CBSE Class 12

Biology
Previous Year Question Paper 2020
Series: HMJ/2 Code no. 57/2/1

● Please check that this question paper contains 11 printed pages.

● Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.

● Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.

● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.

● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
student will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer script during this period.

BIOLOGY (Theory)

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. This question paper consists of four Sections A, B, C and D. Section A

contains 8 questions of one mark each. Section B is of 10 questions of two
marks each. Section C is of 9 questions of three marks each and Section
D is of 3 questions of five marks each.

3. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided

in one question of 2 marks, one question of 3 marks and all the three
Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 1
 questions of 5 marks weightage. A student has to attempt only one of the
alternatives in such questions.

4. Wherever necessary, the diagrams drawn should be neat and properly

labelled.

SECTION – A
1. Cleistogamous flowers are self-pollinate because 1 Mark
A. they are bisexual flowers which do not open at all.
B. they are bisexual and open flowers.
C. they are unisexual.
D. their stigma matures before the anthers dehisce.
Ans: They are bisexual flowers that do not open at all.
Or
Asexual reproduction by zoospores is observed in
A. Penicillium
B. Hydra
C. Sponge
D. Chlamydomonas
Ans: Chlamydomonas

2. The theory of evolution supported by the experiment conducted by Louis

Pasteur is 1 Mark
A. Spontaneous generation theory
B. Life comes only from pre-existing life
C. Abiogenesis of life
D. Big bang theory
Ans: Spontaneous generation theory

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3. The diagnostic test that confirms typhoid in humans is 1 Mark
A. ELISA
B. Widal
C. MRI
D. Amniocentesis
Ans: Widal

4. The bioactive molecule used as an immunosuppressive agent during organ

transplant is 1 Mark
A. Tetracycline
B. Cyclosporin-A
C. Statin
D. Streptomycin
Ans: Cyclosporin-A
Or
‘Blue revolution’ refers to
A. construction of water dams for conservation of water
B. production of fish in large quantities
C. sewage treatment
D. controlling algal bloom
Ans: production of fish in large quantities

5. Which one of the following is not the product of transgenic experiments?

1 Mark
A. Pest-resistant crop variety
B. High nutritional value in grains
C. Production of insulin by rDNA technique

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 D. Drought-resistant crops
Ans: Production of insulin by rDNA technique

SECTION - B
6. Write the ploidy and number of chromosomes in human (a) meiocytes,
and (b) gametes. 2 Marks
Ans: The number of chromosomes in a cell is measured by ploidy. Chromosomes
are threadlike structures that contain DNA, which is the genetic material.
a) (Meiocytes) 2n, = 46
b) (Gametes) n, = 23

7. What is aneuploidy? Name a chromosomal disorder in humans caused due

to (a) gain of an autosome, and (b) loss of a sex chromosome in females.
2 Marks
Ans: Aneuploidy is the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a
cell, such as 45 or 47 instead of 46 in a human cell. It does not include a difference
in one or more complete sets of chromosomes. A euploid cell has any number of
complete chromosome sets.
1. Turner's syndrome
2. Down's syndrome

8. State a functional difference between the following codons: 2 Marks

a) AUG and UAA
Ans:

AUG UAA
It is Start codon It is Stop codon
Initiator codon Terminator Codon
b) Specific and Degenerate
Ans:

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 Specific Degenerate
A codon that codes for only one amino A codon that codes for more than one
acid. amino acid.
Only one codon More than one codon

9. (a) Identify any two marsupials from the list given below : 2 Marks
i. Lemur
ii. Spotted cuscus
iii. Flying phalanger
iv. Bobcat
v. Tasmanian wolf
vi. Mole
Ans: A marsupial is any mammalian infraclass belonging to the Marsupialia
order. All extant marsupials live in Australasia and the Americas. Flying
phalanger and Tasmanian wolf are marsupials, according to the above list.
(b) ‘‘Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation.’’ Justify the
statement.
Ans: Any member of the mammalian infraclass Marsupialia is referred to as a
marsupial. Australasia and the Americas are home to all extant marsupials.
Because Australian marsupials are descended from a common ancestor, they are
all found on the Australian island continent.

