Infosys 6th August Slot Analysis, Questions

and Answers
This document covers Test Slot Analysis, Important Topics, and Actual Questions (with
solutions) of the Infosys 2023 Pass-Outs System Engineer Online Test that was conducted on
6th August, 2022. For 2023 pass-outs who are participating in the Infosys Recruitment on 6th
August and 7th August, 2023, this Ready Reckoner will be of great help.

Table of Content
TEST PATTERN & ANALYSIS

INFOSYS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FROM 6th August, 202 2

SECTION I: REASONING ABILITY
SECTION II: TECHNICAL ABILITY TEST (MATHEMATICAL & LOGICAL REASONING)
SECTION III : VERBAL ABILITY
SECTION IV: PSEUDO CODING TEST
SECTION V : PUZZLES

TEST PATTERN & ANALYSIS

This was the test pattern that appeared for the 2023 pass-outs, who took up the test on 6th
August 2023.

Here are key take-aways that were observed by test-takers who took up the test on 6th August,
2023.

1. No inter sectional or intra sectional navigation.

2. Every question was mandatory.
3. You cannot go back and change the answer for a Question.
4. The entire test was web-proctored.
5. No negative marking.
6. 6.Q types –Multiple ChoiceQuestion (MCQ), Fill in the blank and Multiple Answer
Question(MAQ).
7. Most questions carried 1 mark unless specified otherwise (Pseudocode –2 marks/ Q, Puzzles
–2 or 3 marks/ Q)
8. For MAQ –full marks only if all correct and no incorrect options marked. Partial marks
ifsome correct and no incorrect options marked.
9. A large no. of questions did repeat between test-takers in the same slot (order changed).
There were newer questions too.

10. There is expected to be sectional cut-off, for sure. And it is expected to be relative
depending on test-takers’ performance across slots and colleges. Thus, it is advisable for
students to do as well as possible and answer as many questions right as possible.
11. Most test-takers found Pseudocoding and Puzzles to be challenging. That was primarily
because they got stuck in 1 or 2 questions that were hard.
12. Studentsare advised not to get stuck on any 1 question for too long.

IMPORTANT TOPICS

Reasoning Ability:

1. Data Sufficiency
2. Data Interpretation
3. Deductive Reasoning
a. Logical Deduction
b. Syllogisms

Technical Ability Test (Mathematical and Logical):

1. Coding and Decoding

2. Number Series
3. Permutation, Combination and Probability
4. Ratios and Proportions
5 questions were from Data Arrangements (Seating or Circular or Distributed Arrangement)
While the following topics did not have many questions amongst test-takers, it’s advisable to
prepare for them as well.

1. Cryptarithmetic
2. Time and Work
3. Time Speed and Distance
4. Profit and Loss
5. Averages
6. Algebra
Verbal Ability:

1. Critical Reasoning
2. English Corrective Usage –This had Sentence Completion questions on Vocabulary,
Phrasal Verbs, Parallelism, Tenses etc.
3. English Error Correction –Most questions were based on Tenses
4. English Error Identification –This covered most of the common error types like Parallelism,
Modifiers, Pronoun Agreement, Prepositions, Tenses etc.
5. Reading Comprehension (Most test-takers had 1 passage of 5 questions)

Pseudocoding:

1. Programming Logic
2. Object Oriented Programming
3. Pseudocode based puzzles
4. Time Complexity/ Data Structures

Numerical Puzzles:

1. Number-based grid puzzles

2. Generic Number puzzles
3. Even aptitude questions from Profit and Loss, Blood Relations played a part here
INFOSYS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FROM 6 th Aug, 2022

SECTION I: REASONING ABILITY

Questions 1: Following are the conditions for selecting a Deputy Finance Manager in a
well-known finance company. The candidats
i) Be at least 28 years and not more than 32 years old as on 01.12.2021,
ii) Have completed MBA in finance with first class division
iii) Have cleared at least CFA level II.
 iv) Have work experience of 4 years as a Senior Financial Analyst.
In the case candidate full all the condition except:
a) At i) above, if a candidate is below 28 years but has cleared CFA Level Ill then his/her case is to
be referred to General Manager.
b) At iii) above, if a candidate has cleared CFA Level 1 but has a work experience of 7 years and
above, then his/her Vice President .
In question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following
courses of action based on and mark the number of that course of action as your answer All
these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2021 .

Q. Chetan has completed his MBA in Finance with first division and has been working as
Senior Financial Analyst from the last 8 years after clearing CFA level I. Born on 1 Jan 1990.

a) The Candidate is to be referred to General Manager

b) The candidate is to be referred to Vice President
c) The Candidate is not selected
d) The Candidate is selected

Answer - B
Solution: As he have not cleared level II hence iii) condition not fulfilling but he have 8 years of
experience so from the exception case b) he will be referred to Vice President.

Question 2: P and Q are the sisters and M-N are the couple. N is the brother of T who is the
son of P. O is the daughter of N. How is P related to O?
a. Maternal grandmother
b. Paternal grandmother
c. Paternal aunt
d. Mother

Answer:- paternal grandmother

From the given,

P and Q are sisters—-(i)
M and N are couple—-(ii)
N is the brother of T—-(iii)
T is the son of P —--(iv)
O is the daughter of N —--(v)

Inferring the above statements,

From (iii), we know N is T’s brother, so N’s gender is male.
From (i) we know P and Q are sister, so P is a female.
From (iv) we know P is T’s mother
T and N are siblings, so T’s mother is also N’s mother.
Therefore P is N’s mother.
From (v) O is the daughter of N
Therefore P who is the mother of N will be the paternal grandmother of O is who is the daughter of
N.

3. Find the figure which will come at the place of the question mark ?

Options:
A. b
B. a
C. d
D. c

Solution: Option D (figure C)

In row 1:
Considering the Square it shifts from Top left to Top medium and then to Top right
Considering the Circle it moves clockwise from bottom right corner to bottom left then to top
left corner.
Considering arrow it moves anti clockwise and is rotated 45 degrees after evry movement.

In row 2:
Considering the Square its pattern is same as of in row 1 but here it shifts from Middle left to
Middle Middle and then to Middle right
Considering the arrow the position in row 2 it is same in all three blocks.
Considering the circle it is moving anti clock-wise

In row 3:
Considering the Square its pattern is same ass of row 1 but here it shifts from Bottom left
corner to Bottom middle and then to Bottom right corner.
Considering the Circle it is moving clockwise direction starting from Top left corner to Top
right corner then to Bottom right Corner.
And, finally considering the arrow it is moving in anti-clockwise direction with a rotation of 45
degrees. So the position of arrow goes from Top right corner to Top middle and then to Top left
Corner.

Therefore theimage which will replace question mark is Image C (Option D)

4. Which figure is the odd man out?

 A. b
B. c
C. e
D. a
E. D

Solution: Options C (none of the figure other than E is not intersecting each other)

Question 5: Aman was born two years after his father’s marriage. His mother is 5 years
younger than his father, but 18 years older than Aman who is 8 years old. At what age does
his father get married?

A. 0 years
B. 21 years
C. 23 years
D. 22 years

Solution:
Let father’s age be x
Father age when Aman is born: x + 2
Mothers Age = x - 5
When Aman is born Mother’s age: x - 5 + 2 = x- 3
At present Mother is 18 year older than Aman who is 8 years old, which makes mother’s present
age = 28
Which means when aman was born his mother’s age is 18 which is also equals to x - 3
So
x- 3 = 18
X = 18 + 3
X = 21
Hence his fathers age was 21 when he got married.

