Examssssss

You answered 3 correct and 4 incorrect.
1. In order to use the particle model, the __________ must be __________

moved.
a. size of the object, much less than the distance

b. distance, much less than the size of the object
c. distance, equal to the size of the object
d. size of the object, much greater than the distance
The particle model also ignores internal motions such as the movement of a runner's arms.
2. Replacing an object in a motion diagram with a single point is called the

__________.
a. frame differential

b. particle model
c. operational definition
d. alternative model
The particle model can be used to draw simplified motion diagrams.
3. A motion diagram is a series of images of a moving object that records its position after
__________.
a. an acceleration
b. 1/30 s
c. it comes to rest
d. equal time intervals
Successive images recorded by a camcorder are at time intervals of 1/30 s.
4. The vector that represents the sum of two vectors is called the
__________.
a. displacement
b. direction
c. speed
d. resultant
The resultant is a vector that points from the first vector's tail to the last vector's tip.
5. In the particle model, the __________ of the object are (is) ignored.
a. acceleration
b. position
c. motion diagram
d. internal motions
To use the particle model, the size of the object must be less than the distance moved.
6. The length of the position vector on a motion diagram is proportional to the __________.
a. distance of the object from the origin

b. average speed
c. velocity
d. distance of the object from the intercept
The position vector points from the origin to the location of the moving object at a particular time.
7. A(n) __________ is a series of images of a moving object that records its position after equal
time intervals.
a. motion diagram

b. association
c. frame
d. operational definition
The moving object may be filmed, drawn, or even represented by a single point.
Your score was 25%.
1. Two displacements are equal when

__________.
a. the two directions are the same

b. they begin and end at the same point
c. they begin at the same point
d. the two distances and directions are the same
Two displacements are equal when the two distances and directions are the same.
2. The distance and direction between the final position and the starting position is the
__________ .
a. displacement
b. differential
c. velocity
d. acceleration
Displacement depends only on starting position and end position.
3. To subtract two vectors, __________.
a. use the same process as for adding them, then change the sign of the value
b. reverse the direction of the second vector and then add them
c. subtract 180° from θ, then use the Law of Cosines
d. use the equation R2 = A2 - B2
The equation can be written as <Δv = v2 + ( - v1).
4. The difference between ti and tf is the __________.
a. average speed

b. displacement
c. velocity
d. time interval
The Greek letter delta is used to indicate a change in quantity.
5. In Figure 2-8, If the store were on the other side of your aunt's house, what would your final
displacement be if you went from your house to the store to your aunt's?
a. 0.2 km
b. 0.7 cm
c. 0.9 km
d. 0.5 km
Displacement is a change in position.
6. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
a. displacement
b. 150 km
c. velocity
d. 150 km southwest
Displacement defines both the distance and direction between two positions, and is therefore a
vector quantity.
7. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
a. 314.7 g
b. 2 hours 27 minutes
c. 25°C
d. 150 km southwest
150 km southwest is a vector quantity.
8. A common symbol for the time interval is

__________.
a. Δv
b. ti
c. Δt
d. tf
The time interval is defined mathematically as Δt = tf - ti.
9. How could you locate the position of a sprinter at a particular moment on a motion
diagram?
a. Draw an arrow from the origin to the belt of the sprinter.
b. Use a position scalar.
c. Determine the magnitude of the motion.
d. Calculate the difference in apparent height of the runner between the origin and final
position.
Motion is a change in position relative to the stationary background.
10. If you travel 1.7 km north from your house at noon, and at 6:00 PM you travel 5.4 km south,
what is your displacement?
a. 3.7 km
b. 7.10 km north
c. 7.10 km south
d. 3.7 km south
Displacement describes the distance and direction from the starting position to the final position.
11. In Figure 2-8, If the store were on the other side of your aunt's house, what would be your
total distance traveled if you went from your house to the store to your aunt's?
a. 1.1 km
b. 0.7 cm
c. 0.5 km
d. 0.9 km
Distance is the magnitude of displacement.
12. Which of the following correctly describes the displacement of an object that moves from
position di to df?
a. v = Δd/Δt

b. Δd = df - di
c. Δdf = df + di
d. Δd = df + di
v = Δd/Δt describes average velocity.
13. A quantity that tells you only the magnitude is called a __________ quantity.
a. scalar
b. vector
c. displacement
d. interval
Scalar quantities do not have direction.
14. Displacement has both magnitude and

__________.
a. temperature
b. distance
c. size
d. direction
Displacement is equal to the final position minus the initial position.
15. The __________ is the point at which both variables in a coordinate system have the zero
value.
a. origin
b. axis
c. coordinate system
d. intercept
The origin is the point at which both variables in a coordinate system have the value zero.
16. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The magnitude of a vector is always a positive quantity.

b. The magnitude of a vector can be either a positive or a negative quantity.
c. The direction of a vector is always a positive quantity.
d. The magnitude of a vector is always a negative quantity.
The magnitude of velocity is speed, and an object can't have a negative speed.
17. __________ defines the distance and direction between two

positions.
a. A scalar quantity

b. Average velocity
c. Displacement
d. Interval
The size of the displacement vector is distance, a scalar quantity.
18. To calculate the distance traveled continuously in a straight line,

__________.
a. divide the distance traveled by the time needed to travel the distance
b. subtract the cosine of the angle between the starting and finishing positions from the
square of the distance traveled
c. subtract final position from starting position
d. divide the change in velocity by the time over which the change occurs
Time spent traveling is not considered when simply calculating the distance traveled in a straight
line.
19. Displacement is a change in __________.
a. position
b. velocity
c. speed
d. distance
Displacement is a change in position.
20. The horizontal direction in a coordinate system is called the

__________.
a. y-axis
b. x-axis
c. z-axis
d. scale
This is perpendicular to the y-axis.
21. The magnitude of a vector is always

__________.
a. equal to the displacement

b. a negative quantity
c. a positive quantity
d. equal to the direction
The magnitude of velocity is speed, and an object can't have a negative speed.
22. When an object is in motion, its __________ changes.
a. acceleration
b. size
c. shape
d. position
A moving object may be changing its position along the path of a straight line, curved line, circle, or
back-and-forth vibration.
23. The vertical direction in a coordinate system is called the

__________.
a. x-axis
b. scale
c. intercept
d. y-axis
This is perpendicular to the x-axis.
24. A(n) __________ tells you where the zero point of the variable you are studying is located and
the direction in which the values increase.
a. coordinate system

b. origin
c. axis
d. intercept
The origin is a point within the coordinate system at which the variables have the value zero.
Your score was 67%.
1. On a position-time graph, rise =

__________.
a. Δd
b. Δt
c. Δv
d. Δs
On a position-time graph, rise = Δd and run = Δt.
2. On a position-time graph, run = __________.
a. Δa
b. Δt
c. Δd
d. Δv
On a position-time graph, rise = Δd and run = Δt.
3. In a position-time graph, t represents __________.
a. time
b. total distance
c. telial
d. temperature
The SI base unit of time is the second.
Your score was 33%.
1. You and a friend each walk 8.0 km. You walk at 6.4 km/h; your friend walks 8.1 km/h. How
long will your friend wait for you at the end of the walk?
a. 0.5 h
b. 15 minutes
c. 1.7 h
d. 30 minutes
The walk takes you 1.25 h and your friend 0.99 h, a difference of about 15 minutes.
2. Which of the following equations can be used to find the position of an object moving at
constant velocity?
a. d = df - vt
b. d = df + vt
c. Δd = df - di
d. tan θ = Ry/Rx
The equation involves four quantities, and can be used to calculate position if three of the four are
given.
3. If a runner maintains a constant speed of 12.0 km/h, how long will it take him to complete a
marathon race of 26.2 miles?
a. 3.14 h
b. 5.32 h
c. 2.18 h
d. 3.52 h
Convert the distance in miles to kilometers, then divide by the speed.
4. The __________ is the ratio of the total distance traveled to the time interval.
a. acceleration
b. displacement
c. average speed
d. instantaneous velocity
Instantaneous velocity gives both the speed and direction at a particular instant in time.
5. Based on the graph of Figure 2-21, what is the object's velocity at t = 4 s?
a. 0 m/s
b. -5 m/s
c. 5 m/s
d. 4 m/s
The slope of an x-t graph gives the velocity.
6. You drive a car for 3.0 h at 97 km/h, then for another 3.0 h at 72 km/h. What is your average
velocity?
a. -85 km/h

b. 85 m/s2
c. 85 km/h
d. 85 km/h2
The average of 97 and 72 is about 85, and the units are the same.
7. Looking at Figure 2-20, at what time would the first picture of the joggers be most likely to
have occurred?
a. -1 s
b. 0 s
c. 1 s
d. it cannot be determined from the given information
When an event occurs before the event at the origin, it happened at a negative time.
8. In Figure 2-20, if the blue jogger were ahead of the red jogger at t = 0 s, but they both had
the same velocities as in the text, how (if at all) would the graph change?
a. The slopes of the lines would remain the same, but the blue jogger's line would cross
the y-axis above zero.
b. The labels on the lines would be reversed.
c. There would be no change.
d. The lines would still cross at zero, but the slope of the blue jogger's line would be
steeper.
The slopes remain the same, since the velocities are unchanged.
9. You and a friend leave school at the same time. You drive at a constant 55 km/h and your
friend drives 7.0×101 km/h. How long does it take each car to reach a mall that is 25 km from
the school?
a. you: 2.2 hours, your friend: 2.8 hours

b. you: 22 minutes, your friend: 27 minutes
c. you: 1 hour 40 minutes, your friend 36 minutes
d. you: 27 minutes, your friend: 22 minutes
It takes you 0.45 hours, or 27 minutes.
10. A bicycle rider travels 15 km in 1.25 hours. What is the rider's average
speed?
a. 10.5 km/h

b. 12 km/h
c. 22.5 km/h
d. 13.75 km/h
Average speed is calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the time it takes to travel that
distance.
11. The slope of the line tangent to the curve on a position-time graph at a specific time is the
__________.
a. instantaneous velocity

b. displacement
c. instantaneous acceleration
d. average velocity
The slope of the line tangent to the curve on a position-time graph is the instantaneous velocity.
12. You are at a friend's house who lives 10 km north of your house. You drive north from there at
a constant speed of 35 mph toward the pizza shop and arrive there 10 minutes later to pick up
your pizza. How far from your house are you?
a. 10 km
b. 20 km
c. 20 m
d. 31 km
Using the equation for Position with Constant Velocity, solve for d.
13. Based on the graph of Figure 2-21, where would the object be at t = 7 s?
a. - 10 meters
b. -15 meters
c. 15 meters
d. - 7 meters
If the graph were extended, the vertical value of the graph at 7 s would be -15 m.
14. The magnitude of velocity is

__________.
a. acceleration
b. distance
c. speed
d. direction
Distance is the magnitude of displacement.
15. You drive a car for 2.0 h at 60 km/h, then for another 3.0 h at 85 km/h. What is your average
velocity?
a. 75 km/h2
b. 75 km/h
c. - 73 km/h
d. 73 km/h
The total distance traveled was 375 km and it took 5 hours.
Your score was 20%.
1. Find the uniform acceleration that causes a car's velocity to change from 27 m/s to 45 m/s in a
6.0-s period.
a. 3.0 m/s

b. 3.0 m/s2
c. 18.0 m/s
d. 18.0 m/s2
Acceleration is expressed in units of distance per time 2.
2. If a car is traveling 1.0×102 and comes to a stop in 3.0 min, what is the car's acceleration?
a. 0.56 m/s2

b. - 0.56 m/s2
c. 0.15 m/s2
d. - 0.15 m/s2
First convert km/h to m/s. Remember that when an object slows down, its acceleration is a
negative number.
3. In Figure 3-19, what is the total displacement of the object?
a. 500.0 m
b. -25.0 m
c. 75.0 m
d. 0 m
The area under a v-t graph represents the displacement.
4. What is the minimum length runway needed to accommodate airplanes that can accelerate
uniformly at 2.7 m/s2 and must reach a ground velocity of 64 m/s before they can take off?
a. 7.8×102 m
b. 1.5×103 m
c. 1.5×102 m
d. 7.8×103 m
It will take 24 seconds for the plane to reach takeoff speed. A runway at least 778 m in length is
required.
5. How long will it take an airplane at rest that accelerates uniformly at 2.5 m/s 2 to reach a
ground velocity of 7.0×101 m/s that is required for take off?
a. 11 s
b. 28 s
c. 35 s
d. 4 s
Use the equation for Velocity with Constant Acceleration, vv = vi + at.
6. In Figure 3-19, what is the displacement of the object between 0.0 and 5.0
s?
a. 30.0 m
b. 150.0 m
c. 5.0 m
d. 75.0 m
The area under a v-t graph represents the displacement.
7. A car with a velocity of 30 m/s is accelerated uniformly at the rate of 2.0 m/s 2 for 10 s. What is
its final velocity?
a. 50 m/s2
b. 50 m/s
c. 40 m/s
d. 40 m/s2
Solve using the equation for Velocity with Constant Acceleration, vf = vi + at.
8. A car is accelerated uniformily at the rate of 0.50 m/s 2 for 1.0×1 s. Its final velocity is 23 m/s.
What is the initial velocity?
a. 28 m/s2
b. 18 m/s2
c. 18 m/s
d. 28 m/s
Solve using the equation for Velocity with Constant Acceleration, vf = vi + at.
9. How far does a car travel in 30.0 s while its velocity is changing from 50.0 km/h to 80.0 km/h
at a uniform rate of acceleration?
a. 5.40×102
b. 1.95 × 103 m
c. 1.08 × 103 m
d. 252 m
Use the equation d = 1/2(fv + vi)t.
10. The a-t graph corresponding to the v-t graph in Figure 3-10a would be ___.
a. A straight vertical line

b. A line beginning at the origin with increasing positive slope
c. A straight horizontal line above the t axis
d. A straight line with a constant positive slope
The slope of a v-t graph is the object's acceleration.
Your score was 0%.
1. What is a rope's velocity 4.0 s after being dropped from a hovering helicopter?
a. -2.0×101 m/s
b. -4.0×102 m/s
c. -4.0×101 m/s
d. 4.0×101 m/s
In this example, vi = 0.
2. A ball falls freely from rest for 15.0 s. Calculate the ball's velocity after 15.0 s.
a. 147 m/s

b. -147 m/s
c. -78 m/s
d. 78 m/s
Acceleration due to gravity is -9.80 m/s2 (downward).
3. A 75-kg swimmer steps off a 10.0-m tower. What is the swimmer's velocity on hitting the
water?
a. 0.25 m/s

b. 38.3 m/s
c. 27.1 m/s
d. -14.0 m/s
A swimmer of any mass would reach this velocity.
4. A tennis ball is dropped from 1.5 m above the ground, touches the ground for 0.008 s and
rebounds to a height of 0.75 m. What is the ball's velocity when it hits the ground?
a. -3.8 m/s

b. -5.4 m/s
c. 3.8 m/s2
d. -5.4 m/s2
The value is a negative number because the ball accelerates downward due to gravity.
Your score was 38%.
1. The slope of the line tangent to the curve on a velocity-time graph at a specific instant of time
is the __________.
a. displacement
b. instantaneous velocity
c. average velocity
d. instantaneous acceleration
The slope of the curve on a v-t graph is the average velocity.
2. Acceleration describes a change in

__________.
a. velocity
b. mass
c. momentum
d. gravity
Sir Isaac Newton explained what influences motion in three laws.
3. __________ is the change in velocity divided by the time needed for the change to occur.
a. Average velocity

b. Average acceleration
c. Displacement
d. Speed
average acceleration = change in speed/time
4. In Figure 3-3, if the acceleration were calculated using points at t = 0.00 s and t = 4.00 s,
what would it be?
a. 2.50 m/s2

b. 10.00 m/s2
c. 5.00 m/s2
d. 4.00 m/s2
The slope of a v-t graph gives the acceleration.
5. If the motion in Figure 3-3 continued on at that same acceleration, what would the object's
speed be at t = 10.00 s?
a. 50.0 m/s

b. 100.0 m/s
c. 40.0 m/s
d. 25.0 m/s
The object will speed up 5.0 m/s for every 1.00 s that it is in motion.
6. __________ means that equal displacements occur during successive equal time
intervals.
a. Uniform acceleration

b. Average acceleration
c. Uniform motion
d. Average speed
The magnitude of a moving object's speed is a scalar quantity.
7. A car moving north at 8.0×101 turns and travels south at 65 km/h. What are the magnitude
and direction of the change in velocity?
a. 25 km/h
b. 145 km/h, north to south
c. 25 km/h, north to south
d. 145 km/h, south to north
The initial direction was north, then south.
8. If a car travels 100 km in a straight line in the first hour of its trip, 100 km in the next hour,
and continues in this way, its motion is __________.
a. accelerated
b. irregular
c. dynamic
d. uniform
Uniform motion can be described using motion diagrams and position-time graphs.
Your score was 27%.
1. An object is in equilibrium when __________.
a. the equilibrant is zero

b. the net force on it is zero
c. its acceleration is constant
d. three or more forces act on it
According to Newton's laws, the object will not be accelerated because there is no net force on it.
2. For the situation in Figure 4-5a, if the table had a mass of 35 kg, and F1 = 20.0 N andF2 =
30.0 N, what would the acceleration be?
a. 0.28 m/s2 to the left

b. 0.70 m/s2 to the right
c. 3.5 m/s2 to the left
d. 1.4 m/s2 to the right
Acceleration is found by dividing the net force on an object by its mass.
3. The unit of force in the SI system is the

__________.
a. magnum
b. quantum
c. newton
d. pascal
One newton, 1 N, = 1 kg·m/s2.
4. An object that has a force exerted on it is called

__________.
a. the environment

b. static
c. the system
d. the agent
The object is the system and the world around the object is the environment.
5. A(n) __________ force acts on an object without touching it.
a. free-body
b. field
c. net
d. equilibrium
The force of gravity exists between all objects and is a field force.
6. The vector sum of two or more forces on an object is called the __________
force.
a. effort
b. resistant
c. net
d. composite
Newton's Second Law states that the acceleration of an object is proportional to the net force
exerted on the object and can be stated as the equation a = Fnet/m.
7. For the situation in Figure 4-5a, if F1 = 200 N and F2 = 500 N, what would Fnet be?
a. 300 N to the right

b. 300 N to the left
c. 700 N to the left
d. 700 N to the right
The net force is the vector sum of the individual forces acting on an object.
8. Newton's first law of motion states that

__________.
a. air does not exert a force

b. all forces come in pairs
c. the acceleration of an object is proportional to the net force exerted on the object
and can be stated as the equation a = Fnet/m.
d. objects remain either at rest or continue moving in a straight line with constant
speed only if the net force on that object is zero
This is often called the law of inertia.
9. If the force used to generate the graph in Figure 4-3b were doubled, how, if at all, would the
graph change?
a. The y-intercept of the graph would be a non-zero number.

b. The slope of the graph would be halved.
c. The slope of the graph would be doubled.
d. It would not change.
For a given mass, the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force exerted on it.
10. The net force is the

__________.
a. friction between any two objects

b. apparent weight
c. force exerted on one surface by another when there is no relative motion between
the two
d. vector sum of two or more forces on an object
After drawing a free-body diagram, you can add the force vectors to find the net force.
11. An object that experiences a push or a pull has a(n) __________ exerted on
it.
a. environment
b. system
c. inertia
d. force
The object is the system and the world around the object is the environment.
12. A(n) __________ force acts on an object only by touching

it.
a. contact
b. field
c. tactile
d. inert
If you are holding your physics book, your hands are exerting a contact force on it.
13. Newton's first law of motion is often called the law of

__________.
a. inertia
b. equilibrium
c. momentum
d. acceleration
If an object is at rest, it tends to remain at rest.
14. Newton's second law states that

__________.
a. a force is needed to keep an object moving

b. objects remain either at rest or continue moving in a straight line with constant
d. all forces come in pairs
This can be stated as the equation a = Fnet/m.
15. The specific, immediate cause of a force is called the

__________.
a. origin
b. agent
c. system
d. contact
The agent can be animate or inanimate.
Your score was 29%.
1. The force exerted by a spring scale is called

__________.
a. kinetic friction
b. the apparent weight
c. the kinetic force
d. terminal velocity
The force exerted by the scale is the apparent weight and changes if you are accelerating, such as
in an elevator.
2. How do you calculate your weight in newtons?
a. (9.80 m/s2)(m)

b.
c. 2π(m)
d. (9.80 m/s2)sin θ
Your weight is your mass times your acceleration due to gravity.
3. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Weight is the measure of the amount of matter in an object.

b. Mass is a force.
c. Weight can change when acceleration due to gravity changes.
d. Weight is a measure of inertia.
Mass of an object is constant regardless of location.
4. If standing on a scale in an elevator, as in Figure 4-9, and the scale reads 120% of your
weight, what is the acceleration of the elevator?
a. 1.2g, down

b. 0.2g, down
c. 0.8g, up
d. 0.2g, up
When an elevator accelerates an object upward, the object's apparent weight will be greater than
its actual weight.
5. The force exerted by a fluid on an object moving through the fluid is called the __________.
a. apparent weight

b. net force
c. drag force
d. terminal velocity
The constant velocity that is reached when the drag force equals the force of gravity is called the
terminal velocity.
6. The weight force is defined as

__________.
a. Fg = mg
b. Fw = m + g
c.
d. Fg = ma
Since the weight force is defined as Fg = mg, Fg changes when g changes.
7. On Earth, a scale shows that you weigh 490 N. What is your mass?
a. 50 kg to 5.0×101 kg
b. 100 kg
c. 75 kg
d. 22 kg
The scale reading gives your weight and is equal to your mass times the acceleration it would have
if it were falling freely, 9.80 m/s2.
Your score was 25%.
1. A 75-kg person pushes a 12-kg person in a swing with a force of 3 N. What is the acceleration
of the person doing the pushing?
a. 25 m/s2
b. 0.25 m/s2
c. 0.4 m/s2
d. 0.04 m/s2
By Newton's third law, the forces on each of these people are equal. The acceleration of the person
on the swing when they are pushed is 0.25 m/s 2.
2. In Figure 4-16c, if the box has a mass of 6.0 kg, what will the normal force of the table on the
box be?
a. 50 N
b. 110 N
c. 9.8 N
d. 8.8 N
When an object is not accelerating, the net force on it is zero.
3. Newton's third law of motion states that __________.
a. a force is needed to keep an object moving

b. all forces come in pairs
d. objects remain either at rest or continue moving in a straight line with constant
The two forces in the pair act on different objects and are equal in magnitude and opposite in
direction.
4. In Figure 4-16b, if the box has a mass of 6.0 kg, what will the normal force of the table on the
box be?
a. 8.8 N
b. 9.8 N
c. 160 N
d. 50 N
When an object is not accelerating, the net force on it is zero.
Your score was 20%.
1. Find the magnitude of the sum of a 27-m displacement and a 34-m displacement when the
angle between them is 118°.
a. 32 m
b. 43 m
c. 52 m
d. 16 m
The cosine of 118 degrees is a negative number.
2. To find the magnitude of the resultant vector for two vectors that are at some angle other than
90°, use __________.
a. the Law of Cosines

b. R2 = A2 + B2
c. the Pythagorean theorem
d. R2 = A2 - B2
The equation is R2 = A2 + B2 - 2ABcos θ.
3. What are the components of a vector of magnitude 28.5 km at an angle of 42.0° from the
positive x-axis?
a. 604 km, 544 km

b. 112 km, 91 km
c. 21.2 km, -19.1 km
d. 21.2 km, 19.1 km
The magnitudes are less than the hypotenuse of the right triangle of which they are the other two
sides, and both components are positive.
4. The process of breaking a vector into its components is called __________.
a. vector resolution

b. reduction
c. trigonometry
d. graphical representation
The magnitude and sign of component vectors are called the components, which can be found
using trigonometry.
5. What is the magnitude of your displacement when you follow directions that tell you to walk
150.0 m north, then 25.0 m east?
a. 175 m
b. 150 m
c. 127 m
d. 152 m
R = (150.0 m)2 + (25.0 m)2. R2 = 23,125 m2, so R = 152 m.
2
6. A(n) __________ is a vector that is equal to the sum of two or more vectors.
a. resultant
b. displacement
c. addition vector
d. graphical representation
If the vectors to be added are at right angles, the magnitude can be found by using the
Pythagorean theorem.
7. Which of the following equations represents the Pythagorean theorem?
a. R2 = A2 + B2 - 2AB cos θ

b. R2 = A2 - B2
c. R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
d. R2 = A2 + B2
This is often learned as A2 + B2 = C2.
8. A car is driven 724.0 km due north, then 895.0 km due west. What is the magnitude of its
displacement?
a. 805 km
b. 1619 km
c. 171 km
d. 1151 km
Use the Pythagorean theorem, with R2 = 7242 + 895.02.
9. Find the magnitude of the sum of a 10-m displacement and a 5-m displacement when the
angle between them is 45°.
a. 7 m
b. 11 m
c. 14 m
d. 9 m
R2 = (10 m)2 + (5 m)2 - 2(10 m)(5 m)cos 45°. R2 = 54.29 m2, so R = 7 m.
10. Which of the following represents the Angle of Resultant Vector?
a. tan θ = Ry/Rx
b. cos θ = Rx/Ry
c. cos θ = Ry/Rx
d. tan θ = Rx/Ry
This gives the tangent of the angle that the vector makes with the x-axis.
Your score was 25%.
1. When there is no relative motion between two surfaces, the force exerted by one surface on
the other is called __________.
a. resistance
b. the kinetic force
c. kinetic friction
d. the static friction force
The static force acts in response to other forces.
2. The __________ is the force exerted on one surface by another when the surfaces are in
relative motion.
a. apparent weight

b. kinetic coefficient
c. kinetic friction force
d. static friction force
The static friction force is exerted when there is no relative motion between the surfaces.
3. A sled of mass 40.0 kg is pulled along flat, snow-covered ground. The static friction coefficient
is 0.28, and the kinetic friction coefficient is 0.08. What force will be needed to start the sled
moving?
a. 110 N
b. 392 N
c. 147 N
d. 31 N
Multiply the static coefficient of friction by mg.
4. A sled of mass 40.0 kg is pulled along flat, snow-covered ground. The static friction coefficient
is 0.28, and the kinetic friction coefficient is 0.08. What force is needed to keep the sled
moving at a constant velocity?
a. 310 N
b. 3.2 N
c. 3900 N
d. 31 N
Because velocity is constant, the force needed is equal to the
kinetic coefficient of friction multiplied by mg.
Section 5.3 Force and Motion in
Two Dimensions
Practice Test
Your score was 29%.
1. In Figure 5-11, if A's magnitude is 16 N and B's is 25 N, what is the magnitude of

C?
a. 41 N
b. 16 N
c. 19 N
d. 30 N
The Pythagorean theorem can be applied in right-triangle situations.
2. Two forces are exerted on an object. A 43-N force acts exactly at 240° and a 67-N force acts
at 300°. What are the magnitude and direction of the equilibrant?
a. 96 N at -83°
b. 84 N at 97°
c. 96 N at 97°
d. 96 N at 7°
The equilibrant is in the opposite direction of the resultant.
3. A 475-N trunk is resting on a plane inclined 40.0° above the horizontal. Find the components
of the weight force parallel and perpendicular to the plane.
a. Fgx = -364 N, Fgy = -305 N

b. Fgx = 364 N, Fgy = 305 N
c. Fgx = -305 N, Fgy = -364 N
d. Fgx = 305 N, Fgy = 364 N
Fgx and Fgy are negative because they point in directions opposite to the positive axes.
4. A 475-N trunk is sliding down a plane inclined 40.0° above the horizontal. Calculate the
magnitude of the acceleration.
a. 6.29 m/s

b. 62.9 m/s2
c. 6.29 m/s2
d. 7.51 m/s2
There is no acceleration in the y-direction, so the magnitude of the acceleration is equal to the force
in the x-direction divided by the mass.
5. A 225-N weight has one horizontal rope exerting a force of 98.0 N on it. What are the
magnitude and direction of the force needed to put the weight into equilibrium?
a. 2.45×102 N at 113°

b. 2.45×102 N at 293°
c. 1.27×102 N at 113°
d. 2.45×101 N at 113°
The equilibrant is in the opposite direction of the resultant.
6. A force that produces equilibrium is a(n)

