Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region VII, Central Visayas
Division of Cebu Province
District of Minglanilla I
GUINDARUHAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Guindarohan, Minglanilla, Cebu

FOURTH SUMMATIVE TEST IN SCIENCE 8

S.Y. 2021-2022

Name: ___________________________________________ Score:

___________________

Section: __________________________________________

Diections: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

Write the chosen letter on a separate sheet of paper.

1. He is known as the father of modern taxonomy who tried to classify living things systematically.
A. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck C. Carolus Linnaeus
B. Charles Darwin D. Alfred Russel Wallace
2. Complete the statement. A species is a group of individuals that share similar _______ and can mate with
each other to produce _______ offspring.
A. mutations, fertile C. characteristics, fertile
B. genes, many D. features, living
3. Which of the following refers to the count of species in a specified area?
A. Species abundance C. Species diversity
B. Species richness D. Species variety
4. Which of the following is the correct order of taxonomic hierarchy, from smallest to largest?
A. kingdom→domain→phylum→class→order→family→genus→species
B. species→genus→family→order→class→phylum→kingdom→domain
C. domain→kingdom→phylum→class→order→family→genus→species
D. phylum→class→kingdom→order→family→species→genus→domain
5. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about the taxonomic hierarchy?
A. A class refers to a number of different orders.
B. A domain is a higher rank than a kingdom.
C. A genus refers to a number of different species
D. A species refers to a number of different families.
6. Which scientist proposed the binomial naming system for living organisms?
A. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck C. Carolus Linnaeus
B. Charles Darwin D. Alfred Russel Wallace
7. What refers to the broadest group into which organisms are classified?
A. Class B. Domain C. Kingdom D. Order

8. A group of related genera comprise the level called ___________.

A. Phylum B. Class C. Family D. Order
9. Prokaryotic organisms make up the ____________.
A. archaebacteria, eubacteria, and protists C. protists and eubacteria
B. archaebacterial and protists D. eubacteria and archaebacteria
10. It is a biological inheritance where traits are passed on from parents to offspring.
a. Chromosomes b. Heredity c. Meiosis d. Variation
11. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of classifying organisms into taxonomic hierarchies?
A. Classifying organisms can be used to determine the genomes of extinct species.
B. Classifying organisms helps determine what species a newly discovered organism could belong to.
C. Classifying organisms helps predict the shared characteristics of a group.
D. Classifying organisms can be used to determine evolutionary links between species.
12. Jerich discovered a plantlike organism but lacks chlorophyll, nonvascular and
heterotrophic. Which of the following kingdoms does the organism can be categorized?
A. Protista B. Animalia C. Fungi D. Archaea
13. The following EXCEPT one explains the importance of meiosis in maintaining the chromosome number.
Which is it?
a. It maintains the constant number of chromosomes by halving the same.
b. Meiosis is responsible for the formation of sex cells or gametes that are responsible for sexual
reproduction.
c. It activates the genetic information for the development of sex cells and deactivates the
sporophytic information.
d. It plays an important part in the development of embryos, and it is important for the growth and
development of our bodies as well
14. It is a type of cell division that produces two identical cells with the same number of chromosomes.
a. Interphase b. Meiosis c. Meiosis II d. Mitosis
15. It is the cycle of stages that cells pass through to allow them to divide and
produce new cells.
a. Anaphase b. Cell cycle c. Phase cycle d. Telophase
16. Which of the following is NOT true about meiosis II?
a. It is meiotic in nature
b. The stages are identical with mitotic stages
c. It has four stages such as Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, and Telophase II
d. Two from each daughter cell comes from meiosis with one half the diploid chromosome number
17. The following are stages of meiosis I EXCEPT
a. Anaphase I b. Metaphase Ic. Prophase I d. Telophase II
18. Which of the following correctly explains the metaphase stage of mitosis?
a. The chromosomes are now at the opposite poles of the spindle.
b. . The paired chromosomes arrange themselves along the equatorial plate.
c. The nuclear membrane and nucleoli may still be present.
d. The paired centromeres of each chromosome separate towards the opposite poles of the cells
19. Why are chromosomes thicker and shorter during the prophase stage o mitosis?
 a. Because of repeated recoiling
b. Because of rapid splitting of chromosomes
c. Because chromosomes align by themselves
d. Because chromosomes separate towards opposite poles
20. The following are some of the many comparisons between mitosis and meiosis. Which one is NOT a
comparison?
a. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells while meiosis occurs in germ cells.
b. In mitosis, it occurs more frequently while in meiosis, it occurs less frequently.
c. In mitosis, nucleus divides only once while in meiosis, the nucleus divides twice.
d. In mitosis, daughter cells are haploid while in meiosis, daughter cells are diploid.
21. The following are some of the many comparisons between mitosis and meiosis. Which one is NOT a
comparison?
a. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells while meiosis occurs in germ cells.
b. In mitosis, it occurs more frequently while in meiosis, it occurs less frequently.
c. In mitosis, nucleus divides only once while in meiosis, the nucleus divides twice.
d. In mitosis, daughter cells are haploid while in meiosis, daughter cells are diploid.
22. Why are chromosomes thicker and shorter during the prophase stage of mitosis?
a. Because of repeated recoiling c. Because chromosomes align by themselves
b. Because of rapid splitting of chromosomes d. Because chromosomes separate towards opposite
23. Which of the following shows the difference between mitosis and meiosis?
a. Cells divide and produce four mitotic cells.
b. Cells divide and produce interphase and prophase.
c. Mitosis results in four daughter cells while meiosis results in two daughter cells.
d. . Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells while meiosis results in four daughter cells.
24. What do you call the genes that come in different varieties?
a. Alleles b. Genotype c. Phenotype d. Somatic cells
25. In other cases, each parent provides a different allele of a given gene, and the offspring is referred to as
_________ for that allele.
a. dominant b. heterozygous c. homozygous d. recessive
26. When conducting a cross, one way of showing the potential combinations of parental alleles in the
offspring is to align the alleles in a grid called a __________, which functions in a manner similar to a
multiplication table.
a. Dihybrid cross b. Mendel’s genetics c. Monohybrid cross d. . Punnett square
27. The process of taking food into the digestive system is called
a. absorption b. assimilation c. digestion d.. ingestion
28. When you test cross red rose with white rose, the resulting color is pink. How do you justify this
statement?
a. This is the product of genetically produced organisms.
b. This applies to the Law of Dominance in which red color is the dominant trait over the white color.
c. This belongs to the Law of Independent Assortment because the colors are assorted.
d. This belongs to the Law of Segregation in which the colors are segregated due to different colors of parents.
29. The law which states that, “the distribution or assortment of one pair of factors is independent of the
distribution of the other pair”.
a. Law of Dominance c. Law of Segregation
b. Law of Independent Assortment d. Law of Mendelian Genetics
30. Predict the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of typical Mendelian traits.

