209 CÂU TEST BANK OB

Question 1: Leadership is the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision
and set of goals.

A. True
B. False

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a reason for why organizations need leaders ?

A. Organizations need leader to challenge the status quo

B. Leaders are the one who can create visions of the organizations
C. Leaders are the one who can formulate the plans of the organizations
D. Inspiring members to achieve visions and goals are the things that leaders can do
effectively.

Explain: Organizations need leaders to challenge the status quo, to create visions and to inspire
members while they need managers to formulate plans, to create structures and to oversee day-to-
day operations of employees.

Question 3: What is the biggest difference between trait and behavioral theories of leadership ?

A. Behavioral theory differentiates leaders from non-leaders in terms of observable personal

characteristics and inherent qualities while trait theory differentiates in terms of trainable
qualities that can be developed over time
B. Trait theory differentiates leaders from non-leaders in terms of observable personal
characteristics and inherent qualities while behavioral theory differentiates in terms of
trainable qualities that can be developed over time
C. Behavioral theory differentiates extraordinary leaders from leaders in terms of observable
personal characteristics and inherent qualities while trait theory differentiates in terms of
trainable qualities that can be developed over time
D. Trait theory differentiates extraordinary leaders from leaders in terms of observable
personal characteristics and inherent qualities while behavioral theory differentiates in
terms of trainable qualities that can be developed over time

Explain: Traits theories of leadership select the right person to become leader (personal
characteristics and inherent qualities) while behavioral theories of leadership train them to become
effective leaders (trainable qualities that can be developed over time through training, coaching
and mentoring).

Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic in the Big Five Model of trait
leadership ?

A. Extraversion

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 B. Emotional Stability
C. Self-motivation
D. Conscientiousness

Explain: Big-Five Model (EACEO model) = E (Extraversion/Introversion) + A (Agreeableness) +

C (Conscientiousness) + E (Emotional Stability/Neuroticism) + O (Openness to experience)

Question 5: Which of the following traits is usually considered as the opposite of emotional
stability in the Big Five Trait Model of leadership ?

A. Neuroticism
B. Introversion
C. Agreeableness
D. Openness to experience

Explain: Big-Five Model (EACEO model) = E (Extraversion/Introversion) + A (Agreeableness) +

C (Conscientiousness) + E (Emotional Stability/Neuroticism) + O (Openness to experience)

Question 6: Which of the following is the core component of emotional intelligence (EI) ?

A. Social skills
B. Self-awareness
C. Self-management
D. Empathy

Explain: Emotional Intelligence (EI) = Self-management + Self-motivation + Self-awareness +

Empathy (core component) + Social skills

Question 7: Trait theories are a far bigger predictor of leadership emergence than leadership
effectiveness.

A. True
B. False

Question 8: Trait theories select the right people for leadership but behavioral theories train people
to be leaders.

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 A. True
B. False

Question 9: The quality of initiating structure is most closely associated to the human-oriented
approach of leadership behavior

A. True
B. False

Explain: Initiating structure = task-oriented leadership while Consideration = human-oriented

leadership

Question 10: Which of the following is NOT an action implemented by a leader that is
characterized by a higher level of initiating structure ?

A. Assigned group members to particular tasks

B. Express appreciation and support
C. Emphasizes the meetings of deadlines
D. Expect workers to maintain define standards of performance

Explain: A leader that is in high level of initiating structure (task-oriented leadership) will

+ Assign group members to particular tasks

+ Expect workers to maintain defined standards of performance
+ Emphasizes the meetings of deadlines

Question 11: A leader who emphasizes interpersonal relations, takes personal interest in the needs
of employees, and accepts individual differences among members

A. Task-oriented leader
B. Production-oriented leader
C. Employee-oriented leader
D. Human-oriented leader

Question 12: Which leadership theory is premised on the notion that leaders establish close
working relationships with an in-group of followers?

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 A. Leader-member exchange theory
B. Leader-participation theory
C. Path-goal theory
D. Situational leadership theory

Question 12: The leadership approach in which the way a leader makes a decision must be aligned
with what they actually decide is path-goal theory

A. True
B. False

Explain: The leadership approach in which the way a leader makes a decision must be aligned with
what they actually decide is leader-participation theory.

Question 13: Which leadership theory is premised on proposes that effective group performance
depends on the proper match between the leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives
the leader control.

A. Fielder leadership model

B. Path-goal leadership theory
C. Leader-participation leadership theory
D. Situational leadership theory

Question 14: Which of the following best describes one of the downsides of the charismatic
leadership style?

A. Charisma is overrated
B. Charismatic leadership always leads to inflated stock prices
C. Charismatic leaders may not always act in the best interests of the organization
D. Charismatic leadership is usually ineffective in most modern organizations

Explain: There are two dark sides of charismatic leadership which are:

+ Gullible people or people with low self-esteem can be led astray

+ Charismatic leaders may not always act in the best interest of organizations

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Question 15: How does the affiliative leadership style build resonance?

A. By connecting what a person wants with the organization’s goals

B. By moving people toward shared dreams
C. By valuing people’s input and getting commitment through participation
D. By creating harmony by connecting people to each other

Question 16: The quality of consideration is most closely associated with which approach to
leadership?

A. Task-oriented leadership

B. Production-oriented leadership

C. Structure-oriented leadership

D. Human-oriented leadership

Question 17: Which of the following best describes the value of trait theories of leadership?

A. They are good at predicting leader effectiveness, but not leader emergence.
B. They are good at predicting leader emergence, but not leader effectiveness.
C. They are good at predicting both leader effectiveness and leader emergence.
D. They are not good at predicting leader emergence, nor leader effectiveness

Explain: Trait theories of leadership select the right person with appropriate characteristics to
become leader => It emphasizes the leader emergence rather than leader effectiveness (who know
the right person with the right traits for leadership can lead employees well ?, For example,
accountants need to be careful but not all careful people can become excellent and effective leaders
)

Question 18: Production-oriented leadership is the practice in which the leaders emphasize
technical and task aspects of the jobs.

A. True
B. False

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Question 19: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of authentic leadership ?

A. Being ethical
B. Practicing servant leadership
C. Universal effectiveness
D. Creating trust

Explain: Three components of authentic leadership: being ethical + practice servant leadership +
creating trust (integrity + benevolence + ability)

Question 20: Which of the following is NOT an aspect of creating trust in authentic leadership
approach ?

A. Fairness
B. Integrity
C. Benevolence
D. Ability

Explain: Three components of authentic leadership: being ethical + practice servant leadership +
creating trust (integrity + benevolence + ability)

Question 21: Coaching leadership style has positive climate on the team and it builds resonance
by valuing people’s inputs and getting commitment through participation

A. True
B. False

Explain: Valuing people’s inputs and getting commitment through participation is democratic
leadership style.

Question 22: Which of the following is NOT a component of job attitudes ?

A. Affective
B. Cognitive
C. Assonance
D. Behavioral

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Explain: Job attitudes (ABC model) = Cognitive (evaluation - What I think) + Affective (feeling -
How I feel) + Behavioral (action - What I am going to do)

Question 23: Which component of attitude describes an intention to behave desired action in a
certain way toward someone or something ?

A. Behavioral
B. Cognitive
C. Satisfaction
D. Affective

Explain: Job attitudes (ABC model) = Cognitive (evaluation - What I think) + Affective (feeling -
How I feel) + Behavioral (action - What I am going to do)

Question 24: Job involvement is the degree to which an employee identifies with a particular
organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization.