__________.
a. resultant
b. constant
c. equilibrant
d. net force
When the sum of two forces acting on an object is not zero, the equilibrant is a third force on the
object that produces a net force of zero.
7. If in Figure 5-13 the skier has mass 45 kg and the slope is at 35°, what is the normal force of
the hill on the skier?
a. 250 N
b. 360 N
c. it cannot be determined with the given information
d. 440 N
The normal force will not always be equal to the object's weight.
8. A 175-N sign is supported in a motionless position by two ropes that each make 53.0° angles
with the horizontal. What is the tension in the ropes?
a. 109 N
b. 175 N
c. 146 N
d. 310 N
Since the sign is motionless, the sum of the rope forces and the downward weight force is zero.
9. A 75-kg person on skis is going down a hill sloped at 30.0°. The coefficient of kinetic friction
between the skis and the snow is 0.15. How fast is the skier going 10.0 s after starting from
rest?
a. 78 m/s
b. 36 m/s2
c. 78 m/s2
d. 36 m/s
Since there is no acceleration in the y-direction, the net force in this direction is zero.
10. A 225-N weight has one horizontal rope exerting a force of 98.0 N on it. What are the
magnitude and direction of the resultant force on the weight?
a. 2.45×102 N at 293°

b. 2.45×102 N at 343°
c. 1.27×102 N at 315°
d. 2.45×101 N at 293°
Use tan θ = Ry/Rx to find the direction of the resultant force.
11. If in Figure 5-13 the skier has mass 45 kg and the slope is at 35°, what is the component of
the skier's weight parallel to the slope?
a. 440 N
b. it cannot be determined with the given information
c. 250 N
d. 360 N
The components of the object's weight will add up to its total weight.
12. Two ropes pull on a ring. One exerts a 50.0-N force at 42.0°, the other a 87.0-N force at
70.0°. What is the net force on the ring?
a. 100 N at 60.0°

b. 100 N at 56.0°
c. 133 N at 60.0°
d. 133 N at 30.0°
The direction of the resultant with respect to the x-axis is given by tan θ = Ry/Rx.
13. If in Figure 5-13 the skier has mass 45 kg and the slope is at 35°, what is the component of
the skier's weight perpendicular to the slope?
a. 440 N
b. 250 N
c. 360 N
d. it cannot be determined with the given information
The components of the object's weight will add up to its total weight.
14. In Figure 5-11, if B's magnitude is 50 N and C's is 30 N, what is the magnitude of
A?
a. 40 N
b. 20 N
c. 58 N
d. 80 N
The Pythagorean theorem can be

applied in right-triangle situations.
Section 6.2 Circular Motion
Practice Test
Your score was 14%.
1. If an object moves in a circle at steady speed it is in __________.
a. equilibrium
b. uniform circular motion
c. torque
d. projectile motion
An object in uniform circular motion has acceleration toward the center of the circle.
2. A carnival ride has a 3.0-m radius and rotates once every 1.7 s. Find the centripetal acceleration of a
rider.
a. 82 m/s2
b. 11 m/s2
c. 41 m/s2
d. 98 m/s2
The radius is 3.0 m and the period is 1.7 s. Using ac = 4π2r/T2 gives acceleration of the rider as 41 m/s2.
3. A carnival ride has a 3.0-m radius and rotates once every 1.7 s. What is the speed of the
rider?
a. 11 m/s
b. 3.4 m/s
c. 5 m/s
d. 9.4 m/s
To calculate the rider's speed, use v = 2πr/T.
4. The acceleration of an object in uniform circular motion is called __________.
a. torque
b. equilibrium
c. centripetal acceleration
d. range
This can be calculated using ac = v2/r.
5. In Figure 6-7, if the mass of the hammer is 7.26 kg, its center is 0.50 m from the thrower, and it is moving at
a speed of 1.5 m/s, what is its centripetal acceleration?
a. 4.5 m/s2

b. 3.0 m/s2
c. 22 m/s2
d. 33 m/s2
Be careful that you don't confuse centripetal force with centripetal acceleration.
a speed of 1.5 m/s, what is the force of the chain on the thrower's hands?
a. 33 N, inward
b. 22 N, inward
c. 22 N, outward
d. 33 N, outward
Newton's third law is always true. Identifying third-law pairs can come in handy.
a speed of 1.5 m/s, what is the tension in the chain?
a. 33 N
b. 4.5 N
c. 22 N
d. 3.0 N
The word "centripetal" means "center seeking."
Section 6.1 Projectile
Motion
Practice Test
Your score was 30%.
1. A stone is thrown horizontally at 20 m/s from the top of a cliff 63 m high. How fast is it moving
the instant before it hits the ground?
a. 33 m/s
b. 29 m/s
c. 38 m/s
d. 40 m/s
Use v=vx2+vy2.
2. A projectile's path through space is called its

__________.
a. flight plan

b. trajectory
c. range
d. period
While the range gives the horizontal distance traveled, the trajectory is the actual path through
space.
3. A stone is thrown horizontally at 20.0 m/s from the top of a cliff 63 m high. How far from the
base of the cliff does the stone hit the ground?
a. 66 m
b. 42 m
c. 72 m
d. 13 m
The end position in the x-direction is equal to the initial position in the x-direction plus its velocity
multiplied by the time in the air.
4. In Figure 6-1, if the baseballs fell a vertical distance of 1.6 m from the first to the last image,
what is the time interval between frames?
a. 0.081 s
b. 0.095 s
c. 0.23 s
d. 0.071 s
A time interval is the time between two events.
5. Any moving object that moves through the air only under the force of gravity (after initial
thrust) is a(n) __________.
a. satellite
b. free floater
c. vector
d. projectile
A projectile does not require the ability to be self-propelled.
6. The horizontal distance a projectile travels is the __________.
a. trajectory
b. maximum height
c. torque
d. range
A projectile's range, R, is the horizontal distance it travels.
7. The __________ is the height of the projectile when the vertical velocity is zero.
a. trajectory
b. range
c. torque
d. maximum height
At maximum height, the projectile has only its horizontal velocity component.
8. In Figure 6-1, if the baseballs fell a vertical distance of 1.6 m from the first to the last image,
how long did it take them to fall?
a. 0.57 s
b. 0.40 s
c. 0.16 s
d. 0.32 s
Objects in free fall experience a constant downward acceleration of g.
9. The time a projectile is in the air is the __________.
a. centripetal acceleration

b. trajectory
c. flight time
d. range
The time at the maximum height is t = vyi/g.
10. You accidentally throw your car keys horizontally at 5.0 m/s from a cliff 45 m high. How far
from the base of the cliff should you look for your keys?
a. 15 m
b. 225 m
c. 135 m
d. 45 m
After solving for t, use xf = xi + vxit.
Section 6.3 Relative
Velocity
Practice Test
Your score was 50%.
1. You are riding in a boat that is traveling 15.0 m/s in still water. You move from the bow to the
stern at 3.0 m/s. What is your speed relative to the water?
a. 15.3 m/s relative to the water

b. 18.0 m/s relative to the water
c. 9.0 m/s relative to the water
d. 12.0 m/s relative to the water
When velocities are along the same line, simple addition or subtraction can be used to determine
the relative velocity.
2. Which of the following situations is physically the most like that depicted in Figure 6-9a?
a. You step upwards on an upward-moving

escalator.
b. You slide to the right on the seat of a
forward-moving bus.
c. You jump up in an elevator that is going
down.
d. You walk toward the rear of a forward-
moving train.
When analyzing relative velocities, it helps to draw
arrows representing each velocity.
Section 7.1 Planetary Motion
and Gravitation
Practice Test
Your score was 11%.
1. Two bowling balls each have a mass of 6.3 kg. They are located next to each other with their
centers 16.5 cm apart. What gravitational force do they exert on each other? Assume G =
6.67×10-11 N·m2/kg2.
a. 9.7×10-8 N/m2
b. 9.7×10-8 N
c. 1.6×10-8 N
d. 3.1×10-7 N
Use the equation for Newton's law of universal gravitation, F = Gm1m2/r2. The gravitational force
between the two bowling balls is 9.7×10 -8 N.
2. According to Kepler's laws, which of the following statements is true?
a. Planets move slower when they are closer to the Sun and faster when they are
farther away.
b. All points on the path of the planet's orbit are equidistant from the Sun.
c. Planets move faster when they are closer to the Sun and slower when they are
farther away.
d. Planets orbit at constant velocity.
Kepler found that an imaginary line drawn from the Sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal
time periods. The planet must move faster when it is closer to the Sun and slower when it is farther
from the Sun in order for this to be true.
3. In Figure 7-5, if the radius of the planet's orbit were doubled, what effect would it have on its
period of orbit?
a. It would decrease.

b. It would increase.
c. More information is needed to determine the answer.
d. It would have no effect.
The orbital radius appears in the numerator of the formula for the period.
4. Two 1.00-kg masses have their centers 1.00 m apart. What is the force of attraction between
them?
a. 1.33×10-10 N
b. 6.67×10-11 N
c. 6.67×1011 N
d. 9.7×10-8 N
Using the equation for Newton's law of universal gravitation, F = Gm1m2/r2, gives 6.67×10-11 N.
5. In Figure 7-5, if the mass of the planet were doubled, what effect would it have on its period of
orbit?
a. It would have no effect.

b. The new period would be one-quarter of the original period.
c. The new period would be twice the original period.
d. The new period would be one-half of the original period.
The orbital period does not depend on the planet's mass. It depends only on the Sun's mass.
6. In Figure 7-5, if the mass of the Sun were doubled, what effect would it have on the planet's
period of orbit?
a. The new period would be twice the original period.

b. The new period would be one divided by the square root of two times the original
period.
c. It would have no effect.
d. The new period would be one-half of the original period.
The orbital period is inversely proportional to the square root of the Sun's mass.
7. Which of the following equations represents Newton's law of universal gravitation?
a. T3 = (4π2/Gms)r2

b. G = Fm1m2/r2
c. T2 = (4π2/Gms)r3
d. F = Gm1m2/r2
The gravitational force is attractive along a line containing the centers of the two objects.
8. If the mass of a planet near the Sun were doubled, the force of attraction would
__________.
a. be squared
b. be one half as strong
c. remain constant
d. be doubled
According to F = Gm1m2/r2, if the mass of a planet near the Sun were doubled, the force of
attraction would be doubled.
9. In Newton's equation, F = Gm1m2/r2, r is __________.
a. the difference in the two masses

b. the distance between the centers of the masses
c. a universal constant
d. the distance between a planet and the Sun
The closer two objects are to each other, the the larger the gravitational forces between those
objects is.
10. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation in the case of a planet near the Sun, which
of the following would cause the attractive force to be quadrupled?
a. quadruple the mass of the planet

b. quadruple the distance from the Sun
c. double the distance from the Sun
d. square the mass of the planet
According to F = Gm1m2/r2, if the mass of a planet near the Sun were quadrupled, the force of
attraction would be quadrupled.
11. Assume that you have a mass of 45.0 kg and Earth has a mass of 5.97×10 -11 kg. The radius of
Earth is 6.38×106 m. What is the force of gravitational attraction between you and Earth?
Use G = 6.67×10-11 N·m2/kg2.
a. 2.80×102 N
b. 9.80 N
c. 4.40×102 N
d. 6.60×102 N
The force of gravitational attraction between you and Earth is 4.40×10 2 N.
12. Two balls have their centers 3.0 m apart. One ball has a mass of 2.7 kg. The other has a mass
of 4.5 kg. What is the gravitational force between them? Assume G = 6.67×10-11 N·m2/kg2.
a. 2.7×10-10 N
b. 1.3×10-11 N
c. 9.0×10-10 N
d. 9.0×10-11 N
Use the equation for Newton's law of universal gravitation, F = Gm1m2/r2. The gravitational force
between the two balls is 9.0×10-11 N.
13. According to Kepler's laws, the paths of the planets are __________.
a. circles
b. Earth-centered
c. parabolas
d. ellipses
According to Kepler's laws, the paths of the planets are ellipses, with the Sun at one focus.
14. According to Kepler's laws, an imaginary line from the Sun to a planet __________.
a. sweeps out larger areas the greater the planet's distance from the Sun than it
would in the same time interval when closest to the Sun
b. remains a constant length through the entire orbit of that planet
c. sweeps out equal areas in equal time periods
d. sweeps out smaller areas when the planet is closest to the Sun than it would in the
same time interval when farthest from the Sun
Kepler's mathematical analyses showed that in his Sun-centered system, an imaginary line drawn
from the Sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time periods.
15. The time it takes a comet to complete one revolution is called the _______.
a. period
b. orbit
c. ellipse
d. focus
Comets are divided into two groups: long-period and short-period comets.
16. The attractive force that exists between all objects is known as __________.
a. gravitational force

b. the normal force
c. torque
d. centripetal force
The gravitational force between two obejcts is proportional to the objects' masses.
17. In 1798, __________ devised an apparatus to measure the gravitational

force.
a. Tycho Brahe

b. Isaac Newton
c. Henry Cavendish
d. Johannes Kepler
He found that the universal gravitational constant is equal to 6.67×10 -11 N·m2/kg2.
18. Which of the following equations describes one of Kepler's

laws?
a. (TB/TA)2 = (rA/rB)3

b. (TA/TB)2 = (rA/rB)3
c. (TA/TB)3 = (rA/rB)2
d. (TA/rA)2 = (TB/rB)3
This law relates the motion of several objects about a single body.
Section 7.2 Using the Law of Universal

Gravitation
Practice Test
Your score was 27%.
1. A satellite orbits Earth 5.00×102 km above its surface. What is its period?
a. 15.7 h
b. 94.6 h
c. 1.43 h
d. 1.58 h
The period of a satellite is independent of its mass.
2. If you weigh 500.0 N on Earth's surface, how much would you weigh on the planet Jupiter?
Jupiter has a mass of 1.90×1027 kg and a radius of 71.5×106 m.
a. 126 N
b. 1.24×104 N
c. 1.26 N
d. 1270 N
First, find your mass in kg, then use F = Gm1m2/r2. You would weigh 1270 N on Jupiter.
3. If you weigh 440.0 N on Earth's surface, how much would you weigh on the planet Mars? Mars
has a mass of 6.42×1023 kg and a radius of 3.40×106 m.
a. 165 N
b. 557 N
c. 1.4×103 N
d. 235 N
First, find your mass in kg, then use F = Gm1m2/r2. You would weigh 165 N on Mars.
4. If Earth began to shrink but its mass remained the same, what would happen to the value
of g on Earth's surface?
a. It would decrease.

c. It would remain constant.
d. It would be halved.
If Earth began to shrink but its mass remained the same, the value of g on Earth's surface would
increase.
5. A satellite orbits Earth 5.00×102 km above its surface. What is its speed in orbit?
a. 5.92×103 m/s
b. 7.61×103 m/s
c. 7.76×103 m/s
d. 7.90×103 m/s
The speed of a satellite is independent of its mass.
6. What is the orbital period for the satellite pictured in Figure 7-10?
a. 3.1 h
b. 170 h
c. 1.6 h
d. 0.052 h
The orbital period of a satellite is independent of the satellite's mass.
7. When Uranus was discovered, why didn't Newton's law of gravitation correctly predict its orbit?
a. Uranus was being attracted by the planet Neptune.

b. The period of Uranus was not known at the time.
c. Newton's law of gravitation applies only to objects on Earth.
d. Newton's law could not be applied over such great distances.
Uranus was being attracted by the planet Neptune, which was discovered a year later.
8. The __________ of an object is measured by applying a force to the object and measuring its
acceleration.
a. inertial mass

b. weight
c. gravitational mass
d. resistance
The inertial mass is a measure of an object's resistance to any type of force.
9. A satellite orbits Earth 375 km above its surface. What is its

period?
a. 16.0 h
b. 55.3 h
c. 92.1 h
d. 1.54 h
The period of the satellite is 1.54 h.
10. A satellite orbits Earth 375 km above its surface. What is its speed in orbit?
a. 7.61 × 103 m/s2

b. 7.68 × 103 m/s2
c. 7.68 × 103 m/s
d. 7.61 × 103 m/s
The equation for speed can be used for any object in orbit around another object. The mass of the
cental body will replace mE.
11. If the satellite in Figure 7-10 were to remain above the same point on Earth, what would its
orbital radius have to be changed to?
a. 1.7×1011 m
b. 1.3×1011 m
c. 1.1×1011 m
d. 2.2×1011 m
This is actually the orbital radius for any satellite of Earth with a period of one day.
Section 8.1 Describing Rotational Motion
Practice Test
Your score was 33%.
1. In Figure 8-2, if the radius of the CD is 6.0 cm and the angular velocity is 5.0 rad/s, what is
the linear displacement of a point on the edge in 2.0 s?
a. 0.30 m
b. 60 m
c. 3.8 m
d. 0.60 m
It should make sense that the linear displacement of a point further from the axis will be greater for
a given angular displacement.
2. In Figure 8-2, if the radius of the CD is 6.0 cm and the angular velocity is 5.0 rad/s, what is its
angular displacement in 2.0 s?
a. 6.0×101 rad
b. 1.0×101 rad
c. 1.7 rad
d. 0.60 rad
Angular displacement and angular velocity have a similar relationship to that of linear displacement
and linear velocity.
3. A mass that rotates around its own axis is a(n) __________.
a. satellite
b. projectile
c. rigid rotating object
d. orbiter
An ordinary door is also a rigid rotating object, even though it usually rotates only through a
portion of a circle.
Section 8.3 Equilibrium
Practice Test
Your score was 38%.
1. An object is in __________ when the net torque exerted on it is zero.
a. translational equilibrium

b. equilibrium
c. rotational equilibrium
d. static equilibrium
The angular velocity of an object in rotational equilibrium is zero or constant.
2. The centripetal acceleration is given by:
a. ac = rω
b. ac = rω2
c. ac = ω2/r
d. ac = r/ω
ac = rω2
3. Newton's laws are valid only

__________.
a. in rotating frames

b. in vacuum
c. in nonaccelerated or inertial frames
d. on Earth
Newton's laws are valid only in inertial or nonaccelerated frames.
4. The __________ of an object is the point on the object that moves in the same way that a
point particle would move.
a. orbit
b. center of mass
c. torque
d. axis
When an object rotates its center of mass follows a straight line.
5. What happens to an object when its velocity and angular velocity are zero or constant?
a. It's in rotational equilbrium.

b. It accelerates.
c. It's in static equilibrium.
d. It's in translational equilibrium.
For an object to be in static equilibrium, it must be in translational and rotational equilibrium.
6. What causes the Coriolis force?
a. gravity
b. winds
c. the rotation of Earth
d. low pressure areas
The Coriolis force is not a real force. It exists because we observe a deflection in the horizontal
motion when we are in a rotating frame of reference.
7. An object is in __________ when the net force exerted on it is zero.
a. equilibrium
b. static equilibrium
c. translational equilibrium
d. rotational equilibrium
The velocity of an object in translational equilibrium is zero or constant.
8. Which two conditions make an object the most stable?
a. a high center of mass and a narrow base.

b. a high center of mass and a narrow base.
c. a low center of mass and a large base.
d. a high center of mass and a large base.
When the center of mass of an object is outside its base, the object is unstable and can easily roll
over.
Section 9.1 Impulse and Momentum
Practice Test
Your score was 50%.
1. The velocity of a 975-kg car is changed from 12.0 m/s to 27.0 m/s in 15.0 s by an external,
constant force. What is the resulting change in momentum of the car?
a. 1.46×104 kg[dot]m/s
b. 9.75×102 kg[dot]m/s
c. 2.19×105 kg[dot]m/s
d. 7.22×104 kg[dot]m/s
The change in momentum of the car can be found by multiplying the mass times the change in
velocity. The resulting change in the momentum of the car is 1.46×10 4 kg[dot]m/s.
2. A constant force of 4.5 N acts on a 7.2-kg object for 10.0 s. What is the change in the object's
velocity?
a. 6.3 m/s

b. 3.2 m/s
c. 1.2 m/s
d. 4.33 m/s
The change in the obejct's velocity is 6.3 m/s.
3. The product of mass and velocity of a moving object is defined as its __________.
a. linear momentum

b. impulse
c. net force
d. normal force
Momentum is measured in kg&#middot;m/s.
4. FΔt = mΔv is the equation for __________.
a. impulse-momentum
b. linear momentum
c. angular momentum
d. net force
The momentum of an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by the object's velocity.
5. The product of the average force and the time interval over which it acts is the
__________.
a. impulse
b. velocity
c. acceleration
d. linear momentum
7If the force on an object is constant, the impulse is the product of the force and the time interval
over which it acts.
constant force. What is the magnitude of the force?
a. 9.75×102 N
b. 1.46×104 N
c. 9.75×103 N
d. 975 kg·m/s
The magnitude of the force can be found by dividing the change in momentum by the time interval.
The magnitude of the force is 9.75×10 2 N.
7. Which one of the changes to the situation in Figure 9-2 listed below would require the airbag to
exert a larger average force on the passenger?
a. The time required to stop the passenger is lengthened.

b. The passenger's weight is decreased.
c. The initial speed of the passenger is decreased.
d. The time required to stop the passenger is shortened.
The average force required is equal to the change in momentum of the object, divided by the time
it has to act on that object.
8. In Figure 9-4b, in which position does the diver have the smallest moment of inertia?
a. The first

b. The second
c. The fourth
d. The last
The smaller the moment of inertia, the easier it is for an object to spin.
9. Small rockets are used to make tiny adjustments in the speed of satellites. One such rocket
has a thrust of 50.0 N. If it is fired to change the velocity of a 75,000-kg spacecraft by 45
cm/s, how long should it be fired?
a. 18.8 min

b. 9.4 min
c. 22 min
d. 11 min
Convert cm/s to m/s. Multiply change in velocity by the mass, then divide by the force applied to
find the time interval. The rocket should be fired for 11 mintues.
10. Your sister's mass is 43.5 kg, and she is riding her 8.00-kg bicycle. What is the combined
momentum of your sister and her bike if they are going 2.40 m/s?
a. 85 kg·m/s2
b. 124 kg·m/s2
c. 104 kg·m/s
d. 124 kg·m/s
Since momentum is equal to mass times velocity, the combined momentum is the product of the
total mass of the girl and the bike, multiplied by their velocity, 2.40 m/s. The combined momentum
of your sister and her bike is 124 kg·m/s.
11. If an air bag such as the one shown in Figure 9-2 changes a 6.0×10 1 kg person's speed from
40.0 m/s to 0.0 m/s, what impulse must act on the person?
a. You cannot solve this problem without knowing the time it takes to stop the person.
b. 2400 kg m/s
c. 1.5 kg m/s
d. 0.67 kg m/s
The impulse on an object is equal to its change in momentum.
12. Linear momentum is the

__________.
a. product of the mass and velocity of a moving object

b. quantity of motion used with objects rotating about a fixed axis
c. average force and the time interval over which it acts
d. angular momentum and torque
13. The impulse is the product of the

__________.
a. average force and the time interval over which it acts
b. mass and velocity of a moving object
c. average force and the distance the object travels
The impulse on a object is equal to the change in momentum of the object.
14. In Figure 9-4b, in which position does the diver have the largest moment of inertia?
a. The second

b. The third
c. The fourth
d. The last
The larger the moment of inertia, the harder it is for an object to spin.
15. A 930-kg car traveling 56 km/h comes to a complete stop in 2.0 s. What is the force exerted
on the car during this stop?
a. -7.2×103 N
b. 7.2×103 N
c. -2.5×104 N
d. 2.5×104 N
Since F = pf - pi/Δt, F = -7.2×103 N. Remember to convert km/h to m/s before solving for pi.
16. The impulse-momentum theorem states that __________.

a. the impulse on an object is equal to the change in momentum it causes
b. the force on a moving object is equal to the magnitude of the impulse
c. the impulse on an object is greater than the change in momentum it causes
d. the impulse on an object is less than the change in momentum it causes
The impulse-momentum theorem is represented by the following equation: FΔt = Pf - Pi.
17. Which of the following is the equation for impulse-momentum?
a. FΔt = mΔv

b. p = mv
c. F = ma
d. g = F/m
FΔt = mΔv is the equation for impulse-momentum.
18. The quantity of momentum used with objects rotating about a fixed axis is called __________.
a. angular momentum
b. torque
c. uniform circular motion
d. centripetal acceleration
Angular momentum is measured in

kg&#middot;m2/s.
Section 8.2 Rotational Dynamics
Practice Test
Your score was 40%.
1. In Figure 8-3, why does applying a force as in the picture at the top left result in no effect?
a. The force is applied perpendicular to the lever arm.

b. The force is applied at the axis of rotation.
c. The force is applied parallel to the lever arm.
d. The force is applied perpendicular to the axis of rotation.
The lever arm is equal to 0.
2. In Figure 8-5, if m1 = 1.0 g, m2 = 5.0 g, and r1 = 6.0 cm, what is r2?
a. 0.83 m
b. 1.2 cm
c. 0.83 cm
d. 1.2 m
When the total torque on an object is zero, it does not rotate.
3. In Figure 8-3, if the door is 0.90 m wide and you exert a force of 2.0 N as in the picture on the top right, what
is the magnitude of the resulting torque on the door?
a. 0.40 N·m

b. 0.45 N·m
c. 2.9 N·m
d. 1.8 N·m
When the force and lever arm are at right angles to each other, the torque is found by multiplying the two
together.
4. In Figure 8-3, why does applying a force as in the picture at the bottom left result in no
effect?
a. The force is applied perpendicular to the lever arm.

b. The force is applied parallel to the lever arm.
c. The force is applied at the axis of rotation.
d. The force is applied perpendicular to the axis of rotation.
The angle between the force and the radius from the axis of rotation to the point where the force is applied is 0.
5. The product of the force and the lever arm is called

__________.
a. torque
b. range
c. power
d. equilibrium
Torque can start, stop, or change the direction of rotation.
Section 9.2 Conservation
of Momentum
Practice Test
Your score was 23%.
1. In Figure 9-6, if vC is 1 m/s, vD is 7 m/s, and the mass of each ball is 2 kg, how would the
magnitudes of the forces exerted by each ball on the other during the collision compare?
a. The magnitude of the force of D on C would be greater than the magnitude of the
force of C on D.
b. The magnitude of the force of C on D would be greater than the magnitude of the
force of D on C.
c. They do not exert forces on each other.
d. The magnitudes of the forces would be equal.
When two objects interact, the forces they exert on each other are equal and opposite.
2. Two freight cars, each with a mass of 2.5×104 kg collide. One was initially moving at 3.7 m/s;
the other was at rest. They stick together. What is their final speed?
a. 0.54 m/s

b. 3.7 m/s
c. 2.4 m/s
d. 1.9 m/s
Since the freight cars stick together after the collision, their final speeds are equal. The final speed
of both freight cars is 1.9 m/s.
3. Two campers dock a canoe. One camper has a mass of 100.0 kg and moves forward at 3.0
m/s as he leaves the canoe to step onto the dock. With what speed do the canoe and other
camper move if their combined mass is 175.0 kg?
a. 1.7 m/s

b. 8.25 m/s
c. 5.3 m/s
d. 4.0 m/s
The speed at which the canoe and campers in the canoe move if their combined mass is 175.0 kg is
1.7 m/s.
4. The law of conservation of momentum states that

__________.
a. the momentum of any system does not change

b. the momentum of any closed system does not change
c. the momentum of any closed system with no net external force does not change
d. momentum is neither created nor destroyed
Because momentum is conserved in a close isolated system, it is possible to make a connection
between conditions before and after an interaction.
5. When the net external force on a closed system is zero, it is described as

__________.
a. non-accelerating
b. an isolated system
c. a normal system
d. motionless
No system on Earth is absolutely isolated. But the interactions between a system and its
surroundings are often small enough to be ignored when solving problems.
6. In Figure 9-6, if mC is 1 kg, mD is100 kg, and the initial velocities of both balls are 5 m/s, how
would the magnitudes of the forces exerted by each ball on the other during the collision
compare?
a. The magnitude of the force of D on C would be greater than the magnitude of the
force of C on D.
b. The magnitude of the force of C on D would be greater than the magnitude of the
force of D on C.
c. The magnitudes of the forces would be equal.
d. They do not exert forces on each other.
When two objects interact, the forces they exert on each other are equal and opposite.
7. A 4.75-g bullet is fired with a velocity of 120.0 m/s toward a 20.0-kg stationary solid block
resting on a frictionless surface. What is the change in momentum of the bullet if it is
embedded in the block?
a. 5.7 kg·m/s

b. -0.57 kg·m/s
c. 1.20×103 kg·m/s
d. -1.20×103 kg·m/s
The change in mometun of the bullet is -0.57 kg·m/s.
8. A 2.00-kg ball, A, is moving at a speed of 5.00 m/s. It collides with a stationary ball, B, of the
same mass. After the collision, A moves off in a direction 30.0° to the left of its original
direction. Ball B moves off in a direction 90.0° to the right of ball A's final direction. How fast is
ball B moving after the collision?
a. 2.50 m/s

b. 5.00 m/s
c. 6.83 m/s
d. 8.66 m/s
Use a vector diagram to set up equations for calculating the momenta of the balls after collision,
then determine final speed. The final speed of ball B is 5.00 m/s.
9. A 2.00-kg ball, A, is moving at a speed of 5.00 m/s. It collides with a stationary ball, B, of the
same mass. After the collision, A moves off in a direction 30.0° to the left of its original
direction. Ball B moves off in a direction 90.0° to the right of ball A's final direction. How fast is
ball A moving after the collision?
a. 2.50 m/s

b. 8.66 m/s
c. 4.33 m/s
d. 6.83 m/s
Use a vector diagram to set up equations for calculating the momenta of the balls after collision,
then determine final speed. The final speed of ball A is 8.66 m/s.
10. Before a collision, a 35-kg object is moving at +10.0 m/s. Find the impulse that acted on the
object if, after the collision, it moves at +8.0 m/s.
a. 7.0×101 kg·m/s
b. -7.0×101 kg·m/s
c. -7.0×102 kg·m/s
d. -2.8×102kg·m/s
The impulse is equal to the change in momentum it causes, mΔv. The change in velocity in this
problem is -2.0 m/s. The impulse that acted on the object is -7.0×10 1 kg·m/s.
11. Before a collision, a 50.0-kg object is moving at +5.0 m/s. Find the impulse that acted on the
object if, after the collision, it moves at +8.0 m/s.
a. -1.5×102 kg[dot]m/s
b. -4.5 kg[dot]m/s
c. 1.5×102 kg[dot]m/s
d. 4.5 kg[dot]m/s
The impulse is equal to the change in momentum it causes, mΔv. The impulse that acted on the
object before the collision is 1.5×102 kg·m/s.
12. All the forces within a closed system are __________.
a. external forces

b. due to gravity
c. angular forces
d. internal forces
All the forces within a closed system are internal forces.
13. A system that doesn't gain or lose mass is said to be

