MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Subject: Research Methodology

Paper Code: BBA 206
Unit I
Q 1. Which one among the following statements is correct in context to research?
a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the
solution to a problem.
b) It is a systematic, logical and unbiased process wherein verification of hypotheses, data
analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
c) It is an intellectual inquiry or quest towards truth,
d) It enhances knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. a), b), c) and d)
B. a), b) and c)
C. b), c) and d)
D. a), c) and d)

Q 2. Testing hypothesis is a ________

A. Inferential statistics
B. Descriptive statistics
C. Data preparation
D. Data analysis
Q 3. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called__________.
A. Scale.
B. Hypothesis.
C. Type.
D. Variable

Q 4. A hypothesis is:
A. Abnormally low motor activity.
B. Statements, propositions or assumptions that serve as tentative explanations of certain
facts.
 C. A general term for impaired memory ability.
D. Diminished smell sensitivity.

Q 5. In order to pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

A. Developing a research design
B. Formulating a research question
C. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
D. Formulating a research hypothesis

Q 6. What are the conditions in which Type-I error occurs?

A. The null hypotheses get accepted even if it is false
B. The null hypotheses get rejected even if it is true
C. Both the null hypotheses as well as alternative hypotheses are rejected
D. None of the above

Q 7. Which of the following does not correspond to characteristics of research?

A. Research is not passive
B. Research is systematic
C. Research is not a problem-oriented
D. Research is not a process

Q 8. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other

situations?
A. Casual Comparative Research
B. Historical Research
C. Descriptive Research
D. Experimental Research

Q 9. How to judge the depth of any research?

A. By research title
B. By research duration
 C. By research objectives
D. By total expenditure on research

Q 10. Who can successfully conduct Research?

A. Someone who is a hard worker
B. Possesses post-graduation degree
C. Has studied research methodology
D. Possesses thinking and reasoning ability

Q 11. Which of the following is not the method of Research?

A. Survey
B. Historical
C. Observation
D. Philosophical

Q 12. A research problem is feasible only when

A. It has utility and relevance
B. It is new and adds something to knowledge
C. It is researchable
D. All of the above

Q 13. Research is
A. Searching again and again
B. Finding solution to any problem
C. Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
D. None of the above

Q 14. Action research means

A. A longitudinal research
B. An applied research
C. A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
 D. A research with socioeconomic objective

Q 15. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

A. Statement of Objectives
B. Analysis of Data
C. Selection of Research Tools
D. Collection of Data

Q 16. What is the purpose of doing research?

A. To identify problem
B. To find the solution
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

Q 17. The research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more
specifically, the effect of one variable on another are known as
A. Causal research
B. Applied research
C. Conclusive research
D. Exploratory research

Q 18. Which of the following is not an example of a 'unit of analysis'?

A. Validity
B. Significant actors
C. Words
D. Subjects and themes

Q 19. __________ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.

A. Categories
B. Units
 C. Individuals
D. None of the above

Q 20. Good Research is always ……………

A. Slow
B. Fast
C. Narrow
D. Systematic

Q 21. Good research is ……………

A. Logical
B. Non logical
C. Narrow
D. Systematic

Q 22. Hypothesis which explains relationship between two variables is

A. Causal
B. Relational
C. Descriptive
D. Tentative

Q 23. Null means

A. One
B. Many
C. Zero
D. None of these

Q 24. A Hypothesis must be …………….

A. Diffuse
B. Specific
 C. Slow
D. Speedy

Q 25. The concrete observable events which represent the abstract concepts or constructs
are called
A. Data
B. Sample
C. Variable
D. Proposition

Q 26. In …………… the main purpose is to formulate a problem for more precise
investigation
A. Exploratory or Formulative study
B. Descriptive study
C. Diagnostic study
D. None of the above

Q 27. The main objective of ………….. study’s to acquire knowledge

A. Exploratory
B. Descriptive
C. Diagnostic
D. Descriptive and Diagnostic

Q 28. ……………… is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect
to their association or disassociation
A. Exploratory
B. Descriptive
C. Diagnostic
D. Descriptive and diagnostic

Q 29. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?

 A. The coin is not fair
B. There is a correlation in the population
C. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
D. The defendant is guilty

Q 30. One of the terms given below is defined as a bundle of meanings or characteristics
associated with certain events, objects, conditions, situations, and the like
A. Construct
B. Definition
C. Concept
D. Variable

Q 31. This is an idea or image specifically invented for a given research and/or theory
building purpose
A. Concept
B. Construct
C. Definition
D. Variables

Q 32. Concepts which cannot be given operational definitions are ………… concepts
A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Hypothetical
D. Operational

Q 33. Concepts represent various degree of ……………..

A. Formulation
B. Calculation
C. Abstraction
 D. Specification

Q 34. Concepts are ………………….

