1. You are evaluating a 26-y/o male patients status post arthroscopic surgery.

The physician requests

that you may evaluate the muscles that insert into the pes anserinus. You may have the patients flex
the knee medially rotate the leg while the knee is flexed. Of the muscles listed below, which are you not
evaluating?

A. Gracilis

B. Sartorious

C. Semimembranosus

D. Semitendinosus

2. You are treating a patient secondary to a foot injury. The patients report that his podiatrist thought
the spring ligaments was injured as a result of his fall, Which of the following best describes the spring
ligaments of foot?

A. It is also called the plantar calcaneocuboid ligaments

B. It is called the short plantar ligament

C. It helps to maintain the medial arch of the foot by supporting the head of the talipes.

D. The spring ligaments is not highly elastic

3. The patient who has a lesion of the inferior gluteal nerve is referred to the clinic. Which of the
following motions would most likely be affected to the greatest extent secondary to an inferior gluteal
nerve lesion?

A. Hip abduction

B. Hip adduction

C. Hip flexion

D. Hip extension

E. Pitting edema

5. When performing Ultrasound on a patient, it is important to be aware of contraindication for its

utilization. One contraindication is performing Ultrasound over the epiphyseal or growth plate of a
child. Which of the following statement is not true concerning the growth plate?

A. It serves as a site of progressive lengthening that is needed in the long bones

B. It lies between the epiphysis and diaphysis as a transverse disc

C. It is formed of cartilage
D. It is found in all bones

5. Bursae may be found in most locations within the body. In which of the following anatomical areas
would the bursae most likely not found?

A. Subtendinous

B. Intramuscular

C. Subcutaneous

D. Sub facial

7. In a class on clinical pathology, the professor asks you what lupus erythematous, scleroderma and
dermatomycosis have in common. They can be the best be grouped together as which of the following?

A. Acute infection

B. Acute bacterial diseases

C. Collagen vascular diseases

D. Circulatory disorder

8. In clinical pathology class, the professor describes a pathological disease that involves the arteries and
veins of the lower extremity. The symptoms are inflammation, venous thrombosis, and ischemia of
the feet. Which of the following diseases is being described by the professor?

A. Raynaud”s disease

B. Thromboangiitis obliterance

C. Thrombophlebitis

D. Pitting edema

9. You are treating a patients who is complaining of right shoulder pain. The patients have been
diagnosed with frozen adhesive capsulated shoulder. Which of the following would describe the
capsular pattern of the glenohumeral joint?

A. External rotation, abduction, internal rotation

B. External rotation, internal rotation, abduction

C. Internal rotation, abduction, external rotation

D. Abduction, external rotation, internal rotation

10. A patient is sent to physical therapy secondary to a lower extremity injury. Reading the patients past
medical history, you note that the superficial peroneal nerve has been severed. Which of the following
muscle would be emphasized in your treatment program.

A. Tibialis anterior

B. Peroneous tertius

C. Peroneous brevis

D. Extensor hallucis longus

11. You are in cardiology class studying the difference between cardiac muscle versus skeletal muscle. It
is known that the cardiac muscle is physiologically different from skeletal muscle. Which of the
following statement best describe this?

A. It has no bony attachment

B. The actin and myosin filament produce a different type of striation

C. It does not developed a length-tension relationship

D. It divides into atrial and ventricular proportions

12. While studying cardiology you are learning about cardiac output, Cardiac output refers to the
amount of blood pump the heart in a specific time period. Which of the following best describe cardiac
output?

A. Blood pump by the heart in a 24 hours period

B. Blood pump by the heart in 1 hour

C. Blood pump by the heart during 60 seconds period

D. Blood pump by the heart during an 8-hour period.

13. You are working with a patient who has small stroke volume and pulse pressure. Which of the
following lesions does the patients most likely have?

A. Arterial sclerotic disease

B. Mitral stenosis

C. Congestive heart failure

D. Myocardial infarct 1

4. Which of the following is the most frequent location for a myocardial infarction to occur?
A. Left atrium

B. Left ventricle

C. Right atrium

D. Right ventricle

15. Which of the following is the most common cause of CVA (cerebrovascular accident) in older adults?

A. Aneurysm

B. Hemorrhaging

C. High blood pressure

D. Thrombosis

16. Which of the following actions of the drug digitalis is common in a patient with chronic congestive
heart failure?

A. A decrease in heart rate

B. An increase in heart rate

C. A decrease in the strength of the contraction

D. No effect on heart rate

17. You are physical therapist at the site of the football game as a medical staff member. You watch
one of the players fall from blow to the head and determined by a field evaluation that he has suffered a
concussion. Which of the following best defined as a concussion?

A. Any severe blow to the head

B. A fracture of the skull

C. Swelling of the brain as a result of trauma

D. A temporary state of the paralysis of the nervous function, including loss of consciousness

18. Rheumatoid arthritis can cause many symptoms in each later stages. Which of the following
symptoms would most likely be common in patients who has had rheumatoid arthritis for a long period
of time?

A. Radial deviation of the finger

B. Enlargement of the Heberden’s nodes

C. Ulnar deviation of the finger

D. Increase muscle strength

19. You are studying the various types of arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis versus osteoarthritis.
Which of the following would best describe the etiology of osteoarthritis?

A. Trauma to a joint recently

B. Under weight

C. Degeneration caused by aging

D. Recent injury to the joint.

20. Which of the following definition best describe the anatomical dead space?

A. The potion of the pulmonary tree that is inelastic and does bot change size with inspiration or
expiration

B. An area occupied in the air ways that does not permit gas exchange

C. The pulmonary air with the least blood supply

D. The potion of the pulmonary tree that is not supplied with sensory nerves

21. You are in physiology class studying tissue excitation. In regards to the strength / duration curve,
which of the following is not a true statement?

A. It may be considered valuable in testing the nerve degeneration

B. It may be considered valuable in testing for a nerve regenerations

C. It shows the relationship of a current intensity to the duration of the reaching expectation threshold

D. It exhibits development and fatigue during a prolong stimulation

22. In a class on physiology of exercise, you are studying the energy needed for muscle contractions.

Which of the following statements is false in regard to energy for muscle contraction?

A. Energy is produce during aerobic metabolism

B. Energy is reduce during anaerobic metabolism

C. Energy may be stored as a creatine phosphate

D. D. Energy is derived from ATP (adenosine Triphosphate)

23. You are studying diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus in your clinical pathology course. Which of
the following statement is not true about diabetes mellitus, but best describe diabetes insipidus?

A. Is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism

B. It results from insulin deficiency

C. It is associated with the pancreas

D. It is associated with the pituitary gland

24. Which of the following gestational timeframes is the most susceptible for injury to the fetal
cardiovascular system? It is during this timeframe that the fetal cardiovascular system produces most
congenital defects.

A. Third month

B. Sixth month

C. Between the 21st and 40th days

D. Conception and the 20th day

25. A patient comes to the clinic with an injury to the skin as a result of exposure to excessive heat.
Which of the following listed below will be the first response to this type of skin injury?

A. The fluids will seep into the damaged tissue

B. The blood vessels will become dilated and more permeable secondary to inflammation

C. Phagocytic cells will remove dead cells and debridement of the area will occur

D. Blood clotting will occur

26. The professor is presenting a lecture on the advantages and disadvantages of the following
exercises: Isometric, isokinetic, isotonic, and eccentric contractions. The professor informs the class that
some of the disadvantages of a particular exercise are that it loads muscle at the weakest point and the
momentum factor in lifting. These advantages best describe which of the following classifications of
exercise?

A. Isometric

B. Isotonic

C. Isokinetic

D. Free weights
27. The patient has experienced a lesion in the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere. Which of the
following would most likely be affected?