A. True
B. False

Explain: Organizational commitment is the degree to which an employee identifies with a

particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization.

Question 25: Job involvement connects perceived personal performance with what individual
quality?

A. Self-esteem
B. Self-concept
C. Self-improvement
D. Self-worth

Explain: Job involvement is the degree in which a person identifies his or herself with the job,
actively participate in and consider performance important to self-worth

Question 26: Which concept is usually closely related to job involvement ?

A. Job satisfaction

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 B. Organizational commitment
C. Psychological empowerment
D. Psychological flexibility

Question 27: Which of the following is correct about the difference between job involvement and
organizational commitment ?

A. Job involvement is major predictor of job performance while organizational commitment

is major predictor of job productivity
B. Job involvement is major predictor of job productivity while organizational commitment
is major predictor of job performance
C. Both job involvement and organizational commitment are major predictors of job
performance and job productivity
D. Neither job involvement nor organizational is major predictor of job performance and job
productivity

Question 28: According to the textbook, which is the main cause of job dissatisfaction?

A. Pay
B. Job security
C. Promotion
D. Job stress

Question 29: Which of the following is true about job dissatisfaction in the US ?

A. 75% of US employees feel unsatisfied about their jobs

B. Employees with lower pay feel unsatisfied with all aspects of their job
C. Lack of participation in leadership is one of the main causes for job dissatisfaction in the
US
D. US employees feel satisfied with their jobs due to the high degree of adhocracy

Explain: Fact about job dissatisfaction in the US (2019 study):

+ Approximately 50% of the US workforce feel unsatisfied with their job.

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 + Especially, employees with lower paid salaries feel less satisfied with ALL aspects of their
jobs.

Question 30: According to job dissatisfaction in VietNam, which of the following is NOT a reason
for why employees feel unsatisfied about their jobs ?

A. Lack of independent work opportunities

B. Lack of opportunities to improve skills
C. Lack of work-life balance
D. Lack of participation in leadership

Explain: The causes of job dissatisfaction of Vietnam workforce (2018 study):

+ Lack of independent work opportunities

+ Lack of opportunities to improve skills
+ Lack of participation in leadership

Question 31: Dissatisfaction expressed through active and constructive attempts to improve
conditions is “Voice” response method

A. True
B. False

Question 32: Which of the following is incorrect about Emotional intelligence (EI) ?

A. EI is the single biggest predictor of leadership effectiveness and performance

B. EI is based on: perceiving emotions in yourself and in others, understanding the meaning
of emotions, regulating own emotions
C. Everyone contribute equally to the overall level of EI, including leader when developing
group EI
D. People develop strong EI competencies as they get older and more experienced and have
spent more time working and leading others.

Explain: Everyone contribute to the overall level of group EI, but particularly leader (leader role
accounts for more proportion than employees => inequality)

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Question 33: What gender differences have been demonstrated to exist with respect to the
experience of emotion?

A. There is insufficient evidence to determine any gender differences in the experience of

emotion
B. There are no gender differences in the experience of emotion
C. Women generally experience and express emotions more intensely than men
D. Men generally experience and express emotions more intensely than women

Question 34: Why is determining Emotional Intelligence (EI) so important in an organization’s

selection processes?

A. Because people in jobs are always highly emotional

B. Because jobs often involve a high degree of social interaction
C. Because people are unlikely to succeed in a job unless they demonstrate high EI during the
selection process
D. Because jobs are always highly emotional

Question 35: Which of the following is not a characteristic when applying psychological
flexibility to develop emotional intelligence (EI) ?

A. Trust
B. Long-term thinking
C. Fair and inclusive decision making
D. Social orientation value

Explain: There are three important characteristics to consider when applying psychological
flexibility to develop EI:

+ Trust
+ Long-term thinking
+ Social value orientation

Question 36: Which of the following is NOT one of the leadership styles included in the leadership
repertoire in Primal Leadership?

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 A. Transactional

B. Pacesetting

C. Democratic

D. Commanding

Explain: There are 6 styles of leadership in leadership repertoire: visionary, coaching, affiliative,
democratic, pacesetting, commanding.

Question 37: Which of the following best describes one of the downsides of the charismatic
leadership style?

A. Charisma is overrated
B. Charismatic leadership always leads to inflated stock prices
C. Charismatic leaders may behave out of narrow self-interest
D. Charismatic leadership is usually ineffective in most modern organizations

Explain: There are two dark sides of charismatic leadership:

+ Gullible people or people with low-self esteem can be led astray

+ Charismatic leadership may not act in the best interests of organizations

Question 39: What is the best way of familiarizing yourself with the core design principles of the
Prosocial process?

A. By applying them to a group that you have obligations toward

B. By applying them to a group that you can effect harmonious relations with
C. By applying them to a group that you care about
D. By applying them to a group that pays you

Question 40: Which of the following concepts best captures the essence of leadership?

A. Position
B. Volition
C. Precision

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 D. Vision

Question 41: Charismatic leadership is usually a combination of traits (“leaders are born”) and
behaviors (“leaders are made”).

A. True
B. False

Question 42: According to Primal Leadership, empathy can be built over time through practice.
Which of the following is NOT one of the practices that allows this process to occur?

A. Undertaking training programmes

B. Motivation
C. Emotional commitment
D. Intentional effort

Question 43: According to Prosocial, what is one of the key capabilities required in order to
develop well-being?

A. Integrating what is actually happening and the interp retations and meanings we attach to
what is happening.
B. Consolidating what is actually happening and the interpretations and meanings we attach to
what is happening.
C. Differentiating between what is actually happening and the interpretations and meanings we
attach to what is happening.
D. Ignoring what is actually happening and the interpretations and meanings we attach to what
is happening.

Question 44: Emotions and moods are both subcategories within which larger category of
psychological phenomena:

A. Aspiration
B. Antagonism
C. Awareness
D. Affect

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Question 45: Which of the following is NOT one of the four major employee responses to job
dissatisfaction?

A. Neglect
B. Exit
C. Labour
D. Voice

Explain: There are 4 types of response when employees face job dissatisfaction: voice, exit,
loyalty, neglect.

Question 46: Personality is determined by two components: heredity and personality traits

A. True
B. False

Question 47: What is the best conclusion that can be drawn about the current state of the scientific
evidence of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) with respect to its usefulness in
organizations?

A. The MBTI has moderately-supportive evidence to support its usefulness in organizations

B. The MBTI has conclusive evidence to support its usefulness in organizations
C. The MBTI has strong evidence to support its usefulness in organizations
D. The MBTI has extremely weak-to-no evidence to support its usefulness in organization

Question 48: People who have high levels of neuroticism/ emotional stability will be less likely
to suffer mood swings, anxiety, irritability, and sadness.

A. True
B. False

Explain: Câu này khá khó chịu do đó nên dùng mẹo cặp Neuroticism/ emotional stability có
neuroticism đứng đầu nên hoàn toàn trái ngược với emotional stability. Do đó low level of cặp này
(low level of neuroticism) => tend to be more emotional stable and resilience nhưng high level of
cặp này (high level of neuroticism) lại easily to experience negative affect (mood swings, anxiety,
etc)

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Question 49: Which of the following traits is considered the opposite of emotional stability among
the Big Five Personality Model traits?