10. Name the type of immunity the mother provides the newborn baby. How
does it happen? 2 Marks
Ans: Passive immunity is present when a baby is born. Passive immunity is
created when antibodies produced by another person are transferred to another
person. Passive immunity protects for a short period, usually a few weeks or
months. Because mother's milk contains yellowish fluid colostrum, which
provides antibodies Ig A to protect the infant.

11. Name the two primary lymphoid organs. State the importance of T-
lymphocytes. 2 Marks

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Ans: The lymphatic system, also known as the lymphoid system, is a part of the
circulatory and immune systems invertebrates. A large network of lymph,
lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, lymphatic or lymphoid organs, and lymphoid
tissues make up the lymphatic system. The bone marrow and the thymus are
examples of primary lymphoid organs. They produce lymphocytes, which are
immune system cells.
Importance of T-lymphocytes:
(a) They aid B-cells in the production of antibodies
(b) They are responsible for graft rejection.

12. How are malignant tumors different from benign tumors? Why are some
patients treated with α-interferons? 2 Marks
Ans:
(a) When cells grow and divide more than they should or do not die when they
should, an abnormal mass of tissue forms. Tumors can be benign (non-
cancerous) or malignant (cancerous). Benign tumors can grow to be quite
large, but they do not spread to nearby tissues or other parts of the body.
(b) Tumors can range in size from a small nodule to a large mass, and they can
appear almost anywhere on the body, depending on the type. Benign tumors
stay put and don't spread to other parts of the body, whereas malignant
tumors multiply and spread to other parts of the body. Malignant tumors are
more harmful and cause serious damage. Benign tumors cause little damage.
Because it is a biological response modifier that activates the immune
system, some patients are treated with alpha - interferons.
Or
Name the hormone with which a cow is administered using MOET
technology. State the function of this hormone. 2 Marks
Ans: MOET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology) is a technique
in which an animal's multiple eggs are fertilized and the embryo is harvested on
the seventh day without surgery. It is a traditional method of producing embryos
in cattle that is still used today. the hormone with which a cow is administered
using MOET Technology Follicular Stimulating Hormone.
Functions of FSH:
(a) FSH aids in the regulation of the menstrual cycle in women and stimulates
the production of eggs in the ovaries. Women's FSH levels fluctuate
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 throughout the menstrual cycle, with the highest levels occurring just before
the ovary releases an egg. This is referred to as ovulation.
(b) FSH aids in the regulation of sperm production in men. FSH levels in men
do not fluctuate much in most cases.
(c) FSH levels in children are typically low until puberty when they begin to
rise. It aids in the production of estrogen by the ovaries in females. It aids the
signaling of the testes to produce testosterone in boys.

SECTION - C
13. Draw a longitudinal section of the pistil from a flowering plant, where
pollination has occurred. Label the following :
(a) Stigma showing germinating pollen grains
(b) Style
(c) Pollen tube reaching the micropyle of the ovule
(d) Embryo sac
(e) Components of the egg apparatus
Ans:

14. Study the given diagram :

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A is an embryonic stage that gets transformed into B, which in turn gets
implanted in the endometrium in human females.
(a) Identify A, B, and its parts C and D.
(b) State the fate of C and D in the course of embryonic development in
humans. 3 Marks
Ans: Blastocyst is the embryonic stage that is implanted in the uterine wall of a
human female. It's the stage after the morula stage when trophoblast cells form a
ring around the periphery and an inner cell mass forms.
a) In the given figure,
A - Morula
B - Blastocyst
C - Stem cell
D – Trophoblast
b) Trophoblasts are the cells that make up a blastocyst's outer layer. In humans,
they appear four days after fertilization. They nourish the embryo and form a
significant portion of the placenta. Trophoblast aids in the attachment of the
embryo to the endometrium as it forms the placenta, which is formed by stem
cells.
Or
(a) Identify the figure given below and also identify the parts B, C, D, and E.

Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 8

(b) State the function of E. 3 Marks
Ans: The above is the figure of 'Mature Dicot Embryo'. The eudicot seed's two
cotyledons are linked to the rest of the embryo by vascular tissue (xylem and
phloem). Food reserves are stored in the endosperm of endospermic dicots.
(a) B-Suspensor
(b) C- Radicle
(c) D-Plumule
(d) E-Cotyledon
(b) A cotyledon is a seed leaf that grows inside the embryo of a seed. Cotyledons
help a plant embryo get the nutrition it needs to germinate and grow into a
photosynthetic organism. They can also be a source of nutritional reserves or aid
the embryo in metabolizing nutrition stored elsewhere in the seed.

15. A normal couple has their first child, who is haemophilic. Work out a
cross to show how it is possible. State the possibility of the normal and the
hemophilic children, along with their sexes, that can be born to them.
3 Marks
Ans: Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder caused by an inherited inability for the
blood to clot properly. This can cause bleeding on its own as well as bleeding
after an injury or surgery. Clotting factors are proteins found in the blood that can
help stop bleeding.
here,
Carrier female= XXh
Normal male= XY

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16. Starting from the pioneer species, trace the sequence that follows in an
ecological succession on a bare rock, until the climax community is reached
in an ecosystem. Name this type of succession. 3 Marks

Ans: Primary succession is a type of ecological succession that takes place in

areas where there has never been any life.
a) It includes places like bare rocks, where the soil is incapable of supporting
life. Volcanic eruptions, oil spills, floods, glacier retreat, and other natural
disasters can all cause primary succession.
b) The pioneer species are those that have been around for a long time. After
the pioneer species, intermediate species such as plants and other
organisms colonize the soil and alter the soil composition and habitat.
Finally, the climax community is formed, which allows for the survival of
larger and more complex organisms.
c) Hardy species that are the first to colonize barren environments or
previously biodiverse steady-state ecosystems that have been disrupted,
such as by fire, are referred to as pioneer species.
d) Lichens, which grow on rocks without soil and break down the rocks into
the soil for plants, may be among the first life forms.
e) The process of ecological succession describes how the structure of a
biological community (that is, an interacting group of various species in a
desert, forest, grassland, or marine environment, for example) changes
over time. Lichens are the first species to appear on rocks because they
secrete acid and dissolve rocks, assisting in soil formation and paving the

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 way for bryophytes, which hold a small amount of soil. Higher plants and
scrub succeed it, and after a few stages, a stable climax forest community
emerges.

17. The release of municipal wastewater and industrial waste into our
natural water bodies is causing a disastrous effect on aquatic life. Explain
the biological treatment that should be given to it before releasing it into the
natural water bodies. 3 Marks
Ans: Municipal and industrial wastewater were combined and sent to a single
drain for treatment during the first half of the twentieth century. Human and
marine life were exposed to health risks as a result of this process, which
necessitated the separation of municipal and industrial wastewater.
a) Municipal and industrial wastewater, when properly treated, can be a
valuable source of energy and nutrients. Sludge from municipal
wastewater, for example, can be used to extract energy and bio-solids for
agricultural purposes, while phosphorous from eutrophication can be used
to make fertilizers.
b) We are adding a disastrous effect on aquatic life by releasing municipal
wastewater and industrial waste into our natural water bodies. These are
the biological treatments that should be given to it before releasing it into
natural water bodies to correct this.
c) To begin, the primary effluent is pumped into large aeration tanks, where
it is mechanically constantly agitated and the air is pumped in, allowing
useful aerobic microbes to grow into Flocs/masses of bacteria associated
with fungal filaments.
d) The effluent is then passed into settling tanks where Flocs are allowed to
sediment, resulting in activated sludge, as these microbes consume a large
portion of the organic matter in the effluent, lowering BOD. A small
portion of this is returned to the aeration tank as an inoculum, while the
majority of the sludge is pumped into large tanks known as anaerobic
sludge digesters, where anaerobic bacteria are grown.
e) As cities and industries expand, monetary and intellectual investments in
efficient and long-term treatment of water discharged from municipal and
industrial sources are required. Before releasing the nutrient-rich water
back into the streams for marine life, wastewater should be viewed as a
valuable resource from which energy can be extracted.

