions of these multiples against fundamentals, use the multiple that works best at explaining differences across rms in that sector. Use the multiple that seems to make the most sense for that sector, given how value is measured and created.
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When a rm is valued using several multiples, some will yield really high values and some really low ones. If there is a signicant bias in the valuation towards high or low values, it is tempting to pick the multiple that best reects this bias. Once the multiple that works best is picked, the other multiples can be abandoned and never brought up. This approach, while yielding very biased and often absurd valuations, may serve other purposes very well. As a user of valuations, it is always important to look at the biases of the entity doing the valuation, and asking some questions:
Why was this multiple chosen? What would the value be if a different multiple were used? (You pick the specic multiple that you want to see tried.)
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One of the advantages of running regressions of multiples against fundamentals across rms in a sector is that you get R-squared values on the regression (that provide information on how well fundamentals explain differences across multiples in that sector). As a rule, it is dangerous to use multiples where valuation fundamentals (cash ows, risk and growth) do not explain a signicant portion of the differences across rms in the sector. As a caveat, however, it is not necessarily true that the multiple that has the highest R-squared provides the best estimate of value for rms in a sector.
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Managers in every sector tend to focus on specic variables when analyzing strategy and performance. The multiple used will generally reect this focus. Consider three examples.
In retailing: The focus is usually on same store sales (turnover) and prot margins. Not surprisingly, the revenue multiple is most common in this sector. In nancial services: The emphasis is usually on return on equity. Book Equity is often viewed as a scarce resource, since capital ratios are based upon it. Price to book ratios dominate. In technology: Growth is usually the dominant theme. PEG ratios were invented in this sector.
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As a general rule of thumb, the following table provides a way of picking a multiple for a sector
Multiple Used PE, Relative PE PEG Rationale Often with normalized earnings Big differences in growth across rms PS, VS Assume future margins will be good VEBITDA Firms in sector have losses in early years and reported earnings can vary depending on depreciation method P/CF Generally no cap ex investments from equity earnings PBV Book value often marked to market PS If leverage is similar across rms VS If leverage is different
Sector Cyclical Manufacturing High Tech, High Growth High Growth/No Earnings Heavy Infrastructure
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The conventional approach to using multiples is to look at the sector or comparable rms. Whether sector or market based multiples make the most sense depends upon how you think the market makes mistakes in valuation
If you think that markets make mistakes on individual rm valuations but that valuations tend to be right, on average, at the sector level, you will use sectorbased valuation only, If you think that markets make mistakes on entire sectors, but is generally right on the overall market level, you will use only market-based valuation At the sector level, use multiples to see if the rm is under or over valued at the sector level At the market level, check to see if the under or over valuation persists once you correct for sector under or over valuation.
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A Test
You have valued Earthlink Networks, an internet service provider, relative to other internet companies using Price/Sales ratios and nd it to be under valued almost 50% .When you value it relative to the market, using the market regression, you nd it to be overvalued by almost 50%. How would you reconcile the two ndings? One of the two valuations must be wrong. A stock cannot be under and over valued at the same time. It is possible that both valuations are right. What has to be true about valuations in the sector for the second statement to be true?
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Cost of Debt
Estimating Default Risk Estimating an after-tax cost of debt
Cost of Capital
Estimating a Debt Ratio
Estimating Cash Flows Completing the Valuation: Depends upon why and for whom the valuation is being done.
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Most models of risk and return (including the CAPM and the APM) use past prices of an asset to estimate its risk parameters (beta(s)). Private rms and divisions of rms are not traded, and thus do not have past prices. Thus, risk estimation has to be based upon an approach that does not require past prices
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Collect a group of publicly traded comparable rms, preferably in the same line of business, but more generally, affected by the same economic forces that affect the rm being valued.
A Simple Test: To see if the group of comparable rms is truly comparable, estimate a correlation between the revenues or operating income of the comparable rms and the rm being valued. If it is high (and positive), of course, your have comparable rms.
