1. What serves as the main processing center for the entire nervous system?

a. Peripheral Nervous System c. Somatic Nervous System

b. Central Nervous System d. Sympathetic Nervous System
2. The following are parts of the brain EXCEPT:
a. Brain Stem c. Spinal Cord
b. Cerebrum d. Cerebellum
3. What part is responsible in regulating the temperature and responsible for emotions?
a. Pons c. Medulla Oblongata
b. Hypothalamus d. Cerebellum
4. What system maintains body functions and restores the body to normal or relaxed mode?
a. Sympathetic c. Parasympathetic
b. Cranial d. Spinal
5. The part of the neuron that carry impulses towards the cell body is _______________.
a. Dendrites c. Soma
b. Axons d. Synapse
6. Any factor in the environment that may trigger a nerve impulse is called _____________.
a. Stimulus c. Response
b. Axons d. Synapse
7. You touched a hot object. What neuron will send the information to the brain?
a. Motor Neurons c. Spinal Neuron
b. Sensory Neuron d. Cranial Neuron
8. You saw your crush. The brain commands the cheeks to blush. What will transmit the impulse from the brain
to muscles, glands, or other neurons?
a. Motor Neurons c. Spinal Neuron
b. Sensory Neuron d. Cranial Neuron
9. The following are true about endocrine system EXCEPT:
a. The endocrine system controls and regulates body processes.
b. The endocrine system is essential in regulating growth and development, as well as reproductive
processes and mood.
c. The endocrine system is in control of the mechanisms in the body that rapidly take place.
d. The endocrine system is composed of glands that secrete different types of hormones.
10. What gland prepares the body for action, controls the heart rate and breathing in times of emergency?
a. Thymus c. Testes
b. Pancreas d. Adrenal
11. The hormone/s released in the ovaries is/are:
I. Androgen
II. Testosterone
III. Estrogen
IV. Progesterone
a. I only b. II & III only c. III & IV only d. I,II, III, and IV
12. When you are sick, what particular gland is involved?
a. Pituitary c. Parathyroid
b. Thyroid d. Thymus
13. If a person’s blood sugar level becomes unstable, what gland might be involved in the problem?
a. Thymus c. Testes
b. Pancreas d. Adrenal
14. The abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland due to too much or too little amount of secreted hormone is
called ________________.
a. Dwarfism c. Gigantism
b. Goiter d. Osteoporosis
15. Which of the following is NOT true about the functions of the parts of male reproductive system?
a. Testis produces sperm cells.
b. Scrotum is a sac of skin that holds the testis.
c. Penis deposits sperms into the vagina during mating.
d. Vas deferens carries sperm and urine out of the body.
16. What are the functions of the female reproductive system?
I. Produces female sex cells.
II. Receives sperm cells from the male.
III. Nurtures the development of and provides nourishment for the new individual
a. I & II only b. II & III only c. I & III only d. I, II, and III
17. What part of the female reproductive system does the fertilized egg develop?
a. Ovary c. Fallopian Tube
b. Uterus d. Vagina
18. The following statement are true EXCEPT:
a. Hormones play an important role in both male and female reproductive systems.
b. The parathyroid gland controls the functions of both the testes and the ovaries.
 c. Hormones control many of the changes in the reproductive system.
d. The production of sperm cells and the release of semen can be regulated by hormones.
19. The process through which the level of one substance influences the level of another substance is called
____________.
a. Menstrual cycle c. Feedback Mechanism
b. Homeostasis d. Hormone Inhibitor
20. What is the term for a heritable change in genetic information?
a. Mutation c. Meiosis
b. Mitosis d. Apoptosis
21. All of the following are true of RNA except:
a. RNA can leave the nucleus c. RNA is a single strand
b. RNA contains uracil in place of thiamine d. RNA and DNA have the same 5-C sugar
22. The three nitrogenous bases carried by tRNA is called
a. Codon c. Code
b. Anticodon d. Genes
23. When a particular individual has three chromosomes of a particular type, this chromosomal aberration is
called
a. Monosony c. Trisomy
b. Duplication d. Inversion
24. Where can most of the fossils be found?
a. Sedimentary rock c. Lava flows
b. Granite rock d. Black soil
25. Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe evolution?
a. Evolution is continuous. c. The world is stable and unchanging.
b. Evolution refers to change. d. If there is mutation, there is evolution.
26. Which pair of animals show a correct example of homologous structures?
a. Wings of butterfly and bat. c. Fingers of human and arm of starfish
b. Flipper of whale and forelimb of cat. d. Tongue of frog and proboscis of mosquito.
27. In what era can the oldest fossil be found?
a. Cenozoic c. Paleozoic
b. Mesozoic d. Pre-Cambrian
28. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
a. Organs that are not used may disappear while organs that are constantly used may develop.
b. In nature, the organisms with desirable characteristics may survive while those with weaker traits may not.
c. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
d. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offsprings.
29. Which of the following statement explains Lamarck’s Theory of Use and Disuse?
a. Body structures develop because they are used extensively.
b. Body structures develop because they are not in use
c. Body structures develop because of competition
d. Body structures develop because of mutation
30.Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?
a. To give way for other organisms to progress
develop c. To know who is the fittest
b. To let other organisms evolve and d. All of the above
For questions 31-33. The following is the base sequence on one strand of a DNA molecule:
AAT GCC AGT GGT
31. If this strand is replicated, which of the following is the complementary strand that is produced?