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18. Mention any two advantages of the micropropagation technique. Write
how its process is carried out in the laboratory. Name any two important
food plants grown commercially by this method. 3 Marks
Ans:
a) Micropropagation is an artificial method for rapidly multiplication of
plants in a controlled environment using tissue or cell culture techniques.
The method is widely used to create genetically identical plants, pathogen-
free plants, mass plant production, gene conservation, and other
applications.
b) Plants are produced in vitro through asexual reproduction or vegetative
propagation in this artificial propagation process. Plants can be produced
asexually (via multiplication of vegetative parts) or sexually (via seed
production). Clonal propagation, where plants can be populated from a
single individual through asexual means of reproduction, is one method of
asexual reproduction that involves multiplying genetic replicas of plants.
c) Because figs, grapes, bananas, and other plants do not produce functional
seeds, asexual reproduction via the multiplication of vegetative parts is the
only option for in vivo propagation. Potato, apple, and a variety of other
ornamental plants have all been successfully propagated using clonal
propagation techniques.
d) Micropropagation has proven to be beneficial in a variety of ways.
Micropropagation has the following advantages in plant production:
e) It is an alternative method for vegetative propagation with a higher
multiplication rate.
f) In a short amount of time, single plant tissue can produce a large number
of identical plants.

19. When Bacillus thuringiensis enters a certain insect’s body, the insect gets
killed, but itself remains unaffected. Explain how it is possible. 3 Marks
Ans: Bt is a microbe that lives in the soil. It produces proteins that are poisonous
to young insects (larvae). Bt comes in a variety of forms. Each one is aimed at a
different type of insect. Beetles, mosquitoes, black flies, caterpillars, and moths
are among the insects targeted.
1) Routine testing is required with Bt pesticides to ensure that unwanted
toxins and microbes are not present. Since 1961, the US Environmental
Protection Agency (EPA) has approved Bt for use in pesticides.
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 2) When Bacillus thuringiensis enters a certain insect’s body, the insect gets
killed, but itself remains unaffected because it contains some acids that
produce protein from substances that are toxic to insects.

20. 3 Marks
(a) Write how parasites have evolved with adaptation to co-exist with their
hosts in an ecosystem.
Ans: Co-evolution between the host and the parasite is a special case of co-
evolution. It's defined as the reciprocal adaptive genetic change of two
antagonists (for example, different species or genes) as a result of reciprocal
selective pressures. Hosts and parasites are subjected to reciprocal selective
pressures, which can result in rapid reciprocal adaptation. The antagonists in the
case of host-parasite coevolution are different.
If the parasite evolves a special mechanism to reject or resist the parasite, the
parasite must (simultaneously) evolve, i.e. co-evolve, a mechanism to counteract
and neutralize the parasite.
(b) Parasites are host-specific and tend to co-evolve. How would the parasite
respond if the host evolves a certain mechanism to resist or reject the
parasite?
Ans: To be successful with the same host species, the parasite must evolve a
mechanism to counteract and neutralize the host's resistance or rejection of the
parasite.
Or
(a) Name an ideal pyramid existing in an ecosystem. Construct it up to its
three trophic levels along with their names. 3 Marks
Ans: A graphical representation of the biomass or bio productivity at each trophic
level in a given ecosystem is known as an ecological pyramid (also trophic
pyramid, Estonian pyramid, energy pyramid, or food pyramid).
The pyramid of energy is the ideal pyramid:
carnivores - 100J
herbivores - 1000J
plants - 10000J
100000J

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(b) The sun provides 1,000,000 J of sunlight (solar energy) to an ecosystem.
Write the amount of energy that is available to the first and third trophic
levels, respectively.
Ans: Solar energy is the radiant light and heat from the Sun that is captured
through a variety of ever-evolving technologies like solar heating, photovoltaics,
solar thermal energy, solar architecture, molten salt power plants, and artificial
photosynthesis. Solar energy is combined with inorganic soil substances
(nitrogen and other elements), as well as water and carbon dioxide in the air, by
autotroph plants or producers to produce organic matter such as cellulose.
10,00,000J from sun, (1%) = 10,000 J
10,000J ⇒ 1000J ⇒ 100J
First trophic level Third trophic level