If the private rm operates in more than one business line collect comparable rms for each business line
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Estimate the average beta for the publicly traded comparable rms. Estimate the average market value debt-equity ratio of these comparable rms, and calculate the unlevered beta for the business. unlevered = levered / (1 + (1 - tax rate) (Debt/Equity)) Estimate a debt-equity ratio for the private rm, using one of two assumptions:
Assume that the private rm will move to the industry average debt ratio. The beta for the private rm will converge on the industry average beta.
private rm = unlevered (1 + (1 - tax rate) (Optimal Debt/Equity)) Estimate a cost of equity based upon this beta.
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Accounting Betas
Step 1: Collect accounting earnings for the private company for as long as there is a history. Step 2: Collect accounting earnings for the S&P 500 for the same time period. Step 3: Regress changes in earnings for the private company against changes in the S&P 500. Step 4: The slope of the regression is the accounting beta There are two serious limitations (a) The number of observations in the regression is small (b) Accountants smooth earnings.
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Comparable rms Levered Beta Unlevered Beta Baseball rms (2) 0.70 0.64 Sports rms (22) 0.98 0.90 Entertainment rms (91) 0.87 0.79 Management target Levered Beta for Yankees = 0.90 ( 1 + (1-.4) (.25)) = 1.04 Cost of Equity = 6.00% + 1.04 (4%) = 10.16%
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The beta of a rm measures only market risk, and is based upon the assumption that the investor in the business is well diversied. Given that private rm owners often have all or the bulk of their wealth invested in the private business, would you expect their perceived costs of equity to be higher or lower than the costs of equity from using betas? Higher Lower
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Adjust the beta to reect total risk rather than market risk. This adjustment is a relatively simple one, since the correlation with the market measures the proportion of the risk that is market risk.
Total Beta = Market Beta / Correlation with market
In the New York Yankees example, where the market beta is 0.85 and the Rsquared for comparable rms is 25% (correlation is therefore 0.5),
Total Unlevered Beta = 0.90/0. 5= 1.80 Total Levered Beta = 1.80 (1 + (1-0.4)(0.25)) =2.07 Total Cost of Equity = 6% + 2.07 (4%)= 14.28%
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Under which of the following scenarios are you most likely to use the total risk measure: when valuing a private rm for an initial public offering when valuing a private rm for sale to a publicly traded rm when valuing a private rm for sale to another private investor Assume that you own a private business. What does this tell you about the best potential buyer for your business?
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Basic Problem: Private rms generally do not access public debt markets, and are therefore not rated. Most debt on the books is bank debt, and the interest expense on this debt might not reect the rate at which they can borrow (especially if the bank debt is old.)
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Solution 1: Assume that the private rm can borrow at the same rate as similar rms (in terms of size) in the industry.
Cost of Debt for Private rm = Cost of Debt for similar rms in the industry
Solution 2: Estimate an appropriate bond rating for the company, based upon nancial ratios, and use the interest rate estimated bond rating.
Cost of Debt for Private rm = Interest Rate based upon estimated bond rating (If using optimal debt ratio, use corresponding rating)
Solution 3: If the debt on the books of the company is long term and recent, the cost of debt can be calculated using the interest expense and the debt outstanding.
Cost of Debt for Private rm = Interest Expense / Outstanding Debt If the rm borrowed the money towards the end of the nancial year, the interest expenses for the year will not reect the interest rate on the debt.
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For the Yankees, we will use the interest rate from the most recent loans that the rm has taken on:
Interest rate on debt = 7.00% After-tax cost of debt = 7% (1-.4) = 4.2%
For InfoSoft, we will use the interest coverage ratio estimated using the operating income and interest expenses from the most recent year:
Interest coverage ratio = EBIT/ Interest expenses = 2000/315 = 6.35 Rating based upon interest coverage ratio = A+ Interest rate on debt = 6% + 0.80% = 6.80% After-tax cost of debt = 6.80% (1-.35) = 4.42%
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Basic problem: The debt ratios for private rms are stated in book value terms, rather than market value. Furthermore, the debt ratio for a private rm that plans to go public might change as a consequence of that action. Solution 1: Assume that the private rm will move towards the industry average debt ratio.
