Paper 3

OBJECTIVE QUESTION
BANK
FOR GENERAL SERVICES
OF
JE - ELECTRICAL
(25% LDCE QUOTA)
Issued By
Dy.CEE/Workshop/LGD
2019
Page 1 of 160
POWER MAINTENANCE
CONTENTS
Item No. Description Page No.
1. GENERAL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 05
2. TRANSFORMERS 19
3. EARTHING 26
4. LIGHTING AND ILLUMINATION 28
5. D.G. SET 33
6. PUMP 37
7. TRACK CROSSING 43
8. INDIAN ELECTRICITY RULES 47
9. POLICY 49
10. ELECTRICAL UNITS: EQUIVALENTS & FORMULAE 53
11. INDUCTION MOTOR 56
12. CABLES 62
13. ANSWER SHEET 64
Page 2 of 160
TRAIN LIGHTING
AND
AIR CONDITIONING
CONTENTS
1. CELLS 66
2. INVERTER 73
3. ALTERNATOR , RRU 74
4. ERRU 85
5. RAILWAY CARRIAGE FANS 87
6. TRAIN LIGHTING WIRING 88
7. AIR CONDITIONING 91
8. RMPU 98
9. LHB COACHES 110
10. ABBREVIATIONS 117
11. EOG POWER CAR 120
12. EMU/DEMU 122
Page 3 of 160
NON TECHNICAL
CONTENTS
1. ESTABLISHMENT - 125
2. STORES/ PROCUREMENT - 128
3. RAJBASHA HINDHI - 130
4. BASIC KNOWLEDGE ON COMPUTER - 141
5. ENGINEERING DRAWING - 145
6. ENVIROMNEMTAL ENGINEERING - 150
7. GENERAL MATHS - 153
8. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE - 156
9. GENRAL ENGLSH - 158
Page 4 of 160
1. GENERAL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. For the protection of single-phase 1.5 kW motor, a MCB of rating [b]

should be provided
(a) 10 A (b) 16 A
(c) 32 A (d) 63 A
2. The low power factor results in [a]
(a) Increased losses (b) Decreased losses
(c) No effect on losses (d) Better generating efficiency
3. Low power factor [b]
(a)Aids the voltage regulation (b)Increase the voltage regulation
(c)Decrease the voltage regulation (d)None of the above
4. The power factor of the AC supply can be improved by using [c]
(a) Synchronous generator (b) Universal motor
(c) Synchronous condenser (d) SCR
5. zA distribution line of 440 V is classified as [b]
(a) LV (b) MV (c) HV (d) EHV
6. Which of the following is not used as a overhead conductor [c]
(a) ACSR (b) Weasel ( c )PILCA (d) Zebra
7. Which of the following reduces the power factor [d]
(a) Motor on no load (b) Tube lights (c) Fans (d) All of the above
8. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand an AC voltage of [b]
(a) 1.5 kV (b) 3 kV (c) 5.2 kV (d) 7.2 kV
9. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand a DC voltage of [d]
(a) 1.5 kV (b) 3 kV (c) 5.2 kV (d) 7.2 kV
10. Under water immersion test cable is immersed in a water bath at [c]
(a) 40 deg C (b) 50 deg C (c) 60 deg C (d) 70 deg C
11. For water immersion test, cable is immersed in hot water at specified [d]
temperature, after 24 hrs the voltage applied between conductor and water for
five minutes is
(a) 3 kV (b) 4 kV (c) 5 kV (d) 6 kV
12. Unit of energy is [b]
(a) Kilo volt hours (b) Kilo watt hours (c) Kilo watt
13. As per Ohm’s law [b]
(a) V = IR b) V = I/R c) R = VxI
14. Unit of resistance is [c]

(a) Ampere b) Volts c) Ohm d) none of the above
Page 5 of 160
15. In three phase 415 volts 50 Hz supply, the phase to phase voltage is [b]
(a) 220 Volts b) 415 volts c) 440 volts
16. In three phase 415 volts 50 Hz supply, the phase to neutral voltage is [ b]
(a) 220 volts (b) 230 volts (c) 440 volts
17. In 4 sq. mm PVC wire, 4 sq. mm stand for [c]
(a) Thickness of wire (b) Length of wire
(c) The area of thickness of wire
18. The instrument to measure the light is called [b]
(a) Tong tester (b) Lux meter (c) Micro meter
19. 10 hours use of 500 watt lamp will consume the energy [c]
(a) 10 units (b) 20 units (c) 5 units
20. No. of poles in MCB/TPN is [b]
(a) 2 poles (b) 4 poles c) 3 poles
21. A.C. is converted into D.C. by [d]
(a) Dynamo (b) Motor.
(c) Transformer (d) Rectifier
22. Farad is a unit of [b]
(a) Flux (b) Capacitance
(c) Mutual inductance (d) Resistance of a conductor
23. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of [a]
(a) Energy (b) Electrical potential
(c) Power (d) Electric current
24. An electric lamp is marked 100 watt. It is working on 200 Volts. [a]
The current through the lamp is given as
a) 0.5 Amp. (b) 0.2 Amp. (c) 5.0 Amp. (d)1.0 Amp.
25. Before carrying out O/H maintenance following is due [d]
a) Transformer is switched off
b) DG set is switched off
c) HT panel is switched off
d) Respective O/H feeder is switched off or earthed
26. In house wiring the red wire indicates the [a]
a) Phase (b) Neutral (c) Earth wire (d) Dead wire.
27. In house wiring the black wire indicates the [b]
a) Phase (b) Neutral (c) Earth wire (d) Dead wire
28. In house wiring the green wire indicates the [c]
a) Phase (b) Neutral (c) Earth wire (d) Dead wire.
Page 6 of 160
29. In 4 wire electric circuit, the black conductor is used for [b]
a) Phase (b) Neutral (c) Earth wire (d) Armour
30. In cabling system the earth is connected with conductor having colour [d]
a) Red (b) blue (c) yellow (d) Armour

31. Unit of current is [b]
a) Watt (b) Ampere (c) Volt (d) ohm
32. Heater element is made up of [b]
a) Tin (b) Nichrome (c) Silver (d) Any above
33. Filament of incandescent lamp is made of [c]
a) Tin (b) Nichrome (c) Tungusten (d) Silver
34. An insulator should have [a ]
a) High resistance (b) High conductance

(c) High conductivity (d) All of the above
35. Which of the following is used to make electric connections [d]

a) Solder (b) PG clamp
(c) Thimbles (d) All above
36. Instrument used for measuring the speed of rotating machines/ [b]
appliances is
a) Lux meter (b) Tachometer (c) Micrometer (d) None above
37. Instrument used for measuring the thickness of wire/strip is [c]
a) Lux meter (b) Tachometer (c) Micrometer (d) None above
38. Instrument used for measuring the voltage across a circuit is [b]
a) Ammeter (b) voltmeter (c) Thermometer (d) None above
39. Instrument used for measuring the current is [a]
40. Instrument used for measuring the temperature is [c]
41. Illumination level is measured in terms of [a]
a) Lux (b) Volt (c) Ampere (d) Ohm
42. Insulating resistance is measured by using [b]
a) Multimeter (b) Insulation Megger (c) Voltmeter (d) Hydrometer
43. Which of the following is used for rectification of AC supply [a]
a) Diodes (b) Transistors (c) Capacitor (d) Resistors
Page 7 of 160
44. Which preparation should be done starting a new wiring [a]
a) Prepare a wiring diagram (b) Prepare for shock treatment
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
45. In wiring circuit the fuse will be placed on [a]
(a) Phase (b) Neutral
(c) Earth (d) Any of the above

46. Which of the following tests should be done before connecting a wiring to the main line [a]
(a) IR test (b) Continuity test (c) Polarity test (d) Any above
47. Which of the following is a common wiring fault [d]
(a) Short circuit (b) Open circuit(c) Fuse blown (d) All above
48. Wattage rating range of electric kettle is [b]
(a) 50-500 W (b) 350-1000 W (c) 1000-1500 W (d) 1200-1600 W
49. Device used for auto off an electric iron is [a]
(a) Thermostat switch (b) Overload relay(c) Time delay switch (d) Any of the above
50. Can you repair an immersion rod [a]
(a) No (b) Yes (c) It depend on condition (d) None above.
51. A wire gauge is used to measure diameter of [a]
(a) Wire (b) cable (c) OH conductor (d) Any above
52. To improve the power factor, capacitors are connected in the [a]
circuit as
(a) Parallel path (b) Series path (c) Any of a & b (d) None of the above
53. To switch ON or switch OFF the supply in accordance with day light,
following is used [a]
(a) Light dependent resistor (b) Light emitting diode
(c) Any of a & b (d) None of the above
54 In order to draw more current from the electric source [a]
(a) Resistors are connected in parallel
(b) Resistors are connected in series
(c) Resistors are connected in series and parallel
(d) None of the above.
55 If a 60 W and 100 W lamps in series and are connected to a source of supply,
which lamp will give more light [ b]
(a) 100 W (b) 60 W
(c) Both will give same light (d) None of the bulb will glow.
56 Power is defined as [ b]
(a) Capacity of doing work (b) Rate of doing work
(c) Product of force and distance (d) Energy dissipated by load.
57 Unit of electric Energy is [c]
(a) Kilowatt (b) watt
(c) Kilowatt hour (d) watt hour
Page 8 of 160
58 The internal resistance of battery is increased by [a]
(a) Increase in no. of cells
(b) Decrease in no. of cells
(c) None of the above
(d) Both a and b
59 A generators converts [c]
(a) Mechanical energy into light
(b) Electrical energy to mechanical energy
(c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy

(d) None of the above
60 Power factor of AC circuit is equal to [c]

(a) Tan of phase angle (b) Sine of phase angle
(c) Cosine of phase angle (d) None of the above
61 Resistance of open circuit is equal to [b]

(a) Zero (b) Infinity
(c) Less than 1 ohm (d) None above
62 Laminated core is used to reduce [b]

(a) Hysteresis loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Copper loss ` (d) iron loss
63 Which of the following is not a non conventional energy source [d]

(a) Solar (b) Bio gas
(c) Wind (d) Electricity
64 Solar energy is used for [d]

(a) Lighting (b) Cooking
(c) Battery charging (d) All above
65 Solar and wind hybrid system is [a]

(a) Becoming popular (b) Not possible
(c) Conventional energy source (d) None of the above
66 Bio gas depends on [b]

(a) Electrical energy (b) Waste products
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
67 Which of the following is not a constituent of a solar lighting system [d]

(a) Photo voltaic cell (b) Back up batteries
(c) Charger (d) Earth wire.
68 Which of the following is not a type of fuse [c]

(a) HRC (b) Rewirable
(c) Ceramic (d) None above.
69 Which of the following is not a type of generating station? [d]

(a) Thermal (b) Nuclear (c) Hydro (d) Atmospheric
70 Which of the following is not a part of overhead distribution line [d]
Page 9 of 160
(a) Conductor (b) Insulator (c) Cross arms (d) Thimbles
71 Type of insulator not used in a 3 phase, 440 V overhead distribution line [c]
(a) Pin (b) Shackle
(c) Disc (d) None above
72 Instrument connected in the circuit with the ammeter (in panel) to
facilitate the measurement of current is [a]
(a) Current transformer (b) Potential transformer
(c) Excitation transformer (d) None of the above
73 Capacitor opposes [a]

(a) Instantaneous change of voltage (b) Instantaneous change of current
(c) Instantaneous change in resistance (d) None of the above
74 Inductor opposes [b]
(a) Instantaneous change of voltage
(b) Instantaneous change of current
(c) Instantaneous change in resistance
75 Current is [a]
(a) Rate of flow of charge (b) Gradual change in resistance
(c) Linear change in capacitance (d) None of the above.
76 When resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance [a]
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) No change (d) May increase or decrease
77 When resistances are connected in series, the equivalent resistance [b]
78 Diode allows the flow of the current [a]
(a) In one direction (b) In both the directions
(c) Flow of current not allowed (d) None of the above.
79 When capacitances are connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance [ b ]

(c) no change (d) May increase or decrease
80 When capacitances are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance [a]
81 Two lamps of 60 W and one of 100 W are connected in series to a supply 220 V, the
current flowing in the circuit will be [a]
(a) 1A (b) 2A
(c) 3A (d) 4A
82 A 2 x 40 W box type fitting glows for 10 hrs in a day, units consumed per day
will be [c]
(a) 0.72 (b) 0.04
(c) 0.8 (d) 1
83 A 2 x 40 W box type fitting glows for 10 hrs in a day, electric charges [c]
for the month of June @ Rs. 3/- per unit will be Rs.
(a) 18 (b) 3.60
(c) 72 (d) 90
84 One ordinary ceiling fan works for 12 hrs in a day, units consumed per day will be [a]
(a) 0.72 (b) 0.04
(c) 0.8 (d) 1
Page 10 of 160
85 One ordinary ceiling fan works for 12 hrs in a day, electric charges per day [b]
@ Rs. 2/- per unit will be
(a) 0.72 (b) 1.44

(c) 0.8 (d) 1
86 One 20 inch desert cooler (150 W) works for 8 hrs per day, units consumed per [a]
day will be
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.8
(c) 2.1 (d) 2.4
87 One 20 inch desert cooler (150 W) works for 8 hrs per day, electric charges gor
the month of July @ Rs. 3/- per unit will be [a]
(a) 111. 6 (b) 110.2 (c) 90 (d) 115.3
88 A geyser of 25 ltrs., 1500 W remains ON for 2 hrs per day, units [a]
consumed for 6 months will be
(a) 540 (b) 480 (c) 620 (d) 700
89 One 60 w lamp and 2 fans works for 10 hrs per day, units consumed per day will be [a]
(a) 1.8 (b) 2.1 (c) 1.7 (d) 3
90 A 10 hp pump works for 10 hrs per day, monthly consumption will be [d]
(a) 223.8 (b) 2.23 (c) 22.38 (d) 2238
91 A grinders in a factory, equipped with 1.5 hp motor, works for 6 hrs [b]
per day, the units consumed per day will be
(a) 5.490 (b) 6.714 (c) 2388 (d) 1940
92 Internal resistance of a cell is 0.1 ohm and 10 cells are connected in [b]
series to form a battery supplying a current of 1 A, the power lost in the battery is
(a) 0.5 W (b) 1 W (c) 5 W (d) 50 W
93 The resistance of human body lies between [d]
(a) 100-200 ohm (b) 5 K ohm-50 K ohm
(c) 1 M ohm-10 M ohm (d) 100 k ohm-500 K ohm
94 Instrument used to measure electric energy consumption is [c]
(a) Galvanometer (b) Potentiometer
(c) Energy meter (d) None of the above
95 Which of the following keeps the poles straight [a]
(a) Stay rod (b) Cross arm
(c) Conductor (d) Insulator
96 Inside the geyser there is a [b]
(a) Filament (b) Immersion rod (c) Any of a & b (d) None of the above
97 Which of the following is used for concealed wiring in a house [a]
(a) PVC conduit (b) GI pipe (c) Spun concrete pipe (d) Any of the above.
98 The size of copper wire used for point wiring in sq mm is [a]
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 4 (d) 10
99 The size of copper wire used for sub main in sq mm is [b]
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 4 (d) 10
100 The size of Aluminium wire used for point wiring in sq mm is [c]
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 4 (d) 10
101 The combined Earth resistance of 33kV/11 kV receiving station should not exceed [a ]
(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohms (c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms
102 The combined earth resistance of 11 kV/415 V Sub-station should not exceed [b]
(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 2 ohms
(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms
Page 11 of 160
103 The integration time employed by supply authorities for recording [b]
M.D. for a 33 kV/415 V, 10 MVA Sub-station is –
(a) 5 minutes (b) 15 minutes
(c) 45 minutes (d) 60 minutes
104 While designing a sub-station anticipated future loads in the next … years are taken [d ]
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years
(c) 20 years (d) 5-7 years
105 As per the present Tariff the minimum power factor of sub-station should be [d]
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.85
(c) 0.90 (d)0.95
106 The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground of 33 kV [c]
lines, across the road.
(a) 3 M (b) 4 M
(c) 6.1 M (d) 14 M
107 The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground [ a]
of 33 kV lines, along a street.
(a) 5.8 M (b) 3.0 M ( c ) 4.0 M (d) 14 M
108. The minimum vertical clearance from 11 kV line to any part of building. [c]
(a) 2.0 M (b) 10.M (c) 3.7 M (d) 6.0 M
109. The minimum Horizontal clearance of 11 kV lines from any buildings. [b]
(a) 1.2 M (b) 3.7 M (c) 6.1 M (d) 10 M
110. The Visible, Audible, Partial discharge at the surface of conductor at high [b]
voltage is called –
(a) Skin affect (b) Corona (c) Creep (d) None of these
111. For maintaining power supply quantity the frequency variation of [b]
power supply are restricted to
(a) ± 1 % (b) ± 3 % (c) ± 0.5% (d) ± 10%
112. The 3 phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed [a]
(a) 2.5.% to 5% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 10%
113. For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency [c]
should not exceed.
(a) 5 Hz (b) 10 HZ (c) 1 HZ (d) 3 Hz
114. In Thermal Power plants the generator used are [b]
(a) AC 3 Ø, Induction Generators.
(b) AC 3 Ø, Synchronous Generators.
(c) D.C. Shunt Generators.
(d) AC 1 Ø Synchronous Generators.
115. The highest system voltage of normal 33 kV System for the purpose [b]
of design of equipments is
(a) 30 kV. (b) 36 kV. (c) 33 kV. (d) 66 kV.
116. The Rod gap on the L.V.side of 11 kV/415, 250 kVA Transformer is [d]
(a) 300 mm. (b) 100 mm.
(c) 50 mm. (d) Rod gap L.A. is not provided for LV side of Transformer.
117. The rated voltage of L.A. for 11 kV/415V Transformer Protection is [c]
(a) 11 kV. (b) 12 kV.
(c) 9 kV. (d) 24 kV.
118. For medium sized 11 kV/415 v, 500 kVA Transformer sub-station, the type of [b]
L.A. used are
(a) Station type. (b) Line type.
(c) Distribution type. (d) None of these.
Page 12 of 160
119. The line type L.A. used for our 11 kV and 33 kV Sub-station are having a standard [a ]
normal discharge current (Peak).
(a) 5 KA. (b) 10 KA.
(c) 1.5 KA. (d) 2.5 KA.
120. The span of supports for 11 kV over head lines should not exceed. [ b]
(a) 100 m. (b) 65 m.
(c) 30 m. (d) 27 m.
121. The testing of relays should be performed at a interval of [b]
(a) 6 months (b) 12 months (c) 18 months (d) 24
months
122. If any live conductor in the circuit is entangled with tree branch ______ operates. [ a]
(a) EFR (b) OVR
(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay
123. _______ relay operates if there is a heavy increase in load current. [ c]
(a) EFR (b) OVR
124. _______ relay indicates the temperature rise of a transformer. [d]
(a) EFR (b) OVR
125. If the relay setting of 60/5 CT is at 3.75, then the tripping will be at [ b]
(a) 60 Amp. (b) 45 Amp. (c) 30 Amp. (d) 50 Amp
126. The normal SPG of electrolyte of lead acid battery should be [c]
(a) 1.160 (b) 1.180 (c) 1.220 (d) 1.240
127. The terminal voltage of a fully charged lead acid cell is [c]
(a) 1.8 V (b) 2.0 V (c) 2.2 V (d) 2.4 V
128. The terminal voltage of a lead acid cell should not fall below [b]
(a) 1.6 V (b) 1.8 V (c) 2.0 V (d) 2.2 V
129. The normal charging rate of 120 AH lead acid battery set is [c]
(a) 4 A (b) 8 A (c) 12 A (d) 16 A
130. The ratio of distil water and acid used to prepare new electrolyte for lead acid cell is [d]
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
131. Following law is applicable in the working of lead acid cell [c]
(a) Faradays law of self induction.
(b) Faradays law of mutual induction
(c) Faradays law of electrolysis.
(d)Newton’s law of motion.
132. The capacity of storage battery is expressed as [d]
(a) No. of recharges it can take
(b) Time for which it can be used
(c) No. of cells it contain
(d) Ampere hour it can deliver.
133. Sedimentation in lead acid cell occurs due to [a]

(a) Overcharging at high rate.
(b) Slow charging at low rate.
(c) Over discharge at low rate.
(d) Non-utilization for long periods.
134. Even when not in use, a lead acid battery should be recharged once in [a]
(a) Six week (b) Six days
(c) Three months (d) Six months.
Page 13 of 160
135. First step to be carried out before starting work starting work on faulty portion of
overhead line is to
[b]
(a) Earth the line on both the ends of the portion (b)Obtain the permit to work
(c ) Bring ladder or crane (d) Climb on the pole immediately
136. Before starting the work on faulty circuit it should be ensured that [a]
(a)The faulty portion has been isolated from the power supply
(b)The worker is strong enough to climb the pole
(c) The cable is not deep enough to dig
137. The electric overhead line on which work is to be carried out should be necessarily
earthed on both the ends to [c]
(a) Dispense the charge stored between the conductors due to capacitive effect
(b) To bring the line at zero potential
(c) Both a & b
138. One can protect himself from electric shock while working on live circuit by wearing
gloves of good
[b]
(a) Conducting material
(b) Insulating material
(c) Semiconductor material
(d) Any of the above.
139. Which of the following are principal safety precautions [d]
(a) Don’t touch live wire or equipment with bare hands
(b) Before switching on supplysee no one is working in the line
(c) Use rubber gloves and meeting.
(d) All of the above.
140. Which of the following is most effective method of artificial respiration [a]
(a) Mouth to mouth air pumping method
(b) To use bicycle air pump
(c) Both a & b
141. Which material is recommended as fire extinguisher in electrical cases [b]

(a) Carbon tetra chloride
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Sulphur hexafluoride
(d) Any of the above
142. Which of the following is to be necessarily kept in a electric substation [d]
(a) First aid box
(b) Stretcher
(c) Earthing rod
(d) All of the above
143. The warning board to be provided, on the switch of the line on which work is going on [a]
(a) Men at working
(b) Danger
(c) Keep away
144. Staff competent to work on overhead line of MV should be [c]
(a) Unskilled
Page 14 of 160
(b) Semi skilled
(c) Highly skilled
(d) Any of the above
145. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy? [d]

a) coal b) oil c) Natural gas d) Solar
146. The law of conservation of energy states that energy [d]

a) can be created and destroyed
b) is destroyed in the process of burning
c) cannot be converted from one
d) is neither destroyed nor created; But can be transform from oneform to
another form
147. Absolute pressure is [c]

a) Gauge Pressure
b) Atmospheric Pressure
c) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric Pressure
d) Gauge Pressure – Atmospheric Pressure
148. 100 kCals expressed as kilojoules would be [a]
a) 418.7 kJ b) 4.187 Joules c) 4.187 kJ d) 41.87 kJ
149. When heat flows from one place to another by means of a liquid or gas, it is being
transferred by [d]
a) radiation b) conduction
c) sublimation d) convection
150. How many watts are in a hp? [d]
a) 700 b) 725 c) 740 d) 746
151. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that forces current to flow is [d]
a) watts b) amps c) ohms d) volts
152. Voltage and resistance in an electrical circuit are related by Ohm's law [d]
and determine
a) resistance b) voltage c) the type of circuit d) current
153. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that opposes current flow is [a]
a) resistanceb) voltage c) friction d) power
154. The instrument used to measure RPM is [d]
a) Fyrite b) Pyrometer
c) Ultrasonic flow meter d) Stroboscope
155. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption [d]
a) Kwh/ton b) kcal/kL c) kJ/kg d) kg
156. Which of the following will not motivate the employees for energy conservation ? [d]
a) Incentive b) Recognition c) Reward d) Threatening
157. The heat input required for generating ‘one’ kilo watt-hour of electrical output is
called as ___. [b]
a) Efficiency b) Heat Rate c) Calorific Value d) Heat value
158. Which of the voltage is not available for Indian distribution system? [c]
a) 33 kV b) 11 kV c) 280 V d) 433 V
159. The power loss in transmission/distribution line depends on ____. [d]
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a) Current in the line b) Resistance of the line c) Length of the line d) All
160. If distribution of power is raised from 11 kV to 66 kV, the voltage drop would [b]
lower by
a) 6 times b) 1/6 times c) 36 times d) 1/36 times
161. If the distribution voltage is raised from 11 kV to 33 kV, the line loss would be: [ a]
a) Less by 1/9 b) More by 9 times c) No change d) None of the above
162. The maximum demand of an industry, if trivector motor records 3600 KVA for [c]
15 minutes and 3000 kVA for next 15 minutes over a recording cycle of 30 min is_____.
a) 3600 kVA b) 3000 kVA c) 3300 kVA d) 600 kVA
163. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is known as___. [b]
a) Time Curve b) Load curve c) Demand curve d) Energy curve
164. The vector sum of active power and reactive power required is ____. [a]
a) Apparent Power b) Power Factor c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand
165. Power factor is the ratio of ____ and apparent power. [a]
a) Active power b) Reactive power c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand
166. The kVAr rating required for improving the power factor of a load operating at [a]
500 kW and 0.85 power factor to 0.95 is ________.
a) 145 kVAr b) 500 kVAr c) 50 kVAr d) 100 kVAr
167. The rating of the capacitor at motor terminals should not be greater than _____ . [b]
a) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at full load
b) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at no load
c) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at half load
d) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at 75% load
168. The percentage reduction in distribution loses when tail end power factor raised from
0.8 to 0.95 is ________. [a]
a) 29% b) 15.8% c) 71% d) 84%
169. If voltage applied to a 415 V rated capacitors drops by 10%, its VAR output [c]
drops by ____.
a) 23% b) 87% c) 19% d) 10%
170. The ratio between the number of turns on the primary to the turns on the [a]
secondary of a transformer is know as:
a) turns ratio b) efficiency c) winding factor d) power factor
171. The ratio of overall maximum demand of the plant to the sum of individual [b]
maximum demand of various equipments is ______.
a) load factor b) diversity Factor c) demand Factor d) maximum demand
172. Core losses in transformer are caused by ______. [c]
a) Hysteresis loss b) Eddy current loss c) both a & b d) None
173. The load losses in transformer vary according to ________. [ b]
a) Loading of transformer b) Square of loading of transformer
Page 16 of 160
c) Cube of loading of transformer d) None
174. The total losses in a transformer operating at 50% load with designed no load
and load losses at 2 kW and 20 kW respectively are _______. [a]
a) 7 kW b) 12 kW c) 4.5 kW d) 22 kW
175. The total amount of harmonics present in the system is expressed using ___. [c]
a) Total Harmonic Factor b) Total Harmonic Ratio
c) Total Harmonic Distortion d) Crest Factor
176. The 5th and 7th harmonic in a 50 Hz power environment will have: [c]
a) voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz
b) voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz
c) voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz
d) no voltage and current distortion at all
177. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is [b]
a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic
178. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called [b]
a) Kinetic energy b) Chemical energy
c) Potential energy d) Magnetic energy
179. Active power consumption of motive drives can be determined by using
one of the following relations. [d]
a) √3 x V x I b) √3 x V2 x I x cosϕ
c) √3 x V x I2 x Cosϕ d) √3 x V x I x Cosϕ
180. The grade of energy can be classified as low, high, extra ordinary. In case of [c]
electrical energy it would fall under ____ category. (EM/EA)
a) low grade b) extra ordinary grade
c) high grade d) none of the above
181. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as [c]
a) Apparent power b) Active power
c) Reactive Power d) None of the above
182. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA) [c]
a) Apparent power & Active power b) Active power & Reactive power
c) Active Power & Apparent power d) Apparent power & Reactive power
183. kVA is also called as [b]
a) reactive power b) apparent power c) active power d) captive power
184. The energy consumed by a 50 kW motor loaded at 40 kW over a period of 4 hours is[ b ]
a. 50 kWh b) 160 kWh c) 40 kWh d) 2000 kWh
185. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as [ b]
a) Load factor b) Demand factor
c) Contract demand d) none of the above
186. A single phase induction motor is drawing 10 amps at 230 volts. If the operating power factor
of the motor is 0.9, then the power drawn by the motor is [c]
a) 2.3 kW b) 3.58 kW c) 2.07 kW d) 2.70 kW
Page 17 of 160
187. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 OC is termed as
[c]
a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) One Calorie d) Sensible heat
188. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates [b]
a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor
c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor
189. The quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to vapor state
without change of temperature is termed as [b]
a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization
c) Heat capacity d) Sensible heat
190. The latent heat of condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 °C to form water at 100 °C, it gives out
the heat of [b]
a) 580 kCal b) 540 kCal c) 620 kCal d) 2260 kCal
191. The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances
listed below [ c ].
a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol
192. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels: [c]
a) decreases with decreasing temperature
b) increases with increasing temperature
c) decreases with increasing temperature
d) increases with decreasing temperature
193. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends upon the
following. [c]
a) sensible heat added b) latent heat of fusion
c) specific heat of the substance d) heat capacity
194. Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________. [c]
a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2 c) kcal/m3 d) kcal/cm2
195. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is termed as
----- [a]
a) condensation b) Evaporation c) Fusion d) Phase change
196. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is termed
as ----- [b]
a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
Page 18 of 160
2. TRANSFORMERS
1. The BDV of transformer oil should be [b]
(a) 20 kV (b) 30 kV
(c) 40 kV (d) 50 kV
2. The colour of moisten silica gel is [a]

(a) Pink (b) Blue
(c) Yellow (d) Green
3. The material filled in breather of transformer is [a]

(a) Silica gel (b) Sulphuric acid
(c) SF6 (d) Mineral oil
4. The protective device to indicate the internal fault in a transformer is [ b]

(a) Thermal relay (b) Buchholz relay
(c) OVR (d) EFR
5. The minimum allowable BDV for transformer oil should stand for [ d]
(a) 15 sec (b) 30 sec
(c) 45 sec (d) 60 sec
6. While testing transformer oil the gap between electrodes is kept at a distance of [d]
(a) 1 mm (b) 2 mm
(c) 3 mm (d) 4 mm
7 Core of a transformer is made up of [d]

(a) Aluminium (b) Carbon
(c) Lead (d) Silicon steel.
8 Which of the following is not the function of a transformer oil [ d]

(a) Cooling of primary Coils
(b) Cooling of secondary coils.
(c) Providing additional insulation.
(d) Providing inductive coupling.
9 For a transformer, the condition for maximum efficiency is [c]

(a) Hysteresis loss = eddy current loss
(b) Core loss = hysteresis loss
(c) Copper loss = Iron loss
(d) Total loss = 2/3 copper loss.
Page 19 of 160
10 Transformer oil shall be free from [ d]
(a) Odour (b) Gases (c) Temperature (d) Moisture.
11 The power factor in a transformer [ d]
(a) Is always unity
(b) Is always leading
(c) Is always lagging
(d) Depends on power factor of load.
12 The short circuit test of a transformer gives [ a]

(a) Copper loss at full load
(b) Copper loss at half load
(c) Iron loss at any load
(d) Sum of iron loss and copper load.
13 The open circuit test of transformer determines [ a]
(a) Iron loss
(b) Copper loss at full load
(c) Copper loss at half load
(d) Total losses.
14 The type of oil, which is suitable as transformer oil is [ c]

(a) Crude oil (b) Organic oil
(c) Mineral oil (d) Animal oil.
15 A step up transformer increases [ c]

(a) Power (b) Current
(c) Voltage (d) Frequency.
16 Which test is conducted on all transformers in a manufacturing concern [ a]

(a) Routine test (b) Type test
(c) Special test (d) All above
17 The colour of fresh dielectric oil for a transformer [ d]

(a) Pale yellow (b) Dark brown
(c) White to grey (d) Colourless
18 The ratio of kW to kVA is known as [ b]