A. Conscientiousness
B. Extraversion
C. Openness to experience
D. Neuroticism

Question 50: Which of the following qualities is typically NOT associated with
Machiavellianism?

A. Pragmatism
B. A belief that the ends always justify the means
C. Emotional closeness
D. Emotional distance

Explain: Machiavellianism = pragmatic, emotional distance, believe that ends can justify means

Question 51: Which of the following qualities is typically NOT associated with Narcissism?

A. Arrogant
B. Self-importance
C. Admiration
D. Persevere until meaningful change occurs

Explain: Narcissism = the tendency to be arrogant, emphasizes on self-importance, require

excessive admiration and have a sense of entitlement

Question 52: Values are not fluid and flexible but tend to be relatively stable and enduring

A. True
B. False

Question 53: Which of the following best describes the concepts of terminal and instrumental
values?:

A. Both terminal values and instrumental values are about the “what”

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 B. Terminal values are about the “how”; instrumental values are about the “what”
C. Terminal values are about the “what”; Instrumental values are about the “how”
D. Both terminal values and instrumental values are about the “how”

Explain: Terminal values (desirable end-states): Values that people want to achieve during their
lifetime (e.g., Health and well-being, Economic security, Independence). While instrumental
values (how to achieve these end-states): values based on behaviors and actions to achieve terminal
values.

Question 54: Which of the following is considered “desired end-states” ?

A. Accomplishment values
B. Instrumental values
C. Terminal values
D. Proactive personality

Question 55: The value of “work-life balance” is thought to have first emerged with which
generation’s entry into the workforce?

A. Baby Boomers
B. Gen-Z
C. Gen-X
D. Gen-Y / Millennials

Explain: Mẹo

+ Traditionalists: value workplace that have a clear chain of command and top-down
management
+ Baby boomers: value workplace that have flat hierarchies
+ Gen X: fun, positive, work-life balance
+ Gen Y: workplace that provides continuous feedback
+ GenZ: more entrepreneurial, flexible, digital-native

Question 56: Baby boomers value workplaces that have flat hierarchies, democratic cultures,
humane values, equal opportunities, and warm and friendly environments

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 A. True
B. False

Question 57: What is the term used to describe the alignment between the values of an
organization and the values of a particular person performing a particular job in the organization?

A. Job-person fit
B. Job-organization fit
C. Person-person fit
D. Person-organization fit

Question 58: Which of the following is NOT a component under Hofstede’s Five Value
Dimensions of a National Culture ?

A. Power distance
B. Performance orientation
C. Individualism
D. Uncertainty avoidance

Explain: Hofstede’s Five Value Dimensions of a National Culture:

+ Power distance
+ Individualism/ Collectivism
+ Short-term orientation/ Long-term orientation
+ Masculinity/ Femininity
+ Uncertainty avoidance

GLOBE Framework for Assessing a Culture = retain the five values in Hofstede’s model and adds
performance orientation and humane orientation

Question 59: Frameworks like Hofstede and GLOBE are becoming less useful and meaningful
in an increasingly global business landscape

A. True
B. False

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Question 60: The GLOBE framework for assessing cultures: retains five Hofstede’s values and
adds performance orientation and humane-orientation.

A. True
B. False

Question 61: What is the most accurate comparison of “surface-level” and “deep-level” diversity
with “demographic” and “individual” diversity?

A. Individual diversity is similar to both surface-level and deep-level diversity

B. Demographic diversity is similar to neither deep-level nor surface-level diversity
C. Deep-level and individual diversity are similar, and surface-level and demographic diversity
are similar
D. Surface-level and individual diversity are similar, and deep-level and demographic diversity
are similar

Explain: Surface-level diversity = Demographic diversity = Group diversity

Deep-level diversity = Individual diversity = Idiosyncratic diversity.

Question 62: Practicing diversity in modern organizations does NOT have which of the following:

A. It leads to greater fairness and equity in the workplace, and better representation of
marginalized or underrepresented population groups in organization
B. It gives a diversification of the range of individual approaches to problem-solving;
creativity; solutions analysis; innovation; strategic thinking; and other qualities that
organizations value when trying to recruit the best talent in diversity background
C. The ethical and business cases for diversity are totally inextricably separated.
D. Demographic and individual diversity work hand-in-hand

Explain: The ethical and business cases for diversity need to go hand-in-hand

Question 63: What is one of the downsides of focusing on fairness in groups and teams?

A. It causes people to focus on how they are benefiting themselves from the group, rather than
the actual shared purpose of the group.

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B. It causes people to stop focusing on group productivity.
C. It causes people to stop focusing on organizational profitability.
D. It causes people to focus on how the group is benefiting, rather than on how the organization
is performing.

Question 64: According to Prosocial, what quality most notably increases among employees
when all people are treated with fairness?

A. Remuneration
B. Communication
C. Diversification
D. Motivation

Question 65: In an organization with well-functioning diversity and inclusion policies, and equal-
opportunity recruitment and selection policies, what is the single-most important characteristic that
should be identified in potential new job candidates?

A. Their gender
B. Their age
C. Their sexual orientation
D. Their qualifications

Question 66: Person-organization fit should be assessed during selection process to predict
performance and job knowledge

A. True
B. False

Explain: Person-job fit should be assessed during selection process to predict performance and job
knowledge

Question 67: Which of the following statements is correct when mentioning the application of
person-job-organization fit for an adaptable firm ?

A. Adaptable firm should focus more on creating personal-job fit to maximize efficiency

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 B. Adaptable firms should concentrate on fitting between employees' values and corporate
culture to maintain organizational commitment.
C. Adaptable firm should let employee’s personalities fit with the overall organization’s culture
rather than with the characteristics of any specific job
D. Adaptable firm should create harmony between person-job-fit and person-organization-fit to
reduce turnover

Explain: For adaptable firms, it is more important to let employees’ personal characteristics match
with the overall organization’s culture, rather than of any specific job. (Person-organization fit >
Person-job fit)

Question 68: Which of the following is NOT correct about individual diversity ?

A. It is also known as deep-level diversity

B. Idiosyncratic diversity is referred to individual diversity
C. Individual diversity is about the combination of all the different variables which make you
you. No other person on Earth – past, present, or future – has the exact same combination
of variables
D. Open dialogue is the key thing to develop ones’ individual diversity to match with the team
in an organization.

Explain: Open dialogue is the key approach to develop and solve the issues related to
group/demographic diversity, not individual diversity.

Question 69: Which is the following is FALSE?

A. By promoting a greater commitment to demographic diversity in hiring, selection and

recruitment processes, organizations will widen their talent pool and increase the degree of
individual diversity available to them
B. Demographic diversity is an increasing source of concern for modern organizations and
leadership; particularly since more cultures are striving to achieve greater workplace
equality and inclusion for people of different e.g. genders; ethnicities; sexual orientation;
region of origin

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 C. Group diversity represent what people can offer an organization in terms of improving its
performance and effectiveness
D. Demographic underrepresentation is remaining a big problem in many organizations at
present.

Explain: “What you can bring to the table but someone else can’t?” => Idiosyncratic diversity is
the thing that an individual can bring to the organization to improve its performance and
effectiveness

Question 70: Diversity training programmes have been proven to be especially effective to
promote group and individual diversity level in the organization

A. True
B. False

Explain: Diversity training programs have not been proven to be effective to enhance both group
or individual diversity.