Debt Ratio for Private rm = Industry Average Debt Ratio
Solution 2: Assume that the private rm will move towards its optimal debt ratio.
Debt Ratio for Private rm = Optimal Debt Ratio
Consistency in assumptions: The debt ratio assumptions used to calculate the beta, the debt rating and the cost of capital weights should be consistent.
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Cost of Equity E/ (D+E) Cost of Debt AT Cost of Debt D/(D+E) Cost of Capital
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Shorter history: Private rms often have been around for much shorter time periods than most publicly traded rms. There is therefore less historical information available on them. Different Accounting Standards: The accounting statements for private rms are often based upon different accounting standards than public rms, which operate under much tighter constraints on what to report and when to report. Intermingling of personal and business expenses: In the case of private rms, some personal expenses may be reported as business expenses. Separating Salaries from Dividends: It is difcult to tell where salaries end and dividends begin in a private rm, since they both end up with the owner.
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If any of the expenses are personal, estimate the income without these expenses. Estimate a reasonable salary based upon the services the owner provides the rm.
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Net Home Game Receipts Road Receipts Concessions & Parking National TV Revenues Local TV Revenues National Licensing Stadium Advertising Other Revenues Total Revenues
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Player Salaries Team Operating Expenses Player Development Stadium & Game Operations$ Other Player Costs G & A Costs Broadcasting Rent & Amortization Total Operating Expenses
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Total Revenues Total Operating Expenses EBIT Adjustments Adjusted EBIT Taxes (at 40%) EBIT (1-tax rate)
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We will assume a 3% growth rate in perpetuity for operating income. To generate this growth, we will assume that the Yankees will earn 20% on their new investments. This yields a reinvestment rate of Reinvestment rate = g/ ROC = 3%/20% = 15% Estimated Free Cash Flow to Firm
$ 44,008,200 6,601,230 $ 37,406,970
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Once you have estimated the cash ows and the cost of capital, you can value a private rm using conventional methods. If you are valuing a rm for sale to a private business,
Use the total beta and the cost of equity emerging from that to estimate the cost of capital. Discount the cash ows using this cost of capital
If you are valuing a rm for an initial public offering, stay with the market beta and cost of capital.
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What if?
We are assuming that the Yankees have to reinvest to generate growth. If they can get the city to pick up the tab, the value of the Yankees can be estimated as follows:
FCFF = EBIT (1-t) - Reinvestment = $44.008 mil - 0 = $ 44.008 million Value of Yankees = 44.008*1.03/(.1226 - .03) = $ 489 million
If on top of this, we assume that the buyer is a publicly traded rm and we use the market beta instead of the total beta
FCFF = $ 44.008 million Cost of capital = 8.95% Value of Yankees = 44.008 (1.03) / (.0895 - .03) = $ 761.6 million
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InfoSoft: A Valuation
Current Cashflow to Firm Reinvestment Rate EBIT(1-t) : 2,933 106.82% - Nt CpX 2,633 - Chg WC 500 = FCFF <200> Reinvestment Rate = 106.82% Expected Growth in EBIT (1-t) 1.1217*.2367 = .2528 25.28% Return on Capital 23.67% Stable Growth g = 5%; Beta = 1.20; D/(D+E) = 6.62%;ROC=17.2% Reinvestment Rate=29.07% Terminal Value10 = 6743/(.1038-.05) = 125,391 Firm Value: + Cash: - Debt: =Equity 73,909 500 4,583 69,826 EBIT(1t) - Reinv FCFF 3675 3926 -251 4604 4918 -314 5768 6161 -393 7227 7720 -493 9054 9671 -617 9507 2764 6743
Beta 1.29
Risk Premium 4%
Historical US Premium 4%
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The value of equity that we have arrived at for Infosoft is $69.5 million. If you plan to have 10 million shares outstanding, estimate the value per share? Would this also be your offering price? If not, why not?
Would you answer be different, if the initial offering were for only 1 million shares - the owners will retain the remaining 9 million for subsequent offerings?