A. Metaphor
B. Simile
C. Symbols
D. Models

Q 35. Concepts are ……………. of Research

A. Guide
B. Tools
C. Methods
D. Variables

Q 36. Concepts are of ……………….types

A. 4
B. 6
C. 10
D. 2

Q 37. There is a concept by ……………………

A. Observation
B. Formulation
C. Theory
D. Postulation

Q 38. Concept is of two types

A. Abstract and Coherent
B. Concrete and Coherent
C. Abstract and concrete
D. None of the above
Q 39. Which ONE of these needs to be decided before considering whether to take a census
or sample?
A. The method

B. The objectives

C. The reporting styles

D. The Gantt charts

Q 40. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

A. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question (s the
researcher will address

B. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods,

measures, and materials

C. Specify the variables of interest

D. All the above

Q 41. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
A. Introduction

B. Method

C. Data analysis

D. Discussion

Q 42. Research hypotheses are ______.

A. Formulated prior to a review of the literature

B. Statements of predicted relationships between variables

C. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted

D. b and c
Q 43. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.
A. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study

B. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed

C. Are never used

D. Are always stated after the research study has been completed

Q 44. Which ONE of these needs to be decided before considering whether to take a census
or sample?
A. The method

B. The objectives

C. The reporting style

D. The Gantt chart

Q 45. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

A. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the
researcher will address
B. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods,
measures, and materials
C. Specify the variables of interest
D. All of the above

Q 46. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

A. To make sure you have a long list of references
B. Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
C. To find out what is already known about your area of interest
D. To help in your general studying

Q 47. A systematic literature review is:

A. One which starts in your own library, then goes to on-line databases and,
finally, to the internet
B. A replicable, scientific and transparent process
 C. One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area
D. A responsible, professional process of time-management for research

Q 48. Why is it important for a researcher to review the literature?

A. Because it identifies like-minded researchers.
B. Because it will find if anyone has done the work before.
C. Because it shows time has been spent on the subject.
D. Because it is traditional.
Q 49. A theoretical framework
A. Elaborates the r/s among the variables
B. Explains the logic underlying these r/s
C. Describes the nature and direction of the r/s
D. All of the above

Q 50. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
A. Searching sources of information to locate problem.
B. Survey of related literature
C. Identification of problem
D. Searching for solutions to the problem

Q 51. The chapter that details the way in which the research was conducted is the _________
chapter
A. Introduction
B. Literature review
C. Research methodology
D. Data analysis
E. Conclusion and recommendations
Q 52. What are the core elements of a Research Process?

A. Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and

Recommendations
B. Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions;
Bibliography
C. Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
D. Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussions
and Conclusions

Q 53. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
A. Developing a research design
B. Formulating a research question
C. Formulating a research hypothesis
D. Deciding about the data analysis procedure

Q 54. A variable is any characteristic which can assume ____________________ values.

A. Different
B. Similar
C. Fixed
D. Assumed

Q 55. The _________________ random variables yield categorical responses so that the
responses fit into one category or another.
A. Quantitative
B. Discrete
C. Continuous
D. Qualitative
Q 56. Which one among the following statement is true in the context of the testing of
hypotheses?
A. It is only the alternative hypotheses that can be tested.
B. It is only the null hypotheses that can be tested.
C. Both the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
D. Both the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

Q 57. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?
A. To learn new things
B. To keep pace with the advancement in knowledge
C. To systematically examine and critically analyze the investigations/sources
with the objective
D. All of the above

Q 58. Which of the following is not normally included in a written account of qualitative
research?
A. An introduction, locating the research in its theoretical context
B. An explanation of the design of the study
C. A discussion of the main findings in relation to the research questions
D. A decision to accept or reject the hypothesis

Q 59. What do you mean by Unit of Analysis?

A. Main parameter
B. Variables
C. Sample
D. Constructs

Q 60. Researchers generate concepts by

A. Generalizing from particular facts
 B. Analyzing the data
C. Sampling frame
D. Hypothesis testing

Answer Key of Unit I

1 A 11 C 21 A 31 B 41 B 51 C
2 A 12 D 22 B 32 C 42 D 52 D
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 C 43 B 53 B
4 B 14 C 24 B 34 C 44 B 54 A
5 B 15 C 25 C 35 B 45 D 55 D
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 56 B
7 D 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 B 57 D
8 B 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 B 58 D
9 C 19 A 29 C 39 B 49 D 59 A
10 C 20 D 30 C 40 D 50 C 60 A
Unit II

Q 1. Questionnaire is a:

A. Research method
B. Measurement technique
C. Tool for data collection
D. Data analysis technique

Q 2. A formal document that presents the research objectives, design of achieving these
objectives, and the expected outcomes/deliverables of the study is called

A. Research design
B. Research proposal
C. Research hypothesis
D. Research report

Q 3. Survey is a ……………. Study

A. Descriptive
B. Fact finding
 C. Analytical
D. Systematic

Q 4. Survey is always a ………study

A. Field
B. Laboratory
C. Office
D. Class room

Q 5. In a survey there is an enumerator and a ………………….