__________.
a. a closed system

b. isolated
c. inert
d. an internal system
A system that doesn't gain or lose mass is
said to be a closed system.
Section 9.1 Impulse and
Momentum
Practice Test
Your score was 33%.
1. Which of the following is the equation for impulse-momentum?
a. FΔt = mΔv

b. p = mv
c. F = ma
d. g = F/m
FΔt = mΔv is the equation for impulse-momentum.
constant force. What is the magnitude of the force?
a. 9.75×102 N
b. 1.46×104 N
c. 9.75×103 N
d. 975 kg·m/s
The magnitude of the force can be found by dividing the change in momentum by the time interval.
The magnitude of the force is 9.75×10 2 N.
3. A 930-kg car traveling 56 km/h comes to a complete stop in 2.0 s. What is the force exerted
on the car during this stop?
a. -7.2×103 N
b. 7.2×103 N
c. -2.5×104 N
d. 2.5×104 N
Since F = pf - pi/Δt, F = -7.2×103 N. Remember to convert km/h to m/s before solving for pi.
4. If an air bag such as the one shown in Figure 9-2 changes a 6.0×10 1 kg person's speed from
40.0 m/s to 0.0 m/s, what impulse must act on the person?
a. You cannot solve this problem without knowing the time it takes to stop the person.
b. 2400 kg m/s
c. 1.5 kg m/s
d. 0.67 kg m/s
The impulse on an object is equal to its change in momentum.
5. The impulse is the product of the

__________.
a. average force and the time interval over which it acts
b. mass and velocity of a moving object
c. average force and the distance the object travels
The impulse on a object is equal to the change in momentum of the object.
6. A constant force of 4.5 N acts on a 7.2-kg object for 10.0 s. What is the change in the object's
velocity?
a. 6.3 m/s

b. 3.2 m/s
c. 1.2 m/s
d. 4.33 m/s
The change in the obejct's velocity is 6.3 m/s.
7. In Figure 9-4b, in which position does the diver have the largest moment of inertia?
a. The second

b. The third
c. The fourth
d. The last
The larger the moment of inertia, the harder it is for an object to spin.
8. The quantity of momentum used with objects rotating about a fixed axis is called __________.
a. angular momentum

b. torque
c. uniform circular motion
d. centripetal acceleration
Angular momentum is measured in kg&#middot;m2/s.
9. The product of the average force and the time interval over which it acts is the
__________.
a. impulse
b. velocity
c. acceleration
d. linear momentum
7If the force on an object is constant, the impulse is the product of the force and the time interval
over which it acts.
constant force. What is the resulting change in momentum of the car?
a. 1.46×104 kg[dot]m/s
b. 9.75×102 kg[dot]m/s
c. 2.19×105 kg[dot]m/s
d. 7.22×104 kg[dot]m/s
The change in momentum of the car can be found by multiplying the mass times the change in
velocity. The resulting change in the momentum of the car is 1.46×10 4 kg[dot]m/s.
11. Your sister's mass is 43.5 kg, and she is riding her 8.00-kg bicycle. What is the combined
momentum of your sister and her bike if they are going 2.40 m/s?
a. 85 kg·m/s2
b. 124 kg·m/s2
c. 104 kg·m/s
d. 124 kg·m/s
Since momentum is equal to mass times velocity, the combined momentum is the product of the
total mass of the girl and the bike, multiplied by their velocity, 2.40 m/s. The combined momentum
of your sister and her bike is 124 kg·m/s.
12. In Figure 9-4b, in which position does the diver have the smallest moment of inertia?
a. The first

b. The second
c. The fourth
d. The last
The smaller the moment of inertia, the easier it is for an object to spin.
13. Small rockets are used to make tiny adjustments in the speed of satellites. One such rocket
has a thrust of 50.0 N. If it is fired to change the velocity of a 75,000-kg spacecraft by 45
cm/s, how long should it be fired?
a. 18.8 min

b. 9.4 min
c. 22 min
d. 11 min
Convert cm/s to m/s. Multiply change in velocity by the mass, then divide by the force applied to
find the time interval. The rocket should be fired for 11 mintues.
14. FΔt = mΔv is the equation for __________.
a. impulse-momentum
b. linear momentum
c. angular momentum
d. net force
The momentum of an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by the object's velocity.
15. Which one of the changes to the situation in Figure 9-2 listed below would require the airbag to
exert a larger average force on the passenger?
a. The time required to stop the passenger is lengthened.

b. The passenger's weight is decreased.
c. The initial speed of the passenger is decreased.
d. The time required to stop the passenger is shortened.
The average force required is equal to the change in momentum of the object, divided by the time
it has to act on that object.
16. The product of mass and velocity of a moving object is defined as its __________.
a. linear momentum

b. impulse
c. net force
d. normal force
17. Linear momentum is the

__________.
a. product of the mass and velocity of a moving object

b. quantity of motion used with objects rotating about a fixed axis
c. average force and the time interval over which it acts
18. The impulse-momentum theorem states that __________.
a. the impulse on an object is equal to the change in momentum it causes
b. the force on a moving object is equal to the magnitude of the impulse
c. the impulse on an object is greater than the change in momentum it causes
d. the impulse on an object is less than the change in momentum it causes
The impulse-momentum theorem is represented by the following equation: FΔt = Pf - Pi.
Section 10.1 Energy and

Work
Practice Test
Your score was 37%.
1. A 16.8-kg boy is riding in a 4.50-kg wagon. A 14.0-kg girl pushes the wagon and exerts a constant force of
2.60 N over a distance of 3.50 m. What is the change in energy of the boy and the wagon?
a. 25.5 J
b. 9.10 J
c. 12.8 J
d. 47.6 J
W = Fd; according to the work-energy theorem, when work is done on an object, a change in kinetic energy
results. This change, ΔKE, is equal to the work done, or 9.10 J.
2. A joule is
__________.
a. 1 N·m
b. 1 Fr/Fe
c. 1 N·s
d. 1 N·m/s
The joule is the unit of energy and is equal to 1 kg·m 2/s2, or 1 N·m.
3. The equation for work is

__________.
a. W = FΔKE
b. W = ma
c. W = Fd
d. W = F/m
The equation for work is W = Fd.
4. A 16.8-kg boy is riding in a 4.50-kg wagon. A 14.0-kg girl pushes the wagon and exerts a constant force of
2.60 N over a distance of 3.50 m. How much work does the girl do pushing the wagon?
a. 0.26 J
b. 127 J
c. 66.4 J
d. 9.10 J
Using W = Fd, W = (2.60 N)(3.50 m) = 9.10 J.
5. The work-energy theorem states that

__________.
a. when work is done on an object, a change in kinetic energy results.

b. when a machine works at 100 percent efficiency, the energy of the system remains constant
c. when work is done at a rate of one joule per second, the power produced is one watt
d. effort is required to resist a change in the energy of a system
The relationship between work done and the change in kinetic energy that results was established by James
Prescott Joule in the 19th century.
6. How much work does the force of gravity do when a 50.0-N object falls a distance of 10.0
m?
a. 5.00×102 J
b. 98.0 J
c. 125 J
d. 51.0 J
W = Fd = (50.0 N)(10.0 m) = 5.00×102 J
7. In Figure 10-1, if the force exerted on a 3.0-kg backpack that is initally at rest is 20.0 N and the distance it
acts over is 0.25 m, what is the final speed of the backpack?
a. 1.8 m/s

b. 2.8 m/s
c. 3.3 m/s
d. 5.0 m/s
The more mass an object has, the harder it is to increase its velocity.
8. An electric motor lifts an elevator 14.0 m in 22.5 s by exerting an upward force of 1.75×10 4 N. What power
does the motor produce in kilowatts?
a. 245 kW
b. 1.09×104 kW
c. 10.9 kW
d. 2.45×104 kW
P = W/t = Fd/t = (1.75×104 N)(14.0 m)/(22.5 s) = 10.9 kW
9. A sailor pulls a boat 15.0 m along a dock using a rope that makes a 45.0° angle with the horizontal. How much
work does the sailor do on the boat if he exerts a force of 185 N on the rope?
a. 1.59×103 J
b. 2.78×103 J
c. 1.96×103 J
d. 1.96×102 J
W = Fd cos θ = (185 N)(15.0 m)(cos 45.0°) = 1.96×10 3 J
10. How much work does the force of gravity do on a 5.45-kg bowling ball that falls a distance of 0.755
m?
a. 262 J
b. 40.3 J
c. 4.11 J
d. 71.2 J
Calculate force using Newton's second law of motion, F = ma. In this case, the acceleration is due to gravity. Find
the work done by gravity by multiplying the force of gravity on the ball by the distance the ball fell.
11. One __________ is one joule of energy transferred in one second.
a. calorie
b. watt
c. newton
d. volt
One watt is equal to one joule of energy transferred in one second.
12. A 1200.0-kg car speeds up from 16.0 m/s to 20.0 m/s. How much work was done on the car to increase its
speed?
a. 3.1×105 J
b. 8.6×105 J
c. 8.6×104 J
d. 9.6×103 J
4
8.6×10 J of work was done on the car to increase its speed.
13. A forklift raises a box 2.5 m doing 8.7 kJ of work on it. What is the mass of the box?
a. 7.2×102 kg
b. 3.6×103 kg
c. 3.6×102 kg
d. 3.5×103 kg
F = W/d; find the mass of the box using Newton's second law of motion. The mass of the box is 3.6×10 2 kg.
14. In Figure 10-1, if the force exerted on the backpack is 20.0 N and the distance it acts over is 0.25 m, what is
the change in kinetic energy of the backpack?
a. 8.0×101 J
b. 5.0 J
c. 4.0×101 J
d. 2.5 J
The longer distance a force acts on an object, the more it increases its kinetic energy.
15. An airplane passenger carries a 300.0-N suitcase up the stairs, a displacement of 5.50 m vertically and 3.75 m
horizontally. How much work does the passenger do?
a. 2.78×103 J
b. 1.65×103 J
c. 1.13×103 J
d. 1.65×102 J
The passenger is applying force to the suitcase by lifting it, so the only work done is in the vertical
direction. W = Fd = (300.0 N)(5.50 m) = 1.65×103 J
16. Energy is defined as

__________.
a. power
b. the ability of an object to produce change in the environment or itself
c. motion
d. the effort required to perform work
Energy is defined as the ability of an object to produce change in the environment or itself.
17. If the boy in Figure 10-3 pushes on the car while it travels a horizontal distance of 1.1 m, how much work does
he do?
a. 64 J
b. 140 J
c. 120 J
d. 58 J
The work done by a force is equal to the distance over which it is exerted times the component of the force parallel
to that distance.
18. A steel ball with mass 5.0 kg is at rest on a smooth, level surface. A constant force acts on it through a
distance of 10.0 m causing it to roll at 25 m/s. What is the magnitude of the force?
a. 1.6×102 N
b. 1.6×103 N
c. 6.3 N
d. 4.9 N
First, calculate the kinetic energy of the rolling ball. The work done on the ball is equal to the kinetic energy gained,
so the magnitude of the force is equal to the work divided by the distance over which the force acted, or 1.6×10 2 N.
19. A student lifts a box of books that weighs 215 N. The box is lifted 1.75 m. What is the change in energy of the
box?
a. 123 J
b. 376 J
c. 225 J
d. 38.4 J
W = Fd; according to the work-energy theorem, when work is done on an object, a change in kinetic energy
results. This change, ΔKE, is equal to the work done, or 376 J.
20. __________ is the rate of doing work.
a. Force
b. Power
c. Energy
d. Effort
Power is the rate of doing work, or P = W/t.
21. The equation for calculating work when there is an angle between force and displacement is __________.
a. W = Fd cos θ
b. W = FΔKE
c. W = F/m
d. W = Fd
The equation for calculating work when there is an angle between force and dispacement isW = Fd cos θ.
22. Which of the following has the greatest kinetic energy, a 35.0-g bullet traveling at 1.20×10 3 m/s, a 35.0-kg
cheetah running at 30 m/s, an 875-kg car traveling at 5 m/s, or a 148-g pitched baseball moving at 45 m/s?
a. car
b. bullet
c. cheetah
d. baseball
Even though the bullet has the smallest mass of the objects given, its kinetic energy is highest because of its high
velocity.
23. The energy of an object resulting from motion is __________ energy.

a. thermal
b. kinetic
c. mechanical
d. potential
The energy of an object resulting from motion is kinetic energy. It is represented by the symbol KE.
24. A rope is used to pull a metal box 12.0 m across the floor with a force of 456 N. The rope is held at an angle of
52.0° with the floor. How much work does the puller do?
a. 3.37×102 J
b. 3.37×103 J
c. 4.31×103 J
d. 5.47×103 J
Since the force is exerted at an angle to the motion, W = Fd cos θ = (456 N)(12.0 m)(cos 52.0°) = 3.37×10 3 J.
25. A 1200.0-kg car speeds up from 16.0 m/s to 20.0 m/s. What were its initial and final
energies?
a. initial 4.80×105 J, final 3.07×105 J

b. initial 3.07×105 J, final 4.80×105 J
c. initial 2.40×105 J, final 1.54×105 J
d. initial 1.54×105 J, final 2.40×105 J
initial 1.54×105 J, final 2.40×105 J
26. A hydrolic lift raises a 1.14×103-kg car a distance of 2.4 m. If the car is lifted in 47 s, how much power does
the lift produce?
a. 570 kW
b. 290 W
c. 58.2 W
d. 570 W
P = W/t= Fd/t = (1.14×103 kg)(9.80 m/s2)(2.4 m)/(47 s) = 570 W
27. The unit for kinetic energy is the

__________.
a. volt
b. joule
c. ampere
d. watt
The joule is the unit for kinetic energy and is equal to 1 kg·m 2/s2, or 1 N·m.
28. A rifle can shoot a 4.20-g bullet at a speed of 965 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the bullet as it leaves the
rifle?
a. 2.03 J
b. 1.96×106 J
c. 2.03×103 J
d. 1.96×103 J
In this case, KE = 1/2(4.2×10-3 kg)(965 m/s)2 = 1.96×103 J.
29. A student lifts a box of books that weighs 215 N. The box is lifted 1.75 m. How much work does the student do
on the box?
a. 38.4 J
b. 123 J
c. 376 J
d. 217 J
Using W = Fd, W = (215 N)(1.75 m) = 376 J.
30. If you exert a force on an object in the direction opposite to its motion, the kinetic energy of the object
__________.
a. remains constant

b. decreases
c. increases
d. is zero
Because the force exerted is in the direction opposite to the object's motion, the work done on the object is
negative and decreases the kinetic energy of the object.
Section 10.2 Machines
Practice Test
Your score was 17%.
1. If the efficiency of the pulley system in Figure 10-11b is 95 percent, what effort force must be exerted to lift a
20.0 N box at constant velocity?
a. 22 N
b. 19 N
c. 21 N
d. 20 N
When using a real single pulley, the effort force will need to be greater than the resistance force to lift an object.
2. If the machine in Figure 10-11a is ideal and an effort force of 7.0 N just lifts a 14.0 N box situated 0.75 m
from the pivot, what is the distance from the pivot point to where the effort force is exerted?
a. 65 m
b. 2.0 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 0.38 m
On each side of the lever, the force times the distance from the pivot should be the same.
3. The rear wheel of a bicycle has a radius of 38.5 cm and has a gear with a radius of 4.75 cm. When the chain is
pulled with a force of 175 N, the wheel rim moves 18.0 cm. The efficiency of this part of the bike is 95.0
percent. How far was the chain pulled to move the rim that amount?
a. 1.45 cm
b. 2.21 cm
c. 1.45×102 cm
d. 2.12 cm
For a wheel and axle machine, the IMA is the ratio of the radii. To find out how far the chain was pulled, multiply
the displacement of the rim by the IMA. The chain was pulled a distance of 2.21 cm.
4. The force exerted by a machine is called the __________.
a. mechanical advantage

b. mechanical force
c. effort force
d. resistance force
The force exerted by a machine is called the resistance force.
5. The __________ of a machine is defined as the ratio of output work to input

work.
a. reliability
b. IMA
c. mechanical advantage
d. efficiency
All real machines have efficiencies of less than 100 percent.
6. The ratio of resistance force to effort force is called the __________.
a. efficiency
b. torque
c. mechanical advantage
d. power
The ratio of resistance force to effort force is called the mechanical advantage.
Section 11.1 The Many Forms of

Energy
Practice Test
Your score was 0%.
1. Objects that are lifted against the force of gravity have stored energy known as
__________.
a. resistance
b. reference levels
c. kinetic energy
d. potential energy
Objects that are lifted against the force of gravity have stored energy known as potential energy.
2. A 75-kg rock climber first climbs 25 m to the top of a quarry, then descends 75 m from the top
to the bottom of the quarry. If the initial height is the reference level, what is the potential
energy of the system (climber plus Earth) at the top?
a. 3.7×104 J
b. -3.7×104 J
c. 1.8×104 J
d. -1.8×104 J
The potential energy at the top is 1.8×10 4 J.
3. Stored energy that is a result of the gravitational interaction between an object and Earth is
__________.
a. gravitational potential energy

b. mechanical energy
c. the reference level
d. elastic potential energy
Stored energy that is a result of the gravitational interaction between an obejct and Earth is
gravitational potential energy.
4. The equation that represents gravitational potential energy is

__________.
a. PEg = 1/2mv2

b. PEg = Fd
c. PEg = E + KE
d. PEg = mgh
The equation that represents gravitational potential energy is PEg = mgh, where h is the distance
the object has risen above the position at which PEg = 0.
5. The __________ is the position at which gravitational potential energy is zero.
a. release point

b. height
c. reference level
d. initial position
The reference level is the position at which gravitational potential energy is zero. This may be taken
as any position that is convenient for solving a given problem.
6. A 75-kg rock climber first climbs 25 m to the top of a quarry, then descends 75 m from the top
to the bottom of the quarry. If the initial height is the reference level, what is the potential
energy at the bottom?
a. -5.5×104 J
b. 1.8×104 J
c. 3.7×104 J
d. -3.7×104 J
At the bottom of the quarry, the climber is 5.0×101 m below the reference level, so h = -
5.0×101 m. PEg = mgh = (75 kg)(9.80 m/s2)(-5.0×101 m) = -3.7×104 J.
7. In Figure 11-5, if the mass of an orange is about 0.6 kg, about how much more gravitational
potential energy does the topmost orange have than the one in the juggler's left hand?
a. 60 J
b. 600 J
c. 0.6 J
d. 6 J
The difference in energy here is just equal to the mass of the orange times the difference in height.
8. You lift a 2.73-kg textbook from the floor to a shelf 1.75 m above the floor. What is the book's
gravitational potential energy relative to the floor?
a. 93.1 J
b. -46.8 J
c. 14.3 J
d. 46.8 J
The book's gravitational potential energy
relative to the floor is 46.8 J.
Section 11.2 Conservation
of Energy
Practice Test
Your score was 7%.
1. A large chunk of ice with mass 12.0 kg falls from a roof 6.00 m above the ground. Ignoring air
resistance, what is the speed of the ice when it reaches the ground?
a. 12.1 m/s

b. 12.5 m/s
c. 7.67 m/s
d. 10.8 m/s
First, calculate the kinetic energy of the ice when it reaches the ground. (It is equal to the initial
potential energy.) Then, calculate the speed of the ice using the equation KE = 1/2mv2. The speed
of the ice when it reaches the ground is 10.8 m/s.
2. A bike rider approaches a hill at a speed of 3.5 m/s. The mass of the bike and rider together is
77 kg. What is the initial kinetic energy of the system?
a. 3.1×103 J
b. 4.7×102 J
c. 2.6×103 J
d. 1.2×103 J
The initial kinetic energy of the system is 4.7×10 2 J.
3. In Figure 11-5, estimate the vertical velocity of an orange when it hits the juggler's left hand.
a. 0.45 m/s

b. 4.5 m/s
c. 2 m/s
d. 20 m/s
Applying conservation of energy is often an easier way than kinematics to determine the velocity of
an object that has fallen some distance.
4. In an accident on a slippery road, a car with mass 800.0 kg, moving at 12.0 m/s, smashes into
the rear end of a car with mass 1250 kg moving at 8.0 m/s in the same direction. How much
kinetic energy was lost in the collision if the wrecked cars lock together?
a. 6.1×104 J
b. 3.9×104 J
c. 3.9×103 J
d. 4.1×104 J
Use the conservation of momentum equation to find the final velocity. You can then calculate the
kinetic energies of the system before and after the collision and determine the change. 3.9×10 3 J of
kinetic energy was lost.
5. In Figure 11-13, case 3, if vi were doubled, how would the magnitude of the final velocity be
affected?
a. It would be quadrupled.

b. It would be doubled.
c. It would be halved.
d. It wouldn't change.
Conservation of momentum always applies to collisions.
6. The sum of the kinetic and gravitational potential energies of a system is called
__________.
a. conserved energy

b. reference energy
c. momentum
d. mechanical energy
In any given system, if no other forms of energy are present, mechanical energy, E, is equal to the
sum of the kinetic and gravitational potential energies of that system.
7. A 4.5-kg rock loses 375 J of potential energy while falling to the ground. What is the rock's
speed just before it strikes the ground?
a. 13 m/s
b. 20 m/s
c. 18 m/s
d. 9.1 m/s
Since the rock loses 375 J of potential energy, it gains 375 J of kinetic energy. KE = 375 J =
1/2mv2. The speed of the rock just before it strikes the ground is 13 m/s.
8. The law of conservation of energy states that

__________.
a. the total amount of energy in any system is the sum of its kinetic and gravitational
potential energies
b. the total amount of energy in any system is its mechanical energy
c. if a system is isolated from external forces, then the total amount of energy is
constant
d. in a closed, isolated system, the total amount of energy is constant
In a closed, isolated system, energy cannot be created or destroyed, so the total amount of energy
is constant.
9. If no other forms of energy besides kinetic and gravitational potential energy are present, then
mechanical energy is represented by the equation __________.
a. ME = 1/2 (KE)(PEg)2

b. E = KE + PEg
c. PEg = mgh
d. PEg = E + KE
In any given system, if no other forms of energy are present, mechanical energy, E, is equal to the
sum of the kinetic and gravitational potential energies of that system.
10. If the mass of the ball rolling down the ramp in Figure 11-10 were doubled, how would its
speed at the bottom of the ramp be affected?
a. It would be doubled.

b. It would be halved.
c. It would be quadrupled.
The final speed of a ball rolling down a ramp is independent of its mass.
11. A collision in which kinetic energy decreases is called a(n) __________.
a. mechanical collision

b. inelastic collision
c. elastic collision
d. energy conservation
Collisions are inelastic whenever kinetic energy is converted to thermal energy.
12. A large chunk of ice with mass 12.0 kg falls from a roof 6.00 m above the ground. Ignoring air
resistance, what is the kinetic energy of the ice when it reaches the ground?
a. -7.06×103 J
b. -7.06×102 J
c. 7.06×102 J
d. 7.06×103 J
Since the mechanical energy of this system is conserved, the final kinetic energy equals the initial
potential energy. The kinetic energy of the ice when it reaches the ground is 7.06×10 2 J.
13. In Figure 11-12, if cart D were given an initial velocity of 1 m/s to the left, what would the final
velocities of each cart be?
a. cart C, 0 m/s; cart D, 2 m/s to the right

b. cart C, 1 m/s to the left; cart D, 1 m/s to the right
c. cart C, 0 m/s; cart D, 0 m/s
d. cart C, 2 m/s to the left; cart D, 1 m/s to the left
Conservation of momentum always applies to collisions.
14. A bike rider approaches a hill at a speed of 3.5 m/s. The mass of the bike and rider together is
77 kg. The rider coasts up the hill. Assuming that there is no friction, at what height will the
bike come to rest?
a. 0.62 m
b. 4.1 m
c. 1.6 m
d. 3.7 m
The bike will come to rest when all the kinetic energy of the bike and rider is converted to potential
energy. Since energy is conserved, the final potential energy is equal to the initial kinetic
energy. KE = PEg = mgh. The bike will come to rest at a height of 0.62 m.
Section 12.1 Temperature and Thermal Energy
Practice Test
Your score was 31%.
1. In which direction does heat flow?
a. from hot to cold

b. from left to right
c. from light to dark
d. from cold to hot
Heat always travels from a hot object to a cold object.
2. Looking at the situation in Figure 12-8, and using the same color scheme as in the figure, how
would the block in part b be shaded after a really long time? Assume the two blocks have the
same mass.
a. The whole block would be green.

b. The whole block would be red.
c. The left half would be blue and the right half would be yellow.
d. The left half would be yellow and the right half would be blue.
Heat is transferred between objects until thermal equilibrium is reached.
3. The Sun warms us by __________.
a. radiation
b. induction
c. conduction
d. convection
Radiation is the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves.
4. Heat is transferred by __________ when objects

touch.
a. thermoduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. conduction
When objects touch, their molecules bump into each other and transmit heat by conduction.
5. In Figure 12-19, if you doubled the amount of zinc put into the beaker, which of the following
effects would it have on the final equilibrium temperature?
a. The final equilibrium temperature of the water and zinc would be lower.
b. This question can not be answered without knowing the size of the container.
c. The final equilibrium temperature of the water and zinc would be greater.
d. It would have no effect; the final equilibrium temperature would be the same as
before.
The amount of energy that is in the system to start with is the amount of energy in the system
once equilibrium is reached.
6. What does a calorimeter measure?
a. change in temperature

b. change in kinetic energy
c. change in thermal energy
d. change in radiation
A calorimeter is used to measure the specific heat of a substance.
7. Thermodynamics is the study of __________.
a. heat
b. sound
c. stars
d. light
Thermodynamics was first used to study the efficiency of engines.
8. You have equal masses of four of the substances listed in Table 12-1. All are at the same initial
temperature, and then you place them in a hotter room. Which of the objects' temperatures
will increase the most slowly?
a. Glass
b. Zinc
c. Brass
d. Aluminum
The larger the specific heat, the more energy a substance must absorb to raise its temperature.
9. Absolute zero is __________.
a. -273 K
b. 273 K
c. -273°C
d. -273°F
Absolute zero is at -273°C and 0 K.
10. You have equal masses of four of the substances listed in Table 12-1. All are at the same initial
temperature, and then you place them in a hotter room. Which of the objects' temperatures
will increase the most rapidly?
a. Aluminum
b. Iron
c. Lead
d. Zinc
The smaller the specific heat, the less energy a substance must absorb to raise its temperature.
11. Water boils at 100° on the __________ temperature

scale.
a. Fahrenheit
b. Celsius
c. Molecular
d. Kelvin
The Celsius temperature scale was based on the freezing and boiling points of water.
12. If the final temperature of a system is greater than the initial temperature, δt is
__________.
a. negative
b. eliminated
c. reduced
d. positive
δt measures the change in temperature of a system.
13. __________ is the amount of energy that must be added to a material to raise one unit of
mass by one temperature unit.
a. Specific heat

b. Radiation
c. Temperature
d. Hotness
Specific heat varies from one material to the next.
Section 12.2 Changes of State and the Laws
of Thermodynamics
Practice Test
Your score was 8%.
1. Which is an example of a heat

engine?
a. automobile engine

b. solar panels
c. volcano
d. windmill
An automobile engine uses the energy from burned gasoline to move its pistons.
2. The thermal energy needed to boil a liquid is the heat of __________.
a. fusion
b. condensation
c. vaporization
d. specific
The heat of vaporization is all the heat needed to boil a substance.
3. Which of the following is ordered from the least thermal energy to the most?
a. water to ice to steam

b. ice to steam to water
c. steam to water to ice
d. ice to water to steam
As thermal energy increases, matter goes from solid to liquid to gas.
4. The first law of thermodynamics is a restatement of which law?
a. second law of thermodynamics

b. gravity
c. kinetic-molecular law
d. conservation of energy
The first law of thermodynamics accounts for heat put into or lost from a system.
5. Heat spontaneously flowing from a cold body to a hot body violates the __________.
a. second law of thermodynamics

b. law of conservation of energy
c. first law of thermodynamics
d. kinetic-molecular law
Heat always flows from a hot body to a cold body, thus increasing disorder.
6. Which has the highest entropy?
a. a diamond
b. a stack of books
c. an ice cube
d. a fire
A fire has the highest temperature and the most disorder.
7. Friction that you feel when you rub your hands together was changed from __________ to
heat.
a. kinetic energy

b. nuclear energy
c. thermal energy
d. sound energy
Kinetic energy of your hands moving is transformed into heat due to friction.
8. A perpetual motion machine violates which law?
a. first law of gravity

b. third law of conservation
c. third law of thermodynamics
d. first law of thermodynamics
Energy would be lost as heat, and work would be required to keep a perpetual motion machine
going .
9. When disorder increases, entropy __________.
a. fluctuates
b. increases
c. decreases
d. reaches zero
As disorder increases, entropy, the measure of disorder, also increases.
10. An increase in heat in a system __________.
a. decreases entropy

b. has less kinetic energy
c. increases entropy
d. reduces temperature
An increase in heat indicates an increase in disorder, thus increasing entropy.
11. Which of the following processes is NOT like the dye spreading through the beaker in Figure
12-15?
a. At a restaurant, you notice smoke in the air from the cigarette of a person several
tables away.
b. Shortly after your mother puts cookies in the oven to bake you can smell them in
your bedroom.
c. Dandilion seeds spread from one yard into several others.
d. You use the vacuum cleaner to suck the dirt out of the carpet.
Spontaneous mixing is how smells spread through areas.
12. The average kinetic energy of ice particles__________ as ice melts.
a. reduces to zero

b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. increases
When ice changes phases, the ice particle's average kinetic energy does not change.
13. Using information from Table 12-2, determine which of the following processes will require the
most energy be added.
a. 1 kg of iron is changed

from liquid to gas.
b. 2 kg of water is
evaporated.
c. 1 kg of liquid mercury is
frozen.
d. 1 kg of copper is
converted from solid to
liquid.
The heat of fusion tells how much
energy is needed to convert 1 kg of a
substance from solid to liquid.
Section 13.1 Properties
of Fluids
Practice Test
Your score was 57%.
1. What are the four stages of matter in order from least kinetic energy to most kinetic energy?
a. solid, liquid, gas, plasma

b. solid, liquid, plasma, gas
c. plasma, solid, gas, liquid
d. plasma, gas, liquid, solid
As kinetic energy increases in a substance, the substance increases in disorder. So, the order from
least kinetic energy to most is solid, liquid, gas, plasma.
2. What causes air pressure?
a. air particles vaporize

b. air particles hit an object
c. air particles flow through an object
d. air particles suck away from an object
Air pressure is caused by tiny air particles hitting objects.
3. As water cools below 4°C, what

happens?
a. it expands
b. it contracts
c. it melts
d. it changes to an amorphous solid
As particles slow down and water freezes, they line up and take up more space, and the volume of
water expands.
4. __________ have no definite shape and flow.
a. Metals
b. Solids
c. Crystals
d. Fluids
Fluids include liquids, gases, and plasma. They have no definite shape and flow.
5. Pressure is measured as
__________.
a. F/A
b. A/F
c. FA
d. F + A
Pressure is the force exerted over a specific area.
6. What are the particles in plasma?
a. free neutrons

b. positively charged ions and negatively charged electrons
c. free nuclear particles of protons, neutrons, and electrons
d. negatively charged ions and positively charged protons
Plasma has so much kinetic energy that electrons literally fly off the atoms. Plasma is made of
positively charged ions and negatively charged electrons.
7. Which state of matter is the most common in the universe?
a. plasma
b. liquid
c. gas
d. solid
Plasma, while rare on Earth, is the most
abundant form of matter.
Section 13.2 Forces
Within Liquids
Practice Test
Your score was 0%.
1. Surface tension is a result of __________ in a fluid.
a. nuclear forces

b. adhesive forces
c. kinetic forces
d. cohesive forces
Surface tension is a result of cohesive forces in a fluid.
2. A particle is moving so fast in a liquid that it escapes the liquid's cohesive force. This is an
example of __________.
a. sublimation
b. evaporation
c. condensation
d. melting
Evaporation happens when particles literally escape from a liquid's cohesive forces due to kinetic
energy.
3. __________ is the force that acts between particles of different
substances.
a. Rehesion
b. Elasticity
c. Cohesion
d. Adhesion
Adhesion is different from cohesion in that
adhesion measures how particles of different
substances react.
Section 13.3 Fluids at Rest
and in Motion
Practice Test
Your score was 31%.
1. Based on the information given with Figure 13-12, what is the maximum pressure Alvin can
withstand? Use 1030 kg/m3 for the density of seawater.
a. 1.03×108 Pa
b. 4.54×107 Pa
c. 1.06×108 Pa
d. 4.41×107 Pa
The pressure in a fluid is directly related to the depth, g, and the density of the liquid.
2. In Figure 13-14a, if the chunk of steel were cut in half and one of the pieces were placed in the
same liquid, how would it behave?
a. It would float mostly submerged.