a. Aa b . aa c. aA d. AA
31. How do you differentiate genotype and phenotype traits?
a. The “color of the person’s eye” is due to the genotypic influence.
b. A person who has “brown hair” but his cells contain “brown hair” and one “blonde hair” allele is
due to genotypic influence.
c. Genotype means everything that someone inherited from their parents while phenotype can be
influenced by the environment.
d. Genotype refers to the genetic code of the individual while phenotype is the expression of the
genotype that is visible to other people and can be observed.
32. Compare the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of a typical Mendelian trait.

I. Genotypic ratio = ¼ RR : 1/4Rr : ¾ rR : ½ rr Phenotypic ratio = ¾ wrinkled: ¼ round

II. Genotypic ratio = 1/2 RR : 1/2Rr : ¾ rR : Phenotypic ratio = ¾ wrinkled: ¼ round
III. Genotypic ratio = ¼ RR : ½ Rr : ¼ rr Phenotypic ratio = ¾ round : ¼ wrinkled
IV. Genotypic ratio = 1/2 RR : 1/2Rr : ¾ rR : ½ rr Phenotypic ratio = ¼ wrinkled: ¾ round

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. IV only

33. The Law which states that, "the pair of genes segregate or separate from each other during gamete
formation”.
a. Law of Dominance c. Law of Segregation
b. Law of Independent Assortment d. Law of Mendelian Genetics
34. How do you describe the Law of Segregation?
a. The pair of genes dominate over the recessive trait.
b. The pair of genes segregate or separate from each other during gamete formation.
c. The genes move to the opposite poles in assortment basis.
d. The genes are moving toward the opposite genes in which segregation and assortment happen.
35. Self-fertilization of F1 produced four phenotypes. Predict the phenotypic expressions of traits applying
the Punnett square.