A. Vision

B. Sensory perception and interpretation

C. Personality and speech

D. Hearing and comprehension of speech

28. A patient experiences an injury resulting in a lesion of the occipital lobe of the cerebral hemisphere.
Which of the following are most likely involved?

A. Vision and interpretation of visual data

B. Sensory perception and interpretation

C. Intelligence and personality

D. Comprehension of speech and memory

29. An 18-year-old male tests positive for shoulder dislocation. This patient may have complications as a
result of this shoulder dislocation. Which of the following would most likely be involved if the patient
were to have complications?

A. Axillary artery

B. Axillary nerve

C. Radial artery

D. Radial nerve

30. In studying physical therapy you are learning about the differences between various spina bifida
disorders. You are specifically studying spina bifida myelocele. Which of the following would best
describe this disorder?

A. A soft tissue tumor in the meninges

B. A soft tissue tumor in the spinal cord

C. The most severe form of spina bifida

D. A herniated sac contained within the spinal cord

31. A patient reports to physical therapy with a diagnosis of a lesion in the lateral cord of the brachial
plexus. Which of the following would you most likely detect upon treatment of this patient?
A. Paralysis of the biceps, coracobrachialis, and finger flexors

B. Paralysis of the deltoid

C. Paralysis of wrist extension

D. Paralysis of the hand

32. You are performing physical therapy on a patient status post cerebrovascular accident. The patient is
having difficulty with trunk control and transfers from supine to sit and left to right sidelying. In
performing PNF techniques on this patient, which of the following would be best to utilize to assist this
patient?

A. Hold and relax

B. Rhythmic initiation

C. Rhythmic stabilization

D. Slow reversal hold

33. In studying the pulmonary system of a patient, you are discussing site of gas exchange in the
pulmonary system. Which of the following is the most likely site of gas exchange?

A. Alveoli

B. Bronchi

C. Brachialis

D. Trachea

34. You are performing passive range of motion on a pulmonary patient. What effect will passive range
of motion have on this patient’s pulmonary ventilation?

A. No effect

B. An undetermined effect

C. A response proportional to the number of joints involved in passive range of motion

D. A response proportional to the speed and duration of exercises administered

35. You have a patient who has episodes of dyspnea and difficulty in expiration. Which of the following
would your patient most likely be experiencing?

A. Asthma

B. Bronchitis
C. Emphysema

D. Cystic fibrosis

36. The client has been positioned on his side. You would anticipate that which of the following areas
would be a pressure point in this position?

A. Sacrum

B. Occiput

C. Ankles

D. Heels

37. The patient is a 26-year-old male, status post ankle fracture. The physician orders mobilization to
increase joint range of motion. Which of the following is the maximum loose-packed position of the
ankle joint?

A. 10° plantar flexion

B. 5° plantar flexion

C. 0° plantar flexion

D. 15° plantar flexion

38. You are treating a patient status post total hip replacement. You notice in the patient’s chart that the
patient has received a cemented total hip replacement. Which of the following is not an advantage of a
cemented hip?

A. It allows early weight bearing

B. Surgeons report a 90% success rate

C. There is less postoperative pain

D. It requires less bone tissue removal

39. In class you are studying the elbow joint and optimum force output. Which of the following would be
the position for elbow flexion in terms of the greatest advantage of optimum force output?

A. 120° of elbow flexion

B. Flexion supination

C. Midposition or semiprone

D. 90° of elbow flexion

40. In anatomy class you are studying the tendinous cuff muscles, also called SITS (supraspinatus,
infraspinatus, teres minor). Which of the following does the combined action of the tendinous cuff
muscles produce?

A. Abduction of the shoulder

B. External rotation of the shoulder

C. Pulling of the humerus upward and outward

D. Depression of the head of the humerus

41. Your patient is a 26-year-old paraplegic. You are observing the patient standing with braces for a
prolonged time. For the paraplegic, prolonged standing with braces in a lordotic position may result in
which of the following?

A. Stretching of the hip flexors

B. Stretching of the hip extensors

C. Stretching of the hip extensors and iliofemoral ligament

D. Stretching of the ischial femoral ligament

42. You are in anatomy class studying motions of the wrist. It is known that the motion that the wrist
produces is actually a combination of several motions at several different articulations. Which of the
following would best describe the axis of motion for the radial and ulnar deviation?

A. It lies in the coronal plane through the lunate

B. It lies in the sagittal plane through the trapezoid

C. It lies in the sagittal plane through the capitate

D. It lies in the coronal plane through the capitate

43. You are performing a test on a patient for hip flexor length. Upon testing the hip, the extremity
being tested abducts and remains slightly flexed when lowered to the table. Which of the following
would you most likely suspect of muscle tightness?

A. Psoas major

B. Tensor fascia latae

C. Semitendinosus

D. Rectus femoris
44. On the patient described above, you decide to measure normal expansion at the xiphoid process.
Which of the following would be the normal value for expansion when measured at the xiphoid process?

A. 5 to 10 cm

B. 5 to 10 in

C. .5 to 1.0 cm

D. .5 to 1.0 in

45. You are performing a postural examination on a 16-year-old track and field star. Upon posture
evaluation you notice that the patient has pronated feet. Which of the following would best describe
this condition?

A. Lateral convexity of the Achilles’ tendon due to a medical weight line

B. Eversion of the calcaneus with lateral convexity of the Achilles’ tendon

C. Eversion of the calcaneus with a medical weight line

D. Inversion of the calcaneus with a medical weight line

46. You are in rheumatology class studying degenerative joint disease. Time instructor asks you where
Heberden's nodes are most frequently located as a result of degenerative joint disease. Which of the
following is the correct answer?

A. Distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers

B. Distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes

C. Distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers

D. Distal interphalangeal joints of the toes

47. You are performing a gait evaluation on a cross-country track runner who pulled a hamstring muscle.
During which period of time in the patient's gait cycle would tile hamstring muscle be the most active?

A. Midstance to heel-off

B. Swing phase

C. Acceleration to midswing

D. Midswing to deceleration

48. You are performing palpation on a patient with general lower back pain. Which of the following
landmarks would be most helpful to isolate the 14 vertebral level upon palpation of this patient?
A. Anterior superior iliac spine

B. Posterior superior iliac spine

C. Iliac crest

D. Greater trochanter

49. Your patient is a 56-year-old female with a diagnosis of a herniated disc between vertebrae C6 and
C7. During a conversation with the physician, he informs you that the patient has a C7 nerve root
impingement. Upon testing this patient, you expect weakness in all of the following motor activities
except for which one?

A. Wrist flexion

B. Finger flexion

C. Finger extension

D. Elbow extension

50. You are performing ultrasound under water to a patient’s left hand. in performing the ultrasound
tinder water which of the following would be the most important safety factor to be considered?

A. Utilizing a plastic bucket instead of a metal whirlpool

B. Keeping the ultrasound head moving

C. Keeping the ultrasound watts per centimeters squared under 1.0

D. Connecting the ultrasound to a ground fault interruption circuit

51. You have been called into the physical therapy department secondary to a patient being brought
into the emergency room with severe bums on both posterior lower extremities. The physician instructs
you to begin working with this newly admitted burn patient. Which of the following would be your first
priority?