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Valuation Motives and the Next Step in Private Company Valuation: Control and Illiquidity
If valuing a private business for sale (in whole or part) to another individual (to stay private), it is necessary that we estimate
a illiquidity discount associated with the fact that private businesses cannot be easily bought and sold a control premium (if more than 50% of the business is being sold) the effects of creating different classes of shares in the initial public offer the effects of options or warrants on the issuance price per share
If valuing a business for sale (in whole or part) to a publicly traded rm, there should be no illiquidity discount, because stock in the parent rm will trade but there may, however, be a premium associated with the publicly traded rm being able to take better advantage of the private rms strengths
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In private company valuation, illiquidity is a constant theme that analysts talk about. All the talk, though, seems to lead to a rule of thumb. The illiquidity discount for a private rm is between 20-30% and does not vary across private rms.
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Type of Assets owned by the Firm: The more liquid the assets owned by the rm, the lower should be the illiquidity discount for the rm Size of the Firm: The larger the rm, the smaller should be the percentage illiquidity discount. Health of the Firm: Healthier rms should sell for a smaller discount than troubled rms. Cash Flow Generating Capacity: Firms which are generating large amounts of cash from operations should sell for a smaller discounts than rms which do not generate large cash ows. Size of the Block: The liquidity discount should increase with the size of the portion of the rm being sold.
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Rank the following assets (or private businesses) in terms of the liquidity discount you would apply to your valuation (from biggest discount to smallest) A New York City Cab Medallion A small privately owned ve-and-dime store in your town A large privately owned conglomerate, with signicant cash balances and real estate holdings. A large privately owned ski resort that is losing money
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Restricted securities are securities issued by a company, but not registered with the SEC, that can be sold through private placements to investors, but cannot be resold in the open market for a two-year holding period, and limited amounts can be sold after that. Restricted securities trade at signicant discounts on publicly traded shares in the same company.
Maher examined restricted stock purchases made by four mutual funds in the period 1969-73 and concluded that they traded an average discount of 35.43% on publicly traded stock in the same companies. Moroney reported a mean discount of 35% for acquisitions of 146 restricted stock issues by 10 investment companies, using data from 1970. In a recent study of this phenomenon, Silber nds that the median discount for restricted stock is 33.75%.
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Silber (1991) develops the following relationship between the size of the discount and the characteristics of the rm issuing the registered stock
LN(RPRS) = 4.33 +0.036 LN(REV) - 0.142 LN(RBRT) + 0.174 DERN + 0.332 DCUST where, RPRS = Relative price of restricted stock (to publicly traded stock) REV = Revenues of the private rm (in millions of dollars) RBRT = Restricted Block relative to Total Common Stock in % DERN = 1 if earnings are positive; 0 if earnings are negative; DCUST = 1 if there is a customer relationship with the investor; 0 otherwise;
Interestingly, Silber nds no effect of introducing a control dummy - set equal to one if there is board representation for the investor and zero otherwise.
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The Silber regression does provide us with a sense of how different the discount will be for a rm with small revenues versus one with large revenues. Consider, for example, two protable rms that are equal in every respect except for revenues. Assume that the rst rm has revenues of 10 million and the second rm has revenues of 100 million. The Silber regression predicts illiquidity discounts of the following:
For rm with 100 million in revenues: 44.5% For rm with 10 million in revenues: 48.9% Difference in illiquidity discounts: 4.4%
If your base discount for a rm with 10 million in revenues is 25%, the illiquidity discount for a rm with 100 million in revenues would be 20.6%.
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35.00%
30.00%
Discount as % of Value
25.00%
20.00%
15.00%
10.00%
5.00%
0.00% 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 100 200 300 400 500 1000 Revenues Profitable firm Unprofitable firm
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To estimate the illiquidity discount for the Yankees, we assume that the base discount for a firm with $10 million in revenues would be 25%. The Yankees revenues of $209 million should result in a lower discount on their value. We estimate the difference in the illiquidity discount between a firm with $10 million in revenue and $209 million in revenue to be 5.90%. To do this, we first estimated the illiquidity discount in the Silber equation for a firm with $10 million in revenues. Expected illiquidity discount = 48.94% We then re-estimated the illiquidity discount with revenues of $ 209 million: Expected illiquidity discount = 43.04% Difference in discount = 48.94% - 43.04% = 5.90% The estimated illiquidity discount for the Yankees would therefore be 19.10%, which is the base discount of 25% adjusted for the illiquidty difference.