Question 6. Deduce the conclusion from the below statements:

I. All illusions are fraud.
II. All fraud are shadows
III. No shadow is witch
Conclusion:
I. All illusionist are shadows..
II. Some fraud are witch.
III. All illusionist are witch
IV. Some witch are illusionist.
Solution: Conclusion I follows.

Question: 7 Deduce the conclusion from the below statements:

Statements:
I. All shadows are walls.
II. Some walls are rooms
III. Some rooms are Windows.

Conclusion:
I. Some windows are walls.
II. Some windows are shadow.

A. Both I & II follows

B. Only conclusion I follows
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows

Solution: Neither I nor II follows

8. Find the missing term in the following series:
MN, PQ, TU, ___, EF

A. YZ
B. ZA
C. XY
D. WX
Solution: YZ

M+1 = N , Skipping O
P+ 1= Q, Skipping RS
T+1 = U, Skipping VWX
Y+1= Z , Skipping ABCD

9. If P @ Q means , P is the mother of Q;’P $ Q’ P is the husband of Q,’ P # Q means ‘ P is the

sister of Q ; P*Q means ‘ P is the son of Q, then which of the following indicated that X is the wife
of Y?
A. Y#X@Z*W
B. X@Z#W*Y
C. X@Z*W#Y
D..X#Z*W$Y

Solution: B
X@Z = X is the mother of Z.
Z#W = Z is the sister of W
W*Y = W is son of Y
Z & W are siblings. Hence X is the Wife of Y.

10. Complete the following series:

DT, HQ, LN, PK, ?
A. TH
B. UH
C. HT
D. TI
Solution:
D+4 = H
H+4 = L
L+4 = P
P+4 = T

H+3 = K
K+3 = N
N+3 = Q
Q+3 = T
Answer - A

Question 11: P is 4m south of Q, S is 7m north of U, which is 5m west of Q. T is 8m east of R,

which is 10m north of P. What is the shortest distance between T & P?
A. sqr(164)m
B. sqr(100)m
C. sqr(154)m
D. sqr(167)m

Solution: Ans sqr(164)m

Question 12: In the question given below there are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and
Reason (R) mark your answer as per the codes in options

Assertion (A) The probability of getting a prime number on throwing a dice is 1/2
Reason (R) There are 3 prime numbers on one throw of a dice.

A. A is true but R is false

B. A is false but R is true
C. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Solution: Answer is D, as both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A because
there are 3 prime numbers in a single throw of dice & the probability of getting 3 prime numbers
out of 6 is ⅓.

Question 13: If P means addition, Q means subtraction, R means multiplication 7 S means

division. What is the value of the following expression ?

64 P 48 S 8 Q 18 P 7 R 13
A. 143
B. 113
C. 123
D. 133

Solution : According to BODMAS.

= 64+48/8-18+7x13
= 64 + 6 - 18 + 91
= 161 - 18
= 143

Question 14: In the question, one statement is given, followed by two assumptions, I and II. You
have to consider the statement to be true
Statement: To learn more about stock market investment you can refer to the book by Walter
White.

Assumption 1: The book by Walter White is available.

Assumption 2: There is no other book on stock marketing.

A. Only 1 is implicit
B. Only 2 is implicit
C. Neither 1 nor 2 is implicit
D. Both 1 and 2 are implicit

Answer: Option C, Neither 1 nor 2 is implicit.

Solution: The statement only talking about the referring of stock market investment book by Walter
White, this does not conclude either nooks are available or no other book available for stock
market.

Question 15: If A is written as 2, B is written as 4, C as 6, D as 2, E as 4 and so on, then what will

be the sum of the letters in TRANSPORT ?

A. 36
B. 32
C. 28
D. 30

Solution:

T=4
R=6
A=2
N=4
S=2
P=2
O=6
R=6
T=4

Total will be 36

Question 16: In the question given below there are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and
Reason (R) mark your answer as per the codes in options

Assertion (A) It is colder on a hill than on a plane

Reason (R) Pressure is inversely proportional to temperature and directly proportional to altitude..

A. A is true but R is false

B. A is false but R is true
C. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Solution:
Option A (A is true but R is false)
Both the statements are not dependent on each other , also R is not the reasoning for A.

Question 17: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answers.

Question: What is the volume of the sphere?

Statement I: The number of cone formed on melting the sphere was equal to the diameter of the
square.
Statement II: The radius of each cone is 7 cm and the height of the cone is twice its radius.

A. Both I and II together are sufficient.

B. Neither I nor II is sufficient
 C. If alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient.
D. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient.

Solution:
Neither I nor II is sufficient.
As from Statement I we are not getting any dimension and from Statement II we are not able to
determine the number of cones.

Question 18:- Following are the conditions for selecting a candidate for MBA in a top college- The
candidate must:
Be more than 25 years of age on 1 December 2021.
Be a 10th pass with minimum 85% marks.
Be a 12th pass in any discipline with minimum 80% marks
Have secured minimum 75% in Group Discussion.
Have secured a minimum 70% in Personal Interview. In the case of candidate who fulfills all the
conditions except
At iii) above, but has secured at least 7D in class 12th with science stream,his/her case is to be
referred to department head of MBA
At v) above, but has secured at least 65% in Personal Interview, his/her case is to be referred to
the admission committee.

In the question below, details of one course of actions based on the conditions given above and
mark the number of that course of action as answer. All these cases are given to you at 82% in
12th science stream and 88% in 10th class. He scored 65% in personal interview and 75% in
Group Discussion. He was born on on 28th April 1998

please provide your response below

A. The candidate is selected.
B. The candidate is not selected.
C. The case is referred to the department head of MBA.
D. The case is referred to the Admission Committee.

Solution: The candidate is not selected for Top MBA colleges because he do not full fill the Age
criteria of being more than 25 years.
Question 19:
Statement : M > N > O < Z < E > F > G
Conclusion : G < E
Conclusion : M > Z

A. Neither I nor II follows

B. Both I & II follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only I follows
Solution: Only I follows
As E> F & F> G
=> G < E

Question 20: If ‘+’ means ‘x’, ‘-’ means ‘/’ & ‘x’ means ‘+’ and ‘/’ means ‘-’ , then which of the
following equations would be correct ?

A. 21 - 7 / 4 x 11 / 7 = 17
B. 21 / 7 x 4 + 11 - 7 = 10
C. 21 x 7 + 4 / 11 - 7 = 15
D. 21 - 7 + 4 x 11 / 7 = 16

Solution: Option D

Solving this option wise.

Taking option a into consideration
21 - 7/ 4 x 11/ 7 = 17
(after changing the signs ATQ)
21/ 7 - 4 + 11 - 7 = 17
=> 3 - 4 + 11 - 7 = 17
=> 10 - 7 = 17
=> 3 ≠ 17
So, option A is not correct.
.
Taking option b into consideration
21/ 7 x 4 + 11 - 7 = 10
(after changing the signs ATQ)
21 - 7 + 4 x 11/ 7 = 10
=> (21 - 7 + 4 x 11) / 7 = 10
=> 198/ 7 = 10
=> 28 ≠ 10
So, option B is not correct.

Taking option c into consideration

21 x 7 + 4/ 11 - 7 = 15
(after changing the signs ATQ)
21 + 7 x 4 - 11/ 7 = 15
=> (21 + 7 x 4 - 11)/ 7 = 15
=> 101/ 7 = 17
=> 14.42 ≠ 15
So, option C is not correct.

Taking option d into consideration

21 - 7 + 4 x 11/ 7 = 16
(after changing the signs ATQ)
21/ 7 x 4 + 11 - 7 = 16
=> 3 x 4 + 11 - 7 = 16
=> 23 - 7 = 16
=> 16 = 17
So, option D is correct.