A. Guide
B. Respondent
C. Supervisor
D. Messenger

Q 6. The first step in a survey is ……………. of a problem

A. Application
B. Rejection
C. Selection
D. Planning

Q 7. The first purpose of a survey is to ……………..

A. Description
B. Evaluation
C. Pration
D. Provide Information

Q 8. A Blue print of Research work is called

A. Research Problem
B. Research design
C. Research tools
D. Research methods

Q 9. Research design is a blue print, outline and a …………….

 A. Plan
B. System
C. Strategy
D. Guide

Q 10. Questions which allow only a few alternative way of answering is called ………..
A. Open ended questions
B. Unstructured questions
C. Structural questions
D. Dichotomous questions

Q 11.Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

A. Multiple choice questions
B. Dichotomous questions
C. Open ended questions
D. Structured questions

Q 12. Questions which seek information is called

A. Factual question
B. Opinion question
C. Hypothetical question
D. Marginal question

Q 13. What is the name of the conceptual framework in which the research is carried out?
A. Research hypothesis
B. Synopsis of Research
C. Research paradigm
D. Research design

Q 14.What are the core elements of a Research Process?

A. Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and
Recommendations
B. Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions;
Bibliography
C. Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
D. Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results;
Discussions and Conclusions
Q 15. What is a research design?
A. A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
B. The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods
C. The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph
D. A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data

Q 16. In an experimental design, the dependent variable is:

A. The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed
B. The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other
C. A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research
D. An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined

Q 17.Example for fact finding study is

A. Pure Research
B. Survey
C. Action Research
D. Long term Research

Q 18.Facts or information’s are analyzed and critical evaluation is made in

A. Survey
B. Action research
C. Analytical research
D. Pilot study

Q 19. Research conducted to find solution for an immediate problem is ………….

A. Fundamental Research
B. Analytical Research
C. Survey
D. Action Research
Q 20. Fundamental Research is otherwise called
A. Action Research
B. Survey
C. Pilot study
D. Pure Research

Q 21. Research conducted in class room atmosphere is called

A. Field study
B. Survey
C. Laboratory Research
D. Empirical Research
Q 22. Population Census is an example of ………….. Research
A. Survey
B. Empirical
C. Clinical
D. Diagnostic

Q 23. Identifying causes of a problem and possible solution to a problem is

A. Field Study
B. Diagnosis tic study
C. Action study
D. Pilot study

Q 24. The first step in formulating a problem is

A. Statement of the problem
B. Gathering of Data
C. Measurement
D. Survey

Q 25. Second step in problem formulation is

 A. Statement of the problem
B. Understanding the nature of the problem
C. Survey
D. Discussions

Q 26.Third step in problem formulation is

A. Statement of the problem
B. Understanding the nature of the problem
C. Survey the available literature
D. Discussion

Q 27. Fourth step in problem formulation is

A. Develop ideas through discussion
B. Survey
C. Statement of problem Enactment
D. Discussion

Q 28. Last step in problem formulation is

A. Survey
B. Discussion
C. Literature survey
D. Re Phrasing the Research problem

Q 29. In the formulation of the problem we need to give a ………….

A. Title
B. Index
C. Bibliography
D. Concepts

Q 30. Schedule is filled by ……………

A. Respondent
 B. Enumerator
C. Everybody
D. None of the above

Q 31. Questionnaire is filled by ……………….

A. Respondent
B. Everybody
C. Enumerator
D. None of the above

Q 32. Surveys on the basis of subject matter are of two types (1) Social survey and
(2)……………
A. Economic Survey
B. Deep survey
C. Intensive Survey
D. Extensive Survey

Q 33. Survey is both intensive and ……………..

A. Deep
B. Wide
C. Extensive
D. Accurate

Q 34. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

A. Multiple choice questions
B. Dichotomous question
C. Open ended questions
D. Structured questions

Q 35. Questions which allow only a few alternative way of answering is called ………..
A. Open ended questions
 B. Unstructured questions
C. Structural questions
D. Dichotomous questions

Q 36. Qualitative methods are probably the oldest of all the scientific techniques, the method
of qualitative research is:
A. Questionnaire
B. Attitude Scales
C. Depth Interview
D. Observation
Q 37. The main problem in questionnaire is
A. Accessible to Diverse Respondent
B. Greater Anonymity
C. Shows an inability of respondent to provide information
D. None of these

Q 38. What does the term 'longitudinal design' mean?

A. A study completed far away from where the researcher lives.

B. A study which is very long to read.

C. A study with two contrasting cases.

D. A study completed over a distinct period of time to map changes in social

phenomena.

Q 39. What is a research design?

A. A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.

B. The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.

C. The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph.

D. A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

Q 40.Cross cultural studies are an example of:

A. Longitudinal design

B. Comparative design

C. Experimental design

D. Case study design

Q 41. What practical steps can you take before you actually start your research?