(a) Voltage regulation (b) power factor
(c) Transformation ratio (d) None above
Page 20 of 160
19 Core lifting of a transformer is done after a period of [ c]
(a) 3 yrs. (b) 4 yrs.
(c) 5 yrs. (d) 6 yrs.
20 The purpose of conservator tank in a transformer is to [ c]
(a) Monitor the oil level (b) Top up the oil level
(c) Both a & b above (d) None of the above.
21 Transformers placed in a room enclosed from all the four sides, the minimum
spacing between the walls and the transformer should be [d]
(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.75 m (c) 1 m (d) 1.25 m
22 For indoor installation the minimum clearance between the highest point of the conservator
tank to the ceiling of the transformer room should be [b]
(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.5 m
(c) 0.75 m (d) 1 m
23 At an atmospheric temperature of 45 deg C and keeping in view the working condition, the
winding temperature of the transformer should not exceed [b]
(a) 80 deg C (b) 95 deg C
(c) 110 degC (d) 130 deg C
24. Which of the following does not change in a transformer? [ c]

a. Current b. Voltage
c. Frequency d. All of the above
25. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary [ c]

a. through cooling coil b. through air
c. by the flux d. none of the above
26. A transformer core is laminated to [b]

a. reduce hysteresis loss b. reduce eddy current losses
c. reduce copper losses d. reduce all above losses
27. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have [ d]

a. high resistance b. high reluctance
c. low resistance d. low reluctance
28. No-load test on a transformer is carried out to determine [ c]

a. copper loss b. magnetizing current
c. magnetizing current and loss d. efficiency of the transformer
29. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be [ b]

a. 1 kV b. 33 kV c. 100 kV d. 330 kV
30. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when [d]
Page 21 of 160
a. copper losses = hysteresis losses
b. hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
c. eddy current losses = copper losses
d. copper losses = iron losses
31. No-load current in a transformer [ a]

a. lags behind the voltage by about 75° b. leads the voltage by about 75°
c. lags behind the voltage by about 15° d. leads the voltage by about 15°
32. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to [ c]

a. provide support to windings b. reduce hysteresis loss
c. decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path d. reduce eddy current losses
33. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation? [ d]

a. Conservator b. Breather c. Buchholz relay d. Exciter
34. While conducting short circuit test on a transformer the following side is
Short circuited [ b]
a. High voltage side b. Low voltage side
c. Primary side d. Secondary side
35. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-section area [ a]
a. low voltage winding b. High voltage winding
c. primary winding d. secondary winding
36. A transformer transforms [ c]

a. voltage b. current c. powerd. frequency
37. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because [ c]
a. there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
b. a D.C. circuit has more losses
c. Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the
rate of change of flux is zero
d. none of the above
38. Primary winding of a transformer [ c]
a. is always a low voltage winding b. is always a high voltage winding
c. could either be a low or high voltage d. none of the above winding
39. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns? [ b]

a. Low voltage winding b. High voltage winding
c. Primary winding d. Secondary winding
40. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of [ b]

a. 100 percent b. 98 percent
c. 50 percent d. 25 percent
Page 22 of 160
41. A common method of cooling a power transformer is [c]
a.natural air cooling b. air blast cooling
c. oil cooling d. any of the above
42. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon [d]

a. supply frequency b. load current
c. power factor of load d. both (b) and (c)
43. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is [ ]

a. at no load b. at 50% full load
c. at 80% full load d. at full load
44. Transformer breaths in when [ b]

a. load on it increases b. load on it decreases
c. load remains constant d. none of the above
45. No-load current of a transformer has [d]

a. has high magnitude and low power factor
b. has high magnitude and high power factor
c. has small magnitude and high power factor
d. has small magnitude and low power factor
46. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils [ a]

a. to provide free passage to the cooling oil
b. to insulate the coils from each other
c. both (a) and (b) d. none of the above
47. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on [ d]

a. primary side b. secondary side
c. low voltage side d. high voltage side
48. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of [ b]
a. ionizing air b. absorbing moisture
c. cleaning the transformer oil d. cooling the transformer oil
49. The chemical used in breather is [ d]

a. asbestos fibre b. silica sand
c. sodium chloride d. silica gel
50. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of [ d]

a. Volts b. amperes
c. kW d. kVA
51. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually [ d]

a. Wood b. copper
c. Aluminium d. silicon steel
Page 23 of 160
52. The thickness of lamination used in a transformer is usually [ a]
a. 0.4mm to 0.5 mm b. 4 mm to 5 mm
c. 14mm to 15mm d. 25mm to 40 mm
53. The function of conservator in a transformer is [ d]

a. to protect against internal fault
b. to reduce copper as well as core losses
c. to cool the transformer oil
d. to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation
oftemperature of surroundings
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on [ d]
a. auto-transformers b. air-cooled transformers
c. welding transformers d. oil cooled transformers
55. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection against [ a]

a. electrical fault inside the transformeritself
b. electrical fault outside the transformerin outgoing feeder
c. for both outside and inside faults
d. none of the above
56. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by [ b]

a. mica strip b. thin coat of varnish
c. paper d. any of the above
57. During open circuit test of a transformer [ a]

a. primary is supplied rated voltage
b. primary is supplied full-load current
c. primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
d. primary is supplied rated kVA
58. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine [ c]

a. hysteresis losses b. copper losses
c. core lossesd. d. eddy current losses
59. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine [ b]

a. hysteresis losses b. copper losses
c. core losses d. eddy current losses
60. The function of breather in a transformer is [ d]

a. to provide oxygen inside reduced load
b. to cool the coils during reduced load
c. to cool the transformer oil
d. to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
61. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed?
[ d]
a. Step-up transformer b. Step-down transformer
Page 24 of 160
c. Potential transformer d. Current transformer
62. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at [d]
a. 0.8 leading power factor b. 0.8 lagging power factor
c. zero power factor d. unity power factor
63. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution transformers?
[b]
a. Over-fluxing protection b. Buchholz relay
c. Over-current protection d. All of the above
64. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and
switching? [ a]
a. Horn gaps b. Thermal overload relays
c. Breather d. Conservator
65. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from outside? [ a]
a. Bushings b. Core
c. Primary winding d. Secondary winding
66. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as [ b]

a. zoom b. hum
c. Ringing d. buzz
67. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load? [ b]
a. core loss b. friction loss
c. eddy current loss d. hysteresis loss
68. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur in [b]
a. Core b. windings
c. Tank d. any of the above
69. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to measure [ c]

a. Insulation Resistance b. Copper loss
c. Core loss d. Total loss
70. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine [ d]

a. Core loss b. Copper loss
c. Efficiency d. Magnetising current and loss
Page 25 of 160
3. EARTHING
1. The code of practice for earthing is governed by [a]
(a) IS: 3043 (b) IS: 4340 (c) IS: 4340 (d) IS: 4430
2. The length of pipe electrode used for earthing should not be less than [b]
(a) 3.5 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 4.5 m (d) 5 m
3. As per IS, the earthing electrode shall not be within a distance of ______ mtrs from any
building being earthed. [ c]
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 2 m
4. Maximum permissible earth resistance at large power stations is [ a]

(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 1 ohm (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 ohms
5. Maximum permissible earth resistance at major Sub-stations is [b]

6. Maximum permissible earth resistance at small Sub-stations is [c]

7. Maximum permissible earth resistance for buildings is [d]

8. Earth continuity inside an installation i.e. from plate earth to any point in installation should
be [b]
9 The plate electrode of copper used for earthing should be with minimum size of [c]
(a) 50cm x 50cm x 3.15mm (b) 50cm x 50cm x 6.3mm
(c) 60cm x 60cm x 3.15mm (d) 60cm x 60cm x 6.3mm
10 The plate electrode of GI or steel used for earthing should be with minimum size of [d]
(a) 50cm x 50cm x 3.15mm (b) 50cm x 50cm x 6.3mm
(c) 60cm x 60cm x 3.15mm (d) 60cm x 60cm x 6.3mm
11 In pipe earthing, the minimum internal diameter for GI pipe should be [b]
(a) 30 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 50 mm (d) 60 mm
12 In pipe earthing, the minimum internal diameter for cast iron pipe should be [c]
(a) 80 mm (b) 90 mm (c) 100 mm (d) 60 mm
Page 26 of 160
13 Copper strip electrodes used for earthing should not be less than [c]
(a) 22.5 mm x 1.60 mm (b) 20 mm x 2.5 mm
(c) 25 x 1.60 mm (d) 25 mm x 2.5 mm
14 GI or Steel strip electrodes used for earthing should not be less than [a]
(a) 25 mm x 4mm (b) 20 mm x 3 mm
(c) 25mm x 3mm (d) 20mm x 4mm
15 Earthing arrangement for HT installations, substations and generating stations should be

inspected at an interval of [d]
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 12 months
16 Earthing arrangement for low voltage installations such as service buildings, public
buildings should be inspected at an interval of [b]
17 Earthing arrangement for residential buildings should be inspected at an interval of [b]

18 Earthing arrangement for medium voltage installations should be inspected at an interval of

[d]
Page 27 of 160
4. LIGHTING & ILLUMINATION
1. The illumination level at A class stations should be [d]
(a) 20 lux (b) 30 lux (c) 40 lux (d) 50 lux
2. The illumination level at B class stations should be [b]

3. The illumination level at C class stations should be [a]

4. Recommended no. of light points in type I (DR) quarter is [b]

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
5 Recommended no. of light points in type II quarter is [b]

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
6 Recommended no. of light points in type III quarter is [d]

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
7 Recommended no. of light points in type IV quarter is [c]

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
8 Recommended no. of light points in type IV spl. quarter is [c]

(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
9 Recommended no. of fan points in type I quarter is [a]

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
10 Recommended no. of fan points in type II quarter is [a]

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
11 Recommended no. of fan points in type III quarter is [b]

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
12 Recommended no. of fan points in type IV quarter is [c]

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
13 Recommended no. of fan points in type IV spl. quarter is [d]

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Page 28 of 160
14 Recommended connected load for type I (DR) quarter is [a]
(a) 1.36 kW (b) 3.48 kW (c) 4.17 kW (d) 6.85 kW
15 Recommended connected load for type II quarter is [b]

(a) 1.36 kW (b) 3.48 kW (c) 4.17 kW (d) 6.85 kW
16 Recommended connected load for type III quarter is [c]

(a) 1.36 kW (b) 3.48 kW (c) 4.17 kW (d) 6.85 kW
17 Recommended connected load for type IV quarter is [d]

(a) 1.36 kW (b) 3.48 kW (c) 4.17 kW (d) 6.85 kW
18 Recommended connected load for type IV spl. quarter is [c]

(a) 4.17 kW (b) 6.85 kW (c) 8.6 kW (d) 11.85 kW
19 Recommended connected load for type V quarter is [d]

(a) 4.17 kW (b) 6.85 kW (c) 8.6 kW (d) 11.85 kW
20. Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is [d]

a. 10 lumens/ watt b.20 lumens/ watt
c. 40 lumens/ watt d. 60 lumens/ watt
21. Candela is the unit of which of the following? [b]

a. wavelength b. luminous intensity
c. luminous flux d. frequency
22. Colour of light depends upon [c]

a. frequency b. wave length
c. both (a) and (b) d. speed of light
23. Illumination of one lumen per sq. metre is called ……… [b]
a. lumen metre b. lux
c. foot candle d. candela
24. The unit of luminous flux is ………… [b]

a. watt/ m2 b. lumen
2
c. lumen/ m d. watt
25. Filament lamps operate normally at a power factor of [c]

a. 0.5 lagging b. 0.8 lagging
c. unity d. 0.8 leading
26. What percentage of the input energy is radiated by filament lamps? [a]
a. 2 to 5 percent b. 10 to 15 percent
c. 25 to 30 percent d. 40 to 50 percent
Page 29 of 160
27. The filament of a GLS lamp is made of [a]
a. tungsten b. copper
c. carbon d. aluminium
28. Which of the following lamps is the cheapest for the same wattage? [c]
a. Fluorescent tube b. mercury vapour lamp
c. GLS lamp d. sodium vapour lamp
29. Which of the following is not the standard rating of GLS lamps? [b]
a. 100 W b. 75 W
c. 40 W d. 15 W
30. The colour of sodium vapour discharge lamp is [c]
a. red b. pink
c. yellow d. bluish green
31. A reflector is provided to [d]

a. protect the lamp b. provide better illumination
c. avoid glare d. do all of the above
32. The purpose of coating the fluorescent tube from inside with white power is [d]
a. to improve its life
b. to improve the appearance
c. to change the colour of light emitted to white
d. to increase the light radiations due to secondary emissions
33. In the fluorescent tube circuit the function of choke is primarily to [c]
a. reduce the flicker b. minimize the starting surge
c. initiate the arc and stabilize it d. reduce the starting current
34. The function of capacitor across the supply to the fluorescent tube is primarily to [c]
a. stabilize the arc b. reduce the starting current
c. improve the supply power factor d. reduce the noise
35. Most affected parameter of a filament lamp due to voltage change is [b]
a. wattage b. life
c. luminous efficiency d. light output
36. In electric discharge lamps for stabilizing the arc [c]

a. a reactive choke is connected in series with the supply
b. a condenser is connected in series to the supply
c. a condenser is connected in parallel to the supply
d. a variable resistor is connected in the circuit
37. For precision work the illumination level required is of the order of [a]
a. 500 – 1000 lumens/m2 b. 200 – 400 lumens/m2
c. 50 – 100 lumens/ m2 d. 10 – 25 lumens/ m2
Page 30 of 160
38. For normal reading the illumination level required is around [b]
a. 20 – 40 lumens/ m2 b. 60 – 100 lumens/ m2
c. 200 – 300 lumens/ m2 d. 400 – 500 lumens/ m2
39. In electric discharge lamps light is produced by [b]

a. cathode ray emission b. ionization in a gas or vapour
c. heating effect of current d. magnetic effect of current
40. A substance which change its electrical resistance when illuminated by light is called [c]
a. photoelectric b. photovoltaic
c. photoconductive d. none of the above
41. In case of … power factor is the highest. [a]

a. GLS lamps b. mercury arc lamps
c. tube lights d. sodium vapour lamps
42. A mercury vapour lamp gives … light. [d]

a. white b. pink
c. yellow d. greenish blue
43. Sometimes the wheels f rotating machinery, under the influence of fluorescent lamps appear to
be stationary. This is due to the [b]
a. low power factor b. stroboscopic effect
c. fluctuations d. luminescence effect
44. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is more pronounced at [a]

a. lower frequencies b. higher frequencies
c. lower voltages d. higher voltages
45. Which gas can be filled in GLS lamp? [d]

a. oxygen b. carbon di-oxide
c. xenon d. any inert gas
46. The gas filled in vacuum filament lamps is [d]

a. nitrogen b. argon
c. air d. None
47. The vapour discharge tube used for domestic lighting has [c]
a. no filament b. one filament
c. two filament d. three filament
48. Stroboscopic effect due to use of discharge lamps in workshops results in moving machinery
appearing [d]
a. stationary b. stationary running slow
c. stationary running in reverse direction d. all of the above
Page 31 of 160
49. Glare is reduced by [d]
a. using diffusers b. increasing the height of the lamp
c. using reflectors to cut-off the light d. all the
above certain angle
50. Which of the following is present inside the fluorescent tube? [c]
a. argon and neon b. argon and CO2
c. mercury vapour d. helium and oxygen
51. When an electric bulb is broken it produces bang; this is due to [a]
a. vacuum inside the bulb b. pressure of air in the bulb
c. pressure inside is equal to that out- d. none of the above side
Page 32 of 160
5. D.G. SET
1 If a DG set fails to start, the probable cause may be [d]
(a) Dirty clogged air cleaner (b) Fuel tank empty
(c) Nozzle niddle jammed (d) All of the above
2 If a DG set starts but stop after some time, the probable cause may be [d]
(a) Air in fuel (b) Fuel line choke
(c) Fuel filter choked (d) All of the above
3 If a DG set is not gaining full speed, the probable cause may be [d]
(a) Fuel tank empty (b) Governor spring broken
(c) Fuel filter dirty (d) All of the above
4 If a DG set misses during operation, the probable cause may be [d]

(a) Air in fuel line (b) Nozzle damaged
(c) Water mixed with fuel (d) All of the above
5 If a DG set lacks power, the probable cause may be [a]

(a) Pump may inject insufficient quantity of fuel (b) Poor quality of fuel
(c) Dirty cooling system (d) All of the above
6 If a DG set gives excessive smoke at no load, the probable cause may be [d]
(a) Dirty clogged air cleaner (b) choked fuel injection hole
(c) Faulty fuel pump (d) All of the above
7 If a DG set excessive smoke at full load, the probable cause may be [d]
(a) One or more cylinder not working (b) Poor quality of oil
(c) Nozzle jammed (d) All of the above
8 If a DG set gives out blue smoke, the probable cause may be [d ]

(a) Worn out liner on piston (b) Wrong graded lubricating oil
(c) Engine used after a long time (d) All of the above
9 If a DG set gives white smoke, the probable cause may be [a]

(a) Water mixed with fuel (b) Engine used after a long time
(c) Worn out liner piston (d) All of the above
Page 33 of 160
10 If a DG set overheats, the probable cause may be [d]
(a) high exhaust back pressure (b) Engine overloaded
(c) Damaged main or connecting bearings (d) All of the above
(b) If a DG set consumes excessive fuel, the probable cause may be [ d ]

Injector adjustment disturbed (b) External/internal fuel leakage
(c) Incorrect value of fuel timing (d) All of the above
11 If the alternator of DG set is overheats, the probable cause may be [d]

(a) Improper ventilation (b) Misalignment
(c) Overloading of machine (d) All of the above
12 If the armature of DG set overheats, the probable cause may be [c]

(a) Overloading (b) Internal short circuit
(c) Both a &b (d) None of the above
13 The maximum rated speed for 125 kVA Cummins make DG set is [c]
(a) 1500 rpm (b) 1800 rpm (c) 2100 rpm (d) 2500 rpm
14 The oil temperature gauge of a DG set should normally read between [a]
(a) 82-116 deg C (b) 90-125 deg C (c) 100-140 deg (d) 122-148 deg C
15 During warming up, the load should be applied gradually on a DG set until the oil
temperature reaches
[b]
(a) 40 deg C (b) 60 degC (c) 80 deg C (d) 100 deg C
16 The water temperature of DG set in operation should normally range between [b]
(a) 60-80 deg C (b) 74-91 deg C(d) 88-98 deg C (d) 95-110 deg C
17 The pH value of the coolant in the radiator of a DG set should be maintained between [b]
(a) 6.5 to 8.5 (b) 8.5 to 10.5 (c) 10.5 to 12.5 (d) 12.5 to 14.5
18 The diesel engine should not be operated if the pH value in the radiator is less than [b]
(a) 6.5 (b) 8.5 (c) 10.5 (d) 12.5
19 Primary filters in the fuel system of the DG set should be cleaned at every [c]
(a) 150 hrs (b) 200 hrs (c) 250 hrs (d) 300 hrs
20 Primary filters in the fuel system of the DG set should be replaced at every [b]
(a) 500 hrs (b) 800 hrs (c) 1000 hrs (d) 1500 hrs
Page 34 of 160
21 The secondary fuel filter of a DG set should be replaced when the fuel pressure gauge is below
(a) 10 psi (b) 12 psi (c) 15 psi (d) 20 psi [b]
22 The exciter in a DG set is [a]

(a) Shunt generator (b) Compound generator
(c) Either of a or b (d) None of the above.
24. The compression ratio in diesel engines is in the range of: [b]
a) 10:1 to 15:1 b) 14:1 to 25:1 c) 5:1 to 10:1 d) 1:2 to 3:1
25. Which of the following is the last step in diesel engine operation? [d]
a) Induction stoke b) Compression stroke
c) Ignition stroke d) Exhaust stroke
26. The power requirement of the DG set is determined by: [b]

a) base load b) Maximum load c) Partial load d) Zero load
27. Present specific fuel consumption value of DG sets in industries is about ____. [c]
a) 220 g/kWh b) 100 g/kWh c) 160 g/kWh d) 50 g/kWh
28. The efficiency of diesel generating set falls in the region of: [a]
a) 35 – 45% b) 50 – 60% c) 65 – 70% d) Above 80%
29. Auxiliary power consumption of DG set at full load in its operating capacity is about _ [a]
a) 1 - 2% b) 5 – 6% c) 10 - 12% d)Above 15%
30. The rating required for a DG set with 500 kW connected load and with diversity factor of [a]
1.5, 80% loading and 0.8 power factor is _____
a) 520 kVA b) 600 kVA c) 625 kVA d) 500 kVA
31. The starting current value of DG set should not exceed__% of full load capacity of DG set. [b]
a) 100 b) 200 c) 150 d) 300
32. The maximum permissible percentage unbalance in phase loads on DG sets is____ [c ]
a) 5% b) 15% c) 10% d) 1%
33. The permissible percentage overload on DG sets for 1 hour in every 12 hours of operation
is____ [c]
a) 5% b) 15% c) 10% d) 1%
Page 35 of 160
34. Designed power factor of a DG set is generally at: [b]
a) 1.0 b) 0.8 c) 0.9 d) 1.1
35. Lower power factor of a DG set demands_____ [b]

a) Lower excitation currents b) Higher excitation currents
c) No change in excitation currents d) None of the above
36. Which of the following losses is the least in DG sets: [d]

a) cooling water loss b) exhaust loss
c) frictional loss d) alternator loss
37. The waste heat potential for a 1100 kVA set at 800 kW loading and with 480 °C [a]
exhaust gas temperature is ____
a) 4.8 lakh kCal/hr b) 3.5 lakh kCal/hr c) 3 lakh kCal/hr d) 2 lakh kCal/hr
38. Typical exit flue gas temperature of 5 MW DG set operating above 80% load is of the order of
____. [c]
a) 550 to 560 °C b) 210 to 240 °C c) 340 to 370 °C d) 400 to 450 °C
39. The maximum back pressure allowed for DG sets is in the range of____. [b]
a) 100 – 200 mm WC b) 250 – 300 mm WC
c) 400 – 500 mm WC d) above 500 mm WC
40. The operating efficiency of DG set also depends on: [d]

a) turbo charger b) Inlet air temperature c) % loading d) all the above
41. For a DG set, the copper losses in the alternator are proportional to the: [b]
a) Current delivered by the alternator
b) Square of the current delivered by the alternator
c) Square root of the current delivered by the alternator
d) None of the above
42. The jacket cooling water temperature for DG sets should be in the range of _____ [b ]
a) 40 – 50°C b) 30 – 40°C c) 80 – 90°C d) 45 – 60°C
43. The main precaution to be taken care by the waste heat recovery device
manufacture to prevent the problem in DG set during operation is: [b]
a) Temperature raises b) Back pressure
c) Over loading of waste heat recovery tubes d) Turbulence of exhaust gases
Page 36 of 160
6. PUMPS
1 If pump delivers no liquid, then probable cause is [a]
(a) Lack of prime (b) Gas or air in liquid
(c) Bent shaft (d) Moisture in lubricating oil
2 If pump discharge pressure is low, then probable cause is [b]

3 If there is excessive vibration in pump, then probable cause is [c]

4 If the bearing of pump overheats, then probable cause is [d]

5 If pump overloads the driver, then probable cause is [a]

(a) Packing too tight (b) Suction line not filled with liquid
(c) Gas or liquid in air (d) None of the above
6 Which of the following is not a criteria of pump selection [d]

(a) Type of duty required (b) Details of head
(c) Duration of availability of power supply (d) The look of pump.
7. HS Pump works with suction head. [b ]
(a) 15-20 feet head (b) 21-40 feet head

(c) 41-80 feet head (d) None of the above.
8. VS Pump works with total head [b]

(a) Upto 46 Mtrs. head. (b) 46-70 Mtrs. head
(c) 70-100 Mtrs. Head (d) None of the above
9. Motor of the VS pump is located [a]

(a) Above the ground level (b) Below the ground level
(c) Deep in the bore (d) None of the above
Page 37 of 160
10. Line shaft of the VS pump is lubricated [c]
(a) Spindle oil (b) Diesel oil
(c) Lub oil SAE-40/30 (d) None of the above
11. Priming is required for [a]
(a) HS Pump (b) VS Pump (c) Submersible Pump
12. RPM of submersible pump set is [d]

(a) 440 (b) 1440 (c) 380 (d) 2800
13. Which pump is most suitable for deep & tilted bore [c]
(a) HS Pump (b) VS Pump (c) Submersible (d) Jet pump
(e) None of above.
14. Redevelopment of bore is done [b]

(a) For smooth operation of pump
(b) For taking good yield for bore
(c) To maintain long life of bore
(d) To avoid the frequent failure of the pump
15. Capacity of pump set is selected on the ground of [ a ]
(a) Yield, Static-water-level, Working-water-level.

(b) Location of bore
(c) Type of starter provided
(d) Quantity of water to be used.
16. Pump fails mostly due to [b]

(a) Less working
(b) Excessive working
(c) Incorrect operation
(d) Failure of pump
17. Pump set motor burns due to [a]

(a) Single phasing
(b) Reverse phasing
(c) Over loading for a shorter period
(d) None of above.
18. For a 10 HP pump set which type of starter is suitable [b]

(a) DOL (b) Start Delta (c) Auto Transformer
19. A 5 HP pump set draws current on full load [c]
Page 38 of 160
(a) 5A (b) 10 A (c) 7.5 A (d) 6A
20. Ammeter is provided in control panel of pump set to measure the [d]
(a) Voltage (b) Frequency (c) Power Factor (d)Current
21. No. of contractors provided in star-delta starter [c]

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
22. Pump Guard functions to protect the submersible pump set against [e]
a) Single Phasing
b) Reverse Phasing
c) Over Loading
d) Dry Running
e) All of above.
23. Automation of pump set is done to [d]

a) To limit the working of pumps
b) To avoid the working of water
c) To save the electrical energy
d) To reduce the man power
e) All of the above.
24. Centralized control of pumps means [b]

a) Operation of pump from individual pump houses
b) Operation of all pumps from a single location
c) None of the above
25. The functional head due to flow of water in the pipe line---- length of piping system. [b]
a) Inversely proportional to (b) Directly proportional to
(c) Constant and independent of (d) None of the above.
26. The functional head due to flow of water in the pipe line---- Diameter of pipe. [a]
a) Inversely proportional to
b) Directly proportional to
(c) Constant and independent of
27. The functional head due to flow of water in pip line is directly proportional to---- of water.
a) Velocity [d]
b) (Square root of) Velocity
c) 1 / Velocity
d) Velocity2
28. The average of velocity of water in the suction pipe --- the delivery pipe. [a]
a) Less than in (b) More than in
(c) Same as in (d) None of the above.
Page 39 of 160
29. Theoretically the maximum suction head for ordinary centrifugal pumps should not
exceed. [b]
a) 20 feet (b) 34 feet (c) 10 feet (d) 5 feet.
30. For vertical shaft pump and submersible pumps the suction head is always. [a]
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) None of the above.
31. The motor of vertical shaft, 75 HP rating pump is. [c]

(a) Force air cooled (b) Natural air cooled
(c) Water cooled. (d) None of the
above.
32. The specific speed of pump (in RPM) is the speed at which the impeller would run to give
discharge of --- against head of ---- [a]
(a) 1 GPM, 1 Foot
(b) 1 GPH, 1 Foot
(c) 1 GPM, 34 feet
(d) 1 GPH, 34 feet
33. The specific speed of pump is directly proportional to ---- where ‘Q’ is rate of discharge in
GPH. [a]
2
(a) (Square root) Q (b) Q (c) Q (d) None of the above.
34. The specific speed of pump is directly proportional to --- where ‘N’ is speed of pump in RPM.
[ b]
(a) Square root (N) (b) N (c) N2 (d) None of the above.
35. Positive displacement pumps are generally less efficient than centrifugal pumps. State
whether the statement is true or false [b]
(a) True (b) False
36. Installing larger diameter pipe in pumping system results in reduction in--------
a) static head b) frictional head c) both a and b d) neither a nor b
37. Generally water pipe lines are designed with water velocity of [b]
a) < 1 m/s b) up to 2.0 m/s c) > 2 m/s d) None of the above
38. What is the impact on flow and pressure when the impeller of a pump is trimmed? [c]
a) Flow decreases with increased pressure b) Both flow and pressure increases
c) Both pressure and flow decreases d) None of the above
Page 40 of 160
39. For high flow requirement, pumps are generally operated in [a]
a) parallel b) series c) any of the above d) none of the above
40. “In case of throttling operation, the pump has to overcome additional pressure in order to
deliver the reduced flow”. Please indicate whether this statement is [a]
a) True (b) False
41. Friction losses in a pumping system is------ [b]
a) proportional to 1/Q b) proportional to 1/Q2
c) proportional to 1/Q3 d) proportional to 1/Q4
42. For large capacity centrifugal pumps, design efficiencies are in the range of [b]
a) around 70% b) around 85% c) around 95% d) any of above
43. The moving part in centrifugal pump is ----- [a]

a) impeller b) diffuser c) both a & b d) neither a nor b
44. The most efficient method of flow control in a pumping system is------- [b]
a) Throttling the flow b) Speed control c) Impeller trimming d) None
45. In case of increased suction lift from open wells, the delivery flow rate-------- [b]
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same d) none of the above
46. Pump efficiency generally increases with specific speed. State whether the statement is True
or False. [a ]
a) True (b) False
47. Throttling the delivery valve of a pump results in increased ____. [c]
a) head b) power c) both (a) and (b) d) either (a) or (b)
48. The operating point in a pumping system is identified by [c]
a) Point of intersection of system curve and efficiency curve
b) Point of intersection of pump curve and theoretical power curve
c) Point of intersection of pump curve and system curve
d) Cannot be decided by pump characteristic curves
49. The intersection point of the pump curve and the system curve is called-------- [b]
a) Pump efficiency b) Best efficiency point
c) System efficiency d) None of the above
Page 41 of 160
50. If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, its power consumption increases by------- times.
[c]
a) two b) four c) eight d) no change
51. Installation of Variable frequency drives (VFD) allows the motor to be operated with ____.
[a]
a) lower start-up current b) higher start-up current
c) constant current d) none of the above
52. In case of centrifugal pumps, impeller diameter changes are generally limited to reducing the
diameter to about ____ of maximum size. [a]
a) 75% b)50% c) 25% d) None of the above
53. If the delivery valve of the pump is throttled such that it delivers 30% of the rated flow, one of
the best options for improved energy efficiency would be [c]
a) Trimming of the impeller b) Replacing the motor
c) Replacing the impeller with a smaller size impeller d) None of the above
54. Small by-pass lines are installed some times to _____. [c]
a) control flow rate b) control pump delivery head
c) prevent pump running at zero flow d) reduce pump power consumption
Page 42 of 160
7. TRACK CROSSINGS
1 The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 11 kV to 66 kV
overhead lines crossing (including guard wire) the railway track should be [a]
(a) 14.1 m (b) 14.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m
2 The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 66 kV to132
kV overheads lines crossing the railway track should be [b]
(a) 14.1 m (b) 14.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m
3 The minimum depth of underground cable track crossing (through) pipe should be [a]
(a) 1m (b) 1.5 m (c) 2 m (d) 2.5 m
4 The Electrical Inspector at zonal railway is [a]

(a) CEE (b) Dy. CEE (c) DRM (Elect.) (d) CESE.
5 The regulations for electrical line crossing on railway track is not applicable to [d]
(a) Crossing of railway track laid underground/ inside tube and tunnels
(b) 1500 V DC traction system
(c) 25 kV, 50 Hz traction systems
(d) All of the above
6 In special cases the reduction in specified clearance of electrical crossing on railway track can
be permitted by [a]
(a) Electrical Inspector (b) Astt. Electrical Inspector
(c) DRM (d) ADRM
7 In view of electrical lines crossing on railway tracks the materials used should comply with
Indian Standards specifications but where these are not available, which of the following
should be followed [a]
(a) British standard specifications
(b) US standard specifications
(c) Russian standard specifications
(d) France standard specifications
8 Electrical crossings on railway tracks should be inspected by the owner at a interval not
exceeding [d]
Page 43 of 160
9 If at instance of railways any electrical crossing on railway track is to be shifted or modified
the cost will be borne by___ ( shifting not foreseen at the time of agreement) [b]
(a) Owner (b) Railways (c) Both (d) Either a or b
10 In case of defects and failures in electrical crossing on railway tracks, owner has ro sent a
detailed report to all the authorities mentioned in the regulations, within _____ hrs of the first
report [d]
(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 48
11 Angle of overhead electrical line crossing to railway track shall be [a]

(a) Right angle
(b) Acute angle
(c) Obtuse angle
(d) Angle does not matter.
12 In special cases the maximum permitted deviation in angle of OH electrical line crossing to
railway track shall be [c]
(a) 10 deg (b) 20 deg (c) 30 deg (d) 45 deg
13 The minimum distance of structures (for electrical line crossing) from the centre of nearest
railway track shall be equal to the height of the structure in meters plus [b]
(a) 3m (b) 6 m (c) 9 m (d) 12 m
14 The span of the OH electrical line crossing the railway track is restricted to [c]
(a) 100 m (b) 200 m (c) 300 m (d) 400 m
15 The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 132kV to
220kV overhead lines crossing (including guard wire) the railway track should be [c]
(a) 14.1 m (b) 14.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m
16 The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 220kV to
400kV overhead lines crossing (including guard wire) the railway track should be [d]
(a) 14.1 m (b) 4.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m
17 In special circumstances if the railway crane has to work under the under the overhead
electrical line crossing, the minimum clearance between the highest point of the jib and the
lowest conductor of the 33 kV lines should be [a]
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m
lowest conductor of the 66 kV lines should be [b]
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m
Page 44 of 160
lowest conductor of the 110kV lines should be [c]
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m
lowest conductor of the 132kV lines should be [d]
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m
lowest conductor of the 220kV lines should be [c]
(a) 2.25m (b) 2.5 m c) 3.5 m (d) 6.0 m
lowest conductor of the 400kV lines should be [d]
(a) 2.25m (b) 2.5m (c) 3.5 (d) 6.0 m
23 In sections where tracks are not to be electrified in future,linesupto 11 kV overhead crossing

are permitted with clearance between lowest conductor of the line and railway track
[b]
(a) 9m (b) 10.95 m (c) 11.05 m (d) 12.1 m
24 The factor of safety of each string of insulator used for overhead electrical crossing on railway
track should not be less than [b]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
25 The minimum height between any guard wire and a live conductor of electrical
crossing on railway track shall not be less than [b]
(a) 1m (b) 1.5 m (c) 2 m (d) 2.5 m
26 Each structure on either side of the railway track, supporting the span of overhead electrical
line crossing should be provided with_____ no. of independent earths [b]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
27 The maximum permissible earth resistance on either side of the electrical overhead line
crossing (on railway track) is [c]
(a) 5 ohm (b) 8 ohm (c) 10 ohm (d) 12 ohm
28 The owner of the overhead electric line crossing on railway tracks, is required to inspect and
test the earth on hot dry day at an interval of [d]
Page 45 of 160
29 Which of the following should be displayed on the marker at each end of the underground
cable crossing on railway track [ a ]
(a) No. of cables (b) Size of cable

(c) Make of cables (d) All of the above
30 Which of the following data is to be provided by the owner, while proposing for overhead
electrical line crossing on railway track [a]
(a) Temperature data provided
(b) Name of supervisor from owner’s side
(c) Life of crossing
31 The final authority to grant the approval for proposed electrical line crossing on railway track
[b]
(a) Electrical Inspector (b) DRM (c) DRM (Elect.) (d) ADRM
Page 46 of 160
8. INDIAN ELECTRICITY RULES
1 The maximum variation allowed in voltage of LV & MV AC supply is [d]
(a) ±2% (b) ± 3 % (c) ± 4 % (d) ± 5 %
2 The maximum variation allowed in voltage of HV& EHV AC supply is [c]

(a) ± 8.5 % (b) ± 10.5 % (c) ± 12.5 % (d) ± 14.5 %
3 The maximum variation allowed in frequency of AC supply is [b]

