Module 2 Physics - With Answers

EASA
Part 66 : Physics Question
Module 02. Physics
505 questions
Contenido
1. Matter. ................................................................................................................................................................. 3
2.1. Mechanics – Statics. ....................................................................................................................................... 10
2.2. Mechanics – Kinetics. ..................................................................................................................................... 18
2.3a. Mechanics – Dynamics. ................................................................................................................................ 25
2.3b. Mechanics – Dynamics. ................................................................................................................................ 29
2.4a. Mechanics ‐ Fluid Dynamics. ........................................................................................................................ 30
2.4b. Mechanics ‐ Fluid Dynamics. ........................................................................................................................ 33
3a. Thermodynamics. ............................................................................................................................................ 34
3b. Thermodynamics. ............................................................................................................................................ 38
4. Optics (Light). ..................................................................................................................................................... 44
5. Wave Motion and Sound. .................................................................................................................................. 52
6. ............................................................................................................................................................................ 55

Page intentionally left blank

Module 02. Physics Pag. 3
1. Matter. Question Number 6.

An atom with 5 free electrons is said to be.
Question Number 1.
Option A. pentavalet.
An atom with 3 free electrons in its outer shell is said to
Option B. covalent.
be.
Option C. trivalent.
Option A. pentavalent.
Correct Answer is. trivalent.
Option B. covalent.
Option C. trivalent. Explanation. The valency is the number of electrons
in the outer shell if that number is 4 or less. If there are
more than 4 electrons, the valency is 8 minus the number
Explanation. Number of electrons in the outer shell is of electrons. In this case 8 -5 = 3 = trivalent.
called the valency - 1 = monovalent, 2 = divalent, 3 =
trivalent etc. Question Number 7.
An atom consists of.
Question Number 2.
Option A. protons, neutron and electrons.
What is the mass number of an element?.
Option B. protons and electrons.
Option A. Number of electrons and protons. Option C. protons and neutrons.
Option B. Number of neutrons and protons.
Correct Answer is. protons, neutron and electrons.
Option C. Number of electrons and neutrons.
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. Number of neutrons and protons.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number 8.
The maximum number of electrons in the inner shell of an
Question Number 3.
atom is.
What do you get when you add 2H2 and O?.
Option A. 8.
Option A. H2 O. Option B. 2.
Option B. 2H2 O. Option C. 4.
Option C. 2H2 O2 .
Correct Answer is. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2H2 O.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Water is molecules each made up of 2
hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom. Here ther is 4 Question Number 9.
hydrogen atoms, and 2 oxygen atoms, so we can make 2 The mass of a proton equals the mass of a.
water molecules. Option A. neutron.
Question Number 4. Option B. beta particle.
Option C. electron.
The splitting of a chemical compound is called.
Correct Answer is. neutron.
Option A. bombardment.
Option B. synthesis. Explanation. Mass of a proton = mass of a neutron
Option C. analysis. (well, very nearly).
Correct Answer is. analysis. Question Number 10.
Explanation. NIL. Catalysts.
Question Number 5. Option A. speed up reactions.
Option B. speed up and slow down reactions.
What is the atomic number of an element?.
Option C. slow down reactions.
Option A. The number of neutrons in the atom.
Correct Answer is. speed up reactions.
Option B. The number of electrons in the atom.
Option C. The number of protons in the atom. Explanation. A catalyst speeds up reactions, an
inhibitor slows down reaction.
Correct Answer is. The number of protons in the atom.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atomic_number If the outer shell of an atom is full the the element is.
Option A. unstable / reactive.
Option B. a good conductor.
Option C. practically inert.
Correct Answer is. practically inert.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 12. Question Number 17.

Molecules of the same compound are held together by. The smallest part of an element is.
Option A. cohesive forces. Option A. a compound.
Option B. adhesive forces. Option B. an atom.
Option C. gravitational forces. Option C. a molecule.
Correct Answer is. cohesive forces. Correct Answer is. an atom.
Explanation. Cohesion is the property that causes like Explanation. NIL.
substances to cling together (eg water molecules, forming
Question Number 18.
raindrops). Adhesion is the property that causes unlike
substances to stick together (eg the raindrops stick on a The nucleus of an atom contains.
washing line). Option A. protons and electrons.
Option B. protons and neutrons.
Question Number 13.
Option C. electrons and neutrons.
Oxygen has a valency of.
Correct Answer is. protons and neutrons.
Option A. 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 6.
Option C. 8. Question Number 19.
Correct Answer is. 2. What is atomic mass?.
Explanation. Oxygen has 6 electrons in its outer Option A. Number of neutrons.
shell. The valency is the number of electrons in the outer Option B. Number of protons plus the number of
shell if that number is 4 or less. If there are more than 4 neutrons.
electrons, the valency is 8 minus the number of electrons. Option C. Number of protons.
In this case 8 - 6 = 2. Correct Answer is. Number of protons plus the number
Question Number 14. of neutrons.
The further from the nucleus the shells are in an atom. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. the shells retain the same spacing from each Question Number 20.
other. A solid melted into a liquid will take up.
Option B. the closer the shells get to each other.
Option A. less space.
Option C. the further the shells get from each other.
Option B. the same amount of space.
Correct Answer is. the further the shells get from each Option C. more space.
other.
Correct Answer is. less space.
Explanation. The gap between the 'energy levels'
Explanation. When a solid melts, its volume
reduces, but the physical gap increases slightly.
decreases - and then begins to increase again as the
http://www.1stardrive.com/solar/chem.htm
temperature of the liquid rises.
Question Number 15.
Question Number 21.
What determines an element's identity?.
What form of heat is used to turn a solid into a liquid?.
Option A. The number of neutrons.
Option A. specific heat.
Option B. The number of electrons.
Option B. coefficient of heat.
Option C. The number of protons.
Option C. heat of fusion.
Correct Answer is. The number of protons.
Correct Answer is. heat of fusion.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Fusion' is another term for melting (as
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atomic_number
in fusion welding).
Question Number 16.
Question Number 22.
An isotope of an element will have more/less _________
Change from solid to gas state without going through
than usual.
liquid state is called.
Option A. electrons.
Option A. transformation.
Option B. neutrons.
Option B. sublimation.
Option C. protons.
Option C. state leap.
Correct Answer is. neutrons.
Correct Answer is. sublimation.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Sublimation is when a solid vapourises
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isotope
without first melting.
Question Number 23. Correct Answer is. compound.