A. Performing an evaluation on the wound area

B. Splinting to control contractures and edema

C. Closing the wound

D. Beginning immediate wound cleaning, debridement, and sterile dressing

52. The physician has instructed you to perform ultrasound under water secondary to a patient
experiencing foot pain in the medial arch. When administering ultrasound under water, which of the
following would be the best position for the sound head?
A. The sound head should be in direct contact with the medial arch of the foot

B. The sound head should be approximately 3 inches away from the medial arch of the foot

C. The sound head should be approximately 1 inch away from the medial arch of the foot

D. The sound head should be approximately 9 cm from the medial arch of the foot

53. You are a physical therapist who has been instructed by a physician to lead an exercise group of 20
geriatric patients at the community center. The physician suggests that you emphasize areas that
typically show reduced range of motion for geriatric patients. Which of the actions listed below would
not be an emphasis of your program?

A. Hip flexion

B. Hip extension

C. Pectoralis muscle stretch

D. Chin glides, chin tucks

54. During the swing phase, acceleration stage, which muscles remain active throughout the entire stage
to help shorten the extremity so it can clear the ground by holding the ankle in a neutral position?

A. Tibialis posterior, peroneus brevis

B. Tibialis anterior, peroneus tertius

C. Tibialis anterior, peroneus tertius, extensor hallucis longus

D. Tibialis posterior, peroneus tertius, extensor hallucis longus

55. During the swing phase, deceleration stage, which muscles contract to slow down the swing phase
just prior to heel strike, thus permitting the heel to strike quietly in a controlled manner?

A. Gluteus medius

B. Gluteus maximus

C. Hamstring

D. Quadriceps

56. Your patient is an 18-year-old male who was seriously injured in a motorcycle accident. The
radiology examination reveals a fracture described as one in which the ends are driven into each other.
Of the choices listed below, what is the typical name for this type of fracture?

A. Comminuted
B. Impacted

C. Displaced

D. Intraarticular

57. Muscular contraction of the cardiac chambers is different from the electrical conduction system. The
normal conduction pathway for muscular contraction of the heart to follow is which of the patterns
listed below?

A. Left atrium, right atrium, ventricles

B. Right atrium, left atrium, ventricles

C. Right ventricle, left ventricle, atrium

D. Semimembranosus, semitendinosus

64. During an internship in the neurology unit at a major university hospital, the neurosurgeon asks you
to perform the test for reflex CS. Which of the following should be tested to determine the reflex at level
CS?

A. Elbow extension

B. Triceps C. Biceps

D. Brachioradialis

65. A patient enters the clinic with a prescription for direct current electrical stimulation. Upon reading
the order you notice that the patient’s diagnosis is Bell’s palsy. Of the following, which nerve would you
determine to be injured in this patient?

A. Trigeminal

B. Trochlear

C. Facial

D. Vagus

66. You are evaluating a patient with a repetitive motion injury from work. You have tested the patient’s
pronation/supination of the forearm and wrist flexion/extension. Which of the following muscles does
not assist in pronation of the radioulnar joint?

A. Brachioradialis

B. flexor carpi radialis

C. Pronator quadratus
D. flexor carpi ulnaris

67. A butcher is responsible for processing meat packaging. In the process of carving the meat he
injures the second and third digits of his hand. The hand surgeon reports that the nerves in the second
and third digits have been permanently injured. Which nerve/nerves would be injured?

A. Ulnar nerve

B. Median nerve

C. Radial nerve

D. Ulnar/rnedian

68. When studying upper motor neuron lesions in neuroanatomy, you determine that which of the
following is not a characteristic typically seen with this type of lesion?

A. Muscle atrophy

B. Spasticity

C. Hyperreflexia

D. Babinski sign possible

69. A 26-year-old the athlete has just completed a competitive event in swimming, biking, and running.
The patient has extreme muscle fatigue after this event. Which of the following may build up in the body
and cause muscle fatigue?

A. Glycogen

B. Lactic acid

C. Fatty acids

D. Glucose

70. In determining a target heart rate for a 62-year-old patient, you would use the calculation for
maximum heart rate. Which of the following best describes the calculation for maximum heart rate?

A. Pulse rate for 60 seconds

B. Count pulse for 15 seconds x 4, plus age

C. (220 plus age)

D. (220 minus age)

71. A patient undergoes open-heart surgery at a prestigious heart hospital. The patient is being
evaluated 1 day postoperative for possible placement in the acute inpatient cardiac rehab program. The
patient’s blood pressure reading indicates hypertension. Which of the following readings would be
considered indicative of hypertension?

A. 120/ 80

B. Above 120/ 80

C. Above 140/ 90

D. Under 120/ 90

72. A patient comes to you from the hand surgeon with a request to specifically evaluate the anatomical
snuffbox. The hand surgeon is concerned that the patient might have suffered an injury to the nerve
crossing the anatomical snuffbox. Of the following nerves which would you need to evaluate?

A. Radial

B. Median

C. Ulnar

D. Musculoculotaneous

73. A patient comes to you status post ankle sprain which is healing well. The patient needs to increase
range of motion to resume full activity. Of the following, which movement will take place in the ankle
subtalar joint?

A. Pronation/ supination

B. Eversion/ inversion

C. Adduction/ abduction

D. Dorsiflexion

74. An 8-year-old male enters the clinic with a diagnosis of fracture of the distal radius. The patient’s
mother reports that the patient was riding his bicycle down a steep hill when he fell off. The physician
sends the patient to you for evaluation because he is concerned about possible nerve damage. A
fracture of the distal radius will result in possible nerve damage to which nerve?

A. Musculocutaneous

B. Radial

C. Ulnar
D. Median

75. A patient comes to the clinic with a swollen right thumb. He reports that he was at work operating a
press machine when the press closed and caught his thumb. The patient will need joint immobilization
to restore range of motion; otherwise he has escaped with minimal injury. The carpometacarpal joint of
the thumb is classified as what type of joint?

A. Uniaxial

B. Biaxial

C. Saddle

D. Hinge

76. A muscle is known to have a proximal and distal attachment. It is necessary to know the attachments
for palpation and manual muscle tests. Which of the following is the proximal attachment of a limb
muscle?

A. Tendon

B. Insertion

C. Belly of muscle

D. Origin

77. A patient enters the clinic with what appears to be pinched nerves in the cervical spine area. The
patient is reporting radiating symptoms into the left upper extremity that follow no particular
dermatome pattern. The patient reports that he is going to have a test in which some type of electrodes
are inserted into the muscle to test which nerves are injured. Based on this information, which of the
following tests is the patient most likely having?

A. Electromyogram

B. Arthroscopy

C. EKG

D. Myelogram

78. Your neuroanatomy professor lectures on the divisions of the brain. The brain is divided into three
major divisions. Which of the following is not one of the three major brain regions?

A. Brainstem

B. Midbrain
C. Cerebellum

D. Cerebrum

79. A pregnant patient is advised to avoid the Valsalva maneuver during her pregnancy. What effect
listed below does the Valsalva maneuver have?

A. Increase in intrathoracic pressure

B. Decrease in intrathoracic pressure

C. Pressure remains the same, no effect

D. Increase in inspiration needs

80. You are in physiology class studying the difference between erythrocytes and leukocytes in the body.
Each one has a primary function to perform so that the body functions normally. Which of the following
would be a primary function of erythrocytes in the body?

A. Transport oxygen

B. Carry iron

C. Produce calcium

D. Produce red blood cells

81. You are continuing your studies in neurology on abnormal reflexes. You are now focusing on the
reflex called the flexor withdrawal. The flexor withdrawal integration level is spinal. Where would the
stimulus be applied to test the flexor withdrawal?

A. Sole of the foot with lower extremity in extension

B. Sole of the foot with lower extremity in flexion

C. Forefoot with the lower extremity in extension

D. Forefoot with the lower extremity in flexion

82. You are testing the tonic labyrinthine reflex of a patient. You have positioned the patient supine.
Which of the following would you consider to be a positive response to this position?