(a) ± 2% (b) ± 3 % (c) ± 4 % (d) ± 5 %
4 Clearance of the lowest conductor (across the street) from the ground for LT and MT lines
should be [c]
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
5 Clearance of the lowest conductor (across the street) from the ground for HT lines should be
[d]
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
6 Clearance of the lowest conductor (along the street) from the ground for LT and MT lines
should be [b]
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
7 Clearance of the lowest conductor (along the street) from the ground for HT lines should be
[c]
(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.
8 Clearance of the lowest conductor vertical above the building for LT and MT lines should be
[c]
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
9 Clearance of the lowest conductor vertical above the building for HT lines should be [d]
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
10 Clearance of the conductor Horizontal from the building for LT and MT lines should be [a ]
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
11 Clearance of the conductor Horizontal from the building for HT lines should be [ b ]
(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.
Page 47 of 160
12 The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150 ft. span lines should be
[b]
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
13 The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft. span lines
should be [c]
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
14 The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 11 kV lines should be [c]
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
15 The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150 ft. span lines should
be [a]
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
16 The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft.
span lines should be [c]
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’ (d) 2’6”
17 The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 11 kV lines should be [d]
(a) 1’3” (b) 1’6” (c) 2’6” (d) 3’9”
18 The clearance between the conductor and pole for 400/230 V, 150 ft span lines, should be
(a) 6” (b) 9” (c) 12” (d) 1’3” [a]
19 The clearance between the conductor and pole for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft span lines, should be
[ b ]
(a) 6” (b) 9” (c) 12” (d) 1’3”
20 The clearance between the conductor and pole for 11 kV lines, should be [c]
(a) 6” (b) 9” (c) 12” (d) 1’3”
Page 48 of 160
9. POLICY
1 Provision of rebate by state electricity authority is applicable if the power factor is kept above
[c]
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.92 (c) 0.95 (d) 0.98
2. Penalty is imposed by state electricity authority if the power factor is below [a]
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.92 (c) 0.95 (d) 0.98
3 Electric energy charges from the railway employees residing in railway colonies are at
[d]
(a) Flat rate
(b) Fixed rate
(c) Average consumption
(d) The rate that of local supply authority
4 Electric energy charges from the staff/ teachers of KendriyaVidhyalaya residing in railway
colonies is at [d]
(a) Flat rate
(b) Fixed rate
(d) The rate applicable to railway employees
5 Electric energy charges from the social welfare organizations such as railway institute,
community halls, clubs, etc. is at [d]
(a) Flat rate
(b)Fixed rate
(d)The rate applicable to railway employee subject to maximum limit of consumption.
6 Electric energy charges from the religious buildings (electric supply fed by railway) such as
temples. Mosque etc is at [d]
(a) Flat rate
(b) Fixed rate
(d) The rate that of local supply authority
7 Per day charges from officers on duty (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation of air
conditioned accommodation on railway rest house is Rs. [c]
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
Page 49 of 160
8 Per day charges from officers on leave (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation of air
conditioned accommodation on railway rest house is prescribed room rent plus Rs .[c]
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
9 Per day charges from officers on duty (entitled to 1 st class AC travel) for occupation of air
conditioned accommodation on railway rest house during winter season is Rs. [d]
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) No
charges
10 The firms dealing with coin operated person weighing machines has to deposit security money
equivalent to [a]
(a) One month electric charges (b)Two month electric charges
(c) Three month electric charges (d) No charges.
11 The private parties applying for electric connection from railways has to deposit security
money equivalent to [c]
(a) One month electric charges
(b) Two month electric charges
(c) Three month electric charges
(d) No charges.
12 As per Railway Board recommendations, following are to be connected with DG set supply
[d]
(a) Vacuum testing plants
(b) Water coolers on platforms
(c) Hospital with operation theatre
(d) All of the above.
13 As per Railway Board recommendations, the stations/ halts should be electrified, where the
electric supply is available within [a]
(a) 1 km (b) 1.5 km (c) 2 km (d) 2.5 km
14 The porters rest centres are treated as [a]

(a) Service building (b) Private building
(c) Passenger amenity (d) None of the above
15 As per Indian Electricity Act, penalty against unauthorised electricity connection is [a]
(a) Imprisonment up to 3 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1000/-
(b) Imprisonment up to 2 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1000/-
(c) Imprisonment up to 3 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1500/-
(d) Imprisonment up to 2 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1500/-
Page 50 of 160
16 Number of geysers that can be provided in officer’s flat (on special request) [a]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
17 Number of geysers that can be provided in the GM’s bungalow is [b]

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
18 The railway stations at zonal headquarters and state capitals are classified as of category
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D [a]
19 The railway stations at divisional headquarters and district headquarters are classified as of
category [b]
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
20 As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for platform on category A and B
stations are [c]
(a) 1 x 36 W FL tube (b) 2 x 36 W HPSV
(c) 1 x 70 W HPSV (d) 2 x 36 W HPSV
21 As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for platform on category C stations
are [a]
(a) 1 x 36 W FL tube (b) 2 x 36 W HPSV
(c) 1 x 70 W HPSV (d) 2 x 36 W HPSV
22 As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for ASM office, SM office, enquiry
and PRS on category A and B stations are [a]
(a) 2 x 36 W mirror optic FL tube (b) 4 x 36 W mirror optic FL tube
(c) 2 x 36 W box type FL tube (d) 4 x 36 W box type FL tube
23 As per Railway Boards recommendations, the light fittings in station approach and car parks
are [a]
(a) 1 x 70 W HPSV (b) 2 x 70 W HPSV
(c) 1 x 40 W Box type (d) 2 x 40 W box type
24 As per Railway Board recommendations, on platform having width of 9-6 m, fannage should
be provided in [a]
(a) 1 row (b) 2 rows (c) 3 rows (d) 4 rows
25 As per Railway Board recommendations, on platform having width more than 9 m, fannage
should be provided in [b]
(a) 1 row (b) 2 rows (c) 3 rows (d) 4 rows
26 As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided on platforms should be
[d]
(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm
Page 51 of 160
27 As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided in offices,
waiting hall etc. should be [c]
(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm
28 As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided in retiring rooms on each
bed should be [b]
(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm
29 At stations where neither electrical supervisor nor engineering supervisor is headquartered, the
upkeep of pumps in water supply system is under [b]
(a) S & T supervisor (b) Station Master (c) Gangman (d) Pointsman
30 State Electricity Board charges Electricity Duty against selling electricity to railways
amounting Rs. [d]
(a) 10,000/- (b) 50,000/- (c) 75,000/- (d) No
charges
31 Railway Board has recommended that locations where HPSV lamps affect the colour light
signalling should be replaced by [c]
(a) Mercury Vapour Lamps
(b)FL tube fittings
(c) Any of A & B
(d)No such recommendation has been made.
32 The maintenance of water coolers donated by private parties is to be done by [b]

(a) The donating party
(b) Railways
(c) On contract
(d) Any of the above.
33 The electrical energy consumption on water coolers donated by private parties are to be borne
by [b]
(a) The donating party
(b) Railways
(c) SEB
(d) Through collection from public
34 The Railway Board has recommended to provide water coolers at stations with _____
passengers (inward & outward) per day [b]
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1500 (d) 2000
Page 52 of 160
10. ELECTRICAL UNITS: EQUIVALENTS &
FORMULAE
1. One HP = [b]
(a) 756 watts (b) 746 watts (c) 860 watts (d) 856 wats
2. Torque in ft. lbs. = [a]

(a) HP x 33000 / (RPM x 2) (b) HP x 2 / (RPM x 33000)
(b) HP x RPM / (2 x 33000) (d) RPM x 2 / (HP x 33000)
3. Current = [a]
(a) Watts/Volts (b) Volts/Watts
(c) Kilowatt/Volts (d) Kilovolt/watt
4. Motor output in HP= [a]

(a) KW input x efficiency/0.746 (b) KW input x 0.746/efficiency
(c) Efficiency x 0.746/KW input (d) 0.746/(KW input x efficiency)
5. kVA equal to [d]

(a) 1000 x Amps/ volts (b) volts x Amps x 1000
(c) Volts x 1000/Amps (d) Amps x volts/1000
6. Power factor = [a]

(a) True Power/Apparent power (b) Apparent power/True power
(c) Average power/True power (d) Apparent power/Average power
7. True power in three-phase circuit in Kilowatt is [b]

(a) 1.414 x volts x amperes x pf/1000 (b) 1.73 x volts x amperes x pf/1000
(c) Volts x Amperes x pf/1000 (d) Volts x Amperes x 1000/pf
8. Amperes drawn by single-phase motor are equal to [c]

(a) Efficiency x Volts x pf / (HP x 746) (b) Efficiency x pf/(volt x HP x 746)
(c) HP x 746 / (Efficiency x volts x pf) (d) HP x746 x volts/(Efficiency x pf)
9. Amperes drawn by three phase motor are equal to [c]

(a) Efficiency x Volts x pf / (HP x 746) (b) Efficiency x pf/(volt x HP x 746)
(c) HP x 746/(Efficiency x volts x pf x 1.73) (d) HP x 746 x volts/(Efficiency x pf)
10. One Kilowatt = [a]

(a) 1.314 HP (b) 13.41 HP (c) 134.1 HP (d) 1341 HP
Page 53 of 160
11. One Kilowatt = [d]
(a) 1360 Metric HP (b) 136 Metric HP
(c) 13.60 Metric HP (d) 1.360 Metric HP
12. One Kwh = [c]

(a) 34.13 BTU (b) 44.13 BTU
(c) 3.413 BTU (d) 4.413 BTU
13. One Kwh = [b]

(a) 1000 calories (b) 860 calories (c) 740 calories (d) 970 calories
14. One BTU = [a]

(a) 0.2520 calories (b) 2.520 calories (c) 25.20 calories (d) 252.0 calories
15. One Calorie = [d]

(a) 39.68 BTU (b) 4.968 BTU (c) 49.68 BTU (d) 3.968 BTU
16. One foot pound = [a]

(a) 0.1383 M Kg (b) 1.383 M Kg (c) 13.83 M Kg (d) 138.3 M Kg
17. One BTU = [d]

(a) 0.1076 M Kg (b) 1.076 M Kg (c) 10.76 M Kg (d) 107.6 M Kg
18. One Kilowatt = [b]

(a) 202 M Kg/sec (b) 102 M Kg /sec (c) 20.2 M Kg/sec (d) 10.2 M Kg/sec
19. One Electrical Unit = [a]

(a) 1 Kwh (b) 1 Kw (c) 1 kVA (d) Watt
20. Power factor = [a]

(a) R/Z (b) Z/R (c) V/I (d) I/V
21. The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core , armoured aluminium
cable of size 120 sq mm (laid direct in ground) is approximately [b]
(a) 80 amps (b) 185 amps (c) 290 amps (d) 320 amps
cable of size 70 sq mm (laid in duct) is approximately [a]
Page 54 of 160
cable of size 50 sq mm (laid in air) is approximately [b]
24 The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core , armoured aluminium
cable of size 35 sq mm (laid direct in ground) is approximately [a]
25 The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core , armoured aluminium
cable of size 25 sq mm (laid direct in ground) is approximately [b]
(a) 55 amps (b) 76 amps (c) 90 amps (d) 150 amp
Page 55 of 160
11. INDUCTION MOTOR
1. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel ? [c]
a. Bearings b. Shaft c. Stator core d. None of the above
2. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of [b]

a. Silicon steel b. cast iron c. aluminium d. bronze
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made of [c]

a. high speed steel b. stainless steel
c. carbon steel d. cast iron
4. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in
order to [d]
a. reduce windage losses b. reduce eddy currents
c. reduce accumulation of dirt and dust d. reduce magnetic hum
5. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased [b]

a. the magnetizing current of the b. the power factor will decrease
rotor will decrease
c. speed of motor will increase d. the windage losses will increase
6. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an
induction motor will be [c]
a. Ns b. s.Ns c. (1-s)Ns d. (Ns-1)s
7. Slip rings are usually made of [c]

a. copper b. Carbon c. phosphor bronze d. aluminium
8. The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to be nearly [b]

a. 60 to 90% b. 80 to 90% c. 95 to 98% d. 99%
9. The number of slip rings on a squirrel-cage induction motor is usually [d]

a) 3 b) 1 c) 6 d) 0
10. Running torque of the squirrel-cage induction motor on full load is [a]
a. low b. negligible c. same as full-load torque d. slightly more than full-load torque
11. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of [ a ]
a. single phase motors b. variable speed motors

c. low horse power motors d. high speed motors
Page 56 of 160
12. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have [b]
a. 8 poles b. 6 poles c. 4 poles d. 2 poles
13. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by [c]

a. low voltage supply b. high loads
c. harmonics developed in the motor d. improper design of machine
14. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because [a]
a. motor take five to seven time its b. it will pick up very high speed and full
load current may go out of step
c. it will run in reverse direction d. starting torque is very high
15. Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is used for [b]
a. squirrel-cage induction motors b. slip ring induction motors only
only
c. both (a) and (b) d. none of the above
16. If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged [ a]
a. the motor will run in reverse direction b. the motor will run at reduced speed
direction
c. the motor will not run d. the motor will burn
17. An induction motor is [c]

a. self-starting with zero torque b. self starting with high torque
c. self starting with low torque d. non self starting
18. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors [b]

a. rotor conductor ends are short- b. rotor conductors are short-circuited
circuited through slip rings through end rings
c. rotor conductors are kept open d.rotor conductors are connected to insulation
19. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always [d]
a. zero stator
b. more than the number of poles in stator
c. less than number of poles in stator
d. equal to number of poles in stator
20. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to [a]

a. low horsepower motors b. variable speed motors
c. high horsepower motors d. high speed motors
Page 57 of 160
21. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to [a]
a. 0.2 lagging b. 0.2 leading
c. 0.5 leading d. unity
22. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motor for the same H.P. will be [b]
a. bigger b. smaller c. same d. any of the above
23. Slip ring motor is recommended where [d]

a. speed control is required b.frequentstarting,stoppingandreversingis required
c. high starting torque is needed d. all above features are required
24. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft [ a ]
a. ball bearings b. cast iron bearings

c. bush bearings d. non of the above
25. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually [b]

a. graphite b. grease
c. mineral oil d. molasses
26. If the rotor circuit of a squirrel cage induction motor is open, the rotor will [d]
a. run at very high speed b. run at very low speed
c. make noise d. not run
27. The advantage of a slip-ring induction motor over a squirrel cage induction motor is that
[c]
a. it has higher efficiency b. it has higher power factor
c. it can be started with help of rotor d. non of the above
resistance starter
28. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor is always started with [d]

a. a starting winding
b.squirrel cage winding
c. no external resistance in rotor circuit
d. full external resistance in rotor circuit
29. The synchronous speed of a 3- phase induction motor is given by the formula [a]
a. Ns =120f/P b. Ns =120P/f
c. Ns =120 fP d. Ns = f P/120
30. If single-phasing occurs on the running position in an induction motor, the motor will [a]
a. fail to carry load b. produce peculiar noise
c. draw unbalanced and excessive currents d. not start
Page 58 of 160
31. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 25 percent lower than its rated voltage.
The pump runs; eventually [a]
a. the pump will get heated and consequentlyget damaged
b. the pup will stall after sometimes
c. the pump will continue to run at lower speed without damage
d. None
32. If there is an open circuit in the rotor of a squirrel cage induction motor [d]
a. rotor will overheat b. line fuses will blow
c. motor will be noisy d. motor will not start
33. The principle of operation of a 3phase induction motor is most similar to that of [a]
a. transformer with a shorted secondary b. synchronous motor
c. capacitor start induction run motor d. repulsion start motor induction motor
34. The A.C. motor which would be best suited to drive a centrifugal pump for
discharging a variable quantity of water against a fixed head is the [d]
a. repulsion motor b. synchronous motor
c. squirrel cage d. slip ring induction motor
35. Two of the power supply terminals to a 3-phase induction motor get inter-changed
during reconnection after maintenance of the motor. When put back into service, the motor will
[d]
a. get heated up and damaged
b. rotate in the same direction as it was prior to maintenance
c. fail to rotate
d. rotate in the reverse direction to that prior to maintenance
36. The frame of an induction motor is made of [b]

a. carbon b. closed grained cast iron
c. aluminium d. stainless steel
37. Slip rings for induction motors are made of [a]

a. phosphor bronze b. aluminium
c. carbon d. cobalt steel
38. The shaft, on which the rotor of an induction motor is mounted is made of [d]
a. high speed steel b. chrome vanadium steel
c. cast-iron d. carbon steel
e. aluminium
Page 59 of 160
39. Which of the following type of bearing is generally used to support the
rotor of an induction motor [a]
a. Ball bearing b. Needle bearing
c. Plummer block d. Bush bearing
40. Under which method of starting an induction motor is expected to take

largest starting current? [c]
a. star-delta starting b. auto-transformer starting
c. direct on line starting d. stator rotor starting
41. The direction of rotation of a 3-phase induction motor can be reversed by [a]
a. interchanging any two phases b. supplying low voltage
c. reducing load d. reducing frequency
42. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is [d]
a. four b. three c. two d. none
43. The starting torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by [b]
a. adding resistance to the stator b. adding resistance to the rotor
c. adding resistance to stator as well as the rotor d. none of the above
44. If the rotor is open in a squirrel cage motor, it [c]

a. will run at very high speed b. will run at very slow speed
c. will not run d. will make noise
45. The value of average flux density in air gap in an induction motor, should be small [c]
a. to achieve good efficiency b. to get poor power factor
c. to get good power factor d. for minimum cost
46. An induction motor has a rated speed of 720 r.p.m. How many poles has its
rotating magnetic field? [a]
a. 8 poles b. 6 poles c . 4 poles d.2 poles
47. During starting if an induction motor hums, the probable cause could be [d]
a. open circuit b. unequal phase resistance
c. inter-turn short circuit on rotor d. any of the above
Page 60 of 160
48. The probable reason for an induction motor running too hot could be [d]
a. low voltage b. uneven air gap
c. clogged ventilating ducts d. any of the above
49. In case single phasing occurs in delta connected motor [a]

a. one phase will be seriously over-loaded and two others will be slightly overloaded
b. two phases will be seriously over-loaded and there will be no current in the third phase
c. there will be no current in one phases
d. there will be no current in two phases
50. Synchronous speed is defined as [b]

a. the speed of a synchronous motor
b. the actual speed at which a magnetic field rotates
c. the speed of the rotor of an induction
d. the speed of an induction motor at no motor load
51. The speed of three phase cage-rotor induction motor depends on [d]
a. number of poles only b. input voltage
c. frequency of supply only d. number of poles and frequency of supply
e. none of the above
52. The two important parts of a 3-phase induction motor are [b]
a. rotor and armature b. rotor and stator
c. slip ring and brushes d. stator and field
53. Phase advancers are used with induction motors to [ d]

a. reduce noise b. reduce vibrations
c. reduce copper losses d. improve power factor
Page 61 of 160
12. CABLES
1. The insulating material for a cable should have [d]
a. low cost b. high dielectric strength
c. high mechanical strength d. all of the above
2. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury [c]

a. bedding b. sheath c. armouring d. none of he above
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables? [d]

a. Varnished cambric b. rubber c. paper d. any of the above
4. Empire tape is [a]

a. varnished cambric b. vulcanized rubber
c. impregnated paper d. none of the above
5. The thickness of the layer on insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon [c]
a. bedding b. sheath c. armouring d. none of he above
6. The bedding on a cable consists of [c]

a. Hessian cloth b. jute c. any of the above d. none of the above
7. The insulating material for cables should [d]

a. be acid proof b. be non-inflammable
c. be non-hygroscopic d. have all above properties
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath……….. is provided [b]

a. earthing connection b. bedding c. armouring d. none of the above
9. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is [a]
a. blue b. black c. brown d. none of the above
10. Low tension cables are generally used upto [d]

a. 200 V b. 500 V c. 700 V d. 1000 V
11. PVC stands for [a]

a. polyvinyl chloride b. post varnish conductor
c. pressed and varnished cloth d. positive voltage conductor
e. all above parameters
12 In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing [ d]

a. the resistance of the conductor b. the inductance of conductors
c. the capacitances of insulated conductors d. all above parameters
Page 62 of 160
13. The material for armouring on cable is usually [c]
a. steel tape b. galvanized steel wire
c. any of the above d. none of the above
14. In the cables, sheaths are used to [a]

a. prevent the moisture from entering the cable b. provide enough strength
c. provide proper insulation d. none of the above
15. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth [c]

a. to minimize temperature stresses
b. to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
c. to minimize the effect of shocks and vibrations due to passing vehicles, etc
d. for all of the above reasons
16. The advantage of cable over overhead transmission lines is [c]

a. easy maintenance b. low cost
c. can be used in congested areas d. can be used in high voltage circuits
17. The insulating material should have [d]

a. low permittivity b. high resistivity
c. high dielectric strength d. all of the above
18. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is [ a]

a. it is hygroscopic b. it has high capacitance
c. it is an organic material d. none of the above
Page 63 of 160
ANSWER SHEET
1. GENERAL
1-b 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-b 6-c

7-d 8-b 9-d 10 - c 11 - d 12 - b
13 - a 14 - c 15 - b 16 - b 17 - c 18-b
19 - c 20 - b 21 - d 22 - b 23 - a 24 -
a
25 - d 26 - a 27 - b 28 - c 29 - b 30 - d
31 - b 32 - b 33 - c 34 - a 35 - d 36 - b
37 - c 38 - b 39 - a 40 - c 41 - a 42 - b
43 - a 44 - a 45 - a 46 - a 47 - d 48 - b
49 - a 50 - a 51 - a 52 - a 53 - a 54 - a
55 - b 56 - b 57 - c 58 - a 59 - c 60 - c
61 - b 62 - b 63 - d 64 - d 65 - a 66 - b
67 - d 68 - c 69 - d 70 - d 71 - c 72 - a
73 - a 74 - b 75 - a 76 - a 77 - b 78 - a
79 - b 80 - a 81 - a 82 - c 83 - c 84 - a
85 - b 86 - a 87 - a 88 - a 89 - a 90 - d
91 - b 92 - b 93 - d 94 - c 95 - a 96 - b
97 - a 98 - a 99 - b 100 - c 101 - a 102 - b
103 - b 104 - d 105 - c 106 - c 107 - a 108 – c
109 - b 110 - b 111 - b 112 - a 113 - c 114 - b
115 - b 116 - d 117 - c 118 - b 119 - a 120 – c
121 - b 122 - a 123 - c 124 - d 125 - b 126 - c
127 - c 128 - b 129 - c 130 - d 131 - c 132 - d
133 - a 134 - a 135 - b 136 - a 137 - c 138 - b
139 - d 140 - a 141 - b 142 - d 143 - a 144 - c
145 - d 146 - d 147 - c 148 - a 149 - d 150 - d
151 - d 152 - d 153 - a 154 - d 155 - d 156 - d
157 - b 158 - c 159 - d 160 - b 161 - a 162-c
163 - b 164 - a 165 - a 166 - a 167 - b 168 - a
169 - c 170 - c 171 - b 172 - c 173 - b 174 - a
175 - c 176 - c 177 - b 178 - b 179 - d 180 – c
181 - c 182 - c 183 - b 184 - b 185 - b 186 - c
187 - c 188 - b 189 - b 190 - b 191 - c 192 - c
193 - c 194 - a 195 - a 196 - b
Page 64 of 160
2. TRANSFORMERS
1-b 2-a 3-a 4-b 5-d 6-d 7-d 8-d 9-c 10-d
11-d 12-a 13-a 14-c 15-c 16-a 17-d 18-b 19-c 20-c
21-d 22-b 23-b 24-c 25-c 26-b 27-d 28-c 29-b 30-d
31-a 32-c 33-d 34-b 35-a 36-c 37-c 38-c 39-b 40-b
41-c 42-d 43-b 44-b 45-d 46-a 47-d 48-b 49-d 50-d
51-d 52-a 53-d 54-d 55-a 56-b 57-a 58-c 59-b 60-d
61-d 62-d 63-b 64-a 65-a 66-b 67-b 68-b 69-c 70-d
3. EARTHING
1-a 2-b 3-c 4-a 5-b 6-c 7-d 8-b 9-c 10-d
11-b 12-c 13-c 14-a 15-d 16-b 17-b 18-d
4. LIGHTING AND ILLUMINATION
1-d 2-b 3-a 4-b 5-b 6-d 7-c 8-c 9-a 10-a
11-b 12-c 13-d 14-a 15-b 16-c 17-d 18-c 19-d 20-d
21-b 22-c 23-b 24-b 25-c 26-a 27-a 28-c 29-b 30-c
31-d 32-d 33-c 34-c 35-b 36-a 37-a 38-b 39-b 40-c
41-a 42-d 43-b 44-a 45-d 46-d 47-c 48-d 49-d 50-c
51-a
5. D.G. SET
1-d 2-d 3-d 4-d 5-a 6-d 7-d 8-d 9-a 10-d
11-d 12-d 13-c 14-c 15-a 16-b 17-b 18-b 19-b 20-c
21-b 22-b 23-a 24-b 25-d 26-b 27-c 28-a 29-a 30-a
31-b 32-c 33-c 34-b 35-b 36-d 37-a 38-c 39-b 40-d
41-b 42- 43-b
6. PUMP
1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d 5-a 6-d 7-b 8-b 9-a 10-c
11-a 12-d 13-c 14-b 15-a 16-b 17-a 18-b 19-c 20-d
21-c 22-e 23-d 24-b 25-b 26-a 27-d 28-a 29-b 30-a
31-c 32-a 33-a 34-b 35-b 36-b 37-b 38-c 39-a 40-a
41-b 42-b 43-a 44-b 45-b 46-a 47-c 48-c 49-b 50-c
51-a 52-a 53-c 54-c
Page 65 of 160
7.. TRACK CROSSING
1-a 2-b 3-a 4-a 5-d 6-a 7-a 8-d 9-b 10-d
11-a 12-c 13-b 14-c 15-c 16-d 17-a 18-b 19-c 20-d
21-c 22-d 23-b 24-b 25-b 26-b 27-c 28-d 29-a 30-a
31-b
8. INDIAN ELECTRICITY RULES
1-d 2-c 3-b 4-c 5-d 6-b 7-c 8-c 9-d 10-a
11-b 12-b 13-c 14-c 15-a 16-b 17-d 18-a 19-b 20-c
9. POLICY
1-c 2-a 3-d 4-d 5-d 6-d 7-c 8-c 9-d 10-a
11-c 12-d 13-a 14-a 15-a 16-a 17-b 18-a 19-b 20-c
21-a 22-a 23-a 24-a 25-b 26-d 27-c 28-b 29-b 30-d
31-c 32-b 33-b 34-b
10. ELECTRICAL UNITS: EQUIVALENTS & FORMULAE
1-b 2-a 3-a 4-a 5-d 6-a 7-b 8-c 9-c 10-a
11-d 12-c 13-b 14-a 15-d 16-a 17-d 18-b 19-a 20-a
21-b 22-a 23-b 24-a 25-b
11. INDUCTION MOTOR
1-c 2-b 3-c 4-d 5-b 6-c 7-c 8-b 9-d 10-a
11-a 12-b 13-c 14-a 15-b 16-a 17-c 18-b 19-d 20-a
21-a 22-b 23-d 24-a 25-b 26-d 27-c 28-d 29-a 30-a
31-a 32-d 33-a 34-d 35-d 36-b 37-a 38-d 39-a 40-c
41-a 42-d 43-b 44-c 45-c 46-a 47-d 48-d 49-a 50-b
51-d 52-b 53-d
12. CABLES
1-d 2-c 3-d 4-a 5-c 6-c 7-d 8-b 9-a 10-d
11-a 12-c 13-c 14-a 15-c 16-c 17-d 18-a
Page 66 of 160
1. CELLS
1. An electrolyte use in train lighting cell is the mixture of [c]
a) Sulphuric acid and tap water

b) Sulphuric acid and mineral water
c) Sulphuric acid and demineralized/distilled water
2. When cell is fully charged, the positive plate becomes [a]
a) Lead peroxide c) Lead sulphate

b) Spongy lead d) None
3. When the lead acid cell is fully charged the negative plate becomes [b]
a) Lead peroxide c) Lead sulphate

b) Spongy lead d) None
4. The capacity of cell is measured in [a]
a) Ampere hour c) Amperes

b) Watt hour d) Watts
5. Internal resistance of lead acid cell is mainly due to [d]
a) Size of plates c) Nature of electrolyte

b) Distance between the plates d) All the above
6. Trickle charging of storage battery help to [a]
a) Compensate for internal losses c) Increase its capacity

b) Maintains proper electrolyte d) None
7. The capacity of Battery used in 110V T.L system [a]
a) 120AH c) 320Ah
b) 210Ah d) 90AH
8. SPGR of fully charged cell [a]
a) 1.220 c) 1.140
b) 1.180 d) 1.100
9. SPGR of half charged cell [a]
a) 1.210 d) 1.140
b) 1.175
c) 1.100
Page 67 of 160
10. SPGR of fully discharged cell is [d]
a) 1.210 c) 1.200
b) 1.175 d) 1.140
11. Total number of cells available in TL flooded Battery of 110V system [ a]

a) 54 c) 24
b) 56 d) 18
12. Sulphation occurs due to [d]
a) Cells kept under discharged condition

b) Cells kept under not fully charged condition
c) Cells over charged
d) All the above
13. The codal life of lead acid TL/AC cells is [a]
a) 4 c) 2
b) 3 d) None
14. The capacity of batteries used for RMPU AC coaches is [ d]
a) 525 AH c) 800 AH
b) 400 AH d) 1100 AH
15. VRLA Batteries works on [a]

a) Oxygen recombination principle
b) Hydrogen recombination principle
c) Hydrogen-oxygen recombination principle
16. The VRLA cells can be mounted in aposition. [d]

a) Horizontal c) Slanting
b) Vertical d) Both a & B
18. Conductivity is the ability of a solution to conduct electrical current commonly

expressed in [ c]
a) Amperes
b) Watt
c) Micro mhos/cm
d) None
19. Conductivity of DM water is measured by [ ]

a) Conductivity meter c) pH meter
b) Universal solution d) all of the above
Page 68 of 160
20. Acceptable quality of treated water conductivity is in micro mhos/cm [ ]
a) <10 c) 40
b) <30 d) None
21. Acceptable quality of treated water PH value will be [ ]
a) 6.8 to 7.2 c) 8.5 to 10

b) 7.5 to 8.5 d) None
22. VRLA Batteries means [ a]

a) Valve regulated lead acid batteries b) Voltage regulated lead acid batteries
c) Both a & b d) None
23. SMF Batteries stands for [a]

a) Sealed maintenance free batteries b) Self maintenance free batteries
c) a&b d) None
24. Frequent topping up of distilled water in VRLA cells [b]

a) Required b) Not required
c) Sometimes required d) None
25. Self discharge of VRLA Battery _________ percentage of capacity for week [a]
a) 0.5% to 1% b) 2%
c) 3% d) 4%
26. VRLA Battery seperaters can be of [c]
a) The gelled electrolyte type b) The absorbed electrolyte type
c) a & b d) None of the above
27. For VRLA Battery, every 1 degree C in temperature, the charge/float voltage is to be reduced by
______ per cell [a]
a) 3mv b) 5 mv
c) 1 mv d) 6 mv
28. Codal life of VRLA battery is [a]

a) 4 years b) 5 years
c) 3 years d) 7 years
29. Charging voltage/ Current ripple factor for VRLA batteries should less than [b]
a) less than 5 % b) less than 2 %
c) less than 15 % d) none
30. The containers and covers of VRLA batteries are made up of [a]
a) PPCP Poly (Propylene co-polymer) b) Hard rubber
Page 69 of 160
c) PVC d) None
31. Train Lighting mono block 120 AH battery belongs to [a]

a) Lead acid battery b) Nickle iron battery
c) Nickle cadmium battery d) All the above
32. The specific gravity of the concentrated sulphuric acid is [a]

a) 1.840 b) 1.200
c) 1.220 d) 1.180
33. The specific gravity of the electrolyte used in TL cellsis [b]

a) 1.800 b) 1.200
c) 1.100 d) 1.180
34. The positive plate of lead acid is made of [a]

a) Lead peroxide b) Spongy lead
c) Lead sulphate d) None
35. The secondary cell [a]

a) Once discharged it can be charged
b) Once discharged it cannot be charged
c) Once discharged it had to throw away
d) None
36. When fully charged lead acid cell is discharged, the positive and negative plates becomes [c]
a) Lead peroxide b) Spongy lead
c) Lead sulphate d) None
37. When the lead acid cell is recharged the specific gravity of the electrolyte [a]
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) As it is d) None
38. Battery capacity depends upon [d]
a) Size and no. of plates b) Quantity of active material present
c) Quantity of electrolyte d) All the above
39. The capacity of battery is expressed in terms of [b]

a) Current rating b) AH rating
c) Voltage rating d) VH rating
40. The number of positive plates in a secondary cell is always less than the negative plates by [a]
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) None
41. Normal charge of battery is [a]

a) 1/10th of the rated capacity of the battery
b) 1/20th of the rated capacity of the battery
c) 1/5th of the rated capacity of the battery
d) 1/30th of the rated capacity of the battery
Page 70 of 160
42. Initial charge of the battery is [c]
a) 1/10th of the rated capacity of the battery
b) 1/20th of the rated capacity of the battery
c) 1/30th of the rated capacity of the battery
d) 1/5th of the rated capacity of the battery
43. Batteries are provided in Train coach to provide [a]

a) Amenities to public such as lights and fans
b) Separate excitation of alternator field
c) Self excitation of alternator field
44. The capacity of Battery used in 110V T.L system [a]

a) 120 AH b) 210 AH
c) 320 AH d) 90 Ah
45. Number of mono block batteries used in 110 V TL systems [a]

a) 18 b) 12
c) 24 d) 9
46. Over charge results in [d]

a) Higher temperature of electrolyte b) Corrosion of plates
c) Oxidation of the seperators and loss of water d) All the above
47. Undercharging results in [d]

a) Irreversible Sulphation b) Reversal of cells
c) Loss of the capacity d) All the above
48. Reverse polarity is mainly due to [a]

a) Deep discharge b) RR Unit setting is high
c) Battery kept in fully charged condition d) None
49. Excessive gassing and high spgr. [a]

a) Alternator/regulator setting high b) Alternator/regulator setting low
c) Lack of electrolyte d) None
50. Hydrometer used in TL system is [a]
a) Syringe type hydro meter b) Suction hydrometer
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
51. If water consumption in particular cell is more due to [d]

a) Hermitically sealed joint leak b) Higher charging current
c) Leakage of electrolyte due to cracks in container d) All of the above
52. Initial charging rate of lead acid battery is [c]

a) 0.1XC10 capacity b) 0.2XC10 Capacity
c) 0.05XC10 Capacity d) 0.033XC10 capacity
Page 71 of 160
53. TL 110 V TL coaches are provided with following batteries [a]
a) Mono block batteries b) Individual cells
c) Both a & b d) None
54. Conductivity of DM water is measured by [a]

a) Conductivity meter b) Universal Solution
c) PH meter d) All of the above
55. Best quality of treated water conductivity is in micro mhos/cm [a]

a) <10 b) <35
c) <40 d) None
56. Best quality of treated water PH Value will be [a]

a) 6.8 to 7.2 b) 7.5 to 8.5
c) 8.5 to 10 d) None
Page 72 of 160
2. INVERTER
1. Inverters convert [ b ]
a) AC into DC c) Both a & b
b) DC into AC d) None
2. In 25 KVA inverter the 3 phase AC supply is achieved by boosting DC [b ]

voltage 100/140 volts into
a) 230V DC c) 415V DC
b) 650V DC d) None
3. Out put PWM voltage of inverter section of 25 KVA inverter of RMPU AC coach is [ d]
a) 650VDC c) 24V DC
b) 220VDC d) 3 phase 415 V AC
Page 73 of 160
3.ALTERNATOR AND RRU
1. Alternator is a device that converts [a]
a. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
b. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
c. Chemical energy into electrical energy
d. None of the above
2. Both field winding and 3 phase winding of AC coach alternator 120V are provided on _____ [ a]
a. Stator c. Both a and b
b. Rotor d. None
3. TL/AC coach alternator 120V designed to have ______________ [a ]
a. Residual magnetism
b. Permanent magnetism
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
4. Recommended Cut in speed of 4.5 KW TL alternator is by RDSO with MA RR unit _____ [ a]