What is the smallest particle of matter that can exist in Explanation. A compound is a substance formed by
nature?. chemical reaction between 2 or more elements. A mixture
Option A. A molecule. could be 2 or more compounds. A tenuous question.
Option B. An isotope. Question Number 29.
Option C. An atom.
The number of protons in an atom is equal to the number
Correct Answer is. An atom. of.
Explanation. An atom is the smallest particle of Option A. electrons.
matter that can exist in nature. Option B. neutrons.
Question Number 24. Option C. mass number.
A positive ion. Correct Answer is. electrons.
Option A. has extra electrons. Explanation. No. of protons = No. of electrons, or it is
Option B. has missing electrons. not an atom.
Option C. is a radioactive isotope. Question Number 30.
Correct Answer is. has missing electrons. The charge of an electron is.
Explanation. A positive ion is an atom with missing Option A. neutral.
electrons. Option B. negative.
Question Number 25. Option C. positive.
The isotope of a carbon atom C14 to C12 will have. Correct Answer is. negative.
Option A. same numbers of neutrons. Explanation. Electrons are negative.
Option B. same numbers of protons. Question Number 31.
Option C. same number of electrons.
A valance electron is an electron.
Correct Answer is. same numbers of protons.
Option A. in the innermost shell.
Explanation. An isotope is an atom with the same Option B. in the outermost shell.
atomic number but different mass number. Atomic Option C. which is not within an atom.
number is the number of protons. Mass number is the
Correct Answer is. in the outermost shell.
number of protons plus neutrons. Note: the number of
electrons can differ from one atom to another (making Explanation. The outer shell is the valence shell.
ions). Question Number 32.
Question Number 26. Molecules of unlike atoms are combined by their.
If an atom has 2 protons, how many electrons will it Option A. adhesive force.
have?. Option B. magnetic force.
Option A. 1. Option C. cohesive force.
Option B. 8. Correct Answer is. adhesive force.
Option C. 2. Explanation. Cohesion is the property that causes like
Correct Answer is. 2. substances to cling together (eg water molecules, forming
Explanation. Since it is an 'atom' (and not an ion) it raindrops - from 'cohesion' meaning to stick together).
has the same number of electrons as protons. Adhesion is the property that causes unlike substances to
stick together (eg the raindrops stick, or 'adhere to' a
Question Number 27. washing line).
A molecule with like atoms is said to be a.
Question Number 33.
Option A. neutroid.
What is the difference between hydrogen, deuterium and
Option B. compound.
tritium?.
Option C. element.
Option A. The number of electrons.
Correct Answer is. element.
Option B. The number of protons.
Explanation. If only one type of atom is involved, it is Option C. The number of neutrons.
an element.
Correct Answer is. The number of neutrons.
Question Number 28. Explanation. There are three isotopes of the element
Two elements in the same substance is said to be a. hydrogen: hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium. They each
Option A. mixture. have one single proton (Z=1), but differ in the number of
Option B. element. their neutrons. Hydrogen has no neutron, deuterium has
Option C. compound. one, and tritium has two neutrons.
Question Number 34. Correct Answer is. 8.