Question 71: Which of the following is NOT a challenge of workplace diversity ?

A. People’s attitudes are often a product of the generation they are from and generational
changes can take time. Therefore, the wide application of diversity and inclusion is costly
for organizations
B. There are sometimes innocent, non-discriminatory explanations for demographic
underrepresentation
C. The topic of demographic diversity in the workplace is very controversial and
inflammatory and it can not yet approach this issue in a measured, democratic, and humane
manner.
D. Biases in attitudes and discrimination in policies and practice can sometimes prevent
demographic minorities from being given the chance to prove they are the best candidate

Explain: There are five challenges in organization diversity:

1) Meritocracy: The best individual should be hired regardless of their demographic

differences.

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 2) Biases and discrimination
3) Non-discriminatory about demographic underrepresentation
4) Diversity training programs have not been proven to be effective to promote group and
individual diversity in the workplace.
5) Generation changes need to take time and people are usually the product of the generation
they belong to => It is hard and costly to change demographic diversity

HOWEVER, demographic diversity now can partially be solved by a very approachable and
measurable way: open-dialogue.

Question 72: What is the fundamental attribution error?

A. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in one’s own

failures
B. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in one’s own
failures
C. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in others’ failures
D. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in others’ failures

Explain: Fundamental attribution error (I-E): overestimating internal factors and underestimating
external factors in the other failures.

Self-serving bias (E-I): overestimating external factors and underestimating internal factors in
one’s own failures.

Question 73: Selective perception’s greatest advantage is:

A. Efficiency
B. Accuracy
C. Comprehensiveness
D. Universality

Question 74: What is the self-serving bias?

A. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in others’ failures

B. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in others’ failures

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 C. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in one’s own failures
D. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in one’s own failures

Explain: Self-serving bias (E-I); overestimating external factors and underestimating internal
factors in one’s own failures.

Question 75: What is a major downside of involving a lot of people in making a decision?

A. Increased risk of group crisis

B. Increased risk of group compromise
C. Increased risk of group conflict
D. Increased risk of group challenges

Question 76: Why is rationality bounded?

A. Because all forms of rationality have limits

B. Because we cannot process all the information we absorb
C. Because we are bounded by our perceptions of other people
D. Because we cannot expect people to be rational

Explain: Bounded rationality: loại bỏ những features không thật sự cần thiết thay vì capturing all
of the complexity (since we can not process all the information we absorb)

Question 77: What makes inclusive decision-making systems more resilient over time?

A. Heightened dependence upon individuals and their specific preferences

B. Lowered dependence upon groups and their collective preferences
C. Heightened dependence upon groups and their collective preferences
D. Lowered dependence upon individuals and their specific preferences

Question 78: What is the hindsight bias (also known as retrospective illusion)?

A. The tendency to over-estimate our predictive capacities after an outcome is known

B. The tendency to under-estimate our predictive capacities before an outcome is known
C. The tendency to over-estimate our predictive capacities before an outcome is known
D. The tendency to under-estimate our predictive capacities after an outcome is known

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Explain: The hindsight bias: we usually view unpredictable events as predictable ones after it
occurs. In other words, we overestimate our predictive capabilities after an outcome is known.

Question 79: What is the relationship between mental ability and perceptual errors?

A. People with higher mental abilities almost always avoid perceptual errors
B. People with higher mental abilities can be prone to perceptual errors, and are just as likely
as people with lower mental abilities to overcome them
C. People with higher mental abilities are almost always subject to perceptual errors
D. People with higher mental abilities can be prone to perceptual errors, but are better
positioned to overcome them

Question 80: “Tell and sell” is synonymous with which decision-making style?

A. Consultative
B. Content-based decision-making
C. Facilitative
D. Autocratic

Question 81: What is the most dominant philosophy of ethical decision making in business?

A. Justice and fairness

B. Deontology
C. Collectivism
D. Utilitarianism

Explain: Three are three components of ethical decision making:

+ Utilitarianism (core component)

+ Deontology
+ Justice and fairness

Question 82: Which of the following is correct about how we perceive the information on the
reality around us ?

A. Our behaviors are determined by our perception about the reality but not the reality itself

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 B. What we perceive about the reality is the same as what the reality actually is
C. Our behaviors are determined by the fact of reality but not our perception about the reality
D. Knowing and suffering the reality does not provide any linkage to what we organize and
interpret our perception about itself

Question 83: Which of the following is one of the factors that influence perception ?

A. Stimulus
B. Target
C. Affective
D. Behavioral

Explain: There are three factors that influence perception: perceiver, situation, target

Question 85: The approach in which we judge others based on attributions we make about their
behavior, and whether it was internally- or externally-caused is attribution theory

A. True
B. False

Question 86: Internally-caused behaviors in attribution theory are the ones we attribute to
situational factors

A. True
B. False

Explain: Externally-caused behaviors in attribution theory are the ones we attribute to situational
factors.

Internally-caused behaviors in attribution theory are the ones we attribute to individual control.

Question 87: We make attributions of internally- or externally-caused behavior based on which

of the following EXCEPT:

A. Distinctiveness
B. Consensus
C. Consistency

24
 D. Expertise

Explain: The way we make attributions of internally- or externally- caused behaviors is based on:

+ Distinctiveness
+ Consensus
+ Consistency

Question 88: The cognitive bias and perceptual shortcut characterized by the tendency to rely
heavily upon the first piece of information that individuals receive is

A. Hindsight bias
B. Halo effect
C. Anchoring bias
D. Confirmation bias

Question 89: The cognitive bias and perceptual shortcut characterized by the preferency to ignore
negative information is

A. Endowment effect
B. Ostrich effect
C. Sailence bias
D. Observer Expectancy Effect

Question 90: Which of the following is NOT a component of individual differences in decision-
making ?

A. Energy and metabolism

B. Personality
C. Perception
D. Cultural differences

Explain: There are 5 components of individual differences in decision-making:

+ Energy and metabolism

+ Personality

25
 + Intelligence
+ Gender
+ Cultural differences

Question 91: Which of the following is correct when mentioning differences in individual
decision-making by genders ?

A. Females are more likely to make risky decisions with low information based on perceived
short-term gain
B. Males are more likely to overanalyze problems before making a decision and to try to
change a decision once it has been made
C. Males are more likely to make risky decisions with low information based on perceived
short-term gain
D. There is no evidence-based on how gender can influence decision-making of a person

Explain: Women - over analyze the situation while men are more risk-takers

Question 92: Which of the following is NOT a constraint in the decision-making process in the
organization ?

A. Historical Precedents
B. Cognitive biases
C. Time Constraints
D. Performance evaluation

Explain: There are 5 organizational constraints in decision-making:

+ Performance evaluation
+ Time Constraints
+ Historical Precedents
+ Reward System
+ Formal Regulations

Question 93: Which of the following is NOT a type of decision-making process to practice with
risk and uncertainty ?

26
 A. Nominal decision making
B. Rational decision making
C. Bounded rationality
D. Intuitive decision making

Question 94: Which of the following is NOT a component in the 3-Component Model of
Creativity for better decision-making

A. Deontology
B. Expertise
C. Creative-thinking skills
D. Intrinsic task motivation

Explain: There are 3 components in creative decision-making: expertise, creative-thinking skills.

intrinsic task motivation

Question 95: Inclusive decision-making systems are more resilient over time because they are less
dependent upon individuals and their specific preferences

A. True
B. False

Question 96: Which of the following terms best helps to differentiate teams from groups?