A. Increased extensor tone

B. Increased flexor tone

C. Increased extensor tone in upper extremities and flexor tone

D. Increased flexor tone in upper extremities and extensor tone in lower extremities
83. You are testing a patient for the negative support reaction. The integration level for the negative
support reaction is the brainstem. You bounce the patient several times on the soles of the feet but you
do not allow her to bear weight. Which of the following would you anticipate as the patient’s response?

A. Increased extensor tone in lower extremities

B. Increased extensor tone in upper extremities

C. Increased flexor tone in lower extremities

D. Increased extensor tone in upper extremities

84. You have a patient referred to physical therapy with cerebral palsy. Which of the following does not
describe what you would typically observe in a cerebral palsy child?

A. The child may be either passive or stiff

B. The child cannot adjust the body position

C. The child can hold or bring the head into a normal position

D. The child may be classified as either spastic or ataxic

85. A physician informs you that he feels that the patient is pretending to be ill to arouse sympathy for
his condition. He suspects that the patient is slow to recuperate because he continues to receive
benefits from the insurance company during a slow recovery. Which of the following most likely
describes this individual?

A. Patient is negligent

B. Patient is a hypochondriac

C. Patient is a malinger

D. Patient is paranoid

86. A patient comes to physical therapy for further instructions on crutch ambulation. Upon observation
you notice that the patient moves the left crutch first, then the right leg, then the right crutch, then the
left leg. Of the following, which type of crutch gait have you most likely observed?

A. Three point gait

B. Two point gait

C. Swing through

D. Four point gait

87. A patient is referred to physical therapy several months status post hip burn. The patient reports
that he had an allograft over the burn area. Which of the following does this describe?

A. The graft skin is from the same species

B. The graft skin is from the same individual

C. The graft skin is from an animal

D. A surgical incision in the form of letter Z, the length of the graft

88. You are performing a musculoskeletal examination of a patient’s thoracic lumbar spine. Which of the
tests listed below would best determine if there is an impingement of the nerve in the thoracic lumbar
root level?

A. Compression test

B. Distraction test

C. Ely’s test

D. Slump test

89. You are performing a neurological evaluation on a patient that has had a vascular injury. The patient
has the following impairment: loss of consciousness, coma, no ability to speak, and hemiplegia. Based
on this information, in which of the following areas does this vascular involvement occur?

A. Anterior cerebral artery

B. Middle cerebral artery

C. Posterior cerebral artery

D. Vertebrobasilar artery

90. According to the American Physical Therapy Association Standard of Care, the initial evaluation
should include all of the following except?

A. Diagnosis

B. Social environment needs

C. Functional status

D. Medication

91. You are evaluating a patient with a diagnosis of Marie-Strumpell disease. The physician instructs you
to evaluate the patient and determine an appropriate treatment program. Which of the following would
be the best treatment program for this patient?
A. Rest and medication

B. Joint mobility, heat, and postural instructions

C. Aspirin in high dosages

D. Resistive exercises and stretching

92. You are instructed to perform vascular testing on a 35-year-old female with peripheral vascular
disease. The physician sends this patient to your department for evaluation and set-up of an appropriate
treatment program. Which of the following tests would be the least important in evaluating this
patient’s condition?

A. Rubor test

B. Girth measurements

C. Volumetric measurement

D. Deep pressure test

93. You are performing an upper extremity evaluation on a patient with an injury to the right shoulder.
You are evaluating the muscles that attach to the greater tuberosity of the humerus. In planning this
patient’s treatment program, which of the following muscles would not be emphasized?

A. Supraspinatus

B. Infraspinatus

C. Teres minor

D. Subscapularis

94. You have a 42-year–old female status post removal of the lymphatic system in the axillary region
secondary to cancer. The physician wants you to work on edema through measurement for a pressure
garment and massage 1-day post surgery. How should the massage be performed for best results?

A. You decide not to do massage but Jobst compression pump

B. Massage the proximal segment first

C. Massage the distal segment first

D. Order a garment and check on the patient daily

95. A patient postoperative removal of the lymphatic system in the axillary region is very concerned
about the cancer spreading. You read in her chart that the physician was not remove all of the cancer; it
has spread. At the next treatment session she asks you if the surgery was successful. Since the physician
is inaccessible, what do you tell her?

A. You are deeply sorry, but it was not 100% successful

B. You are deeply sorry, but you are sure the doctor did the best he could, as he is one of the top
surgeons

C. You have no idea whether or not surgery was successful

D. Tell her you are not able to provide that information; she will have to discuss it with her surgeon

96. You have a 26-year-old female 2 days post hand laceration. The doctor orders paraffin treatments
and range of motion. What should be the typical treatment temperature for paraffin?

A. 50°C

B. 30°C

C. 40°C

D. 126°C

97. You are working at a hospital that has not approved the SOAP note format, but instead uses the
problem-oriented medical record format. What are the four major components of the POMR format?

A. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan

B. Subjective, objective, progress, potential for rehabilitation

C. Subjective, laboratory test with physician medical history, assessment, prognosis for rehabilitation

D. Subjective, treatment plan, assessment, prognosis

98. In the hospital where you work, the policy states all notes must be written in the SOAP format. Your
patient tells you that his chief concern is limited movement or loss of range of motion in the left
shoulder. Where does this information go in the SOAP format?

A. Subjective

B. Objective

C. Assessment

D. Plan

99. This disorder affects bone formation and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant factor. The result
is the long bones of the limbs remain short. What is the medical name for this condition?
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta

B. Bone tumor

C. Achondroplasia

D. Fibrous dysplasia

00. The chart review reveals a patient with a condition known as thyrotoxicosis. This condition is due to
hyperthyroidism. The disease is characterized by an enlargement of the thyroid gland. What is not
another more common name for this disease?

A. Grave’s disease

B. Primary hyperthyroidism

C. Secondary hyperthyroidism

D. Fibrous dysplasia

101. You are given the description of a type of electrical stimulation as follows: medium-frequency
current, approximately 4000 Hz, and four electrodes in a crossed pattern on the patient. What type of
electrical stimulation is most likely being described?

A. Low-volt electric stimulation

B. High-volt electric stimulation

C. Russian stimulation

D. Interferential current stimulation

102. There is a special type of electrical stimulation whose primary purpose is to alleviate pain for a
patient. There are minimal side effects and the patient can utilize this unit 24 hours a day. What is the
name for this type of electrical stimulation?

A. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation

B. High-volt stimulation

C. Low-volt stimulation

D. Russian stimulation

103. The hip musculature involves several muscle groups for different actions. Hip abduction takes
place with nerve innervation from the superior gluteal nerve. Which muscles compose the hip abductor
group?

A. Psoas major, iliacus, sartorius

B. Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, tensor fasciae latae

C. Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, sartorius

D. Gluteus medius, gracilis, pectineus

104. The patient injured the hip adductor muscles in a track race while jumping hurdles. The patient
comes to the clinic with pain in the adductor muscle group. Several nerves innervate the hip adductor
muscles?

A. Femoral, tibial

B. Femoral, superior gluteal

C. Femoral, obturator, tibial

D. Femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal

105. A 21-year-old female sprains her ankle at a basketball game. You are the medical staff member
attending the game. You notice that swelling is beginning but she insists on continuing to play. Which of
the following modalities would not decrease swelling?

A. Ice massage

B. Cryopressure

C. Ice towel

D. Evaporative coolants

106. A patient with inflammation comes to the clinic with evaluation and treatment orders. Which of the
following modalities could be utilized to place chemical substances into the body with direct current to
decrease inflammation?