A. Find out exactly what your institution's requirements are for a dissertation.

B. Make sure you are familiar with the hardware and software you plan to use.

C. Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics committee.

D. All of the above.

Q 42. Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are

unwilling or unable to provide?

A. Focus groups

B. Personal interviews

C. Questionnaires

D. Observational research

E. Internet survey

Q 43. Survey research is least likely to be conducted through which of the following?

A. Observation

B. Person-to-person interactions

C. The telephone
 D. The Web

E. The mail

Q 44. The most common research instrument used is the

A. Questionnaire

B. Moderator

C. Telephone interviewer

D. Live interviewer

E. Mechanical device

Q 45. Primary data is ___________.

A. Always collected before secondary data

B. Collected for the specific purpose at hand

C. Information that already exists

D. Data collected for other purposes

Q 46. Cause and effect research comes under which research type?

A. Causal

B. Exploratory

C. Descriptive

D. None of the above

Q 47. ………………….. is kind of prelude to the end result one hopes to achive and
therefore it requires considerable thoughts
 A. Hypothesis

B. Expenditure

C. Research problem

D. None of the above

Q 48. ____________ research is the gathering of primary data by watching people.

A. Survey

B. Informative

C. Observational

D. Experimental

E. Causal

Q 49. Advance plan of research is called as

A. Research process

B. Research design

C. Research proposal

D. None of the above

Q 50. Research design consist of following things except…………….

A. Hypothesis

B. Expenditure

C. Research problem
 D. None of the above

Q 51. Following are techniques of Qualitative Research ?

A. Depth interview

B. Focus group

C. Projective technique

D. All of the above

Q 52. Which of the following is true regarding research objectives?

A. Research objectives, when achieved, will provide sufficient earnings to obtain

areasonablereturn on investment.

B. Researchobjectives, when obtained, will ensure the viability of the marketing

research department.

C. Research objectives, when achieved, provide the information necessary to

solve the problem.

D. Research objectives are seldom achieved but should be stated as goals to be

sought.

Q 53. Which of the following is true regarding research design?

A. There are four categories of research design.

B. There are three categories of research design.

C. There are five categories of research design.

D. There are eight categories of research design.

Q 54. Which of the following would be true regarding exploratory research?

A. Exploratory research is highly structured.

 B. Exploratory research is very formal.

C. Exploratory research determines causality.

D. Exploratory research is both unstructured and informal.

E. Exploratory research answers who, what, where, when, and how questions

Q 55. Interview is an example of which data??

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Q 56. Main drawback of primary data is?

A. Biasness

B. Sample design

C. Research problem

D. All of the above

Q 57. Wrong questionnaire is an example of …………..

A. Primary data collection problem

B. Secondary collection problem

C. a and b both

D. None of the above

 Q 58. Which of the following is true regarding causal research?

A. Causal research is the questions of who, what, where, when, and how.

B. Causal research is informal and unstructured.

C. Causal research isolates causes and effects.

D. Causal research describes marketing phenomena.

E. Causal research is the seventh step in the marketing research process.

Q 59. The existing company information is an example of which data??

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Q 60. Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he knows
that something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to investigate. He seems to be
having problems with ________, which is often the hardest step to take.

A. Developing the research plan

B. Determining a research approach

C. Defining the problem and research objectives

D. Selecting a research agency

Answer Key of Unit II

1 C 11 B 21 C 31 A 41 D 51 D
2 D 12 A 22 A 32 A 42 D 52 C
3 B 13 D 23 B 33 C 43 A 53 B
4 A 14 D 24 A 34 B 44 A 54 D
5 B 15 D 25 B 35 B 45 A 55 A
6 C 16 A 26 C 36 C 46 A 56 A
7 D 17 B 27 A 37 C 47 C 57 A
8 B 18 C 28 D 38 D 48 C 58 C
9 A 19 D 29 A 39 D 49 B 59 B
10 C 20 D 30 B 40 B 50 A 60 C

Unit III
Q 1. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?
A. Systematic Sampling Technique
B. Purposive Sampling Technique
C. Area Sampling Technique
D. None of the above

Q 2. A subset of the population is called

A. Element
B. Sampling unit
C. Sample
D. Sampling frame

Q 3. Numerical data, like the ratio scale data, can be classified into
A. Class intervals
B. Codes
C. Fields
D. Files

Q 4. Which one is called non-probability sampling?

A. Quota sampling
B. Cluster sampling
 C. Systematic sampling
D. Stratified random sampling

Q 5. What does a good thesis involve?

a) Reducing punctuations as well as grammatical errors to minimalist
b) Correct reference citations
c) Consistency in the way of thesis writing
d) Well defined abstract
Select the answers from the codes given below:
A. b), c) and d)
B. a), b), c) and d)
C. a), b) and c)
D. a), b) and d)

Q 6. The ___ scale measurement has a natural zero.