Question 21: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answers.

Question: What will ‘TELEGRAM’ be coded as?

Statement I: In the same code language ‘WHATSAPP’ is coded as ‘7’
Statement II: In the same code language ‘RANGER’ is coded as ‘5’

A. Both I and II together are sufficient.

B. Neither I nor II is sufficient
C. If alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient.
 D. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient.

Solution:
Both I and II together are sufficient. Because Statement I can be solved as WHATSAPP contains
8 letters, so 8-1 = 7
Similarly for RANGER, 6-1 = 5
Hence TELEGRAM will be, 8- 1 = 7
Thus we are using both statements to solve the question.

Question 22: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and give answers.

Question: In which direction Akshay’s home from his office?

Statement I: Akshay took a right turn from his home. Walked 25 m, again turned right and walked
14 km and finally turned left and walked 25 m to reach his office.
Statement II: Akshay’s home and office are 14 kms away

A. Both I and II together are sufficient.

B. Neither I nor II is sufficient
C. If alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient.
D. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient.

Solution: Neither I or II sufficient because neither statement is talking about direction.

Question 23: The data of total number of people in different cities of a country and percentage of
females is given in the table. What is the respective ratio of the females in City C to the number of
females in City E?

Cities Total number of people Percentage of females

A 840000 45

B 220000 35

C 900000 23
 D 360000 65

E 450000 44

F 540000 40

A. 25: 29
B. 23: 22
C. 22: 23
D. 12: 15

Solution:
Number of females in City C: 900000 * (23/100) = 207000
Number of females in City E: 450000 * (44/100) = 198000

207000: 198000
207: 198
23: 22

Question 24: In the question a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have
to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusion, if nay follows from the given statement.
Statement:

Statement: Most of the IITians are brilliant. Niraj is brilliant.

Conclusion I: Niraj is an IITian.
Conclusion II: Some IITians are not brilliant.

A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

B. Both conclusion I and II follow.
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Only Conclusion I follows.
Solution: Only Conclusion II follows because it is not mentioned that whether Niraj is brilliant or
not.

Question 25: In the question a statement is given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You have
to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statement.
Statement:

Statements:
I. Only a few people are caring.
II. No acting is intelligent.
III. Some stupid are people.
Conclusion:
I. Some caring are not stupid.
II. Some people being intelligent is a possibility.

A. Neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II possible

B. Both Conclusion I &II possible
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Only conclusion I follows

Solution:

Question 26: Three of the following options are alike in a certain way 7 one is different. Find the
odd man out.
 A. KPS
B. TRI
C. MRU
D. DIL
Solution:
K+5 = P
P+3 = S
Similarly,
M+5 = R
R+3 = U
Similarly,
D+5= I
I+3 = L

But TRI does not follow any such pattern, hence this is an odd man out.

Question 27: In the question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusion I, II, III.
You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any from the given statements.

Statement I: Nail Polish is cosmetic.

Statement II: No cosmetic is powder
Statement III: Some powders are medicine.

Conclusion I: Some powder are cosmetics

Conclusion II: Some medicines are nail polishes.
Conclusion III: Some cosmetics are nail polishes.

A. Both conclusion I and II follow

B. Only conclusion III follows
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Only conclusion I follows

Solution: Only Conclusion III follows as others are contradicting with the statements.
Question 28: The question below consists of the following statements. Answer the following on the
basis of this. How is Vikram related to Ankur?

I. Suman who is the wife of Ankur is also the daughter-in-law of kriti. Vikram is the son of kirti.
II. Vikram is married to shikha and has a daughter named Avika. Shikha is the sister of Jyoti.

A. The data in statement I is alone to answer the question while data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in both statements I & II is necessary to answer the question.
C. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer while data in statement I alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
D. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.

Solution:

Question 29: Direction: The question below consist of a question and two statements numbered I
and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in which of the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Find the capacity of the JAR.

I. One- ninth of a jar is filled with sugar syrup.

II. 27 liters of sugar syrup is withdrawn from the jar and jar has no sugar syrup left.

A. The data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in II alone
is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data either in I alone or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. The data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in I alone
is not sufficient to answer the question.
D. The data in both I alone or II alone together is necessary to answer the question.
Solution:

The data in both I alone or II alone together is necessary to answer the question.
As From II we can conclude 1/9 of jar is 27 liters
Hence total capacity will be 27*9 = 243
SECTION II: TECHNICAL ABILITY TEST (MATHEMATICAL &
LOGICAL REASONING)

Question 1:- Among seven persons Amit, Bablu, Chaman, Dablu, Erica, Farhan and Gautam,
who are of different ages, Gautam is younger than only Dablu and Erica. Farhan is younger to
Bablu and older than Amit. Erica is not the eldest and Chaman is the youngest. Who is the
fourth oldest?
 a. Chaman
b. Bablu
c. Farhan
d. Dablu

Ans: Gautam is younger than only Dablu and Erica => Gautam < Dablu, Erica
Farhan is younger to Bablu and older than Amit. => Amit < Farhan < Bablu
Erica is not the eldest => Erica < ______ . This makes the first statement =>
Gautam < Erica < Dablu
Chaman is the youngest => Chaman < Everybody else

The series from Youngest to oldest is :

Chaman < Amit < Farhan < Bablu < Gautam < Erica < Dablu

Therefore, the fourth oldest is : Bablu

Question 2:- When a bike is sold for Rs. 70,000, the owner loses 30%. At what price it should
be sold in order to gain 14%

1. Rs. 86,000
2. Rs. 1,26,000
3. Rs. 84,000
4. Rs. 1,14,000

Ans: First we will find CP.

If SP is Rs. 70 then CP = Rs 100

If SP is Rs. 70,700, then CP =

Now, if CP is Rs 100, then SP = Rs. 114

Thus, if CP is Rs. 1,00,000, then SP =

Question 3: - Out of the given options, three are similar in a certain manner. However, 1 option
is not like the other options. Select the options which are different from the rest.
 1. Grapes
2. Watermelon
3. Apple
4. Radish

Ans: All the other options except Radish are fruits, whereas Radish is a vegetable.

Question 4: - If ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘*’, ‘*’ means ‘/’ and ‘/’ means ‘+’, then which of the following
equations is correct.

1. 131+ 5 - 55 * 11 / 25 = 141
2. 208+ 8+ 112*16 - 5 = 64
3. 50 + 44 / 11 * 1 - 1 = 17
4. 25 - 6 * 15 + 150 / 2 = 35

Ans: 131 - 5 * 55 /11 +25 = 131

208 -8 -112 / 16 * 5 = 165
50 - 44 + 11 /1 * 1 = 17
25 * 6 /15 - 150 + 2 = -138

Question 5 : - Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second
term is related to the first term. TSQR:POMN :: KJHI : ?

a. GEDF
b. GFED
c. GFDC
d. GFDE

Here the first term is written as a reversed pair(TS) followed by the preceding pair (QR). Next the
second term is written as per the preceding alphabetic pairs. (PO) reverse pair followed by (MN)
preceding pair.
Similarly the third word is written as a reversed pair(KH) followed by the preceding pair (HI). Next
the fourth term is written as per the preceding alphabetic pairs. (GF) reverse pair followed by (DE)
preceding pair.
Question 6 :- Select the pair that is related to the pair mentioned in the question. INSOMNIA :
BJONPTOJ ::?

1. JACKPOT : UPQJDBI
2. LOGISTIC : DJUTJHPM
3. PRODUCT : UDWENSQ
4. TRADITION : USBEJUJPO

Here the word INSOMNIA is written in + 1 pattern and then reversed.