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The bid ask spread is the difference between the price at which you can buy a security and the price at which you can sell it, at the same point. In other words, it is the illiqudity discount on a publicly traded stock. Studies have tied the bid-ask spread to
the size of the rm the trading volume on the stock the degree
Regressing the bid-ask spread against variables that can be measured for a private rm (such as revenues, cash ow generating capacity, type of assets, variance in operating income) and are also available for publicly traded rms offers promise.
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X
Size of company
Takeover Restrictions
Access to Funds
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In private rms, control usually becomes an issue when you consider how much to pay for a private rm.
You may pay a premium for a badly managed private rm because you think you could run it better. The value of control is directly related to the discount you would attach to a minority holding (<50%) as opposed to a majority holding. The value of control also becomes a factor in how much of an ownership stake you will demand in exchange for a private equity investment.
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Eisner Enterprises is a poorly-managed rm that is expected to generate $ 10 million in after-tax cashows in perpetuity (if run by existing management) and is all-equity funded with a cost of equity of 10%. Estimate the status quo value:
If you believe that you can improve the after-tax cashows to $ 12 million a year in perpetuity and that you could lower the cost of capital to 8% by moving to a higher debt ratio. Estimate the optimal value for Eisner Enterprises.
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Assume that, based upon your assessment of takeover defenses in the rm, you estimate that there is a 40% probability that management in Eisner Enterprises will change. If there are 10 million shares outstanding in the rm, estimate the value per share?
What do you think will happen to the value per share if another rm in the same industry is the target of a hostile acquisition?
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Assume that Eisner Enterprises has 5 million voting shares and 5 million nonvoting shares. If the probability of control changing remains 40% and nonvoting shares are completely unprotected, estimate the value per voting and non-voting share:
Value per non-voting share = Value per voting share =
If the incumbent managers own 35% of the voting shares, will your assessment of the value per voting share change? If so, why? If not, why not?
Aswath Damodaran
225
When a rm is badly managed, the market still assesses the probability that it will be run better in the future and attaches a value of control to the stock price today:
Status Quo Value + Probability of control change (Optimal - Status Quo Value) Number of shares outstanding With voting shares and non-voting shares, a disproportionate share of the value of control will go to the voting shares. In the extreme scenario where non-voting shares are completely unprotected: Value per non - voting share = Status Quo Value # Voting Shares + # Non - voting shares Probability of control change (Optimal - Status Quo Value) # Voting Shares
Aswath Damodaran
226
Studies that compare the prices of traded voting shares against the prices of traded non-voting shares, to examine the value of the voting rightsconclude that while the voting shares generally trade at a premium over the nonvoting shares, the premium is small.
Lease, McConnell and Mikkelson (1983) nd an average premium of only 5.44% for the voting shares. (There are similar ndings in DeAngelo and DeAngelo (1985) and Megginson (1990)) These studies have been critiqued for underestimating the value of control, because the probability of gaining control by acquiring these voting shares is considered low for two reasons - rst, a substantial block of the voting shares is often still held by one or two individuals in many of these cases, and second, the prices used in these studies are based upon small block trades, which are unlikely to give the buyer majority control.
Aswath Damodaran
227
Assume now that Eisner Enterprises is a private rm. If you were bidding for 100% of Eisner Enterprises, what is the maximum you would be willing to bid?
Aswath Damodaran
228
When you get a controlling interest in a private rm (generally >51%, but could be less), you would be willing to pay the appropriate proportion of the optimal value of the rm. When you buy a minority interest in a rm, you will be willing to pay the appropriate fraction of the status quo value of the rm. For badly managed rms, there can be a signicant difference in value between 51% of a rm and 49% of the same rm. This is the minority discount. If you own a private rm and you are trying to get a private equity or venture capital investor to invest in your rm, it may be in your best interests to offer them a share of control in the rm even though they may have well below 51%.
Aswath Damodaran
229