A. Myoflex with ultrasound

B. Phonophoresis

C. Iontophoresis

D. Ultrasound

107. You are working with a physical therapist student when performing short-wave diathermy on a 36-
year-old female patient. You explain that this treatment is an example of heat transferred by energy.
Which term listed below correctly identifies this type of heat transfer?

A. Conversion

B. Convection
C. Conduction

D. Radiation

108. In physical therapy you may utilize physical or mechanical techniques, as well as manual therapy
techniques. Which of the following is not example of manual therapy techniques performed by a
physical therapist?

A. Grade-one mobilization

B. Grade-two mobilization

C. Grade-three mobilization

D. Grade-five mobilization

109. You have a patient reporting neck pain with a bulging disc at level C6-C7. During the history, the
patient tells you that she also suffers from TMJ problems. The physician’s order is for cervical traction.
What would be best for this patient?

A. Do not perform cervical traction secondary to medical history

B. Sitting cervical traction

C. Supine cervical traction with cervical spine pillow

D. Saunders cervical traction device

110. Your patient is a 44-year-old female with low back pain resulting from no apparent cause/reason.
You decide to set her up in traction with a hold period of 40 seconds, rest period 10 seconds, for 20
minutes at 60 pounds. What type of traction does this best describe?

A. Autotraction

B. Gravity lumbar traction

C. Manual traction

D. Intermittent mechanical traction

111. Psychology of a patient can play an important part in his or her physical therapy. Physical therapists
may treat patients who are in the psychiatric ward of a hospital for a wide range of musculoskeletal
condition. The chart of psych patient you are treating provides the following information: patient
exhibits psychotic behavior, suspicious, resentful and rigid. What does this description most likely
describe?

A. Hypochondria
B. Hysteria

C. Paranoia

D. Depression

112. You are on rounds in the psychiatric ward as a physical therapist intern. You are given the following
information on a patient: he is pessimistic, irritable, lacks self-confidence, and has a gloomy outlook on
life. What would be the most likely diagnosis, or problem, this patient is experiencing?

A. Hysteria

B. Depression

C. Psychopathy

D. Schizophrenia

113. The patient you are working with is a 28-year-old head injury victim of a brutal beating in an alley.
The patient clinically demonstrates excessive tone in the limbs, which are resistant

to both active and passive movement. Which term listed below would best describe this condition?

A. Flaccidity

B. Hypotonia

C. Hypertonia

D. Rigidity

114. You are teaching a spinal cord injury patient, proper pressure relief in the wheelchair. You explain
that every 10 to 15 minutes he will need to provide pressure relief independent to prevent sores or
ulcers. What is the minimal level of injury this patient can have in order to be able to provide
independent care for himself?

A. C4

B. C5

C. C6

D. C8 1

15. Your last patient of the day is a spinal cord injury patient whom you are teaching self-range of
motion. You explain that this will be a very important component in the home program. What is the
minimal level of injury this patient can have to perform self-range of motion independently?

A. C7
B. C8

C. C5

D. C4

116. A 26-year-old female is injured in a motor vehicle accident. The injury results in an incomplete
spinal cord lesion. The symptoms are paralysis and loss of sensation, except in the sacral area. What is
the correct term for this injury?

A. Cauda equina injury

B. Sacral sparing

C. Central cord syndrome

D. Brown-Sequard syndrome

117. A 12-year-old male is presented to the clinic with hip flexion contractures. The contractures are
secondary to fibrosis where the skin is bound down to the tissue. The physician states that the patient
has chronic inflammation of the connective tissue. What is the name of this medical condition?

A. Chronic contractures

B. Scleroderma

C. Fibrositis

D. Myositis

118. You are to perform a postural evaluation of a patient from the side or lateral view. Specifically
determining alignment for the head, scapula, and shoulder, which of the following is normal alignment?

A. Head neutral, scapula depressed, shoulder neutral

B. Head forward, scapula flat, shoulder neutral

C. Head neutral, scapula flat, shoulder neutral

D. Head hyperextended, scapula winged, shoulder neutral

119. A spinal cord patient 2 weeks post MVA is referred to physical therapy for evaluation and prognosis
for rehabilitation. What muscle grade in the lower extremity is necessary for functional performance by
this individual?

A. Fair

B. Fair plus
C. Poor plus

D. Good minus

120. You are to perform a manual muscle test on a 26-year-old hip patient. The patient can perform full
range of motion in supine position for hip adduction/abduction. Using this information, what would you
determine this patient’s muscle grade to be?

A. Poor

B. Trace

C. Fair

D. Zero

121. You are instructed to perform manual muscle testing on a L3-L4 spinal cord patient, who is a 21-
year-old male and uncooperative. Which of the following considerations is not important?

A. Informing the patient of what you will be doing

B. Stabilizing the proximal part

C. Lining up the origin and insertion

D. Testing bilaterally, starting with the injured side first

122. You have a 29-year-old male patient who was involved in a chemical burn accident at work the day
before. You are instructed to start whirlpool and debridement at 98°F. What would be the correct
temperature conversion to Celsius for this patient?

A. 36°C

B. 50°C

C. 25°C

D. 30°C

123. Several types of contraction may take place with an individual muscle or muscle groups. These are
classified in kinesiology with specific terms. Of the following, which is referred to as the muscle group
whose contraction is considered to be the practical agent in producing a joint motion?

A. Antagonist

B. Concentric

C. Agonist
D. Eccentric

124. Which physics law can be interpreted clinically to mean that the further the infrared light, for
example, is moving away from the patient, the greater the decrease in intensity will be?

A. Joule’s law

B. Ohm’s law

C. Inverse square law

D. Cosine law

125. You are requested to treat a 56-year-old male in the neurointensive care unit. You find the
following results on the patient: no voluntary movement, unresponsive to stimulus, no reflexes, and
positive Babinski response. Which most likely describes this patient’s condition?

A. Cerebrovascular accident

B. Coma

C. Stupor

D. Uncooperative patient

126. A patient is send to physical therapy with psoriasis, and the physician orders a third-degree
erythemal dosage on the patient. The approximately 3 to 4 days. The patient has slight edema with
marked peeling and severe itching. What would be the approximate treatment frequency for this
patient?

A. Once a week

B. Two times a week

C. Three times a week

D. Daily

127. You are an educational instructor of a physical therapist program. You explain to the class that
scores on testing are going to be compared to standard deviation of the mean. What percentage of
students taking your examination would you expect to score within plus and minus one standard
deviation of the mean?

A. 68%

B. 70%

C. 72%
D. 50% 1

28. It is important to be ethical when performing a research study. Which of the following should take
place first for a study to be ethical?

A. The patient should be informed that he or she has the right to terminate the experiment at any time

B. The patient should be debriefed following the experiment

C. The end results of the experiment should be explained to the patient

D. The patient should sign the informed consent document

129. In implementing a treatment program for a patient after a non-surgical ACL reconstruction, which
of the following would be the most appropriate exercise to initiate in the beginning stages of
rehabilitation?

A. Full-range isokinetics for knee flexion and extension

B. Straight leg raises times six repetitions with maximal weight

C. Stair machine

D. N-K table full range of motion times six repetitions with maximal weight

130. You are a physical therapist providing medical coverage for a high school football game. During the
course of the game, one of the football players is knocked down on the field. You rush out to his side
and determine that the player is unconscious. What is the first thing you should do in examining the
unconscious athlete?

A. Check breathing and, if breathing is impaired, clear the airway and proceed to give mouth-to-mouth
resuscitation if necessary

B. Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears,
eyes or mouth

C. Check for shock

D. Since the victim is unconscious have someone call 911, then proceed to check the airway, breathing,
and pulse

131. You have received a physician’s order to discharge an inpatient that has been under your care for a
total knee replacement. Which of the following personnel would you contact first to start planning
discharge from the hospital to home? Select the most appropriate answer.