INSOMNIA - JOTPNOJB and after reversing it becomes BJONPTOJ.

Similarly, LOGISTIC will be initially written as MPHJTUJD and later will become DJUTJHPM after
reversing the letters.

Question 7 : - If ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘/’ means ‘+’, ‘-’ means ‘*’, ‘*’ means ‘/’. Which of the following will be
the value of the expression? 75 * 25 + 22 / 36?

a. 7
b. 37
c. 27
d. 17

Ans: The correct equation is : 75/25-22+36

According to BODMAS, we will divide first , therefore the answer is 3 -22 + 36 = 17

Question 8 - 40 persons can complete a project in 15 days, working 8 hours a day. When will the
project be completed when the work starts on 2nd August and 30 men are working for 10 hours a
day.

1. 11th august
2. 16th august
3. 17th august
4. 14th august
Ans: The work requires 40 men * 8 hours * 15 days = 4800 man-hour-days.
Man1 * Hour1 * Day1 = Man2 * Hour2 * Day2
4800 = 30 * 10 * Day2
Day2 = 16

Work started on 2nd August, so work will be completed after 16 days, i.e, 17th August.

Question 9 :- What is the missing term in the given series : U, S, P, L G , ?

a. D
b. C
c. A
d. B

Ans: The series goes in the form of -2, -3, -4, -5,....
Therefore, the next term will be G-6= A.

Question 10: - If 2nd March 2021, falls on a Saturday, then on which day will 2nd March 2025 fall?

a. Saturday
b. Wednesday
c. Thursday
d. Friday

2nd March 2021 = Saturday

2022 = 365/7 = 1
2023 = 365/7 = 1
2024 = 366/7 = 2
2025 = 365/7 = 1

Saturday + ( 1+1+2+1) = Saturday + 5 = Thursday

Question 11 : - A mother said to her daughter, “At the time of your birth, I was as old as you”. If
the mother’s age is 46 years now, what will be the daughter’s age after 5 years?
 a. 18
b. 33
c. 28
d. 23

Ans: Let current age of daughter be x

Current age of mother = 46
46 years ago, age of mother = x = 46-x
2x = 46
x = 23

After 5 years, daughter’s age will be 23 + 5 = 28

Question 12 : - If P @ Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’, ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is the husband of Q’, ‘P #

Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’, ‘P*Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’, then which of the following
indicates X is the wife of Y?

a. X#Z*W$Y
b. X@Z*W#Y
c. X@Z#W*Y
d. Y#X@Z*W

Ans: here X @ Z # W * Y indicates X is the mother of Z, Z is the sister of W and W is the son
of Y which concludes that X i s the mother of Zand W and wife of Y.

Question 13 :- Arrange the following words according to their rank in the dictionary. 1. BRAIN, 2.
BOW, 3. BOSS, 4. BOWL, 5. BOUNCE

1. 35241
2. 32451
3. 35421
4. 41352

Ans: Step 1: Since B is common in all the words, we will move to the second letter. The second
letters are R, O, O, O, O
We know that BRAIN will be the last word

Step 2: Since the second letter is common in all the remaining words, we will move to the third
letter. The third letters are W, S, W, U
The first word will be BOSS
The second word will be BOUNCE
The third word will be BOW, since it is a three letter word
The fourth word will be BOWL
The fifth word will be BRAIN

The order is : 35241

Question 14: - Study the following information and answer the given question:-

6U7Y8X@Q9L%SV3F2K15Z&4C?D. What is the product of the numbers between X and Z.

1. 210
2. 270
3. 280
4. 180

Ans: The numbers between X and Z are : 9, 3, 2,1, 5

Product = 9 * 3 * 2 * 1 * 5 = 270

Question 15: -Study the following series of sets of numbers and answer the question below.
364 297 752 425 683, if each number is multiplied by 3 , then what is the multiplication of 3rd digit
of the highest number and 2nd digit of the lowest number.

1. 42
2. 45
3. 36
4. 48

If each number is multiplied by 3, the highest result will be of 752, and the lowest will be of 297
752 * 3 = 2256
297 * 3 = 891

Multiplying third digit of highest number (5) and second digit of lowest number (9),
we get 5 * 9 = 45

Question 16 - the state bank of india has a opening for the position of branch manager in kolkata
branch. The candidate must be

1. Be a postgraduate from any discipline with 80% marks.

2. Be between 30 to 45 old as on 03/04/2021
3. Must have an experience of over 2 years as an assistant manager in a bank.
4. Must have cleared IBPS Po exam with minimum 95 percentile marks.

The following exceptions apply :-

1. If a candidate meets all other criteria except 4 above, the candidate will be referred to the
manager.
2. A candidate whose age is above 45 years but has scored above 90% marks in
postgraduation will be referred to the regional manager.

Nirmal is working as an assistant manager in ICICI BANK FOR 3 years now . He was born on
10/10/1989. He has completed his mba in the year 2015 with 90 per cent marks. He has also
cleared IBPS PO with 92 percentile.

What should be the decision taken?

1. The candidate should be selected.

2. The candidate should be referred to the regional manager
3. The candidate should be rejected
4. The candidate should be referred to the manager

Ans: Nirmal meets all four criteria, therefore, he should be selected.

Question 17 - Select the correct answer that is related to the third word in the same manner as the
second word is related to the first word.
CVU : BUT ::JUG : ?

1. ITF
2. IMF
3. KMF
4. KTH

Ans: CVU : BUT => Each letter of the second word is one less than the letters of the first word.
Similarly, JUG : ITF

Question 18 - In how many ways the letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’ can be arranged such that
no two vowels are together.

1. 3200
2. 3620
3. 1440
4. 2880

Ans: No 2 vowels together = the only arrangement possible will be V C V C V C V C V (with

V=vowel, C=consonant). This is true as we have 5 vowels and 4 consonants and any other
combination will force us to pair 2 vowels together.

Thus, the number of arrangements possible : 5 *4 *4 *3 *3 *2 *2*1 = 5!*4! = 120 * 24 = 2880

Question 19 - Azhar is the brother of Barkha who is the daughter of shehnaaz. Danish is the father
of Azhar. How is azhar related to shehnaaz?

1. Husband
2. Father
3. Son
4. Brother

Ans: Shehnaaz’s daughter Barkha has a brother Azhar. Therefore, Azhar is Shehnaaz’s son.
Question 20 - Two numbers are respectively 30% and 45% less than a third numbers. Find the
ratio of the two numbers.

1. 2 : 3
2. 14 : 11
3. 14 : 1512 : 13

Ans: 30% of x : 45% of x

= 30 : 45
=2:3

Question 21 - CFUK LSEB QABN KDFC SBVP RTHF. If third and fourth letters of each term are
interchanged, how many such terms are formed that end with a vowel?

a. Three
b. Four
c. One
d. Two

Only two terms are such which will end with a vowel. Let us see the results after interchanging
third and fourth letter.

CFUK -CFKU
LSEB - LSBE
QABN -QANB
KDFC - KDCF
SBVP - SBPV
RTHF - RTFH

Question 22 - Complete the following series OSP, PUN, QWL, RYJ.

1. SAI
2. SBH
3. SCI
4. SAH
The first letter of each term is in the series Q,P, Q, R,S
The second term is in the series of + 1 - S, U, W, Y, A
The third term is in the series of - 1 = P, N, L, J, H
So SAH is the correct term.

Question 23 :- In the question below, assume the given statements to be true, find which of the
following conclusions is are definitely follows.