b. There is insufficient information to answer the question.
c. It would sink to the bottom of the container.
d. It would float almost entirely above the surface.
Cutting a block in pieces does not affect its density.
3. To rise in water, a fish uses its air bladder to

__________.
a. displace more water

b. increase water pressure
c. displace less water
d. increase air pressure
When a fish wants to rise, its air bladder expands and displaces more water.
4. __________ states that any change in pressure applied to any point on a confined fluid is
transmitted undiminished throughout the fluid.
a. Pascal's principle

b. Boyle's law
c. Galileo's law
d. Dalton's law
Blaise Pascal developed his principle after noting that the shape of a container has no effect on the
pressure of the fluid it contains at any given depth.
5. Based on the information given with Figure 13-12, what is the pressure at the bottom of the
Marianas trench? Use 1030 kg/m3 for the density of seawater.
a. 4.41×107 Pa
b. 1.06×108 Pa
c. 4.54×107 Pa
d. 1.03×108 Pa
The pressure in a fluid is directly related to the depth, g, and the density of the liquid.
6. If you wanted to use a setup like the one in Figure 13-11 to create an upward force triple that
of the downward force you exert, which of the following combination of piston radii could
accomplish this?
a. r1, 0.577 m; r2, 1 m

b. r1, 1.73 m; r2, 1 m
c. r1, 3 m; r2, 1 m
d. r1, 0.333 m; r2, 1 m
The force exerted by piston 2 is inversely proportional to the area of piston 1.
7. The buoyant force is in which direction?
a. toward higher pressures

b. downward
c. circular
d. upward
The buoyant force is always in an upward direction.
8. Why does ice float?
a. It is an amorphous solid.

b. It has a higher density than water.
c. It has a lower density than water.
d. It has strong cohesive properties.
When water freezes, it actually takes up more space as ice, thus making it less dense. Therefore,
ice has a lower density than water.
9. If you wanted to use a setup like the one in Figure 13-11 to create an upward force triple that
of the downward force you exert, which of the following combination of piston areas could
accomplish this?
a. A1, 6 m2; A2, 8 m2

b. A1, 6 m2; A2, 2 m2
c. A1, 6 m2; A2, 18 m2
d. A1, 6 m2; A2,10 m2
The force exerted by piston 2 is inversely proportional to the area of piston 1.
10. Which is an example of Pascal's principle?
a. a siphon
b. a straw
c. hydroplaning wheels
d. hydraulic brakes
Hydraulic brakes use a fluid to transfer pressure through a system.
11. According to Archimedes' principle, an object immersed in fluid has an upward force on it equal
to __________.
a. the weight of the fluid displaced

b. the weight of the fluid displaced minus the weight of the object
c. the weight of all the fluid in the container
d. the weight of the object
A fluid will apply a force on anything that is floating in it equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
12. Which of the following does pressure in water not depend

on?
a. density
b. shape
c. depth
d. gravity
The shape of a container of water has no impact on its pressure.
13. What type of buoyancy results in a feeling of weightlessness?
a. negative
b. neutral
c. changing
d. positive
Neutral buoyancy means
that the buoyant force
cancels the weight of an
object, creating the
feeling of weightlessness.
Section
13.4 Solids
Practice Test
Your score was 33%.
1. If an iron bar expands 0.1 cm when heated 20°C, how much would it expand if it were heated
40°C?
a. 0.2 cm
b. 0.1 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 0.05 cm
Any substance will expand twice as much if the change in temperature doubles. The bar would
expand 0.2 cm.
2. What happens to a bimetallic strip when it is heated?
a. it contracts
b. its cohesive properties decrease
c. it bends
d. it becomes elastic
As one of the strips of metal expands more than the other, the strip bends.
3. Why is it important to take thermal expansion into account when building bridges?
a. so the bridge will not move at all

b. so the bridge materials don't deteriorate
c. so the bridge materials expand and contract with the changes in weather
d. so the bridge materials can change state as the weather changes
If thermal expansion is not considered, a bridge could crumble as it expands or contracts with
changing weather.
4. In terms of the kinetic-molecular theory, why do substances expand when

heated?
a. The particles vibrate more and push other particles away.
b. The particles vibrate less and push other particles away.
c. The particles on the surface vibrate faster.
d. The particles vibrate more, causing air pressure to compress the substance.
As particles bounce off each other faster and faster, they push away from each other.
5. Amorphous solids have no __________.
a. shape
b. volume
c. crystalline pattern
d. liquid phase
Amorphous solids have no crystalline pattern.
6. Which example demonstrates elasticity?
a. a melted stick of

butter
b. a bent iron bar
c. a broken stick
d. a snapping rubber
band
If something is elastic, like a rubber
band, its shape can be changed,
and it will snap back into the same
position.
Section 14.1 Periodic
Motion
Practice Test
Your score was 20%.
1. In Figure 14-4, if you doubled the mass of the pendulum, what effect, if any, would it have on
its period?
a. The new period would be half the old period.

b. The new period would be the old period, times the square root of two.
c. The new period would be the old period, divided by the square root of two.
The period of a pendulum is independent of its mass.
2. In Figure 14-1, if the spring's constant is 20.0 N/m and x has a value of 0.25 m, what is m
equal to?
a. 5.0 kg
b. 0.63 kg
c. 0.06 kg
d. 0.51 kg
The upward force on the mass, kx must be equal in magnitude to the downward force of gravity.
3. In Figure 14-2, if the scale of the graph is 1 block = 10 N on the vertical axis and one block =
2 cm on the horizontal axis, what is the spring constant?
a. 250 N/m

b. 500 N/m
c. 5 N/m
d. 20 N/m
The spring constant is how much force the spring will exert if it is stretched or compressed one
meter from its unstretched length.
4. In Figure 14-4, if you quadrupled the length of the string, what effect, if any, would it have on
its period?
a. The period would be halved.

b. It would have no effect.
c. The period would be quadrupled.
d. The period would be doubled.
The period of a pendulum is proportional to the square root of its length.
5. The formula represents the period of a pendulum, T. What is the period of a 3.5 m-long
pendulum on Earth?
a. 3.8 s
b. 3.2 s
c. 4.6 s
d. 1.4 s
The period of the penduleum does
not depend on its mass.
Section 14.2 Wave
Properties
Practice Test
Your score was 15%.
1. In Figure 14-9, how much time elapses between pictures a and

c?
a. Not enough information is given to answer this question.

b. 0.04 s
c. 0.02 s
d. 25 s
The wave has gone through half of a cycle between pictures a and c.
2. What mathematical expression relates frequency to period?
a. f = T
b. f = 1/T
c. f = 2T
d. 1/f = 1/T
f= 1/T; the frequency is the reciprocal of the period.
3. Mechanical waves require __________.
a. a vacuum
b. a medium
c. a solid
d. a gas
Mechanical waves require a medium. The medium through which a wave travels can be solid,
liquid, or gas.
4. What does a wave

carry?
a. energy
b. particles
c. heat
d. matter
A wave carries energy.
5. If a wave's frequency increases, its period

__________.
a. remains the same

b. increases
c. decreases
d. fluctuates
If a wave's frequency increases, its period decreases.
6. A wave with a frequency of 10 Hz and a wavelength of 2 m has a speed of

__________.
a. 20 m/s
b. 5 m/s
c. 0.2 m/s
d. 2 m/s
A wave with a frequency of 10 Hz and a wavelength of 2 m has a speed of 20 m/s.
7. The __________ of a wave can be used to determine how much energy is being transferred by
the wave.
a. speed
b. frequency
c. amplitude
d. period
The amplitude of a wave can be used to determine how much energy is being transferred by the
wave.
8. In Figure 14-14, how do the frequencies of the waves in pictures a and c

compare?
a. a's frequency is four times c's.

b. a's frequency is twice c's.
c. a's frequency is half of c's.
d. a's frequency is one-quarter of c's.
Each time the frequency is increased by the frequency of the fundamental, one node and antinode
are added to the standing wave.
9. A single bump or disturbance that travels through a medium is a

___________.
a. continuous wave

b. wave pulse
c. surface wave
d. compressional wave
A single bump or disturbance that travels through a medium is a wave pulse.
10. A trough is __________ of a

wave.
a. the high point

b. the midpoint
c. the low point
d. the starting point
A trough is the low point of a wave.
11. The speed of a wave depends on the __________.
a. energy
b. frequency
c. amplitude
d. medium
The speed of a wave depends on the medium through which it travels.
12. Surface waves move in a position __________ to the direction of the wave motion.
a. parallel
b. perpendicular
c. in a circular motion relative
d. both parallel and perpendicular
Surface waves move in a position both parallel and perpendicular to the direction of the wave
motion.
13. A pulse traveling along a bullwhip is an example of a __________ wave.
a. compressional
b. longitudinal
c. surface
d. transverse
A pulse traveling along a bullwhip
is an example of a transverse
wave.
Section 14.3 Wave
Behavior
Practice Test
Your score was 27%.
1. __________ is the change in direction of a wave when it intersects a boundary between two
different media.
a. Diffusion
b. Diffraction
c. Refraction
d. Reflection
Refraction is the change in direction of a wave when it intersects a boundary between two different
media.
2. Waves become inverted if they reflect off a medium that is __________ than the initial
medium.
a. more dense

b. more gaseous
c. softer
d. less dense
Waves become inverted if they reflect off a medium that is more dense than the initial medium.
3. When a wave pulse strikes a wall, it reflects back and is

__________.
a. inverted
b. amplified
c. changed from compressional to transverse
d. reduced to zero
When a wave pulse strikes a wall, it reflects back and is inverted.
4. __________ is the point of the largest displacement where two waves meet.
a. An antinode
b. A node
c. A crest
d. A period
An antinode is the point of the largest displacement where two waves meet.
5. A(n) __________ is a line perpendicular to a reflective

surface.
a. incidence
b. normal
c. reflection
d. angle
A normal is a line perpendicular to a reflective surface.
6. A __________ wave bounces off a boundary.
a. reflected
b. incident
c. transverse
d. surface
A reflected wave bounces off a boundary.
7. The superposition of waves with equal but opposite amplitueds causes

__________.
a. constructive interference

b. destructive interference
c. dissidence
d. consonance
When the pulses of two waves meet and are in the same location, the displacement is 0.
8. The principle of superposition states that __________.
a. waves from different mediums can combine to form a new wave
b. two or more waves can combine to form a new wave
c. the energy of a wave depends on its position
d. waves can never combine
The principle of superposition states that the displacement of a medium due to two or more waves
is the algebraic sum of the displacements of the individual waves.
9. When a continuous wave meets a boundary that transmits the wave at a lower speed, the
wavelength __________.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. becomes negative
d. interferes with itself
When a continuous wave meets a boundary that transmits the wave at a lower speed, the
wavelength decreases.
10. A wave that reflects off a flat surface will reflect at __________.
a. the same angle at which it struck the surface

b. an angle of zero
c. a different angle from which it struck the surface
d. a right angle to the surface
A wave that reflects off a flat surface will reflect at the same angle at which it struck the surface.
11. A standing wave appears to be

__________.
a. moving very slowly

b. moving very fast
c. standing still
d. fluctuating
A standing wave is the interference of two traveling waves
moving in opposite directions.
Section 15.1 Properties and
Detection of Sound
Practice Test
Your score was 25%.
1. When a train passes and its whistle sounds like it changes pitch, the cause is
__________.
a. the Doppler Effect

b. the Big Bang
c. the Galileo Effect
d. speed change
The Doppler Effect causes a train whistle to change in pitch when it passes.
2. What is the logarithmic scale that measures sound level?

a. decibel
b. frequency
c. electromagnetic spectrum
d. pressure
The decibel scale measures loudness of sound using a logarithmic scale.
3. What is a sound wave?
a. fluctuations in electromagnetic energy

b. a radio wave
c. a pressure variation transmitted through matter
d. a surface wave
A sound wave is a pressure variation transmitted through matter.
4. Decibels measure changes in

__________.
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. frequency
d. wavelength
Decibels measure changes in pressure.
5. The speed of sound in air changes depending on __________.
a. temperature
b. pressure
c. volume
d. wind
The speed of sound in air changes depending on temperature. It increases by about 0.6 m/s for
each 1°C increase in air temperature.
6. Long-term exposure to loud sounds can

__________.
a. decrease low-frequency hearing

b. increase low-frequency hearing
c. increase high-frequency hearing
d. decrease high-frequency hearing
Some rock musicians have lost their high-frequency hearing after many years of exposure to loud
sounds.
7. The __________ of sound waves measures

loudness.
a. frequency
b. amplitude
c. period
d. speed
The amplitude measures how much energy is in a wave, or how loud it is.
8. During the Doppler shift, approaching sound waves __________.
a. decrease frequency

b. shorten
c. lengthen
d. gain amplitude
During an approach, the Doppler shift piles sound waves upon each other, shortening their
wavelengths.
9. Sound waves, like other waves,

__________.
a. are absorbed by a hard surface

b. refract through a hard surface
c. reflect off a hard surface
d. diffuse upon striking a hard surface
Sound waves, like other waves, reflect off hard surfaces. Reflected sound waves are called echoes.
10. The frequency of a sound determines its __________.
a. loudness
b. pitch
c. speed
d. timbre
The higher the frequency of a sound, the higher the pitch will be.
11. What type of wave is sound?
a. electromagnetic
b. surface
c. compressional
d. transverse
Sound is a compressional wave, in which the medium moves in the same direction as the wave
travels.
12. Sound cannot travel through

__________.
a. gas
b. a vacuum
c. water
d. steel
Sound requires a medium through which
to travel. In a vacuum, it has nothing to
travel through.
Section 15.2 The
Physics of Music
Practice Test
Your score was 16%.
1. The lowest frequency in a sound wave is called the __________.
a. fundamental
b. crest
c. amplitude
d. trough
The lowest frequency in a sound wave is called the fundamental.
2. If in Figure 15-12 the rightmost picture shows resonance for 325 Hz, what is the fundamental
frequency of the pipe?
a. 406 Hz
b. 195 Hz
c. 65 Hz
d. 325 Hz
The fundamental is the lowest frequency at which resonance will occur.
3. What causes beat notes in

music?
a. musical notes that are in consonance with each other

b. waves with nearly identical frequencies interfering with each other
c. harmonics interfering with their fundamentals
d. notes that are at least an octave apart
When sound waves of nearly the same frequencies interfere with each other, their nodes and
antinodes make beats.
4. Sound waves that amplify in a musical instrument demonstrate __________.
a. destructive interference

b. constructive interference
c. compressional interference
d. amplified interference
Sound waves that amplify in a musical instrument demonstrate constructive interference.
5. The sound from a trumpet results from __________.
a. vibrating brass

b. vibrating strings
c. vibrating reeds
d. vibrating lips
A trumpet player vibrates his or her lips in the mouthpiece, and that sound is amplified in the
instrument.
6. A closed-pipe resonator is __________.

a. 1/4 wavelength or odd multiples thereof
b. 1/3 wavelength or multiple thereof
c. a multiple of the wavelength
d. 1/2 wavelength or multiple thereof
The length of a closed pipe-resonator is 1/4 wavelength, or an odd multiple of 1/4 wavelength.
7. What produces the human voice?
a. body heat

b. vibrations in vocal chords
c. vibrations in the eardrum
d. changes in air temperature
Vocal chords vibrate to produce the general sound of the human voice, while the lips and tongue
make the sounds of letters.
8. An open-pipe resonator is
___________.
a. a multiple of the wavelength

b. 1/2 wavelength or multiple thereof
c. 1/3 wavelength or multiple thereof
d. 1/4 wavelength or multiple thereof
The length of an open-pipe resonator is 1/2 wavelength, or a multiple of 1/2 wavelength.
9. In Figure 15-13, If the length of the pipe is 0.75 m, what is the fundamental
wavelength?
a. 0.50 m
b. 0.75 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 0.38 m
The fundamental is the longest wavelength at which resonance will occur.
10. In Figure 15-13, If the length of the pipe is 0.75 m, what is the third resonant
frequency?
a. 457 Hz
b. 915 Hz
c. 686 Hz
d. 150 Hz
For an openpipe, resonance occurs at integer multiples of the fundamental frequency.
11. A tunnel can make an echo by acting as a(n) __________.
a. closed-pipe resonator

b. no-pipe resonator
c. open-pipe resonator
d. standing-pipe resonator
A tunnel is opened at both ends, so it can act as an open-pipe resonator.
12. If the apparatus in Figure 15-9 were set up to resonate for a 440 Hz tuning fork, what, if
anything, must be done for it to resonate for a 500 Hz tuning fork?
a. Hit the fork harder.

b. Raise the air tube.
c. Add water .
d. No adjustment is needed.
The frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional.
13. Two or more pitches played together that sound pleasant are
__________.
a. in dissonance
b. in consonance
c. in melody
d. out of tune
When pitches are in consonance, they are in tune and sound pleasant together.
14. If in Figure 15-12 the rightmost picture shows resonance for 325 Hz, what is the next highest
frequency at which resonance will occur?
a. 406 Hz
b. 390 Hz
c. 365 Hz
d. 455 Hz
For a closed pipe, resonance occurs at odd multiples of the fundamental frequency.
15. Most musical instruments are

__________.
a. closed-pipe resonators

b. open-pipe resonators
c. free from resonance
d. no-pipe resonators
Most musical instruments are open-pipe resonators.
16. The sound from a string instrument, like a guitar, results from __________.
a. vibrating strings

b. vibrating reeds
c. vibrating brass
d. vibrating lips
A vibrating guitar string causes changes in air pressure, producing a sound wave.
17. Which part of the ear transmits sound signals to nerve cells?
a. tiny hairs in the cochlea

b. the eardrum
c. the earlobe
d. fluid in the ear
The eardrum detects sound, but the hair in the cochlea transmits the sound signals to nerve cells.
18. Sound in a musical instrument like a saxophone is amplified by __________.
a. vibration from the lips

b. electronic speakers
c. the resonance on a membrane
d. the resonance of a pipe
Many musical instruments--from saxophones to trumpets to drums--use the resonance of a pipe to
amplify sound.
19. Octaves have a __________ ratio of frequencies.
a. 1:8
b. 1:2
c. 1:1
d. 1:4
Octaves have a 1:2 ratio of
frequencies.
Section
16.1 Illumination
Practice Test
Your score was 29%.
1. A medium that allows light to pass through but does now allow the light source to be visible
is__________.
a. opaque
b. translucent
c. transparent
d. transgressant
Translucent material allows light to pass through but will not produce a clear image.
2. __________ is the rate at which light falls on a surface.
a. Luminous flux

b. Fluorescence
c. Illuminance flux
d. Illuminance
Illuminance, E, is the rate at which light falls on a surface. It is measured in lux.
3. What did Roemer prove?
a. light travels instantaneously

b. light travels at a finite speed
c. light has no speed
d. the correct speed of light
Roemer was the first person to demonstrate that light travels at a finite speed.
4. Illuminance __________ as the light source moves away from the object.
a. decreases with an inverse relationship

b. increases with an inverse square relationship
c. increases with an inverse relationship
d. decreases with an inverse square relationship
The illuminance produced by a source is proportional to 1/r2.
5. __________ is the rate at which visible light is emitted from an object.
a. Amplitude flux

b. Luminous flux
c. Frequency flux
d. Illuminated flux
Luminous flux is the rate at which visible light is emitted from a luminous source. It is measured in
lumens.
6. A(n) __________, like the Moon, reflects light.
a. laminated body

b. illuminated body
c. reflecting body
d. radiating body
An illuminated body, like the Moon, can only be seen by reflecting light from another source.
7. The two main factors affecting the illuminance of an object are

__________.
a. hardness and color

b. distance and brightness
c. color and brightness
d. distance and hardness
Illuminance can noticeably change if brightness is increased or if a light source moves closer to the
object.
8. Danish astronomer Ole Roemer first measured the speed of light by studying
__________.
a. the orbit of Io, a moon of Jupiter

b. the Moon
c. how lasers travel in space
d. how light traveled around two mountains
Roemer first measured the speed of light by studying the orbit of Io.
9. In Figure 16-6, if the candle were moved so that it was 2d to the right of the screen, but the
lamp was not moved, how would the luminous intensity of the lamp have to be adjusted to
make each side of the screen equally illuminated?
a. It would need to be doubled.

b. It would need to be quartered.
c. It would need to be quadrupled.
d. It would need to be halved.
The illuminance and distance follow an inverse-square relationship.
10. In Figure 16-4, if r is decreased to 0.25 m, what will be the total luminous flux striking the
inside of the sphere?
a. 1750 lm
b. 438 lm
c. 875 lm
d. 7000 lm
The luminous flux depends only on the source of the light.
11. In Figure 16-6, if the candle were moved so that it was d/2 to the right of the screen, but the
lamp was not moved, how would the luminous intensity of the lamp have to be adjusted to
make each side of the screen equally illuminated?
a. It would need to be quadrupled.

b. It would need to be halved.
c. It would need to be quartered.
d. It would need to be doubled.
The illuminance and distance follow an inverse-square relationship.
12. A ray of light travels in a

__________.
a. straight line

b. circle
c. back-and-forth motion
d. curved line
Light travels in a straight line unless it passes through a boundary, where it can bend.
13. In Figure 16-4, if r is decreased to 0.25 m, what will be the illuminance of the sphere?
a. 2224 lx
b. 556 lx
c. 139 lx
d. 8.69 lx
The illuminance is the luminous flux divided by the surface area of the sphere.
14. __________ is the speed of light

defined.
a. e
b. a
c. d
d. c
The constant, c, is the speed of light defined
and is used in many calculations, including
Einstein's famous E = mc2.
Section 16.2 The Wave
Nature of Light
Practice Test
Your score was 8%.
1. A polarizer and analyzer will block all light if they are at __________ to each
other.
a. 180° angles

b. right angles
c. parallel angles
d. 30° angles
A polarizer and analyzer will block all light if they are at right angles to each other.
2. Blue light, which is bent more than red light in a prism, has
__________.
a. a lower frequency

b. a shorter wavelength
c. a longer wavelength
d. a faster speed
The shorter wavelength of blue light causes it to be bent more by a prism.
3. When two dyes are mixed together, they make a black dye. These pigments are __________.
a. secondary
b. black and white
c. primary
d. complementary
Complementary pigments make a black dye when mixed together, just as complementary lights
make white light when mixed together.
4. When you wear polarized sunglasses, the Sun's light intensity to your eyes is __________.
a. cut in half

b. reduced by 1/4
c. doubled
d. completely eliminated
When you wear polarized sunglasses, the Sun's light intensity to your eyes is cut in half.
5. How do the frequencies of red and violet light compare?
a. Violet is higher.

b. They are identical.
c. They cancel each other out.
d. Violet is shorter.
Violet, which has a shorter wavelength, has a higher frequency than red.
6. Based on Figure 16-11, which of the following wavelengths would most likely be yellow light?
a. 400 nm
b. 550 nm
c. 480 nm
d. 650 nm
Yellow light is near the middle of the spectrum, slightly closer to the red (long wavelength) end.
7. A second prism will change a spectrum back into white light. This shows that
__________.
a. white light is composed of colors

b. prisms are transparent
c. prisms distort images
d. light travels at a constant speed
A second prism will change a spectrum back into white light, which shows that white light is
composed of colors.
8. A primary light color is a

__________.
a. tertiary pigment color

b. secondary pigment color
c. primary pigment color
d. secondary light color
A primary light color is a secondary pigment color.
9. Red and blue light make __________.
a. indigo
b. violet
c. magenta
d. purple
Red and blue light make magenta light; red and green light make yellow light; blue and green light
make cyan light.
10. Why does a polarizing filter on a camera block reflections?
a. Only mirrors can polarize light.

b. Polarizing filters contain both a polarizer and an analyzer.
c. Light is polarized by reflection.
d. Light is polarized by refraction.
Light is polarized by reflection. A polarizing filter will remove the polarized, reflected light and retain
only the light coming from around or through the reflective media.
11. Light behaves as

__________.
a. a particle only

b. a wave only
c. neither a particle nor a wave
d. a particle and a wave
Light behaves as both a particle and a wave.
12. To make red light white, add __________.
a. cyan light

b. green light
c. yellow light
d. magenta light
Cyan, which is a mixture of blue and green lights,
will make white light if projected on red light.
Section 17.1 Reflection from
Plane Mirrors
Practice Test
Your score was 29%.
1. Which statement about the light rays in Figure 17-5 is true?
a. The light originates from the boy's eyes.

b. The image of the bird creates light rays.
c. The light originates from the bird.
d. The light originates from the bird's image.
Light is only created by luminous objects.
2. Your image in a bathroom mirror results from __________.
a. specular reflection

b. diffuse refraction
c. diffuse reflection
d. specular refraction
Light that reflects off a flat reflective surface is called specular reflection.
3. In Figure 17-6, if the flame on the candle is 2 cm tall, how tall is the flame of the image?
a. 2 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 8 cm
d. 1 cm
For a plane mirror, the object and image heights are equal.
4. You are standing in front of a bathroom mirror. Where is your image located?
a. behind the mirror
b. behind you
c. between you and the mirror
d. in front of the mirror
A bathroom mirror, which is a plane mirror, produces a virtual image beyond the mirror. The image
is the same distance from the mirror as the object.
5. How does light normally travel?
a. in a curved line

b. always toward a dark area
c. in concentric circles
d. in a straight line
Light will travel in a straight line until it reaches a boundary, at which time it can refract or reflect.
6. The line perpendicular to the reflective surface is the __________.
a. normal
b. line of refraction
c. line of reflection
d. line of incidence
The line perpendicular to the reflective surface is the normal.
7. If in Figure 17-4 the image of the lamp is 5 ft behind the mirror and the girl is 1 ft in front of
the mirror, where is the lamp?
a. 10 ft behind the girl

b. 5 ft behind the girl
c. 4 ft behind the girl
d. 6 ft behind the girl
For a plane mirror, the object and
image are located at equal
distances from the mirror.
Section 17.2 Curved
Mirrors
Practice Test
Your score was 12%.
1. What is f if you have an object 2.0 m from the concave mirror, and the image is 4.0 m from
the mirror?
a. 4.0 m
b. 2.0 m
c. 0.67 m
d. 1.3 m
According to the lens/mirror equation, 1/f = 1/4 + 1/2. f = 1.3 m
2. In Figure 17-14, if the image is one-third the size of the object and the object is 3.0 m away
from the mirror, what is the focal length of the mirror?
a. -1.5 m
b. .75 m
c. 3 m
d. 0.66 m
Be careful with the sign convention -- for mirrors, distances on the object's side of the mirror are
positive, distances on the opposite side are negative.
3. A __________ image is formed when light rays converge and pass through the image.
a. virtual
b. convex
c. critical
d. real
The light rays converge at the point where the image is located.
4. The distance from the focal point to the mirror is the