A. Synthesis
B. Syndication
C. Synergy
D. Symbiosis

Question 97: Which of the following is NOT one of the perceived benefits of monitoring group
behavior?

A. Decreased cheating
B. Decreased conflict
C. Improved coordination
D. Increased shared identity

27
Explain: The benefits of monitoring group behavior well include:

+ Increased prosociality
+ Decreased cheating
+ Increased motivation and shared identity
+ Improved coordination

Question 98: Which of the following does a shared purpose in a group NOT create?

A. Motivation
B. Empowerment
C. Belonging
D. Reduced personal benefits

Question 99: Group norms have what effect on the external control of the group?

A. They reduce the necessity of external control

B. They increase the necessity of external control
C. They increase the incidence of external control
D. They reduce the incidence of external control

Explain: Group norms are established to make sure group members work toward a shared purpose
(making internal control more powerful). Thus, it reduces the necessity of external control.

Question 100: With respect to group formation, what does uncertainty avoidance help to provide
for individuals joining a group?

A. Fairness
B. Frankness
C. Freedom
D. Fit

Explain: Uncertainty avoidance helps to eliminate the concerns of members about the group. Thus,
making them become more fit with the group.

28
Question 101: When considering the contribution all group members make to group Emotional
Intelligence (EI) what is the role of the leader?

A. EI cannot be understood in terms of the leader; only the group

B. The leader alone contributes to group EI
C. Everyone contributes to the overall leader of group EI, but particularly the leader
D. Everyone contributes equally to the overall level of group EI, including the leader

Question 102: Approximately how often should monitoring meetings be held among groups?

A. Every week
B. Every 1-2 weeks
C. Every 2-4 weeks
D. Every 6 months

Explain: There are three ways to implement monitoring method:

+ Meetings (every 2-4 weeks)

+ Project-management tools
+ Processes for Performance evaluation and management

Question 103: Which of the following categories best describes a team which has a norm of
listening to everyone’s perspective?

A. Self-confident team
B. Self-managed team
C. Self-inclusive team
D. Self-aware team

Explain: Self-aware team: mindful of the others’ emotions

Self-managed team: take responsibility for group and other members’ emotions

Empathic team: understand the differences in emotions and use them to drive success

Question 104: What are the two “faces” of group cohesion?

29
 A. Social cohesion and structure cohesion
B. Task cohesion and social cohesion
C. Structure cohesion and equity cohesion
D. Task cohesion and structure cohesion

Question 105: Team size and effectiveness are related in which way?

A. Smaller teams are usually less effective

B. Larger teams are usually more effective
C. Larger teams are usually ineffective
D. Smaller teams are usually more effective

Question 106: Formal group is natural formations in the work environment that appear in response
to the need for social contact

A. True
B. False

Explain: Informal group is natural formations in the work environment that appear in response to
the need for social contact

Question 107: Based on social identity theory to explain why do people form groups, which of
the following is NOT a characteristic of the theory ?

A. Uncertainty reduction
B. Similarity
C. Group involvement
D. Status

Explain: Social identity theory to explain why people form groups: They create group to fulfill
four objectives:

+ Similarity
+ Distinctiveness
+ Status
+ Uncertainty reduction

30
Question 108: Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in group development model ?

A. Norming
B. Reforming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning

Explain: The Five-Stage Group Development:

+ Forming: group is characterized by much uncertain about purpose, vision and leadership
+ Storming: intragroup conflict due to members resist constraints]
+ Norming: group is cohesive with strong group identity and close relationship
+ Performing: group fully functions and works toward achieving goals
+ Adjourning: for temporary group: break up

Question 109: Which of the stages in the group development model is characterized by a high
level of uncertainty about purpose, identity and leadership ?

A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

Question 110: Which of the following is NOT a property of groups ?

A. Cohesiveness
B. Diversity
C. Roles
D. Generation

Explain: Six properties of group: roles, norms, status, size, cohesiveness, diversity

Question 111: Which is the implication for job productivity based on the correlation of
performance norms and degree of cohesiveness in groups ? (Difficult)

A. Both low level of performance norms and cohesiveness will result in low productivity

31
 B. High level of performance norms and low cohesiveness will result in low productivity
C. Both high level of performance norms and cohesiveness will result in low productivity
D. Low level of performance norms and high level of cohesiveness will result in low
productivity

Explain: Performance norms >> Group cohesiveness

High performance norms + High cohesiveness = High productivity

High performance norms + Low cohesiveness = Moderate productivity

Low performance norms + High cohesiveness = Low productivity (Nhiệt tình + Ngu dốt = Phá
hoại)

Low performance norms + Low cohesiveness = Moderate to low productivity

Question 112: According to the Primal Leadership, to build emotional reality for teams, all of the
following is necessary EXCEPT:

A. Self-aware
B. Self-managed
C. Self-motivation
D. Empathic

Question 113: Which of the following is correct about the effectiveness and efficiency of group
decision-making ?

A. High effectiveness and high efficiency

B. High effectiveness and low efficiency
C. Low effectiveness and high efficiency
D. Low effectiveness and low efficiency

Explain: Group decision-making tends to be more effective but less efficient

Question 114: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic when defining and creating
effective teams ?

32
 A. Context
B. Performance
C. Composition
D. Process

Explain: Defining and creating effective teams need to consider the model: Context - Composition
- Process

Question 115: Which of the following can be the ways to monitor teams’ behaviors well ?

A. Holding periodic meetings

B. Using project-management tools
C. Processing for performance evaluation and management
D. All of the above are correct

Question 116: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of monitoring teams’ behaviors ?

A. Increased satisfaction
B. Increased prosociality
C. Decrease cheating
D. Increased motivation and shared identity

Question 117: All of the “official leaders” in an organization are defined by the emotional leaders

A. True B. False

Question 118: Which of the following is true regarding meritocracy as a challenge in workplace
diversity ?

A. The best individual candidate for the job should be hired if their personalities fit with
organizational demographic qualities

B. The best individual candidate for the job should be hired regardless of their demographic
qualities

C. The best individual candidate for the job should not be hired if their personalities fit with
organizational demographic qualities

33
 D. The best individual candidate for the job still should not be hired regardless of their
demographic qualities

Explain: There are 5 challenges in work-place diversity

+ Meritocracy: the best individual should be hired regardless of their demographic

differences
+ Biases and discrimination
+ Non-discriminatory to demographic underrepresentation
+ Diversity training programs have not been proven to be effective to enhance the diversity
level of organizations
+ Generational changes may take time and people are usually the product of the generations
they belong to. Therefore, it is hard and costly for organizations to change the demographic
diversity.

Question 119: Which of the following is the best comparison of the experiences of responding to
helpful behavior compared with responding to unhelpful behavior?

A. They are somewhat similar

B. They are very different

C. They are very similar

D. They are somewhat different

Explain: We will encourage helpful behaviors and discourage all unhelpful behaviors so the
manner to solve with two kinds of behaviors are absolutely different

Question 120: Which of the following is one of the principal advantages of written
communication?