21. Global carbon is fixed in the biosphere through photosynthesis. 3 Marks

Ans: The two natural processes by which carbon is returned to the atmosphere
are respiration by plants and animals and decomposition by bacteria and fungi.
Soil carbon storage is a critical ecosystem service that occurs as a result of
ecological processes interacting. The effects of human activities on these
processes can result in carbon loss or improved storage. The global carbon cycle
is fueled by geologic processes as well as photosynthesis and animal respiration.
Carbon dioxide is taken up by plants from the atmosphere and converted to
carbon in plant tissue and oxygen in the atmosphere. Plants, like humans, use
respiration to generate energy.
(a) Explain any two ways by which carbon is returned to the atmosphere
through natural processes.
Ans: Various organic compounds decompose when plant residues are returned to
the soil. Decomposition is a biological process in which complex organic
molecules in the dead matter are physically broken down and biochemically
transformed into simpler organic and inorganic molecules (Juma, 1998). The
continuous addition of decaying plant residues to the soil surface contributes to
soil biological activity and carbon cycling. These processes are aided by the
breakdown of soil organic matter, as well as root growth and decay. Carbon
cycling is the continuous transformation of organic and inorganic carbon
compounds between the soil and the atmosphere by plants, micro, and
macroorganisms.

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(b) List any two human activities that have influenced the carbon cycle in
nature.
Ans: The carbon cycle in nature has been influenced by two human activities:
Fossil fuel combustion: Organic matter decays and becomes compressed beneath
layers upon layers of sand, earth, rock, and ocean, resulting in fossil fuels such as
coal, oil, and natural gas. The term "fossil fuel" is derived from the word "fossil,"
which refers to the mineralized remains of ancient creatures that once inhabited
the planet. The process of burning fossil fuels produces carbon dioxide, water,
and energy.
Forest fuelwood is burned: Wood fuel (also known as fuelwood) is a type of fuel
that includes things like firewood, charcoal, chips, sheets, pellets, and sawdust.
Source, quantity, quality, and application all influence the type of form that is
used. Wood is the most readily available form of fuel in many areas, requiring no
or few tools in the case of picking up dead wood, though specialized tools, such
as skidders and rakes, are required in any industry.

SECTION - D
22.

Study the schematic representation given above and answer the following
questions : 3 Marks
Ans: The above schematic representation shows population density. The success
of organisms and the effects they have on their environment are determined by
their population density. A population in biology is a group of individuals from
the same species who live in the same area at the same time.
(a) Identify A in it.
Ans: In the above schematic representation, ‘A’ represents Natality. The birth
rate in a population is referred to as natality. The growth or decrease in a
population can be determined by comparing it to the death or mortality rate. The
Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 15
total number of live births per 1,000 population divided by the number of years
in the period equals the birth rate. The number of live births is usually derived
from a birth registration system, while population counts are derived from a
census.
(b) Identify D in it.
Ans: In the above schematic representation, ‘B’ represents mortality. Mortality
is the state of having to die one day or the rate of failure or loss. All animals will
eventually die, which is an example of mortality. The number of high school
students who do not graduate is an example of mortality. The death rate is high.
A mortality rate is a measure of the frequency with which people die in a given
population over a given period.
(c) When the population density at time t is N as shown above, write the
population density at time t + 1 in the form of an equation using appropriate
symbols.
Ans: When the population density at time t is N as shown above, but, if the
population density at time t + 1 then the equation will be N (t+1)=Nt+[(B+I)-
(D+E)].