__________.
a. focus point

b. focal distance
c. foci
d. focal length
The distance from the focal point to the mirror is the focal length.
5. In a concave mirror, an object placed __________ will result in a virtual

image.
a. twice the distance of the focal point

b. between the focal point and twice the distance of the focal point
c. past the focal point
d. between the focal point and mirror
In a concave mirror, an object placed between the focal point and the mirror will result in a virtual
image.
6. __________ is located behind a convex

mirror.
a. The object

b. A ray
c. A real image
d. The focal point
Because a convex mirror curves outward, its focal point is actually behind the mirror itself.
7. When an object is placed between the focal point and a concave mirror, the rays
__________.
a. diverge and sight lines diverge and form a real image
b. converge and sight lines diverge and form a virtual image
c. diverge and sight lines converge and form a virtual image
d. converge and sight lines converge and form a real image
When an object is placed between the focal point and a concave mirror, the rays diverge and sight
lines converge and form a virtual image behind the mirror.
8. Spherical aberration can be avoided by using a

__________.
a. plane mirror

b. convex mirror
c. spherical mirror
d. parabolic mirror
Spherical aberration can be avoided by using a parabolic mirror. A parabolic mirror focuses all the
rays to the same point.
9. If you wanted to adjust the situation in Figure 17-13 to produce a real image, which one of the
following options by itself would work?
a. replace the object with a larger object.

b. replace the mirror with another concave mirror of longer focal length
c. replace the mirror with a convex mirror of the same focal length
d. move the object out past the focal point
Concave mirrors produce real images when the object is beyond the focal point.
10. What does the F on a ray diagram

represent?
a. the center of the mirror

b. the location of the virtual image
c. the location of the object
d. the focal point
The focal point is the point where incident light rays that are parallel to the principle axis converge
after reflecting from the mirror.
11. The image from a convex mirror will

_________.
a. never be virtual

b. always be real
c. always be virtual
d. always be projected
The image from a convex mirror will always be virtual.
12. Which type of mirror produces an image that is always erect, always the same height as the
object, and always virtual?
a. concave
b. convex
c. diffuse
d. plane
Plane mirrors produce images that are always erect, always the same height as the object, and
always virtual.
13. In a ray tracing diagram, two rays must pass through the __________ to determine the
location of the image.
a. image
b. lens edge
c. object
d. focal point
In a ray tracing diagram, two rays must pass through the focal point to determine the location of
the image.
14. Real images produced by mirrors have __________

magnification.
a. opposite
b. massive
c. positive
d. negative
Real images produced by mirrors have negative magnification.
15. In Figure 17-14, if the object is 4 times farther from the mirror than the image, what is the
focal length of the mirror?
a. 1.33 m
b. 0.75 m
c. 0.80 m
d. 1.25 m
Be careful with the sign convention -- for mirrors, distances on the object's side of the mirror are
positive, distances on the opposite side are negative.
16. A 10-cm object has a 20-cm image. What is the magnification?
a. 20
b. 1/2
c. 2
d. 10
Magnification is the height of the image
divided by the height of the
object. m = 20 cm/10 cm = 2
Section 18.1 Refraction
of Light
Practice Test
Your score was 17%.
1. How is information carried in an optical fiber?
a. by electrical impulses

b. by different colors
c. by sound
d. by light
Data is transmitted with pulses of light in optical fibers.
2. What is the speed of light in a diamond (n = 2.42)?
a. 3.00×108 m/s
b. 7.26×108 m/s
c. 1.24×108 m/s
d. 2.42×108 m/s
The speed of light in a diamond is found by dividing c by the index of refraction for a diamond.
Thus, the speed of light in a diamond is 1.24×108 m/s.
3. What happens to light during total internal reflection?
a. The angle of incidence is 0.

b. The angle of reflection is the same as the critical angle.
c. The angle of refraction is less than the critical angle.
d. The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the refraction is so great that the
light does not escape the medium.
4. In relation to a rainbow that you are looking at, where is the Sun?
a. in the center of the rainbow

b. in front of you
c. behind you
d. directly overhead
Light refracts twice in each droplet of water in the air, and the light source is behind the observer.
5. What does Snell's law

compare?
a. the reflective nature of materials

b. the density of the materials
c. the cosines of the refracted angles
d. the sines of the refracted angles
Snell's law compares the sines of the refracted angles, as well as the indices of refraction of the
materials.
6. Why would it be impossible to have optical fibers filled with a vacuum?
a. there is nothing for light to travel through

b. because a vacuum is too optically dense
c. because optical fibers must use glass
d. there is nothing less optically dense than a vacuum
When light travels through an optical fiber, it cannot escape the glass or plastic making up the fiber
because the medium surrounding the fiber is much less optically dense and causes total internal
reflection. There is nothing less dense than a vacuum, so there is no material that could surround it
to cause total internal reflection.
7. Optical fibers are a technical application of __________.
a. dispersion
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. total internal reflection
The light hits the boundary of an optical fiber at an angle greater than the critical angle.
8. For the situation shown in Figure 18-1b, which of the substances listed below should be chosen
to put in front of the pencil to make its "break" the most pronounced?
a. water
b. vacuum
c. flint glass
d. ethanol
Light will be bent the most when the difference in indices of refraction between the two media is
the greatest.
9. A ray of light striking perpendicular to an optically dense surface will

__________.
a. reflect
b. refract toward the normal
c. refract away from the normal
d. remain straight
Light striking perpendicular to a surface moves straight through that substance.
10. The incident angle that causes a refracted ray to lie along the boundary of a substance is the
__________.
a. normal angle

b. critical angle
c. reflected angle
d. refracted angle
The incident angle that causes a refracted ray to lie along the boundary of a substance is the
critical angle.
11. A ray of sunlight travels through air and intersects the surface of water at a small incident
angle. The ray is __________.
a. incident
b. refracted
c. reflected
d. pure
Refraction is the change in direction of waves at the boundary between two media.
12. If a refracted ray moves away from the normal, the speed of light of the ray in this material is
__________ that of the incident ray.
a. greater than

b. the same as
c. less than
d. unrelated to
When a ray refracts away from the normal, the new material is less optically dense than the
original.
13. According to Snell's law, light traveling from a vacuum to glass will
__________.
a. travel at the same speed

b. speed up
c. stop completely
d. slow down
According to Snell's law, light traveling from a vacuum to glass will slow down because glass is
more dense than a vacuum.
14. What causes a mirage?
a. heatstroke
b. a continuous change in the index of refraction of air because n increases as air gets
warmer
c. water on the ground
d. a continuous change in the index of refraction of air because n decreases as air gets
warmer
Because air close to the ground is warmer than air higher up, the n changes continuously and can
refract light that almost strikes the surface.
15. If a substance has a critical angle of 50°, what happens to the light from an incident angle
hitting the boundary at 30°?
a. It is stopped.
b. It is reflected.
c. It is diffused.
d. It is refracted.
Because 30° is less than the critical angle, the light is simply refracted as it exits the material.
16. In Figure 18-1a, if the incident angle is 35°, what is the angle of refraction in the glass? Use
1.55 for the index of refraction of glass.
a. 22°
b. 57°
c. 68°
d. 35°
The angle will always be smaller in the medium with the higher index of refraction.
17. A light ray is traveling through an unknown material when it intersects ethanol (n = 1.36) at
an incident angle of 62.0°. If the angle of refraction is 46.4°, what is the index of refraction of
the unknown material?
a. 2.00
b. 1.12
c. 0.985
d. 1.66
The index of refraction of the unknown material is 1.12.
18. A beam of light travels through air (n = 1.0003) and strikes an unknown material at an angle
of 50.0°. The new angle of refraction is 25.0°. What is the index of refraction of this material?
a. 0.709
b. 0.643
c. 1.81
d. 1.20
Snell's law of refraction is represented by n1 sin θ1 = n2 sin θ2.
19. What is
dispersion?
a. the reflection of colored light

b. the combining of colored light into white light
c. the refraction of light
d. the separation of light into its spectrum
Light can be separated into its spectrum of different colors through the process of dispersion.
20. Through which medium is the speed of light the fastest?
a. water
b. air
c. glass
d. vacuum
The speed of light in a vacuum is the fastest speed possible.
21. Because of refraction, the Sun actually sets __________ we see it disappear.
a. at the same time as

b. after
c. before
d. hours before
Because sunlight travels through more and more air as it sets, the light is refracted, making it
appear as if the Sun sets later than it really does.
22. A light ray traveling through crown glass (n = 1.52) intersects a sheet of flint glass (n = 1.61)
at an angle of 27.3°. What is the angle of refraction?
a. 0.433°
b. 0.839°
c. 33.0°
d. 25.7°
The angle of refraction is 25.7°.
23. Water is more optically dense than air. Therefore, the speed of light in water is __________.
a. faster than the speed of
light in air
b. the same as the speed of
light in air
c. slower than the speed of
light in air
d. the same as the speed of
light in a vacuum
Light travels slower in a more optically
dense material.
Section
18.1 Refraction of
Light
Practice Test
Your score was 17%.
1. How is information carried in an optical fiber?
a. by electrical impulses

b. by different colors
c. by sound
d. by light
Data is transmitted with pulses of light in optical fibers.
2. What is the speed of light in a diamond (n = 2.42)?
a. 3.00×108 m/s
b. 7.26×108 m/s
c. 1.24×108 m/s
d. 2.42×108 m/s
The speed of light in a diamond is found by dividing c by the index of refraction for a diamond.
Thus, the speed of light in a diamond is 1.24×108 m/s.
3. What happens to light during total internal reflection?
a. The angle of incidence is 0.

b. The angle of reflection is the same as the critical angle.
c. The angle of refraction is less than the critical angle.
d. The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the refraction is so great that the
light does not escape the medium.
4. In relation to a rainbow that you are looking at, where is the Sun?
a. in the center of the rainbow

b. in front of you
c. behind you
d. directly overhead
Light refracts twice in each droplet of water in the air, and the light source is behind the observer.
5. What does Snell's law
compare?
a. the reflective nature of materials

b. the density of the materials
c. the cosines of the refracted angles
d. the sines of the refracted angles
Snell's law compares the sines of the refracted angles, as well as the indices of refraction of the
materials.
6. Why would it be impossible to have optical fibers filled with a vacuum?
a. there is nothing for light to travel through

b. because a vacuum is too optically dense
c. because optical fibers must use glass
d. there is nothing less optically dense than a vacuum
When light travels through an optical fiber, it cannot escape the glass or plastic making up the fiber
because the medium surrounding the fiber is much less optically dense and causes total internal
reflection. There is nothing less dense than a vacuum, so there is no material that could surround it
to cause total internal reflection.
7. Optical fibers are a technical application of __________.
a. dispersion
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. total internal reflection
The light hits the boundary of an optical fiber at an angle greater than the critical angle.
8. For the situation shown in Figure 18-1b, which of the substances listed below should be chosen
to put in front of the pencil to make its "break" the most pronounced?
a. water
b. vacuum
c. flint glass
d. ethanol
Light will be bent the most when the difference in indices of refraction between the two media is
the greatest.
9. A ray of light striking perpendicular to an optically dense surface will

__________.
a. reflect
b. refract toward the normal
c. refract away from the normal
d. remain straight
Light striking perpendicular to a surface moves straight through that substance.
10. The incident angle that causes a refracted ray to lie along the boundary of a substance is the
__________.
a. normal angle

b. critical angle
c. reflected angle
d. refracted angle
The incident angle that causes a refracted ray to lie along the boundary of a substance is the
critical angle.
11. A ray of sunlight travels through air and intersects the surface of water at a small incident
angle. The ray is __________.
a. incident
b. refracted
c. reflected
d. pure
Refraction is the change in direction of waves at the boundary between two media.
12. If a refracted ray moves away from the normal, the speed of light of the ray in this material is
__________ that of the incident ray.
a. greater than

b. the same as
c. less than
d. unrelated to
When a ray refracts away from the normal, the new material is less optically dense than the
original.
13. According to Snell's law, light traveling from a vacuum to glass will
__________.
a. travel at the same speed

b. speed up
c. stop completely
d. slow down
According to Snell's law, light traveling from a vacuum to glass will slow down because glass is
more dense than a vacuum.
14. What causes a mirage?
a. heatstroke
b. a continuous change in the index of refraction of air because n increases as air gets
warmer
c. water on the ground
d. a continuous change in the index of refraction of air because n decreases as air gets
warmer
Because air close to the ground is warmer than air higher up, the n changes continuously and can
refract light that almost strikes the surface.
15. If a substance has a critical angle of 50°, what happens to the light from an incident angle
hitting the boundary at 30°?
a. It is stopped.
b. It is reflected.
c. It is diffused.
d. It is refracted.
Because 30° is less than the critical angle, the light is simply refracted as it exits the material.
16. In Figure 18-1a, if the incident angle is 35°, what is the angle of refraction in the glass? Use
1.55 for the index of refraction of glass.
a. 22°
b. 57°
c. 68°
d. 35°
The angle will always be smaller in the medium with the higher index of refraction.
17. A light ray is traveling through an unknown material when it intersects ethanol (n = 1.36) at
an incident angle of 62.0°. If the angle of refraction is 46.4°, what is the index of refraction of
the unknown material?
a. 2.00
b. 1.12
c. 0.985
d. 1.66
The index of refraction of the unknown material is 1.12.
18. A beam of light travels through air (n = 1.0003) and strikes an unknown material at an angle
of 50.0°. The new angle of refraction is 25.0°. What is the index of refraction of this material?
a. 0.709
b. 0.643
c. 1.81
d. 1.20
Snell's law of refraction is represented by n1 sin θ1 = n2 sin θ2.
19. What is
dispersion?
a. the reflection of colored light

b. the combining of colored light into white light
c. the refraction of light
d. the separation of light into its spectrum
Light can be separated into its spectrum of different colors through the process of dispersion.
20. Through which medium is the speed of light the fastest?
a. water
b. air
c. glass
d. vacuum
The speed of light in a vacuum is the fastest speed possible.
21. Because of refraction, the Sun actually sets __________ we see it disappear.
a. at the same time as

b. after
c. before
d. hours before
Because sunlight travels through more and more air as it sets, the light is refracted, making it
appear as if the Sun sets later than it really does.
22. A light ray traveling through crown glass (n = 1.52) intersects a sheet of flint glass (n = 1.61)
at an angle of 27.3°. What is the angle of refraction?
a. 0.433°
b. 0.839°
c. 33.0°
d. 25.7°
The angle of refraction is 25.7°.
23. Water is more optically dense than air. Therefore, the speed of light in water is __________.
a. faster than the speed of light in air

b. the same as the speed of light in air
c. slower than the speed of light in air
d. the same as the speed of light in a
vacuum
Light travels slower in a more optically dense
material.
Section 18.2 Convex and
Concave Lenses
Practice Test
Your score was 36%.
1. __________ single lenses have chromatic aberration.
a. Only parabolic

b. Only concave
c. Only convex
d. All
No matter the size or the shape, all single lenses have chromatic aberration.
2. The focal length of a concave lens is __________.
a. positive
b. reduced
c. magnified
d. negative
The focal length of a concave lens is negative.
3. The refractive indices of lenses are __________.
a. independent of the refractive index of air

b. less than air
c. greater than air
d. the same as air
Lenses always have a higher refractive index than air, ensuring the light will bend.
4. An achromatic lens corrects chromatic aberration using

__________.
a. no lenses
b. a combination of concave and convex lenses with different indices of refraction
c. two concave lenses with the same index of refraction
d. two convex lenses with the same index of refraction
An achromatic lens corrects chromatic aberration using a combination of concave and convex lenses
with different indices of refraction.
5. A concave lens is also known as a __________ lens.
a. concave
b. converging
c. plane
d. diverging
A concave lens causes light to diverge, which is why it is known as a diverging lens.
6. In Figure 18-11, if the bottom half of the lens is covered, what will happen to the image?
a. The top half of the image will disappear.

b. The image will become dimmer.
c. The bottom half of the image will disappear
d. Nothing.
Covering half of the lens only blocks half of the light rays.
7. In Figure 18-11, if the top half of the lens is covered, what will happen to the image?
a. The bottom half of the image will disappear

b. The top half of the image will disappear.
c. The image will become dimmer.
d. Nothing.
Covering half of the lens only blocks half of the light rays.
8. Why are bigger lenses better for observing dim objects?
a. they reduce spherical aberration

b. they refract light less
c. they have better curvatures
d. they collect more light
Large lenses are able to gather more light, thus making a crisper image.
9. Unlike mirrors, lenses have __________.
a. many focal points

b. two focal points
c. one focal point
d. no focal points
Light can travel either direction through a lens, so lenses have two focal points.
10. An image of a flower is seen through a lens. What is the object?
a. a mirror
b. an image
c. a flower
d. a lens
The image of the flower is created by the object.
11. In Figure 18-13, if you wanted to make the virtual image larger, what could you do?
a. Replace the lens with one of

larger focal length.
b. Replace the lens with a taller
one.
c. Move the object further out,
but not past the focal point.
d. Replace the object with a
shorter object.
As long as the focal length remains the
same, the height of the lens has no effect on
the image size.
Section 18.3 Applications
of Lenses
Practice Test
Your score was 50%.
1. In nearsightedness, the image is focused __________.
a. in front of the eye

b. in front of the retina
c. beyond the retina
d. directly on the retina
In nearsightedness, the image is focused in front of the retina.
2. Farsightedness can be corrected with a

__________.
a. parabolic lens
b. convex lens
c. plane lens
d. concave lens
Farsightedness can be corrected with a convex lens.
Section 19.1 Interference
Practice Test
Your score was 27%.
1. The spectrum of colors seen on a soap bubble is a result of __________.
a. diffraction
b. interference
c. transparency
d. diffusion
The spectrum of colors seen on a soap bubble is a result of interference.
2. Of the following, which is the best explanation for why the area at the top of the loop in Figure 19-6b is black?
a. The constructive interference that is happening is for wavelengths out of the visible spectrum.
b. There is no constructive interference taking place in that area.
c. There is no soap film in that area.
d. There is no light passing through that area.
The bright bands correspond to constructive interference of a wavelength in the visible spectrum.
3. Destructive interference in waves occurs when __________.
a. two troughs overlap

b. crests and troughs align
c. two crests overlap
d. a crest and a trough overlap
Destructive interference in waves occurs when a crest and a trough overlap.
4. Why did Young place a single slit between the light source and the double slit?
a. to make the light waves coherent

b. A single source of light is needed.
c. Light needs to escape the system.
d. to filter out other colors of light
The single slit ensured that light reaching the double slit was coherent.
5. In coherent waves, all wave crests and troughs __________.
a. reach different points at different times

b. reach the same point at the same time
c. reach every other point at the same time
d. interfere destructively
In coherent waves, all wave crests and troughs reach the same point at the same time.
6. Thin film constructive interference occurs when the wavelength of a wave is in multiples of __________.
a. 1/4 wavelength

b. 1/2 wavelength
c. 4×wavelength
d. 2×wavelength
Thin film constructive interference occurs when the wavelength of a wave is in multiples of 1/4 wavelength.
7. Bright bands in interference fringes result from __________.
a. destructive diffraction

b. destructive interference
c. constructive interference
d. constructive diffraction
In the bright bands, light waves reinforce each other with constructive interference.
8. In a double slit experiment with slits 1.0×10-5 m apart, light casts the first bright band 3.0×10 -2 m from the
center of a screen 0.65 m away. What is the wavelength of this light?
a. 460 nm
b. 510 nm
c. 390 nm
d. 430 nm
λ = (1.0×10-5 m)(3.0×10-2 m)/0.65 m = 460 nm
9. An argon ion laser with a wavelength of 476.5 nm is used as the light source in a double slit experiment. If the
slits are 0.0190 mm apart and the screen is 0.800 m away, what is the separation between the central bright
line and the first-order bright line?
a. 19.1 mm
b. 21.3 mm
c. 20.1 mm
d. 18.6 mm
λ = (476.5×10-9 m)(0.800 m)/0.0190×10-3 m = 20.1 mm
10. Light results in a spectrum through a prism and interference on a thin film. This demonstrates that light
behaves as __________.
a. a wave
b. a particle only
c. neither a particle nor a wave
d. a particle
Light behaves as both a particle and a wave, but the existence of a spectrum from white light demonstrates its
wavelike behavior.
11. The distance between the slits in a double-slit setup compared to the distance to the screen from the slits is
__________.
a. very large

b. very small
c. not important in the experiment
d. about the same
The distance between the slits in a double-slit setup compared to the distance to the screen from the slits is very
small.
Section 19.2 Diffraction
Practice Test
Your score was 27%.
1. A __________ measures light wavelengths produced by a diffraction

grating.
a. grating spectrometer

b. gravity spectroscope
c. grating spectroscope
d. diffraction spectroscope
A grating spectroscope measures the wavelengths of light emitted by a light source.
2. Why are the edges of shadows often fuzzy?
a. Light naturally spreads out.

b. Interference occurs on the object on which the shadow is falling.
c. The edges of the original objects are fuzzy.
d. Light diffracts around the edges of the object.
Fuzzy shadows occur when light diffracts around the edges of the object, thus scattering the light.
3. A krypton ion laser with a wavelength of 524.5 nm illuminates a 0.045-mm wide slit. If the
screen is 1.10 m away, what is the distance between the central bright band and the first dark
band?
a. 0.13 m
b. 0.008 m
c. 0.010 m
d. 0.013 m
x = (524.5×10-9 m)(1.10 m)/0.045×10-3 m = 0.013 m
4. In the equation analyzing a diffraction grating, d is__________.
a. the distance between dark bands

b. the distance between the crests of the wave
c. the distance from the grating to the screen
d. the distance between two lines
In the equation analyzing a diffraction grating, d is the distance between two lines.
5. A diffraction grating is labeled as having 11,000 lines/cm. What is the distance between the
lines in the grating?
a. 9.6×10-7 cm
b. 8.7×10-5 cm
c. 9.1×10-7 cm
d. 9.1×10-5 cm
1/11,000 lines/cm = 9.1×10-5 cm
6. In Figure 19-10, if light of wavelength 475 nm were shone through a slit of width 0.20 mm at a
screen 0.60 m away, what would be the width of the central band?
a. 1.2 mm
b. 28 mm
c. 7.1 mm
d. 1.8 mm
The width of the fringe is inversely proportional to the width of the slit.
7. What causes a diffraction grating to produce interference

patterns?
a. Ripples on the surface.

b. Tiny scratches that act like slits.
c. Differing thickness of the lens.
d. A thin film of oil.
Diffraction gratings have a series of scratches on their surface that diffract light like slits.
8. Reflection and transmission gratings produce __________ interference patterns that are
analyzed in ___________.
a. opposite; the same manner

b. similar; the same manner
c. identical; different manners
d. opposite; different manners
Reflection and transmission gratings produce similar interference patterns that are analayzed in the
same manner.
9. What is the wavelength of light traveling through a diffraction grating on a spectrometer with
714 nm between lines and an angle of 54.0°?
a. 420 nm
b. 505 nm
c. 524 nm
d. 578 nm
λ = (714 nm)(sin 54.0°) = 578 nm
10. In Figure 19-10, if light of wavelength 475 nm were shone through a slit of width 0.20 mm at a
screen 0.50 m away, what would be the width of the central band?
a. 5.9 mm
b. 2.4 mm
c. 24 mm
d. 11 mm
The width of the fringe is inversely proportional to the width of the slit.
11. You are examining data from a diffraction experiment and see bands of different colors. What
light was used?
a. white
b. blue
c. red
d. diffused
Diffraction with white light results in multicolored interference bands.
12. Green light, which has a longer wavelength than yellow light, will have __________ in a single
slit diffraction experiment than yellow light, when the same slit is used for both experiments.
a. a greater distance between the central bright band and the first dark band
b. the same distance between the central bright band and the first dark band
c. a smaller distace between the central bright band and the first dark band
d. no distance between the central bright band and the first dark band
Green light will have a greater distance between the cental bright band and the first dark band than
yellow light.
13. If white light passes through a grating spectroscope, you will see
__________.
a. a series of spectra

b. no spectrum
c. a spectrum of white light
d. only one spectrum
If white light passes through a grating spectroscope, you will see a series of spectra.
14. How, if at all, would Figure 19-8 be different if violet light of the same intensity had been used
with the same apparatus?
a. The central band would be narrower.

b. The whole figure would be violet.
c. The pattern would be dimmer.
d. It wouldn't be any different.
The shorter the wavelength, the narrower the bands resulting from diffraction.
15. If light passes through a 0.050 mm slit and is projected on a screen 0.70 m away with 8.0 mm
between the central bright band and the first dark band, what is the wavelength of the light?
a. 470 nm
b. 570 nm
c. 610 nm
d. 520 nm
λ = (8.0×10-3 m)(0.050×10-3 m)/0.70 m = 570 nm
16. A diffraction grating on a spectrometer has 9.500×10 3 lines/cm. If light of a wavelength 432
nm is viewed through the spectrometer, what is the angle at which the light has a first order
band?
a. 65.8°
b. 24.2°
c. 39.7°
d. 51.3°
θ = sin-1 (λ/d) = sin-1 (432×10-9 m/1.053×10-6 m) = 24.2°
17. A hologram is produced as a result of

___________.
a. diffraction
b. reflection
c. refraction
d. interference
A hologram is produced as a result of interference.
18. How, if at all, would Figure 19-8 be different if orange light of the same intensity had been
used with the same apparatus?
a. The whole figure would be orange.

b. The central band would be wider.
c. It wouldn't be any different.
d. The pattern would be brighter.
The shorter the wavelength, the narrower the bands resulting from diffraction.
19. What causes the rainbow of colors you see on a

CD?
a. diffusion
b. refraction
c. reflection
d. diffraction
Diffraction of light as it passes along the grooves of a CD, changes the wavelength of white light
into different colors.
20. Monochromatic light passing through a single slit will produce a diffraction pattern __________
a double slit.
a. different from

b. clearer than
c. twice as wide as
d. the same as
Monochromatic light passing through a single slit will produce a diffraction pattern that is different
from a double slit diffraction pattern.
21. Why are larger telescope lenses important?
a. They focus the same amount of light as a smaller lens, but they are sharper.
b. They have reduced resolving power to make objects clearer.
c. They have greater resolving power.
d. They reflect less light back into space.
Telescope lenses rely on resolving power, which allows the viewer to discern different objects. The
larger the lens, the greater the resolving power.
22. According to the Rayleigh criterion, two stars can be resolved if

the__________.
a. central bright band falls on the dark band of the second star
b. central bright bands overlap
c. dark bands overlap precisely
d. dark band of the first star covers the dark band of the second one
According to the Rayleigh criterion, two stars can be resolved if the central bright band falls on the
dark band of the second star.
Section 20.1 Electric Charge
Practice Test
Your score was 12%.
1. Charges placed on a conductor ____________.
a. spread out over the surface of the conductor

b. gather in the center of the conductor
c. stay where they are placed
d. vanish after a few moments
Charges placed on a conductor spread out over the surface of the conductor.
2. If the positive charge of an atom's nucleus exactly balances the negative charge of the
surrounding electrons, the atom is __________.
a. positively-charged
b. static
c. electrified
d. neutral
If the positive charge of an atom's nucleus exactly balances the negative charge of the surrounding
electrons, the atom is neutral.
3. What are the two kinds of electrical charges?
a. high and low

b. static and dynamic
c. positive and negative
d. destructive and constructive
The two kinds of electrical charges are positive and negative.
4. If a positively-charged glass rod is suspended so that it turns easily, and another positively-
charged glass rod is brought close to it, the two rods will __________.
a. attract each other

b. not react
c. repel each other
d. fuse
If a positively-charged glass rod is suspended so that it turns easily, and another positively-charged
glass rod is brought close to it, the two rods will repel each other because like charges repel.
5. Materials through which electrical charges will not move easily are called __________.
a. ions
b. grounders
c. insulators
d. conductors
Materials through which electrical charges will not move easily are called insulators. Glass, dry
wood, most plastics, and cloth are all good insulators.
6. Materials that allow charges to move about easily are called __________.
a. insulators
b. conductors
c. facilitators
d. plastics
Materials that allow charges to move about easily are called conductors. Metals are good conductors
because at least one electron on each atom of the metal can be removed easily.
7. The best explanation for why the phenomenon in Figure 20-1 occurs is ____.
a. the paper bits are magnetically attracted to the ruler.

b. the paper bits are gravitationally attracted to the ruler.
c. the opposite electrical charges on the ruler and paper bits are attracted to each
other.
d. the same electrical charges on the ruler and paper bits are attracted to each other.
Like charges repel, and opposite charges attract.
8. If the charge of an atom's nucleus is +2 and the charge of the surrounding electrons is -2, the
atom is __________.
a. negatively-
charged
b. positively-
charged
c. unstable
d. electrically
neutral
If the positive charge of an
atom's nucleus exactly balances
the negative charge of the
surrounding electrons, the atom
is neutral.
Section 20.2 Electric
Force
Practice Test
Your score was 13%.
1. Charging by induction occurs when