The smallest material in the universe is. Explanation. Try the formula '2n-squared', where 'n'
Option A. an ion. is the shell number. In this case 2 * (2 * 2) = 8.
Option B. helium. Question Number 40.
Option C. hydrogen.
What does an oxygen atom consist of?.
Correct Answer is. hydrogen.
Option A. Protons, neutrons and electrons.
Explanation. Hydrogen is the smallest known Option B. Protons and electrons.
element, having just 1 electron and 1 proton and no Option C. Protons and neutrons.
neutrons.
Correct Answer is. Protons, neutrons and electrons.
Question Number 35. Explanation. All atoms have protons, neutrons and
What is the atomic number of the element shown here?. electrons (except hydrogen, which has no neutrons).
Option A. 7. Question Number 41.
Option B. 3.
Surface molecular attraction between two different
Option C. 4.
molecules is.
Option A. adhesive.
Explanation. The atomic number is the number of Option B. gravitational.
protons and is always the smallest number (and yes, the Option C. cohesive.
element shown is not possible).
Correct Answer is. adhesive.
Question Number 36. Explanation. Cohesion is the property that causes like
What is the mass number of the element shown here?. substances to cling together (e.g. water molecules,
Option A. 4. forming raindrops - from 'cohesion' meaning to stick
Option B. 5. together). Adhesion is the property that causes unlike
Option C. 9. substances to stick together (e.g. the raindrops stick, or
'adhere to' a washing line).
Explanation. The mass number is the number of Question Number 42.
protons + the number of neutrons and is always the The atomic mass number is the number of.
biggest of the 2 numbers. Option A. protons plus electrons.
Question Number 37. Option B. neutrons plus electrons.
Option C. protons plus neutrons.
There are solids, liquids and gases present in the universe
and every unit of theirs occupy some space. This is called. Correct Answer is. protons plus neutrons.
Option A. matter. Explanation. Mass Number is the number of protons
Option B. compound. + neutrons.
Option C. mass. Question Number 43.
Correct Answer is. matter. A catalyst in a chemical reaction does what?.
Explanation. All material in space is known as Option A. Can either speed it up or slow it down.
matter. (All matter 'has' mass, but that is not what the Option B. Speeds it up.
question asks - what is it known as, not, what does it Option C. Slows it down.
have).
Correct Answer is. Speeds it up.
Question Number 38. Explanation. Official definition of 'catalyst': A
An atom deficient of a valency electron is deficient. substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction by
Option A. of an electron in the outer shell. reducing the activation energy, but which is left
Option B. of a neutron in the outer shell. unchanged by the reaction.
Option C. of an electron in the inner shell. Question Number 44.
Correct Answer is. of an electron in the outer shell. What is the number of electrons in the inner-most shell of
Explanation. The valency electrons are in the outer an atom?.
shell. Option A. 4.
Question Number 39. Option B. 8.
Option C. 2.
The maximum number of electrons in the second shell is.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 8. Explanation. The inner shell of an atom has 2
Option C. 2. electrons.

What form of heat is used to turn a solid into a gas?. Protons have.
Option A. Sensible heat. Option A. no charge.
Option B. Specific heat. Option B. positive charge.
Option C. Latent heat. Option C. negative charge.
Correct Answer is. Latent heat. Correct Answer is. positive charge.
Explanation. To change any state, the heat required is Explanation. Protons are positively charged.
called 'latent heat'.
Question Number 52.
Question Number 46. Producing a compound from commonly available
The heat required to change a liquid to a gas at constant materials is.
temperature is the heat of. Option A. synthesis.
Option A. fusion. Option B. analysis.
Option B. condensation. Option C. bombardment.
Option C. vaporisation. Correct Answer is. synthesis.
Correct Answer is. vaporisation. Explanation. Making a compound is called synthesis,
Explanation. The heat required to turn a liquid into a breaking it apart is called analysis.
gas (vaporise) is called the 'latent heat of vaporisation'.
Question Number 53.
Question Number 47. A different number of nucleons in the nucleus of atoms
An atom with a full outer shell is. would represent.
Option A. practically inert. Option A. semiconductor.
Option B. a good insulator. Option B. isotopes.
Option C. a good conductor. Option C. isotones.
Correct Answer is. practically inert. Correct Answer is. isotopes.
Explanation. An atom with a full outer shell is Explanation. An Isotope is an element with a 'wrong'
practically inert. number of neutrons.
An element with a full valence shell is. Molecules of matter are in constant motion. The amount
Option A. very reactive. of vibration or motion is dependent on.
Option B. good conductor. Option A. temperature.
Option C. inert. Option B. volume.
Correct Answer is. inert. Option C. pressure.
Explanation. An element with a full valence shell is Correct Answer is. temperature.
inert. Explanation. Temperature produces molecular
motion.
Question Number 49.
A substance of two or more different atoms is. Question Number 55.
Option A. a neutrino. When a chemical change takes place, the smallest particle
Option B. an isotope. indivisible in an element is called.
Option C. a chemical compound. Option A. an atom.
Correct Answer is. a chemical compound. Option B. an electron.
Option C. a neutron.
Explanation. A compound is two or more different
atoms. Correct Answer is. an atom.
Explanation. An atom is the smallest particle in an
Question Number 50.
element. Particles smaller than that (neutrons, protons,
An atom with 5 electrons in its outer shell is. electrons) do not define an element.
Option A. trivalent.
Option B. pentavelent.
Option C. covalent.
Explanation. Valency is the number of electrons in
the outer shell (up to 4) or 8 minus the number of
electrons in the outer shell (over 4).