23. (a) Identify steps A and B in a cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction given
below. 3 Marks

self made
Ans: A chain reaction is a series of reactions in which a reactive product or by-
product initiates more reactions. Positive feedback in a chain reaction causes a
self-amplifying chain of events. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a widely
used method for rapidly making millions to billions of copies of a specific DNA
sample, allowing scientists to take a small sample of DNA and amplify it to a
large enough amount to study in-depth. in the above polymerase chain reaction,

Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 16

A= Annealing: Annealing is a heat treatment process that alters a material's
physical and sometimes chemical properties to increase ductility and reduce
hardness, making it easier to work with.
B=Extension: Each base's loosened nucleotides are used to grow the
complementary DNA strand, resulting in extension. The final product is two
double-stranded DNA products. The temperature used during the extension phase
is determined by the type of DNA polymerase used.
(b) State the specific characteristic feature of the enzyme in carrying step B.
Ans: Proteins that act as biological catalysts are known as enzymes. Catalysts
help to speed up chemical reactions. Substrates are the molecules on which
enzymes can act, and the enzyme converts the substrates into different molecules
called products. In repeated cycles of primer annealing, DNA synthesis, and
duplex DNA dissociation to serve as new templates, a thermostable DNA
polymerase is used.
The theoretical amplification of template DNA is 2n, where n is the number of
cycles, assuming no reagents are limited and the enzyme maintains full activity.
so, step B carries the Thermostable (DNA Polymerase). For PCR amplification,
Taq DNA polymerase is the most commonly used enzyme. With a half-life of 40
minutes at 95°C, this enzyme is extremely heat resistant. This is the specific
characteristic feature of the enzyme in carrying step B.

24. Study the diagrammatic representation of S.L. Miller’s experiment given

below and answer the questions that follow : 3 Marks

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Vedantu website
(a) How did S.L. Miller create the conditions which existed before the
origin of any life on Earth?
Ans: The Miller–Urey experiment (also known as the Miller experiment) was a
chemical experiment that simulated the conditions thought to exist on the early
Earth in 1952 and tested the chemical origin of life under those conditions. At the
time, the experiment backed up Alexander Oparin and J. B. S. Haldane's
hypothesis that putative primitive Earth conditions favored chemical reactions.
(b) Name the organic compound formed and collected at the end of his
experiment.
Ans: Conditions were created by electric discharge (high temperature) in a closed
flask containing CH4, NH3, H2, water vapors. Water (H2O), methane (CH4),
ammonia (NH3), and hydrogen were used in the experiment (H2). All of the
chemicals were kept in a sterile 5-liter glass flask that was connected to a 500-ml
flask half-filled with water. The water in the smaller flask was heated to cause
evaporation, and the resulting water vapor was allowed to enter the larger flask.
Continuous electrical sparks were fired between the electrodes to simulate
lightning in the water vapor and gaseous mixture, and then the simulated
atmosphere was cooled, causing the water to condense and flow into a U-shaped
trap at the bottom of the apparatus.
(c) Mention the kind of evolution his experiment supports.
Ans: The solution collected at the trap turned pink after a day, and the solution
was deep red and turbid after a week of continuous operation. To prevent
microbial contamination, the boiling flask was removed and mercuric chloride
was added. The reaction was halted with the addition of barium hydroxide and
sulfuric acid, and the impurities were removed by evaporation. Miller identified
five amino acids in the solution using paper chromatography: α-alanine, β-
alanine were positively identified, while aspartic acid and -aminobutyric acid
(AABA) were less certain due to the faint spots. Thus, the amino acid is the
organic compound formed and collected at the end of his experiment.
Thus, the kind of evolution his experiment supports is called chemical evolution.
The first step in the evolution of life on this planet was the formation of complex
organic molecules (see also organic molecules) from simple inorganic molecules
in the oceans during the early history of the Earth. Chemical evolution took place
over less than a billion years.

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 SECTION - E
25. (a) Draw the sectional view of a seminiferous tubule of humans. Label it's
six parts. 5 Marks
Ans: a) Seminiferous tubules are tubules found in the testes that are mostly
coiled. Spermatozoa (male gametes) are produced in these cells. Sertoli cells,
which are sustentacular columnar cells, and spermatogenic cells, which give rise
to sperm cells, make up the epithelial lining of the seminiferous tubule. The
sectional view of a seminiferous tubule of humans is as follows:

(b) Name the pituitary hormones involved in the process of spermatogenesis.