__________.
a. a neutral body is charged by touching it with a charged body

b. charge separation is used to charge an object without touching it
c. electric charge causes the leaves of an electroscope to spread apart
d. a negatively-charged rod is touched to the knob of an electroscope
Charging by induction uses charge separation to charge an object without touching it.
2. A positive and a negative charge, each of magnitude 2.7×10 -4 C, are separated by a distance
of 10.0 cm. What is the force and direction of the force on each of the particles?
a. - 6.6×104 N, attractive

b. 6.6×104 N, attractive
c. 6.6×104 N, repulsive
d. 6.6×102 N, repulsive
The force on each particle is 6.6×104 N and is attractive because unlike charges attract.
3. In Figure 20-8, if the charge on the rod were decreased, what effect, if any, would this have on
the final result?
a. The left sphere would be negatively charged and the right sphere would be positively
charged, with the same amount of charge as in the original picture c.
b. The left sphere would still be positive and the right sphere would still be negative,
but there would be more total charge on each.
c. The left sphere would still be positive and the right sphere would still be negative,
but there would be less total charge on each.
The amount of charge on the rod affects how pronounced the charge separation onto the two
spheres is.
4. A force of -8.2×104 N exists between a positive charge of 3.9×10-5 C and a negative charge of
-6.7×10-5 C. What distance separates the charges?
a. 1.7×102 m
b. 2.9×10-4 m
c. 1.7×10-2 m
d. 1.4×102 m
Using the equation for Coulomb's law and solving for d gives 1.7×10-2 m.
5. Two negatively-charged bodies, each charged with -7.4×10-6 C, are 0.20 m from each other.
What force acts on each particle and in what direction?
a. 1.2×101 N, attractive

b. 3.0×105 N, repulsive
c. 1.2×101 N, repulsive
d. 2.5×103 N, attractive
The force on each particle is 1.2×101 N, and the two bodies repel each other.
6. In Figure 20-11b, if q<1 is 3.0 mC, q2 is -7.0 mC, and the separation between them is 3.0 m,
what is the magnitude of the force between them?
a. 7200 N
b. 43,000 N
c. 21,000 N
d. 63,000 N
This answer is large side because the charges given are larger than what is typically found.
7. A(n) __________ is a device used for detecting electrical

charges.
a. cathode-ray tube

b. electroscope
c. oscilloscope
d. conducting sphere
An electroscope is a device used for detecting electrical charges.
8. Two identical positive charges exert a repulsive force of 5.8 × 10 -9 N when separated by a
distance of 3.9 × 10-10 m. What is the charge of each?
a. -3.1 × 10-19 C

b. 1.0 × 1037 C
c. 3.1 × 10-19 C
d. 4.3 × 1010 C
-19
3.1 × 10 C
9. Three particles are placed in a line. The left particle has a charge of -47 C, the middle,
+59 C, and the right, -91 C. The middle particle is 55 cm from each of the others. What is
the net force on the middle particle?
a. 77 N, left
b. 83 N, right
c. 160 N, right
d. 77 N, right
The net force on the middle particle is 77 N to the right.
10. In Figure 20-11a, if q1 is 2.0 mC, q2 is 3.0 mC, and the separation between them is 2.5 m,
what is the magnitude of the force between them?
a. 220,000 N
b. 5400 N
c. 8600 N
d. 2.4 N
This answer is large because the charges given are larger than what is typically found.
11. A negative charge of -4.5×10-3 C and a positive charge of 6.5×10-3 C are separated by 0.50 m.
What is the magnitude of the force between the two charges?
a. 2.9 × 10-5 N

b. 2.2 × 106 N
c. 2.6 × 105 N
d. 1.1 × 106 N
The magnitude of the force between the two charges is 1.1 × 10 4 N.
12. Coulomb's law states that

__________.
a. the ratio of the potential difference to the current is constant

b. the direction of the magnetic field in a wire is perpendicular to the flow of electric
current in the wire
c. the magnitude of the force between two charges is proportional to the magnitude
of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between
them
d. the magnitude of the force between two charges is inversely proportional to the
magnitude of the charges and proportional to the square of the distance between
them
Coulomb's law states that the magnitude of the force between two charges is proportional to the
magnitude of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between
them, F = K(qA qB/d2).
13. The SI standard unit of charge is the

__________.
a. ohm
b. volt
c. coulomb
d. joule
The SI standard unit of charge is the coulomb. One coulomb is the charge of 6.25 × 10 18electrons
or protons.
14. How far apart are a proton and an electron if they exert a force of attraction of 4.5 N on each
other?
a. 9.6 × 10-15 m

b. 1.6 × 10-19 m
c. 1.8 × 10-5 m
d. 7.2 × 10-15 m
Using the equation for Coulomb's law and solving for d gives 7.2 × 10-15 m.
15. The rule for determining direction of force is

__________.
a. unlike charges repel, like charges attract
b. like charges repel, unlike charges attract
c. direction is determined by magnitude
d. apply Coulomb's law
The rule for determining direction of force is like charges repel, unlike charges attract.
16. An electron's charge is ________ in magnitude and _________ in sign from a proton's charge.
a. equal; same

b. unequal; opposite
c. equal; opposite
d. unequal; same
An electron's charge is equal in magnitude and opposite in sign from a proton's charge.
17. A force of -7.7×103N exists between a positive charge of 5.6×10 -4C and a negative charge of -
2.1×10-4C. What distance separates the charges?
a. 1.4 m
b. 0.14 m
c. 0.37 m
d. 3.7 m
Using the equation for Coulomb's law and solving for d gives 3.7×10-1 m, or 0.37 m.
18. The magnitude of the charge of an electron is called the

__________.
a. secondary charge

b. frequency
c. negative charge
d. elementary charge
The magnitude of the charge of an electron is called the elementary charge.
19. If a charge were added to Figure 20-11b between the two charges already there, what
direction would the net force on it be?
a. This cannot be determined without knowing more about the location of the charge
b. To the right if charge is positive, to the left if it's negative.
c. To the right, regardless of its sign
d. To the left if charge is positive, to the right if it's negative.
When using Newton's second law, remember to define a coordinate system with a positive direction
and to be consistent with that definition.
20. If you increase the distance between two charges, what happens to the
force?
a. It increases.
b. It vanishes.
c. It stays the same.
d. It decreases.
If you increase the distance between two charges, the force decreases.
21. In Figure 20-8, if the charge on the rod were positive, what effect, if any, would this have on
the final result?
a. The left sphere would still be positive and the right sphere would still be negative,
but there would be less total charge on each.
b. The left sphere would still be positive and the right sphere would still be negative,
but there would be more total charge on each.
c. The left sphere would be negatively charged and the right sphere would be positively
charged, with the same amount of charge as in the original picture c.
If the sign of the charge on the rod is reversed, the charge separation will be opposite.
22. __________ occurs when a neutral body is charged by touching it with a charged body.
a. Charging by conduction

b. Static discharge
c. Charging by induction
d. Charging by infusion
Charging by conduction occurs when a neutral body is charged by touching it with a charged body.
23. How far apart are two electrons if they exert a force of repulsion of 2.5 N on each other?
a. 9.6 × 10-15 m

b. 1.6 × 10-19 m
c. 1.5 × 10-14 m
d. 9.6 × 1015 m
Using the equation for Coulomb's law and solving for d gives 9.6
× 10-15 m.
Section 21.1 Creating and
Measuring Electric Fields
Practice Test
Your score was 12%.
1. The electric field at the location of q' is represented by which of the following equations?
a. E = q/ΔV
b. E = F/q'
c. E = W/q'
d. E = q'/Fq'
The electric field is represented by the equation E = F/q'.
2. An electric field is about 150 N/C downward. What is the direction of the force on a positively-
charged particle?
a. changes rapidly

b. stationary
c. upward
d. downward
The direction of the electric field is the direction of the force on the positive test charge, so it would
be downward.
3. A positive test charge of 9.0 × 10-5" to "9.0×10-5 C is in an electric field that exerts a force of
3.7×10-5 N on it. What is the magnitude of the electric field at the location of the test charge?
a. 0.41 N/C

b. 2.4 N/C
c. 0.24 N/C
d. 4.1 N/C
The magnitude of the field is 0.41 N/C.
4. Lines drawn to represent an electric field extend __________ a positive charge and
__________ a negative charge.
a. away from, away from

b. toward, toward
c. toward, away from
d. away from, toward
Lines drawn to represent an electric field extend away from a positive charge and toward a
negative charge.
5. According to Coulomb's law, the force on a test charge is __________ the test charge.
a. greater than

b. less than
c. proportional to
d. equal to
According to Coulomb's law, the force on a test charge is proportional to the test charge.
6. A negative charge of 1.5×10-7 C experiences a force of 0.030 N to the right in an electric field.
What is the magnitude and direction of the field?
a. 2.0×105 N/C directed to the right

b. 4.5x10-9 N/C directed to the left
c. 2.0×105 N/C directed to the left
d. 4.5×10-7 N/C directed to the right
The field is 2.0×105 N/C directed to the left.
7. The __________ is a vector quantity that relates the force on a test charge to the size of the
charge.
a. electric field

b. potential
c. equipotential
d. capacitor
An electric field exists around any charged object. It produces forces that can do work, transferring
energy from the field to another charged object.
8. An electric field is to be measured using a positive test charge of 3.0×10 -5C. This test charge
experiences a force of 0.50 N acting at an angle of 15°. What is the magnitude of the electric
field at the location of the test charge?
a. 0.49 N/C

b. 6.0×10-5 N/C
c. 1.7×103 N/C
d. 1.7×104 N/C
Using the relationship E = F/q' gives a magnitude of
1.7×104 N/C at the lo
Section 21.2 Applications of
Electric Fields
Practice Test
Your score was 18%.
1. In a Millikan oil drop experiment, a drop has been found to weigh 1.92×10 -14 N. When the
electric field is 3.0×104 N/C, the drop is suspended motionless. What is the charge on the oil
drop?
a. 5.8×10-19 C
b. 5.8×10-10 C
c. 6.4×1019 C
d. 6.4×10-19 C
When balanced, Felectric = Fgravity, so qE = mg. Solving for q gives 6.4×10-19 C.
2. The SI derived unit of potential difference is the __________.
a. ohm
b. joule
c. volt
d. coulomb
Electric potential difference is measured in joules per coulomb, and 1 J/C = 1 volt.
3. When the electric potential difference between two positions in an electric field is zero, the
positions are __________.
a. close together

b. at equipotential
c. in equilibrium
d. polar
When the electric potential difference between two positions in an electric field is zero, no work is
done in moving a charge from one position to the other. Hence, the positions are at equipotential.
4. In Figure 21-7b, if both charges were 7.0 μC and the left charge were held in place while the
right charge were moved from a separation of 0.4 m" to "0.40 m, what would be the
magnitude of the difference in the electric potential energy of the system between the initial
and final positions?
a. 4.4 J
b. 2.2 J
c. 3.3 J
d. 1.1 J
The electric potential energy of a charge in an electric field is given by the charge times the
potential at the point where it is.
5. Both a 1.2-μF and a 5.5-μF capacitor are connected across an 11-V electric potential
difference. Which capacitor has the greater charge and what is it?
a. 5.5 μF; 6.1×10-5 C

b. 5.5 &muF; 1.3×10-5 C
c. 1.2 μF; 6.1×10-5 C
d. 1.2 μF; 1.3×10-5 C
The larger capacitor has the larger charge. The 5.5-μF capacitor holds the larger charge of 6.1×10 -
5
C.
6. What work is done when 3.5 C is moved through an electric potential difference of 4.5
V?
a. -1.6×101 J
b. 1.6×101 J/C
c. 7.8× 101 J
d. 1.6×101 J
Use W = qΔV to determine the work, or 1.6×101 J.
7. In Figure 21-7b, if both charges were 7.0 μC and the left charge were held in place while the
right charge were moved from a separation of 0.4 m" to "0.40 m, how much work would be
done on the system?
a. -2.2 J
b. 2.2 J
c. 1.1 J
d. -1.1 J
When two like charges are separated, negative work is done on the system.
8. A voltmeter reads 450 V across two charged, parallel plates that are 5.0 cm apart. What is the
electric field between them?
a. 9.0×101 N/C
b. 9.0×102 N/C
c. 1.1×10-4 N/C
d. 9.0×103 N/C
For the uniform field between charged parallel plates, ΔV = Ed, so the magnitude of the electric
field is given by ΔV/d, or 9.0×103 N/C.
9. As a positive test charge moves farther from a positive charge in an electric field, the potential
energy __________.
a. doubles
b. increases
c. remains the same
d. decreases
Because there is a repulsive force between the two positive charges, the potential energy decreases
as the two charges move farther apart.
10. The ratio of charge stored to electric potential difference is called the
__________.
a. resistance
b. capacitance
c. capacitor
d. current
The ratio of charge stored to electric potential difference is called the capacitance. Capacitance is
measured in farads. One farad is equal to one coulomb per volt.
11. If 2.0×102 J of work are performed to move one coulomb of charge from a positive plate to a
negative plate, what potential difference exists between the plates?
a. 5.0×10-3 V
b. 1.6×10-19 V
c. 2.0×103 V
d. 2.0×102 V
The electric potential difference is defined as the work done moving a test charge in an electric field
divided by the magnitude of the test charge. If 2.0×102 J of work are performed to move one
coulomb of charge, then the potential difference is .0×10 2 J/C, or 2.0×102 V.
12. What electric potential difference is applied to two metal plates 0.350 m apart if the electric
field between them is 3.75×103 N/C?
a. 1.07×104 V
b. 1.31×100 V
c. 1.31×103 V
d. 1.07×103 V
For the uniform field between charged parallel plates, ΔV = Ed, or 1.31×103 V.
13. Electric potential difference is measured in __________.
a. coulombs per joule

b. joules per coulomb
c. volts per coulomb
d. newtons per coulomb
Electric potential difference is the work done moving a test charge divided by the magnitude of the
test charge. It is measured in joules per coulomb.
14. In the set-up of Figure 21-9, if the electric force up on a drop equals the gravitational force
down on the drop, the drop ___.
a. will accelerate up

b. will accelerate down
c. must be stationary
d. could move upward at constant speed
If there is no net force on an object, it will either remain stationary or continue moving at a
constant velocity.
15. In the set-up of Figure 21-9, if a drop is moving up with a constant speed, then
___.
a. the gravitational force on the drop must be less than the electric force on the drop
b. the gravitational force on the drop must be equal to the electric force on the drop
c. the upper plate must be negatively charged
d. the lower plate must be negatively charged
constant velocity.
16. In the set-up of Figure 21-9, if a drop is moving down with a constant speed, then
___.
a. the gravitational force on the drop must be greater than the electric force on the
drop
b. the gravitational force on the drop must be equal to the electric force on the drop
c. the lower plate must be negatively charged
d. the upper plate must be negatively charged
constant velocity.
17. A 35-μF capacitor has an electric potential difference of 50.0 V across it. What is the charge on
the capacitor?
a. 1.8×103 C
b. 1.4×10-6 C
c. 1.75×10-0 C
d. 1.8×10-3 C
Using the relationship C = q/ΔV gives 1.8×10-3 C.
18. Two parallel plates are given opposite charges. A voltmeter measures the electric potential
difference to be 47.0 V. The plates are 5.0 cm apart. What is the magnitude of the electric field
between them?
a. 1.1×10-4 N/C
b. 9.4×102 N/C
c. 1.1×10-3 N/C
d. 9.4×103 N/C
For the uniform field between charged parallel plates, ΔV = Ed, so the magnitude of the electric
field is given by ΔV/d, or 9.4 × 102" to "9.4×102.
19. Touching a body to Earth to eliminate excess charge is called __________.
a. resistance
b. static
c. grounding
d. capacitance
Touching a body to Earth to eliminate excess charge is called grounding. Grounding utilizes Earth's
ability to absorb all excess charge on a body.
20. A 6.4-μF capacitor is first charged so that the electric potential difference is 5.0 V. How much
additional charge is needed to increase the electric potential difference to 12.0 V?
a. 7.7×10-5 C
b. 7.7×105 C
c. 4.5×105 C
d. 4.5×10-5 C
An additional 4.5×10-5 C is needed to increase the electric potential difference to 12.0 V.
21. The direction of the electric field is the direction of the__________.
a. work done moving the test charge

b. force on the negative test charge
c. potential difference
d. force on the positive test charge
The direction of the electric field is the direction of the force on the positive test charge.
22. The electric field intensity between two large, charged, parallel metal plates is 6500 N/C. The
plates are 12 cm apart. What is the electric potential difference between them?
a. 7.8×10-2 V
b. 7.8×104 V
c. 7.8×102 V
d. 7.8×105 V
Multiply the magnitude of the electric
field, E, by the distance, d.
Section 22.1 Current
and Circuits
Practice Test
Your score was 17%.
1. If the the current in the circuit of Figure 22-5 is 1.5 A, what is the total resistance of the
circuit?
a. 8 Ω
b. 18 Ω
c. 16 Ω
d. 4 Ω
The current through the loop times the resistance of the loop must be equal to the battery voltage.
2. For the circuit arrangement shown in Figure 22-4, if the battery voltage is 9.0 V and the
ammeter reads 0.60 A, what is the resistance?
a. 15 Ω
b. 5.4 Ω
c. 0.06 Ω
d. 30 Ω
3. If the combined resistance of the potentiometer and motor in Figure 22-5 is 250 Ω, what is the
current through the circuit?
a. 120 A
b. 3000 A
c. 21 A
d. 48 mA
4. If the ammeter in Figure 22-3 were moved to the left of the light bulb, what would it read?
a. 2 A
b. 4 A
c. 0 A
d. 1 A
The current through a single-loop circuit is the same everywhere in the circuit.
5. In Figure 22-3, if the battery voltage were changed to 9 V, what would the ammeter reading
be?
a. 4 A
b. 3 A
c. 1 A
d. 2 A
The voltage across a lightbulb is equal to the bulb's resistance times the current through it.
6. If the resistance of the lightbulb in Figure 22-3 were changed to 6 Ω, what would tha ammeter
read?
a. 2 A
b. 4 A
c. 6 A
d. 8 A
The voltage across a lightbulb is equal to
the bulb's resistance times the current
through it.
Section 22.2 Using
Electric Energy
Practice Test
Your score was 17%.
1. What is a superconductor?
a. a magnet
b. a meterial with a very high resistance
c. a powerful battery
d. a material with zero resistance
Superconductors must be kept at very low temperatures.
2. A 12.0 V battery delivers a 1.20 A current to an electric motor that is connected across
terminals. What power is consumed by the motor?
a. 14.4 W
b. 10.0 J
c. 14.4 J
d. 10.0 W
Multiplying the potential difference by the current gives the power consumed by this motor.
3. A kilowatt-hour is equivalent to:
a. 3.6×106 J
b. 1.0×103 J/s
c. 3.6×106 J/s
d. 1.0×103 J
A kilowatt-hour is equal to 1000 W delivered continuously for 3600 s.
4. Thermal energy is given by:
a. E = P2t
b. E = Pt
c. E = IR
d. E = I2R
In a motor or a lightbulb, some of the electric energy is converted to thermal energy.
5. A 75.0 W lightbulb is 25.0% efficient. How many joules of thermal energy does the lightbulb
produce each minute?
a. 4500 J
b. 3380 J
c. 1130 J
d. 563 J
For a 100% efficient bulb the energy would be E = Pt = (75.0 W)(60.0 s) = 4.50×103 W. For the
bulb in this problem, 25.0% goes to light, while 75.0% goes to thermal energy; therfore, the
thermal energy is (0.750)(4.5×103 W) = 3380 J.
6. Electric power is given

by:
a. P = V2R
b. P = IR
c. P = VR
d. P = I2R
The power is the rate at which
energy is changed.
Section 23.1 Simple
Circuits
Practice Test
Your score was 19%.
1. Which pair of options below would result in a lower reading on VB in Figure 23-4?
a. decrease the battery voltage or decrease RB

b. increase the battery voltage or decrease RB
c. decrease the battery voltage or increase RA
d. decrease the battery voltage or decrease RA
The reading on the voltmeter will be equal to the resistance of resistor B times the current through
it.
2. What happens to lights in series if one goes out?
a. they flicker

b. they stay lit
c. every other one goes out
d. they all go out
When one light goes out in a series light string, the circuit is broken so all the lights go out.
3. The __________ is the sum of all resistances in a

series.
a. equivalent resistance

b. resistance total
c. resistance
d. calculated resistance
The equivalent resistance is the sum of all resistances in a series.
4. In the river model for an electric circuit, the amount of water flowing through the river each
second is the __________.
a. path
b. power
c. voltage
d. current
In the river model for an electric circuit, the amount of water flowing through the river each second
is the current.
5. If you have two lights in parallel and you add another identical light in parallel, what happens
to the total current?
a. It remains the same.

b. It increases.
c. It decreases.
d. It goes to zero.
Adding another identical light in parallel will increase the total current.
6. A 1.5 V battery is attached to a 1.0-Ω resistor and a 2.0-Ω resistor in series. What is the
current?
a. 0.50 A
b. 2.0 A
c. 3.0 A
d. 4.5 A
The equivalent resistance of this circuit is 3.0 Ω, resulting in a current of 0.50 A.
7. A 340-Ω resistor and a 550-Ω reisistor are connected in parallel. This group is then connected
in series with a 180-Ω and a 120-Ω resistors. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
a. 510 Ω
b. 210 Ω
c. 420 Ω
d. 550 Ω
1/R = 1/340 Ω + 1/550 Ω; R = 210 Ω; Rtotal = 210 Ω + 120 Ω + 180 Ω = 510 Ω
8. A 45-Ω resistor and a 65-Ω resistor are connected in series. These resistors are then connected
in parallel with a 120-Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance for the circuit?
a. 22 Ω
b. 230 Ω
c. 57 Ω
d. 150 Ω
45 Ω + 65 Ω = 110 Ω; 1/110 Ω + 1/120 Ω = 1Req; Req = 57 Ω
9. The equivalent resistance of resistors in parallel can be calculated by

__________.
a. R = 1/RA + 1/RB + 1/RC…

b. 1/R = 1/RA + 1/RB + 1/RC…
c. R = RA + RB + RC…
d. 1/R = 1/RA x 1/RB x 1/RC…
The equivalent resistance of resistors in parallel can be calculated by 1/R = 1/RA + 1/RB + 1/RC…
10. In Figure 23-3, if a third resistor were added to the circuit somewhere between resistors A and
B, how would the reading on the bottom ammeter change, if at all?
a. This cannot be determined without knowing the value of the new resistor.
b. It would decrease.
c. It wouldn't change.
d. It would increase.
The current through the loop times the equivalent resistance of the loop must be equal to the
battery voltage.
11. What is the purpose of a voltage divider?
a. to produce a higher voltage from a lower-voltage battery

b. to produce a lower voltage from a higher-voltage battery
c. to produce exactly twice the voltage of a lower-voltage battery
d. to produce exactly half the voltage of a higher-voltage battery
A voltage divider produces a lower voltage from a higher-voltage battery.
12. A 20.0-Ω resistor and a 40.0-Ω resistor are connected in series to a 20.0-V battery. What is
the voltage drop across the 40.0-Ω resistor?
a. 6.70 V
b. 18.7 V
c. 13.3 V
d. 30.0 V
R = 20.0 Ω< + 40.0 Ω = 60.0 Ω; I = V/R = 20.0 V/ 60.0 Ω = 0.333 A; V = IR = (0.333 A)(40.0 Ω)
= 13.3 V
13. If another ammeter were placed immediately above the battery in the circuit of Figure 23-3,
which ammeter(s) would it read the same as?
a. the one on the right side

b. the bottom one
c. all three
d. the top one
The current in a single-loop circuit is constant throughout.
14. Two 240.0-Ω resistors are connected in parallel and placed across a 12.0-V battery. What is
the current in each branch of the circuit?
a. 0.0125 A
b. 0.0250 A
c. 0.100 A
d. 0.0500 A
1/R = 1/240.0 Ω + 1/240.0 Ω; R = 120.0 Ω; I = V/R = 12.0 V/ 120.0 Ω = 0.100 A; 0.5I= 0.0500
A
15. Five lights of equal resistance connected in series will

__________.
a. be brighter the closer they get to the positive end.

b. never light up.
c. be equally bright.
d. flicker.
Because the resistances of these lights are equal, they will each have the same brightness.
16. If in Figure 23-6 resistor D were added in parallel to the other resistors, how would the
voltages across resistors A and B be affected?
a. They would both increase.

b. They would both remain the same.
c. A's would increase; B's would decrease.
d. They would both decrease.
The individual branches in a parallel configuration are independent of each other.
17. In Figure 23-3, if a third resistor were added to the circuit between the bottom ammeter and
the battery, how would the reading on the top ammeter change, if at all?
a. This cannot be determined without knowing the value of the new resistor.
b. It would decrease.
c. It would increase.
The current through the loop times the equivalent resistance of the loop must be equal to the
battery voltage.
18. What is the equation to find current in a series of three

resistors?
a. I = V(R1 × R2 × R3)
b. I = V/(R1 × R2 × R3)
c. I = V/(R1 + R2 + R3)
d. I = V(R1 + R2 + R3)
The current in three resistors in series can be calculated by I = V/(R1 + R2 + R3).
19. A 60-Ω resistor and a 30-Ω resistor are in parallel. What is the equivalent
resistance?
a. 90 Ω
b. 20 Ω
c. 30 Ω
d. 2 Ω
1/R = 1/60 Ω + 1/30 Ω; R = 20 Ω
20. If you have a 90 V power source with a 30-Ω and 60-Ω resistor in series, what is the voltage
drop over the 60-Ω resistor?
a. 60 V
b. 2 V
c. 90 V
d. 30 V
Req = 30 Ω + 60 Ω = 90 Ω; I = V/Req = 90 V/90 Ω = 1 A; V = IR = (1 A)(60 Ω) = 60 V.
21. Which pair of options below would result in a greater reading on VB in Figure 23-4?
a. increase the battery voltage or decrease RA
b. decrease the battery voltage or decrease RA
c. decrease the battery voltage or decrease RB
d. increase the battery voltage or decrease RB
The reading on the voltmeter will be equal to the resistance

of resistor B times the current through it.
Section 23.2 Applications of
Circuits
Practice Test
Your score was 20%.
1. Current is measured by a(n) __________.
a. electrometer
b. ohmmeter
c. voltmeter
d. ammeter
An ammeter can be connected to an existing circuit to determine the current in the circuit.
2. A voltmeter should be connected to a circuit in

__________.
a. short form

b. parallel
c. series
d. series-parallel
A voltmeter should be connected in parallel so it can measure the voltage drop across a resistor.
3. How is a circuit breaker different from a fuse?
a. A circuit breaker does not detect current.

b. A circuit breaker can be used mutliple times.
c. A circuit breaker is less sophisticated.
d. A circuit breaker causes fires.
A circuit breaker can be used mutliple times, while a fuse can only be used once.
4. Electrical wiring in homes uses __________ circuits.
a. parallel
b. voltage
c. series
d. overloaded
Wiring in homes uses parallel circuits.
5. How does a ground-fault interrupter work?
a. It detects small differences in voltage caused by an extra voltage path and opens the circuit.
b. It detects small differences in current caused by an extra current path and opens the circuit.
c. It detects small differences in temperatures and opens the circuit.
d. It detects small differences in resistance and opens the circuit.
A ground-fault interrupter detects small differences in current caused by an extra current path and opens the
circuit.
6. What causes a fuse to blow?
a. too much resistance

b. too high a current
c. too high a voltage
d. too low a resistance
When the current becomes too great in a circuit, a metal strip in a fuse will melt.
7. Why does running too many appliances on one circuit cause a fuse to blow or a circuit breaker to shut off?
a. The current drops to almost zero.

b. The voltage becomes too much for the circuit to handle.
c. As more resistors are added in parallel, the total resistance decreases, which causes an increase
in the total amount of current.
d. As more resistors are added in parallel, the total resistance decreases, which causes an increase
in the total amount of voltage.
As more resistors are added in parallel, the total resistance decreases, which causes an increase in the total amount
of current. When there is too much current, the circuit breaker trips or the fuse blows to prevent a fire.
8. What happens when an electric switch is turned off?
a. The circuit becomes a series circuit.

b. A circuit breaker turns off.
c. There is a short circuit.
d. The circuit is broken.
When an electric switch is turned off, the circuit is broken.
9. Why must an ammeter have an extremely low

resistance?
a. High resistance ensures there are fewer ohms.

b. High resistance reduces risk of fire.
c. High resistance will change the current in the circuit you want to measure.
d. High resistance changes the voltage reading.
An ammeter require low resistance so it does not change the current in the circuit you want to measure.
10. Voltmeters must have

__________.
a. very low resistance

b. very high currents
c. very high voltage
d. very high resistance
In order to not affect the voltage reading, a voltmeter must have a very high resistance so only a small current
runs through the device.
Section 24.1 Magnets:
Permanent and Temporary
Practice Test
Your score was 42%.
1. Magnetic domains are __________ in a magnet.
a. misaligned
b. scattered
c. aligned
d. random
In a magnet, the domains are aligned, giving the magnet its strength.
2. In Figure 24-7, if somehow the poles on the middle magnet could suddenly be reversed, which
of the following would NOT happen?
a. The top magnet would fall slightly.

b. The middle magnet would stick to the one below it.
c. The bottom magnet would stick to the one above it.
d. The middle magnet would stick to the one above it.
Opposite magnetic poles attract and like poles repel.
3. A south pole will __________ another south pole.
a. attract
b. repel
c. ignore
d. destroy
A south pole will repel another south pole.
4. How can you make a magnet out of a long strand of wire and an iron
bar?
a. Wrap the wire around the bar, and send a current through it.
b. Send a current through the bar.
c. Attach the wire to either end of the bar, and send a current through it.
d. Spin the bar over the wire as a current runs through it.
The wire wrapped around the bar will induce a magnetic field in the bar when a current passes
through the wire.
5. Magnetic field lines travel from

__________.
a. north pole to south pole through the magnet

b. south pole to north pole outside the magnet
c. in a circle around the entire magnet, while never touching the magnet
d. north pole to south pole outside the magnet
Magnetic field lines travel from north pole to south pole outside the magnet.
6. A nail that touches a magnet will __________.
a. melt
b. demagnetize the magnet
c. become polarized
d. generate an electric current
A nail that touches a magnet will become polarized.
7. According to geologic evidence, Earth's magnetic poles