A. The physician

B. Social worker
C. Patient’s family

D. Home health agency

132. You are participating in a track and field even on a hot with high humidity. The physical therapist
that is participating with you becomes severely dehydrated and, with exposure to the severe heat, goes
into shock. Your colleague falls to the ground and needs immediate attention. Which of the following is
the first step that should be taken?

A. First check for any wounds to see if bleeding is present

B. Body temperature should be reduced by placing a cold towels or cloths on your colleague

C. Body position should be arranged with the head and the trunk higher than the limbs

D. If available, oxygen should be administered

133. You are working in the spinal cord unit with a C6 spinal cord injury patient is for him or her to be
able to perform independent bed mobility with side rails. In planning the treatment program, which of
the following muscles would you most likely emphasize?

A. Pectoralis major

B. Neck musculature

C. Scapula musculature

D. Biceps muscle

134. You are treating a patient on the field who has the following clinical features: demonstrates muscle
twitching and cramping in the lower calf, spasms in the gastrocnemius muscle, and heavy sweating.
Which of the following heat disorders is this patient most likely experiencing?

A. Heat cramps

B. Heat syncope

C. Heat exhaustion

D. Heat hyperpyrexia

135. You are testing a pediatric patient for symmetrical tonic reflex. You provide the test stimulus by
flexing the patient's head. Which of the following best describes a positive reaction to this test
stimulus?

A. The arms will flex and the legs will extend

B. The arms will extend and the legs will flex

C. The will flex and the legs will flex

D. The arms will extend and the legs will extend

136. A patient comes to the clinic with burns on the left anterior arm and left anterior leg. You have
scheduled sterile whirlpool debridement and preparation of dressings for this patient. Utilizing the Rule
of Nines and assuming this patient is an adult, what would be the specific value for the percentage of
burns suffered by this patient?

A. 4.5%

B. 9%

C. 13.5%

D. 18%

137. The patient is sent to you for bracing as a result of a fracture at the level T10 to L1. The physician
recommends a rigid highback brace for stabilization. Which of the following braces would be most
appropriate to plan for this patient?

A. Lumbar corset

B. Taylor brace

C. Knight-Taylor spinal brace

D. Jewett brace

138. You are working in the physical therapy department with a child who has suffered burns on the left
arm and left leg. Utilizing the Rule of Nines, which of the following specific values would correctly
describe the percentage of the body burned?

A. 13.5%

B. 23%

C. 18%

D. 36%

139. You are treating a patient for arthritis and is reporting wrist pain. You order a typical brace utilize
with arthritis patients, which supports the hand in a functional position. Which of the following braces
have you ordered for the implementation of the treatment program for this patient?

A. A wrist cock-up splint

B. A resting hand splint

C. A wrist splint static

D. An ulnar/radial gutter

140. A patient is seen in physical therapy with a brachial plexus injury. The physician has ordered that a
brace or splint be used to protect the patient and promote healing. Which ofthe following would be
correct to implement in the treatment program of a brachial plexus injury?

A. A shoulder sling

B. A shoulder splint

C. No bracing should be utilized and active motion should be encouraged

D. The patient does not need a shoulder splint but should be given an elbow splint

141. You are analyzing the gait of an individual with a prosthetic. In evaluating the gait, you notice that
the socket has a poor fit and appears to have a weak suspension system, and the knee friction is too
soft. Which of the following would be the most likely gait deviation that you would observe?

A. Lateral whip

B. Rotation of the foot at heel strike

C. Instability of the knee

D. Pistoning of the socket

142. You are performing a gait evaluation on a patient who has injured his right lower extremity. In
evaluating the patient's gait, you notice that he will not bear weight on the injured extremity. When
ambulating he takes a short step to transfer weight to he uninjured side as quickly as possible. Which of
the following types of gait would best describe this patient's symptoms?

A. Steppage gait

B. Foot slap

C. Antalgic gait

D. Abducted lurch

143. You are providing an education program to an industry where repetitive motion injuries are
commonly seen. To assist in decreasing repetitive injuries within this company, which of the following
would be the most important concept to emphasize first?

A. Instruct the employees in proper warm-up procedures

B. Instruct the employees in strengthening exercise

C. Provide the company with isokinetic testing and the results on each employee

D. Provide posters on proper body mechanics.

144. A patient is sent to physical therapy with a burn on the posterior aspect of the elbow. The patient
has a low pain tolerance and was admitted to the hospital in the early morning. It is afternoon and the
patient is sent down for physical therapy. Which of the following would be the most appropriate
treatment program?

A. Active range of motion emphasizing flexion

B. Active range of motion emphasizing extension

C. Passive range of motion emphasizing extension and positioning of the elbow in full extension

D. Whirlpool

145. In implementing another cardiopulmonary-pulmonary program for a chest physical therapy patient,
which of the following positions is most appropriate for the right middle lobe?

A. Patient is sitting in the chair leaning forward approximately 20° to 30°, resting on pillows

B. Patient is in prone position, rotated one-half turn upward, with the bed elevated 18 inches and chest
tilted 20°

C. Patient is prone with pillows under the stomach

D. Patient is in left sidelying position rotated backward one-half turn, with the bed elevated 14 inches.

146. You are treating an inpatient at a local hospital status post left CVA. The patient is to return home
in approximately 2 weeks and you are working on transfers into and out of a vehicle. Which of the
following would be the most important to implement in this patient's treatment program?

A. Notify the patient's family that the patient will be leaving the hospital in 2 weeks. Request that they
come in to learn how to perform transfers into and out of a vehicle.

B. You have a modified vehicle within the rehabilitation program. Have the patient practice transfers
into and out of that vehicle.

C. Instruct the patient that he or she will be returning home in 2 weeks so it is extremely important to
concentrate on transfer techniques and cooperate 100% with you.

D. Obtain a handicapped parking permit for this patient.

147. When evaluating a stage-three decubitus ulcer of a patient, which of the following would be the
least important to note in the progress notes?

A. The size of the wound

B. Temperature

C. Hip muscle strength

D. Drainage and color

148. You are implementing an exercise program for a patient who is rehabilitated after right shoulder
pain. Which of the following would you implement in a treatment program to assist in instructing him or
her in functional training and carryover?

A. Isokinetic rehabilitation

B. PNF movements

C. The shoulder wheel

D. Dressing and undressing activities

149. You are analyzing a patient's cardiopulmonary status in the physical therapy department. You
notice during chest physical therapy that percussions sound dull with wheezing and crackles upon
auscultation. These clinical signs are most likely associated with which of the following lung pathologies?

A. Atelectasis

B. Pulmonary edema

C. Pneumonia

D. Pneumothorax

150. You have a cardiac patient 3 days postoperative referred to cardiac rehab program. The physician
refers the patient to physical therapy for you to implement a treatment program. Which of the
following treatment programs would be appropriate for this patient?

A. Ambulating 200 yards in a 5-minute period with no EKG changes or changes in symptoms

B. Lower extremity ergometry x 15 minutes

C. Lower extremity ergometry x 30 minutes

D. Upper extremity ergometry x 15 minutes

151. You are performing a treatment program for a neurological patient. You move the patient's
extremity through a predetermined range of motion. This motion is shoulder flexion and extension.
Then the patient is requested to repeat the movement on her own. Which of the following are you
most likely performing on this patient?

A. Kinesthesia
B. Proprioception

C. Graphesthesia

D. Barognosis

152. A 25-year old female 6 days post cesarean delivery has been referred to you for training in proper
posture and body mechanics. Which of the following would be the proper instructions for body
mechanics for a post cesarean patient?