State their functions.
Ans: Your pituitary gland is a small but vital organ. Your brain, skin, energy,
mood, reproductive organs, vision, growth, and other vital organs are all affected
if your pituitary gland isn't functioning properly. It is known as the "master" gland
because it directs the release of hormones from other glands. The pituitary
gonadotropins FSH and LH are required for the development and maintenance of
spermatogenesis. In response to the hypothalamic gonadotropin-releasing
hormone, both hormones are secreted and regulated as part of the HPG axis
(GnRH).
FSH: Your pituitary gland, a small gland beneath your brain, produces FSH. FSH
is an important hormone for sexual development and function. FSH aids in the
regulation of the menstrual cycle in women and stimulates the production of eggs
in the ovaries.
LH: Your pituitary gland, a small gland beneath your brain, produces LH. LH is
essential for sexual development and function. LH aids in the regulation of the
menstrual cycle in women. It also causes an egg to be released from the ovary.
Or
5 Marks

Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 19

(a) IUDs are said to be effective contraceptives. Name any two commonly
used IUDs and write the mode of their actions.
Ans: When choosing the most appropriate contraceptive method, many factors
must be considered by women, men, or couples at any point in their lives. These
factors include safety, effectiveness, accessibility, and affordability, as well as
acceptability. Contraceptive counseling, when provided, is an important guiding
principle, as is a voluntary informed choice of contraceptive methods.
Progestasert- The Progestasert system combines the benefits of IUDs and oral
mini dose progesterone preparations in one convenient package. For one year, an
internal device delivers progesterone to the uterine lumen and endometrium. A
T-shaped Progestasert with a daily release of 65 mcg has been chosen for clinical
use on a large scale. It prevents implantation by making the uterus unsuitable.
CuT- Copper (Cu) T is another name for CuT. Because copper is spermicidal, it
is a contraceptive device used by women. Contraceptives are an important
method in family planning because they are used to prevent pregnancy. Copper
ions reduce sperm motility.
(b) When is sterilization advised to married couples? How is it carried out in
a human male and a female, respectively?
Ans: Sterilization is any of several medical birth control methods that prevent a
person from reproducing. Surgical and non-surgical sterilization methods are
available for both males and females. Sterilization is recommended for the
male/female partner as a last resort to avoid further pregnancies.
In male: Male sterilization, also known as vasectomy, is a surgical procedure that
involves cutting and tying the two tubes that carry sperm from the testes (testicles)
to the penis (vas deferens). Vasectomy is a surgical procedure that provides long-
term contraception. Vasectomies are performed on about 15,000 men in Australia
each year.
In females: Tubectomy, also known as tubal sterilization, or female sterilization
is a long-term contraception procedure for women. It is a surgical procedure that
prevents the egg released by the ovary from reaching the uterus by blocking the
fallopian tubes. Around the belly button, a few small incisions are made. A
laparoscope, a telescopic device, is inserted through one of the cuts. The tip of
the laparoscope has a small camera that transmits images to a screen, giving the
surgeon a view of the internal organs. The surgeon inserts special instruments to
seal the tubes by following the images and working through the tiny cuts.

Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 20

26. Explain the expression of lac operon genes in E. coli growing in a lactose-
containing culture medium. 5 Marks
Ans:
a) Lactose metabolism genes are found in the lac operon of E. coli. When
lactose is present but glucose is not, it is expressed. The lac repressor and
catabolite activator protein are two regulators that turn the operon "on" and
"off" in response to lactose and glucose levels (CAP).
b) Lactose is sensed by the lac repressor. When lactose is present, it stops
acting as a repressor and blocks transcription of the operon. Lactose is
sensed indirectly by the lac repressor via its isomer allolactose.
c) CAP, or catabolite activator protein, is a glucose sensor. When glucose
levels are low, it activates transcription of the operon. Through the "hunger
signal" molecule cAMP, CAP detects glucose indirectly.
d) Lactose can be broken down by E. coli bacteria, but it is not their preferred
fuel. They would much rather use glucose if it is available. Lactose is
broken down in fewer steps and with less energy than glucose. If lactose is
the only sugar available, however, E. coli will use it as an energy source
right away.
e) The repressor is inactivated in the presence of an inducer, lactose, by
interaction with the inducer, allowing RNA polymerase access to the
promoter and transcription to proceed. Lac mRNA is then transcribed,
followed by the synthesis of ß galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase.
Or
Name the types of cells and the process by which hnRNA is formed. Describe
the processing mechanism it undergoes before it becomes functional.
a) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is abbreviated as hnRNA. RNA Polymerase
II produces large pre-mRNAs of various nucleotide sequences, which are
processed in the nucleus to become cytoplasmic mRNAs.
b) The process of copying a segment of DNA into RNA is known as
transcription. Messenger RNA is made up of DNA segments that have been
transcribed into RNA molecules that can encode proteins (mRNA). Non-
coding RNAs are made from segments of DNA that are not copied into
RNA molecules (ncRNAs).
c) The amount of mRNA in a given tissue is more than 10 times that of
ncRNA when measured across multiple cell types (though in particular
single cell types ncRNAs may exceed mRNAs). Even though less than 2%
Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 21
 of the human genome can be transcribed into mRNA, at least 80% of
mammalian genomic DNA can be transcribed into mRNA, the general
preponderance of mRNA in cells is valid.
d) Nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, use base pairs of nucleotides as a
complementary language. An RNA polymerase reads a DNA sequence
during transcription and produces a complementary, antiparallel RNA
strand called a primary transcript.
e) During transcription in eukaryotic cells, the primary transcript contains
both exons and introns, which are non-functional. The primary transcript
is then subjected to splicing, in which introns are removed and exons are
joined in a defined order. A nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is
added to the 5' end of hnRNA during capping.

27. There is a great concern all over the world to conserve biodiversity for
maintaining the ecological balance in nature. Explain giving three reasons.
Write different ways that have helped in increasing the tiger population in
our country. 5 Marks
Ans: Biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, and microorganisms
that exist, as well as the genes they contain and the ecosystems in which they live.
We are fortunate to live in the lowland tropics, where biodiversity is abundant.
Tropical areas are known to have more species per square kilometer than
temperate areas, and biodiversity declines as the altitude rise.
The following three reasons should be considered when conserving biodiversity:
a) Narrowly utilitarian - Nature provides humans with numerous economic
benefits, such as food, firewood, fiber, and industrial products.
b) Broadly utilitarian - Contribute to a variety of ecological services, such as
the production of oxygen and pollination.
c) Ethical - Every species has intrinsic value, and we have a moral obligation
to care for it and pass on our biological legacy to future generations in good
condition.
To save tigers, there are two approaches:
a) in situ conservation (protecting the natural habitat of the forest where the
tiger lives/protecting the entire ecosystem).

Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 22

 b) Ex situ conservation– threatened tigers are removed from their natural
habitat and placed in special settings, such as zoological parks or wildlife
sanctuaries, for protection and special care.
Or
What is integrated organic farming? How did Ramesh Chandra Dagar, a
farmer from Sonepat, Haryana effectively use this procedure and succeed
with zero waste?
Ans:
1. Organic farming is an agricultural system that emphasizes crop rotation
and companion planting while utilizing organic fertilizers such as compost
manure, green manure, and bone meal. It began in the early twentieth
century as a reaction to rapidly changing agricultural practices.
2. Integrated farming is a type of agriculture that uses a variety of production
enterprises, long and diversified crop rotations, and crop residue or animal
excreta restitution to the soil to reduce the use of inputs from outside the
farm.
3. Integrated Organic farming is a type of farming system that focuses on
cultivating the land and raising crops in such a way that the soil remains
alive and healthy. Organic wastes (crop, animal, and farm wastes, aquatic
wastes) and other biological materials, mostly produced in situ, are
combined with beneficial microbes (biofertilizers) to release nutrients to
crops.
4. Integrated organic farming is a cyclical process that recycles waste
products from one process as nutrients for another.
5. In a chain of processes, his farm includes beekeeping, dairy management,
water harvesting, composting, and agriculture.
6. Chemical fertilizers are not required because cattle excreta (dung) is used
as a natural fertilizer. Crop waste can be composted and used to generate
natural gas to meet the farm's energy requirements.

Class XII Biology www.vedantu.com 23