A. The “personal touch”

B. The “primary message”

C. The “paper trail”

34
 D. The “pony express”

Explain: For written communication, its longevity will stand the test of time since there is a “paper
trait” in which the information will be recorded in hard products - paper. However, for the
feedback, written communication usually doesn’t receive immediate response since it takes time
for the receiver to process the information even in the real-time situation.

Question 121: An effective approach for evaluating an individual’s role or responsibility in a

problematic is to try and adopt which of the following:

A. Their perceptual outlook

B. Their perspective

C. Their personality

D. Their performance outlook

Explain: When you want to evaluate someone about their responsibilities and roles for the tasks,
please don’t be interpretive and evaluative. Instead, you need to treat the interpretations as
provisional hypothesis (to confirm or disconfirm based on more information when you listen from
their perspective)

Question 122: When communicating a sanction or penalty to someone, it’s usually helpful to
accompany this communication with which of the following:

A. A suggestion of a more helpful behavior

B. A suggestion of a more effective communication style

C. A suggestion of a less troublesome outlook

D. A suggestion of a less incomprehensible communication style

Explain: Rather than always blaming someone for their failures by soothing fears of sanction or
penalty, it is better to encourage helpful behavior.

35
Question 123: The essence of communication is the transfer and understanding of which of the
following:

A. Meaning

B. Emotional expression

C. Information

D. Data

Explain: Communication is not mere the exchange of information. It is also the transfer of meaning
between two and more parties. Communication in business and management is especially goal-
oriented. This means the transfer of meanings is toward achieving shared purpose and goals.

Question 124: In the process of selective perception, the receivers of a communication project
what into their understanding of the message?

A. Their voice and hearing

B. Their interests and expectations

C. Their speaking characteristics

D. Their job qualities and characteristics

Explain: There are 8 communication barriers:

+ Filtering: The sender purposely manipulates the information in a way that the receiver will
see it favorably.
+ Selective perception: Usually the receiver decodes the information selectively based on
their needs, their interests, their background, their expectations.
+ Information overload
+ Emotions
+ Language
+ Resilience
+ Apprehension

36
 + Lying: Very prevalent, but has many different meanings.

Question 125: Which of the following best represents the understanding of the concept of “lying”?

A. Lying is only ever about deliberate misrepresentation of truth

B. Lying is only ever about the mere withholding of information

C. Lying is understood to mean the same thing by all peoples across the world

D. Lying is based on different definitions and interpretations across people and cultures

Question 126: Which kind of processing of communication is most closely related to the concepts
of cognitive biases and perceptual shortcuts?

A. Cognitive processing

B. Controlled processing

C. Automatic processing

D. Autonomous processing

Explain: Automatic processing: rapidly and quickly process the information based on own
intuitions, instincts, mental shortcuts.

Controlled processing: Slowly and studiously process the information by careful about the
contextual data and avoid biases.

Question 127: How can having psychological flexibility help you in a situation in which you have
to communicate with someone who has performed a negative behavior?

A. It will prevent any emotional feelings in your response from occurring

B. It will ensure that you punish the person appropriately but fairly

C. It guarantees that you will treat that person fairly

D. It will allow you to become more open and receptive to that person

37
Question 128: Which of the following best captures the importance of communication in business
and management to achieve desired organizational outcomes ?

A. Meaning

B. Motivation and persuasion

C. Emotional expression

D. Goal-oriented

Explain: Communication is not mere the exchange of information. It is also the transfer of meaning
between two and more parties. Communication in business and management is especially goal-
oriented. This means the transfer of meanings is toward achieving shared purpose and goals.

Question 129: Using force, or the threat of force, in order to establish power represents what kind
of power?

A. Reward power

B. Reference power

C. Coercive power

D. Legitimate power

Explain: There are 3 types of formal power in organizations:

+ Legitimate power: the power based on authority to job title, job position and status to use
organizational resources to make decisions
+ Reward power: the power based on ability to distribute and withhold rewards or other
sources of values.
+ Coercive power: the power based on threat or a force of action to achieve compliance.

Question 130: When conflict is healthy, nothing about the conflict itself is:

A. Perfect

B. Permanent

38
 C. Personal

D. Perspective-dependent

Question 131: Which of the following is NOT one of the three constitutive features of dependence
as it relates to power?

A. Importance

B. Status

C. Scarcity

D. Non-substitutability

Explain: There are 3 features of dependence:

+ Importance: Do others want what you have ?

+ Scracrity: What do you have but others don't ?
+ Non-sustainability: Does what you offer have alternatives ?

Question 132: Organizational factors influence organizational politics mostly as a function of

what:

A. Inclinations

B. Incentives

C. Interests

D. Indiscriminateness

Question 133: “Bad faith” negotiations should

never be:

A. Tolerated

B. Abandoned

39
 C. Completely rejected

D. Recognized

Question 134: Under good conflict management practices, which of the following is emphasized:

A. Harmony

B. Unity

C. Agreement

D. Solutions

Explain: Good-conflict management is solution-oriented in which solutions are emphasized

Bad-conflict management is problem-oriented in which dissent itself is emphasized

Question 135: When people have good political skills, they will typically view office politics as
what:

A. A temporary imposition

B. A necessary inconvenience

C. An opportunity to grow personally

D. An opportunity to secure more power

Explain: When people have good political skills, they will view office politics as opportunities for
performing well and growing personally.

When people have poor political skills, they will view office politics as threats to their position,
thus, try to activate defensive behavior

Question 136: Power achieved as the result of charisma has what kind of formality?

A. Formality

B. Informality

40
 C. Misformality

D. Proformality

Explain: Power achieved as a result of charisma is referent power which is a type of informal
(personal) power in organizations.

Question 137: Under poor conflict management practices, perspectives are considered:

A. Anonymously

B. Selectively

C. Universally

D. Invariantly

Question 138: The features of an individual’s contracted job profile represent what kind of power?

A. Reward power

B. Coercive power

C. Legitimate power

D. Referent power

Explain: There are 3 types of formal power in organizations:

+ Legitimate power: the power based on authority to job title, job position and status to use
organizational resources to make decisions
+ Reward power: the power based on ability to distribute and withhold rewards or other
sources of values.
+ Coercive power: the power based on threat or a force of action to achieve compliance.

Question 139: Which of the following is NOT one of six elements of organization structure ?

A. Work specialization

B. Formalization

41
C. Task required skills

D. Departmentalization

Explain: Six elements of organizational structure includes:

+ Work specialization
+ Departmentalization
+ Formalization
+ Chain of command
+ Span of control
+ Centralization vs Decentralization

Question 140: Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which jobs can be
departmentalized?

A. Based on process requirements

B. Based on geographic location

C. Based on governance concerns

D. Based on customer needs

Question 141: Which of the following is NOT one of advantages in jobs involving a high level of
decentralization ?

A. Quick decision and response times

B. Clarity in decision-making

C. Greater leveraging of skill specialization

D. Better use of lower and middle management

Explain: Clarity in decision-making is an advantage of centralization.

Question 142: Which of the following is NOT one of the problems created by a misaligned
organizational structure?

42
A. Disorganization and improper staffing

B. Despairing constitutional separation

C. Diminished capacity, capability, and agility

D. Declining workforce engagement

Question 143: In modern management, is more or less centralization and decentralization

recommended?