A. Ratio
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Interval

Q 7. The difference between the score on the ___ scale does not have a meaningful
interpretation.
A. Ratio
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Interval

Q 8. Cluster sampling, stratified sampling and systematic sampling are types of

A. Direct sampling
B. Indirect sampling
C. Random sampling
D. Non random sampling
Q 9. A complete list of all the sampling units is called:
A. Sampling design
B. Sampling frame
C. Population frame
D. Cluster

Q 10. If sample size increases it ______ the chances of sampling error

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Fixed
D. No changes

Q 11 When a random sample is drawn from each stratum, it is known as:

A. Simple random sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Probability sampling
D. Purposive sampling

Q 12 The split-half method is used as a test of:

A. Stability
B. Internal reliability
C. Inter-observer consistency
D. External validity

Q 13. Which of the following is not a form of measurement validity?

A. Concurrent validity
B. Face validity
C. Conductive validity
D. Convergent validity

Q 14. _____________is the first stage in sampling process

 A. Proceed with the fieldwork
B. Find suitable source for the population members
C. Define the people of interest
D. Examine the objective of the study

Q 15. What is a sampling unit?

A. The population.
B. The basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled.
C. All the individual elements of the final sample, drawn together.
D. The method used to collect the sample.

Q 16. What is the least expensive and least time-consuming of all sampling techniques?
A. Judgmental sampling.
B. Snowball sampling.
C. Stratified sampling.
D. Convenience sampling.

Q 17. Which of the following is not a non-random sampling method?

A. Cluster sampling
B. Quota sampling
C. Convenience sampling
D. Accidental sampling

Q 18. A researcher wishes to conduct a survey of research staff at the University of Kent, to
investigate their views about proposed changes to the library opening times. She obtains a list
of all the university's research staff and selects 100 people from the list using a random
number table. What method of sampling method is this?
A. Cluster sampling
B. Systematic sampling
C. Quota sampling
D. Simple random sampling
Q 19. Sample is regarded as a subset of?
A. Data
B. Set
C. Distribution
D. Population

Q 20. Mrs. Malhotra samples her class by selecting every third person on her class list.
Which type of sampling method is this?
A. Simple
B. Systematic
C. Stratified
D. Cluster

Q 21. When one examines the entire population instead of a subgroup of the population, this
is called a ____________
A. Sampling
B. Census
C. Population
D. Bias

Q 22. Readymade and readily available data is …………..

A. Primary
B. Personal
C. Organizational

D. Secondary

Q 23. An instrument used in method is called

A. Sample
B. Technique
C. Tool

D. Survey
Q 24. Population value is called …………..
A. Statistic
B. Parameter
C. Variable
D. Core value

Q 25. Probability sampling is otherwise called

A. Multiple choice
B. Uni-variate Analysis
C. Random Sampling
D. Bi-variate Analysis

Q 26. Sampling which provides for a known non zero chance of selection is
A. Probability sampling
B. Non probability sampling
C. multiple Choice
D. analysis

Q 27. An example of probability sampling is

A. Quota Sampling
B. Snow-ball sampling
C. Purposive sampling
D. Lottery method

Q 28. In which sample population is divided into different strata and sample is taken from
different strata?
A. Quota Sampling
B. Snow ball sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Purposive Sampling
Q 29. Drawing a sample from each stratum in the proportion to latter’s share in the total
population is called
A. Stratified sampling
B. Proportioned stratified sampling
C. Disproportionate sampling
D. Quota sampling

Q 30. Selecting sample units in just a “hit and miss” fashion is called
A. Convenience or Accidental sampling
B. Purposive sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Proportionate sampling

Q 31. A technique of Building up a list or a sample of a special population by using an

initial set of members as informants is called
A. Quota sampling
B. Convenience Sampling
C. Snow ball Sampling
D. Purposive sampling

Q 32. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

A. Primary Data only

B. Secondary Data only

C. Both Primary and Secondary Data

D. None of the above

Q 33. Quota sampling, judgment sampling and convenience sampling are classified as types
of
A. Random sampling
B. Non random sampling
 C. Direct sampling
D. Indirect sampling

Q 34. _______________ is the benefit of using simple random sampling

A. We can calculate the accuracy of the results
B. The results are always representative
C. Interviewers can choose respondents freely
D. Informants can refuse to participate
Q 35. A ______ is a subset of a _________.
A. Sample, population
B. Population, sample
C. Statistic, parameter
D. Parameter, statistic

Q 36. Target population is also called

A. Population
B. Survey population
C. Population element
D. Population frame

Q 37. Random sampling is also called _____________.