a. 357 rpm c. 1100 rpm
b. 600 rpm d. 2500 rpm
5. Minimum speed for full output of 4.5 KW 120V TL alternator, recommended by RDSO is ___ [ b ]
a. 357 rpm c. 1500 rpm
b. 600 rpm d. 2500 rpm
6. Maximum speed of TL/AC coach alternator is [d ]
a. 400 rpm c. 1500 rpm
b. 800 rpm d. 2500 rpm
7. Field coils of 120V TL/AC coach alternator are connected in [ a]
a. Series c. Star
b. Parallel d. Delta
8. Three phase windings of 120V TL/AC coach alternator are connected in [a ]
a. Star c. Series
b. Delta d. Parallel
9. Size of V belts used for driving 110V 4.5KW TL alternators [ a]
a. C122 c. C124
b. C118 d. None
10. Size of V belt used for driving 110V, 18, 22.5KW AC coach Alternators
[ a]
a. C122 c. C124
b. C118 d. None
11. Number of V belts used for driving 110V 4.5KW TL alternator is ___________ [a ]
a. 4 c. 12
b. 6 d. None
Page 74 of 160
12. Number of V belts used for driving 110V 18KW & 25KW AC alternator is _______ [ c]
a. 4 c. 12
b. 6 d. None
13. DC output voltage of Alternator /Regulator of 110V TL/AC coach is [ a]
a. (110-140) DC c. (90-120) DC
b. (70-90) DC d. None
14. Rated DC output current of 4.5KW 110V Alternator is ____________ [a ]
a. 37.5A c. 43A
b. 19A d. None
15. Rated DC output current of 18KW 110V Alternator is ____________ [ c]
a. 193A c. 135A
b. 175A d. None
16. Rated DC output current of 25KW 110V Alternator is ____________ [ a]
a. 193A c. 135A
b. 175A d. None
17. Pitch circle diameter of Axle pulley of 110V TL system
[c ]
a. 200mm c. 572.6mm
b. 140mm d. None
18. Pitch circle diameter of Axle pulley of 110V AC coach system [ c]
a. 200mm c. 572.6mm
b. 584mm d. None
19. As per the latest SMI, the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for passenger train with flooded
batteries is ____________ [ c]
a. 127V DC c. 128.5V DC
b. 124V DC d. None
20. As per the latest SMI, the voltage setting of ac alternator 18KW 110V with flooded batteries is [ c ]
a. 129V DC c. 128V DC
b. 124V DC d. None
21. As per the latest SMI, the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for passenger train with VRLA
batteries is ____________ [ b]
a. 123+/-0.5V DC c. 121+/-0.5V DC
b. 128.5+/-0.5V DC d. None
22. As per the latest SMI _____the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for mail/express trains with
VRLA batteries is ____________ [b ]
a. 123+/-0.5V DC c. 121+/-0.5V DC
b. 128.5+/-0.5V DC d. None
23. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for super fast trains with
VRLA batteries is ____________
[b ]
Page 75 of 160
a. 123+/-0.5V DC c. 121+/-0.5V DC
b. 128.5+/-0.5V DC d. None
24. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110V for passenger train with
VRLA batteries is ____________ [ a]
a. 128+/-0.5V DC c. 126+/-0.5V DC
b. 127+/-0.5V DC d. None
25. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110V for Mail/express train with
VRLA batteries is ____________ [a ]
a. 128+/-0.5V DC c. 126+/-0.5V DC
b. 127+/-0.5V DC d. None
26. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110V for super fast train with
VRLA batteries is ____________ [ a]
a. 128+/-0.5V DC
b. 127+/-0.5V DC
c. 126+/-0.5V DC
d. None
27. The purpose of TL Alternator used in Railways. [ d]

a. Charging the caoch battery on train run
b. Working of lights and fans in the coach during train run
c. Sharing the load to other coaches in case of emergency
d. All the three above
28. The capacity of alternator used for BG coach 110V Train Lighting system. [ b]
a. 3KW c. 12KW
b. 4.5KW d. None
29. The capacity of alternator used for BG coach 110V roof mounted AC coach [ c]
a. 12KW c. 25KW
b. 18KW d. None
30. The capacity of alternator used for BG coach 110V under slung AC caoch. [c ]
a. 25KW c. 18KW
b. 12KW d. None
31. The PCD (pitch circle diameter) of 25KW 110V alternator pulleys is [ b]
a. 584mm +/- 0.4mm c. 100 mm
b. 200+/-0.3 mm d. None
32. The field resistance of 4.5KW 110V TL alternator has [a ]

a. 4.5 +/-0.5 ohms c. 10+/-0.5 ohms
b. 6.0+/-0.5 ohms d. None
33. The resistance between two phases of 4.5KW 110V TL alternator is [ a]
a. 0.4 +/-0.05 ohms d. None
b. 0.8 +/-0.10 ohms
c. 4.5 +/-0.5 ohms
Page 76 of 160
34. The purpose of providing anti rotating clamp near suspension arrangement of alternator is [d ]
a. Not to rotate suspension pin of alternator
b. Not to damage the nylon bushes of alternator/ suspension bracket
c. Not to damage the suspension bracket/boss of alternator
d. All of the above
35. The insulation material recommended for alternator windings of 4.5 KW 110V shall be [ c ]
__________ class.
a. A c. F
b. B d. None
36. The voltage setting of Alt/RR unit is to be set in far with current and RPM for 4.5KW is [a ]
a. Half rated capacity of the alt as load as 1500 RPM
b. ¼ rated capacity of the alt as load at 1000 RPM
c. Full rated capacity of alt as load at 2550 RPM
37. While measuring insulation resistance of 110V alternator/rectifier cum regulator the rating of
megger is to be used is [b ]
a. 100V DC megger c. Both a nad b
b. 500V DC megger d. None
38. The resistance between two phase of 25KW KEL alternator is about [a ]
a. 0.0530746 ohms c. 44.2 mille ohms
b. 0.034 to 0.038 d. None
39. The field resistance of 25KW KEL alternator about [a ]
a. 9.7568 ohms c. 10.72 ohms
b. 8+/-0.5 ohms d. None
40. The gap between two halves of axle pulley to be maintained is [a ]
a. 3.0 +/-0.5 mm c. 4mm +/- 0.5 mm
b. 6mm +/- 0.5 mm d. None
41. Codal life of 4.5, 18, 22.75 & 25 KW alternator / RR unit [a ]
a. 12 years c. 15 years
b. 25 years d. None
42. Codal life of 120 AH VRLA Battery [ b]
b. 4 years d. None
43. Codal life of 120 AH Flooded Battery [ b]
b. 4 years d. None
44. Codal life of Battery charger
[ b ]
a. 12 years b. 15 years
Page 77 of 160
c. 25 years d. None
45. Codal life of Coach wiring [ b]
b. 15 years d. None
46. Codal life of Carriage fans [ a ]
b. 12 years d. None
47. The distance to be maintained while fixing axle pulley on wheel, from wheel hub to axle pulley
outer wedge for 25 KW alternator is [ a]
a. 225 mm
b. 240 mm
c. 145 mm
d. None
outer wedge for 18 KW alternator is [b ]
a. 225 mm c. 145 mm
b. 240 mm d. None
outer wedge for 4.5 KW alternator is [c ]
a. 225 mm c. 145 mm
b. 240 mm d. None
50. ‘V’ belt dropping/smoking/burning due to mechanical failure [ c]
a. Brake block jamming c. Both a and b
b. Guide cups of damper’s have dropped d. None
51. ‘V’ belt dropping/smoking/burning due to electrical failure [ d]
a. Load on Alt is heavy c. Loose/excessive tension
b. Wrong alignment d. All of the above
52. The minimum insulation resistance to be maintained for 4.5KW alternator is [ b]
a. 1 Mega ohm c. 20 Mega ohm
b. 2 Mega ohm d. None
53. The minimum insulation resistance to be maintained for 18 & 25 KW alternators [ b]
a. 20 mega ohm c. 5 Mega ohm
b. 2 Mega ohm d. None
54. No. of ET’s used in 25 KW RR Unit MA type [c ]
a. 2 c. Zero
b. 1 d. None
55. No. of MA’s used in 25 KW MA type RR Unit [ a]
a. 2 d. None
b. 1
c. Zero
Page 78 of 160
56. Width of grooved axle pulley of 4.5KW alternator is [ ]
a. 200mm c. 136mm
b. 190mm d. None
57. Width of grooved axle pulley of 18 and 25 KW alternator is [ ]
a. 200 mm c. 136 mm
b. 190 mm d. None
58. The type of suspension bushes are to be provided TL/AC alternators/ suspension bracket as per
RDSO specification no RDSO / PE/Ac/0006/99 (Rev.0) [ b]
a. Cast nylon bushes c. MS bushes
b. Nylon 66 bushes d. All of the above
59. Residual magnetism lost in the alternator core the reason is [ c]
a. Field polarity changed c. Both a and b
b. Alternator is in idle condition for long time d. None of the above
60. As per the Railway Board letter No. 2006/Elec(G)/138/3Pt. I unit Exchange spare recommended
for alternators and Regulators for TL/AC depot [a ]
a. 5% c. 15%
b. 10% d. None
61. ERRU stands for [a]
a. Electronic Rectifier cum Regulator Unit
b. Electromagnetic Rectifier cum Regulator unit
c. Electrostatic Rectifier cum Regulator Unit
d. None
62. IGBT stands for [a]
a. Insulated Gate Bipolar Transistor
b. Injection Gate Bipolar Transistor
c. Indicator gate Bipolar Transistor
d. None
63. IGBT is [a]
a. Fast switching device
b. Slow switching device
c. Very fast switching device
d. None
Page 79 of 160
64. The size of capacity of fuses to be provided for 25kW ERRU in phase circuit [b ]
a. 160A
b. 200A
c. 220A
d. None
65. UVC used in ERRU must be [a ]
a) Suitable to work with all capacities
b) Suitable to work with all makes
c) Both a and b
d) None
66. The battery charging current limit with 4.5kW ERRU is to be set at [a]
a. 24A +/-2A
b. 12A +/- 2A
c. 36A +/- 2A
d. None
67. TL alternator 4.5 KW 130 V is_______ [a]
a) 4 V belts drive machine
b) 6 V belts drive machine
c) 12 V belts drive machine
68. Non drive end bearing of 4.5 kw 120v 4.5kw TL alternator is__ [a]
a) SKF 6309 b) SKF NU311 c) SKF 6200 d)None
69. Driving end bearing of 4.5 kw 120 V 4.5 kw TL alternator is_____ [b]
a) SKF 6309 b) SKF NU311 c) SKF 6200 d)None
70. Recommended Cut in speed of 4.5 kw TL alternator is by RDSO with [a]
MA RR unit
a) 357 rpm b) 600 rpm c) 1100 rpm d)2500rpm
71. Minimum speed for full output of 4.5 kw 120V TL alternator, [b]
Recommended by RDSO is
a) 357 rpm b) 600 rpm c) 1100 rpm d)2500rpm
72. Field coils of 120VTL/AC coach alternator are connected in [a]

a) Series b) Parallel c) Star d)Delta
73. Three phase windings of 120V TL/AC coach alternator are connected in [a]
a) Star b) Delta c) Series d)Parallel
74. Field coils of TL coach alternators are located on [a]

a) Stator b) Rotor c) Both a and b d) None
75. Each field coil of TL/AC coach alternator embraces _______ total number of there phase winding slots.
[a]
a) Half of the
b) One fourth of the
c) Three fourth of the
Page 80 of 160
d) None
76. Size of V belts used for driving 110V 4.5 kw TL alternators [a]
a) C122 b) C118 c) C124 d) None
77. Number of V belts used for driving 110 V 4.5 kw TL alternator is [a]
a) 4 b) 6 c) 12 d) None
78. Numbers of alternator pulleys are available on 4.5 kw TL Alternator. [a]

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None
79. Numbers of Alternators pulleys are available on BG AC coach Alternator. [b]

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None
80. Residual magnetism retains in ____________ [b]

a) Rotor core b) Stator Core c) Rotor teeth d) None
81. Number of slots are available in stator for 3Phase ac winding [a]
in 4.5 KW 120V Alternator
a) 36 b) 60 c) 18 d) None
82. 3 Phase AC voltages are first produced in ac winding in Alternator by [a]

a) Residual magnetism b) Permanent magnetism
C) Both a and b d) None
83. When the rotor of 4.5 kw 120V alternator is rotated by hand the voltage developed in the 3 phase winding will be
[a]
a) 3.5 v b) 12v c) 24v d) None
84. DC output voltage of Alternator/Regulator of 110 V TL/AC coach is [a ]

a) (110-140) DC b) (70-90) DC c) (90-120) DC d)None
85. Rated DC output current of 4.5kw 110v Alternator is [a]

a) 37.5A b) 19A c) 43A d)None
86. Rated DC output current of 3kw 110v Alternator is [b]

a) 37.5A b) 19A c) 43A d)None
87. Rated DC output current of 25kw 110v Alternator is [a]

a) 193A b) 175A c) 135A d)None
88. Pitch circle diameter of Axle pulley of 110v TL system [c]

a) 200mm b) 140mm c) 572.6mm d)None
89. Pitch circle diameter of Axle pulley of 110v AC coach system [c]
b) 200mm b) 140mm c) 572.6mm d)None
90. As per the latest SMI, the voltage setting of alternator 4.5kw 110v for [a]
Express/ mail trains with flooded batteries is _________
a) 128.5v DC b) 124v DC c) 122v DC d)120v DC
Page 81 of 160
91. As per the latest SMI, the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110v [a]
for passenger train with VRLA batteries is
a) 128+/-0.5vDC b) 127 +/- 0.5vDC c) 126 +/-0.5vDC d)None
92. The purpose of TL Alternator used in Railways [d]

a) Charging the coach battery on train run
b) Working of lights and fans in the coach during train run
c) Sharing the load to other coaches in case of emergency
d) All the above
93. The purpose of Ac coach Alternator used in Railways [d]

a) Charging the coach battery on train run
b) Working of lights and fans in the coach during train run
c) Sharing the load to other coaches in case of emergency
d) All the above
94. The capacity of alternators are used for BG coach 110v Train Lighting system. [ b]
a) 3kw b)4.5kw c)12kw d)None
95. The capacity of alternators are used for BG 110v roof mounted AC coach [ c]
a) 3kw b) 18kw c)25kw d)None
96. Number of Alternators are provided for AC sleeper, AC chair car, [b]
AC composite coach
a) 1 b)2 c)3 d)None
97. The AC winding/ Main winding of TL/AC coach alternator has _______ [c]
phase winding
a) Single b) Double c) Three d) None
98. The safety items of TL/AC alternator are [a]

a) Suspension hanger pin with bushes and Cottar Pin
b) Alternator Suspension arrangement
c) Alt pully & nut
d) All the above
99. NU 311 bearing is [a]

a) Roller bearing
b) Ball bearing
c) Both a and b
d) None
100. The field resistance of 4.5kw 110v TL alternators has [a]
a) 4.5+/-0.5 ohms
b) 6.0+/-0.5 ohms
c) 10+/-0.5 ohms
d) None
101. MA type RR units are working on the principle [a]
a) Saturation and de saturation of magnetic core
b) Mutual induction
c) BJT
Page 82 of 160
d) None
102. Generally the voltage setting of the alternator is to be set at_______ [b]
At 1500rpm
a) Full rated current
b) Half rated current
c) 2/3rd rated current
d) None
103. Both directions of train run, the polarity of Dc output supply of TL/AC alternator [b]
a) Changes b)Do not change c)Change at start d) None
104. The mating of pulley with shaft of TL/AC alternator shall be [ a]

a) 80% b) 70% c) 60% d)50%
105. The cleat of alternator is to be made of [ a]

a) Fibre glass in forced fire retardant DNC
b) Bakelite
c) Phenolicd
d) None
106. Rotor shaft of KEL 110v 4.5kw alternator made up of [ a]

a) EN 24 b) EN 8 c)Both a and b d)None
107. Type of suspension bushes to be used while mounting alternators [b]

as per latest RDSO instructions are
a) Cast Nylon b)Nylon 66 c)MS d)None
108. The insulation resistance of alternator when measured with megger [a]
the IR value should not be less than
a) 2 mega ohms b)5 mega ohms c)both a and b d)None
109. In case of over voltage in 4.5kw 120v RR unit, the tripping voltage [a]
of relay may be set at
a) 145+/-2 b) 150+/-2 c) 135+/-2 d)None
110. The number of safety chains provided for 18kw and 25kw alternator [b]
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d)None
111. The cut in speed of 25kw alternator is not more than [a]
a) 400rpm b) 600rpm c) 800rpm d)None
112. The MFO of 25 kw alternator is not more than [c]

a) 400rpm b) 600rpm c) 800rpm d)None
113. The field resistance of 25 kw KEL alternator about [a]

a) 9.7568 ohms b) 8 +/-0.5 ohms c) 10.72 ohms d)None
114. To prevent breakage of shaft during service the following test should be [a]
Page 83 of 160
Done as per RDSO SMI
a) Non destruction dye-penetrate test
b) Shock pulse meter test
c) Ultrasonic test
d) None
115. The gap between two halves of axle pulley to be maintained is [a]
a) 3.0mm+/- 0.5mm b)6mm +/- 0.5mm c)4mm +/-0.5mm d) None
116. Before lifting coach body, the following electrical items as to be removed, [d]
otherwise coach body will not separate from trolley
a) Belt tensioning mechanism
b) V Belts
c) Alternator cables
d) All the above
117. Rating of AC fuses to be provided in 25kw MA type RR unit [b]

a) 125A HRC b) 160A HRC c)Either a or b d)None
118. The rating of filed fuse to be provided in 4.5kw 110v HMTD MA type RRU [a]
a) 6A b)2A c)4A d)None
119. Field resistance of 25 kw alternator [a]
a) 9.75 ohms b)4.5 ohms c)10 ohms d) none
125. Codal life of 120 AH VRLA battery [b]
a) 5 yrs b)4 yrs c)3 yrs d) None
126. Codal life of 120 AH Flooded battery [b]
a) 5 yrs b)4 yrs c)3 yrs d) None
127. Codal life of Battery charger [ b]
a) 12 yrs b)15 yrs c)25 yrsd) None
128. Codal life of coach wiring [ b]
a) 12 yrs b)15 yrs c)20 yrsd) None
Page 84 of 160
4. ERRU
01. Voltage regulation of alternator with ERRU for all capacities of alternator. [ c]
a)+/-5% b)+/-3% c)+/-2% d) None
02. Voltage ripples of output supply with ERRU should be less than [a]
a)2% b)5% c)15% d)none
03. ISO pack power diode modulars are used for converting [a]
a)AC to DC b) DC to AC c) both A&B d) none
04. The advantage of ISO pack power modules are [d]

a) Directly can mount on heat sink
b) two diode combined unit
c) Small in size
d) all of the above
05. The ERRU shall have the following protection [d]

a) Over voltage/surge protection b) DC output short circuit protection
c) Over charging current limit protection d) all of the above
06. UVC used in ERRU must be [a]

a) Suitable to work with all capacities b) suitable to work all makes
c) Both A&B d) none
07. The over voltage setting of OVP with ERRU should be set at [a]
a)140-145V b)125-130V c)135-140V d)none
08. The battery charging current limit with 4.5 KW ERRU is to be set at [a]
a) 24A +/-2A b)12A +/-2A c)36A +/-2A d) none
09. The battery charging current limit with 25kw ERRU when both alternators
are paralleled is to be set at [a]
a) 110A +/-5A b)220A +/-5A c)220A +/-10A d)none
10. OVP provided with ERRU shall latch before output voltage reaches to [ c]
a) 145V b) 150V c) 135V+/-2V d) none
11. Hall senses are used to sense [c]

a) Total alternator load current b) battery charging current
c) both A&B d) none
12. OVP is provided in ERRU for the purpose of [c]

a) To arrest the over voltage
b) latch the output voltage 90V for working lights and fans
c) Both A&B
d) none
13. PWM stands for [a]
a) Pulse width modulation b) phase width modulation
c) both A&B d) none
Page 85 of 160
14. EEPROM stands for [a]
a) Electrically erasable programmable read only memory
b) Electronically erasable programmable read only memory
c) Both A&B d) none
15. SMPS stands for [a]

a) switch mode power supply b) single mode power supply
c) sweep mode power supply d) none
16. IGBT stands for [a ]

a) Insulated gate bipolar transistor b) isolated gate bipolar transistor
c) Both A&B d) none
Page 86 of 160
5.Railway carriage fans
01. Air delivery of fan can be measured by [a]
a) anemometer b)ammeter c) lux meter d) none
02. When insulation resistance test is carried out on railway carriage fan it’s insulation resistance should not be less than
[c]
a)20mega ohms b)10mega ohms c)2mega ohms d)none
03. The wattage of 110V DC 400mm sweep RC fan is [a]
a)32w b)25w c)19W d)none
04. The wattage of 110V DC 300mm RC fan is [b]
a)32w b)25w c)19W d)none
05. Voltage drop between battery and any of the farthest fan shall not exceed ____volts at battery voltage of 108v
[b]
a) 5 b) 3 c) 1 d) none
06. Codal life of RC fan is [a]
a) 10 years b)12 years c) 4 years d) none
07. Input power of 110V BLDC 400mm sweep fan of CGL make [a]
a)24w b) 38w c)32w d)none
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6.TL coach wiring
01. Capacity of rotary switches provided in rotary junction box is [a]
a)40A b)16A c)10A d)15A
02. Capacity of limit switch provided for alarm chain pulling indication light circuit [a]
a) 10A b)15A c)35A d)40A
03. Size of rewirable fuse recommended for individual fan in 110V TL system is [a]
a)35 SWG R/W b) 29 SWG R/W c)20 SWG R/W d) 22 SWG R/W
04. Positive and negative cable in roof runs through on either side of coach to avoid [c]
a) earth leakage b) over load c) short circuits d) none
05. Essential lights in SG TL coaches other than First class consists of [a]
a) Lavatory lights, door way lights and Night lights and 50% of compartment lights
b) Lavatory lights
c) Lavatory and door lights
d) Lavatory, door lights and Night lights
06. The wattage of TL Fan [a]
a) 32W b)10W c)80W d)60W
07. The capacity of battery fuse for 110Volt SG TL coach is [a]
a) 40A HRC b) 16A HRC c) 10 A HRC d)4 A HRC
08. FRP tray shall be provided at the bottom of the battery box to avoid [d]
a) Corrosion of the battery box from splitting of acid
b) Electrical insulation for battery and battery box
c) Vibration of batteries
d) all of the above
09. The minimum clearance between the top of the battery and battery box for
maintenance of cells shall have [b]
a)50mm b)150mm c)100mm d)none
10. The size of the Fan provided on SGBG coaches of 110V system [a]
a)400mm sweep b)300 mm sweep c)225 mm sweep d)200 mm sweep
11. The total number of V belts provided to the drive TL alternator 4.5KW are [a]
a) 4 b)6 c)2 d)3
12. The train lighting wiring is [b]

a) two wire earthed system b) two wire unearthed system
c) one wire earthed system d)none of the above
Page 88 of 160
13. The insulation resistance of 110V coach when measured with 500V Megger during healthy weather condition
[a]
a) 2mega ohms b) 1 mega ohms c)3 mega ohms d)0.5 mega ohms
14. The insulation resistance of 110V coach when measured with 500V Megger during adverse weather condition
[b]
a) 2mega ohms b) 1 mega ohms c)3 mega ohms d)none
15. Electrical fires on coach is mainly due to [d]
a) loose connections b)short circuits and earth faults
c) undersize cables d) all of the above
16. The earth leakage can be checked both positive and negative cables at a time by [a ]
a) double test lamp method b) 500V megger
c) single test lamp d)none of the above
17. Double test lamps are connected in [a]
a)series b) parallel c) both a&b d)none
18. When double test lamp is connected to EFTB, red lead connected lamp glows and blue lead lamp does not glow
then coach is [c]
a) healthy b)having positive earth c)having negative earth d) none
19. When double test lamp is connected to EFTB, red lead lamp does not glows and blue lead lamp glows then coach is
[b]
a) healthy b)having positive earth c)having negative earth d) both B&C
20. The insulation resistance of coach is to be measured with [a]
a ) megger b)ohm meter c)continuity meter d)none
21. The instrument used to measure the current without disturbing the circuit is [a]
a) tong tester b) tacho meter c) photo meter d)none
22. Voltmeter is to be connected to the circuit in [a]
a)parallel b)series c)series and parallel d)none
23. Ammeter is to be connected to the circuit in [b]
a)parallel b)series c)series and parallel d)none
24. While measuring the earth leakages by double test lamp, lamps should have [a]
a) same wattage b) different wattage c)any wattage d)none
25. While giving supply to adjacent coaches through EFT the supply polarities are to be maintained
[a]
a)same polarity b)opposite polarity c)any polarity d)none
26. No generation of TL alternator is due to [d]
a) alternator Field/AC wire defective b) no residual magnetism
Page 89 of 160
c) rectifier /regulator box defective d)any of the above
27. Cables used for wiring in coaches should have [a]
a) minimum joints b)five joints c)maximum joints d)none
28. The level of illumination will be measured by [c]
a)photo meter b)lux meter c)both A&B d)none
29. The percentage of spare coaches should be available in TL maintenance depot on traffic account is
[b]
a) 10 b) 5 c) 6 d) none
30. The percentage of spare coaches should be available in AC maintenance depot on traffic account is
[c]
a) 12 b) 5 c) 6 d)none
Page 90 of 160
7. AIR CONDITIONING
1. The purpose of evaporator is (c)
a. To absorb heat from coach and to send cooled air in to the coach.
b. To convert liquid refrigerant into vapor
c. Both (a) and (b)
2. The purpose of evaporator is (a)

a. To absorb heat from the coach and to send cooled air in to the coach
b. To draw refrigerant vapor from the cooling coil and boost the temperature and pressure of
refrigerant.
c. To reject the heat of refrigerant to the water or air and to convert refrigerant vapor into liquid
d. To control and pump the refrigerant to the cooling coil.
3. The purpose of compressor is (b)

a. To absorb heat from the coach and to send cooled air in to the coach
b. To draw refrigerant vapor from the cooling coil and to boost the temperature and pressure of
refrigerant
c. To reject the heat of refrigerant to the water and air and to convert refrigerant vapor into liquid
d. To control and pump the refrigerant to the cooling coil.
4. The purpose of condenser is to (c)

a. To absorb heat from the coach and send cooled air in to the coach
refrigerant
c. To reject the heat of refrigerant to the water of air and to convert refrigerant vapor in to liquid
d. To control an pump the refrigerant to the cooling coil
5. The purpose of expansion valve is (d)

a. To absorb heat from the coach and send cooled air in to the coach
refrigerant
c. To reject the heat of refrigerant to the water of air and to convert refrigerant vapor in to liquid
d. To control an pump the refrigerant to the cooling coil
6. The purpose of liquid receiver is (d)

a. It carries the low pressure vapor from the evaporator to the suction inlet of the compressor
b. It conveys the high pressure and high temperature refrigerant from the compressor to the
condenser
c. It carries the liquid refrigerant from the liquid receiver and conves it to the expansion valve
d. It acts as a reservoir which stores the liquid refrigerant coming from the condenser and supplies it
to the cooling coil according to its requirement
7. The relative humidity for the human comfort zone is (a)

a. 40 - 60% b. 80 - 100% c. 20 - 40% d. None
8. The cooling temperature during summer mostly preferred by passengers in Railway AC coaches is
single setting is (a)
Page 91 of 160
a. 23 to 25 C b. 19 to 21 C c. 26 to 28 C d. None
9. The heating temperature during winter proffered by passengers in Railway AC coaches is single
setting is
a. 23 to 25 C b. 19 to 21 C c. 26 to 28 C d. None (b)
10. The air conditioning system used in Railway coaches is (a)

a. Vapor compressor system b. Circulation of cold water system
c. Ice activated system d. All of the above
11. The purpose of compressor in vapor compressor system is (c)

a. It extracts refrigerant gas from the evaporator coil at low pressure
b. it compresses low temperature and low pressure gas and delivers to the condenser at high
pressure and high temperature
c. Both (a) and (b)
12. The purpose of dehydrator and filter used in vapor compression system is (c)
a. It removes moisture available in refrigerant system
b. It prevents particles and scales in refrigerant system
c. Both (a) and (b) d. None
13. The purpose of high pressure cut out used in vapor compressor system is (c)
a. It stops the compressor if the pressure exceeds the pre set value
b. It protects the compressor and piping from damage
14. The purpose of condenser used in vapor compressor system is (c)

a. It cools the high pressure hot gas received from the compressor.
b. It converts high pressure gas into liquid
15. The purpose of expansion valve/capillary tube used in vapor compression system is (c)
a. It controls the rate flow of high pressure refrigerant liquid
b. It allows refrigerant liquid to evaporator at low pressure
16. The purpose of the evaporator (cooling coil) used in vapor compression system is (c)
a. It evaporates refrigerant liquid by absorbing heat from surrounding areas
b. It cools surrounding area
17. Formula for converting centigrade into foreign heat (b)

a. 5/9 (F-32) b. 9/5 (C +32)
c. 9/5 (F-32) d. 5/9 (C +32)
18. Formula for converting foreign heat into centigrade (a)

a. 5/9 (F-32) b. 9/5 (C +32)
c. 9/5 (F-32) d. 5/9 (C +32)
19. The normal body temperature of human being is (c)

a. 37 C b. 98.6 F c. Both (a) and (b) d. None
Page 92 of 160
20. The danger for the human body, if the temperature fails below (a)
a. 98 F b. 98.6 F c. 105.6 F d. None
21. The danger for the human body, if the temperature fails below (a)
a. 36.5 C b. 37 C c. 40.5 C d. None
22. The danger for the human body, if the temperature increase above (a)
a. 40.5 C b. 37 C c. 36.5 C d. None
23. The danger for the human body, if the temperature increase above (c)
a. 98 F b. 98.6 F c. 105.6 F d. None
24. If the relative humidity is below 30% the result will be (c)
a. Mucous membranes b. Skin surface becomes too dry
25. If the relative humidity is above 70% the result will be (c)
a. Clammy sensation b. Sticky sensation
26. For summer air conditioning the relative humidity should not be more than (b)
a. 40% b. 60% c. 75% d. 90%
27. For winter air conditioning the relative humidity should not be less than (a)
a. 40% b. 60% c. 75% d. 90%
28. The duct is made of (e)

a. Galvanized Iron b. Aluminum
c. Fiber glass d. Cement asbestos
e. Any one of the above
29. Capillary tube id used in (a)

a. Hermitically sealed units b. Open type AC units
c. Semi open type AC units d. None
30. An evaporator is also known as (d)

a. Freezing coil b. Cooling coil
c. Chilling coil d. All of the above
31. Evaporator is also known as (d)

a. Freezing coil b. Cooling coil
c. Chilling coil d. All of the above
32. Condenser is used in the _______ pressure side of the refrigerant system (b)
a. Low b. High c. Medium d. None
33. The highest temperature in a vapor compressed system occur after (a)
a. Compressor b. Condensation
c. Expansion d. Evaporation
34. The lower at temperature in vapor compressed system occur after (b)
a. compressor b. Condenser
c. Expansion valve d. Evaporator
35. Dry bulb temperature is (a)

Page 93 of 160
a. The temperature indicated by a temperature with a clean, dry sensing element that is shielded from
radiation effects.
b. The temperature measured by a thermometer with its bulb covered bt a wick wetted with distilled water
exposed to a current of rapidly moving air.
c. An arbitrary index of the degree of warmth or cold felt by the human body in response to a combination
of the temperature, humidity and movement of air
d. None
36. Wet bulb temperature is (b)

a. The temperature indicated by a thermometer with a clean, dry sensing element that is shielded from
radiation effects
b. The temperature measured by a thermometer with its bulb covered by a wick wetted with distilled water
exposed to a current of rapidly moving air,
c. An arbitrary index of the degree of warmth or cold felt by the human body in response to a combination
Of the temperature, humidity and movement of air
d. None
37. The air conditioning system depends on its action on the (c)
a. Latent heat principle b. Expansion principle
c. Both (a) and (b) d. none
38. Latest heat principle is (c)

a. Any substance is passing from the liquid to gaseous state absorbs a specific quantity of heat at
constant temperature.
b. Any substance is passing from the gaseous to liquid state gives up a specific quantity of heat at
constant temperature.
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None.
39. Latest heat principal is applied for (c)

a. Evaporator b. Condenser
c. Both (a( & (b) d, None
40.Psychometric chart is (d)

a. The fundamental tool of air conditioning engineer.
b. The science involving thermo dynamic properties of moist air
c. The changes occurring in humid air when it is subjected to various air conditioning process can be
traced.
d. All the above.
41. Psychometric chart shows relationship between (f)

a. Dry bulb temperature b. Wet bulb temperature
c. Dew point temperature d. Humidity
e. Total heat (enthalpy) f. All the above.
42. Refrigerant used in air condition should be (d)

a. Non-irritating b. non-poisonous
c. Non-inflammable d. All the above.
43. Refrigerant used in air condition system should not have (c)
a. Corrosive action b. Disagreeable odor
Page 94 of 160
c. Both (a) & (b) d. None
44. Refrigerant used in air condition system (d)

a. Leak detection should be easy and simple.
b. Latent heat of vaporization should be large.
c. The volume of vapor for given weight should be slightly above atmosphere
d. All the above.
45. The refrigerant used in AC system (d)

a. Must be capable of being liquefied at condensing temperature.
b. Must not solidify at any temperature with in the range of working.
c. The vapor pressure should be slightly above atmosphere.
d. All the above.
46. The purpose of air condition is (e)

a. Temperature control b. Humidity control
c. Air movement and circulation d. Air filtering, cleaning and purification
e. All the above.
47. The range of temperature for year round human comfort is (a)
a. 22.8º to 25ºC b. 27º to 29ºC
c 15º to 17ºC d. None.
48. The range of air motion for year round human comfort is (a)
a. 5m/min to 8m/min b. 15m/min to 20m/min
c. 25m/min to 8m/min d. None.
49.The unit for the capacity of air conditioning is in (a)

a. Ton of refrigeration b. Kilograms
c. Founds d. None
50. One ton of refrigeration is equal to (a)

a. 288000 Btu/24 hr b. 144000 Btu/ 24 hr
c. 72000 Btu/ 24 hr d. None.

a. 12000 Btu/ hr b. 6000 Btu/ hr
c. 2000 Btu/ hr d. None.