a. 9 (round yellow seed) : 3 (round pink seed) : 3 (wrinkled blue seed) : 1 (wrinkled yellow seed) or 9:3:3:1
b. 3 (round yellow seed) : 9 (round pink seed) : 3 (wrinkled blue seed) : 1 (wrinkled yellow seed) or 3:9:3:1
c. 3 (round yellow seed) : 9 (round pink seed) : 9 (wrinkled blue seed) : 1 (wrinkled yellow seed) or 3:9:9:1
d. 9 (round yellow seed) : 3 (round pink seed) : 3 (round blue seed) : 1 (wrinkled yellow seed) or 9:3:3:1
36. The law which states that, "the distribution or assortment of one pair of factors is independent of the
distribution of the other pair”.
a. Law of Dominance c. Law of Segregation
b.. Law of Independent Assortment d. Law of Mendelian Genetics
37. The law which states that, "the dominant trait that dominates or prevents the expression of the recessive
trait”.
a. . Law of Dominance c. Law of Segregation
b. Law of Independent Assortment d. Law of Mendelian Genetics
38. It is the removal of toxic materials, waste products of metabolism and excess substances from organisms.
a. Absorption b. Assimilation c. Digestion d. Excretion
39. The breaking down of food that passes through the villi of small intestine into the blood stream.
a. absorption b. assimilation c. digestion d. excretion
40. How do you differentiate ingestion from egestion?
a. Ingestion similar to absorption while egestion is similar to assimilation.
b. Ingestion is similar to digestion while egestion is similar to excretion.
c. Ingestion is the process of swallowing the food while egestion is the process of absorbing the food.
d. Ingestion, is where the teeth break apart the food as you chew while egestion is the removal of
undigested food from the anus.
41. It begins in the mouth and continues as food travels through the
a. absorption b. assimilation c. digestion d. ingestion
42. Arrange the following. Which of them show the correct sequence of the stages of food processing in the body?
a. Absorption, excretion, assimilation, ingestion c. Ingestion, absorption, assimilation, excretion
b. Excretion, absorption assimilation, ingestion d. Ingestion, assimilation, absorption, excretion
43. The process by which soluble food molecules from blood are used to make new cells or new parts of the
cell is called
a. Absorption b. Assimilation c. Digestion d. Excretion
44. How is ingestion of food related to digestion?
a. Digestion comes first and automatically followed by ingestion.
b. Ingestion takes place in the mouth and when the food is swallowed and goes out in the anus as
feces, digestion begins.
c. Digestion begins with ingestion, where the food is taken in the mouth and ends in the small
intestine as the nutrients are absorbed in the villi and enter in the circulatory system.
d. Ingestion is the passing out of undigested food as feces, through the anus after digestion of all
solid and liquid materials through the small intestine with absorption, assimilation, excretion, and
egestion.
45. How do you call the tiny fingerlike projections that are contained and lined up at the walls of the small
intestine?
a. Feces b . Villi c. Bolus d. Rectum
46.The following are the processes on how the food is swallowed, digested, and excreted. Rearrange them
and tell the correct sequence of the process.
I. After swallowing the food – now turned into bolus – enters the esophagus (gullet) and is moved
down into the stomach where it mixes with gastric juices and acids.
II. Digestion ends in the small intestine where nutrients are absorbed in the villi and enter the
circulatory system.
III. Wastes that remain after digestion go to the large intestine where water is reabsorbed. The
wastes including the water that was not reabsorbed, are temporarily stored in the rectum before
they are excreted out of the body through the anus.
IV. Other enzymes such as protease and lipase help break down proteins in the stomach and fats in
the small intestine.
a. I, III, II, IV b. II, III, IV, I c. I, IV, II, III d. I, II, III, IV
47. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
a. Ingestion b. Absorption c. Secretion d. Assimilation
48. Where does digestion start?
a. Esophagus b. . Mouth c. Stomach d. Anus
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region VII, Central Visayas
Division of Cebu Province
District of Minglanilla I
GUINDARUHAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Guindarohan, Minglanilla, Cebu

FOURTH SUMMATIVE TEST IN MATH 10

S.Y. 2020-2021

Name: ___________________________________________ Score:

___________________

Section: NIFTY Teacher: Ms. Cañada Date: June 25, 2021

Directions: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

Write the chosen letter on a separate sheet of paper.
1. Which of the following is/are tools for analyzing data?
I. quartiles II. deciles III. percentiles
A. I & II only B. I & III only C. II & III only D. I, II, & III
2. Which step of statistical mini-research forms statements that lead to summary or conclusion?
A. computation B. interpretation C. methodology D. statement of the problem.
3. Which part of a statistical mini-research contains the suggestion regarding the best course of action in a certain
situation?
A. interpretation B. methodology C. recommendation D. statement of the problem
4. What part of the statistical mini-research requires some closely related operations
A. computation B. interpretation C. methodology D. recommendation
5. Which term is very important in research and means unbiased and logical?
A. Analytical B. Controlled C. Objective D. Systematic
6.It denotes that research is based on observations and experimentation on theories.
A.Cyclical B. Empirical C. Logical D. Methodical
7. What characteristic of research employs orderly and sequential procedures?
A. Analytical B. Controlled C. Objective D. Systematic
8. It is a critical analysis of all data used so that there is no error in the researcher’s interpretation.
A. Analytical B. Controlled C. Objective D. Systematic
9. What is defined as careful consideration of a study regarding a particular concern or problem using scientific
methods?
A. Statistics B. Research C. Probability D. Practicality
10. The following are parts of methodology EXCEPT
I. Respondents II. Data Gathering III. Significance of the study
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I & II
11. What part of the research generates the questions which the research aims to answer?
A. Title B. Statement of the Problem C. Methodology D.
Computation

12. Data from various sources is gathered, reviewed, analyzed, and then interpreted to form some sort of findings or
conclusions. This part of research is .
A. Conclusion B. Evaluation C. Interpretation D. Recommendation
13. What part of the study shows how the data was presented?
A. Title B. Statement of the problem C. Methodology D.
Computation
14. It is defined as a critical suggestion regarding the best course of action in a certain situation.
A. Conclusion B. Evaluation C. Interpretation D. Recommendation
15. What makes statistical research logical?
A. It is based on reason and sound ideas.
B. It exhibits careful and precise judgment.
C. It is based on direct experience or observation by the researcher.
D. It is a cyclical process because it starts with a problem and ends with a problem.
16. What is defined as systematic investigation regarding a particular problem to establish facts and derive new
conclusions?
A. Quantiles B. research C. statistics D. variability
17. One of the importance of research in our everyday life is that it compels us to apply critical thinking and exercise
objective judgment based on evidence, instead of opinions or rumors.
A. always false B. always true C. sometimes true, sometimes false D. can't be determined
For items number 18 - 23, refer to the data shown in the table

18. How many students took the test?

 A. 36 B. 40 C. 45 D. 50
19. Which lower boundary is considered in solving for the 70 percentile?
th

A. 20.5 B. 25.5 C. 30.5 D. 35.5

20. What cumulative frequency shall be used to solve for the 3 quartile?
rd

A. 25 B. 21 C. 18 D. 16
21. What is the 1 quartile of the given set of data?
st

A. 31.96 B. 26.00 C. 20.91 D. 19.07

22. Which of the following is the value of the 3rd decile?
A. 21 B. 25 C. 33 D. 38
23. What is the measure of the 85 percentile?
th

A. 44 B. 46 C. 48 D. 50
24. When a distribution is divided into 100 equal parts, each score point that describes the distribution is called
________.
A. decile B. median C. percentile D. quartile
25. What is the value of the 3rd decile of the data set 8, 11, 12, 15, 17, 19, 21, 25?
A. 11 B. 12 C. 15 D.17

26. If 75% of the data has a value of lesser than or equal to 50, it means that _______.
A. Q1 = 50 B. Q2 = 50 C. Q3 = 50 D. D75 = 50
27. Given the scores 12, 12, 15, 16, 19, 25, 27, 30, 32, what is the value of upper quartile?
A. 25 B. 27 C. 30 D. 32
28. The IQR of a certain data is 5.5. If the value of Q1 = 3.25, what is the value of Q3?
A. 2.30 B. 2.35 C. 8.75 D. 8.80
29. The 5th decile of the heights of 12 volleyball players is 165 cm. It means that __________.
A. the height of 5 players is 165 cm.
B. half of the players stand 165 cm tall.
C. the height of 12 players is at least 165 cm.
D. half of the players stand 165 cm or less and the other half stand 165 cm or more.
30. What is meant by 30th percentile of a certain data distribution?
I. 30% of the data elements is greater than or equal to the value of P30.
II. 70% of the data elements is greater than or equal to the value of P30.
III. 30% of the data elements is lesser than or equal to the value of P30.
IV. 70% of the data elements is lesser than or equal to the value of P30.
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. III and IV
31. Which of the following is the same as 80 percentile?
th