A nucleus of an atom consists of. Neutrons have.
Option A. positively charged particles. Option A. no charge.
Option B. a nucleus and normally has no overall Option B. a positive charge.
charge at all and so is neutral. Option C. a negative charge.
Option C. negatively charged particles. Correct Answer is. no charge.
Correct Answer is. positively charged particles. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Protons are positive, neutrons are
Question Number 62.
neutral.
Atomic MASS number is the number of.
Question Number 57.
Option A. protons.
A compound is a. Option B. protons and neutrons.
Option A. mixture of more than one element which Option C. electrons.
are chemically bonded together. Correct Answer is. protons and neutrons.
Option B. solution (either liquid or solid) of elements
Explanation. Mass number is the total number of
or mixtures of elements to form a new
items in the nucleus (protons and neutrons).
material.
Option C. mixture of more than one element which Question Number 63.
are mixed together. How many electrons does an `S` orbital hold?.
Correct Answer is. mixture of more than one element Option A. 6.
which are chemically bonded together. Option B. 8.
Explanation. A compound is two or more elements Option C. 2.
chemically bonded. Correct Answer is. 2.
Question Number 58. Explanation. How many electrons does an `S` orbital
A compound such as water can exist in how many states?. hold?.
Option A. 2. Question Number 64.
Option B. 3. The number of electrons in a stable atom equals.
Option C. 1.
Option A. the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
Correct Answer is. 3. Option B. the number of protons and neutrons in the
Explanation. Solid, liquid, gas. nucleus.
Option C. the number of protons in the nucleus.
Question Number 59.
Correct Answer is. the number of protons in the
Select the correct statement from the following.
nucleus.
Option A. Temperature is the only factor which can
Explanation. Electrons = Protons (to cancel the
affect the state in which matter exists.
electrical charge).
Option B. Matter can only exist in one of three states.
Option C. As temperature rises a solid will always Question Number 65.
become a liquid and then a gas. An isotope of an element has.
Correct Answer is. Matter can only exist in one of three Option A. the same atomic number but a different
states. mass number.
Explanation. Solid, liquid, gas. Pressure also affects Option B. the same mass number but a different
the state in which matter exists. atomic number.
Option C. a different mass and atomic number.
Question Number 60.
Correct Answer is. the same atomic number but a
Isotopes of an element have.
different mass number.
Option A. a different atomic number.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. the same number of neutrons but a different
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isotope
number of protons.
Option C. the same number of protons but a different
number of neutrons.
Correct Answer is. the same number of protons but a
different number of neutrons.
Explanation. NIL.

The mass number of an element is based on. Ionic bonding involves.
Option A. the total number of protons and neutrons in Option A. electron sharing.
its nucleus. Option B. attraction to a free electron cloud.
Option B. the number of protons in its nucleus. Option C. electron transfer.
Option C. the number of neutrons in its nucleus. Correct Answer is. electron transfer.
Correct Answer is. the total number of protons and Explanation. Ionic bonding is formed when electrons
neutrons in its nucleus. are transferred.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 72.
http://chemistry.about.com/library/glossary/bldef57040.h
tm Non-metals form.
Option A. covalent bonds.
Question Number 67.
Option B. ionic bond.
The atomic weight of all atoms is related to. Option C. metallic bonds.
Option A. Hydrogen. Correct Answer is. covalent bonds.
Option B. Carbon.
Explanation. Non-metals usually form covalent
Option C. Helium.
bonds.
Correct Answer is. Carbon.
Question Number 73.
Explanation. NIL.
http://education.yahoo.com/reference/dictionary/entry/at Brownian Movement describes.
omic%20weight Option A. Brownian Movement describes.
Option B. the attraction of electrons.
Question Number 68.
Option C. the motion of molecules.
The chemical bonding of two or more elements is called.
Correct Answer is. the motion of molecules.
Option A. chemical analysis.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. chemical synthesis. http://www.hyperdictionary.com/dictionary/Brownian+movement
Option C. chemical fusion.
Question Number 74.
Correct Answer is. chemical synthesis.
Elements on the extreme right of the periodic table are.
Explanation. NIL.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chemical_synthesis Option A. Metals.
Option B. Non-metals.
Question Number 69. Option C. Transition metals.
Two or more elements that are chemically bonded Correct Answer is. Non-metals.
together and have an even mass distribution form a.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. mixture. http://science.howstuffworks.com/atom8.htm
Option B. substance.
Option C. chemical compound. Question Number 75.
Correct Answer is. chemical compound. Oxygen, atomic number 8 is.
Explanation. When elements bond chemically, they Option A. trivalent.
make a compound. Option B. univalent.
Option C. bivalent.
Question Number 70.
Correct Answer is. bivalent.
An atom that gains one or more additional electrons is
Explanation. NIL.
called.
http://www.sil.org/linguistics/GlossaryOfLinguisticTerm
Option A. a negative ion. s/WhatIsValency.htm
Option B. a positive ion.
Option C. an isotope. Question Number 76.
Correct Answer is. a negative ion. The atomic number of the atom of an element is based on.
Explanation. Electrons are negatively charged, so Option A. the number of neutrons in to nucleus.
additional electrons make an atom into a negative ion. Option B. the number of protons in its nucleus.
Option C. the total number of protons and neutrons in
its nucleus.
Correct Answer is. the number of protons in its nucleus.
Explanation. NIL.
http://www.hyperdictionary.com/dictionary/atomic+number
Question Number 77.

Water is.
Option A. an element.
Option B. a mixture.
Option C. a compound.
Correct Answer is. a compound.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 78.
The Mass of a Proton is approximately.
Option A. equal to the mass of an electron.
Option B. equal to the relative mass of a molecule.
Option C. 2000 times greater than the mass of an
electron.
Correct Answer is. 2000 times greater than the mass of
an electron.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 79.
Noble gases are _______ and _______ and have a full
outer shell of electrons.
Option A. fluorine and neon.
Option B. sulphur and neon.
Option C. helium, neon, argon.
Correct Answer is. helium, neon, argon.
Explanation. NIL.
http://www.chemicalelements.com/groups/noblegases.ht
ml
Question Number 80.
If a hydrogen atom has 2 neutrons and 1 proton what kind
of water would you get?.
Option A. Fresh water.
Option B. Heavy water.
Option C. Salt water.
Correct Answer is. Heavy water.
Explanation. Heavy water - water containing a
substantial proportion of deuterium atoms, used in nuclear
reactors.
Question Number 81.
A majority of an atom's mass is in the.
Option A. compound.
Option B. isotope.
Option C. nucleus.
Correct Answer is. nucleus.
Explanation. NIL. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atom
2.1. Mechanics – Statics. Question Number 6.