__________.
a. are a constant force on the planet

b. have only recently appeared
c. have switched over the years
d. have remained the same
According to geologic evidence, Earth's magnetic field has swapped its north and south poles
several times over many years.
8. If current is reduced in an electromagnet, what happens to the magnetic field strength?
a. it is reduced
b. it disappears completely
c. it increases
d. it remains the same
The stronger the current in an electromagnet, the stronger the magnetic field that is induced. If the
current is reduced, then the magnetic field strength is reduced.
9. What happens if you cut a magnet in half?
a. you get monopoles

b. you get a separate south pole and a separate north pole
c. you get two magnets
d. it becomes demagnetized
If you cut a magnet in half, you get two magnets. Each magnet has a south and north pole.
10. The ___________ is proportional to the strength of the magnetic

field.
a. size of the magnet

b. magnetic flux
c. magnetic flux per unit area
d. mass of the magnet
The magnetic flux per unit area is proportional to the strength of the magnetic field.
11. Which of the following phenomena is NOT illustrated in Figure 24-9?
a. In space, magnetic field lines point from north to south.

b. A current causes a magnetic field.
c. The magnetic field caused by a wire is stronger closer to the wire.
d. Magnetic field lines form closed loops.
The picture contains no information about north or south poles.
12. The second right hand rule is used to determine the __________.
a. direction of current

b. direction of the magnetic field
c. direction of magnetic force
d. amount of current
The second right hand rule is used to determine the
direction of the magnetic field.
Section 24.2 Forces Caused by
Magnetic Fields
Practice Test
Your score was 11%.
1. In Figure 24-16, if the magnetic poles were reversed, what would the direction of the magnetic
force be?
a. down
b. right
c. up
d. left
Reversing either the current or field direction also reverses the direction of the magnetic force.
2. A straight current-carrying wire is in a uniform magnetic field oriented at right angles to the
wire. 0.14 m of wire is in the 0.72-T field. If the force on the wire is 0.33 N, what is the current
in the wire?
a. 3.3 A
b. 0.064 A
c. 0.13 A
d. 1.7 A
I = 0.33 N/(0.72 T × 0.14 m) = 3.3 A
3. The speed of an electric motor is controlled by varying the __________ through the motor.
a. direction of the north pole

b. current
c. resistance
d. voltage
The speed of an electric motor is controlled by varying the current through the motor.
4. A straight wire that carries a 4.6-A current is in a uniform magnetic field oriented at right
angles to the wire. The magnetic field has a strength of 1.2 T. If the force exerted on the wire
is 0.60 N, what length of wire is in the magnetic field?
a. 0.11 m
b. 0.16 m
c. 2.3 m
d. 3.3 m
L = F/(BI) = 0.60 N/(1.2 T × 4.6 A) = 0.11 m
5. A beam of protons travels at 3.5 × 10E6 m/s through a uniform magnetic field of 5.7×10 -2 T.
The beam of electrons is perpendicular to the field. How strong is the force acting on each
proton?
a. 3.2×10-12 N
b. 1.6×10-12 N
c. 3.2×10-14 N
d. -6.4×10-14 N
F = (5.7×10-2 T)(1.60×10-19 C)(3.5×106 m/s) = 3.2×10-14 N
6. If there were no current in the wire in Figure 24-16, what impact, if any, would that have on
the magnetic force shown?
a. The force would be directed toward the south pole shown.
b. The force would remain the same.
c. The force would be reduced, but still point upwards.
d. There would be no force.
If there is no current in a wire, there will be no magnetic force on it.
7. If a magnetic field points upward and the current is to your left, the force is
__________.
a. away from you

b. to your right
c. to your left
d. toward you
If a magnetic field points upward and the current is to your left, the force is away from you.
8. A magnetic field is generated __________ the direction of current in a

wire.
a. in the same direction as

b. parallel to
c. opposite of
d. perpendicular to
A magnetic field is generated perpendicular to the direction of current in a wire.
9. Two straight wires that are parallel to each other are carrying currents in opposite directions.
What happens to the wires?
a. Nothing happens.

b. They stop carrying current because the current directions cancel each other out.
c. They attract each other.
d. They repel each other.
Because the wires are carrying currents in opposite directions, the wires repel each other.
10. In Figure 24-16, if the magnetic poles were reversed AND the current in the wire were
reversed, what would the direction of the magnetic force be?
a. down
b. left
c. up
d. right
Reversing both the current and the field direction results in no change in the direction of the
magnetic force.
11. If a current is traveling toward you in a wire, what is the direction of the magnetic
field?
a. clockwise
b. away from you
c. counterclockwise
d. toward you
A current traveling toward you in a wire will have a magnetic field that encircles the wire in a
counterclockwise fashion.
12. How does an electric motor rotate 360 degrees?
a. A wire spins the wheel.

b. A galvanometer changes the direction.
c. A magnet moves through an electrical field.
d. As the split ring reaches vertical, each half of the ring switches brushes and reverses
the direction of current in the wire loop.
As the split ring reaches vertical, each half of the ring switches brushes and reverses the direction
of current in the wire loop.
13. In Figure 24-16, if the current in the wire were reversed, what would the direction of the
magnetic force be?
a. up
b. left
c. right
d. down
Reversing either the current or field direction also reverses the direction of the magnetic force.
14. A(n) __________ uses electromagnetism to measure small currents.
a. ammeter
b. galvanometer
c. voltmeter
d. ohmmeter
A galvanometer uses electromagnetism to measure small currents.
15. The force on an electron from a magnetic field is __________.
a. so small it cannot be measured

b. in the same direction as the magnetic field
c. in the same direction as indicated by the third right hand rule
d. opposite the direction indicated by the third right hand rule
The force on an electron from a magnetic field is opposite the direction indicated by the third right
rule. The third right hand rule indicates the direction of motion for a positively charged particle.
16. A magnetic field exerts a force on
__________.
a. only electrons

b. only wires
c. all charged particles, regardless of size
d. only small particles
All charged particles are affected by magnetic fields.
17. A 10-m long wire carrying 5 A of current is at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of 0.01
T. What is the magnitude of the force on the wire?
a. 0.05 N
b. 5 N
c. 0.5 N
d. 50 N
F = (0.01 T)(5 A)(10 m) = 0.5 N
18. An electron moving at 5.6×107 m/s travels through a uniform magnetic field of 1.4 T at right
angles to the field. How strong is the force that acts on the electron?
a. -1.3×10-11 N
b. -3.7×10-11 N
c. 2.2×10-11 N
d. 1.5×10-11 N
F = (1.4 T)(-1.60×10-19 C)(5.6×107 m/s) = -1.3×10-11 N
Section 25.1 Magnets: Electric Current from
Changing Magnetic Fields
Practice Test
Your score was 35%.
1. If the average power dissipated by an electric light is 75 W, what is the maximum

power?
a. 150 W
b. 100 W
c. 50 W
d. 75 W
PAC = VeffIeff = (0.707Vmax)(0.707Imax) = 0.5Pmax; Pmax = 2P = 2(75 W) = 150 W
2. A changing magnetic field can produce a(n)__________.
a. force
b. resistor
c. electric current
d. spark of electricity
A changing magnetic field can produce an electric current.
3. You want to generate an EMF of 2.6 V by moving a wire at 3.0 m/s through a 0.040-T
magnetic field. If you keep the wire perpendicular to the magnetic field, what length of wire
should you use?
a. 11 m
b. 0.046 m
c. 0.035 m
d. 22 m
L = (EMF)/(Bv) = 2.6 V/(0.040 T × 3.0 m/s) = 22 m
4. A 120-W lightbulb is placed across a generator with Imax of 0.650 A. If the maximum voltage of
the generator is 150.0 V, what is the resistance of the bulb?
a. 116 Ω
b. 163 Ω
c. 326 Ω
d. 231 Ω
Veff = 0.707Vmax = 0.707(150.0 V) = 106.1 V> = 0.707Imax = 0.707(0.650 A) = 0.460
A; R =Veff/Ieff = 106.1 V/0.460 A = 231 Ω
5. An electric generator converts __________.
a. electrical energy into magnetic energy

b. mechanical energy into electrical energy
c. magnetic energy into electrical energy
d. electrical energy into mechanical energy
Electric generators burn fuel to make mechanical energy that is then transformed into electrical
energy through electromagnetic induction.
6. Effective current and voltage relate to

__________.
a. magnetic fields

b. equivalent resistance
c. average resistance
d. alternating current
Effective current and voltage relate to alternating current.
7. A current __________ in a stationary wire in an unchanging magnetic field.
a. is not produced

b. cannot exist
c. always exists
d. is easily generated
A wire must be moving in an unchanging magnetic field for it to produce a current.
8. An AC generator produces a maximum voltage of 512 V and a maximum current of 0.80 A.

What is the effective voltage and effective current of the generator?
a. 362 V, 0.57 A
b. 724 V, 1.13 A
c. 362 V, 1.13 A
d. 724 V, 0.57 A
Veff = 0.707Vmax = 0.707(512 V) = 362 V; Ieff = 0.707Imax = 0.707(0.80A) = 0.57 A
9. In Figure 25-2, if the north and south poles were switched, what would the direction of the
magnetic force on the wire be?
a. down
b. up
c. into the page
d. out of the page
The force on a conductor moving in a magnetic field will always be perpendicular to the field and
the velocity.
10. A wire is moving toward you through a magnetic field directed to your right. In what direction
is the force?
a. upward
b. to the right
c. downward
d. toward you
Place your thumb in the direction of the wire movement and your fingers in the direction of the
magnetic field. Your palm points in the direction of the force. In this situation, the force is upward.
11. __________ is the generation of current due to relative motion between a wire and a magnetic
field.
a. Electrospectrometry
b. Electromagnetic induction
c. Magnetic flux
d. Electrolysis
Electromagnetic induction is the generation of current due to relative motion between a wire and a
magnetic field.
12. Electromotive force is the same as

__________.
a. current
b. resistance
c. magnetic flux
d. potential difference
Electromotive force is the same as potential difference.
13. What is the unit for EMF?
a. V
b. N·m
c. C/J
d. N
EMF is measured in volts, V.
14. A wire 15 m long moves through a magentic field of 1.0 T. The wire moves at a constant speed
of 5.7 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field. What EMF is induced in the wire?
a. 43 V
b. 61 V
c. 86 V
d. 2.6 V
EMF = BLv = (1.0 T)(15 m)(5.7 m/s) = 86 V.
15. In Figure 25-2, if the wire were moved to the left instead of the right, what would the direction
of the magnetic force on it be?
a. into the page

b. down
c. up
d. out of the page
The force on a conductor moving in a magnetic field will always be perpendicular to the field and
the velocity.
16. What does EMF not depend upon?
a. composition of wire

b. velocity of wire
c. length of wire
d. magnetic field
EMF does not depend on the composition of the wire. EMF = BLv.
17. A 0.30-m long straight wire moves at a constant speed of 9.5 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic
field of strength 0.083 T. What EMF is induced in the wire?
a. 0.24 V
b. 1.2 V
c. 0.48 V
d. 2.6 V
EMF = BLv = (0.083 T)(0.30 m)(9.5 m/s) = 0.24 V
Section 25.2 Changing Magnetic
Fields Induce EMF
Practice Test
Your score was 23%.
1. In Figure 25-13a, if the primary coil's current were increased while its voltage was kept the
same, what effect would this have on the secondary coil?
a. Its power would decrease.

b. Its voltage would decrease.
c. Its current would increase.
d. Its number of turns would increase.
The currents in the two coils are directly proportional to each other.
2. In a transformer, the primary coil has twice as many loops as the secondary coil. This is a
__________ transformer.
a. voltage
b. step-down
c. reduction
d. step-up
A transformer with more loops in the primary coil than the secondary coil steps the voltage down.
3. Electricity sent over power lines needs __________.
a. low voltage and high current

b. low voltage and low current
c. high voltage and high current
d. high voltage and low current
With high voltage and low current, electricity can be sent over long distances without losing power
or harming the wires.
4. What happens to the secondary current in a step-up transformer?
a. It increases.
b. It remains the same.
c. It decreases.
d. It is not affected.
Because the voltage is increased in a step-up transformer, the secondary current decreases.
5. A transformer goes from 10 V to 5000 V. How do the number of loops relate in the different
coils?
a. There are 500 times more loops in the primary coil.
b. There are 500 times more loops in the secondary coil.
c. There are 50 times more loops in the secondary coil.
d. There are 5000 times more loops in the primary coil.
To increase voltage 500 times, there needs to be 500 times as many loops in the secondary coil.
6. In Figure 25-13a, if the primary coil's voltage were increased while the current were kept the
same, what effect would this have on the secondary coil?
a. Its power would decrease.

b. Its voltage would increase.
c. Its number of turns would increase.
d. Its current would decrease.
The voltages of the two coils are directly proportional to each other.
7. A carpenter turns on the power to a table saw in his workshop. The lights dim and return to full
brightness after the motor is going at full speed. Why does this occur?
a. a short circuit

b. back-EMF of the motor
c. a short reduction in voltage due to the power company
d. back-EMF of the light
The cause is the back-EMF of the motor. The motor requires heavy current to start, which causes
voltage drops across the wires. Other devices in parallel with that circuit also experience a voltage
drop until the motor is at full speed and the voltage rises.
8. A step-up transformer has 400 turns on its primary coil and 1000 turns on its secondary coil. If
the secondary coil has a current of 1.30 A, what is the current in the primary coil?
a. 3.25 A
b. 1.62 A
c. 7.75 A
d. 0.520 A
Ip = (Is)(Ns)/Np = (1.30 A)(1000)/400 = 3.25 A
9. According to Lenz's law, the resulting force produced by an induced current

__________.
a. opposes the current

b. opposes the motion of the wire
c. contributes to the motion of the wire
d. reduces the resistance
According to Lenz's law, the resulting force produced by an induced current opposes the motion of
the wire.
10. A step-down transformer has 80,000 turns on its primary coil and 500 turns on its secondary
coil. If the primary coil is attached to a generator with an EMF of 45.0 V, what is the EMF in the
secondary coil?
a. 7.20×103 V
b. 3.56 V
c. 1.39×10-4 V
d. 0.281 V
Vs = (Vp)(Ns)/(Np) = (45.0 V)(500 )/80,000 = 0.281 V
11. In Figure 25-13a, if the primary coil were increased to 10 turns while its voltage and current
were kept the same, what effect would this have on the secondary coil?
a. Its power would increase.

b. Its current would decrease.
c. Its voltage would decrease.
d. Its number of turns would increase.
The secondary's voltage is inversely proportional to the number of turns on the primary.
12. __________ is (are) generated when a piece of metal moves through a magnetic field.
a. EMF
b. Eddy currents
c. Lenz's laws
d. Voltage drop
Eddy currents are small electrical currents that are induced by metal moving in a magnetic field.
13. A transformer is a device to increase or decrease AC __________.
a. voltage
b. power
c. heat
d. resistance
A transformer is a device to increase or decrease AC voltage.
Section 26.1 Interactions of Electric and
Magnetic Fields and Matter
Practice Test
Your score was 36%.
1. An electron of mass 9.11×10-31 kg moves through a cathode-ray tube with a speed of

2.6×106 m/s across and perpendicular to a magnetic field of 4.2×10 -2 T. The electric field is
turned off. What is the radius of the circular path followed by the electron?
a. 3.5×104 m
b. 4.6×103 m
c. 3.5×10-4 m
d. 8.1×10-1 m
r = mv/Bq = ((9.11×10-31 kg)(2.6×106 m/s))/((4.2×10-2 T)(1.60×10-19 C)) = 3.5×10-4 m
2. A stream of singly ionized atoms is not deflected as it passes through a 3.5×10[supserscript -

3-T magnetic field perpendicular to a 2.8×102-V/m electric field. What is the speed of the
atoms as they pass through the crossed fields?
a. 2.0×104 m/s
b. 5.1×104 m/s
c. 4.7×102 m/s
d. 8.0×104 m/s
v = E/B = 2.8×102 N/C/3.5×10-3 T = 8.0×104 m/s
3. Protons passing perpendicular to and without deflection through a uniform magnetic field of
0.75 T are balanced by a 3.8×103-N/C electric field. What is the speed of the moving protons?
a. 7.5×103 m/s
b. 2.0×10-5 m/s
c. 5.1×103 m/s
d. 3.8×103 m/s
v = E/B = 3.8×103 N/C/0.75 T = 5.1×103 m/s
4. In a spectrometer, a magnet causes the positive ions to be deflected according to their

__________.
a. velocity
b. charge
c. electron configuration
d. mass
The mass spectrometer is widely used to determine the relative concentrations of isotopes, which
are atoms of the same element having different masses.
5. If Thomson's experiment depicted in Figure 26-1 were done with a proton, how would the
magnitude of the q/m ratio obtained compare with that for an electron?
a. It would be the same.

b. It would depend on the velocity of the proton.
c. It would be more.
d. It would be less.
The proton has the same charge as the electron, but a much larger mass.
6. A Thompson tube is configured like the one in Figure 26-1, such that the electrons sent
through the tube with a particular velocity hit the center of the screen. If the velocity of the
electrons were decreased, where would they now hit the screen (from the electron's point of
view)?
a. above the center

b. to the left of center
c. below the center
d. to the right of center
The magnitude of the magnetic force on a moving charge is directly proportional to the charge's
velocity.
a. 1.0×10-4 m/s
b. 9.0×103 m/s
c. 1.0×104 m/s
d. 9.0×10- 3 m/s
v = E/B = 5.4×103 N/C/0.54 T = 1.0×104 m/s
8. A stream of singly ionized atoms is not deflected as it passes through a 2.4×10 -3-T magnetic
field perpendicular to a 4.7×102-V/m electric field. The atoms then move into a magnetic field
of 0.31 T and follow a circular path of radius 0.175 m. What is the mass of each of these
atoms?
a. 2.4×10-16 kg
b. 4.3×10-16 kg
c. 4.3×10-26 kg
d. 8.7×10-21 kg
m = rqB/v = (0.31 T)(1.60×10-19 C)(0.175 m)/2.0×105 m/s = 4.3×10-26 kg
9. A proton moves at a speed of 7.9×103 m/s as it passes through and is perpendicular to a 0.60-

T uniform magnetic field. Find the radius of the circular path.
a. 1.8×10-4 m
b. 1.4×10-4 m
c. 1.0×10-3 m
d. 3.4×10-3 m
r = mv/Bq = ((1.67×10-27 kg)(7.6×103 m/s))/((0.60 T)(1.60×10-19 C) )= 1.4×10-4 m
through the tube with a particular velocity hit the center of the screen. If the velocity of the
electrons were increased, where would they now hit the screen (from the electron's point of
view)?
a. to the right of center

b. below the center
c. to the left of center
d. above the center
The magnitude of the magnetic force on a moving charge is directly proportional to the charge's
velocity.
a. 1.0×10-3 m
b. 8.2×10-3 m
c. 5.6×10-7 m
d. 5.0×101 m
r = mv/Bq = ((1.67×10-27 kg)(4.9×104 m/s))/((0.50 T)(1.60×10-19 C)) = 1.0×10-3 m
a. 1.2×102 m/s
b. 8.4×102 m/s
c. 9.0×103 m/s
d. 9.0×10-3 m/s
v = E/B = 8.1×102 N/C/0.97 T = 8.4×102 m/s
13. Electrons move through and are perpendicular to a 4.0×10 - 2-T uniform magnetic field balanced
by a 7.0×103-N/C electric field. What is the speed of the electrons?
a. 1.8×105 m/s
b. 3.0×105 m/s
c. 5.7×10- 7 m/s
d. 5.0×104 m/s
v = E/B= 7.0×103 N/C/4.0×10-2 T = 1.8×105 m/s
14. The __________ is used to determine the charge-to-mass ratio of gases.
a. cathode-ray tube

b. electron microscope
c. mass spectrometer
d. antenna
In a mass spectrometer, electrons are knocked off atoms of the ion source, creating positive ions. A
magnet inside the spectrometer causes these positive ions to be deflected according to their mass.
through the tube hit the center of the screen. If the magnetic field were increased, where
would they now hit the screen (from the electron's point of view)?
a. above the center

b. below the center
d. to the right of center
The magnetic force on a moving charge is always perpendicular to the field direction and the
particle's velocity.
a. 3.4×10-3 m
b. 1.0×10-4 m/s
c. 1.8×10-4 m
d. 5.6×10-7 m
r = mv/Bq = ((1.67×10-27 kg)(7.9×103 m/s))/((0.45 T)(1.60×10-19 C)) = 1.8×10-4 m
through the tube hit the center of the screen. If the electric field were decreased, where would
they now hit the screen (from the electron's point of view)?
a. above the center

b. to the right of center
d. below the center
Remember that the electric force on a negative charge is opposite to the direction of the electric
field lines.
18. A beam of singly ionized oxygen atoms is sent through a mass spectrometer. The values
are B = 7.2×10-2 T, q = 1.60×10-19 C, r = 0.085 m, and V = 110 V. Find the mass of an
oxygen atom.
a. 8.9×10-24 kg
b. 2.7×10-24 kg
c. 2.7×10-26 kg
d. 4.3×10-26 kg
If q/m = 2V/B2r2, then m = qB2r2/2V = 2.7×10-26 kg
19. A mass spectrometer analyzes and gives data for a beam of doubly ionized atoms. The values
are q = 3.20×10-19 C, B = 4.0×10-2 T, r = 0.220 m, and V = 45 V. Find the mass of one of
these atoms.
a. 4.3×10-26 kg
b. 2.8×10-25 kg
c. 2.4×10-16 kg
d. 8.7×10-21 kg
Using the values given in the problem, m = 2.8×10-25 kg.
20. The charge-to-mass ratio of an electron in a Thomson tube is represented by the equation
__________.
a. q/m = Bqv
b. q/m = Br/v
c. q/m = v/Br
d. m/q = v/Br
Bqv = mv2/r is obtained using Newton's second law of motion. Solving for q/m gives q/m =v/Br.
21. Isotopes are atoms of the same element, which have different
__________.
a. chemical properties

b. numbers of protons
c. masses
d. numbers of electrons
Isotopes are atomic nuclei having the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
This, in turn, means they have differing masses.
22. The mass of an electron is determined by

__________.
a.
finding the charge-to-mass ratio and
calculating the mass
b. weighing individual electrons on a
balance inside a vacuum
c. multiplying the velocity of the electron by
the strength of the magnetic field
d. multiplying the strength of the electric
field by the charge on the electron
By calculating the charge-to-mass ratio (q/m) over many trials,
and using Millikan's measurement of q, the mass of an electron
can be calculated.
Section 26.2 Electric and Magnetic
Fields in Space
Practice Test
Your score was 14%.
1. What occurs in a material that has the property of piezoelectricity?
a. It produces a beam of light when it enters a magnetic field.

b. It bends or deforms when a voltage is applied across it.
c. It emits infrared radiation.
d. It amplifies sound waves.
The piezoelectric property causes the material to bend or deform when a voltage is applied across
it, and also generates an electromotive force.
2. A receiver is a combination of
____________.
a. an antenna, a capacitor circuit, and a resonator

b. an antenna, a coil and capacitor circuit, and an amplifier
c. an antenna and an amplifier
d. a coil and capacitor circuit
A receiver is a combination of an antenna, a coil and capacitor circuit, and an amplifier.
3. Energy carried in the form of electromagnetic waves is frequently called

__________.
a. oscillating rays

b. electromagnetic radiation
c. electromotive force
d. terminal energy
Energy carried in the form of electromagnetic waves is frequently called electromagnetic radiation.
Electromagnetic waves of high frequency include X rays and gamma rays.
4. The oscillations of a coil and capacitor circuit can be compared to a

_________.
a. parabolic path of a ball

b. ship in orbit
c. pendulum
d. merry-go-round
The oscillations of a coil and capacitor circuit can be compared to a pendulum.
5. An alternating current source produces changing currents in a wire connected to it. This wire
generates electromagnetic fields. What is this wire called?
a. an antenna
b. a polarizer
c. a capacitor
d. an oscillator
An antenna generates electromagnetic waves when it is connected to an alternating current source.
6. The radio waves reflected by a parabolic dish are 4.0 cm long. How long should the antenna be
that detects the waves?
a. 2.0 m
b. 2.5 cm
c. 2.0 cm
d. 1.0 cm
The EMF is largest if the length of the antenna is one-half the wavelength of the wave. In this case
the antenna should be 2.0 cm.
7. Combined electric and magnetic fields that move through space are called __________.
a. electromagnetic waves

b. oscillating fields
c. piezoelectric fields
d. radiation waves
Accelerating charges in an electric field or
changing magnetic fields produce electric and
magnetic fields that move through space, called
electromagnetic waves.
Section 27.1 A Particle Model
of Waves
Practice Test
Your score was 22%.
1. The threshold frequency of tin is 1.2×1015 Hz. What is the threshold wavelength?
a. 4.4×10-6 m
b. 2.5×10-7 m
c. 3.3×10-7 m
d. 9.83×10-6 m
Since f0 = c/λ0, l0 = c/f0 =3.00×108 m/s/1.2×1015 Hz = 2.5×10-7 m
2. Electrons are ejected from a metal if the __________ of radiation falling on it is

__________.
a. intensity; below the threshold intensity

b. frequency; above the threshold frequency
c. frequency; below the threshold frequency
d. intensity; above the threshold intensity
Radiation of a frequency below f0 does not eject any electrons from the metal, no matter how
intense the light is.
3. The __________ is the minimum frequency of radiation required in order to eject electrons
from a metal.
a. kinetic frequency

b. photon momentum
c. de Broglie wavelength
d. threshold frequency
Radiation of a frequency below the threshold frequency, f0, does not eject any electrons from the
metal, no matter how intense the light is.
4. What is the momentum of a photon of green light that has a wavelength of 520 nm?
a. 3.1×10-27 kg·m/s
b. 1.3×10-27 kg·m/s
c. 1.1×10-26 kg·m/s
d. 2.6×10-27 kg·m/s
To calculate momentum of a photon, divide Planck's constant (h = 6.63×10n-34 J/Hz) by the
wavelength of the light, to get 1.3×10-27 kg·m/s.
5. The threshold frequency is the frequency at which kinetic energy is equal to __________.
a. zero
b. h
c. hf0
d. hf
Light with a frequency greater than f0 has more energy than is needed to eject an electron. The
excess energy, hf - hf0, becomes the kinetic energy of the electron. If the radiation is of the
threshold frequency, there is no excess energy and KE = 0.
6. According to Einstein, light and other forms of radiation consist of discrete bundles of energy
that were later called __________.
a. comptons
b. positrons
c. photons
d. quarks
A photon is a discrete quantized bundle of radiation that travels at the speed of light, has zero mass
and has energy and momentum.
7. Planck was able to calculate the shape of the spectra of incandescent bodies by hypothesizing
that __________.
a. energy is not continuous

b. energy of vibration could have any frequency
c. energy of vibration is equal to the frequency of vibration multiplied by an integer
d. energy is continuous
Planck introduced the hypothesis that energy is not continuous, and the energy of vibration of the
atoms in a solid could have only specific frequencies.
8. An electron is accelerated by a potential difference of 120 V. What is the speed of the

electron?
a. 7.1×106 m/s
b. 2.7×10[supersctip 6 m/s
c. 6.5×106 m/s
d. 5.9×106 m/s
Since KE = qV, 1/2mv2 = qV and v = 2qV/m = 6.5×106 m/s
9. The work function for a certain element is 2.87 eV. What is its threshold wavelength? hc=
1240 eV·nm
a. 432 nm
b. 446 m
c. 495 nm
d. 356 nm
λ0 = hc/W = 1240 eV·nm/2.87 eV = 432 nm
10. Compton observed an increase in wavelength with scattered X rays, which meant that the X-
ray photons had _________________.
a. gained both energy and momentum

b. lost momentum only
c. lost both energy and momentum
d. gained energy only
Compton observed an increase in wavelength with scattered X rays, which meant that the X-ray
photons had lost both energy and momentum.
11. The work function of iron is 4.7 eV. What is the threshold wavelength of iron?
a. 470 nm
b. 2600 nm
c. 260 nm
d. 2.60 nm
Divide hc by the work function to find the threshold wavelength. 1240 eV·nm /4.7 eV = 260 nm
12. The stopping potential, V0, that prevents electrons from flowing across a certain photocell is
6.0 V. What is the kinetic energy in J given to the electrons by the incident light?
a. 6.4×10-19 J
b. 1.60×10-19 J
c. 6.9×10-19 J
d. 9.6×10-19 J
Use V0 to find the work done, which equals the kinetic energy. W = qV0, so KE = -qV0 = -(-
1.60×10-19 C)(6.0 V) = 9.6×10-19 J
13. When light with a frequency greater than f0 ejects an electron, the excess energy, _________,
becomes the __________.
a. hf; potential energy of the electron

b. hf0; kinetic energy of the photon
c. hf0 - hf; potential energy of the photon
d. hf - hf0; kinetic energy of the electron
When light with a frequency greater than f0 ejects an electron, the excess energy, hf - hf0, becomes
the kinetic energy of the electron.
14. The __________ effect is the emission of electrons produced when electromagnetic radiation
falls on certain metals.
a. photoelectric
b. ultraviolet
c. photomagnetic
d. electromagnetic
The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons produced when electromagnetic radiation falls
on certain metals and cannot be explained by Maxwell's wave theory.
15. Which of the following equations represents the momentum of a photon?
a. E = mc2
b. p = hf
c. p = h/λ
d. λ = h/mv
The momentum of a photon is represented by the equation p = h/λ, where h is Planck's constant
and λ is the wavelength of the light.
16. Einstein predicted that photons had two properties of particles: __________ and
__________.
a. mass; momentum

b. energy; mass
c. energy; momentum
d. momentum; diffraction
Einstein predicted that photons have two properties of particles: energy and momentum. Arthur
Compton's experiments demonstrated a loss of momentum by photons and verifies Einstein's theory
of photons.
17. According to Einstein, the energy of a photon depends on the __________ of the
electromagnetic radiation.
a. frequency
b. momentum
c. speed
d. intensity
According to Einstein, the energy of a photon depends on the frequency of the electromagnetic
radiation.
18. Which of the following was a problem that could not be explained by Maxwell's wave theory?
a. production of
changing
magnetic field
by a changing
electric field
b. emission of
electrons
produced when
electromagnetic
radiation falls
on certain
metals
c. production of
electric and
magnetic fields
that move
through space
d. oscillation of
electric fields
moving away
from an
antenna
Maxwell's wave theory could not
explain the photoelectric effect
(discovered by Hertz) when ultraviolet
radiation discharged electrically
charged metal plates.
Section 27.2 Matter
Waves
Practice Test
Your score was 10%.
1. An electron is accelerated by a potential difference of 150 V, giving it a velocity of