a. 200 Btu/ min b. 100 Btu/ hr
c. 50 Btu/ hr d. None.
53. One ton of refrigerant equals to (c)

a. 72000 Kcal/ 24 hrs b. 288000 BTU/24 Hrs
c. Both (a) & (b) d. None.
54. One ton of refrigerant equals to (c)

a. 3000 Kcal/ hrs b. 12000 BTU/ Hrs
Page 95 of 160
55. One ton of refrigeration is equal to (c)
a. 50 Kcal/min b. 200 BTU for minute
56. One ton of refrigerant is (d)

a. A machine having its capacity to produce cooling effect of 200 BTU/min or 50 Kcal per min.
b. A machine having its capacity to procure cooling effect of 12000 BTU/ hours or 3000 Kcal/per Hrs.
c. Removes the heat at the rate of 3000 Kcal/hr or 50 kcal/min
d. All of the above.
57. Refrigerant is a (c)

a. Substance which is circulated in a refrigeration system to reject heat
b. Substance which is circulated in a refrigeration system to absorb heat
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None.
58. R22, refrigerants comes under group of (a)

a. HCFC b.HFC
59. 134a refrigerant comes under the group of (b)

a. HCFC b. HFC
C. Both (a) & (b) d. None
60. HCFC Stands for (a)

a. Hydro chloro, flouro carbon b. Halo chloro flouro carbon
c. Both (a) & (b) d. none
61. HCF Stands for (a)

a. Hydro flouro carbon b. halo flouro carbon
c. Both (a) & (b) d. none
62. The moisture in AC systems causes (e)

a. Corrosion b. Sludge
c. Amalgam d. Freeze-up
e. All the above.
63. Corrosion caused due to moisture in air condition systems results (a)
a. Damage the metallic components
b. Reduce the lubrication properties of the oil.
c. Increase the lubrication properties of the oil.
d. None
64. Sludge caused due to moisture in air condition system results (c)
a. Increase the lubrication properties of the oil.
b. Reduce the lubrication properties of the oil.
c. Blocks flow of refrigerant
d. None.
65. Amalgam caused due to moisture/water at capillary in AC system results (c)

b. Blocks flow of refrigerant
c. Reduce the lubrication properties of the oil
Page 96 of 160
d. none.
66. Freeze up caused due to moisture/water at capillary in AC system results. (c)

b. Reduce the lubrication properties of the oil
c. Blocks flow of refrigerant
67. The moisture in the AC system can be eliminate by (b)

a. Blowing dry air/nitrogen through the system
b. Pulling vacuum through the system
c. Heating the system to high temperature, while pulling vacuum, simultaneously
68. The suction pressure of the system lower than the normal, the causes are (e)
a. An obstruction in the flow of system
b. Failure of blower fan, filters
c. Rate of flow of refrigerant in the system is low
d. Electronic thermostats are not functioning
e. All the above.
69. Suction pressure of the system is higher than the normal, the reasons may be (d)
a. Excess load on the evaporator b. Expansion value defective
c. Compressor speed low d. All the above
70. The cooling in the coach is not sufficient, the reasons may be (e)
a. Compressor not getting loaded/poor effiance
b. Too little gas or air may have accumulated in the system
c. Condenser, fresh/return filters, evaporator dirty/ choked
d. Setting of expansion value disturbed
e. All the above.
71. Purging means (a)

a. Expelling all the air in the system by admitting gas
b. admitting air into the system
c. Admitting refrigerant into the system
d. None.
72. Condenser head pressure is lower than the normal, the reason is (d)
a. Less gas in the system b. Gas leakage in the system
c. Expansion value/ evaporator/ Compressor suction strainer choked
73. Condenser head pressure is higher than the normal, the reason is (d)
a. Condenser fans are not working properly b. Air in the system
c. Excessive gas in the system d. All of the above.
74. Capillary tube is also called as (d)

a. Condenser b, Evaporator
c. Compressor d. Expansion value
75 The function of capillary tube is same as. (d)

a. Condenser b, Evaporator
c. Compressor d. Expansion value
Page 97 of 160
8.RMPU COACHES
1. RMPU means (a)
a. Roof mounted package unit b. Rail mounted package unit
c. Rack mounted packaged unit d. None
2. Weight of the FEEDERS LLOYD RMPU is about (b)

a. 2700 kg b. 620kg c. 700kg d. none
3. Weight of the SIDWAL RMPU is about (c)

a. 2700 kg b. 620kg c. 700kg d. none
4. Installation time of RMPU is about (a)

a. 4 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. None
5. Refrigerant is used in RMPU is (a)

a. R22 b. R12 c. R134a d. None
6. Chemical name of R22 is (a)

a. Mono chloro Difluoro methane CHCIF2 b. Dichloro diflouro methane CCl2F
c. Dichloro monoflour methane CHCl2F d. None.
7. Quantity of refrigerant to be Charged for one AC circuit of RMPU is about (a)

a. About 3 Kgs b. About 20Kgs
c. About 30KGS d. None
8. The type of compressor used in RMPU unit is (a)

a. Heretically sealed b. opened
c. Semi opened d. None
9. Potential leakage of RMPU unit is (a)

a. Low b. Large c. Enormous d. none
10. Type of power supply to compressors and condenser and evaporator units of RMPU coach is (b)
a. DC b. AC c. Pulsating DC d. None
11. Power supply is fed to compressors and condenser and evaporator units of RMPU coach is (b)
a. 1 Phase 230V b. 3 phase 415 V c. 3 Phase 110V d. None
12. Maintenance of RMOU units is about (a)

a. Little b. More c. Heavy d. None
13. Dust collection on RMPU units is about (a)

a. Little b. More c. Heavy d. None
14. Damage due to cattle run for RMPU units is (a)

a. NIL b. More c. Little d. None
15. Performance of RMPU unit is (c)

a. Poor b. Satisfactory c. Excellent d. None
16 Technology of RMPU unit is (c)

a. Old b. Obsolete C. Latest d. None
Page 98 of 160
17. Water dropping on passengers due to RMPU units is (c)
a. Regularly b. Sometimes C. Nil d. None
18. Required fresh air for AC RMPU coach is taken from (a)
a. Roof of the coach b. Sides of the coach near toilets
c. Under frame of the coach d. None
19. Capacity control of RMPU is (b)

a. 50% to 100% b. 25% to 100% c. 75% to 100% d. None
20. Capacity in tons of refrigeration of RMPUs of AC sleeper coach (a)

a. 14 tons b. 10.4 tons c. 5.2 tons d. None
21. Capacity in tons of refrigeration of RMPUs of first class AC coach is (Single unit) (c)
a. 14 tons b. 10.4 tons c. 7 tons d. None
22. Wave form of AC of supply fed to RMPU unit (c)

a. Square b. Sine c. PWM d. None
23. Capacity in tons of refrigeration of one RMPU unit (c )

a. 14 tons b.5.2 tons c. 7 tons d. None
24. Number of Compressor are available in RMPU has (b)

a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. none
25. Number of Compressor are available in RMPU coach other than first class has (a)
a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. none
26. Number of RMPUS are available in all AC coach other than first class are (a)
a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. none
27. The power required for one RMPU is about (a)

a. 13 KW b. 5.75 KW c. 23 KW d. None
28. The current taken by the one RMPU unit is (b)

a. 40 A b. 22 A c. 10A d. None
29. The advantage of RMPU AC coach system is (g)

a. Less weight
b. Hermitically sealed compressor, no refrigerant leakage
c. Less space occupation d. Less maintenance and reliable
e. Consuming less power f. More Energy efficient
g. All of the above
30. Number of Condensers one RMPU has (b)

a. One b. Two c. Three d. None
31. Number of Blower Motor one RMPU has (a)

32. Number of heater one RMPU has (b)
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33. RMPU is Fitted (a)

a. Above toilets in a roof b. Underneath the coach
C. Inside the coach d. None
34. The capacity of Compressor motor used in RMPU AC Coach is (a)

a. 5.25 kw b. 6.3 kw c. 4.3kw d. None
35. The capacity of Condenser motor used in RMPU AC Coach is (a)

a. 1 HP b. 1.5 HP c. 2.5 HP d. None
36. The capacity of crank case heater of compressors used in RMPU AC Coache (a)
a. 50 W b.150 W c. 200 W d. None
37. The capacity of evaporator fan motor used in RMPU AC Coach (a)
a. 1.5 HP b. 0.5 HP c. 2.5 HP d. None
38. Control panel load of RMPU AC Coaches is About (b)

a. 400 W b. 200 W c. 100 W d. None
39. The capacity WRA motor RMPU AC Coaches is (a)

a. 373 W/ 0.37 KW b. 500 W c. 200 W d. No
40. Heaters load of one RMPU is about (a)

a. 6 KW b. 3 KW c. 12KW d. None
41. Current taken by one compressor motor of RMPU of AC coach is (a)

a. 8.25+/-25 b. 2.6+/10% c. 2.2+/10% d. None
42. Current taken by one condenser fan motor of RMPU of AC coach is (c)
a. 8.25+/-25 b. 2.6+/10% c. 2.2+/10% d. None
43. Current taken by one evaporator fan motor of RMPU coache (b)
a. 8.25+/-25 b. 2.6+/10% c. 2.2+/10% d. None
44. Starting current taken by one compressor motor of RMPU coach in (b)
a.10A b. 49 A c. 15 A d. None
45. The RMPU coaches are manufactured by (f)

a).M/s.Fedders Lloyd b) M/s.Sidwal c. M/s.Intech d) M/s.Amit Engg f) All of the above
46. The control panel of RMPU coaches works on (b)

a. 230 V AC b. 110 V AC c. 440 V AC d. None
47. Speed of the condenser motor of RMPU coach is (a)

a. 910 RPM b. 720 RPM c. 2880RPM d. None
48. Speed of the evaporator fan motor of RMPU coach is (a)

a. 415 RPM b. 720 RPM c. 2880RPM d. None
49. The size of the FEDDER LLOID RMPU is about (a)
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a. 2150 x2250x620 mm b. 1600 x1800x620 mm
c. 1400 x1500x620 mm d. None
50. The size of the SIDWAL RMPU is about (a)

a. 2150 x2250x620 mm b.1600 x1800x620 mm
c. 1400 x1500x620 mm d. None
51. 415 V 3 Phase AC supply required for operating motors of RMPU is fed from (b)
a. 25 KW Alternator b. 25 KVA inverter c. Both (a) and (b) d. None
52. The capacity of inverters used in RMPU coach is (b)

a. 18 KVA b. 25 KVA c.12 KVA d. None
53. No of inverters required for one RMPU coach are (a)

a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four
54. The input Voltage of 25 KVA inverter of RMPU coach (a)

a. 110/135 DC b. 24 V DC c.415 V AC d. None
55. The output Voltage of under slung/on board inverter of RMPU coach (a)
a. 415 VAC b. 230 VAC c. 110 VAC d. None
56. 110 V AC voltage required for operating control panel of RMPU AC Coach is stepped down from (b)
a. 750 V AC b. 415 V AC c. 220 V AC d. None
57. The wave form of 110V AC voltage fed to control panel of RMPU coach is (a)
a. Shine wave b. Square wave c. PWM wave d. None
58. PWM wave of 110V AC voltage of 25 KVA inverter is converted in to sine wave by__________ to
feed to cooling fan of RMPU (a)
a. Shine filter b. COS filter c. Tan filter d. None
59. No of evaporator fan motors are available for one RMPU AC coach (a)
a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four
60. Approximate 1st Class AC load in terms of ton of refrigeration (a)

a. 5.3 tons b. 7.4 tons c. 11.1 tons d. None
61. Approximate Air Conditioning load of II tire AC Coach (c)

a. 5.3 tons b. 7.4 tons c. 11.1 tons d. None
62. Approximate Air Conditioning load of III tire AC Coach (c)

a. 5.3 TR b. 7.4 TR c. 11.1 TR d. None
63. Approximate Air Conditioning load of AC chair car (c)

a. 5.3 TR b. 7.4 TR c. 11.1 TR d. None
64. Cooled air is sent to the compartment through (b)

a. Fresh air filters b. Duct & grills c. Return air filters d. None
65. Required fresh air for AC RMPU coach is collected from roof Is sent to evaporator through (a)
a. Fresh air filters b. Return air filters c, Both (a) and (b) d, None
66. Air cooled from compartment of AC coach is sent to evaporator through (a)
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a. Return air filters b. Fresh air filters c. Both (a) and (b) d. None
67. Air blown over condenser is sent to (c)

a. Evaporator b. Heater c. Out side atmosphere d.None
68. Air flow of condenser motor used in Sidwal make RMPU (c)
a. 10000 cubic feet for minute b. 17000 cubic Meter for hour
69. Air flow of condenser motor used in FEDER make RMPU (c)
a. 8000 cubic feet for minute b. 13600 cubic meter for hour
70. Type of condenser/evaporator coils used in Sidwal / Fedders make RMPU (a)
a. Fin-On-Tube type b. Shell on tube
c. Tube in tube d. All the above
71. The condenser coils are made up of (b)

a. Aluminum b. Copper c. Zinc d. None
72. The evaporator coils are made up of (b)

a. Aluminum b. Copper c. Zinc d. None
73. The outer diameter of condenser coil of Sidwal make (a)

a. 9.52 mm b. 6 mm c. 28 mm d. None
74. The outer diameter of evaporator / condenser coil of Sidwal / Fedders make (a)
a. 9.52 mm b. 6 mm c. 28 mm d. None
75. Air flow of evaporator fan used in Sidwal make RMPU (c)
a. 2400 cubic feet per minute b. 4000 + 5 % cubic meters of hour
76. Air flow of evaporator fan used in Fedders make RMPU (b)
a. 2000 + 10 % cubic meters of hour b. 4200 + 10 % cubic meters of hour
77. The under frame equipment of the RMPU coach other than first class has
a. One set of battery 110V, 1100 AH. b. Two sets of alternators 25KW capacity
c. 200 A battery charger d. Two WRAs
e. All the above
78. Dip tray provided under cooling coils to collect the rain water should be made of (b)
a. Iron b. Steel c. Copper d. Zinc
79. Drip tray provided under cooling coils in RMPU coaches should have a depth of (a)
a. 90 mm b. 50 mm c. 25 mm d. None
80. Recommended relative humidity inside the coach is (a)

a. 60 % maximum b. 70 % maximum c. 80 % maximum d, None
81. Power cables and control cables of RMPU should run through (b)
a. Same conduit b. Separate conduit
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c. Same conduit with better insulation d. None
82. Motors used in RMPU coaches are (a)

a. Induction motors b. Synchronous motors
c. Slip ring induction motors d. None
83. The induction motors used in RMPU are

(a)
a. Three phase motors b. Single phase motors
c. Two phase motors d. None
84. The starters used for 3 phase induction motors of RMPU coaches are (a)
a. Direct on line starters b. Star delta starters
c. Slip ring induction starters d. None
85. RMPU of AC coach should be made from

(c)
a. Iron with GI coating b. Iron with nickel coating
c. Stainless steel d. None
86. Fresh air requirement in side the 1 st class compartment for person is (a)
a. 0.7m³ /min b. 0.35 m³ /min c. 0.5 m³ /min d. None
87. Fresh air required in side the AC coach for II Tire Sleeper and III Tire Sleeper per person is about (b)
a. 0.7m³ /min b. 0.35 m³ /min c. 0.5 m³ /min d. None
88. Minimum fresh air requirement for one RMPU of AC coach (a)
a. >17.5 m³ /min b. ,5.5 m³ /min c. 10 m³ /min d. None
89. The compressor of RMPU coach shall be provided with (c)

a. High pressure cut out b. Low pressure cut out
90. HP cut out of RMPU coach shall be set at

(b)
a. 135 + 15% PSI b. 415 + 15% PSI
c. 35 + 15% PSI d. None
91. LP cut oout of RMPU coach shall be set at (c)

a. 135 + 5% PSI b. 415 + 15% PSI
c. 35 + 15% PSI d. None
92. HP cut out of RMPU coach is (a)

a. Manual reset type b. Auto reset type
93. Accessibility of return air filters of RMPU of AC coach (b)

a. From top of the unit
b. From bottom of the unit in side the coach in corridor
c. Middle access door at the bottom of the unit
d. Access door on each side at bottom of the unit
94. Fresh air filters are used for filtering (b)

a. Return air b. Only fresh air
c. Return air and fresh air d. None
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95. RMPU blower fan motors are manufactured by (d)
a. ABB b. CG c. NGEF, KEC, Bharat Bigili d. All of the above
96. Fresh air filter maximum air flow rate shall be (a)
a. 10 m³/min b. 15 m³/min c. 20 m³/min d. None
97. Fresh air filter maximum air velocity in feet/min (a)

a. 300 b. 400 c. 500 d. None
98. The maximum resistance of the fresh air filter, when it is clean (a)
a. 4mm (WG) b. 6mm (WG) c. 8 mm (WG) d. None
99. The maximum resistance of fresh air filter with dust concentration is (a)
a. 12 mm (WG) b. 6 mm (WG) c. 8 mm (WG) d. None
100. Return air filter maximum air floe rate in m-cub/minute (a)
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. None
101. Return air filter maximum air velocity in feet/minute (a)

a. 500 b. 700 c. 1000 d. None
102. Maximum resistance of the return air filter when it is clean (a)
103. Maximum resistance of the return with dust concentration (a)

104. The evaporator blower should be designed for air delivery at ____mm head of water gauge (c)
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. None
105. The copper parts of the Air conditioning coil should be (a)
a. Tinned b. GI coated c. Nickel coated d, None
106. The cooling temperature settings of electronic thermostat are recommended by RDSO is (a)
a. 23ºC to 25ºC b. 22ºC to 25ºC c. 24ºC to 26ºC d. None
107. The heating temperature setting of electronic thermostat are recommended by RDSO is (b)
a. 17ºC to 19ºC b. 19ºC to 21ºC c. 21ºC to 23ºC d. None
108. During IR test of RMPU, IR of compressor / Motors shall not be less than (b)
a. 100 mega ohms b. 2 mega ohms c. 20 mega ohms d. None
109. IR value of RMPU to be tested with (a)

a. 1000 Volts megger b. 500 volts megger
c. 100 volt megger d. None
110. During high voltage test of RMPU, the duration of high voltage to be applied on RMPU is (a)
a. 60 sec b. 120 sec c. 30 sec d. None
111. During high voltage test of RMPU, the high voltage to be applied (b)
a. 1000 volts ac b. 2000 volts ac c. 5000 volts ac d. None
112. Number of over heat protector thermostats are required for one RMPU are (b)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None
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113. Number of vane relays required for one RMPU are (a)
a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. None
114. Number of LP cut outs required for one RMPU are (a)
a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. None
115. Number of HP cut outs required for 1 RMPU are (a)

a. 2 b.1 c. 4 d. None
116. Three phase 3 KW heaters required for one RMPU unit is (b)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
117.The electronic thermostat will be located on (a)

a. One of the flap door of control panel from in side b. Front top of the unit
c. From bottom of the unity in side the coach d. None
118. Sensor of electronic thermostat will be located (a)

a. at return air entries b. fresh air path
c. In the duct in side the compartment d. None
119. The size of cables recommended for 5-10 HP motor leads in RMPU coaches (a)
a. 6 sq. Mm (84/0.3) b. 4 sq. mm (56/0.3)
c. 1.5 sq. mm d. None
120. The size of the cable recommended for 0.75 HP to 2 HP motor leads in RMPU coaches (b)
a. 6 sq. Mm (84/0.3) b. 4 sq. mm (56/0.3)
c. 1.5 sq. mm d. None
121. The size of cable recommend for control panel wiring of RMPU coaches (c)
a. 6 sq. mm b. 4 sq. mm c. 1.5 sq. mm d. None
122. Rotor shafts of RMPU motors are made out (c)

a. EN.8 b. EN.9 c. Both a and c d, None
123. The Study state temperature rise of stator winding of compressor motor of H class RMPU
should not exceed above ambent of 65ºC with full load at rated voltage is (b)
a, 70ºC b. 80ºC c. 100ºC d. None
124. The Study state temperature rise of stator winding of condensor/ blower motor of F class RMPU
should not exceed above ambent of 65ºC with full load at rated voltage is (a)
a, 70ºC b. 80ºC c. 100ºC d. None
125. The type of insulation recommended for condenser and evaporator motor in RMPU coaches are (a)
a. F class b. A class c. B.class d. None
126. The type of insulation recommended for compressor motor in RMPU coaches (b)
a. F class b.H class c. B.class d. None
127. Capacity of WRA mono block pump in RMPU coaches (a)

a. 0.5 HP/0.37 KW at 415 V 50 Hz PF 0.5
b. 1.0HP/0.746 KW at 415 V 50HZ PF 0.5
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c. 1.5 HP/ 1.1 KW at 415 V 50 HZ PF 0.5 d. None
128. Control panel of RMPU coach works (a)

a. 110 V AC 50Hz b. 230V AC 50Hz
c. 415 V AC 30Hz d. None
129. The maximum ripple content of 415/110 V supply fed to control circuit can (a)
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
130. No of over load relay provided in the control panel of one RMPU (b)
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. None
131.No of time delay relays provided in one RMPU are (b)

a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 1
132. No of control transformers provided in RMPU AC coach (a)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None
133. The capacity of control transformer provided in RMPU coach (a)

a. 400 VA b. 1000 VA c. 2500 VA d. None
134.The capacity of C1, C2, C3 contactor provided in control panel of RMPU coach is (a)
a. 16 A b. 50 A c. 32 A d. None
135.The purpose of time delay relay I is (a)

a. To delay compressor I operation for 2 minutes
b. To delay the compressor II operation for 2.5 minutes
c. To delay the condenser I operation for 2minutes
d. To delay the condenser II operation for 2.5 minutes
136. The purpose of time delay relay II (b)

a. To delay compressor I operation for 2 minutes
b. To delay the compressor II operation for 2.5 minutes
c. To delay the condenser I operation for 2minutes
d. To delay the condenser II operation for 2.5 minutes
137. The duration of TDR- I delay setting (a)

a. 2 min b. 2.5 min c. 3.5 min d. none
138. The duration of TDR- II delay setting (b)

a. 2 min b. 2.5 min c. 3.5 min d. none
139. The current carrying capacity of rotary switch RSWI provide in control panel of RMPU coach is (a)
a. 63 A b. 16 A c. 6/8 A d. None
140. Make of rotary switches recommended by RDSO to provide in control panel of RMPU AC Coach is (c)
a. Salzer b. Keycee c. Both a & b d. None
141. Makes of contractors recommended by RDSO to provide in control panel of RMPU AC Coach is (c)
a. L&T b. BCH c. Both a & b d. None
142. RMPU over load relay one (OLI) NC contract is connected in series to the (a)
a. Blower contractor coil b. Auxiliary contractor coil
b. Condenser I&II contractor Coil c. Compressor I&II contractor coils
e. Heaters I&II contractor coils f. All of the above
Page 106 of 160

143. RMPU Air loses indication LED glows when vane relay contract are in (a)
a. Open condition b. Closed condition
c. Both a & b d. None
144. If blower fan motor is defect in RMPU coach. The result will (d)
a. Condenser motors did not switch ON b. Compressor did not switch ON
c. Heater did not switch ON d. All of the above
145. If vane relays are defective in RMPU coach the results will (d)
a. Condenser motors did not switch ON b. Compressor did not switch ON
c. Heaters did not switch ON d. All of the above
146. If single phasing occurred on any one of the motor, in RMPU Coach, result will (c)
a. Motor trips b. Motor failure indication occurs
c. Both a & b d. None
147. AC system is operating in manual mode, both condenser motors defective in RMPU coach,
the result will be (d)
a. High pressure develops b. HP1 and HP2 open
c. compressors tips d. All of the above
148. System working in manual cooling mode, blower or vane relays became defective in RMPU coach,
the results will be (d)
a. Low pressures develops b. LP1, LP2 open
c. Both compressor will trip in 15 minutes d. all of the above
149. The system is working in manual heating mode, blower/vane relay defective in RMPU the result
will be (d)
a. temperature shoots up b. OHP1, OHP2 open
c. Heater switches off d. All of the above
150. If heaters are ON condition, in RMPU then compressor and condensers will be (b)
a. ON condition b. OFF Condition
c Switches off after 15 minutes d. None
151 If time delay relay-I fails to operate in RMPU the result will be (b)
a. Compressor-I switches on b. Compressor-I does not switches on
c. Compressor switches on but after two minutes it switches off
d. None.
152 If time delay relay two fails to operate in RMPU the result will be (b)
a. Compressor-II switches on b. Compressor-II does not switches on
c. Compressor-II switches on but switches off 2.5 minutes.
d. None.
153 AC system is working on vent mode in RMPU then (a)

a. Blower only works b. Heater only works
c. Entire cooling systems works d. None
154 AC system is working in auto mode in RMPU then (c)

a. It works on cooling mode only b. It works on heating mode only
c. It works on both (a) & (b) d. None
155 If system works on manual cooling mode in RMPU then (d)
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a. Blower works b. Two condensers works
c. compressor works d. All of the above
156. If system work on manual heating mode in RMPU then (c)

a. Blower works b. Heater works
157. Vapour compressor system used in Railways consists of (g)

a. Compressor b. Condenser
b. Expansion value d. Evaporator
e. Dehydrator and filter f. Accumulator or liquid receiver
g. All of the above.
158. The purpose of low pressure cut out used in vapour compression system is (c)
a. It shuts down the compressor if the suction pressure drops down
b. It automatically resets if the pressure becomes normal
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None.
159. Number of WRAs are available in RMOU AC Coach are (b)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None
160. The capacity of over head tank (Auxilary tank) provided in RMPU coaches is about (a)
a. 50 ltr b. 400 ltr c. 300 ltr d. None.
161.Over load setting of compressor motor is in RMPU coaches is (c)

a. 2.2 A b. 3.2 A c. 10.5 A d. None
162. Capacity of battery used in RMPU AC Coach (b)

a. 800 AH b. 1100 AH c. 540 Ah d. None
163. Capacity of battery charger used in RMPU AC Coach (a)

a. 220 A b. 40 A c. 70 A d. None
164. Battery charger used in RMPU AC Coach is also called as (a)

a. Pre-cooling transformer b. Diesel DC generator set
165. Number of VRLA cells available in battery of SG RMPU AC Coach (a)

a. 56 b. 54 c. 112 d. None
166. The capacity of HRC fuses to be provided for 1100AH battery of SG RMPU AC Coach is (a)
a. 400 A b. 250A c. 100A d. None
167.The location of battery HRC fuse to be provided for 1100 AH battery of SG RMPU AC coach is (c)
a. At positive of the battery b. At negative of the battery
168.The purpose of power selector rotary switch RSW1 provided in power panel of RMPU AC Coach is (e)
a. To select alternator one and battery b. To select alternator two and battery
c. To select alternator one & two and battery d. All the above
169.The capacity of plant selector rotary switch RSW2 provided in power panel of RMPU AC coach is (a)
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a. 300 A b. 400A c. 63A d. None
170. The capacity of positive HRC fuse to be provided for inverter (before RSW2) in plant selector circuit
in power panel of RMPU AC Coach is (a)
a. 250A b. 400A c. 63A d. None
171. The capacity of HRC fuses to be provided for 415V 3phase supply of pre-cooling battery charger
of RMPU AC coach is. (a)
a. 63A b. 160A c. 400A d. None
172.The capacity of power selector RSW1 provided in power panel of RMPU AC coach is (a)
a. 500A b. 160A c. 16A d. None
173.HFC refrigerant recommended for RMPU coaches in place of R22 is (b)

a. R 134a b. R 407C c. R 290 d. None
174.Input supply for the Electronic thermostats controlling unit is (c)

a. 110V DC b. 110AC c. either of one d. None.
175.InvertersConvert (b)
a. AC into DC b.DC into AC c. Both (a) & (b) d. None
176. Input voltage range to the under slung/on board inverter roof mounted AC coach 25 KVA inverter is.
(a)
a. 90 to 140V DC with ± 15% ripple (103.5V to 154V)
b. 70 to 170V DC with ± 15% ripple
c. 80 to 200V DC with ± 15% ripple d. None
177. Out put voltage of under slung/0n board roof mounted AC Coach 25KW inverter is
(a)
a. 415V ± 5% 3phase 50Hz b. 230V ± 5% 1phase 50Hz
c. 110V ± 5% 3phase 50Hz d. none
Page 109 of 160

9.LHB COACHES
1. What is the rating of distribution transformer used in LHB AC Coaches (c)
a. 50KVA b. 26KVA c. 60KVA d. 30KVA
2. What is the integrated panel control supply in LHB AC Coach (b)

a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 415V 3Ø AC d. 750V 3Ø AC
3. What is the rating of Battery used in LHB AC Coach (b)

a. 800Ah b, 70Ah c. 1100Ah d. 90Ah
4. What is the rating Battery fuse used in LHB AC Coach (b)

a. 100A b. 32A c. 40A d. 63A
5. What is the rating of LHB AC Coach 750V side fuse (b)

a. 100A b. 125A c. 63A d. 250A
6. What is abbreviation of RBCR (b)

a. Regulated Booster current b. Regulated Battery charger
c. Regulated Battery Current d. None.
7. The Main function of RBCR used in LHB Coach (d)

a. To Charge the battery b. To feed control supply
c. To feed supply light and fans d. All the above.
8. What is input supply to RBCR in LHB coach (d)

a. 110V AC b. 110V DC C. 230V AC d. 415V 3Ø AC
9. What is the capacity of RBCR (c)

a. 2.5 KW b. 5KW c. 6.5KW d. 10KW
10.What is the RDSO specification number of RBCR used in LHB coach (a)
a. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0129-2009 (Rev-I)
b. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0056-2014 (Rev-I)
c. EDTS-041-Rev A
d. None
11. What ids the maximum out put current DC Current of RBCR in LHB coach (a)
a. 50A b. 220A c. 20A d. None
12. Output Voltage Range of RBCR in LHB Coach (a)

a. 110V – 135V DC b. 110V-135V AC c. 415V AC d. None
13.What is abrivation of EBCR used in LHB AC Coach (a)

a. Emergency Battery charger b. Emergency Boost charger
c. Emergency Back up charger d. None
14. What is the rating of EBCR in LHB AC Coach (b)

a. 0.5KW b. 2.5KW c.6.5KW d. None
15. What is the input supply of EBCR in LHB coach (c)

a. 110V AC b.110V DC c.230V AC d.415V, 3Ø AC
16. What is the out put supply voltage of EBCR in LHB coach (b)
a. 110V AC b.110V DC c.230V AC d.415V, 3Ø AC
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17. What is the maximum current out put of EBCR in LHB coach (b)
a. 220A b. 20A c. 63A d. 35A
18. what is the RDSO specification number of EBCR in LHB AC coach (c)
a. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0129-2009(Rev-1) b. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0056-2014(Rev-1)
c. EDTS-163, Rev-C d. EDTS-041, Rev-A
19. What id the purpose of EBCR in LHB AC coach (b)

a. Give supply to the AC plant b. To give control supply to power panel in emergency
c. To give supply to mobile chargers d. None
20.When the EBCR in LHB AC coach is starts functioning (b)

a. It starts when coach is dark b. It starts when RBCR is fails to work
c. It starts on Pre-cooling supply d. None
21. What is the supply of end on generation system in LHB (a)

a. 150V, 50Hz, 3Ø, AC b. 230V, AC c. 415V, 3Ø, 50Hz d. None
22. How many distribution transformer per coach in LHB AC coach (a)
23. How many vane relays are available in LHB AC coach (d)
a. One b. Two c. Four d. None
24. EOG power car supply Is feeded to coaches by LHB coaches (b)
a. IV coupler b. ZS coupler c. CBC coupler d. None
25. EOG power car supply Is feeded to AC coaches in Garibrath AC coaches by (a)
a. IV coupler b. ZS coupler c. CBC coupler d. None
26. How many ZS couplers having per coach (a)

a. Two male and Two female b. Four male and four female
c. Three male and Three female d. None
27. What is capacity of the fuse provided in 415 voltage side of LHB AC (a)
a. 100A b. 125A c. 80A d. 63A
28. What is capacity of the fuse provided in local main supply of LHB AC (c)
a. 100A b. 125A c. 80A d. 63A
29. How many fuses of 32A are provided in positive fuse box of LHB AC coach (a)
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Nil
30. How many fuses of 32A are provided in negative fuse box of LHB AC coach (b)
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Nil
31. What is input supply of microprocessor in LHB AC coach (b)

a. 110V Ac b. 110V DC c. 230V AC d. 415V AC
32. Contactor K1 and K2, are for what purpose in LHB AC coach (a)
a. for feeeder selection b. for local supply c. Transformer d. None
33. Contactor K41 and K42 are for what purpose in LHB AC coach (b)
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a. for feeeder selection b. for local supply c. Transformer d. All the above
34. Contactor K43 is for what purpose in LHB AC coach (c)

a. for DC supply b. Feed supply selection
c. for local main supply d. Transformer supply
35. What is the abbreviation form of D and ED in LHB AC coach (a)

a. Disconnection and Earthing device b. Disconnecting and Energing device
c. Dead and Energing device d. None
36. What is the purpose of Disconnecting and Earth in Device in LHB coach (a)
a. Disconnecting the circuit and Earthing in Off position b. Connecting and Earthing
c. Disconnecting and Earthing in On position d. None
37. What is the abbreviation of MMR used in LHB coach (c)

a. Measuring and Minimising Relay b. Measuring and Maximising
c. Measuring and Monitoring Relay d. All the above
38. How many MMR are available in 750V side in LHB AC coach (c)
a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4
39. How many MMR are available in 415V side in LHB AC coach (a)
a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4
40. What purpose K05 contactor using in LHB coach (c)

a. for lighting circuit b. for RMPU c. for WSP d. for WRA
41. How many centrifugal double inlet exhaust fans are available in LHB AC coach (b)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
42. How many fans are available in LHB coaches in which are manufactured after 2015 in passenger area (d)
a. 18 b. 20 c. 16 d. None
43. What is the contactor number of WRA in LHB AC coach (c)

a. K1, K2 b. K28, K29 c. K24, K25 d. K30, K31
44. What is the indicating MPCB number of WRA (b)

a. F85, F86 b. F21, F22 c. F30, F31 d. None
45.What id the abbreviation of MPCB (b)