The SI unit of mass is the.
Question Number 1.
Option A. metre (m).
An insulator has its electrons.
Option B. pound (lb).
Option A. tightly bound. Option C. kilogram (kg).
Option B. loosely bound.
Correct Answer is. kilogram (kg).
Option C. otally free from the atoms.
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. tightly bound.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity & Electronics 5th Question Number 7.
edition TK Eismin. A slug is a unit of.
Question Number 2. Option A. speed.
Option B. mass.
The centre of gravity of an aircraft is adjusted by two
Option C. weight.
weights, 10 kg and 5 ckg plaed 4m and 2 m aft of the c of
g. To what position must a 20 kg weight be added to Correct Answer is. mass.
balance the c of g?. Explanation. A very old unit of mass - equal to 14.6
Option A. 2.5m. kg.
Option B. 4m. Question Number 8.
Option C. 2m.
If an object in air is submerged in a liquid or a gas its
Correct Answer is. 2.5m. weight will.
Explanation. (10 * 4) + (5 * 2) = 20 x ? 40+10=20 x ? Option A. increase.
? = 2.5m. Option B. decrease.
Question Number 3. Option C. remain the same.
For the CGS system, the force is. Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Option A. the 'N' which produces an acceration of 1 Explanation. thing that can change the weight of an
cm/s2 for a mass of gram. object is the gravitational field it is in.
Option B. the 'dyne' which produces an acceleration Question Number 9.
of 1cm/s2 for a mass of gram.
If a material is loaded excessively and is permanently
Option C. the 'pd1' which produces an acceleration of
deformed, it is said to be.
1 cm/s2 for a mass of gram.
Option A. stretched.
Correct Answer is. the 'dyne' which produces an
Option B. stressed.
acceleration of 1cm/ s2 for a mass of gram.
Option C. strained.
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. strained.
Question Number 4. Explanation. Strain = extension / original length
The quadrature component of a vector is. (Stress = force / area).
Option A. 45° to the original. Question Number 10.
Option B. 90° to the original.
The SI unit of force is the.
Option C. 180° to the original.
Option A. Newton (N).
Correct Answer is. 90° to the original.
Option B. Metre (m).
Explanation. NIL. Option C. Pascal (Pa).
Question Number 5. Correct Answer is. Newton (N).
1 Newton is equal to. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 1 kilogram meter per second per second. Question Number 11.
Option B. 1 kilogram of force.
The formula for calculating stress is.
Option C. 1 joule per second.
Option A. load divided by cross sectional area.
Correct Answer is. 1 kilogram meter per second per
Option B. area divided by load.
second.
Option C. load multiplied by cross sectional area.
Explanation. Remember Newtons 2nd law 'F=ma'.
Correct Answer is. load divided by cross sectional area.
Well, 'm' is in kilograms, 'a' is in metres per second
squared (or meters per second per second) so put the two Explanation. NIL.
together and 'F' is….
Question Number 12. Explanation. A 'couple' is 2 forces acting in the same