A. Availability sampling
B. Probation sampling
C. Probability sampling
D. Prospect sampling

Q 38. Validity that reflect whether a scale performs as expected in relation to other variables
selected as meaningful criteria
A. Criterian-related Validity
B. Content Validity
C. Construct validity
 D. Convergent Validity

Q 39. Scale that indicates the relative position of two or more objects or some characteristics
is called
A. Ranking Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Arbitrary Scale
D. Ratio Scale
Q 40. Scale in which the respondent directly compares two or more objects and makes
choices among them is
A. Ranking Scale
B. Rating Scale
C. Graphic Scale
D. None of these

Q 41. Original source from which researcher directly collects the data that has not been
previously collected
A. Primary data
B. Secondary Data
C. Tertiary Data
D. None of these

Q 42. Issue to be considered for the secondary data include which of the following
A. Sufficiency
B. Reliability
C. Suitability
D. All of the above

Q 43. In validity of measurement scales, validity can be measured through several methods
like
A. Content
B. Criterion
 C. Construct
D. All of the above

Q 44. The test of reliability is an important test of sound measurement. The methods to
evaluate reliability of scales are:
A. Convergent
B. Delegating measurement strategies
C. Split-Halves Method
D. None of the above

Q45. The criteria for good scale is developed by

A. Reliability
B. Practicability
C. Sensitivity
D. All of the above

Q 46. The main problem in questionnaire is

A. Accessible to Diverse Respondent
B. Greater Anonymity
C. Shows an inability of respondent to provide information
D. None of these

Q 47. What are the two types of sampling methods?

A. Random or probability sampling and non-probability sampling
B. Probability sampling and random sampling
C. Probability sampling and non-random sampling
D. All of the above

Q 48. A good sampling frame must be

A. Relevant
B. Complete
 C. Precise
D. All of the above

Q 49. In case the population has a normal distribution, then the sampling distribution of the
mean
A. Has a mean equal to the population mean
B. Has normal distribution
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

Q 50. The process of selecting a number of participants for a study in such a way that they
represent the larger group from which they were selected is known as
A. Research Design
B. Sampling
C. Data collection
D. Random assignment

Q 51. If the population proportion equals po Z Test = (x̄ – μ) / (σ / √n), then is distributed:
A. As a standard normal variable, if n > 30
B. As a Poisson variable
C. As the t-distribution with v= n 1 degrees of freedom
D. As a distribution with v degrees of freedom

Q 52. The degree of freedom for paired t-test based on n pairs of observations is:
A. 2n - 1
B. n-2
C. 2(n - 1)
D. n–1

Q 53. In which Graphical Representation, way of preparing a two-dimensional diagram is in

the form of circles?
A. Pie Chart
 B. Histogram
C. Candle Stick
D. None of the above

Q 54. Which is not type of test of significance for small sample ?

A. t- test
B. z-test
C. F-test
D. Q-test

Q 55. Which test is the part of the parametric test?

A. Sign Test
B. Run Test for Randomness
C. Kruskal-Willis Test
D. z-test

Q 56. A group of observations is the quotient obtained by dividing the sum of all the
observations by their number, is called
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. None of these

Q 57. The assumption of normal distribution for the variable under consideration or some
assumption for a parametric test is not valid or is doubtful then we use
A. Parametric Test
B. Non-Parametric Test
C. Both Parametric Test and Non-Parametric Test
D. All of the above

Q 58. What is abbreviation of ANOVA?

 A. Analysis of variance
B. Analysis of variation
C. Analysis of variant
D. None of these

Q 59. When an investigator uses the data which has already been collected by others, such
data is called _______________ _________.
A. Primary data
B. Collected data
C. Processed data
D. Secondary data
Q 60. Student’s t-test is applicable only when:
A. n≤30 and σ is known
B. n>30 and σ is unknown
C. n=30 and σ is known
D. All of the above

Answer Key of Unit III

1 A 11 B 21 B 31 C 41 A 51 A
2 C 12 B 22 D 32 C 42 D 52 D
3 A 13 C 23 C 33 B 43 D 53 A
4 A 14 D 24 B 34 A 44 C 54 D
5 A 15 B 25 B 35 A 45 D 55 D
6 A 16 D 26 A 36 B 46 C 56 A
7 C 17 A 27 D 37 C 47 A 57 B
8 C 18 D 28 C 38 A 48 D 58 A
9 B 19 D 29 B 39 B 49 C 59 D
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 A 50 B 60 A

Unit IV
Q 1. SPSS is an acronym of the following?
A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences.
B. Sexual Preferences for the Sixties and Seventies.
C. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences.
D. Sexual Performance and SAD Syndrome.

Q 2. What are the core elements of a dissertation?

A. Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations
B. Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions;
Bibliography
C. Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
D. Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussions
and Conclusions

Q 3. Final stage in the Research Process is

A. Problem formulation
B. Data collection
C. Data Analysis
D. Report Writing

Q 4. A Research Report is a formal statement of ……………….