7.3×106 m/s. What is the de Broglie wavelength of this electron?
a. 5.9×10-24 m
b. 4.9×10-11 m
c. 9.5×10-11 m
d. 9.5×1011 m
λ = h/mv = 6.63×10-34 J·s/((9.11×10-31 kg)(7.3×106 m/s)) = 9.5×10-11 m
2. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to precisely measure the
__________ of a particle at the same time.
a. momentum and frequency

b. position and momentum
c. frequency and energy
d. position and energy
The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to precisely measure the position
and momentum of a particle at the same time.
3. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving at 3.0×10 6 m/s?
a. 0.12 nm
b. 0.24 m
c. 0.24 nm
d. 0.49 m
λ = h/mv = 6.63×10-34 J·s/((9.11λ10-31 kg)(3.0λ106 m/s))=0.24 nm
4. An electron has a de Broglie wavelength of 750 nm. Find the velocity of the electron.
a. 9700 m/s

b. 180 m/s
c. 970 m/s
d. 6600 m/s
The de Broglie wavelength is equal to Planck's constant divided by the momentum. So, 6.63×10 -
34
J·s/((9.11×10-31 kg)(750×10-9 m)) = 970 m/s
5. According to Figure 27-6, what is the approximate frequency needed to eject an electron with
a minimum kinetic energy of 2 eV?
a. 10×1014 Hz
b. 9.2×1014 Hz
c. 4.5×1014 Hz
d. 8.1×1014 Hz
The point on the horizontal axis corresponding to where the vertical axis has a value of 2 is
approximately 9×1014 Hz.
6. In the situation depicted in Figure 27-12, if the electron's initial kinetic energy is doubled, what
stopping potential would be required?
a. 25.0 V
b. 2.5 V
c. 5.0 V
d. 10.0 V
The stopping potential is directly proportional to the electron's kinetic energy.
7. According to de Broglie, electrons and protons should show __________

properties.
a. radioactive
b. explosive
c. wave
d. unstable
In 1923, de Broglie suggested that particles have wave properties.
8. In the situation depicted in Figure 27-12, if the electron's initial speed is doubled, what
stopping potential would be required?
a. 20.0 V
b. 10.0 V
c. 2.5 V
d. 5.0 V
The stopping potential is proportional to the electron's speed squared.
9. For the situation depicted in Figure 27-13, what would the kinetic energy of the ejected
electrons be if the incident radiation had a wavelength of 200.0 nm and the metal had a work
function of 2.56 eV?
a. 2.56 eV
b. 1.25 eV
c. 2.40 eV
d. 3.64 eV
To find the energy of the ejected electrons, find the energy of the incoming radiation and subtract
the work function.
10. According to Figure 27-6, what is the approximate frequency needed to eject an electron with
a minimum kinetic energy of 5 eV?
a. 16×1014 Hz
b. 12×1014 Hz
c. It cannot be determined from the
graph.
d. 20×1014 Hz
By using the slope of a linear graph, you can
extrapolate and determine values for points that
are not on the graph itself.
Section 28.1 The Bohr
Model of the Atom
Practice Test
Your score was 23%.
1. Determine the frequency of the photon emitted when an electron drops from E5 to E4 in an
excited hydrogen atom.
a. 3.55×1014 Hz
b. 7.39×1013 Hz
c. 5.86×1014 Hz
d. 4.89×1013 Hz
ΔE = 0.306 eV = 4.90×10-20 J; f = ΔE/h = 4.90×10-20 J/6.63×10-34 J·s = 7.39×1013 Hz
2. __________ lines are dark lines in the spectrum of sunlight.
a. Fraunhofer
b. Radiated
c. Omission
d. Emitted
Fraunhofer lines are dark lines in the spectrum of sunlight. Through a comparison of wavelengths
missing from the Sun's absorption spectrum with known lines of the various elements, the
composition of the atmosphere of the Sun was determined.
3. An atom drops from 8.62 eV to 7.05 eV. What is the wavelength of the photon emitted by the
atom?
a. 792 nm
b. 1270 nm
c. 250 nm
d. 496 nm
ΔE = 8.62 eV - 7.05 eV = 1.57 eV = 2.51×10-19 J; ΔE = hf, so λ = hc/ΔE = (6.63×10-34 J·s)
(3.00×108 m/s)/2.51×10-19 J = 7.92×10-7 m
4. When an electron has the smallest allowable amount of energy, it is in the __________
state.
a. ground
b. resting
c. neutral
d. excited
When an electron has the smallest allowable amount of energy, it is in the ground state. An electron
must absorb energy to make a transition from ground state to an excited state.
5. The energy of an electron in an orbit near the nucleus is __________ that of an electron
farther away.
a. greater than
b. dependent on
c. less than
d. equal to
Because work must be done to move an electron to orbits farther away from the nucleus, electrons
in excited states have higher energies.
6. An atom drops from 7.64 eV to 5.98 eV. What is the frequency of the photon emitted by the
atom?
a. 2.66×1019 Hz
b. 2.50×1014 Hz
c. 4.01×1014 Hz
d. 5.86×10-14 Hz
ΔE = 7.64 eV - 5.98 eV = 1.66 eV = 2.66×10-19 J; f = ΔE/h = 2.66×10-19 J/ 6.63×10-34 J·s =
4.01×1014 Hz
7. A photon with an energy of 14.0 eV enters a hydrogen atom in the ground state and ionizes it.
With what kinetic energy will the electron be ejected from the atom?
a. 2.76 eV
b. 0.04 eV
c. 27.6 eV
d. 0.4 eV
A hydrogen atom in the ground state has an electron in the n = 1 level. The kinetic energy of the
electron ejected is the difference between the energy of the photon and the energy needed to ionize
the atom. It takes 13.6 eV to knock the electron loose. That means there is 14.0 eV - 13.6 eV = 0.4
eV left over for the kinetic energy of the electron.
8. Calculate the radius of the orbital associated with the energy level E6 of the hydrogen atom.
Use h2/(4π2Kmq2 = 5.30×10-11 m.
a. 1.91×10-10 m
b. 1.33×10-10 m
c. 1.33×10-9 m
d. 1.91×10-9 m
-11
(5.30×10 m)(52) = 8.48×10-10 m
9. In the equation En = -13.6 eV(1/n2), n is the __________.
a. mass of the electron

b. principal quantum number
c. electron orbital radius
d. energy of an electron in its orbit
The integer, n, is called the principal quantum number and determines the values of radii of
electron orbits and energy of electrons in hydrogen.
Use h2/(4πA242Kmq2 = 5.30×10-11 m.
a. 1.33×10-10 m
b. 1.91×10-10 m
c. 1.33×10-9 m
d. 1.91×10-9 m
-11
(5.30×10 m)(52) = 8.48×10-10 m
Use h2/(4&pi2Kmq2 = 5.30×10-11 m.
a. 1.91×10-9 m
b. 1.33×10-10 m
c. 8.50×10-10 m
d. 8.50×10-9 m
-11
(5.30×10 m)(42) = 8.48×10-10 m
12. According to Figure 28-4, how many lines would appear in the visible absorption spectrum for
mercury?
a. 16
b. 8
c. 5
d. 9
The absorption spectrum has dark lines where the bright lines appear on the emission spectrum.
13. An atom drops from 8.45 eV to 6.02 eV. What is the energy of the photon emitted by the
atom?
a. 14.47 eV
b. 2.43 eV
c. 1.40 eV
d. 2.15 eV
The energy of the photon emitted is equal to ΔE = 8.45 eV - 6.02 eV = 2.43 eV.
14. Using the emission spectra shown in section 28.1, determine which among the following colors
should appear the most brightly in the emission spectrum for the Sun.
a. orange
b. yellow
c. dark blue
d. light purple
Stars are composed of mostly hydrogen, so the brightest lines will be those from hydrogen's
spectrum.
15. Use Figure 28-7 to answer this question. A friend shows you an emission spectrum that he
says was produced by a light containing several gases, including hydrogen. Which of the
following characteristics of the spectrum would disprove his statement?
a. There are no red lines in the spectrum.

b. There are three yellow lines in the spectrum.
c. There are two blue lines in the spectrum.
d. There are no lines between 600 and 650 nm in the spectrum.
The emission spectrum for a susbstance containing more than one element will be the combination
of the individual elements' spectra.
16. The set of light wavelengths emitted by an atom is called the atom's
__________.
a. emission spectrum

b. spectral profile
c. alpha level
d. scintillation
The emission spectrum is the characteristic set of light wavelengths emitted by an atom.
17. Electrons in an atom have different quantized amounts of energy that are called
__________.
a. energy packets

b. radii
c. orbits
d. energy levels
Electrons in an atom have different quantized amounts of energy that are called energy levels.
18. When an electron drops from E4 to E3 in an excited hydrogen atom, the frequency of the
emitted photon is 1.60×1014 Hz. What is its wavelength?
a. 1880 nm
b. 632 nm
c. 188 nm
d. 941 nm
λ = c/f = 3.00×108 m/s/1.60×1014 Hz = 1880 nm
19. In Figure 28-11, if hydrogen's ground state energy were -12 eV, what will be the wavelength
of the photon emitted when an electron drops from the 1st excited state to the ground?
a. 78 nm
b. 5900 nm
c. 11000 nm
d. 140 nm
The photon's energy will be equal to the energy lost by the electron.
20. Bohr suggested that light is emitted by an electron when

__________.
a. the electron reverses the direction of its orbit

b. the electron completes one revolution in its orbit
c. the electron's fixed orbit shifts
d. the electron's energy changes
Bohr suggested that light is emitted by an electron when the electron's energy changes. Bohr
hypothesized that electrons in an atom have different quantized amounts of energy called energy
levels. When an electron returns from a higher energy level to the lowest, a photon is emitted.
21. In Figure 28-10, if an electron drops from an energy of -3.75 eV to -15 eV, what will be the
wavelength of the emitted photon?
a. 270 nm
b. 85 nm
c. 110 nm
d. 66 nm
The photon's energy will be equal to the energy lost by the electron.
22. A hydrogen atom has its electron in the n = 2 level. A photon with a wavelength of 297 nm
strikes the atom and ionizes it. Assuming that the electron receives the excess energy from the
ionization, what will be the kinetic energy of the electron in joules?
a. 6.69×10-19 J
b. 1.26×10-19 J
c. 4.27×10-19 J
d. 3.18×10-19 J
Use the wavelength and frequency of the photon to find ΔE. Subtract the energy of the hydrogen
atom's electron in the n = 2 level from this, giving the excess energy after ionization. Divide by the
energy of 1 eV to find the kinetic energy in joules or 1.26×10 -19 J.
23. The __________ is the set of wavelengths at which a cool gas will absorb
light.
a. absorption spectrum

b. composition spectrum
c. photon emission
d. emission spectrum
The absorption spectrum is the set of wavelengths at which a cool gas will absorb light.
24. After bombarding metal foil with alpha particles, Rutherford's experimental results led him to
conclude that the positive charge of the atom is __________.
a. concentrated in the nucleus

b. concentrated in the outer shell
c. spread evenly throughout
d. orbiting around the central core
After bombarding metal foil with alpha particles, Rutherford's experimental results led him to
conclude that the positive charge of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
25. A(n) __________ is an instrument used for studying emission spectra in

detail.
a. spectroscope
b. projector
c. electron microscope
d. STM
A spectroscope is an instrument used for studying emission spectra in detail. In a spectroscope,
light passes through a slit and is then dispersed as it travels through a prism or diffraction grating.
26. An atom is in a(n) __________ when it has absorbed energy and an electron made a transition
to a higher energy level.
a. quantum level

b. ground state
c. orbit
d. excited state
Atoms usually remain in excited states for only a few
billionths of a second before returning to the ground
state and emitting energy.
Section 28.2 The Quantum
Model of the Atom
Practice Test
Your score was 0%.
1. _________ is the study of the properties of matter using its wave

properties.
a. Electromagnetism
b. Quantum mechanics
c. Thermodynamics
d. Wave dynamics
Quantum mechanics is the study of the properties of matter using its wave properties.
2. Which of the following represents the Bohr quantization condition?
a. nλ = 2πr

b. 2n = λπr
c. r/λ = h/2π
d. 2πrh = nλ
The Bohr quantization condition is represented by nλ = 2πr.
3. The __________ is the region in which there is a high probability of finding an electron.
a. quantum model

b. electron radius
c. emission region
d. electron cloud
Because the wave-particle nature of matter makes it impossible to know both the position and
momentum of an electron at the same time, the modern quantum model of the atom predicts only
the probability that an electron is at a specific location. This region is called the electron cloud.
4. What device uses stimulated emission to produce an avalanche of photons, having the same
wavelength and their minima and maxima at the same times?
a. diffraction grating

b. semiconductor
c. spectroscope
d. laser
Laser is an acronym for light amplification
by stimulated emission of radiation.
Section
29.1 Conduction in
Solids
Practice Test
Your score was 43%.
1. A p-type semiconductor conducts electricity with

__________.
a. neutrons
b. holes
c. electrons
d. protons
Gallium, with three valence electrons, is an example of an acceptor atom.
2. In Figure 29-3, what should be the overall direction of the electron drift?
a. left
b. right
c. up
d. down
Theelectrons drift toward the higher potential.
3. An n-type semiconductor conducts electricity with __________.
a. neutrons
b. protons
c. electrons
d. holes
Arsenic, with five valence electrons, is an example of a donor atom.
4. What happens to conductors as the temperature rises?
a. The conductivity increases.

b. The resistance is reduced.
c. The conductivity is reduced.
d. nothing
When conductivity is reduced, resistance increases.
5. What happens to atomic energy levels when many atoms are brought together?
a. They join into one energy level.

b. They split into broad bands with forbidden gaps.
c. They vibrate.
d. They disappear completely.
When many atoms are brought together, they make broad bands of energy that are separated by
forbidden gaps.
6. Why are dopants added to intrisinc semiconductor

materials?
a. to make semiconductors electrically neutral

b. to increase the forbidden gap
c. to increase conductivity
d. to increase resistance
Dopants are electron donors or acceptors added in low concentrations to intrinsic semiconductors.
They increase conductivity by making extra electrons or holes available.
7. The energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band in a semiconductor is
__________.
a. 1 eV or less
b. 1 V or less
c. exactly 1 eV
d. greater than 1 eV
The gap between the valence band and
the conduction band is 1 eV or less.
Section 29.2 Electronic
Devices
Practice Test
Your score was 40%.
1. In Figure 29-20, what resistor should be used to increase the current to 25 mA? Assume that
the potential drop across the LED is still 1.2 V.
a. 192 Ω
b. 240 Ω
c. 300 Ω
d. 120 Ω
Use Ohm's law.
2. If the diode connected to ammeter A2 in Figure 29-22 were reversed, what would happen to
A1's reading?
a. It would read zero.

c. It would decrease to a non-zero value.
d. It would remain unchanged.
A diode that is hooked up "backwards" is like an open switch.
3. If the battery in Figure 29-18 were reversed, which lamp(s) would light?
a. L1 only
b. neither lamp
c. both lamps
d. L2 only
4. In Figure 29-17c, how does the current go through the diodes?
a. to the right for the top one, no current through the bottom one
b. to the left for the top one, the right for the bottom one
c. no current through the top one, to the left for the bottom one
d. to the right for the top one, the left for the bottom one
5. If the diode connected to ammeter A2 in Figure 29-22 were reversed, what would happen to
A2's reading?
a. It would
decrease to a
non-zero value.
b. It would read
zero.
c. It would remain
unchanged.
d. It would
increase.
A diode that is hooked up
"backwards" is like an open
switch.
ection 30.1 The
Nucleus
Practice Test
Your score was 27%.
1. There are several carbon isotopes. Each one has the same number of _________.
a. electrons
b. protons
c. particles
d. neutrons
The number of neutrons can be different for different atoms.
2. What first started scientists looking for neutrons?
a. neutral particle beams used in the lab

b. the existence of electrons outside the nucleus
c. atomic radiation
d. the mass of the nucleus being larger than the mass of the protons
The mass of a nucleus is greater than the number of protons, which implies that there are neutral
particles inside.
3.
Calculate the mass defect of (4.02602 u). The mass of a proton is 1.007825 u and the
mass of a neutron is 1.008665 u.
a. -0.029538 u
b. -0.00696 u
c. -0.032058 u
d. -0.028398 u
4.026602 u - 2 × 1/007825 u -2 × 1.008665 u = '-0.00696 u.
4. The strong nuclear force is ___________.
a. stronger than the electromagnetic force, but has more range
b. weaker than the electromagnetic force, but has more range
c. stronger than the electromagnetic force, but has less range
d. weaker than the electromagnetic force, but has less range
The strong nuclear force is stronger than the electromagnetic force but only has a range the size of
the radius of a proton.
5. What is the relation between mass and energy?
a. m = Ec2
b. E = m/c
c. E = mc
d. E = mc2
1 u of mass is equivalent tp 931.49 MeV.
6. Why isn't the mass of argon (39.948 u) a whole

number?
a. There are partial protons.

b. There are isotopes.
c. There are partial neutrons.
d. The mass of the electrons must be considered.
Most elements have different isotopes that contribute to an uneven mass number.
7. What is the energy equivalent of a neutron (m = 1.673×10-27 kg; 1 eV = 1.60×10-19J)?
a. 241 MeV

b. 941 MeV
c. 9.41 MeV
d. 2.41 MeV
The mass times the speed of light squared yields1.5057×10 -10 J, which converts to 941 MeV, to
three significant digits.(9.00×1016m2/s2) yields 1.5057×+H1610-10 J, which converts to 941 MeV, to
three significant digits.
8. How much energy is released in a reaction that has a mass defect of 8.63×10 -4 u? (1 u =
931.49 MeV.)
a. 8.04×102 MeV
b. 9.26 × 107 MeV
c. ?8.04×10-1 MeV
d. 9.26×102 MeV
Each unit releases 931.49 MeV, so 8.63×10-4 units will release 8.04×10-1 MeV.
9. What happens to some of the mass of two protons and two neutrons when they form a helium
nucleus?
a. It is destroyed.
b. It disappears completely.
c. It becomes binding mass.
d. It becomes binding energy.
The sum of the nucleon parts is less than the mass of the nucleus; part of that mass becomes
binding energy.
10. Which is a
nucleon?
a. a beta particle

b. an electron
c. a proton
d. a positron
Protons and neutrons are the only nucleons.
11. What is the mass

defect?
a. the difference in masses of different isotopes

b. the difference between the sum of the individual masses of the nucleons and the
mass of the nucleus
c. the difference in mass between protons and neutrons
d. the difference in mass between protons and electrons
The sum of the nucleon parts is less than the mass of the nucleus; part of that mass defect
becomes binding energy.
12. The phosphorus isotope has a mass defect of '-0.282253 u. What is the binding
energy?
a. ?-26.292 MeV

b. ?-262.92 MeV
c. ?-212.62 MeV
d. ?-765.92 MeV
?'-0.282253 u × 931.49 MeV/u = '-262.92 MeV
13. What is the mass of the heaviest isotope shown in Figure 30-1?
a. 8.35×10-27 kg
b. 6.68×10-27 kg
c. 1.67×10-27 kg
d. 3.34×10-27 kg
The heaviest isotope will be the one with the most particles in the nucleus.
14. The atomic number is
__________.
a. the number of particles

b. the number of electrons
c. the number of protons
d. the number of neutrons
The atomic number is the number that tells how many protons make an element.
15. What holds protons in the nucleus?
a. strong nuclear force

b. electrical force
c. gravity
d. weak nuclear force
The strong nuclear force overcomes the electrical
force to hold a nucleus together.
Section 30.2 Nuclear Decay
and Reactions
Practice Test
Your score was 29%.
1. According to Figure 30-4, what percentage of the original sample of a radioactive substance
would be left after 4 half-lives?
a. 25%
b. 6.25%
c. 50%
d. 12.50%
The amount of a radioactive sample remaining is equal to the original amount, times 1/2 to the
power of the number of expired half-lives.
2. Which of the following medical examination tools does not use radiation?
a. ultrasound
b. X rays
c. PET scans
d. radioactive tracing
Ultrasound uses sound waves, not electromagnetic waves.
3.
When is bombarded by and results in what else is emitted?
a. a positron
b. a neutron
c. a proton
d. an electron
After nitrogen-14 transmutes to oxygen-17 by alpha particle bombardment, a proton is
emitted+H22.
4. Fusion reactions are often called _________ reactions because of the large amounts of thermal
energy required for fusion to occur.
a. chain
b. critical mass
c. thermonuclear
d. fission
Fusion reactions are often called thermonuclear reactions because of the large amounts of thermal
energy required for fusion to occur.
5. From where does the energy in a nuclear reaction come?
a. The energy equivalence of the difference in mass of the reactants and the products
b. The mass of the neutrons in isotopes
c. The entire mass of the atoms
d. The difference in mass between the protons and neutrons
Energy from a nuclear reaction comes from the energy equivalence of the difference in mass of the
reactants and the products.
6. Why are neutrons often used to bombard nuclei?
a. They are easily made.

b. They move very fast.
c. They are very heavy.
d. They have no charge.
Neutrons, because they do not have a charge, are not deflected from the positive nucleus.
7. Carbon-14 decays to nitrogen-14 by emitting a beta particle. What happens to the total charge
in the atom?
a. decreases by two

b. increases by two
c. decreases, but very slightly
d. remains the same
All radioactive decay results in the mass being conserved.
8. Write the nuclear equation for the transmutation of the radioactive actinium isotope into the
thorium isotope by the emission of a particle.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A89228c→T90228h+e-10+ν¯00
The nuclear mass does not change in this reaction, and there is only the loss of one negative
charge.
9. How is steam converted to electricity after a fission
reaction?
a. by condensation
b. by moving water
c. by moving through a paddle wheel
d. by turbines
In a nuclear reactor, heat from the reaction warms water to boiling, and the steam turns turbines
to generate electricity.
10. Which decay does not result in transmutation?
a. alpha
b. gamma
c. beta
d. nuclear
Because gamma rays do not remove particles or charge from a nucleus, it does not result in
transmutation.
11. What is the purpose of control rods in a nuclear reactor?
a. to absorb electrons

b. to absorb isotopes
c. to absorb protons
d. to absorb neutrons
Control rods are inserted among the uranium rods to absorb neutrons and keep them from causing
more fission than desired.
12. Why is the following reaction desirable as a power source?
a. this cannot reach a chain reaction

b. this isn't nuclear
c. there's no radioactive waste
d. there are no neutrons produced
This is considered a clean reaction because there are no radioactive byproducts.
13. Which describes radiation in order of lowest to highest energy?
a. alpha, beta, gamma

b. gamma, beta, alpha
c. beta, gamma, alpha
d. alpha, gamma, beta
Alpha particles are the weakest form of nuclear radiation, while gamma rays are the most powerful.
Beta radiation is between alpha and gamma radiation.
14. A radioactive lead isotope, , undergoes beta decay and becomes bismuth. Write the nuclear
equation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P82212b→B83212i+e-10+ν00
15. Which of the isotopes described in Table 30-2 loses the greatest fraction of its mass when it
decays?
a. polonium 210

b. hydrogen 3
c. cobalt 60
d. polonium 194
In beta decay, the atom loses an electron.
16. According to Figure 30-4, what percentage of the original sample of a radioactive substance
would be left after 10 half-lives?
a. 0.09%
b. 12.5%
c. 5%
d. 10%
The amount of a radioactive sample remaining is equal to the original amount, times 1/2 to the
power of the number of expired half-lives.
17. How long does a sample of lead-236 with a half life of 2.85 years take to reduce to 1/8 its
original amount?
a. 2.85 years

b. 8.55 years
c. 5.70 years
d. 22.8 years
Three cycles (8.55 years) would be necessary to complete this.
18. What does a moderator do in a nuclear reaction?
a. absorbs neutrons

b. increases the amount of fission
c. slows fast neutrons
d. speeds up slow neutrons
A moderator is a substance that keeps the nuclear reaction from running out of control by slowing
fast neutrons.
19. Based only on the information from Figure 30-5 and Table 30-2, which of the following would
be the best choice to inject for a PET scan?
a. polonium 194

b. uranium 235
c. polonium 210
d. lead 212
A substance that decays too rapidly will be mostly gone by the time the scan is taken. A substance
that decays too slowly will not decay enough during the time of the scan.
20. Fusion occurs when
__________.
a. radioactive particles are emitted from the nucleus

b. two smaller nuclei combine to form a larger one
c. nuclei decay
d. a large nucleus is split
Fusion involves bringing things together while fission involves breaking things apart. When two
nuclei fuse, they combine and form a larger nucleus.
21. What happens in a chain

reaction?
a. Protons released from nuclei strike other nuclei and cause them to break apart.
b. Neutrons stop reactions in the material.
c. Electrons released from nuclei strike other nuclei and cause them to break apart.
d. Neutrons released from nuclear fission strike other nuclei and cause them to undergo
fission.
When a nucleus breaks apart in a nuclear fission reaction, it releases neutrons that will break apart
other nuclei.
22. Write the nuclear equation for the transmutation of the radioactive thorium isotope into the
radium isotope by the emission of an ? particle.
a.
b.
c.
d.
T90232h→R88228a+H24e
23. A large nucleus splits into two smaller ones. This is

__________.
a. fusion
b. production
c. annihilation
d. fission
Fission occurs when a large nucleus splits into two smaller ones. Fusion occurs when two small
nuclei combine to make a larger nucleus.
24. Write the nuclear equation for the transmutation of a polonium isotope, , into a lead isotope, ,
by the emission of an alpha particle.
a.
b.
c.
d.
P84212o→P82208b+H24e
Section 30.3 The Building
Blocks of Matter
Practice Test
Your score was 25%.
1. What causes a pulse of current to travel from a Geiger-Mueller

tube?
a. neutrons ionizing gas

b. X rays
c. atoms ionizing gas
d. a charged particle or a gamma ray ionizing gas
Charged particles or gamma radiation causes a pulse of current to travel from a Geiger-Mueller
tube.
2. Which particle is a
lepton?
a. a neutron
b. a meson
c. a proton
d. an electron
Electrons are leptons.
3. What is a meson?
a. a particle made of a quark and an antiquark

b. a lepton
c. the largest elementary particle
d. a boson
Mesons are made of a quark and an antiquark. Baryons are made of three quarks.
4. All elementary particles can be classified into which three categories?
a. quarks, leptons, and force carriers

b. leptons, bosons, and electrons
c. force carriers, gluons, and quarks
d. quarks, leptons, and gluons
All elementary particles can be classified as quarks, leptons, and force carriers.
5. Why are neutrons unable to be put through a particle accelerator?
a. They are too small.

b. They cannot move fast.
c. They are too heavy.
d. They have no charge.
Because a neutron has no charge, it will not gain an induced force from the electromagnetic field.
6. What does an antineutrino carry?

a. charge and energy
b. sound and momentum
c. mass and charge
d. momentum and energy
Antineutrinos are chargeless particles that carry momentum and energy.
7. What powers particles through a linear

accelerator?
a. wind
b. gasoline
c. electric fields
d. fire
An electric field uses induced force to propel charged particles through a linear accelerator.
8. What happens when a proton and an antiproton collide?
a. more protons

b. shattering of the particles into more particles
c. production
d. annihilation
An antiproton is a proton of antimatter and will annihilate a proton.

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You answered 3 correct and 4 incorrect.

1. In order to use the particle model, the __________ must be __________

a. size of the object, much less than the distance

2. Replacing an object in a motion diagram with a single point is called the

a. frame differential

a. distance of the object from the origin

a. motion diagram

1. Two displacements are equal when

a. the two directions are the same

3. To subtract two vectors, __________.

4. The difference between ti and tf is the __________.

a. average speed

6. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

7. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

8. A common symbol for the time interval is

a. v = Δd/Δt

14. Displacement has both magnitude and

a. The magnitude of a vector is always a positive quantity.

17. __________ defines the distance and direction between two

a. A scalar quantity

18. To calculate the distance traveled continuously in a straight line,

19. Displacement is a change in __________.

20. The horizontal direction in a coordinate system is called the

21. The magnitude of a vector is always

a. equal to the displacement

22. When an object is in motion, its __________ changes.

23. The vertical direction in a coordinate system is called the

a. coordinate system

1. On a position-time graph, rise =

2. On a position-time graph, run = __________.

a. -85 km/h

a. you: 2.2 hours, your friend: 2.8 hours

a. 10.5 km/h

a. instantaneous velocity

14. The magnitude of velocity is

a. 3.0 m/s

a. 0.56 m/s2

3. In Figure 3-19, what is the total displacement of the object?

10. The a-t graph corresponding to the v-t graph in Figure 3-10a would be ___.

a. A straight vertical line

a. 147 m/s

a. 0.25 m/s

a. -3.8 m/s

2. Acceleration describes a change in

a. Average velocity

a. 2.50 m/s2

a. 50.0 m/s

a. Uniform acceleration

1. An object is in equilibrium when __________.

a. the equilibrant is zero

a. 0.28 m/s2 to the left

3. The unit of force in the SI system is the

4. An object that has a force exerted on it is called

a. the environment

5. A(n) __________ force acts on an object without touching it.

a. 300 N to the right

8. Newton's first law of motion states that

a. air does not exert a force

a. The y-intercept of the graph would be a non-zero number.

1. In order to use the particle model, the must be