a. Motor pump case breaker b. Motor protection circuit breaker
c. Monitoring protecting circuit breaker d. None
46. What is the rating range of MPCB of WRA pump in LHB (a)
a. 1.0A to 1.6A b. 1.5A to 2.5A c. 2.5 to 3.0A d. 3.0A to 3.5A
47. What is the Rating range of MPCB for exhaust fan in LHB AC coach (b)
a. 1.0A to 1.6A b. 0.1A to 2.5A c. 2.5A to 3.0A d. None
48. What is the contactor number of fresh air flap motor in LHB AC coach (c)
a. K8 b. K9 c. K21 d. K44
49. What is the input supply for flap motors in LHB AC coach (c)
a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 24V DC d. 230V AC
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50.What is the blower contactor number is in LHB AC coach PP side (a)
a. K28 b. K26 c. K31 d. K32
51. What is the blower contactor number of NPP side RMPU in LHB AC coach (b)
a. K28 b. K26 c. K31 d. K32
52. What is condenser motors contactor number PP side of LHB AC coach (a)
a. K36, K37 b. K38, K39 c. K28, K26 d. None
53. What is condenser motors contactor number NPP side RMPU in LHB AC coach (b)
a. K36, K37 b. K31, K32 c. K28, K26 d. None
54. What is compressor contactors of PP side of LHB AC coach (d)

a. K36, K37 b. K31, K32 c. K28, K26 d. K38, K39
55. What is compressor motors contactor number NPP side RMPU in LHB AC coach (d)
a. K36, K37 b. K31, K32 c. K38, K39 d. K33, K34
56. What is Heater contactor number of PP side RMPU in LHB Ac coach (c)
a. K33 b. K35 c. K40 d. K39
57. What is Heater contactor number of NPP side RMPU in LHB Ac coach (b)
a. K33 b. K35 c. K40 d. K39
58. What is the input supply voltage for pump controller in AC coach (d)
a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 24V DC d. All the above
59. How many Insulation control relays available in LHB AC Coach (b)
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
60. What is the function of Insulation control relays in LHB AC coach (b)
a. Gives indication of higher insulation in panel
b. Gives indication of lower insulation in panel
c. Not indicate any thing
d. Indicate supply position
61. K05 timer belongs for which device in LHB coach (c)
a. Timer for AC compressor b. Timer for AC plant
c. Timer for Anti skid device d. None of the above
62. Contactor K06 belongs to which circuit in LHB AC coach (b)

a. Anti skid device b. Electro pneumatic break application
c. AC plant d. None of the above
63. Contactor K07 belongs to which circuit in LHB AC coach (c)

a. Anti skid device b. Electro pneumatic break application
b. Electro pneumatic break release d. None
64. Contactor K08 belongs to which circuit in LHB AC coach (a)

a. MVR of level 1 b. MVR of level 2 c. MVR of level 3 d. None
65. What ids the abbreviation of MVR in LHB Ac coach (a)

a. Minimal voltage relay b. maximum voltage relay
c. Maximum value relay d. None
66. Contactor K-23 indicates which supply availability in LHB AC coach (c)
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a. 110V DC b. 110V AC c. 415V AC d. None
67. F-01 MCB (triple pole) 10A belongs to which motor in LHB AC coach (a)
a. Blower motor of unit 1 b. Condenser motor of unit 1
c. Condenser motor of unit 2 d. Blower motor of unit 2
68. F-02 MCB (Triple pole) 10A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach (b)
a. Blower motor of unit 1 b. Blower motor of unit 2
c. Condenser motor of unit 1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2
69. F-03 MCB (Triple pole) 20A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach (c)
a. Blower motor of unit 1 b. Blower motor of unit 2
c. Condenser motor of unit 1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2
a. Compressor motor of unit 1 b. Compressor motor of unit 2
c. Blower motor of unit 1 d. Blower motor of unit 2
71. F-04 MCB (Double pole) 10A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach (c)
a. Compressor motor of unit 1.1 b. Compressor motor of unit 1.2
c. Crank case heaters for CP 1.1 and CP 1.2 d. None
72. F-06 MCB (Triple pole) 10A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach (a)
a. Condenser motor of unit 1.1 b. Condenser motor of unit 1.2
c. Condenser motor of unit 2.1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2.1
a. Condenser motor of unit 1.1 b. Condenser motor of unit 1.2
c. Condenser motor of unit 2.1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2.1
a. Heater of unit-1 b. Heater of unit-2
c. Blower motor unit-1 d. None
75. F-09 MCB (Triple pole) 20A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach (d)
a. Blower motor-1 b. Blower motor-2
c. Compressor motor 2.2 d. Compressor motor 2.1
76. F-10 MCB (Double pole) 10A belong to which circuit in LHB AC coach (d)
a. Heater of unit-1 b. Heater of unit-2
c. Crank case heaters for CP 1.1 and CP 1.2 d. Crank case heaters for CP 2.1 and CP 2.2
a Compressor motor of unit 2.1 d. Compressor motor of unit 2.2
c. Compressor motor of unit 1.1 d. Compressor motor of unit 1.2
78. Net 1 and Net 2 of LHB AC can be selected at a time (a)

a. No b. Yes c. Both working at time d. None
79. Why the Net 1 and Net 2 can not be selected at a time in LHB coach (c)
a. Since there is a different supply b. Since there is no supply
c. Since there is a different supply d. All of the above
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80. Contactor K- 44 for which supply feed to coach in LHB type AC coach (c)
a. 110V AC supply b. 110V AC supply
c. 60 KVA transformer out put supply d. None of the above
81. In LHB type RMPU, what type of over heat protection available (c)
a. OHP b. ESTI c, Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above
82. When ESTI fuse link protection comes in circuit in LHB RMPU (c)
a. If OHP fail to operate b. If heating temperature
83. ESTI self destroying type fusible link of heater circuit in LHB RMPU in series with which supply (d)
a. 110V AC b. 230V AC c. 110V DC d. 415V AC, 3Ø
84. How many sensors are available in LHB AC coach for sensing the temperature parameters (d)
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
85. Humidity control is facility is available in which type coach (c)

a. Under slung type AC b. SG type RMPU
c. LHB type RMPU d. None of the above
86. Why LHB RMPU motor are in built with OTP (a)
a. To sense and protect against over temperature
b. To sense and protect against lower temperature
c. To sense and protect against lower temperature
d. To sense and protect against low IR value
87. What are the under gear safety items to be checked in LHB AC coach (e)
a. Junction boxes b. 60 KVA transformer c. WRA pumps d. Battery box e. all
of the above
88. What is abbreviation of (c)

a. Like Half man bush b. Link Half man Bosh
c. Link Half man bush d. None
89. LHB Technology was imported from which (d)

a. Japan b. USA c. Italy d. Germany
90.Ist Alstam LHB coach designed and manufactured and commissioned on (a)
a. 23 june 2003 b. 23 june2004 c. 23 june 2005 d. None
91.Length of LHB Coach is (b)

a. 22.54M b. 23.54M c. 24.54M d, 25,54M
92.Passenger capacity of 2-AC LHB coach (d)

a. 46 b. 48 c. 52 d. 54
93.Passenger capacity of 3-AC LHB coach (d)

a. 46 b. 56 c.64 d. 72
94.Which AC coaches are designed with Moisture control (c)

a. Under slung type b. RMPU type c. LHB type d. All the above
95.750V Circuit insulation test to be done by with………….Volts megger (c)
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a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None
96.415V circuit cables insulation test to be done by with………..Volts megger (c)

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None
97.230//190Vcircuit cables insulation test to be done by with………..Volts megger (b)

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None
98.110V circuit cables insulation test to be done by with………..Volts megger (b)

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None
99.24V circuit cables insulation test to be done by with………..Volts megger (a)

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None
100. 750V circuit cables insulation test done with 1000V megger the value should not be less than…ohms
(c)
a. Not less than 2 ohms b.Not less then 3 ohms
c. Not less then 5 Ohms d. Not less then 10 ohms
101. 415 Volts circuit cable insulation test done by 1000V megger the value should not less than…..ohms
(b)
a. 2 Ohms b. 3 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 10 ohms
102. 230/190V circuit cable insulation test done by with 500 megger the value should not less then…ohms
(a)
a. 2 ohms b. 3 ohms C. 5 ohms d. 10 ohms
103. 110V circuit cable insulation test done by with 500 megger the value should not less then…ohms (a)
a. 2 ohms b. 3 ohms C. 5 ohms d. 10 ohms
104. LHB type one RMPU cooling capacity (c)

a. 5Ton b. 6ton c. 7ton d. None
105. LHB type one RMPU power consumption capacity………..KW (d)

a. 10.6KW b. 12.6KW c. 13.0KW d. 13.6KW
106. LHB type one compressor motor power consumption capacity………..KW (a)
a. 5.25KW b.6.25KW c. 7.25KW d. None
107.LHB type RMPU Manufacturing firms are (d)

a. M/S Sidwal b. M/S LLOYD c. M/S Stesalit d. All the above
108.Refrigerents used in LHB RMPU are (d)

a. R134a b. R22 c. 407C d. (b) & (c)
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10.ABBREVIATIONS OR EXPANDED FORM
1. What is the abbreviation of BARC (a)
a. Bhabha Atomic Research center b. Bombay Atomic Research Center
C. Bhagya nagar Atomic Research Center d. None
2. What is the abbreviation form of COFMOW (b)

a. Central for Modernization office works b. Central for Modernization of workshop
C. Central for Modernization of other works d. None
3. What is the abbreviation form of CONCOR (a)

a. Container corporation b. Central corporation
C. Cement corporation d. None
4. What is the abbreviation form of CORE (c)

a. Central organization for rural Engineering
b. Central Organization for roads Engineering
C. Central Organization for railway Electrification
d. None
5. What is the abbreviation form of CRIS (b)

a. Central for Rural information system b. Central For railway information system
C. Central for railway investment system d. None of the above
6. What is the abbreviation form of CAMTECH (d)

a. Central Advanced Management Technology
b. Central Advance Management of Tracks
c. Central Advanced Monitoring Technology
d. Centre For Advance Maintenance Technology
7. What is the abbreviation form of IRCON (a)

a. Indian Railway Construction company Limited
b. Indian Roads Construction company Limited
C. International Railway Construction company Limited
d. None
8. What is the abbreviation form of IRFC (b)

a. International Rural Finance Corporation
b. Indian Railway Finance Corporation
C. Indian Roads Finance Corporation
d. None
9. What is the abbreviation form of IRIEEN (a)

a. Indian Railway Institute of Electrical Engineering
b. Indian Railway Institute of Electronics Engineering
C. Indian Railway Institute of Economics and Engineering
d. None
10. What is the abbreviation form of IRWO (d)
a. Indian Rural Welfare Organization b. International Rural Welfare Organization
C. Indian Rural work Organization d. Indian Railway welfare organization
11. What is the abbreviation form of PNM (c)
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a. Passenger Nominating Machinery b. Permanent National Machinery
C. Permanent Negotiating Machinery d. Permanent Navigating Machinery
12. What is the abbreviation form of RCT (a)

a. Railway Claims Tribunal b. Railway Charges Tribunal
C. Railway change Tribunal d. Railway Cleaning Tribunal
13. What is the abbreviation form of RDSO (b)

a. Railway Design and Standards Origination b. Research Design and Standards Organization
C. Railway Design and Standards Organization d. None of the Above
14. What is the abbreviation form of RITES (d)

a. Railway Institute of Technical Engineering services ltd.
b. Railway Institute of Technical Electrical services ltd.
C. Railway Indian Technical Electrical services ltd.
d. Rail India Technical and Economics services Ltd
15. What is the abbreviation form of SCADA (a)

a. Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition.
b. Supervisory Central and Distribution Acquisition
C. Supervisory Central Advanced Data Acquisition.
d. none of the Above
16. What is the abbreviation form of FRCPY (c)

a. Fault rate Percentage per year b. Failure rate Practice per year
C. Failure rate Percentage per year. d Fault rate Practice per year
17. What is the abbreviation form of PATB (b)

a. Passenger and Terminal bracket b. Passenger alarm Terminal Board
C. Passenger aluminum terminal Board d. Permanent alarm terminal Board
18. What is abbreviation form of EIG (c)

a. Electrical Institute of Government b. Electrical Inspection to the Government
c. Electrical Inspection to the Government d. None of the above.
19. Who is EIG (b)

a. PCEN b. PCEE C. PCME d. PCPO
20. What is abreviation form of DGS&D (a)

a. Director General of supply and disposal b. Director General of stores and Distribution
c. Director General of Stores and Disposal
d. None of the above.
21. What is abrivation form of EMD (c)

a. Earnest Money Demand b. Earnest Monitoring and Dispatch
c. Earnest Money Deposit d. None of the above
22. What is abrivation of form of SD (d)
a. Supply and Dispatch b. Supply and Demand
c. Security Data d. Security Deposit
23. What is abrivation of PG (a)

a. Performance Guarantee b. Programmer Guarantee
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c. Play and Ground d. Program of Goods
24. What is abrivation of CRI (c)

a. Colour remaining Index b. Coach rendering Index
c. Colour rendering Index d. Colour resonance Index
25. What is abrivation of SAF (d)

a.Supply Application Form b. Stores Application Form
c. Supply Advanced Form d. Stocking Application Form
Page 119 of 160

11.EOG POWER CAR
1. What is the meaning of EOG? (b)
a. End off generation b. End on generation
c. End over generation d. All the above.
2. What is the supply voltage of EOG system? (d)
a. 415 V AC b. 440 V AC
c. 750 V DC d. 750 V AC
3. What is the capacity of alternator of EOG power car? (c)
a. 280 KVA b. 490 KVA
c. 500 KVA d. 450 KVA
4. What is the unit for capacity of a diesel engine? (c)
a. HP b. HHP
c. BHP d. KVA
5. What is the operating speed of diesel engine of EOG power car? (b)
a. 1800 rpm b.1500 rpm
c. 2000 rpm d 1000 rpm
6.What is the battery voltage and capacity of engine staring batteries in EOG power car? (b)
a. 8V 290 AH b 24V 290 AH
c. 24V 450 AH d 8V 450 AH
7. No. of engines available in a EOG power car is _____? (b)
a. 1 b2
c. 4 d.3
8. What is the quantity and capacity of transformers in LHB type EOG power car? (c)
a. 2 nos. of 50 KVA and 1 no. of 60 KVA b. 4 Nos. of 50 KVA
c. 3 Nos. of 60 KVA d. 20 Nos. of 50 KVA and 2 Nos of 60 KVA
9. How may ventilator fan motors are avialable in a EOG power car? (b)
a. 3 b.4 c. 2 d.8
10.What is the rating of ventilator fan motor of EOg power car? (a)
a.7 .5 HP b.5 HP c. 10 HP d.20 HP
11.High water tempertaure switch of diesel engine of Power car is set at what temperature? (d)
a. 100 deg C b.99 deg C c. 95 deg C d 97 deg C
12. What does LLOP stand for? ( a)
a. Low lube oil pressure b.Low lube over pressure
c. Low level oil pressure d.Lower level oil pressure
13. Over speed switch of diesel of EOg power car is set at _____ rpm? ( b)
a. 1500 +/- 5 % rpm b. 1800 +/- 4.5 % rpm
b. 1800 rpm d. 1500 rpm
14. The UVR of alternator of power car operates at set voltage of _______? (c)
a. 600 V b. 715 V c. 687 V d .650 V
15. What is the MPCB rating of radiator control panel? ( d)
a. 68A b. 75A c.40A d .63A
16. What is the rating of MPCB of ventilator panel? ( b)
a. 16A b.10A c. 5A d. 15A
17. Smoke detector in LHB power car works on _____V? ( c)
a. 24V DC b. 110V AC c. 110V DC d. 24V AC
18. What is the input voltage of SBCR (Starting battery charger) of Power car? (c)
a. 110V DC b. 415 V AC c. 230V AC d. 110 V AC
19. WHat is the protections provided in alternator of power car? (d)
a.Short circuit b.Overload c.Earth Fault d. All the above
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20.Frequency of SS-III schedule is - ( c)
a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 6 years d) 5 years
21. Frequency of SS-II schedule is - ( c)
a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years
22. What do you mean by HOG system? ( b)
a. High On generation b. Head on generation
c. Head over generation d. None of the above
23. In HOG system power is taken from _____? (a)
a. OHE b. DA Set
b. Adjacent coach d. None of the above
24. The radiator and ventilator control panel of Power car are ___________? (a)
a. Star delta starter b. DOL starter
c. Capacitor start capacitor run starter d. None of the above
25. What is the present CPCB norms followed by diesel engines of EOG power car? (Ans. b)
a. CPCB I b. CPCB II c. CPCB III d. CPCB IV
26. What Is the abbrevation of CPCB ? (c)
a. Central population control board
b. Central pollution checking board
c. Central pollution control board
d. None
Page 121 of 160

12.EMU & MEMU:
1.Rating of EMU transformer is

(a) 1200KVA (b) 1000KVA (c) 800 (d) 1100KVA (b)
KVA
2.Voltage rating of EMU Traction Motor is
(a) 500 V (b) 580 V (c) 535 V (d) 550 V (c)
3.New wheel diameter of EMU Motor Coach/Trailer coach
(a) 900 mm (b) 950 mm (c) 850 mm (d) 952 mm (d)
4.Total auxiliary motors in EMU motor coach are
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2 (a)
5. Total No. of traction motors in a EMU Motor Coach is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (c)
6. The Safety device provided in EMU for detecting gassing and the
protection of Transformer
is:
(a) OLP (b) TTR (c) BUD (d) PRV (c)
7. The Safety device fitted in the EMU Transformer for its protection against
explosion:
(a) PRV (b) OLP (c) BUD (d) TTR (a)
8. The Ampere hour capacity of EMU battery is :
(a) 80 Ah (b) 90 Ah (c) 100 Ah (d) 75 Ah (b)
9. The type of Traction Motor used in EMU is :
(a) 4001 BX (b) 4601 BX (c) 6040 BX (d) None of (b)
the above
10. The No of teeth in EMU traction motor pinion is :
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 55 (d) 91 (b)
11. The gear ratio in EMU is ;
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 1 : 4.55 (d) 1 : 5.55 (c)
12.The control voltage in EMU is ;
(a) 110 V AC (b) 230 V AC (c) 110 V DC (d) 230 V (c)
DC
13. The rating of EMU traction motor is :
(a) 150 KW (b) 535 KW (c) 230 KW (d) 167 KW (d)
14. The type of cooling of transformer oil is :
(a) OFAF (b) OF (c) AF (d) None of (a)
the above
15. The voltage of primary winding of EMU transformer is :
(a) 25 KV (b) 266 V (c) 782 V (d) None of (a)
the above
16. The voltage of Secondary winding of EMU transformer is :
(a) 25 KV (b) 266 V (c) 782 V (d) None of (c)
the above
17.The voltage of Auxiliary I winding of EMU transformer is :
(a) 25 KV (b) 266 V (c) 782 V (d) None of (b)
the above
18. The voltage of Auxiliary II winding of EMU transformer is :
(a) 141 V (b) 266 V (c) 782 V (d) None of (a)
the above
19. The No of main poles in EMU traction motor is :
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) None of (b)
the above
20. The BDV stands for :
(a) Break down value (b) Break down voltage (c) Break drop (d) None of (b)
voltage the above
Page 122 of 160
21. The BDV for new filtered oil for transformer is :
(a) 40 KV (b) 60 KV (c) 30 KV (d) None of (a)
the above
22. The capacity of main compressor in EMU is:
(a) 900 lpm (b) 1000 lpm (c) 500 lpm (d) None of (b)
the above
23. The rating of MCP in EMU is:
(a) 12 HP (b) 10 HP (c) 20 HP (d) None of (a)
the above
24. The No of carbon brushes in TM are :
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 (d)
25. The condemning size of TM carbon brush is :
(a) 32 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 35 mm (d) None of (a)
the above
26. The type of TM suspension in EMU is ;
(a) Fixed (b) Axle hung nose (c) Mounting (d) None of (b)
suspended pad the above
27. The function of Aux rectifier is to feed :
(a) Aux I circuit (b) Battery charger (c)Main (d) None of (c)
Compressor the above
28. The function of DC-DC converter is to feed :
(a) Flasher light (b) Head light (c) Tail lamp (d) None of (b)
the above
29. The number of batteries available in EMU are :
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) None of (c)
the above
30.If Traction motor No 4 is grounded, which of the following relay will act?
a) OL 1&2 (b) OL 3&4 (c) EFRP (d) EFRA-II (c)
31. Fans in EMU are working with
a) 110 V AC (b) 110 V DC (c) 141 V AC (d) 266 V (c)
AC
32. Battery used in EMU is
a) Ni-Cd Cell (b) Lead acid cell (c) Dry cell (d) Edison (b)
cell
33. Number of interpoles used in TM 4601 BX is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8 (a)
34. HRC fuses for protecting the battery is rated at
a) 100 A b) 120A c) 70 A d) 80A (d)
35. HRC fuse rating of static battery charger
a) 16 A b) 5 A c) 32 A d) 10 A (c)
36. MCB rating for radiator fan
a) 10 A b) 5 A c) 15 A d) 10 A (b)
37. MCB rating for rectifier fan
a) 10 A b) 5 A c) 15 A d) 10 A (a)
38. Oil pump has a capacity of
a) 1 H.P b) 1.5 HP c) 0.5 H.P d) 2 H.P (b)
39. Rectifier fan has a capacity of
a) 1 H.P b) 1.5 HP c) 0.5 H.P d) 2 H.P (a)
40. Radiator fan has a capacity of
a) 1 H.P b) 1.5 HP c) 0.5 H.P d) 2 H.P (c)
41. Forward and Reverse direction of TM is controlled through which wires?
a) 1&2 b) 1&3 c) 3&4 d) 5&6 (d)
42. Traction Ammeter is connected to which TMs?
a) 1&2 b) 1&3 c) 3&4 d) 5&6 (b)
43. Rated Voltage of Motor Contactors is
a) 1300 V b) 1500 V c) 500 V d) 1000 V (b)
44. Which of these relays cause motor contactors to open?
a) EFRA - II b) OLP c) PRV d) RFAR (d)
45. Static battery Charger output is
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a) 90 V DC b) 266 V AC c) 110 V DC d) 266 V DC (c)
46. Battery Charger failure will result in the glowing of Lamp
a) MSTWL b) PFD c) VCB OFF d) BCFR (d)
47. Fans power circuit is protected by HRC fuse of
a) 16 A b) 32 A c) 63 A d) 20 A (c)
48. Lights Power circuit is protected by HRC fuse of
a) 16 A b) 32 A c) 63 A d) 20 A (c)
49. Type of motor used in Auxiliary compressor is
a) DC Shunt b) Squirrel cage c) Synchrounous d) DC (d)
series
50. EMU Motor coach tare weight is approx
a) 31.04 tonnes b) 48.31 mm c) 63.77 tonnes d) 56.52 (d)
tonnes
51. EMU trailer coach tare weight is approx
a) 31.04 tonnes b) 48.31 mm c) 63.77 tonnes d) 56.52 (a)
tonnes
52. Working voltage for head light is
a) 50 V DC b) 24 V DC c) 110 V DC d) 100 V DC (b)
53. Maximum OHE voltage is
a) 25 KV b) 27.5 KV c) 30 kV d) none of (b)
these
54.Minimum OHE voltage is
a) 25 KV b) 10KV c) 17.5 kV d) none of (c)
these
55. Vendor coach in EMU can be found in coach type
a) B b) C c) D d) none of (c)
these
56. First Class coach in EMU can be found in coach type
a) B b) C c) D d) none of (b)
these
57. Which of the following TM is only used in EMU?
a) 4601 BX b) 4303 BY c) C1005 TM d) None of (a)
these
58. In a 3 Phase EMU rake the leading coach is
MC TC DTC NDTC (c)
59. The motor coach in a 3 phase EMU unit is found in
a) Both end coaches b) Middle coach c) All coaches d) End Coach (b)
60. The conversion method from single phase (25KV) to 3 phase is using
a) Rotary Converter b) Phase converters c) Digital phase d) Rectifier - (d)
converters Inverter
61. Which of the following equipments is NOT found in motor coach of a 3 phase EMU unit?
a) Line voltage transformer b)Auxilliary Converter c) Main d) Line (c)
Compressor Filter
62. in a 3 phase EMU unit , TCMS stands for
a) Traction Control Management b) Traction cable c) Train cable d) Train (d)
System management System management Control
System Managem ent
System
63. Communication between different components in train is facilitated by

a) TCMS b) GDU c) BECU d) IGBT (a)
64. Rated Voltage of 3 Phase motor used is
a) 535 V b) 1500 V c) 940 V d) 745 V (c)
65. Rated power of 3 phase motor used in 3 phase EMU is
a) 535 kW b) 150 kW c) 268 kW d) 745 kW (c)
66. In 3- Phase EMU the battery box is located in
a) MC b) DTC c) TC d) None ( b)
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1.ESTABLISHMENT
1. What is the main object of the payment and wages Act ? ( c )
a) Wages should be paid in time b) No unauthorized deductions from Wages
c) Both a and b d) None.
2. When payment and wages Act came in to operation w.e.f. in India? (c )
a)21.1.1937 b)21.2.1937 c)21.3.1937 d)21.4.1937
3. What are the permissible deductions from wages? ( d)
a)Fine b)Deduction for absence from duty, towards damages or loss
c) Deduction of provident fund, advance& Loans d) All the above
4. What is the abbreviation of HOER? (a )
a)Hours of employment regulations b) Hours of employment rules
c) Hours of Employment roster d) none
5. Classification of HOER? (d )
a)Intensive b) Essentially intermittent c) Continues & Excluded d) All the above
6. What is the abbreviation of WCA? (b )
a) Worker compensation act b) Workmen’s compensation act
c) Worker company act d) None
7. When factory act 1948 came in force? (d)
a) w.e.f. 1.1.1949 b) w.e.f 1.2.1949 c) w.e.f. 1.3.1949 d) w.e.f. 1.4.1949
8. What is mean by “suspension”? ( a )
a) Suspension is an action where by railway servant is kept out of duty
b) Suspension is an action where by railway servant is remove from duty
c) Suspension is an action where by railway servant is dismissed from duty
d) None
1).Rule -3 of Service Conduct rule is related to (a)
a. General Conditions-devotion to duty integrity etc. b. Demonstration by Railway Servant
c. Employment of near relative; d. None of these.
2).According to Rule 5 of Conduct Rules Railway Servant (b)

a. Can be a member of Political Party b. Can not be a member of Political Party
c. none of these d. a&b
3). According to Rule -6 Railway Servant (b)
a. Can Criticize Govt. in public interest. b. Can not Criticize Govt. in public interest.
c. a&b d. none of these
4). According to Rule -13 A , of Services Conduct Rule a Railway Servant (c)
a. can not take dowry b. cannot accept dowry c. Both A& B d. none of these
5). According to Rule -13 A , of Services Conduct Rule a Railway Servant desires to file a
defamation suit in his private capacity, he is (a)
a. Required to obtain permission before filing suit b. No permission required before filing suit
c. both a&b d. none of these
6). Condition regarding sale and purchase of immovable property mentioned in (c)
a. Rule-7 b. Rule-9 c. Rule-18 d. none of these
7).On Sports Quota recruitment is made in ( c)
a. Group “B” b. Group “C” c. Group “C” & “D” d. none of these
8). Paternity leave can be sanctioned up to (c)
a. 12 days b.20 days c. 15 days. d. none of these
9). In respect of one disability special disability leave shall in no case exceed. (b)
a. 12 months b. 24 months c. 28 months d. none of these
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10). Railway servant working in administrative office is entitled for casual leave (b)
a. 12 days b. 08 days c. 11 days d. none of these
11).The distances of transferred stations of Railway employee are 2025 KMs. He is entitled for joining time?
(c)
a. 12 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. none of these
12). School; pass are granted according to (b)
a. Calendar Year b. Academic Year c. financial Year d. none of these
13).The weekly duty hours of a clerk in the administrative office is (a)
a. 42 Hours b. 45 Hours c.40 Hours d.48 Hours
14).A running staff after performing 9 hours duty is entitled to rest at Head Quarter (c)
15). The long on period in case of “continuous “staff is:
16 )Railway staff is eligible for TA/DA if he goes out of his head quarter (a)
a. beyond 8 KM b. beyond 6 KM c. beyond 10KM d. none of these
17).Railway servant shall be entitled to (b )
a. 15 days LAP in a Calendar Year b. 30 days LAP in a Calendar Year
c. 20 days LAP in a Calendar Year d. none of these
18). Maximum limit for accumulation of LHAP is (d)
a.240 days b. 180 days c. 300 days d. No limit for accumulation
19). Leave not due may granted to Railway Servant at a time

a.60 days b.90 days c. 360 days d. none of these
20).All kind of leave in one spell shall not exceed

a. 02 years b.04 years c.05 years d. none of these.
21).Maximum Hospital leave granted to Railway Servant in one spell
a. 24 months b.28 months c.12 months d. None of these
22). 04 set of PTO are admissible to
a. all groups b. Group A& B officers only c. Group A, B & C only d. None of these
23).Maximum dependent permissible in privilege pass
a. 2 b.3 c.4 d. none of these
24).The holder of Silver pass can travel in Ist AC (c)
a. Self only b. With his family up to 4 members. c. with wife d. None of these
25). Gazetted officer on retirement who completed of 26 years service eligible for post retirement complementary
passes.
a. 03 sets b.04 sets c. 06 sets d. none of these
26).Member ship for clubs & Institute in Division is (a)
a. Optional b. Compulsory
c. On some division optional and on some Division Compulsory d. None of these
27).Half day LAP is granted to (c)
a. Group C&D employees b. All Railway employees
c. Artisan staff of Workshop/Production unit d. None of these.
28).In which case special pass is not allowed
a. sports tournament b. Territorial Army c. Union meeting d. None of these
29).DRM is empowered to sanction special casual leave up to
a.90 days b.30 days c. 20 days d. None of these
30).For blood donation, special casual leave can be sanction for (c)
a.02 days b.03 days c. 01 day d.None of these
31).Group “C” &”D” employees are entitled for three sets of pass on
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a. On completion of 01 year service b. On completion of 01 years service
c. On completion of 05 years service d. None of these
32).Not entitle for running allowance (c)
a. Driver b. Shunter c. travelling ticket examiner d. Guard
33).Casual leave can be combined with

a. special casual leave b. LAP c. Hospital leave d. None of these
34).Female Railway servant entitled for maternity leave for (c)
a. 90 days b.120 days c.180 days d. None of these
35).Composite transfer grant is permissible if VPU is used
a. one month basic pay b. 80% of the basic pay c. 70 % of the basic pay d. None of these.
36).During special disability leave, full payment is made
a. First 04months b. First 5 months c. First 6 months d. None of these
37).Recruitment in Group D category from open market is to be done by
a. Divisional Office b. Railway Recruitment Board c. RRC d. None of these.
Page 127 of 160

2.STORES/PROCUREMENT
1. For best Inventory performance results we must combine ABC analysis & VED analysis.
Our first focus should be on
(A)
A. Vital & A items B. Vital & C items C. Desirable & A items D. Desirable & C items
2. Stores Directorate in Rly Board is under (A)
A. Member ( Mech ) B. Member ( Elect ) C. Member ( Staff ) D. Financial Commissioner
3. Why is the ABC analysis important (B)
A. for improving service level B. for improving financial performance
C. to improve the profits D. none of the above.
4. For the stores declared surplus by a depot, any returned stores are (C)
A. not to be accepted. B. to be sent to any other depot where they are required.
C. to be accepted but credit is given only for scrap value.
D. a high level committee is to be set up for taking a decision.
5. Indian Railway stores code is in how many Volumes ? (A)
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
6. The pre-check of the purchase order by accounts department is necessary if the value is More than (D)
A. Rs. 5,00,000/- B. Rs. 4,00,000/- C. Rs. 1,00,000/- D. above Rs. 7,00,000/-
7. Which one of the following system of codification is followed by Indian Railway for codification
of store items? (B)
A. Fully significant coding system B. Semi significant coding system
C. Non-significant coding system D. Color codification coding system
8. In Indian Railways the case is to be dealt by tender committee, when it is a case of (D)
A. Open tender B. Limited tender C. Bulletin tender D. High value tender
8. When the firms are selected and tender enquiry is sent to them, it is a case of (B)
A. Open tender B. Limited tender C. Bulletin tender D. Global tender
9. In Indian Railways the case is to be dealt by tender committee when the purchase value is
more than Rs. (D)
A. 10 lakhs B. 20 lakhs C.25 lakhs D. above 50 lakhs
10. In Indian Railways 'A' category items represent what percentage of total consumption value? (D)
A) 50 % B) 90% C) 65% D) 70%
11. PL No. of an item is 11360010. This item may be an item of (D)
A) Stationery B) Steam Locomotive C) Electrical item D) Diesel Locomotive
12. EOQ is the Quantity at which – (D)
A) Inventory carrying cost is maximum B) Warehousing cost is minimum

C) Inventory carrying cost + ordering cost is maximum
D) Inventory carrying cost + ordering cost is minimum
13. Tenders are to be invited for purchasing 12000 nos. of Chokes approx. rate of which is Rs. 90/- each. In this case
we will normally invite - (A)
A) Open tender B) Limited tender C ) Single tender D) No tender
14. In a PL No. the subgroup to which the item belongs to is represented by – (B)
A) First two digits B) 3rd and 4th digits C) 5th and 6th digits D) 2nd and 3rd digits
15. In ABC analysis of items, "A" category items represent (C)
A) Low consumption value items B) Important items
C) High Annual consumption value items D) High rate items
16. Buffer stock limit depends on – (A)
A) ABC classification of the item B) VED classification of the item
C) Combination of (A) & (B) D) Stock and Non-stock classification of the items
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17. Buffer stock is provided – (A)
A) To meet unforeseen requirement B) To supply items to other users
C) To make good shortfall due to theft, deterioration D) To have items out of stock
18. In a VED analysis "V" stands for – (C)
A) Vague items B) Very costly items C) Vital item D) Variety of items
19. Indication of value in the demand is necessary (D)
A) for posting in liability register / fund register B) for knowing the appropriate approving authority
C) for the payment to the supplier D) combination of (A) & (B)
20. Item not required for the purpose for which it was originally purchased is known as – (C)
A) Inactive item B) Scrap item C) Over stock item D) Emergent stock item
21. An item having regular turnover caused by constant demand will be known as – (A)
A) Ordinary Stock Item B) Emergency stock item C) Regular item D) Non- stock item
22. Inactive items are those stock items, stock of which (C)
A) is unserviceable B) more than 3 months old
C) has not been issued to any user for past 12 months D) is more than the requirement of next 24 months
23. Principal Head of Stores Department on a Zonal Railway is – (A)
A) Principle Chief Materials manager B) Chief Controller of Stores
C) Controller of Stores D) Chief Controller of Stores and Purchases
24. Processing of a tender case after the opening of tenders depends on – (C)
A) Estimated value of purchase B) Value of the case as per highest offer
C) Value of the case as per lowest offer D) None of the above
25. An offer received from the firm to whom no inquiry was sent is known as – (C)
A) Single offer; B) Delayed offer; C) Unsolicited offer; D) Unapproved offer
26. Only one offer received in respect to Limited/ Open tender is known as – (C)
A) Single tender; B) PAC offer; C) Single offer; D) Late offer
27. Proprietary Article certificate is to be issued for the item required to be purchased from - (A)
A) Single firm only B) RDSO approved firms only C) Approved firms only D) None of the above
28. Items not required by the user can be returned on (A)
A) Advice note for returned stores B) Requisition C) Minus issue note D) Indent
29. Ordinary scrap items are those items which are (A)
A) Of no use in the railway B) Retained for railway's use
C) To be sold to the staff D) To be sold by public auction
30. On a railway, the items have been classified as A, B, C and V, E, D. While designing stock level limits for various
items, we will provide to keep minimum safety stocks for – (A)
A) A-V Items C) C-V Items B) A- D Items D) C-D Items.
31. Materials not required are returned to the nominated stores depot as per stores code para number (B)
(a) S - 1539 (b) DS-8 (c) NS-11 (d) SS-11
32. Disposal of scrap may be done by (A)
(a) Auction (b) Sale by tender (c) Sale to other Govt. department and undertaking (d) All above.
33. Custody stores are the stores – (C)
(a) Which are kept under the custody of indentor (b) Custody stores are imprest stock items
(c) These are charged off stores but kept under the custody of stores depot awaiting future use.
(d) Custody stores are non-stock items which are surplus with the user
34. Standardisation helps in (D)
(a) Easy maintenance of equipment by suitable replacement
(b) It is easy for the supplier to manufacture the item with suitable technology
(c) Scale of economy can be achieved (d) All of them as above
35. PL No. of an item is 98-05-0400. This item may be an item of (D)
(a) Uniforms (b) Stationery (c) Steam Locomotive (d) Scrap
Page 129 of 160
3.विभागीय परीक्षाओं के लिए राजभाषा प्रश्न और उत्तर
Questions and Answers on Rajbhasha for Departmental
Examinations
1. भारत संघ की राजभाषा क्या है ? (ए)
What is the Official Language of the Union of India ?
उ: ए)दे िनागरी लिप में हहंदी बी)ब्रज भाषा सी) संस्कृत डी) ओडडया
Hindi/ in Devnagari Script.
2. संसद में संविधान का भाग XVII ककस तारीख़ को पाररत हुआ ? (ए)
On which date, Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament ?
उ: ए)14.09.1949.बी) 14.09.1950 सी) 14.09.1963 डी) 14.09.1976
3. राजभाषा अधधननयम 1963 कब पाररत हुआ ?