Statements are

I. A> B> C< D

II.
III.

Conclusions are
I. A>D
II. C<E

1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither I nor II follows
3. Only conclusion I follows
4. Both conclusion I and II follows

Only conclusion II follows the given statement because From 1 we can conclude that A>C<D
which is not sure that A > D. From 2nd statement we can see that
And C<D, therefore it is obvious that

Question 24 :- Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following expression
mathematically correct. 43 - 7 + 72 / 9 * 6 = 2

1. * and /
2. + and /
3. - and *
4. - and +
If we interchange - and +
Then the equation will be - 43 + 7 - 72 / 9 * 6 = 2 and by solving it we will derive the desired
result.

Question 25 - If A mean /, B means -, C means + and D means * then what is the value of the
expression - 26 C 18 B 72 A12 D 4?

1. 24
2. 20
3. 22
4. 30

The given expression will be written as 26 + 18 - 72 / 12 * 4

(USING BODMAS)
= 26 + 18 - 6 *4
=26 + 18 - 24
=44 - 24
=20

Question 26 - Ramesh can do a work in 25 days and Ranesh and Suresh can do the same work
in 15 days. Find the time taken by Suresh to complete the remaining work after they complete half
the work.

a. 75/7 days
b. 75/4 days
c. 75/2 days
d. 12 days

Time taken by Ramesh = 25 days

Time Taken by Suresh = 15 days

Work done = Time * Efficiency

Total work = LCM of 25 and 15 = 75

Total work done together = 75/2
75/15 * 2 = 6 * 2 = 12 days

Suresh can do the remaining work in 12 days

Question 27 - In a certain language, if ‘ACADEMIC’ is coded as ‘DJNFEBDB’ and

‘HYPERSONIC’ is coded as ‘DJOPTSFQZI’, the what is the code for ‘ACCURACY’?

a. ZDBSDVDB
b. ZDBSVDBD
c. ZDBSVDDB
d. ZDBVSDDB

Here the word ACADEMIC is written in + 1 pattern and then reversed.

ACADEMIC- BDBEFNJD and after reversing it becomes DJNFEBDB.

Similarly, ‘HYPERSONIC’ - IZQFSTPOJD and then reversed to form ‘DJOPTSFQZI’.

Similarly, ‘ACCURACY’ will be initially written as BDDVSBDZ and later will become ZDBSVDDB
after reversing the letters.

Question 28: - What least number must be added to 1100 so that the sum is completely divisible
by 27?

a. 1
b. 7
c. 20
d. 34

Ans: When we divide 1100 by 27, we get the remainder as 20.

Hence if we add 20 to 1120, it will be completely divisible by 27.

Question 29:- If ‘$’ means addition, ‘@’ means subtraction, ‘#’ means multiplication and ‘&’ means
division, what is the value of the expression: 96 & 8 # 3 $ 11 @ 3

a. 24
 b. 44
c. 34
d. 54

Ans: This can be rewritten as : 96 / 8 * 3 + 11 - 3 = 12 * 3 + 11 - 3 = 44

Question 30:- On an article, 40% commission is given on the retail price and the shopkeeper
earns a profit of 12%. If the commission is reduced to 30%, what is the shopkeeper’s profit
percentage?

a. 68%
b. 63%
c. 67%
d. 65%

Ans:

Question 31:- Direction : The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered
I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in which the statements are sufficient to
answer from the options based on this. What is the average speed of Rohit?
I. The average speed of Rohit is double that of Ramesh. The average speed of Nikhil is
10km/hr.
II. The average speed of Ramesh is three times the average speed of nIkhil.

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question
4. If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question and
5. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question 32:- Find the missing term in the following series : MN, PQ, TU, _____ , EF
 a. WX
b. XY
c. ZA
d. YZ

Ans: After each word, a space of +1, +2, +3, ….. Is taken
Therefore, after TU, we will skip 3 letters, Then we have the answer YZ.

Question 33:- T P F S D H I B J H M C X V R E W U G K H. In the above arrangement, find the

6th letter to the right of the 16th letter from the right side.

a. S
b. C
c. M
d. H

Ans: 16th letter from the right is : H

6th letter to the right is : C

Question 34:- In the series 6U7Y8X@Q9L%$V3F2K15Z&4C?D, what is the product of numbers

which are between X and Z?

a. 210
b. 270
c. 280
d. 180

Ans: 9 * 3 * 2 * 1 * 5 = 270

Question 35:- If ‘+’ means ‘*’, ‘/’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘+’ and ‘*’ means ‘/’, which of the following will
be the value of the expression? 23 + 3 - 75 * 15 /12

a. 72
b. 74
c. 64
 d. 62

Ans: The expression can be rewritten as : 23 * 3 + 75 / 15 - 12 = 69 + 5 - 12 = 62

Question 36:- If ‘P’ means addition, ‘Q’ means subtraction, ‘R’ means multiplication and ‘S’ means
division, what will be the value of the following expression : 64 P 48 S 8 Q 18 P (7 R 13)

a. 143
b. 113%
c. 123
d. 133

Ans: 64 P 48 S 8 Q 18 P (7 R 13) => 64 + 48 / 8 - 18 + ( 7 * 13 ) = 64 + 6 - 18 + 91 = 143

Question 37:- If ‘+’ means ‘/’, ‘/’ means ‘-’, ‘-’ means ‘*’, ‘*’ means ‘+’. What will be the value of 44 /
64 + 8 - 6 * 16.

a. 24
b. 2
c. 22
d. 12

Ans: This can be rewritten as: 44 - 64 / 8 * 6 + 16 = 44 - 48 + 16 = 12

Question 38:- R # M 3 D $ J 6 M * A % Y 2 F @ U 9 & K N 5. What is the fifth to the right of the

eighth element from the left end of the above arrangement?

a. %
b. F
c. Y
d. 2.0

Ans: Eighth element from the left = 6

Fifth element to its right = %

Question 39:- If 2nd of march 2021 falls on saturday, then on which day will 2nd March 2025 fall?
 1. Wednesday
2. Thursday
3. saturday
4. friday

Question 40:- If A is 14% more than B and C is 20% more than B, then by what percentage is A
more or less than C.

1. 4%
2. 5%
3. 3.7%
4. 4.5%
SECTION III : VERBAL ABILITY
Question 1:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

Oak, in general, is one of the strongest of the common hardwoods of the temperate northern
hemispheres.
a. of the common hardwoods of the
b. Oak, in general is one of the strongest
 c. No error
d. temperate northern hemispheres.

Answer - A

Of the common hardwoods.

While writing a superlative degree adjective in a sentence, it is directly followed by a direct object.
Here, the sentence has used an extra preposition/ article (of the) which can be eliminated.

One of the strongest common hardwoods of the northern hemisphere can be a correct sentence.

Question 2:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

The best advice is to try to be sure at all times within reason that you know where your son is and
who he is with.

a. No error
b. The best advice is to try to be sure at
c. all times within reason that you know
d. where your son is and who he is with.

Answer - The best advice is to try to be sure at

Since the sentence says that the advice is ‘the best’ it means that it is an imperative sentence. An
imperative sentence always talks about a stated action and not a suggestion.

This implies that the term (to try) is incorrect as it shows trial and error method. Instead it should
be (the best advice is to be sure at all times).

Question 3:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice
History paintings have to be grand and _________________ with subjects drawn from the Bible,
classical mythology and history.
 a. Exigent
b. Didactic
c. Germane
d. Facetious

Answer - Didactic

Exigents means pressing; demanding.

Didactic means designed or intended to teach or intended to convey instruction and information as
well as pleasure and entertainment didactic poetry.
Germane means relevant to a subject under consideration.
Facetious means trying to be amusing about a subject at a time that is not appropriate so that
other people become annoyed

Here, the word didactic is suitable since it says that the paintings must not just be grand but also
thoughtful and should provide teachings to the people. Since the excerpt of Bible, mythology and
history is mentioned, it means that moral observations from these books must also be preached
through these paintings.