A. Whenever sitting, the patient should avoid hard chairs because they have poor back support

B. When standing, the patient should relax the abdominal muscles in order not to place any strain upon
them

C. When bending over, the patient should keep a flattened lordotic curve in the low back with a wide
base of support and legs parallel

D. When getting up from a lying-down position, the patient should roll over to the side, swinging the legs
over the edge and getting up slowly.

153. You are treating a patient who comes to physical therapy complaining of lower thoracic pain. Upon
palpation you notice no significant structural or muscular problems. You decide to test the patient's
reflexes, particularly the upper abdominal reflex. Which of the following levels are you testing?

A. Thoracic 10, 11, 12

B. Thoracic 8, 9, 10

C. Thoracic 5, 6, 7

D. Thoracic 9, 10, 11

154. A truck driver is sent to physical therapy with a diagnosis of Bell's Palsy. The patient relates that he
had been driving for 3 days continuously for periods of 12 to 14 hours on the road. The patient reports
that he kept his window rolled down so that he could get fresh air to keep himself awake. What type of
treatment program listed below would be most effective for this patient?

A. Direct current electrical stimulation to the motor points

B. Iontophoresis for the inflammation

C. High-volt electrical stimulation

D. Massage
155. The physical therapist is performing an in service on proper body mechanics to a group of physical
therapist assistants. Which of the following best describes the domain in education that deals with
motor skills?

A. Cognitive

B. Affective

C. Psychomotor

D. Motor skills

156. You are treating a pediatric patient with cystic fibrosis. The patient suffers from excessive
secretions. The physician diagnosed the patient with cystic fibrosis through a sweat test. Which of the
following would you implement for an appropriate treatment program for this patient?

A. Breathing exercises

B. Breathing exercises and postural drainage

C. The physician should order medication therapy

D. Chest physical therapy

157. In treating a 36-year-old patient for hip pain you notice, when measuring range of motion, that the
patient demonstrates a capsular pattern in the hip. Which of the following best describes the capsular
pattern that this patient most likely demonstrates secondary to inflammatory process of the hip?

A. Extension, abduction, internal rotation

B. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation

C. Flexion, adduction, internal rotation

D. Internal rotation, flexion, abduction

158. You are implementing a treatment program for a patient emphasizing equilibrium coordination.
Which of the following tests would be important to evaluate equilibrium coordination?

A. Observe the patient's posture while the body is in motion

B. Have the patient perform finger-to-nose, finger-to-finger test, and evaluate the quality of movement

C. Test the patient's ability to judge distance and speed of movement by drawing a circle

D. Evaluate the quality of movement control and speed with the patient pointing
159. You are treating a 16-year-old male diagnosed with chondromalacia, degeneration of the patellar
surface. The patient is very active and participates in football, basketball, and baseball. Of the following,
which exercise would you implement in this patient's treatment program?

A. Quadriceps exercise in extension

B. Short arc quads

C. Isokinetic, limiting extension to -30°

D. Exercise bike

160. A patient is referred to physical therapy for sensory testing. The physician has requested that you
evaluate the protective sensations of the patient and implement a treatment program to enhance them.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate test to perform on this patient?

A. Deep pressure

B. Proprioception

C. Two-point discrimination

D. Light touch

161. A new physician on staff refers a patient to physical therapy with a diagnosis of Down's syndrome.
Which of the following treatments should be implemented in this patient's physical therapy program?

A. No specific therapy is necessary for this patient

B. Range of motion and exercise

C. Medication

D. Increase muscle strengthening

162. You are instructed to perform mobilization on the glenohumeral joint of a patient 6 weeks post
heart surgery. You wish to increase abduction of the shoulder for this patient. Which of the following
would be the correct mobilization technique?

A. Inferior glide

B. Posterior glide

C. Anterior glide

D. Posterior and anterior glide

163. You are treating a neurological patient in a rehabilitation unit. You are treating the patient
according to the theories of Brunnstrom. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment
emphasis according to Brunnstrom?

A. Limb synergies are a necessary intermediate stage of recovery and the patient should be encouraged
to use limb synergies patterns

B. Patient should learn diagonal pattern of movement

C. Do no reinforce abnormal patterns of movement

D. Do not use associated reactions

164. You are assessing a patient for a neurological problem as a result of an arterial occlusion in the
brain. The patient demonstrates ataxia with severe coordination problems. Which of the following
arteries has most likely been occluded in the brain?

A. Middle cerebral artery

B. Posterior cerebral artery

C. Cerebellar artery

D. Vertebral artery

165. You are planning the treatment program for a patient who is referred to physical therapy with
Huntington's chorea. This is a hereditary disease that is characterized by irregularmovements and
tremors. In planning this patient's treatment program, which of the following could a licensed physical
therapist perform?

A. Advise the physician to prescribe medication to slow down the disease

B. Advise the patient that there is no treatment; therefore, you are sorry but you cannot help him

C. Call the family and suggest family education regarding the disease also contact the social worker for
involvement

D. Utilize postural exercises and balance activities

166. You are fabricating an orthotic for a patient with a left foot disorder. The patient has a diagnosis of
pes planus. The patient will require a longitudinal arch for support and to correct the pes planus. Which
of the following shoe modifications would most likely to prescribed for this patient?

A. Thomas heel

B. Rocker bottom

C. Scaphoid pads
D. Metatarsal bars

167. A patient is referred to physical therapy with heterotopic bone growth in the quadriceps muscle.
The physician has x-rayed the patient and determined that the disease is active. The diagnosis on the
script is myositis ossificans. The order is "evaluate and treat." Which of the following treatment
programs would be most appropriate for this patient?

A. Heat and general exercise

B. Rest

C. Exercise bicycle

D. Treadmill

168. You are implementing a treatment program for a patient who is 1-day post cesarean delivery.
Which of the following would not be an appropriate exercise program on day 1?

A. Diaphragmatic breathing

B. Huffing C. Pelvic floor exercises

D. Leg slides

169. You have a patient sent from the psychiatric ward to physical therapy for exercise to alleviate his
anxiety. When in the clinic the patient becomes withdrawn. The patient occasionally shifts from
withdrawal into obscene language, demonstrates very bizarre behavior, and seems to have problems
cooperating with physical therapy. Based on these symptoms, which of the following most likely
describes the condition of this patient?

A. Paranoia

B. Depression

C. Schizophrenia

D. Psychopathy

170. A patient is referred to physical therapy with an open wound on the lateral malleolus of the right
ankle. He is a spinal cord patient who has developed this wound through improper pressure on the
ankle. The physician's order is for a lamp to assist in killing the bacteria in the wound healing. In
implementing this patient's treatment program, which of the following lamps would be utilized?

A. Hot mercury lamp

B. High-pressure mercury vapor lamp

C. Low -pressure mercury vapor lamp

D. Ultraviolet lamp

171. While performing a musculoskeletal reassessment on a patient you particularly note the end-feel of
the glenohumeral joint. The end-feel can be characterized as a hard leather-like stoppage at the end of
range of motion. There is full normal range of motion of the shoulder with a slight give at the end.
Which of the following best describes the end-feel of this particular patient?

A. Bone-to-bone end-feel

B. Capsular end-feel

C. Empty end-feel

D. Springy block end-feel

172. A patient is sent to physical therapy with an ulnar nerve injury on the right hand. The patient works
at a factory sorting various parts for 8 hours a day. The patient is very motivated with rehabilitation and
anxious to be aggressive in physical therapy. Which of the following muscles are you going to emphasize
with this patient in physical therapy?