Stress is given by. rotational direction an equal distance from a pivot point
(like turning a die holder). Two couples in opposition will
Option A. force per unit area.
cancel each other.
Option B. extension per original length.
Option C. force per original length. Question Number 18.
Correct Answer is. force per unit area. The height of mercury required to give 1 bar is.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. 700 mm.
Option B. 1000 mm.
Question Number 13.
Option C. 760 mm.
The force which opposes twisting deformation is.
Correct Answer is. 760 mm.
Option A. torsion.
Explanation. 1 bar is almost atmospheric pressure.
Option B. strain.
Option C. shear. Question Number 19.
Correct Answer is. torsion. A vessel has 25 ml of water which produces 10 kPa. If
Explanation. A torsional force opposes twisting. another 125 ml of water is added, what will be the
pressure in the vessel?.
Question Number 14.
Option A. 40 kPa.
A force perpendicular to a beam produces what type of Option B. 50 kPa.
stress?. Option C. 60 kPa.
Option A. compressive. Correct Answer is. 60 kPa.
Option B. shear.
Explanation. pressure = density * gravity * height.
Option C. tensile.
25ml + 125ml = 150ml or 6 times. So 6 * height = 6 *
Correct Answer is. shear. pressure.
Explanation. perpendicular to a beam (such a s a man
Question Number 20.
on a diving board) produces bending and shear stress.
Two hydraulic jacks with different diameters have the
Question Number 15. same fluid pressures entering at the same rate. They will
The extension of a spring can be determined using. extend at.
Option A. Charles' Law. Option A. the same rate until the smaller jack
Option B. Newton's 2nd Law. becomes full.
Option C. Hooke's Law. Option B. the same rate.
Correct Answer is. Hooke's Law. Option C. different rates.
Explanation. Hooke's law is 'extension is Correct Answer is. different rates.
proportional to force'. Explanation. diameter will have the greater force.
The 'trade-off' for this is that it will move slower.
Question Number 16.
When a steel bar is overstressed, what is the name of the Question Number 21.
point at which it does not return to its original form after What load can be lifted on jack B?.
the load is released?. Option A. 300N.
Option A. Ultimate point. Option B. 200N.
Option B. Yield point. Option C. 100N.
Option C. Young's modulus. Correct Answer is. 100N.
Correct Answer is. Yield point. Explanation. 10 times the area, then it can lift 10
Explanation. NIL. times the load.
Two couples with magnitude F act against each other. The The most common method of expressing pressure is in.
resultant will be. Option A. inch pounds per square inch.
Option A. -2F. Option B. grams per square inch.
Option B. 2F. Option C. pounds per square inch.
Option C. 0. Correct Answer is. pounds per square inch.
Correct Answer is. 0. Explanation. Pressure is usually measured in Pounds
per Square Inch (PSI).
Question Number 23. Option C. the two jacks will exert the same force.
The difference between two pressures is. Correct Answer is. the smaller jack will exert a force of
Option A. vacuum pressure. 200 lb and the larger a force of 400 lb.
Option B. differential pressure. Explanation. Force = pressure * area. 100 * 2 = 200
Option C. static pressure. lbs. 100 * 4 = 400 lbs.
Correct Answer is. differential pressure. Question Number 28.
Explanation. Differential pressure is the difference The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to.
between two pressures (such as inside and outside the
Option A. collect air from the hydraulic fluid, thus
aircraft cabin).
reducing the requirement for frequent
Question Number 24. bleeding.
What torque loading would you apply to a nut if the force Option B. relieve excess pressure.
is 50 lbs, exerted 2 feet from its axis?. Option C. store hydraulic fluid under pressure.
Option A. 100 lbs.ft. Correct Answer is. store hydraulic fluid under pressure.
Option B. 600 lbs.ft. Explanation. An accumulator stores hydraulic
Option C. 251 lbs.ft. pressure for use when the main pressure pump fails.
Correct Answer is. 100 lbs.ft. Question Number 29.
Explanation. Torque loading = force * distance. If the hydraulic system accumulator has a low air
Question Number 25. pressure, it will cause.
In a jack with a ram only on one side and hydraulic fluid Option A. rapid pressure fluctuations during operation
applied from both sides. of services.
Option B. rapid movement of the operating jacks.
Option A. a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no
Option C. slow build up of pressure in the system.
movement will take place.
Option B. the ram will move opposite to the side Correct Answer is. rapid pressure fluctuations during
where the ram is due to pressure acting on operation of services.
differential areas. Explanation. The secondary purpose of an
Option C. the ram will move to the side where the ram accumulator is to damp out pressure fluctuations.
is, due to pressure acting on differential
Question Number 30.
areas.
The specific torque loading for a bolt is 50 lbs.ins but an
Correct Answer is. the ram will move opposite to the
extension of 2 inches is needed to reach the bolt in
side where the ram is due to pressure acting on differential
addition to the 8 inches torque wrench. What will the
areas.
actual reading?.
Explanation. The non-ram side has a greater area, so
Option A. 54 lb.ins.
the ram will be pushed from that side to the ram side.
Option B. 40 lb.ins.
Question Number 26. Option C. 60 lb.ins.
Using the same hydraulic pressure, the force applied by a Correct Answer is. 40 lb.ins.
hydraulic jack of 4 sq. inch piston area. Explanation. New torque reading = desired torque x
Option A. will be half that applied by a similar jack of L/(x+L). 50 * 8/10 = 40 lb.ins.
2 sq. inch piston area.
Question Number 31.
Option B. will be equal to that applied by a similar
jack of 2 sq. inch piston area. If 1500 psi hydraulic pressure is pumped into an
Option C. will be twice that applied by a similar jack accumulator, with a pre-charge air pressure of 1000 psi
of 2 sq. inch piston area. the gauge will read.
Correct Answer is. will be equal to that applied by a Option A. 2500 psi.
similar jack of 2 sq. inch piston area. Option B. 1500 psi.
Option C. 1000 psi.
Explanation. Force = pressure * area.
Correct Answer is. 1500 psi.
Question Number 27.
Explanation. The accumulator pressure gauge reads
A pressure of 100 PSI acts on two jacks in a hydraulic the hydraulic pressure only when it is above the charge
system, having piston areas 2 sq in and 4 sq in. pressure.
Option A. the smaller jack will exert a force of 50 lb
and the larger a force of 25 lb.
Option B. the smaller jack will exert a force of 200 lb
and the larger a force of 400 lb.
Question Number 32. Option A. compressive strain.