Question 4:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice.

By telling lies he brought _______ upon Parliament.

a. Diffuse
b. Dictum
c. Discredit
d. Deference

Dictum means a short statement that expresses something that people believe is always true or
should be followed
Discredit means to make people stop respecting or believing somebody/something
Diffuse means to spread something or become spread widely in all directions
Deference means polite behavior that you show towards somebody/something

Since the sentence mentions that the responsible person has resorted to lies and has negatively
impacted the parliament. This means that the parliament had to face disrespect and discredit
because of the lies and dishonesty.
Question 5:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice
The ham was __________, the scrambled eggs congealed, and the fruit juice fermented.
a. Disabused
b. Diffident
c. Delineated
d. Desiccated

Answer - Desiccated

Disabused means to free from error, misconception, or fallacy

Diffident means not having confidence in your own strengths or abilities
Delineated means to describe or draw something in great detail
Desiccated means used about food dried in order to keep it for a long time

Since the context here is in relation with food and advance preparation of a dish which includes,
solidifying the scrambled eggs, fermenting the fruit juice and drying the ham. So desiccated is the
word that is used in relation with food.

Question 6:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

We are, in fact, one of the longest continuously operating national legislature in the world.
a. We are, in fact one of the
b. longest continuously operating
c. national legislature in the world.
d. No error

Answer - national legislature in the world.

The error lies in the part which says ‘national legislature in the world.’ Since the sentence
considers one of all the legislatures that are operated in the world, the object of the sentence
(legislatures) must be in plural form. That, one legislature out of all legislatures.
Question 7:- Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment
correctly and completes the sentence. Select the option “no correction required” if the sentence is
correct as given.

He hasn’t (left the house from last Friday, I think) there is something wrong with him.

a. Left the house since last friday i think

b. Left house since last Friday, I think
c. Left the house from the last Friday, I think
d. No correction required

Answer - A

The difference between since and from is:

The word since is used to present the starting time of an action ( a point in the past) that continues
in the present till this date while From is used to present a period of time with a starting and an
ending point.

Since the speaker says that he (the subject) hasn’t left the house since Friday, meaning that the
person has still not left in the present time.

Since the house is a particular house where the person resides, it is going to take ‘the’.

Question 8:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice

At least 15 million Americans still hold the ______ view that cancer is contagious.
a. Exigent
b. Extraneous
c. Erroneous
d. Exacting

Answer - Erroneous

Exigent means needing urgent attention, or demanding too much from other people:
Extraneous means irrelevant or unrelated to the subject being dealt with.
Erroneous means not correct; based on wrong information
Exacting means needing a lot of care and attention; difficult

The context of the sentence here is that the view that cancer is contagious is a farce. This view is
incorrect. Hence we use ‘erroneous’ that states wrong view or incorrect perception.

Question 9:-

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best
answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Since Dolphins are like human beings in so many ways. For example, dolphins have a special
respiratory system just like humans. The only difference is that dolphins are able to stay
underwater for a long time without breathing oxygen. But how do dolphins manage to sleep
without drowning?

Generally, dolphins sleep with only one brain hemisphere in slow-wave sleep at a time, thus
maintaining enough consciousness to breathe and to watch for possible predators and other
threats. Earlier sleep stages can occur simultaneously in both hemispheres. In captivity, dolphins
seemingly enter a fully asleep state where both eyes are closed and there is no response to mild
external stimuli. In this case, respiration is automatic; a tail kick reflex keeps the blowhole above
the water if necessary. Anesthetized dolphins initially show a tail kick reflex. Though a similar state
has been observed with wild sperm whales, it is not known if dolphins in the wild reach this state.
The Indus river dolphin has a sleep method that is different from that of other dolphin species.
Living in water with strong currents and potentially dangerous floating debris, it must swim
continuously to avoid injury. As a result, this species sleeps in very short bursts which last
between 4 and 60 seconds.

What has been cited as the similarity among humans and dolphins?
a. Nervous system
b. Circulatory system
c. Respiratory System
d. Cardiovascular System
Answer - Respiratory system

The first paragraph of the passage cites the answer for us: “For example, dolphins have a special
respiratory system just like humans.”

Question 10:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice
Clinton’s _______ staffing decisions contributed to the political turmoil of his initial years.
a. Malleable
b. Meticulous
c. Malign
d. Maladroit

Answer -

Malleable means easily influenced or changed

Meticulous means giving or showing great attention to detail; very careful
Malign means causing harm or harmful
Maladroit means lacking skill, cleverness, or resourcefulness in handling situations or inept.

Here , the sentence concludes that Clinton made decisions while employing staff in his office and
this led to turmoil and conflicts inside the office. The word that suits here is maladroit.

Question 11:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice

Among the _______ effects caused by a saline atmosphere, may be mentioned, the ophthalmia of
Egypt.
a. Deleterious
b. Disparage
c. Disjointed
d. Desultory

Answer - Deleterious

Deleterious means causing harm or damage.

Disparage means to talk about somebody/something in a critical way; to say that
somebody/something is of little value or importance
Disjointed means clearly connected and therefore difficult to follow
Desultory means lacking a plan, purpose, or enthusiasm.

When it talks about the effects of a saline atmosphere, it probably reflects that the effects were
harmful and damaging. So we use deleterious.

Question 12:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice

There is a ________ between the academic world and the industrial world
a. Diurnal
b. Dichotomy
c. Dissolution
d. Dolf

Answer - Dichotomy

Diurnal means used about animals and birds active during the day
Dichotomy is defined as a sharp division of things or ideas into two contradictory parts.
Dissolution means the official act of ending a marriage, a business agreement or a parliament
Dolf means something noble or majestic

Since the sentence gives the context of difference between the two worlds - academics and
industrial, we use the word ‘dichotomy’ which expresses a stark difference between the two.

Question 13:-The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

Jack and me stood on the lawn and watched the grooming of the landscape.
a. Jack and me stood on the
b. No error
c. lawn and watched the
d. grooming of the landscape.
Answer - Jack and me

When a first person pronoun is used as the main subject of the sentence, the pronoun that is used
is ‘I’ and not ‘me’.
So it should, Jack and I since both the subjects stood together and watched the landscape.

Question 14:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice:-
Carver did not ________ the vast majority of his investors.
a. Patent
b. Placate
c. Plummet
d. Pursue

Answer - Placate

Patent means the official right to be the only person to make, use or sell a product or an invention;
Placate means to make somebody feel less angry about something
Pursue means to follow or chase, to continue with or to try to get someone or something.
Plummet means to fall suddenly and quickly from a high level or position

The sentence here provides the meaning that Carver’s investors were furious and he did not try to
convince them or calm their anger down.

Question 15:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice:-
That room ________ with pictures or curtains looks bare
a. Ubiquitous
b. Unadorned
c. Undermined
d. Untenable

Answer - unadorned

Ubiquitous means seeming to be everywhere or in several places at the same time; very common
Unadorned means undecorated or plain
Undermined means to make something weaker
Untenable means not able to be maintained or defended against attack or objection.
The sentence says that the room that is not decorated with pictures or curtains looks bare. Hence
adorned is the correct answer.

Question 16:- Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate choice:-
Further he does not ________ that the period of his disqualification is excessive.
a. Contend
b. Confound
c. Constrain
d. Coalesce

Answer - Contend

Contend means to say or argue that something is true

Confound means to prove somebody/something wrong
Constrain means to limit somebody/something; to force somebody/something to do something
Coalesce means to come together to form one larger group, substance, etc.