A. There is no universal recommendation for centralization and decentralization

B. More centralization, less decentralization

C. Less of both centralization and decentralization

D. More decentralization, less centralization

Question 144: The concept of an organization that isn’t limited by structural boundaries originated
with the head of which American company?

A. Ford

B. General Electric

C. IBM

D. Berkshire Hathaway

Question 145: Matrix-based organizational structures are mainly designed based on differences
in what:

A. Departmental dysfunctionality

B. Departmental formalization

C. Departmental informalization

D. Departmental functionality

43
Question 146: The great advantage of organically-designed organizations lies in their greater:

A. Formalization and centralization

B. Mechanism and structure

C. Stability and rigidity

D. Flexibility and adaptability

Question 147: Which of the following is NOT one of the effects of the relative absence of
separation of ownership and control in Vietnamese corporate governance?

A. The uncommonness of directors and chairmen serving concurrently

B. Inadequate representation of information to non-insiders

C. Poor accountability

D. A lack of harmony in inter-party transactions

Question 148: What is thought to be the main conceptual difference between organizational
structure and design?

A. Structure is static, design is dynamic

B. Structure is informal, design is formal

C. Structure is formal, design is informal

D. Structure is dynamic, design is static

Question 149: Consider a task force in the context of the Five Stage Team Development model
(Class 5). Which of the following best describes the process of a task force:

A. A task force is not required to adjourn at any point.

B. A task force performs, then adjourns, then returns to the norming stage.

C. A task force performs, then adjourns.

44
D. A task force performs, then adjourns, then returns to perform again.

Q150-171: See here

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1wAB7K_Q30x_BMz3zQ7SHn_itBRqMIrCaWUtZSTMo
GAs/edit?usp=sharing

Question 150: Which of the following is NOT an aspect of managerial complexity to determine
the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct ?

A. Time allocation

B. Motivation potential

C. Process standardization

D. Work variety

Explain: There are 4 aspects of managerial complexity to determine optimal span of control”

+ Time allocation
+ Process standardization
+ Work variety
+ Team required skills

Question 151: Which of the following is NOT a core value in which the organization is designed
?

A. People

B. Process

C. Structure

D. Compensation

Question 152: In which organization structure do employees are spread across multiple functions,
working in one department while having responsibilities in another ?

45
A. Matrix structure

B. Divisional structure

C. Bottom-up structure

D. Hierarchy structure

Explain: In matrix structure, employees have to serve with dual lines of authority, one is to work
with managers, another is to work with project managers.

Question 153: Which of the following is NOT true regarding structural boundaries within an
organization ?

A. It seeks to eliminate the chain of command

B. It includes entire chain of command responsible for tasks and decisions

C. It has limitless spans of control

D. It replaces departments with empowered teams

Explain: Boundaryless organization is an organization that seeks to eliminate the chain of

command, have limitless spans of control, and replace departments with empowered teams.

Question 154: Which of the following is correct when comparing the sharing value in strong and
weak organizational culture ?

A. In strong culture, values are widely shared while in weak culture, values only accepted by a few
people

B. In weak culture, values are widely shared while in strong culture, values only accepted by a few
people

C. Regardless of the strong or weak culture level, values are widely shared to ensure employees to
work toward common goals

D. Regardless of the strong or weak culture level, values only accepted by a few people, usually
top management

46
Question 155: Which of the following best describes organizational culture and climate ?

A. Organizational culture is “in practice” while organization climate is “on paper”

B. Organizational culture is “on paper” while organization climate is “in practice”

C. Organizational culture is “vision” while organization climate is “experience”

D. Organizational culture is “experience” while organization climate is “vision”

Question 156: Which of the following is NOT a component of the mechanistic approach of
organization structure ?

A. High specialization

B. Rigid departmentalization

C. Low formalization

D. Narrow spans of control

Question 157: Which of the following is NOT a dimension to consider the fit between strategy
and structure in an organization environment ?

A. Capacity

B. Volatility

C. Complexity

D. Technology

Question 158: Which of the following is NOT a way to build an ethical culture in the organization
?

A. Be a visible role model

B. Provide protective mechanisms

C. Explicitly define values

47
D. Visibly reward ethical acts and punish unethical ones

Question 159: Which of the following is considered as a way to establish a strong and positive
culture within an organization ?

A. Communicate ethical expectations

B. Build psychological safety and flexibility

C. Provide ethical training

D. Provide protective mechanisms

Question 160: Which of the following is NOT a component of workplace spirituality ?

A. Flexibility and creativity

B. Benevolence

C. Strong sense of purpose

D. Open-mindedness

Question 161: Which of the following has global implications for practicing organization culture
when it appears to multinational corporations (MNCs) ?

A. Decentralization is always promoted regardless of the differences in values in the global

context.

B. Different countries have the same perspectives on values, thus MNCs are not necessary to adapt
a new value into other cultures.

C. Values don’t always neatly translate from one national or cultural context to another, thus
MNCs need to consider and adapt appropriate values to best fit with the other cultures.

D. MNCs are forced to make their subordinates in other cultures fit with the values in their home
nations due to the fact that value is static, not fluid and flexible.

48
Question 162: The organizational structure of working with many groups at a given locality is
referred to as:

A. Egalitarianism

B. Ecosystem

C. Equal economy

D. Externality economy

Question 163: “Scale independence” is a feature of what kind of organizational structural feature:

A. Polycentric governance

B. Unicentric governance

C. Tricentric governance

D. Bicentric governance

Question 164: What is the term which denotes the basis by which jobs are grouped?

A. Specialization

B. Formalization

C. Departmentalization

D. Naturalization

Question 165: In highly centralized organizational structures, lower-level managers are

responsible for what with respect to decision making?

A. Executing decisions

B. Planning decisions

C. Defining decisions

D. Authorizing decisions

49
Question 166: What kind of structure employees dual lines of authority to streamline workplace
performance?

A. Hierarchical structure

B. Boundaryless structure

C. Matrix structure

D. Organic structure

Question 167: What can top management most effectively do with regard to creating an ethical
culture within their organization?

A. Undertake ethical training

B. Eliminate all possible ethical difficulties from the company

C. Have uniform ethical expectations of all people

D. Be a public role model

Question 168: Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which employees learn
organizational culture?

A. Language

B. Training

C. Stories

D. Rituals

Question 169: “Managing upward” can be particularly difficult within which kind of
organizational structure:

A. Adhocracy

B. Boundaryless

50
C. Matrix

D. Hierarchy

Question 170: The term “formalization” is largely interchangeable with which other
organizational structure term?

A. Centralization

B. Standardization

C. Decentralization

D. Informalization

Question 171: In a boundaryless organization, what theoretical quality do spans of control

possess?

A. Tightness

B. Limitlessness

C. Looseness

D. Limitedness

Question 172: Although the market today is dynamic and changeable, there are still companies
that have a particularly stable environment.

A. True

B. False

Explain: Although the market today is dynamic and changeable, there are no companies that have
a particularly stable environment since change is relentless and unstoppable in organizations.

Question 173: What is the rallying cry among today's managers worldwide?

A. Change is constant

51
B. Risk is better than regret

C. Change or die

D. Management is an art

Explain: “Adapt or die”, “Change or die” are rallying cries among managers today.

Question 174: Which one of these is NOT a force of change?

A. Nature of the workforce

B. Economic shocks

C. Globalization

D. World politics

Explain: There are six forces for change:

+ Nature of the workforce

+ Technology
+ Economic shocks
+ Competition
+ Social trends
+ World politics

Question 175: Who in an org is responsible for managing change activities?