A. AGC AGG CAG GGT B. TCG TCC GTC TAG C. UCG UCC UCU AGA D. TTA CGG TCA CCA

32. If transcribed into an mRNA, what would be the resulting strand?

A. AGC AGG AGA TCA B. UUA CGG UCA CCA C. TCG TCC GTC TAG D. AGC AGG CAG AUC

33. During translation, the tRNA sequence of nucleotides arranged linearly is ______________.

A. TCG TCC GTC TAG B. UCG UCC GUC UAG C. AAU GCC AGU GGU D. AGC AGG CAG AUC

34. A dendrite conducts nerve impulses ________ the cell body.

A. away from B. toward C. around, bypassing D. both toward and away from
35. An axon conducts nerve impulses _________ the cell body.

A. away from B. toward C. around, bypassing D. both toward and away from

36. What are the main divisions of the nervous system?

A. the sensory system and the motor system C. the peripheral nervous system and central nervous system
B. the dendritic and the axonal systems D. the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

37. The peripheral nervous system includes the nerves, which are neurons with cell bodies that occur in the
________.

A. sympathetic nervous system C. brain, spinal cord, or in ganglia

B. motor system D. autonomic system

38. A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system take nerve impulses from sensory receptors to the
________ .

A. motor neurons B. interneurons C. autonomic nervous system D. central nervous system

39. Which of the following is not an effect of a mutation?

A. prevents a protein from forming C. lowers the amount of a protein

B. adds a function to a protein D. any of the above can occur
40. Two healthy people have a child expressing a genetic condition caused by a dominant allele. What can you
conclude about this situation?

A. infidelity- one parent had to contribute the disease allele

B. the parents are not free from the disorder- one must be affected
C. the mutation arose spontaneously in the child
D. the child is not the biological child of the couple described

41. What is a point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid into a stop codon?

A. missense mutation B. nonsense mutation C. frameshift mutation D. deletion mutation.

42. What kind of mutation will occur upon changing the codon AGC to AGA?

A. missense mutation B. nonsense mutation C. frameshift mutation D. deletion mutation.

43. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary relationships?

A. They have varied and different ancestry.

B. They possess same vestigial structure that made their evolutionary relationship closer.
C. They have a common ancestor and have the same kind of proteins.
D. They have similar patterns during their early stages of development.

44. Which is a more definite characteristic to show relatedness of two organisms?

A. Similarity in development C. Similarity in structure

B. Similarity in genomic DNA D. Similarity in courting behavior

45. Which of the following statements DOES NOT show the process of adaptation?

A. Dying out of dinosaurs during Cretaceous period.

B. Certain group of birds eating different kinds of food.
C. The finches in Galapagos with different beaks.
D. A child learning to walk on his own.

46. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?