The sentence quotes that the person as the subject is not trying to argue with anyone even when
the terms of his disqualification are excessive and unjust.

Question 17:- Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment
correctly and completes the sentence. Select the option “no correction required” if the sentence is
correct as given.

To capture (his equity, Murphy must neither sell or refinance).

a. His equity, Murphy must neither sell nor refinance
b. No correction required
c. His equity, Murphy must either sell nor refinance
d. His equity, Murphy must either sell or else refinance

Answer:- His equity, Murphy must either sell or else refinance

Here there are two options and Murphy has to select one of them to capture his equity. Here, the
correlative conjunction, either/or is used to show that out of the two options , he has to choose
one.

The conjunction, neither/nor is used when both options are not possible.

Question 18:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

It could suggest Jacob’s / willingness to hand Simone / back her birth right.
a. back her birth right
b. willingness to hand Simone
c. No error
d. It could suggest Jacob’s

Answer - No error

Question 19:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

By 1980, Miami / beach had but all / totally eroded.

a. totally eroded.
b. By 1980, Miami
c. No error
d. beach had but all

Answer - beach had but all

The correct sentence is ‘had all but totally eroded.’

We use but as an alternative to except (for), apart from to introduce the only thing or person that
the main part of the sentence does not include.

Here the main thing that the sentence wants to say is that by 1980, Miami beach was completely
eroded and there was nothing left. So it had nothing and was totally eroded.
Question 20:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

By burning tree branches, pine needles, / and pine cones, many not only warm / their houses
though also improve the smell therein.

a. and pine cones, many not only warm

b. No error
c. their houses though also improve the smell therein.
d. By burning tree branches, pine needles,

Answer:- their houses though also improve the smell therein.

In a sentence, which uses ‘not only’ as a conjunction, it is always followed by ‘but also’ as a
correlative conjunction.
Here the use of ‘though also’ is incorrect and should use ‘but also’ instead.

Question 21:-
Easter Day is the central religious feast in the Christian world. According to Christian scripture,
Jesus rose from the dead on the third day after his crucifixion. Some Christians celebrate this
resurrection on Easter Day or Easter Sunday (also Resurrection Day or Resurrection Sunday).
Easter is a moveable feast, meaning it is not fixed in relation to the civil calendar.

According to the traditions, Easter Sunday is celebrated by taking part in an Easter vigil, lighting a
new fire outside the church early on Sunday morning. Another custom involves lighting the
Paschal candle and decorating it with studs to celebrate Christ's wounds. Chanting of the easter
proclamation, reading the old testament, singing hymns and wishing happy Easter Day are other
characteristics of the celebration.

What does the term moveable feast mean?

a. Falls on the same date every year on a global calendar
b. Doesn’t fall on the same day every year on a global calendar
c. Doesn’t fall on the same date every year on a global calendar
d. Falls on the same day every year on a global calendar
Answer:- Doesn’t fall on the same date every year on a global calendar

Moveable feast is a religious festival that does not occur on the same date every year.
Here, the option “doesn’t fall on the same day every year on a global calendar” is wrong because
the festival in question is Easter Sunday which is always celebrated on a Sunday.

Question 22:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

It is evident that neither of the two defendants deserve a fair trial.

a. It is evident that neither
b. of the two defendants
c. deserve a fair trial.
d. No error

Answer - No error

Question 23:-Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment
correctly and completes the sentence. Select the option “no correction required” if the sentence is
correct as given.

(One of the smallest country ever to host the world’s largest) sporting event, Greece will face
many challenges when the Olympic Games return home this summer.

a. One of the smallest countries ever to host the world’s largest

b. No correction required
c. One of the smallest country to host the world’s largest
d. One of the smallest country to host the world’s largest

Answer:- One of the smallest countries ever to host the world’s largest

The term “one of the” specifies one noun among a group of nouns. In the above sentence, Greece
is one country among a group of many countries. Therefore, we use “one of the smallest
countries” and not “one of the smallest country”.
Question 24:-The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

But there is / a criteria to / being God’s friend.

a. a criteria to
b. No error
c. But there is
d. being God’s friend.

Answer:- a criteria to

Since we are using indefintie article “a” we need to use singular term not plural. Therefore the
correct term would be criterion (singular of criteria).

Question 25:-The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

By 6o’clock after a / busy day I’m at / the end of our rope.

a. busy day I’m at
b. By 6o’clock after a
c. No error
d. the end of our rope.

Answer:-
Since we are using the personal pronoun “I” which is used to address first person in singular, we
will use “my” to refer to the rope and not “our”. As “my” is also a first-person singular pronoun
while “our” is a first-person plural pronoun.

Question 26:- The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the
sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option “No Error”.

Jack and me stood on the / lawn and watched the / grooming of the landscape.
a. Jack and me stood on the
b. No error
 c. lawn and watched the
d. grooming of the landscape.

Answer:-
Jack and me stood on the

We use the pronoun “me” when the speaker is on the receiving end of the action. Here, the
speaker is doing the action, i.e., standing on the lawn and watching the grooming of the
landscape. Therefore, we will use the pronoun “I”.

The correct form of the sentence will be, “Jack and I stood on the lawn and watched the grooming
of the landscape.”
SECTION IV: PSEUDO CODING TEST
Question 01:
What will be the output when val='0'?
switch(val)
case 1: display "Prime"
case 7: display "Odd"
case 2: display "Even"
default display "Hello"
break
 End-switch

A. PrimeOddEven
B. Odd
C. Even
D. Nothing will be displayed
E. Hello
F. PrimeOddEvenHello

Answer: Hello
Explanation: The Default value is 0 and there is No Case 0, IF there is no Case 0 then it will
automatically print Hello in the Output.

Question 02:

How will be output array be after following operations

Set integer array={1,3,5,7,8}
Set integer item = 10
Set Integer K = 3
array K-2 = Item

A. Error
B. {10,3,5,7,8}
C. {1,3,5,10,8}
D. {1,10,5,7,8}
E. {1,3,10,7,8}
F. {1,3,5,7,8}

Answer: D ‘
Explanation: Array index will start from 0,
Soo,
array[0] = 1, array[1] = 3, array[2] = 5, array[3] = 7, array[4] = 8
Here array[k-2] is array[3 - 2] = array[1] = value 3 is replaced by 10.
So new altered array = {1,10,5,7,8}
 Question 03:
What will be the output of following pseudo code if('a'==65) then do
display a
else
display b
End-if

A. b
B. Error
C. ab
D. Nothing will be displayed
E. ba
F. a

Answer: Error
Explanation: a is in inverted commas so that it is a string and string value can’t be a integers
therefore Error will occur.

Question 04:

What will be the output of the following pseudocode?

Set Integer array [2,4,0,1]
Set Integer val=array[1]/ array[2]
display val

A. 0
B. 2
C. Divide by zero exception
D. Error
E. 0.5
F. 1

Answer: Divide by zero exception

Explanation: Array[1] = 4 Array[2]=0
So, 4/0 = Option C

Question 05:
How many times will the loop run?
Set Integer values-1
do
value++
display value
while(value<=2)
end do-while

A. 3
B. Infinity
C. 2
D. 1
E. 0
F. 4

Answer: 4
Explanation: First of all Do While Loop will run in the program without checking kiye.
Then the value will be incremented from -1 to zero.
Again It will check the condition, if the condition matches then the loop will run for the 2nd time.
Again, Value will increase to 1 then loop will run for third time,
Again it will have increment to 2 then loop will run for fourth time,
Again increment to 3 and condition will fail, and the value which is variable will come out of loop.