When was the Official Languages Act 1963 passed ? (बी)
उ: ए)10.05.1949 बी)10.05.1963 सी) 10.05.1952 डी) 10.05.1969
4. राजभाषा अधधननयम 1963 कब संशोधधत हुआ ?

When was the Official Languages Act 1963 amended ? (ए)
उ: ए)1967 बी)1963 सी)1964 डी)1976
5. राजभाषा ननयमों के तहत िगीकृत तीनों क्षेत्र कौन से हैं ? (ए)

What are all the three regions classified under Official Language Rules ?
उ: ए) ‘क’, ‘ख ’ ग’ बी) य, र, ि, सी) एक, दो, तीन डी) क और ख
‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ Regions.
6. हर साि ‘ हहंदी हदिस’ कब मनाया जाता है ? (ए)
When is ‘Hindi Day’ celebrated every year ?
उ: ए) लसतंबर 14 बी) जनिरी 26 सी) लसतंबर 24 डी) फरिरी 14
ए) September 14. बी)
7. राजभाषा ननयमों के अनस
ु ार, अंडमान और ननकोबार द्िीप समूह ककस क्षेत्र के अंतगगत आता है ?
(ए)
According to Official Language Rules, under which region Andaman & Nicobar Islands come?
उ: ए) ‘क’ बी) ख ) ग डी) य
ए) ‘A’ Region.
8. क्षेत्र ख’ के तहत िगीकृत केंद्र शालसत प्रदे श कौन से हैं? (ए)
Which are the Union Territories classified under Region ‘B’ ?
उ: ए)केंद्र शालसत प्रदे श चंडीगढ़, दादरा और नगर हिेिी और दमन और दीि बी) अंडमान और ननकोबार सी) श्रीिंका
डी) जम्मु और काश्मीर
ए)Union Territory of Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
Page 130 of 160
9. अरुणाचि प्रदे श की राजभाषा क्या है? (ए)
What is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh ?
उ: ए)अंग्रेजी बी) उदग ू सी) हहंदी डी) कश्मीरी
ए) English.
10 गैर-हहंदी भाषी िोगों को हदए गए आश्िासनों को कानन
ू ी रूप दे ने के लिए पाररत अधधननयम क्या
है ?
What is the Act passed to give legal form to the assurances given to Non-Hindi speaking people ? (ए)
उ: ए)राजभाषा (संशोधधत) अधधननयम –1967 बी) राजभाषा (संशोधधत) अधधननयम –1963
सी) राजभाषा (संशोधधत) अधधननयम –1957 डी) राजभाषा (संशोधधत) अधधननयम –1976
ए)Official Languages Act (Amended) –1967.
11. राजभाषा अधधननयम की धारा 3(3) कब से प्रभािी है ? (ए)
From when did the Section 3(3)of Official Languages Act take effect ?
उ: ए) 26 जनिरी 1965 बी) 26 फरिरी 1966 सी) 26 जनिरी 1972 डी) 26 जनिरी 1959
ए )26 January 1965.
12. राजभाषा अधधननयम 1963 की धारा (IV) ककससे संबंधधत है ? (ए)
With which Section (IV) of Official Languages Act 1963 is concerned ?
उ: ए)संसदीय राजभाषा लसलमत के गठन से संबंधधत है बी) संसद के गठन से संबंधधत है
सी)हहंदी को राजभाषा बनाने से संबंधधत है डी) राजभाषा के कायागन्ियन से संबंधधत है
ए) It is concerned with the Constitution of Parliamentary Committee on Official Languages.
13. राजभाषा नीनत की जानकारी दे ने िािे अनच्
ु छे द 343-351, संविधान के ककस भाग में है ?
(ए)
In which part of the Constitution are the Articles 343-351, that gave information about
Official Language available ?
उ: ए) भाग –XVII(सात िे भाग में) बी) भाग-VII(दस ू रा भाग) सी) भाग –XV(आठ िे भाग में)
डी) भाग –VII(पांच िे भाग में)
ए) Part XVII (In the Seventeenth Part).
14. राजभाषा अधधननयम 1963 की धारा 7 का संबंध ककसके साथ है ? (ए)
With which Section 7 of Official Languages Act 1963 is concerned ?
उ: ए) इसका संबंध उच्च न्यायाियों के ननणगयों में हहंदी या अन्य राजभाषा के िैकल्पपक उपयोग से है बी) इसका
संबंध केंद्र सरकार के कायागियों में हहंदी या अन्य राजभाषा के िैकल्पपक उपयोग से है सी) इसका संबंध राज्य
सरकार के कायागियों में हहंदी या अन्य राजभाषा के िैकल्पपक उपयोग से है डी) इसका संबंध केंद्र शालसत राज्यों के
कायागियों में हहंदी या अन्य राजभाषा के िैकल्पपक उपयोग से है .
It is concerned with the optional use of Hindi or other Official Language in Judgements in High
Courts.
15. राजभाषा अधधननयम 1963,की धाराएं 6 ि 7 ककस राज्य में िागू नहीं होती है ? (ए)
In which state, Sections 6 & 7 of Official Languages Act 1963 do not apply ?
उ: ए) जम्मू ि कश्मीर बी) तेिंगाना सी) हदपिी डी) तलमिनाडु
Jammu and Kashmir.
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16. ककन-ककन राज्यों में उदग ू को राजभाषा के रूप में घोवषत ककया गया है ? (ए)
In which states,Urdu has been declared as Official Language ?
उ: ए)आंध्र प्रदे श ि बबहार बी) तलमिनाडु ि केरिा सी) उत्तर प्रदे श ि हररयाणा डी) जम्मू -
कश्मीर ि हदपिी
ए)Andhra Pradesh & Bihar.
17. आठिीं अनुसूची में सल्म्मलित भाषाओं के नाम लिखें (ए)

please write the languages Available in the 8th schedule.
उ: ए)1. अलसमया, 2. बंगिा,3. गज
ु राती 4. हहंदी 5. कन्नडा 6. कशमीरी 7. कोंकणी 8. मियािम
9. लमणपुरी 10. मराठी11. नेपािी12. उडडया 13. पंजाबी 14. संस्कृत 15. लसंधी 16. तलमि
17. तेिुग1
ु 8 उदग ू 19. बोडो 20. संथािी 21. मैथिी
1. Assamese2. Bengali 3. Gujarati 4. Hindi5. Kannada6. Kashmiri7. Konkani8. Malayalam
9. Manipuri10. Marathi11. Nepali12. Odia13. Punjabi14. Sanskrit 15. Sindhi 16. Tamil 17. Telugu
Urdu 19. Bodo 20.Santhali 21. Mythili 22. Dogri.
18. ‘कृपया ‘बी' क्षेत्र के अंतगगत आने िािे राज्यों का उपिेख करें (ए)
Please mention the states coming under ‘B’ Region.
ए) गुजरात, महाराष्ट्र, पंजाब, चंडीगढ़, दादरा और नगर हिेिी तथा दमन और दीि बी) आंध्र प्रदे श,कनागटक, तलमिनाडु
सी)मध्यप्रदे श, केरिा.ओडडसा, डी)छत्तीसगड,उत्तर प्रदे श,राजस्थान
ए) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu.
19. ितगमान में संविधान की आठिीं अनस

ु ूची में ककतनी भाषाओं को सूचीबद्ध ककया गया
है ? (ए)
At present how many languages are enlisted in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution ?
उ: ए) 22 बी)24 सी)25 डी)28
20. संविधान के भाग V- में राजभाषा-नीनत संबंधधत उपबंध के ककस अनच् ु छे द में है? (ए)
In which Article is the provision regarding OL Policy available in Part-V of the Constitution ?
उ: ए)अनच्
ु छे द 120 बी) अनच् ु छे द 240 सी) अनच् ु छे द 100 डी) अनच्ु छे द 90
A) Article 120 B) Article / 240 C) Article / 100 D) Article / 90
21. संविधान की आठिीं अनस
ु ूची-संबंधी प्रािधान ल्जस में उपिब्ध है उस अनुच्छे द का नाम
बताइए (ए)
Name the article in which the provision of the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution is available.
उ: ए)अनुच्छे द 344(1) और 351 बी) अनुच्छे द 342(1) और 350 सी) अनुच्छे द 244(1) और 251
ए)Article/ 344 (1) and 351.
22. राजभाषा अधधननयम (1963) क्यों पाररत ककया गया? (ए)

Why was the OL Act 1963 passed ?
उ: ए)1965 के बाद भी हहंदी के साथ अंग्रेजी का उपयोग करने के लिए बी)1965 के बाद अंग्रेजी के उपयोग
को बंद करने के लिए सी)हहंदी के उपयोग को बंद करने के लिए डी)हहंदी और अंग्रेजी के उपयोग को तुरंत
बंद करने के लिए
To use English along with Hindi even after 1965.
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23. राजभाषा ननयम कब पाररत हुआ ? (ए)
When was the Official Language Rules passed ?
उ: ए)1976. बी) 1963 सी) 1981 डी) 1952
24. संविधान के भाग XVII में ककतने अनुच्छे द हैं ? (ए)
How many Articles are there in Part XVII of the Constitution ?
उ: ए) नौ बी) दस सी)आठ डी)सात
25. अनुच्छे द 344, के अनुपािन में राजभाषा आयोग का गठन कब ककया गया था? (ए)
In compliance of Article 344, when was the Official Language Commission formed ?
उ: ए) िषग 1955 में बी) िषग 1956 सी) िषग1963 डी) िषग 1976
26. राजभाषा आयोग का पहिा अध्यक्ष कौन था ? (ए)

Who was the First Chairman of the Official Language Commission ?
उ: ए)श्री बी.जी. खेर बी) श्री डॉ. अम्बेडकर सी) श्री जी.बी.पंत डी) श्रीमती सरोजनी नायुडु
27. राजभाषा आयोग की लसफाररशों पर विचार करने के लिए गहठत लसलमनत के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ? (सी)
Who was the First Chairman of the Committee which was formed on the recommendation of the Official
Language Commission ?
उ: ए)श्री बी.जी. खेर बी) श्री डॉ. अम्बेडकर सी) श्री जी.बी.पंत डी) श्रीमती सरोजनी नायुडु
Shri. G.B.Pant.
28. संविधान के अनुसार सांविधधक ननयम, विननयम और आदे शों का अनुिाद कौन करता है ? /
As per the Constitution, who is translating the statutory rules, regulations and orders ? (ए)
उ: ए)विधध मंत्रािय बी)गह
ृ मंत्रािय सी) रक्षा मंत्रािय डी) मानि संसाधन मंत्रािय
ए) Law Ministry.
29. 1965 तक भारत संघ के आधधकाररक उद्दे श्य के लिए राजभाषा और सहायक राजभाषा के रूप में कौनसी
भाषाओं का उपयोग ककया गया था? (ए)
Which was the main language and co-official language used for the Official Purpose of the Union of
India upto 1965 ?
उ: ए)अंगेज़ी - मुख्य राजभाषा तथा हहंदी–सहायक राजभाषा बी) हहंदी – मुख्य राजभाषा तथा
अंग्रेजी सहायक राजभाषा सी) अंगेज़ी - मुख्य राजभाषा तथा उदग –
ू सहायक राजभाषा डी)
संस्कृत मुख्य राजभाषा तथा हहंदी–सहायक राजभाषा
ए)English was the main language and Hindi was the co-official language.
30. भाग-VI में कौन-सा अनच् ु छे द है ? (ए)

Which Article comes under Part-VI ?
उ: ए)अनुच्छे द 210 बी) अनुच्छे द 370 सी) अनुच्छे द 375 डी) अनुच्छे द 209
ए)Article/ 210
31. िषग 1973 में गहठत प्रथम रे ििे हहंदी सिाहकर सलमनत की अध्यक्षता ककसने की? (ए)
Who chaired the First Railway Hindi Salahkaar Samiti constituted in 1973 ?
उ: ए)श्री िलित नारायण लमश्रा बी) श्री राजेद्र कुमार सी) श्री आर.के. नारायण डी)श्री अब्दि
ु
Page 133 of 160

किाम ए)Shri.Lalit Narayan Mishra.
32. िषग 1976 में धगठत संसदीय राजभाषा लसलमत के अध्यक्ष कौन थे ? (ए)
Who was the Chairman of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted in the
year 1976 ?
उ: ए)तत्कािीन गह ृ मंत्री श्री ओम मेहता बी) श्री िलित नारायण लमश्रा सी) श्री राजेद्र कुमार
डी) श्री आर.के. नारायण ए)The then Home Minister Shri.Om Mehta.
33. संसदीय राजभाषा लसलमत की कौनसी सलमनत मसौदा तैयार करती है ? (ए)
Which Committee of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language prepares the draft ?
उ: ए)संसदीय राजभाषा लसलमत की आिेख एिं साक्ष्य उप सलमनत बी) संसदीय राजभाषा
लसलमत सी) मसौदा सलमनत डी) नीनत सलमनत
ए)Drafting & Evidence Sub-Committee of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language.
34. के आदे श के अनप ु ािन में रे ििे बोडग द्िारा हहंदी सहायक का पद ककस िषग बनाया गया था ?
In which year the post of Hindi Assistant was created in Railway Board in compliance of President’s
Order ? (ए)
उ: ए)िषग 1952 में रे ििे बोडग की सामान्य शाखा द्िारा बी) िषग 1965 में सी) िषग 1976 डी)िषग 1956
ए)General Branch of Railway Board in the year 1952.
35. ककस िषग में रे ि बजट का हहंदी अनि ु ाद तैयार ककया गया था और रे ि मंत्री कौन थे?
In which year, the Hindi Translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the
Railway Minister ? (ए)
उ ए)िषग 1956,में स्िगीय श्री िाि बहादरु शास्त्री बी) िषग1956, में स्िगीय श्री अब्दि
ु
किाम अज़ाद सी) िषग1956, श्रीमती सरोल्जनी नायड
ु ु डी) िषग1956, ज्ञानी ज़ैिलसह
ए) In the year 1956, Late Shri.Lal Bahadur Shastri.
36. रे ििे बोड में हहंदी(संसद) अनुभाग का गठन कब हुआ था? (ए)
In which year, Hindi(Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board ?
उ: ए)िषग 1960 बी) िषग 1956 सी) िषग 1976 डी) िषग 1977
ए) In/ the year 1960.
37. राजभाषा संबंधी संसद की सलमनत की कौन-सी उप-सलमनत रे ििे मंत्रािय का ननरीक्षण
करती है? (ए)
Which Sub-Committee of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language inspects Railway
Ministry ?
उ: ए) दसू री उप समिति बी) पहिी उप सलमनत सी) तीसरी उपसलमनत डी) चौथी उप सलमनत
38 . रे ििे बोडग द्िारा हहंदी में काम करने के लिए कौनसी योजना िागू की गई है?
What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi ? (ए)
उ: ए)राजभाषा व्यल्क्तगत नकद पुरस्कार बी) राजीि गांधी पुरस्कार सी) राजभाषा शीपड
डी)गह
ृ मंत्रािय व्यल्क्तगत पदक (ए) /Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme.
39 राजभाषा विभाग के राभाकास से क्या मतिब है ? (ए)

What is the expansion for OLIC used by Dept. of Official Language
उ: ए)राजभाषा कायागन्ियन सलमनत बी)राजभाषा संसदीय सलमनत सी) राजभाषा गह
ृ मंत्रािय
Page 134 of 160

सलमनत डी) राजभाषा ननयम सलमनत ए) Official Language Implementation Committee.
40. केंद्रीय सरकार

3 के कमगचाररयों के लिए ककतने हहंदी पाठ्यक्रम ननधागररत हैं
How many. Hindi courses are prescribed for Central Govt. employees ? (ए)
उ: ए)तीन बी) चार सी) पांच डी) छ ए) Three.
4
41. केंद्रीय सरकार के कमगचाररयों के लिए ननधागररत प्रारं लभक हहंदी पाठ्यक्रम कौन सा है? (ए)
4
Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for Central Govt. employees ?
.
उ: ए)प्रबोध बी) प्रिीण सी) पारं गत डी) प्राथलमक
ए) Prabodh.
4
542. कद्र हहंदी सलमनत के अध्यक्ष कौन है ? (ए)
ें
. Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee ?
उ: ए)प्रधान मंत्री बी) मुख्य मंत्री सी) लशक्षा मंत्री डी)राज्य मंत्री ए) Prime Minister.
43. ककसी विशेष मंत्रािय / विभाग में हहंदी के प्रचार प्रसार में हुई प्रगनत की समीक्षा कौन सी सलमनत करती है (ए)
Which Committee reviews the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in a particular Ministry/Department ? (ए)
उ: ए) हहंदी सिाहकार सलमनत बी) हहंदी ननयम सलमनत सी)गह

ृ मंत्रािाय सलमनत
(डी) राजभाषा सलमनत ए)Hindi Salahkar Samiti.
44. ितगमान संसदीय राजभाषा सलमनत का गठन कब हुआ था?
When was the present Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted ? (ए)
उ: ए)जनिरी 1976 बी) जनिरी 1956 सी) जनिरी 1977 डी) जनिरी 1982
ए) January 1976.
45. राजभाषा की संसदीय लसलमत के ककतने सदस्य हैं? (ए)
How many members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language ?
उ: ए)30 बी) 40 सी) 50 डी)70
46. संसदीय राजभाषा लसलमत में िोक सभा के ककतने सदस्य हैं? (ए)
How many Lok Sabha members are there in the Committee of Parliament on Official Language ?
उ: ए)20 बी)31 सी)42 डी) 65.
47. कफिहाि राजभाषा की संसदीय सलमनत की ककतनी उप- सलमनतयां है? (ए)
At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official
Language ?
उ: ए)3 उप-सलमनतयां बी) 2 उप सलमनतयां सी) केिि 01 उप सलमनत डी)उक्त कोई नहीं
ए) 3 Sub-Committees.
48. संसदीय राजभाषा सलमनत का मुख्य कतगव्य क्या है? (ए)
What is the main duty of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language ?
उ. ए)हहंदी के प्रगामी उपयोग की समीक्षा करना बी) हहंदी के उपयोग को केिि क्रेंद्र में िागू करना
(सी) हहंदी के उपयोग को कम करना डी) हहंदी के प्रगामी उपयोग का प्रचार करना
Page 135 of 160

ए)To review the progressive use of Hindi.
49. प्रमुख शहरों में गहठत टाउन राजभाषा कायागन्ियन सलमनत के अध्यक्ष कौन हैं? (ए)
Who is the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee constituted in major cities ?
उ. ए) शहर के केंद्र सरकार के िररष्ट्ठ अधधकारी (बी) शहर के राज्य सरकार के िररष्ट्ठ अधधकारी
(सी) शहर के स्थाननक एमएिए (डी) शहर के स्थाननक एमपी
(ए)Senior most Central Government Officer of the city.
50.नगर राजभाषा कायागन्ियन सलमनत की बैठक की आिधधकता क्या है? (ए)
What is the periodicity of the meeting of Town Official Language Implementation
Committee ?
उ . ए)3 महीने में एक बार बी) 2 महीने में एक बार सी) 01महीने में एक बार
डी) 6महीने में एक बार ए)Once/ in 3 months.
51. राजभाषा का िावषगक कायगक्रम को कौन तैयार करता है ? (ए)

Who prepares the Annual Programme on Official Language ?
उ . ए) गह
ृ मंत्रािय बी) रे ि मंत्रािय सी)संसदीय सलमनत डी)नगर राजभाषा सलमनत
ए)Ministry of Home Affairs.
52. केंद्र सरकार के कमगचाररयों के लिए ननधागररत हहंदी पाठ्यक्रम क्या है? (ए)
What are the Hindi courses prescribed for Central Govt.employees ?
उ. ए)प्रबोध,प्रिीण और प्राज्ञा / Prabodh, Praveen & Pragya.
53. केंद्रीय सरकार के लिवपक संिगग कमगचाररयों के लिए ननधागररत अंनतम हहंदी पाठ्यक्रम कौन सा है ? (ए)
Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for clerical cadre employees of Central Govt.?
उ . ए) प्राज्ञा (Pragna ) बी) पारं गत सी) प्रबोध डी) विशारद
54. एक केंद्रीय सरकार के कमगचारी के लिए हहंदी पाठ्यक्रमों में प्रलशक्षक्षत होने के लिए उपिब्ध प्रलशक्षण
सुविधाएं क्या है ? (ए)
What are the training facilities available to a Central Govt. employee to get trained in the Hindi courses ?
उ . ए) ननयलमत, गहन, पत्राचार और ननजी पाठयक्रम बी) गहन पाठ्यक्रम सी) पत्राचार डी) ननयलमत
ए)Regular, Intensive, Correspondence and Private.
55. एक िषग में ककतनी बार ननयलमत हहंदी परीक्षा आयोल्जत की जाती है ? (ए)
How many times are the Regular Hindi examination conducted in a year ?
उ . ए)दो बार बी)तीन बार सी)चार बार डी) एक बार ए) 2 Times.
56. ननयलमत हहंदी परीक्षाएं ककन महीनों में आयोल्जत की जाती हैं? (ए)
In which months, Regular Hindi examinations are conducted ?
उ . ए)मई ि निंबर बी)जून ि जि ु ाई सी) अगस्त ि लसतंबर डी)हदसंबर-अप्रैि
ए) May & November.
57. हहंदी पाठ्यक्रमों में प्रलशक्षक्षत होने के लिए कौन पात्र हैं? (ए)
Who are eligible to be trained in the Hindi courses ?
उ . ए)केंद्र सरकार के तत
ृ ीय श्रेणी और उससे ऊपर के कमगचारी बी) केंद्र सरकार के द्वितीय श्रेणी और
उससे ऊपर के कमगचारी सी) प्रथम श्रेणी के कमगचारी डी) कोई नहीं
ए)Allthe Central Govt. employees in Class III and above.
58. श्रेणी ‘क’ के तहत कौन से कमगचारी िगीकृत हैं ? (ए)

Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘A’ ?
उ . ए) िे कमगचारी ल्जनकी मातभ ृ ाषा हहंदी या हहंदस्
ु तानी या उनकी बोिी है बी) ल्जनकी मातभ
ृ ाषा
बांग्िा है सी) ल्जनकी मातभ
ृ ाषा गुजराती है डी) ल्जनकी मातभ ृ ाषा तलमि है
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ए) Those employees whose mother tongue is Hindi or Hindustani or its dialect.
59. ‘कौन से कमगचारी‘ख’ श्रेणी के तहत िगीकृत हैं? (ए)
Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘B’ ?
उ . ए)िे कमगचारी ल्जनकी मातभ ृ ाषा उदग,ू पंजाबी, कश्मीरी, पुश्तो, लसंधी या अन्य संबद्ध भाषाएँ हैं बी) िे कमगचारी
ल्जनकी मातभ ृ ाषा हहंदी या हहंदस्
ु तानी या उनकी बोिी है सी) ल्जनकी मातभ ृ ाषा गुजराती है डी) कोई नहीं
ए)Those employees whose mother tongue is Urdu, Punjabi, Kashmiri, Pushto, Sindhi or other allied languages.
60. ‘कौन से कमगचारी‘ ग ’श्रेणी में आते हैं? (ए)

Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘C’ ?
उ . ए) ल्जनकी मातभृ ाषा मराठी, गजु राती, बंगािी, उडडया या असलमया है बी)ल्जनकी मातभ ृ ाषा तेिुगु है
सी) ल्जनकी मातभृ ाषा कन्नड है डी) उक्त कोई नहीं
Those employees whose mother tongue is Marathi, Gujarati, Bengali, Oriya or Assamese.
61. ‘कौन से कमगचारी ग ’श्रेणी में आते हैं? (ए)

Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘D’ ?
उ . ए)िे कमगचारी जो दक्षक्षण भारतीय भाषा या अंग्रेजी बोिते हैं बी) जो भारतीय भाषा बोिते हैं
सी) िे कमगचारी जो हहंदी बोिते हैं डी)उक्त कोई नही
Those employees who speak a South Indian Language or English.
62. श्रेणी ’सी’ के कमगचारी को ककस पाठ्यक्रम से प्रलशक्षक्षत होना आिश्यक है? (ए)
From which course a Category ‘C’ employee is required to be trained ?
उ . ए) प्रिीण बी) पारं गत सी) प्रबोध डी) प्रज्ञा ए) Praveen.
63. श्रेणी ’घ’ के कमगचारी को ककस पाठ्यक्रम से प्रलशक्षक्षत होना आिश्यक है? (सी)
From which course a Category ‘D’ employee is required to be trained ?
उ . ए) प्रिीण बी) पारं गत सी) प्रबोध डी) प्रज्ञा सी) Prabodh.
67. प्रज्ञा को पास करने के लिए एकमुश्त पुरस्कार क्या है ? (ए)
What is the lumpsum award for passing Pragya ?
उ. ए) रु 2400/- बी) रु 2800/- सी)रु 3200/- डी)रु 4600/--
उ . सामूहहक नकद पुरस्कार योजना के तहत प्रथम पुरस्कार के लिए नकद पुरस्कार रालश क्या है?
(ए) What is the Cash Award amount for the first prize under Collective Cash award Scheme ?
उ . ए) रु 1500/- बी) 2000 रुपए सी)1000 रुपए डी) कोई नहीं
68. सामूहहक नकद पुरस्कार योजना के तहत द्वितीय पुरस्कार के लिए नकद पुरस्कार रालश ककतनी है?
(ए) What is the Cash Award amount for the second prize under Collective Cash award Scheme ?
उ . ए) रु.1200/- बी) रु.1500 सी)1000 रु/- डी)1600रु/-
69. सामूहहक नकद पुरस्कार योजना के तहत तीसरे पुरस्कार के लिए नकद पुरस्कार रालश ककतनी है? (ए)
What is the Cash Award amount for the third prize under Collective Cash award Scheme ?
उ . ए)800 रु बी)1000/-रु सी)1200/-रु डी) कोई नहीं
70. एक इकाई में 10,000 से अधधक शब्द लिखने के लिए एक िषग में ककतने प्रथम पुरस्कार हदए
जाते हैं? (ए)
How many first prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit ?
उ . ए) दो/Two बी) चार सी) पांच डी) कोई नहीं
71. एक इकाई में 10,000 से अधधक शब्द लिखने के लिए एक िषग में ककतने द्वितीय पुरस्कार
Page 137 of 160
हदए जाते हैं? (ए)
How many second prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit ?
उ . ए)तीन/Three बी) चार सी)पांच डी)कोई नहीं
72. एक इकाई में 10,000 से अधधक शब्द लिखने के लिए एक िषग में ककतने तत ृ ीय पुरस्कार हदए
जाते हैं? (ए)
How many third prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit ?
उ . ए)पांच/Five बी) चार सी)पांच डी)कोई नहीं
73. ककस क्रम में नाम, पदनाम और साइन बोडग प्रदलशगत ककए जाने हैं? (डी)
In which order Name, Designation and Sign Boards are to be exhibited ?
उ . ए)प्रादे लशक भाषा बी) हहंदी सी) अंग्रेजी डी) उक्त ए,बी,सी क्रम में
74. आम जनता द्िारा प्रयक् ु त ककए जाने िािे फामग ककस भाषा में तैय्यार ककया जाना है (ए)
ए) बत्रभाषी रूप (1 प्रदे लशक 2.हहंदी 3.अंग्रेजी (बी) केिि हहंदी सी) अंग्रेजी डी) प्रदे लशक
ए)Trilingual form (1.Regional Language 2.Hindi 3.English).
75. रबर स्टै म्प ककस क्रम में तैयार ककए जाने हैं?/ In which order Rubber
Stamps are to be prepared ? (ए)

उ . ए) हहंदी-अंग्रेजी द्विभाषी-एक पंल्क्त हहंदी और एक पंल्क्त अंग्रेजी बी) दोनो पंल्क्तयां अंग्रेजी में सी)
दोनो पंल्क्तयां हहंदी में डी) कोई नहीं
ए) Hindi-English Bilingual from-one line Hindi and one line English.
76. ननजी अध्ययन द्िारा प्रबोध, प्रिीण और प्रज्ञा को उत्तीणग करने के लिए पुरस्कार की रालश ककतनी है?(ए)
Amount of lumpsum award for passing Prabodh, Praveen and Pragya by private study.
ए)प्रबोध/ Prabodh रु1600/-प्रिीण/ Praveenरु1500/-प्राज्ञा/Pragya रु 1200/- प्रत्येक के
बी)प्रबोध/ Prabodh रु1200/-प्रिीण/ Praveenरु1300/-प्राज्ञा/Pragya रु 1100/- प्रत्येक के लिए
सी) प्रबोध/ Prabodh रु800/-प्रिीण/ Praveenरु850/-प्राज्ञा/Pragya रु 600/- प्रत्येक के For each.
77.ननजी अध्ययन द्िारा हहंदी टं कण परीक्षा उत्तीणग करने के लिए प्राप्त होनेिािी एकमुश्त पुरस्कार रालश क्या है ?
उ . What is the lumpsum award for passing Hindi TypewritingExamination by private study ? (ए)
उ. ए)रु 1600/- बी) रु 1400/- सी)1300/- डी) रु 1100/-
78. आठिीं अनुसूची में शालमि विदे शी भाषा क्या है ? What is the Foreign Language included in the Eight
Schedule ? (ए)
ए)नेपािी बी) बंगिा सी) भोजपुरी डी) तुिु ए)Nepali.
79. कौन सा मंत्रािय/कायागिय केंद्रीय सरकार के कमगचाररयों के लिए परीक्षा का आयोजन करता है ? (ए)
Which Ministry /Office is conducting the exams. for the Central Govt. employees ?
उ . ए)गहृ मंत्रािय के अधीन हहंदी लशक्षण योजना बी) रे ि मंत्रािय के अधीन हहंदी लशक्षण योजना
सी) लशक्षा मंत्रािय के अधीन हहंदी लशक्षण योजना डी)कोई नहीं
उ . ए)/Hindi Teaching Scheme under Home Ministry.
80.एकमुश्त पुरस्कार के लिए कौन पात्र है /Who is eligble for lumpsum award ? (ए)
उ . ए)िे कमगचारी जो ननजी प्रयासों से हहंदी की परीक्षा पास करते हैं बी) िे कमगचारी जो विभागीय प्रयासों
से हहंदी की परीक्षा पास करते हैं सी) केंद्र सरकार के सभी कमगचारी डी) हहंदी परीक्षा पास करनेिािे केंद्र
सरकार के सभी कमगचारी
Page 138 of 160
(ए)Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by private efforts.
81. स्टे शन की घोषणाएँ ककस क्रम में की जाती हैं? (ए)

In which order are the Station announcements made ?
उ . ए)बत्रभाषी (क्षेत्रीय, हहंदी और अंग्रेजी) बी)द्विभाषी(हहंदी और अंग्रेजी)
सी) केिि हहंदी डी)ककसी भी भाषा में ए)Trilingual ( Regional, Hindi & English)
82.रूफबोडग को ककस अनप ु ात में प्रदलशगत ककया जाना है? (ए)
In which proportion the Roof Board has to be displayed ?
उ . ए)समान अनुपात में-बत्रभाषा (क्षेत्रीय, हहंदी और अंग्रेजी) बी)दो समान भागों में
सी)ककसी भी अनप ु ात में डी) केिि क्षेत्रीय भाषा में
ए) In equal proportion-Trilingual (Regional, Hindi & English).
83.रे न का पैनि बोडग ककस प्रकार प्रदलशगत ककया जाना है ? (ए)
How the Panel Board of a train has to be displayed ?
उ . ए)बत्रभाषी (क्षेत्रीय, हहंदी और अंग्रेजी) में बी)द्विभाषी((क्षेत्रीय, हहंदी) में
सी) द्विभाषी(( हहंदी और अंग्रेजी में) डी)ककसी भी भाषा में
ए) In Trilingual ( Regional, Hindi & English).
84. व्यल्क्तक िेतन के लिए कौन पात्र हैं? (ए)