A. Research Process
B. Research Problem
C. Data collection
D. Data Editing

Q 5. A comprehensive full Report of the research process is called

A. Thesis
B. Summary Report
C. Abstract
D. Article
Q 6. The Report submitted when there is a time lag between data collection and
presentation of Result is called
A. Thesis
B. Interim Report
C. Summary Report
D. Article

Q7. The Report submitted when there is a time lag between data collection and
presentation of Result is called
A. Thesis
B. Interim Report
C. Summary Report
D. Article

Q 8. A short summary of Technical Report is called

A. Article
B. Research Abstract
C. Publication
D. Guide

Q 9. The first page of the research report is

A. Appendix
B. Bibliography
C. Index
D. Title Page

Q 10. Facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as bases for a study is called
A. Sample
 B. Method
C. Data
D. Theory

Q 11. ………… is the raw materials for Analysis

A. Variables
B. Problem
C. Data
D. Sample

Q 12. Which ONE of these techniques is most likely to be used in quantitative analysis?
A. Multivariate analysis
B. Sound-tape recordings
C. Transcripts
D. Videos

Q 13. Demographics are also known as:

A. Classifiers.
B. Social class.
C. Socio-economic groupings.
D. Something other than the options given.
Q 14. The chi-square test is:
A. A mean
B. A multi-question tests.
C. A statistical mistake.
D. A statistic
Q 15. The most undesirable outcome of poor reporting is:
A. A decision to go ahead
B. A decision not to proceed
C. Indecision
D. Good decisions
Q 16. Which section of a report is intended to be self-contained and to highlight the key
aspects of the entire project?
A. Appendices
B. Executive summary
C. Method
D. Research costs
Q 17. Which ONE of the following is the biggest disadvantage of PowerPoint?
A. High cost
B. Images overused
C. Slow
D. Difficult to use
Q 18. Testing the probability of a relationship between variables occurring by chance alone if
there really was no difference in the population from which that sample was drawn is
known as_____________
A. Correlation coefficients.
B. Multiple regression analysis.
C. Chi-squared tests.
D. Significance testing.

Q 19. ANOVA is_______________

A. A government body which collects social statistics.
B. The name of a statistical software package.
C. A one-way analysis of variance.
D. A two-way analysis of variance.

Q 20. A correlation coefficient enables you to_____________

A. Quantify the strength of the linear relationship between two ranked or
quantifiable variables.
B. Establish whether the data is telling you what you think it should tell you.
C. Measure the difference between two variables.
D. Assess whether two variables measure the same phenomenon.

Q 21. The coefficient of determination (sometimes known as the regression coefficient

enables you to______________
 A. Measure the difference between two variables.
B. Establish whether the data is telling you what you think it should tell you.
C. Assess the strength of relationship between a quantifiable dependent variable and
one or more quantifiable independent variables.
D. Assess whether two variables measure the same phenomenon.

Q 22. _____________ is a type of graph

A. Pie.
B. Scatter.
C. Box.
D. Bar.

Q 23. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of the first author
is cited followed by et al.
A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q 24. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.
A. Italics

B. Abbreviations

C. Headings

D. Both a and b

Q 25. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?
A. Results
B. Abstract
C. Method
D. Footnotes
Q 26. Parametric and non-parametric are:
 A. terms used in medical practice.

B. two main groups of statistical significance tests.

C. alternatives to standard deviation tests.

D. general tests of statistical relevance.

Q 27. Good research reports will always:

A. focus on the Harvard style.

B. provide results that may be irrelevant.

C. focus on addressing the research objectives.

D. provide respondent names and addresses.

Q 28. Which report section is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the
research question?

A. Appendices.

B. Results.

C. Method.

D. Objectives.

Q 29. Under what circumstances would you use a non- parametric test?

A. In a pilot study.

B. When your data does not meet the assumptions for a parametric test.

C. When you think your sample size is too big.

D. When you do not really understand a parametric test.

Q 30. Which of the following statement is not true?

A. A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project

B. A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of successfully

conducting the proposed research project
 C. A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project

D. A research proposal is just like a research report and written before the
research project

Q 31. The p value in a hypothesis test is

A. probability of rejecting the null hypothesis

B. Probability of accepting the null hypothesis

C. Probability of observing the test statistic value when the null hypothesis is true

D. Probability of observing the test statistic value when the null hypothesis is
false

Q 32. For what is the ‘variable view’ in IBM SPSS’s data editor used?

A. Entering data.

B. Writing syntax.

C. Viewing output from data analysis.

D. Defining characteristics of variables.

Q 33. What is the advantage of using SPSS over calculating statistics by hand?

A. This is how most quantitative data analysis is done in "real research"

nowadays

B. It reduces the chance of making errors in your calculations

C. It equips you with a useful transferable skill

D. All of the above

Q 34. In SPSS, what is the "Data Viewer"?

A. A table summarizing the frequencies of data for one variable

 B. A spreadsheet into which data can be entered

C. A dialog box that allows you to choose a statistical test

D. A screen in which variables can be defined and labeled

Q 35. How is a variable name different from a variable label?