Question 6: What will be the output of the following Pseudo Code?

Set integer x = 3
display x,x++

A. 44
B. 33
 C. 43
D. 34
E. 35
F. Error

Answer: 43
Explanation:

Question 7:

What will be the output of the following pseudocode?

while(1.0 1.0 1.0==1"11)
display false
break
End-while

A. Garbage Value
B. False
C. Nothing will be displayed
D. True
E. Error

Answer: False
Explanation: The condition is true and loop will run one time and False will print, after that there is
a break soo loop will end.

Question 8:
What will be the output of the following program?
Function call: integer
return x*y
end-function
function value()
Set Integer x=5
Set Integer y=10
Set Integer z = 20
display z+call(x,y)
End-function

A. 150
B. 250
C. 70
D. 205
E. Error
F. 20

Answer: 70
Explanation: Call function will return 50 and then we add 20 in that and It will display 70.

Question 9:
What will be the output of the following Program?
Set Integer x =0
Set Integer y = -2
Set Integer Z= 3
display (z and x and y )

A. 1
B. 0
C. NULL
D. -1
E. Error
F. Garbage Value

Answer: 0
Explanation: X is zero so that whatever we do with X will zero only.

Question 10:
How will the output array be after following operations?
Set Integer arrays (2,4,6,8,9)
Set Integer item = 11
Set Integer k = 3
Set integer n = 5
Set Integer j= n
Set Integer n=n+1
while(j >=k)
array[j+1] = array[j]
j=j-1
end-while
array[k] = item

A. {2,4,6,8,9}
B. {2,4,8,9}
C. Error
D. {2.4.6,11,8,9}
E. {2,4,9}
F. {2,4,6,8,11}

Answer: Error
Explanation: Array out of Bound
At Array [j+1] =array[j]
The value of J is 5, There’s no index in array
SECTION V : PUZZLES
Question 01: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

6 18 54

4 17 34
 8 4 ?

A. 16
B. 14
C. 20
D. 18

Solution: Option A.
Logic is row wise: Half of 6 and multiplied with 18 so that we got 54.
Half of the 4 and multiplied with 17 = 2 *17
So answer is 8/2 * 4 = 4 * 4 = 16.

Question 02: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

41 22 9 7

19 20 13 ?

14 10 8 3

a. 6
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3

Solution: Option D.

Row 01: 41 + 22 = 63 which is divided by 9 so the result is 7.

Row 03: 14 + 10 = 24 which is divided by 8 so the result is 3.
Row 03: 19 + 20 = 39 which is divided by 13 so the result is 3.

Question 03: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
 5 169 8

7 169 6

4 ? 11

A. 169
B. 625
C. 225
D. 205

Solution: Option C
Row 1: 5 + 8 = 13 and its square 13^2 = 169
Row 2: 7 + 6 = 13 and its square 13^2 = 169
Row 3: 4 + 11 = 15 and its square 15^2 = 225

Question 4: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

a. 16
b. 14
c. 13
d. 12
Solution: Option C

Left half of the Square all number added => 41 + 21 + 35 + 14 = 111

Right half of the Square number sum must be 111 => x + 16 + 40 + 42 = 111- 98 = 13.

Question 05: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

5 2 4 10

3 2 4 6

4 1 2 ?

A. 8
B. 14
C. 7
D. 11

Solution: Option A

Row 01: 5 * 4 / 2 = 10
Row 02: 3 * 4 / 2 = 6
Row 03: 4 * 2 / 1= 8

Question 06: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

6 5 26
 4 9 32

? 8 44

A. 9
B. 10
C. 7
D. 6

Solution: Option D

Row 01: 6 * 5 = 30 and is subtracted by 4 so that answer is 26.

Row 02: 4 * 9 = 36 and is subtracted by 4 so that answer is 32.
Row 03: x * 8 = 44 + 4 => which x = 48/8 = 6

Question 07: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 16
d. 8

Answer: Option C
The table of 4 can be seen in this puzzle
4x2=8
8 x 2 = 16
16 x 2 = 32
Therfore the answer is 16

Question 08: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

17 ? 22

14 9 13

3 8 9

A. 17
B. 18
C. 12
D. 20

Solution: Option A

Column 01: 17 = 14 + 3.
Column 03: 22 = 13 + 9.1
Column 02: ? = 9 + 8 = 17.

Question 09: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
 a. 512
b. 64
c. 24
d. 16

Solution: Option A

The bigger numbers of the puzzle are the cubes of smaller number.
43 = 64, 33 = 27, 53 = 125, 63 = 216, 73 = 343, 83 = 512
Therefore Question Mark (?) will be replaced by 512

Question 10: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

36 21 42

? 4 7

6 7 7

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
 D. 8

Solution: Option C

Column 03: 42 = 7 * (7-1).

Column 02: 21 = 7 * (4-1)
Column 01: 36 = 6 * (x-1) so x-1 must be 6 so that x =7.

Question 11: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

a. 12
b. 11
c. 8
d. 9

Solution : Option B

The puzzle here represents the prime number series

2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13
Therefore the correct answer is 11.
Question 12: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

a. 78
b. 98
c. 105
d. 18

Answer: Option C

Solution:
1st triangle: (2 * 7 * 8) / 2 = 56.
2nd triangle: (3 * 4 * 12) / 2 = 72.
3rd triangle: (5 * 6 * 7) / 2 = 105.
Question 13: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

a. 115
b. 89
c. 20
d. 99

Solution: Option D

The product of numbers are mentioned in the opposite boxes.

18 x 4 = 72 (mentioned in first figure top box)
5 x 16 = 80 (mentioned in first figure bottom box)
Similarly,
13 x 7 = 91 (mentioned in second figure top box)
9 x 11 = 99 (will replace “?” in the bottom box)
Therefore the correct answer is 99.
Question 14: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

a. 77
b. 81
c. 57
d. 71

Solution: Option D

The number in the middle of the triangles is sum of the number at the top and product of the
numbers present on the either side of the triangles.
Now, taking triangle 1 into consideration:
7 x 5 = 35 + 6 = 41
taking triangle 3 into consideration:
11 x 9 = 99 + 10 = 109
Similarly in triangle 2:
9 x 7 = 63 + 8 = 71
Therefore correct answer is 71
Question 15: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

a. 7
b. 6
c. 4
d. 5

Answer: Option B

From figure 1: 6 x 4 = 24/ 2 = 12

Figure 2: 20 x 8 = 160/ 2 = 80
Figure 3: ? x 21 = (2 x 63) = 126/ 2 = 63
126/ 21 = 6
Therefore “?” will be replaced by 6
Question 16: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives

a. 123
b. 33
c. 90
d. 86

Solution: Option D

Considering 1st Circle: 32 + 22 + 42 + 22 = 33

Considering 2nd Cirle: 42 + 32 + 22 + 52 = 54
Considering 3rd Circle: 62 + 52 + 42 + 32 = 86
Therefore the correct answer is 86.
Question 17: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives

a. 27
b. 30
c. 18
d. 36

Solution : Option D

Fig 1: 4 x 3 = 12 x 6 = 72
Fig 2: 4 x -2 = -8 x -1 = 8
Fig 3: 9 x 2 = 18 x 2 = 36
Therefore the Question mark (?) will be replaced by 36
Question 18: In the following question. Select the number which can be placed at the sign of
Question mark (?) from the given alternatives

a. 49
b. 76
c. 89
d. 94

Solution: Option A

Figure 1: 18 + 19 = 37 - 2 = 35
Figure 2: 22 + 24 = 46 - 3 = 43
Therefore, in Figure 3: 26 + 27 = 53 - 4 = 49
So the correct answer is 49