A. Flexor pollicis longus

B. Flexor carpi ulnaris

C. Flexor digitorum superficialis

D. Flexor carpi radialis

173. A 60-year old patient has an injury to the brachial plexus as a result of an automobile accident.
Muscle testing shows the patient has a fair minus grade of rhomboids, levator scapulae, and serratus
anterior. The physician has determined that the patient has injured the dorsal scapular and long
thoracic nerves. Which of the following best describes the origin of injury to the brachial plexus?

A. From the rami of the plexus

B. From the trunks of the plexus

C. From the lateral cord of the plexus

D. From the medial cord of the plexus

174. A patient is a 22-year old tennis player with a shoulder injury. You are palpating the external
rotators of the shoulder. You are palpating the muscle to determine if tenderness or edema exists. The
ideal position for palpation of this muscle as it relates to the joint could best be described by which of
the following?

A. Loose-packed position
B. Closed-packed position

C. 20° of movement

D. 90° of movement

175. You are evaluating a patient status post cerebrovascular injury. Upon evaluation you note that the
patient has the following characteristics: paralysis and weakness on the right side, possible motor
apraxia, and a decreased discrimination between left and right. These symptoms describe which of the
following?

A. Right hemisphere injury

B. Left hemisphere injury

C. Cerebellar injury

D. Brainstem Injury

176. The physician has ordered electrical stimulation to stimulate a denervated muscle. Which of the
following types of electrical types of electrical current would you most likely select to meet this
treatment objective?

A. Alternating current

B. High-volt current

C. Direct current

D. Interferential stimulation

177. You are performing goniometric measurement of the shoulder for external rotation. How should
the stationary arm of the goniometer be positioned to appropriately measure this patient?

A. Longitudinally with the shaft of the ulna

B. Longitudinally with the styloid process

C. Parallel or perpendicular to the midline of the floor

D. Longitudinally over the shaft of the humerus

178. You are assisting in planning the diet of a runner for a prolonged low-intensity running event. You
are determining the number of calories required in the conversion process for energy. The number of
calories required is different for protein, carbohydrates, and fats. One gram of carbohydrates yields 4
calories. How many grams of fat would yield 9 calories for this runner?

A. 1
B. 2.25

C. 3

D. 4

179. You are implementing a treatment program of pelvic traction for a patient with a back disorder.
Which of the following percentages would cause distraction of the vertebral bodies with lumbar
traction?

A. 30% of the patient's body weight

B. 50% of the patient's body weight

C. 25% of the patient's body weight

D. 35% of the patient's body weight

180. A physician has prescribed iontophoresis for a patient with acute inflammation. The chemical ion
to be utilized in this case by direct current should be negative. Which of the following chemical ions
listed below would be appropriate to use for a negative current?

D. Quick stretch 186. You are performing mobilization on a patient to decrease pain and increase range
of motion. It is the patient's first time in the rehabilitation department and you thoroughly explain what
to anticipate from the mobilization. You begin by mobilizing the involved side first and comparing it to
the uninvolved. Which of the following would not be an absolute contraindication to performing
mobilization on this patient?

A. Active inflammation

B. Active infection

C. Hypermobility

D. Recent fracture

187. In implementing a prenatal care program for a patient, which one of the following elements may
not be included in her physical therapy regimen?

A. Relaxation training

B. Kegel exercises

C. Activities of daily living modifications

D. Valsalva's maneuver
 188. You are treating a patient who has suffered a second-degree collateral ligament injury. The patient
injured the knee as a result of a lateral hit during football practice. The patient is currently 2 days post
injury. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for a second-degree medial collateral
ligament injury?

A. Crutch ambulation with toe touch weight bearing

B. Swimming x 20 minutes, flutter kick only

C. Exercise bike x 15 minutes

D. Whirlpool for range of motion

189. You are implementing a treatment program for a 26-year-old female who is approximately 2
months away from delivering a baby. The patient has been sent to the clinic for low back pain. In
implementing a treatment program, which of the following exercises would not be appropriate for this
patient to perform.

A. Diaphragmatic breathing

B. Pelvic floor exercise

C. Partial curl-ups

D. Postural instructions

190. This case study involves a spinal cord patient. The patient has the following functional outcomes:
vital capacity is 80%, patient is independent with floor to wheelchair transfers, and patient can perform
gait with bilateral KAFO and a walker. Based on this information, which of the following is probably the
level of lesion of this patient?

A. T1 to T5

B. T9 to T12

C. L4 to L5

D. T6 to T8

191. You are a physical therapist student who is studying the classes of levers in kinesiology. The
instructor describes one class of lever in the following way: a common example is a seesaw, or in the
body the example would be the atlanto-occipital joint. With the information given above, which of the
following is most likely the class of lever described?

A. First -class lever

B. Second-class lever
C. Third-class lever

D. Fourth-class lever

192. You are preparing to perform vibration on a neonate. Which of the following would be a
contraindication to performing vibration?

A. Persisted fetal circulation

B. Intolerance to treatment as indicated by low TcPCO2 values

C. Increased irritability during treatment

D. Bradycardia

193. You are treating a patient for a lower limb deformity. Upon analyzing the patient's lower extremity,
you notice that the distal aspect of the tibia is rotated or twisted medially as compared with its proximal
end. Which of the following would best describe this condition?

A. Anteversion

B. Retroversion

C. Internal tibial torsion

D. Genu valgum

194. A physician has ordered whirlpool and debridement to assist in the healing process of a patient
with a 2-day-old wound injury. The patient has inflammation as a result of the injury. The layered skin
that has been damaged is composed largely of fibrous connective tissue. The nerve fiber and blood
vessels are located in this area. Which layer of the tissue has been damaged based on the above
description?

A. The epidermis

B. The dermis

C. The subcutaneous layer

D. Adipose cells

195. A patient is sent to physical therapy with a prescription for gait training. The physician has advised
you to use a three-point gait pattern with axillary crutch nonweight bearing on the left lower extremity.
The patient will need to be measured for correct crutch fitting. Which of the following would be the
degree of elbow flexion that would be most desirable for axillary crutches?

A. 10° to 20°
B. 20° to 30°

C. 30°

D. 35°

196. You are performing physical therapy on a retired judge with arthritis in the right hip. After several
sessions of heat, ultrasound, and therapeutic exercise, the judge reports that he is feeling the best that
he has ever felt. At the end of the session the judge decides to shake your hand and slips you a 20 dollar
bill. Which of the following would be proper to do in this situation?

A. Keep the $20 tip and slip it in your pocket

B. Keep the money and place it in the coffee can in the department

C. Explain to the judge that you appreciate his tip but that in a professional relationship, it is unethical
for you to accept tips

D. Keep the tip and donate it to a charity

197. You are performing an evaluation on a patient secondary to a wrist injury from an industrial
accident. Upon testing, the patient has a positive Tinel's sign. A positive Tinel's sign would indicate pain
over which of the following?

A. Severed blood vessel

B. Severed ligament

C. Severed muscle

D. Severed nerve

198. In a research study, the test yields a statement saying the probability of the distribution obtained
occurred by chance alone. This is a statistical test for an association between observed data and
expected data represented by frequencies. Which of the following does this define?

A. Chi square

B. Data

C. T-test

D. Null hypothesis (HO)

199. The local community center calls you and asks if you will come over and perform a class on self-
range of motion to senior citizens to help them maintain their motion. When you go to the geriatric
center, which of the following movements would you least likely emphasize?
A. Chin tucks

B. Pectoralis stretch

C. Hip flexion

D. Shoulder flexion

200. You are performing a pediatric assessment for growth and development in a 9-month-old patient.
Which of the following should this patient be able to perform?

A. The patient should be able to stand and walk holding onto furniture

B. The patient should be able to sit alone and crawl

C. The patient should be able to stand and walk unaided

D. The patient should be able to sit on a small chair