Who all are eligble for Personal Pay ?
उ. ए)केंद्र सरकार के एचटीएस द्िारा आयोल्जत प्रज्ञा परीक्षा या ननधागररत परीक्षा उत्तीणग करने
पर,केंद्र सरकार द्िारा कुछ श्रेणणयों के लिए ननहदगष्ट्ट% अंकों को प्राप्त करने पर बी) प्रिीण
परीक्षा पास करने पर सी) पारं गत परीक्षा पास करने पर डी कोई नहीं
ए)passing Pragya Examination organized by the HTS of the Central Government or on passing the
prescribed exam. Duly securing the specified % of marks for certain categories by the Central Government.
85. हहंदी िातागिाप पाठ्यक्रम में प्रलशक्षण िेने के लिए कौन पात्र हैं? (ए)
Who are eligible to undergo training in Hindi conversation course ?
उ . ए) सभी ओपन िाइन कमगचारी (क्िास- IV सहहत) जो सीधे जनता के संपकग में आते हैं बी) केंद्र
सरकार के सभी कमगचारी सी)
All the open line staff (including Class-IV) who come in contact with public directly.
86. केंद्र सरकार के अधधकारी/कमचाररयों को हहंदी प्रलशक्षण क्यों हदया जाता है ? (ए)
Why training in Hindi is imparted to Central Government Officers/Employees?
उ . ए) ताकक िे हहंदी में अपना दै नंहदन काम करें बी) ताकक उन के िेतन में िद्
ृ धध हो
सी) ताकक पदोन्ननत लमिे डी) कोई नहीं
ए)By which they can do their day-to-day work in Hindi.
87. हहंदी िातागिाप पाठ्यक्रम की अिधध क्या है ? / What is the duration for Hindi conversation
course ? (ए)
उ. ए) 30 घंटे बी) 20 घंटे सी) 40 घंटे डी) कोई नहीं ए)30 Hrs.
89. हहंदी कायगशािा में प्रलशक्षण िेने के लिए कौन पात्र है? Who are eligible to undergo training in Hindi
Workshop ? (ए)
उ . ए)सभी ग्रप
ू -III और राजपबत्रत कमगचारी ल्जन्हें हहंदी का कायग साधक ज्ञान/प्रिीणता प्राप्त है . बी)
सभी केंद्र सरकार के कमगचारी सी) केिि ग्रप
ू - सी िगग के कमगचारी डी) केिि अधधकारी
Page 139 of 160

88. एक आशुलिवपक, ल्जसकी मातभ ृ ाषा हहंदी नहीं है , को हहंदी आशुलिवपक परीक्षा उत्तीणग करने पर
व्यल्क्तक िेतन ककतना हदया जाता है? (ए)
What is the Personal Pay given for passing Hindi Stenography , to a stenographer
whose mother tongue is not Hindi ?
उ . ए)12 महीने की अिधध के लिए 2 िेतन िद् ृ धधयों के बराबर व्यल्क्तगत िेतन
बी) 1200/रु प्रनत माह सी) दो िषों की अिधी के लिए 01 िेतन िद्
ृ धध के बराबर डी) कोई नहीं
ए)Personal Pay equivalent to 2 increment for a period of 12 months.
89. हहंदी टाइवपंग / स्टे नो द्िारा ककया जाने िािे हहंदी टाइवपंग के कायग की मात्रा हहंदी प्रोत्साहन भत्ता के लिए पात्र
बनने के लिए क्या होनी चाहहए ? (ए)
What is the quantum of Hindi Typing work to be done by a Typist/Steno to become eligible for Hindi
incentive allowance ?
उ . ए)हहंदी में प्रनतहदन 5 नोट या नतमाही में 300 नोट बी) हहंदी में प्रनतहदन 01 नोट या नतमाही में
100 नोट सी) हहंदी में प्रनतहदन 03 नोट या नतमाही में 200 नोट डी) कोई नहीं
ए)5 Notes in Hindi in a day or 300 notes in Hindi in a quarter.
90.90% या उस से अधधक और 95% से कम अंक लसहत हहंदी टं कण पास करने पर लमिने िािा नकद
पुरस्कार क्या है ? What is the amount of Cash Award for passing Hindi Typing with 90% or more but less
than 95% marks ? (ए)
उ . ए) रु 400/- बी) 600 रु/- सी) 700/- रु
91.हहंदी आशुलिवप में 95% से अधधक अंक प्राप्त करने पर ककतना नकद पुरस्कार लमिेगा
What is the amount for passing Hindi Stenography with 95% or more marks ? (ए)
उ . ए) रु1200/- बी) 1500 रु/- सी) 1800/- रु डी) उक्त कोई नहीं
92. अंशकालिक हहंदी पुस्तकपाि को हदया जाने िािा मानदे य क्या है ? (ए)
What is the honorarium amount given to Part-time Hindi Librarian ?
उ. ए) रु 500/- प्रनत माह बी) 1000/- रु प्रनत माह सी) 200/- रु प्रनतमाह Per month डी) कोई नहीं
93. हहंदी आशुलिवप परीक्षा पास करने पर लमिने िािा एकमुश्त पुरस्कार ककतना है ? (ए)
What is the lumpsum award given for passing Hindi Stenography Examination ?
उ . ए) हहंदी आशुलिवप रु 1500/- बी) हहंदी आशुलिवप रु 1100/- सी) हहंदी आशुलिवप रु 2000/-डी) कोई नहीं
ए) Hindi Stenography R0 1500/-
Page 140 of 160

BASIC KONOWLEDGE ON COMPUTERS
1. WWW stands for? (D)
A. World Whole Web B. Wide World Web C. Web World Wide D. World Wide Web
2. Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU) ? (B)
A. Arithmetic logic unit, Mouse B. Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit

C. Arithmetic logic unit, Integrated Circuits D. Control Unit, Monitor
3. Which among following first generation of computers had? (A)
A. Vaccum Tubes and Magnetic Drum B. Integrated Circuits

C. Magnetic Tape and Transistors D. All of above
4. Where is RAM located? (C)
A. Expansion Board B.External Drive C. Mother Board D. All of above
5. If a computer has more than one processor then it is known as? (B)
A. Uniprocess B. Multiprocessor C. Multithreaded D. Multiprogramming
6. If a computer provides database services to other, then it will be known as ? (C)
A. Web server B. Application server C. Database server D.FTP server
7. Full form of URL is ? (A)
A. Uniform Resource Locator B. Uniform Resource Link

C. Uniform Registered Link D. Unified Resource Link
8. In which of the following form, data is stored in computer? (B)
A. Decimal B. Binary C. Hexa Decimal D. Octal
9. Technology used to provide internet by transmitting data over wires of telephone network is? (D)
A. Transmitter B. Diodes C.HHL D. DSL
10. Which level language is Assembly Language? (C)
A. high-level programming language B.Medium-level programming language

C. low-level programming language D. Machine language
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11. Documents, Movies, Images and Photographs etc are stored at a ? (D)
A. Application Sever B. Web Sever C. Print Server D. File Server
12. Which of following is used in RAM? (B)
A. Conductor B. Semi Conductor C. Vaccum Tubes D. Transistor
13. What is full form of GUI in terms of computers? (D)
A. Graphical user Instrument B. Graphical unified Interface

C. Graphical unified Instrument D. Graphical user Interface
14. What is full form of ALU? (A)
A. Arithmetic logic unit B. Allowed logic unit C. Ascii logic unit D. Arithmetic least unit
15. Who was the Founder of Bluetooth? (A)
A. Ericson B. Martin Cooper C. Steve Jobs D. Apple
16. Who was the father of Internet? (B)
A. Chares Babbage B. Vint Cerf C. Denis Riche D.Martin Cooper
17. Verification is process of? (D)
A. Access B. Login C. Logout D. Authentication
18. What is LINUX ? (B)
A. Malware B. Operating System C. Application Program D. Firmware
19. What is the name of first super computer of India? (B)
A. Saga 220 B. PARAM 8000 C.ENIAC D.PARAM 6000
20. Which is most common language used in web designing? (D)
A. C B.C++ C.PHP D.HTML
21. Full form of RAM is ? (C)

A. Read access Memory B. Read alternative Memory C. Random Access Memory
D. Random alternative Memory
Page 142 of 160

22. LED stands for _____ (C)
A. Laser Emitting Diode B. Light Emitting Device C. Light Emitting Diode
D. Laser Emitting Device
23. What is the short cut for copying in MS - Word ? (D)

A. CTRL + V B. CTRL + X C. CTRL + Z D. CTRL + C
24. What is the shortcut for saving in MS – Word ? (B)

A. CTRL + P B. CTRL + C. CTRL + A D. CTRL +R
25.In 48 MP camera, what does MP stand for ? (D)

A. Micro pixel B. Mini pixel C. Mega picture D. Mega pixel
26. Who is the founder of “Facebook” ? (C)

A. Steve Jobs B. Bill Gates C. Mark Zuckerberg D. Evan Spiegal
27. Gigabite is equal to ______ MB. (B)

A. 10240 B. 1024 C. 124 D. 102400
28. If HDD is Hard Disk Drive, What does SSD stands for? (D)
A. Solid Storage Disk B. Solid State Disk C. Solid Storage Drive D. Solid State Drive
29. What is the short cut for “paste “in MS - Word? (B)
A. CTRL +Z B. CTRL + V C. CTRL+P D. CTRL+C
30.What is the fill form of PDF ? (C)

A. Published Document Format B. Printed Document Format
C. Portable Document Format D. Public Domain Format
31. HTTP stands for _________ ? (B)

A. Hyper Text Manipulation Language B. Hyper Text Markup Language
C. Hybrid Text Markup Language D . None of These
32. Which of these is not a social medial application ? (B)

A. Facebook B. Twitter C. Firefox D. Instagram
Page 143 of 160
33. What is the full form of “Cc ” in e- mail ? (C)
A. Complete Copy B. Cache Copy C. Carbon Copy D. Carbon Code
34. “.docx “ is the file extension for ? (C)

A. MS Excel B. MS Power point C. MS Word D. MS Access
35. Deleted mails go into which folder in e-mail? (B)

A. Spam B. Draft C. Trash D. Starred
Page 144 of 160

ENGINEERING DRAWING
1. Trimmed size of Ao drawing sheet . Ans:A A)841x1189
B)880x1230 c) 420x594 D) 450x625
2. trimmed size of A1 drawing sheet . Ans:B A)625x850
B)594x841 C) 297x420 D) 330x450
3. trimmed size of A2 drawing sheet. Ans:A A)420x594
B)841x1189 C) 625x880 D) 880x1230
4. trimmed size of A2 drawing sheet. Ans:C A)330x450
B)210x297 C) 297x420 D) 330x450
5. trimmed size of A2 drawing sheet. Ans:A A)210x297
B)240x330 C) 594x841 D) 147x210
6) Recommended boarder as per BIS specification for A4 size drawing sheet B
A) 5 mm B) 10mm C) 15mm D) 20mm
7) Title block is provided in the drawing sheet at B
A) Left side at the bottom B) Right side at the bottom C) Right side at the top D) Left side at the
top
8) When the projections is parallel to each other and also perpendicular to the projection plane it is called
D
A) Perspective projection B) oblique projection C) isometric projection D) orthographic

Projection
9) In first angle projection the plan comes to the elevation C a.above
b.left side c.below d.right side
11. In first angle projection the object is kept in the quadrant A a.first
b.second c.third d.fourth
12. In third angle projection the object is kept in the quadrant C a.first
b.second c.third d.fourth
13. In the third angle projection plan comes the elevation A
a. above b. below c. left side d. right side

Page 145 of 160
14. In the first angle projection the view of the object observed from the right side drawn A To the
side of the elevation.
a. Left b. right c. top d. below
15. In third angle projection the view of the object observed from the right side drawn to the elevation B
a. left b. right c. top d. below
16. Symbol of third angle projection
a.
17. Sketching is a D
a. scale drg b. correct drg c. isometric drg d. free hand drg.
18. for initial work and constructional lines pencil used C
a. 3H b. 2H c. H d. HB
19. Writing of titles of notes on a drg. Is called B
a. spacing b. lettering c. shading d. sizing
20. in dimensioning system the dimension is placed perpendicular to the dimension line D
a. uni directional b. perpendicular c. vertical d. aliened
21. in dimensioning system the dimension lines are broken nearly middle for insisting
dimensions B
a. Brake b. uni directional c. vertical d. horizontal
22. Is the symbol of B
a. radius b. diameter c. millimeters d. centimeters
23. octogan is having sides D
a. 5 b.6 c. 7 d. 8
24. invisible features of an object is shown by C
a. straight lines b. thick lines c. hidden lines d. thin lines
25. centre line is shown as D
a. - - - - - b. . . . . . . c. d. ---------
Page 146 of 160

26. The distance between the two corresponding breads is called A
a. pitch b. lead c. flank d. length
27. in a single start bread pitches equal to A
a. lead b. 2L c. 3L d. 4L
28. in double start bread P is equal to B
a. L b. 2L c. 3L d. 4L
29. Wing nut is used in C
a. automobiles b. cars c. hallow frame d. hammer
30. this fig represents A
a. Tapped hole
31. this fig represents C
a. bolt b. screw c. stud d. rod
32. basic dimension is also called ` D
a. actual dimension b. max dimension c. minimum dimension d. nominal dimension
33. the algebraic difference between the max size & basic size is called B
a. lower deviation b. upper deviation c. max limit d. min limit
34. The algebraic difference between the minimum limit and the basic size is called A
a.Lower deviation b.Upper deviation c.maximum limit d.tolerance
35. In the tolerance system the holes are represented by B a.Small
letters b.Capital letters c.Numbers d.Symbols
36. In the tolerance system the shafts are represented by B a.Small
letters b.Capital letters c.Numbers d.Symbols
37. 25+/- 0.02 is called B
a.unilateral tolerance b. bilateral tolerance c.Basic tolerance d.maximum size
38. 25+0.02 is called A
Page 147 of 160

a.unilateral tolerance b. bilateral tolerance c.Basic tolerance d.maximum size
39. surface roughness is expressed by C
a.symbol b.Letter c.Ra value d.waviness
40. PCD stands for C
a.poly centre diameter b.plain center diameter c.pitch circle diameter

d.Primary circle diameter
41. CAD means C
a. computer automatic design b. common area design c. common area design d.computer
aided delivery
42. ICG stands for A
a. Interactive computer graphics b.international computer graphics

c.internal computer graphics d.indian computer graphics
43. CAM stands for B
a.Computer advanced manufacturing b.computer aided manufacturing computer
assembly manufacturing d.computer access manufacturing
44. Auto cad is used for B
a.manufacturing b.drafting c.simulation d.programming
45. CNC stands for B
a.central numerical control b.computer numerical control c. computer number control
d.computer notes control
46. The taper on a shaft is indicated along the B
a.dashed line b.center line c.base line d.out line
47. In isometric projection the block is kept at an angle of A
a.30 degrees b.45 degrees c.60 degrees d.90 degrees
48. The included angle of a circle is D
a.90 degrees b.60 degrees c.30 degrees d.360 degrees
49. this is the symbol of A
Page 148 of 160

A.Earthing b.Push button c.choke d.Transformer
50. One inch is equal to B
a.25 mm b.25.4 cm c. 25.4 mm d.25 cm
51. which one of the following symbols indicates the finest surface D
a. b. c d
. .
52. this symbol represents B
a.NPN transistor b.PNP transistor c.PPN transistor d.NPP transistor
53. IRS stands for C
a.internal railway standars b.international rail standards c.indian railway standards
d.indian railway system
54. This fig.represents D
a.Spur gear b.hillical gear c.Cam d.Bevel gear
55. RDSO stands for
a.Research standards& development organisation
b. Research design & standards organisation
c. Research development & standards organisation
d. Railway design & standards organisation
Page 149 of 160

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
01 Hard water contains Ans: D

a. Calcium Carbonate B. Magnesium sulphate C. Magnesium Carbonate D. All the above.
02. Maximum permissible color for domestic supplies , based on cobalt scale is: Ans: D
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 25
03. The largest source of water for public water is : Ans: C

a. Lakes B. Ponds C. Streams D. Rivers
04. On pH scale, maximum alkaline has the value of: Ans: C

A. 5 B. 7 C.14 D. 21
05. Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove: Ans: D

A. Turbidity B. Odor C. Color D. Bacteria
06. The temporary hardness of water can be removed by Ans: A

A. Boiling B. Adding lime C. Adding alum D. Filtration.
07. The pH value of neutral water is Ans: C

a. 0 B. 5 C. 7 D. 14
08. The hardness limit of potable water ranges between: Ans: B

A. 50 to 75 ppm B. 75 to 115 ppm C. 115 to 150 ppm D. 150 to 200 ppm
09. The permissible nitrites in public water supplies should be Ans: A

A. Nil B. 0.5 ppm C. 1 ppm D. 1.5 ppm
10. Biological Oxygen Dem and (BOD) for safe drinking water must be Ans: A
A. Nil B. 5 C. 10 D. 15
11. The bacteria which can survive with or without free oxygen is known as: Ans: C
A. Aerobic bacteria B. Anaerobic bacteria C. Facultative bacteria D. Pathogenic bacteria
12. For controlling algae, the most common Chemical used is : Ans: C
A. Copper Sulphate B. Alum C. Lime D. Bleaching powder
13. The permissible pH value of drinking water should be between: Ans: C

A. 4.5 to 5.5 B. 5.5 to 6.5 C. 6.5 to 8.5 D. 8.5 to 10.5
14. Aeration is done to remove: Ans: A

Page 150 of 160
A. Odor B. Color. C. Hardness D. Turbidity.
15. A plain sedimentation tank can remove suspended impurities up to Ans: B

A. 60% B. 70% C. 80% D. 90%
16. Detention period for a plain sedimentation tank usually ranges from: Ans: B
A. 2 to 4 hrs. B. 4 to 8 hrs C. 8 to 12 hrs. D. 12 to 14 hrs
17. the most common coagulant is Ans: B

A. Chlorine B. Alum C. Lime D. Bleaching powder
18. To remove very fine suspended particles from water , the method adopted is Ans: D
A. Screening B. Sedimentation C. Titration D. Filtration
19. The maximum permissible loss of head in rapid sand filter is Ans: C
A. 1 B.2 C. 3 D. 4
20. In rapid sand filter the air binding is caused due to Ans: A
A. Negative pressure B. Water Pressure C. Vacuum Pressure D. Atmospheric Pressure
21. Rapid Gravity sand filter can remove bacteria upto Ans: D
A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%
22. Rapid Gravity can remove turbidity upto Ans: D

A. 15 gms /ltr. B. 20 gms /ltr C.30 gms/ltr D.40 gms/ltr
23. Disinfection of water is done by

A. Alum B. potassium permanganate C. Chlorine D. Zinc oxide
Ans: C
24. The Chlorine gas is converted to liquid when subjected to a pressure of: Ans: C
A.5kg/cm2 B.6 kg/cm2 C. 7 kg/cm2 D. 8 kg/cm2
25. Raw water when treated with only chlorine is known as: Ans: A
A.Plane chlorination B.pre-chlorination C.post- Chlorination D.Super Chlorination
26. In plane chlorination the quantity of chlorine added is Ans: D

A.0.25mg/lit B.0.30 m/lit C.0.45 m/lit D. 0.50 m/lit
27. Hardness of water can be removed by boiling if it contains Ans: A

A.Calcium bicarbonate B.calcium sulphate C.calcium Chloride D.Calcium Fluoride
28. One degree hardness means when water has a salt of amount Ans: C
A.1.25 m/lit B.12.25 m/lit C.14.25 m/lit D.16.25 m/lit
29. The maximum permissible hardness for public consumption is Ans: C

A. 95 m/lit B. 105 m/lit C. 115 m/lit D. 125 m/lit
Page 151 of 160

30. Permanent Hardness of water can be removed by Ans: D
A.Coagulation process B.chlorination Process C.Filtration Process D.Zeolite Process
31. The quantity of fluoride permitted in drinking water is Ans: A

A.1 m/lit B.2 m/lit C.3 m/lit D.4 m/lit
32. The liquid waste from kitchen and bathroom is called as Ans: B
A.sewage B.Sullage C.storm Water D. waste water.
33. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers is Ans: B

A.Carbondioxide B.Methane C.Carbon monoxide D.hydrogen sulphide
34. In sludge digestion tank, the gas produced is Ans: C

A.Oxygen B.nitrogen C.Carbondioxide D.methane
35. The removal of oil and greaser from sewage is known as Ans: B
A.Screening B.Skimming C.filtration D. Sedimentation
36. The water having pH-value 5,is known as Ans: B

A.Alkaline B.Acidic C.neutral D.all of the above
37. Recuperation test is carried out to determine Ans: C
A. water table in well B. Depth of water in Well C. yield of well D. none
38. The presence of bi carbonates in water produce Ans: B
A.Permanent hardness B.temporary hardness C.acidity D.Alkalinity
39. The presence of carbonates in water produce Ans: B

A. Acidity B. permanent Hardness C. Alkanity D. temporary hardness
40. Chlorination is done for the removal of Ans: A

A. Bacteria B. Hardness C. turbidity D Colour
41. Alum is a good : Ans: B
A.disinfectant B.coagulant C. Catalyst D. Oxydant
42. Pathogenic bacteria in water may cause Ans: D

A. typhoid B. cholera C. dysentry D.All the above
43. The sludge from septic tank should be removed after a max .period of Ans: B
A.2yrs B.3yrs C.4yrs D.5yrs
44. The rate of accumulation of sludge per person per year is taken as Ans: C
A.5ltrs B.10ltrs C.15ltrs D.20ltrs
45. The average domestic consumption of water per capita per day is taken as Ans: C
A.115ltrs B.125ltrs C.135ltrs D.150ltrs
Page 152 of 160

GENERAL MATHEMATICS
1.The value of x2 - 5 at x= -1 is- (C)

A. -2 B. -1
C. -4 D. -5
2. What is the value of 5x25 - 3x32 + 2x-12 at x=1? (C)
A. 0 B. 2
C. 4 D. None of these
3. If base area of a room 12 m2 and height is 3 m then its volume is: (B)
A. 4 m3 B. 36 m3
C. 12 m3 D. 18 m3
4. Which of the following is the difference between the squares of 21 and 22?(D)
A. 21 B. 22
C. 42 D. 43
5. How old will I be after 10 years, if my age before 10 years was ‘x’ years? (A)
A. X + 20 B. X - 20
C. X + 10 D. X ‐ 10
6. If an article sold for Rs 100 then there is a gain of Rs 20, which of the following is the gain percent?
(A)
A. 25% B. 22%
C. 20% D. 16 . %
7. What is the value of (-1)-1? (B)
A. 0 B. -1
C. 1 D. None of these
8. Which of the following is the value of 'm' in 6m/ 6-3 = 65? (D)
A. -3 B. -2
C. 3 D. 2
9. Which of the following is the value of (4 / 5)-9 / (4 / 5)-9? (C)
18
A. (4/5) B. 4/5
C. 1 D. (5/4)9
10. Which of the following lies between 0 and -1? (C)
A. 0 B. -3
C. -2/3 D. 4/3
11. Which of the following is the product of 7/8 and -4/21? (A)
A. -1/6 B. 1/12
C. -16/63 D. -147/16
Page 153 of 160

12. What is the product of (x+a) and (x+b)? (D)
A. x2+ (a-b)x + ab B. x2 + (a+b)x – ab
C. x2 - (a+b)x + abD. x2 + (a+b)x + ab
13. 0.003 × 0.02 = ? (D)
A. 0.06 B. 0.006
C. 0.0006 D. 0.00006
14. What is the average of the numbers: 0, 0, 4, 10, 5, and 5 ? (C)

A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
15. In a class of 40 students 20% are girls. How many boys are there in the class?(D)
A. 26 B.28
C. 30 D. 32
16.The value of cos 0°. cos 1°. cos 2°. cos 3°… cos 89° cos 90° is (C)
A. 1 B. -1 C. 0 D.
17. If x tan 45° sin 30° = cos 30° tan 30°, then x is equal to (D)
A. √3 B. C. D. 1
18.If A and (2A – 45°) are acute angles such that sin A=cos (2A – 45°),then (C) tan A is equal to
A. 0 B. C. 1 D. √3
19.If in ΔABC, ∠C = 90°, then sin (A + B) = (D)
A. 0 B. 1/2 C. D. 1
20.The value of sin² 30° – cos² 30° is (D)
A.1/2 B. √3/2
C.3/2 D.-1/2
21.In an AP, if a = 3.5, d = 0, n = 101, then a n will be (B)

(A) 0 (B) 3.5 (C) 103.5 (D) 104.5
22. The 21st term of the AP whose first two terms are –3 and 4 is (B)
(A) 17 (B) 137 (C) 143 (D) –143
23. Q is directly proportional to √p Q = 21 when p = 9, the value of Q when p = 81 is

(A)
(A).63 B. 64 C.56 D.67
24. The values of the remainder r,when a positive integer a is divided by3 are (C)
(A) 0, 1, 2, 3 (B) 0, 1 (C) 0, 1, 2 (D) 2, 3, 4
Page 154 of 160

25.On a morning walk, three persons step off together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm, respectively.
What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps?
(A)
(A) 2520cm (B) 2525cm (C) 2555cm (D) 2528cm
26. Solve the simultaneous equations 13x - 6y = 20, 7x + 4y = 18

(A)x = 2, y = 1 B. x = 4, y = 8 C. x = 6, y = 1 D. x = 2, y = 4
27. One third of sum of two angles is 60° and one fourth of their difference is 28°. The angles are
(C)
A.30° and 44° B.34° and 90° C.146° and 34° D.130° and 60°
28. If 200 students filled the form for entrance test and 180 appeared in the test out of which only 70% have passed
the test then the number of students who failed the test are
(B)
A.68 B.54 C.58 D.65
29 After reduction of 8% in water bill, Rs.300 remains to be paid then original bill to be paid before reduction is
(B)
A.Rs.362 B.Rs.326 C.Rs.350 D.Rs.355
30. If the width of rectangle is 10cm lass than its length and its perimeter is 50cm then the width of rectangle is
(C)
A.58cm² B.64cm² C.15cm² D.30cm²
31.The kind of quadrilateral in which opposite pairs of the sides are parallel and equal is called
(A)
A.Parallelogram B. trapezium C. triangle D. semi-circle
32 The Highest Common Factor of given numbers 72 and 56 is (D)
A.7 B.3 C.2 D.8
33. The Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 2² x 4² and 2³ x 4² is (D)
A.712 B. 412 C. 612 D.512
34. 7 identical pipes fill 3 identical tanks 45mins, 5 pipes fill one of these tanks in (B)
A.20min B.21min C.15min D.10min
35. Q is directly proportional to √p Q = 21 when p = 9, the value of Q when p = 81 is (A)
A.63 B. 64 C.56 D.67
Page 155 of 160

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. What is the capital of USA ? (D)
A.New York B. San Francisco C. Chicago D. Washington D.C.
2. Which team Has the most number of IPL Wins ? (C)
A. Kolkata Knight Riders B.Chennai super kings C. Mumbai Indians D. Rajasthan Royals.
3.What is the average lifespan of Red blood cells ? (D)

A. 90 Days B. 100 Days C. 110 Days D.120 Days
4. Kudankulam Nuclear power plant is located in which state ? (C)

A. Kerala B. Karnataka C. Tamilnadu D.Andhra Pradesh
5. Which is the state fruit of Telangana ? (C)

A. Apple B. Banana C. Mango D. Pineapple
6. The statue of Unity is located in which state? (D)

A. Odisha B. Maharashtra. C. Chhattisgarh D. Gujarat
7. Vande Bharat express is also known as? (B)

A. Train17 B. Train 18 C. Train 19 D. Train 20
8. Dutee Chand is associated with which Sports? (A)

A. Athletics B. Kabaddi C. Cricket D. Hockey
9. Which is the second longest river in India after Ganga ? (C)

A. Cauvery B. Krishna C. Godavari D. Yamuna
10. In which City “Gateway of INDIA “is Located? (B)

A. Pune B. Mumbai C. New Delhi D Ahmedabad
Page 156 of 160

11. Most number of Double Hundreds in test cricket is by? ( A)
A. Don Bradman B. Brian Lara C. Kumara Sangakkara D. Wally Hammond
12. First woman to become a chief minister of a state in India? (C)

A. Sheila Dixit B. Sushma swaraj C. Sucheta Kriplani D. Mamata Banerjee
13.Ramappa temple is located near ? (A )

A. Warangal B. Khammam C. Karimnagar D. Suryapet
14.Who is the Author of the BooK ” The Discovery of India “? (C)

A. Motilal Nehru B. Mahatma Gandhi C. Jawaharlal Nehru D. Rabindranath Tagore
15. Kaziranga National park is located in which state? (D)

A. Sikkim B. Nagaland C. Arunachal Pradesh D. Assam
16 Which city is called the pink City Of India? (B)
A. Udaipur B. Jaipur C. Jodhpur D. Sholapur
17. What is the name of the Space mission to MARS launched by ISRO? ( C)
A.Chandrayaan-1 B.Aditya C. Mangalyaan D. Chandrayaan-2
18.Harmanpreet Kaur is associated with which sports ? (B)

A. Hockey B. Cricket C. Kabaddi D. Archery
19. World Environment Day is observed on? (C)

A. June 7 B. June 5 C. June10 D. June 3
20 Mohiniyattam is a famous classical dance of which state ? (C)
A. Karnataka B. Tamil Nadu C. Kerala D. Andhra Pradesh
21. The Human heat has How Chambers? (B)

A. 3 b. 4 C. 5 D. 6
22. Where is the United Nations headquarters located? (A)
A. New York. B. San Francisco C. Paris D. Geneva
23. Dandi March was also Known as ------- Satyagraha. ? (D)
A. Pepper B. Indigo C. Cinnamon D. Salt
24. The study of Cancer is Called ? (D)
A. Neurology B. Osteology C. Ornithology D. Oncology
Page 157 of 160
GENERAL ENGLISH
Direction: In the following questions, select the correct passive voice.
1.Rahul will pass the message.
A The message will passed by Rahul.
B The message would be passed by Rahul.
C The message will pass by Rahul.
D The message will be passed by Rahul.
2. He stole that watch.
A That watch was stolen by him.

B That watch stolen by him
C That watch stole by him.
D That watch had stolen by him.
3. His hard work satisfied me.
A I was satisfied for his hard work.

B I was satisfied by his hard work.
C I was satisfied with his hard work.
D I was satisfied at his hard work.
4. Who can count the stars in the sky?
A By whom can the stars in the sky be counted?

B By whom can be stars in the sky counted?
C By whom could the stars be counted in the sky?
D By whom could the stars in the sky be counted?
5. His comment hurt me deeply.
A I was hurt deeply by his comment.

B I could be hurt deeply by his comment.
C His comment was hurtful.
D I should not be hurt by his comment
Direction: Find synonyms of the following:
6. BRIEF
A. Limited B. Small C. Little D. Short
7. ALERT
Page 158 of 160

A Energetic B Observant C Intelligent D Watchful
Direction: Find antonyms of the following
8. FICTITIOUS
A. Fatal B. Suspicious C. Imaginary D. Novel
9. ENORMOUS
A Weak B Tiny C Soft D Average
10. COMMISSIONED
A. Closed B. Started C. Finished D. Terminated
Direction: Choose the correct articles
11. New York is ____ large city
A. a B. the C. no article D. an
12. Are you attending ____reception today.
A .an B. the C. no article D. a
13. ___ Oranges are grown in Nagpur
A. no article B. a C. an D. the
14. She wants to become ____engineer
A. the B. an C. no article D. a
15. ____lion is a ferocious animal
A. an B. the C. no article D. A
Direction: Fill the sentence with correct subject/object
16. Does ______ know that _____ was absent?
A. she,me B. she,I C. her,me D. her.I
17. Please tell_____, _____have obtained a degree in Chemistry.
Page 159 of 160

A. He,I B. Him,Me C. Him,I D. He,Me
18. I remember that____ bought the fruits from ____.
A. They,We B. Them,Us C. Them,We D. They,Us
19. ____ can swim because ____ has webbed feet.
A. It,It B. Its,It C. It,Them D. Its,Them
20. I meet Jaya yesterday.____ invited ____ to her house.
A. she,Me B. She,I C. Her,Me D. Her,I
Direction : choose the correct prepositions
21. The work was completed —– sunset.

A. for B. in C. at D. About
22. We are pleased —– your visit.

A. With B. At C. by D. on
23. My father will retire from service —– a year.

A. of B. on C. in D. by
24. Surya is short —— Vidya.

A. by B. near C. beside D. besides
25. She is good —– English.

A. in B. about C. at D. for
‘’ALL THE BEST’’
THE END
Page 160 of 160

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OBJECTIVE QUESTION

Item No. Description Page No.

1. GENERAL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 05

4. LIGHTING AND ILLUMINATION 28

8. INDIAN ELECTRICITY RULES 47

10. ELECTRICAL UNITS: EQUIVALENTS & FORMULAE 53

11. INDUCTION MOTOR 56

13. ANSWER SHEET 64

Item No. Description Page No.

5. RAILWAY CARRIAGE FANS 87

6. TRAIN LIGHTING WIRING 88

9. LHB COACHES 110

10. ABBREVIATIONS 117

11. EOG POWER CAR 120

12. EMU/DEMU 122

Item No. Description Page No.

2. STORES/ PROCUREMENT - 128

3. RAJBASHA HINDHI - 130

4. BASIC KNOWLEDGE ON COMPUTER - 141

5. ENGINEERING DRAWING - 145

6. ENVIROMNEMTAL ENGINEERING - 150

7. GENERAL MATHS - 153

8. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE - 156

9. GENRAL ENGLSH - 158

1. For the protection of single-phase 1.5 kW motor, a MCB of rating [b]

14. Unit of resistance is [c]

a) Red (b) blue (c) yellow (d) Armour

a) High resistance (b) High conductance

35. Which of the following is used to make electric connections [d]

(c) Earth (d) Any of the above

(c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy

60 Power factor of AC circuit is equal to [c]

61 Resistance of open circuit is equal to [b]

62 Laminated core is used to reduce [b]

63 Which of the following is not a non conventional energy source [d]

64 Solar energy is used for [d]

65 Solar and wind hybrid system is [a]

66 Bio gas depends on [b]

67 Which of the following is not a constituent of a solar lighting system [d]

68 Which of the following is not a type of fuse [c]

69 Which of the following is not a type of generating station? [d]

70 Which of the following is not a part of overhead distribution line [d]

73 Capacitor opposes [a]

(a) Decreases (b) Increases

(a) 0.72 (b) 1.44

133. Sedimentation in lead acid cell occurs due to [a]

141. Which material is recommended as fire extinguisher in electrical cases [b]

145. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy? [d]

146. The law of conservation of energy states that energy [d]

147. Absolute pressure is [c]

2. The colour of moisten silica gel is [a]

3. The material filled in breather of transformer is [a]

4. The protective device to indicate the internal fault in a transformer is [ b]

7 Core of a transformer is made up of [d]

8 Which of the following is not the function of a transformer oil [ d]

9 For a transformer, the condition for maximum efficiency is [c]

12 The short circuit test of a transformer gives [ a]

14 The type of oil, which is suitable as transformer oil is [ c]

15 A step up transformer increases [ c]