A. 3rd quartile B. 8th decile C. 8th percentile D. 79th percentile

32. Gianna Pauline reads 15 pages of a 60-page pocketbook in 15 minutes. What does it mean?
A. 20% of the entire pocketbook was done by her
B. 10% was done by Gianna Pauline
C. 25% was finished by Gianna Pauline
D. 60% was done by her
33. During the District meet the third quartile for time to finish the 100-m dash race was 15.5 seconds. This means that __.
A. 75% of the runners finished the race at 15.5 seconds or less
 B. 35% of the runners finished the race at 15,5 seconds or less
C. 60% of the runners finished the race at 15.5 seconds or less
D. 80% of the runners finished the race at 15.5 seconds or less
34. If Quartile 3 is 75%, What does Decile 9 in Percentile mean?
A. 9% B. 25% C. 89% D. 90%
35. The 1st quartile of the ages of 250 fourth-year students is 16 years old. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Most of the students are below 16 years old.
B. Twenty-five percent of the students are 16 years old.
C. One hundred fifty students are younger than 16 years.
D. Seventy-five percent of the students are 16 years old and above.
36. In a group of 55 examinees taking the 50-item test, Anne obtained a score of 38. This implies that her score is_ .
A. below the 50th percentile C. below the 3rd decile
B. at the upper quartile D. the 55th percentile
37. In a 100-item test, the passing mark is the 3rd quartile. What does it imply?
A. The students should answer at least 75 items correctly to pass the test.
B. The students should answer at least 50 items correctly to pass the test.
C. The students should answer at most 75 items correctly to pass the test.
D. The students should answer at most 50 items correctly to pass the test.

38. In a 70-item test, Anna got a score of 50 which is the third quartile. This means that:
A. she got the highest score. C. her score is higher than 25% of her classmates.
B. she surpassed 75% of her classmates. D. seventy-five percent of the class did not pass the
test.
39. The 1st quartile of the ages of 250 fourth year students is 16 years old. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Most of the students are below 16 years old.
B. Twenty-five percent of the students are 16 years old.
C. One hundred fifty students are younger than 16years.
D. Seventy-five percent of the students are 16 years old and above.
40. In a basketball game, Jeff scored 20 points out of the total winning 80 points in their team. This means that Jeffs
score was .
A. 30% of the total score C. 60% of the entire score
B. equivalent to a decile 4 D. 25% of the total score or belongs to the first Quartile
41. Kath ranks 10th in a class of 40. Her percentile rank is ___.
A. 90 B. 75 C. 25 D. 10
42. A common application of percentiles is their use in determining passing or failure cutoffs for standardized exams
such as the NCAE. If you have a 95th percentile score then you are _____.
A. at or above 95% of all test takers C. you have only 5 wrong answers in the test
B. you got a score of 95 out of 100items D. 95% of the test takers have surpassed your performance
43. The score of Andy in a formative test in Math is 60 out of 80-item test. This means that _____.
A. She got the passing score which is equivalent to 75th percentile
B. She got 45% of the test item correctly
C. She got 50% of the test item correctly
D. She failed the test
44. The Second Quartile of the ages of 150 Grade 7 students is 12 years. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Most of the students are below 12 years.
 B. 30% of the students are above 12 years.
C. 50% of the students are below and above 12 years.
D. Seventy-five percent of the students are below 12 years
45. The lower quartile is also the_____.
A. 5th decile B. 3rd decile C. 50th percentile D. 25th percentile
46. Dave’s score in a 60-item test was the median score. What is his percentile rank?
A. 55th B. 25th C. 50th D. 75th
47. The lower quartile is 74. This implies that_____.
A. 25% of the students got a score less than or equal to 74
B. 50 % of the students got a score of 74 and above
C. 25% of the students got a score greater than 75
D. 25% of the students got a score of 72
48.The median score is 79. This implies that_____.
A. 50% of the students got a score below 79 and above 79
B. 50% of the students got a score of 82 and above
C. 25% of the students got a score of 79
D. 45% of the students got a score of 79