A. To know who is the fittest. C. To give way for other organisms to develop.
B. To let other organisms, evolve & progress D. All of these

47. Which of the following causes a decreasing wildlife population in most of the places in our country?
A. Loss of limiting factor C. loss of habitat
 B. Loss of natural disturbances D. loss of carrying capacity

48. Which of the two protists is better adapted to competition?

A. P. aurelia B. both of them C. P. caudatum D. none of them

49. A person breeds guinea pigs in a cage. After a few generations, the breeder observes that the guinea pigs are
more aggressive towards each other, the young are less healthy and more young guinea pigs die. What do you
think will happen to the population of the guinea pigs?
A. The population will remain the same. C. The population will decrease.
B. The population will increase. D. The population is not affected.

50. Davao is known for its wide variety of fruits and other plant species that makes it more attractive to tourists. Which
of the following classification of value of biodiversity is described?
A. Direct economic value B. Indirect economic value C. Ethical/cultural D. Both a and c
II. Matching Type. Match each gland in Column A with its corresponding function in Column B.

A B

51. Thymus A. Stimulates growth, and controls the function of other gland

52. Pancreas B. Controls the calcium levels in your body, and normalizes bone growth

53. Thyroid C. Regulates body metabolism, and causes storage of calcium in bones

54. Testis D. Enables the body to produce certain antibodies

55. Adrenal E. Prepares the body for action, and controls the heart rate and breathing in

56. Parathyroid times of emergency

57. Pineal F. Controls maturation and male characteristics

58. Hypothalamus G. Regulates blood sugar levels

59. Ovaries H. Influence female traits and support reproductive function

60.Pituitary I. Produces melatonin, which helps maintain circadian rhythm and regulate
reproductive hormone

J. Link the nervous system to the endocrine system

III. Sequencing. Give the sequence of the following steps involving DNA Replication, Transcription, Translation and
Protein Synthesis. Use numbers to indicate the sequencing of events in a given process.

DNA Replication (write a,b,c,d)

_____61. The bases attached to each strand then pair up with the free nucleotides found in the cytoplasm.
_____62. An enzyme called helicase breaks the bond between nitrogenous bases. The two strands of DNA splits.
_____63. Two new DNA molecules, each with a parent strand and each with a new strand are formed.
_____64. The complementary nucleotides are added to each strand by DNA polymerase to form new strands.

Transcription (write a,b,c)

_____65. As the DNA molecule opens, the RNA polymerase slides along the DNA strand and links free RNA
nucleotides that pair with the nitrogenous bases of the complementary DNA strand.
_____66. When the process of base-pairing is completed, the RNA molecule breaks away as the DNA strands rejoin.
The RNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the cytoplasm.
_____67. Ribonucleic Acid polymerase enzyme binds and opens the DNA molecule that will be transcribed.

Translation (write a,b,c,d,e,f,g)

_____68. When the first and second amino acids are in place, an enzyme joins them by forming a peptide bond
between them.
_____69. A new tRNA molecule carrying an amino acid pairs with the second mRNA codon.
_____70. As the process continues, a chain of amino acids is formed until the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the
mRNA strand. The polypeptide chain is released.
_____71. The mRNA binds to a ribosome. Then, tRNA molecules, each carrying a specific amino acid, approach the
ribosome.
_____72. The tRNA anticodon pairs with the first mRNA (start) codon, to form the initiation complex. The two
molecules temporarily join together.
_____73. Usually, the first codon on mRNA is AUG, which codes for the amino acid which signals the start of protein
synthesis.
_____74. Then, the ribosome slides along the mRNA to the next codon.

Protein Synthesis (write a,b,c,d,e,f)

_____75. Transcription _____77. Stop codon encountered in mRNA

_____78. tRNA – amino acid units link to mRNA _____79. Polypeptide chain assembled
_____76. Amino acid separate from tRNA _____80. mRNA links to ribosome

IV. Given the list of amino acids, determine the sequence of bases in the codon of the mRNA that codes for these
amino acids. Use the Genetic Code table below.

81. Methionine 86. Asparagine

82. Arginine 87. Threonine
83. Leucine 88. Glutamic Acid
84. Valine 89. Cysteine
85. Glycine 90. Histidine