Young's modulus is. Option B. compressive strain.
Option C. bulk modulus.
Option A. stress * strain.
Option B. strain / stress. Correct Answer is. bulk modulus.
Option C. stress / strain. Explanation. Bulk modulus = ratio of change in
Correct Answer is. stress / strain. pressure to the fractional volume compression.
Explanation. Young's Modulus (E) is the ratio Stress Question Number 38.
/ Strain. A ram has a piston with 2 in2. Another ram with a piston
Question Number 33. of 4 in2 will provide.
A cylinder filled with water to half a metre will exert a Option A. the same force.
pressure of. Option B. double the force.
Option C. square the force.
Option A. 4.9 Pa.
Option B. 4900 Pa. Correct Answer is. double the force.
Option C. 49 Pa. Explanation. Double the area = double the force.
Correct Answer is. 4900 Pa. (However, if the question said double the radius or
diameter, the force is a square of that, i.e 4x).
Explanation. Pressure = density * gravity * height =
1000 (for water) * 10 * 0.5 = 5000 Pa. Answer is 4900 Pa Question Number 39.
because gravity is slightly less than 10 (9.81 to be exact). How much force is exerted by piston if it is subjected to a
Question Number 34. pressure of 3000 Pa and has surface area of 2.5 m2?.
A mass of 10kg placed 2 metres away from a pivot will Option A. 7500 N.
have a moment of. Option B. 3000 N.
Option C. 1200 N.
Option A. 196 NM.
Option B. 50 NM. Correct Answer is. 7500 N.
Option C. 20 NM. Explanation. Force = pressure * area = 3000 * 2.5 =
Correct Answer is. 196 NM. 7.5 N.
Explanation. 10 kg = 10 * 9.8 = 98N. Moment = force Question Number 40.
* radius = 98 * 2 = 196 Nm. A force of 10 million Newton’s is expressed numerically
Question Number 35. as.
25 litres of fuel exerts a pressure of 10KPa. If a further Option A. 10 MN.
125 litres is added, the pressure will now be. Option B. 10 MN.
Option C. 1 MN.
Option A. 50 kPa.
Option B. 60 kPa. Correct Answer is. 10 MN.
Option C. 40 kPa. Explanation. million Newtons = 10 MN
Correct Answer is. 60 kPa. (MegaNewtons).
Explanation. Total Fuel = 150 litres = 6 * 25. 6 * Question Number 41.
original pressure = 60 kPa. A millilitre is equal to.
Question Number 36. Option A. one million litres.
1000 lb/in2 is in an accumulator. If 3000 lb/in2 of Option B. one millionth of a litre.
hydraulic fluid is pumped in, what is the pressure on the Option C. one thousandth of a litre.
air side?. Correct Answer is. one thousandth of a litre.
Option A. 3000 lb/in2. Explanation. A millilitre = 1/1000 litre.
Option B. 4000 lb/in2.
Question Number 42.
Option C. 1000 lb/in2.
If a square has an area of 9m2, one side is.
Correct Answer is. 3000 lb/in2.
Option A. 3 m.
Explanation. The piston does not move until the
Option B. 3 m2.
hydraulic pressure exceeds 1000 psi. From then on, the air
Option C. 3 sq. m.
and hydraulic pressures are equal (at all times that the
piston is off its stops). Correct Answer is. 3 m.
Explanation. 3 m * 3m = 9 m2.
Question Number 37.
A fractional decrease in volume of a material when it is
compressed is a function of the.

A vector quantity is a quantity which. The formula for calculating shear is.
Option A. possesses sense, magnitude and direction. Option A. force ÷ cross-sectional area.
Option B. possesses direction only. Option B. force * area.
Option C. possesses sense only. Option C. force ÷ area parallel to the force.
Correct Answer is. possesses sense, magnitude and Correct Answer is. force ÷ area parallel to the force.
direction. Explanation. Formula for shear (stress) is Shear
Explanation. A vector quantity has magnitude AND stress = force/area parallel to force.
direction. (sense and direction are the same thing).
Question Number 49.
Question Number 44. A force 10 N is placed 2 Meters from a pivot point, what
One atmosphere is equal to. is the moment?.
Option A. 1.22 kg/m2. Option A. 20 Nm.
Option B. 14.7 lbf/in2. Option B. 20 Nm.
Option C. 28.9 inches of Hg. Option C. 80 Nm.
Correct Answer is. 14.7 lbf/in2. Correct Answer is. 20 Nm.
Explanation. atmosphere = 14.7 pounds-force (lbf) Explanation. N at 2 m distance produces 10 * 2 = 20
per square inch. Nm.
Strain is calculated by. If a tensile load is placed on a bar, it will.
Option A. Original Length * Extension. Option A. bend.
Option B. Extension ÷ Original Length. Option B. crush.
Option C. Original Length ÷ Extension. Option C. stretch.
Correct Answer is. Extension ÷ Original Length. Correct Answer is. stretch.
Explanation. Strain = change in length divided by Explanation. tensile load placed on a bar will stretch it.
original length. Question Number 51.
Question Number 46. What atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing
When a twisting force is applied to a bolt, what stress is speed of an aircraft to be highest?.
exerted on to the head?. Option A. Low temp, high humidity.
Option A. Shear. Option B. Head wind, low humidity.
Option B. Compressive. Option C. High temp, high humidity.
Option C. Torsion. Correct Answer is. High temp, high humidity.
Correct Answer is. Torsion. Explanation. Lift is least at low density. Density is
Explanation. A twisting force applied to a bolt lowest at high temperature and high humidity.
produces 'torsion stress' (which technically is a form of Question Number 52.
shear).
Structures designed to withstand compression are called
Question Number 47. a.
When you overstress a steel bar, what is the point called Option A. tie.
where it does not return to its original form?. Option B. strut.
Option A. Plastic limit. Option C. beam.
Option B. Elasticity limit. Correct Answer is. strut.
Option C. Deformation limit. Explanation. Tension - Tie, Compression - Strut,
Correct Answer is. Elasticity limit. Bending - Beam.
Explanation. The point at which the stressed bar does Question Number 53.
not return to its original form is called the 'elastic limit'.
1 Pascal equals.
Option A. 105 N/m2.
Option B. 1 N/m2.
Option C. 10 Nm.
Correct Answer is. 1 N/m2.
Explanation. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2.
Question Number 54. Option A. medians from a vertex to the opposite side.
The addition of 2 different vectors to produce another Option B. angle bisectors.
vector is called. Option C. perpendicular bisectors.
Option A. component. Correct Answer is. medians from a vertex to the
Option B. resolution. opposite side.
Option C. resultant. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. resultant. Question Number 60.
Explanation. The resultant of two vectors. The When a square block of material is pushed into a
mathematical process is actually called 'composition'. parallelogram, the material is under what stress type?.
Question Number 55. Option A. Compression.
Two items weighing 11kg and 8kg are placed 2m and 1m Option B. Torsion.
respectively aft of the C of G of an aircraft. How far Option C. Shear.
forward of the C of G must a weight of 30kg be placed so Correct Answer is. Shear.
as not to change the C of G?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 2m. http://groups.physics.umn.edu/demo/old_page/demo_gif
Option B. 1.5m. s/1R30_20.GIF
Option C. 1m.
Question Number 61.
Correct Answer is. 1m.
A quantity which has size but no direction is called a.
Explanation. Total moment = (11*2) + (8*1) =
Option A. Scalar.
30kgm. The 30 kg mass must be placed such that 30kg *
Option B. Moment.
Xm = 30 kg m. Hence X = 1m.
Option C. Vector.
Question Number 56. Correct Answer is. Scalar.
A point at which the total force of a body acts is known as Explanation. scalar has size only (mass, area etc.). A
the. vector has size and direction (velocity, force etc.).
Option A. centre of gravity.
Question Number 62.
Option B. point of equilibrium.
Option C. centre of mass. The advantage of using a machine is.
Correct Answer is. centre of gravity. Option A. mechanical advantage of input.
Option B. mechanical advantage of output.
Explanation. If by force they mean 'weight' then it is
Option C. input work is less than the output work.
Centre of Gravity.
Correct Answer is. mechanical advantage of output.
Question Number 57.
Explanation. Mechanical advantage is usually on the
A load of 600N is suspended by a cable. If the stress in the outp.
cable is said to be limited to 15N/mm2 the minimum cross
sectional area of the cable must be. Question Number 63.
Option A. 0.025mm2. Which of the following can transmit pressure?.
Option B. 9000mm2. Option A. Liquids and gases.
Option C. 40mm2. Option B. Solids and gases.
Correct Answer is. 40mm2. Option C. Any matter can transmit pressure,
depending on temperature.
Explanation. Stress = Force/Area. Area =
Force/Stress = 600/15 = 40mm2. Correct Answer is. Liquids and gases.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 58.
A spring, operating within its elastic range, shortens by Question Number 64.
60mm when a load of 480N is applied to it. Calculate the A moment is created by a force of 5N acting 4m from the
total shortening when the load is increased by 120N. pivot on a uniform bar. At what distance must a force of
Option A. 82mm. 10N be applied to balance the beam?.
Option B. 45mm. Option A. 8 m.
Option C. 75mm. Option B. 4 m.
Correct Answer is. 75mm. Option C. 2 m.
Explanation. 600/480 * 60 = 75mm. Correct Answer is. 2 m.
Explanation. 5 * 4 = 20, 10 * X = 20 X = 2m.
Question Number 59.
The c.g. of a triangular plate is at the intersection of.