A. HRM Department.

B. Everyone in the organization.

C. The shareholders

D. Change agents

Question 176: How do you explain the principle that Connelly calls "launch hard and ramp fast."?

A. Continuously selling products with lower costs compared to the market price

52
B. Launch new products and derive as much of its revenues as possible

C. Launch as many marketing campaigns as possible to attract new customers

D. Launch as many new projects as possible to genera

Question 177: Which one is NOT an individual source of resistance to change?

A. Security

B. Fear of the unknown

C. Selective information processing

D. Favoritism

Explain: There are 5 individual sources of resistance for change:

+ Habit
+ Security
+ Economic factors
+ Fear of the unknown
+ Selective information processing

Question 178: Which one is NOT an organizational source of resistance to change?

A. Structural inertia

B. Limited focus of change

C. Organizational culture

D. Threat to established power relationships

Explain: There are 5 organizational sources of resistance for change:

+ Structural inertia
+ Limited focus of change
+ Group inertia

53
 + Threat to expertise
+ Threat to established power relationships

Question 179: What are the three steps in Lewin's Change Model?

A. Unfreezing -> Movement -> Refreezing

B. Defrosting -> Movement -> Freezing

C. Freezing -> Unfreezing -> Refreezing

D. Freezing -> Defrosting -> Refreezing

Question 180: What are the steps of action research in order?

A. Diagnosis, action, analysis, feedback, evaluation and action

B. Diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action and evaluation

C. Diagnosis, analysis, action, feedback and evaluation

D. Diagnosis, analysis, action, evaluation and feedback

Question 181: Which approach to managing organizational change whose focus is on how
individuals make sense of their work environment?

A. Lewin's Change Model

B. Kotter's Eight-step Plan

C. Action Research

D. Organizational Development

Question 182: Which is NOT an underlying value in most OD efforts?

A. Trust and support

B. Power equalization

C. Gender equality

54
D. Participation

Explain: There are 5 underlying values in OD:

+ Respect for people

+ Trust and support
+ Power equalization and abandonment of hierarchical structure
+ Open confrontation
+ Universal and democratic participation

Question 183: Appreciative inquiry (AI) focuses on an organization's problems.

A. True

B. False

Explain: Appreciative inquiry focuses on strengths rather than problems

Question 184: Which step is included in Appreciative Inquiry (AI)?

A. Discovery, dreaming, design and destiny

B. Discovery, design, dreaming and action

C. Discovery, design, action and evaluation

D. Discovery, dreaming, design and action

Question 185: How long is AI played in a large-group meeting?

A. 1 week to 1 month

B. Over a 2- or 3-day time period

C. Over a year

D. Over a 4- or 5-day time period

Question 186: Which is NOT a source of innovation?

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A. Organic structure

B. Long tenure in management

C. Abundant resources

D. Interunit communication

E. Flexible working time

Question 187: Which is NOT one of the three fundamental problems of traditional organization
that proponents of the learning organization envision it as a remedy?

A. Fragmentation

B. Specialization

C. Competition

D. Reactiveness

Question 188: "They correct errors by modifying objectives, policies, and standard routines" is the
definition of:

A. Single-loop learning

B. Double-loop learning

C. Idea champions

D. Process Consultation

Question 189: Which of the following best describes the likely outcome of having no stress in our
lives?

A. It’s good for our growth and development

B. It’s not good for either our growth or our development
C. It’s good for our growth, but not our development
D. It’s good for our development, but not our growth

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Question 190: Creating a learning organization requires which of the following:

A. Subordinating the collective interests of the organization to the individual interests of the
organization
B. Subordinating self-interest to the individual interests of the organization
C. Subordinating the collective interests of the organization to self-interest
D. Subordinating self-interest to the collective interests of the organization

Question 191: Which of the following best describes the ability of people and organizations to
respond to change:

A. Change is difficult for people to accept, but easy for organizations to absorb
B. Change is easy for people to accept, and easy for organizations to absorb
C. Change is easy for people to accept, but difficult for organizations to absorb
D. Change is difficult for people to accept, and difficult for organizations to absorb

Question 192: Who declared stress to be the health epidemic of the 21st century?

A. IMF
B. WTO
C. WHO
D. Red Cross

Question 193: In building a culture of change, what term refers to the people that promote good
ideas and encourage people within the organization to buy into such ideas?

A. Innovators
B. Pacesetters
C. Champions
D. Change agents

Question 194: Organizations which allow their employees to burn themselves out:

A. Have failed both the employee and themselves

B. Have failed neither the employee nor themselves
C. Have not failed the employee, but have failed themselves

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D. Have failed the employee, but not themselves

Question 195: Complete the expression which best describes organizational change: “Adapt...

A. …and survive”
B. …and thrive”
C. …and die”
D. …or die”

Question 196: Moderate levels of stress can have the effect of:

A. Individuals performing tasks worse

B. Individuals having no noticeable impact on task performance
C. Individuals performing tasks better
D. Individuals not being able to perform tasks at all

Question 197: Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Principles of Change Management?

A. Eliminating change
B. Planning change
C. Communicating change
D. Understanding change

Question 198: Chronic workplace stress that has not been effectively managed will likely lead to:

A. Burning
B. Burner
C. Burns
D. Burnout

Question 199: Human resource management’s success in developing leaders mainly depends on
the quality of their:

A. Policies
B. Processes
C. Practices

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D. Programs

Question 200: Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that performance evaluations can
be improved?

A. Training evaluators
B. Providing employees with due dates
C. Selective evaluation
D. Use of multiple evaluators

Question 201: The most successful development programs are NOT based on:

A. Creative license
B. Competencies
C. Spirit
D. Culture

Question 202: What does the evidence suggest about using training to increase employees’
interpersonal skills in the workplace?

A. Training has no influence on interpersonal skills in the workplace

B. Training has a moderate influence on interpersonal skills in the workplace
C. Training has a substantial influence on interpersonal skills in the workplace
D. Training has a superficial and non-transferable influence on interpersonal skills in the
workplace

Question 203: The friction or incompatibility associated with competing demands at home and in
the workplace is referred to as:

A. Work-life balance
B. Work-life synthesis
C. Work-life conflict
D. Working lifestyle

Question 204: Developing an action learning culture requires a willingness to embrace:

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A. Flexibility
B. Failure
C. Forgiveness
D. Feedback

Question 205: In setting goals for development, the goals themselves should ultimately be
designed by whom:

A. The person’s team

B. The person themselves
C. The person’s boss
D. The person’s organization

Question 206: According to numerous experts, what is the single-best selection test that can be
administered to potential employees?

A. CQ test
B. EI test
C. EQ test
D. IQ test

Question 207: Building an action learning culture is the responsibility of whom:

A. Human resource management and leadership

B. The board of directors
C. Human resource management
D. Leadership

Question 208: Relying too extensively on interviews during selection is problematic because
potential candidates may use what sort of techniques?

A. Intelligence management
B. Impression management
C. Industry management
D. Interview management

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Question 209: In background check during selection process, the recruiters should be mindful of
what if they go in so detail about the candidate’s ethnic, gender, sexual orientation:

A. Invasiveness (Sự xâm lấn)

B. Inequity

C. Inapplicability

D. Inappropriate

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