A. It is shorter and less detailed

B. It is longer and more detailed

C. It is abstract and unspecific

D. It refers to codes rather than variables

Q 36. How would you use the drop-down menus in SPSS to generate a frequency table?

A. Open the Output Viewer and click: Save As; Pie Chart

B. Click on: Analyze; Descriptive Statistics; Frequencies

C. Click on: Graphs; Frequencies; Pearson

D. Open the Variable Viewer and recode the value labels

Q 37. How would you print a bar chart that you have just produced in SPSS?

A. In Output Viewer, click File, Print, select the bar chart and click OK

B. In Variable Viewer, open bar chart, click File, Print, OK

C. In Chart Editor, click Descriptive Statistics, Print, OK

D. In Data Editor, open Graphs dialog box, click Save, OK

Q 38. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called ?

A. Column

B. Value

C. Address

D. Cell
Q 39. What type of chart is useful for comparing values over categories?

A. Pie Chart

B. Column Chart

C. Line Chart

D. Dot Graph

Q 40. Which function in Excel tells how many numeric entries are there?

A. NUM

B. COUNT

C. SUM

D. CHKNUM

Q 41. A feature that displays only the data in column (s) according to specified criteria

A. Formula

B. Sorting

C. Filtering

D. Pivot

Q 42. Statistical calculations and preparation of tables and graphs can be done using

A. Adobe Photoshop

B. Excel

C. Notepad

D. Power Point

Q 43. What type of chart will you use to compare performance of two employees in the year
2020?

A. Column Chart
 B. Line Chart

C. Pie Chart

D. Dot Chart

Q 44. Which one is not a Function in MS Excel?

A. SUM

B. AVG

C. MAX

D. MIN

Q 45. Functions in MS Excel must begin with ___

A. An () sign

B. An Equal Sign

C. A Plus Sign

D. A > Sign

Q 46. In Excel, Columns are labelled as ___

A. A, B, C, etc
B. 1,2,3 etc
C. A1, A2, etc.
D. $A$1, $A$2, etc.

Q 47. In the Data View in the SPSS Data Editor, each row represents what?
A. A case.
B. A data point.
C. A missing value.
D. A variable.
Q 48. In the Data View in the SPSS Data Editor, each column represents what?
A. A case.
B. A data point.
C. A missing value.
D. A variable.

Q 49. In the Variable View in the SPSS Data Editor, each row represents what?

A. A case.

B. A data point.

c. A missing value.

D. A variable.

Q 50. Which of the following is true about the names of variables in SPSS?

A. They cannot contain spaces.

B. They cannot begin with a numeral.

C. They cannot contain any special characters.

D. All of these choices are true.

Q 51. SPSS uses the term 'Scale' to refer to:

A. Categorical data.

B. Both nominal and ordinal level data.

C. Both interval and ratio level data.

D. All of these choices

Q 52. The process of arranging the items of a column in some sequence or order is known as :

A. Arranging

B. Autofill
 C. Sorting

D. Filtering

Q 53. The ____ feature of MS Excel quickly completes a series of data

A. Auto Complete

B. Auto Fill

C. Fill Handle

D. Sorting

Q 54. In Excel, Rows are labelled as ______

A. A, B, C, etc

B. 1,2,3 etc

C. A1, A2, etc.

D. $A$1, $A$2, etc.

Q 55. How many sheets are there, by default, when we create a new Excel file?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 10

Q 56. In Excel, which one denoted a range from B1 through E5

A. B1 - E5

B. B1:E5

C. B1 to E5

D. B1$E5
 Q 57. An Excel file is generally called a / an:

A. E-Spreadsheet

B. Worksheet

C. Workbook

D. Sheet

Q 58. What type of chart will you use to compare performance of sales of two products?

A. Column Chart

B. Line Chart

C. Pie Chart

D. Both A and B

Q 59. What type of chart is useful for showing trends or changes over time?

A. Pie Chart

B. Column Chart

C. Line Chart

D. Dot Graph

Q 60. Which of the following statements about ordinal data is true?

A. There are equal intervals between points on an ordinal scale.

B. Ordinal is a synonym for 'continuous'.

C. There is always an absolute zero on an ordinal scale.

D. Ordinal data have magnitude.

Answer Key of Unit IV

1 C 11 C 21 C 31 A 41 C 51 C
2 D 12 A 22 D 32 D 42 B 52 C
3 D 13 A 23 A 33 C 43 B 53 B
4 A 14 D 24 D 34 B 44 B 54 B
5 A 15 C 25 D 35 A 45 B 55 B
6 B 16 B 26 B 36 B 46 A 56 B
7 B 17 B 27 C 37 A 47 A 57 C
8 B 18 D 28 D 38 D 48 D 58 A
9 D 19 C 29 B 39 B 49 D 59 C
10 C 20 A 30 C 40 B 50 D 60 D