A lever of length 105 cm is used with a fulcrum placed 15 Forces passing through a common point are said to be.
cm from the end bearing the load. Its mechanical Option A. coherent.
advantage is. Option B. coplanar.
Option A. 1/6. Option C. concurrent.
Option B. 7. Correct Answer is. concurrent.
Option C. 6.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 72.
Explanation. The TOTAL length is 105 cm, so the
input end is 90 cms. 90/15 = 6. A force of 5 Newtons acting perpendicularly at 300
centimetres from the pivot produces a moment of.
Question Number 66.
Option A. 1500 Newton metre.
The stress created when a material is pulled apart is Option B. 15 Newton metre.
called. Option C. 1.5 Kilonewton millimetre.
Option A. tension. Correct Answer is. 15 Newton metre.
Option B. torsion.
Explanation. 3m * 5N = 15 Nm.
Option C. compression.
Correct Answer is. tension. Question Number 73.
Explanation. NIL. Equilibrium of translation occurs when.
Option A. downward forces equal upward (reactive)
Question Number 67.
forces.
The yield point of a material is the point at which. Option B. clockwise moments equal
Option A. strain becomes proportional to stress. counterclockwise moments.
Option B. the material ruptures or breaks. Option C. clockwise forces and counterclockwise
Option C. permanent deformation takes place. forces are equal.
Correct Answer is. permanent deformation takes place. Correct Answer is. downward forces equal upward
Explanation. NIL. (reactive) forces.
Explanation. Translation is linear movement.
Question Number 68.
Assuming constant temperature. If a steel bar of length 2 Question Number 74.
m deforms to a length of 2.2 m under applied load. The The conversion factor to convert litres to pints is.
strain is. Option A. 0.57.
Option A. 1.1. Option B. 1.76.
Option B. 0.9. Option C. 2.2.
Option C. 0.1. Correct Answer is. 1.76.
Correct Answer is. 0.1. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Strain = Extension/Original Length = http://www.thetipsbank.com/convert.htm
0.2/2 = 0.1.
Question Number 75.
Question Number 69. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by.
A Scalar quantity has. Option A. the use of pressure/heat exchange.
Option A. sense, magnitude and direction. Option B. compressing the air charge in an
Option B. sense and direction. accumulator.
Option C. magnitude only. Option C. compressing the fluid in a reservoir.
Correct Answer is. magnitude only. Correct Answer is. compressing the air charge in an
Explanation. NIL. accumulator.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 70.
A hydraulic piston of 2.5 square inches produces 7500lbf,
What pressure is used?.
Option A. 5000 PSI.
Option B. 3000 PSI.
Option C. 7000 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI.
Explanation. Pressure = Force/Area.
Question Number 76.

When checking a hydraulic accumulator initial air
pressure, the hydraulic system pressure.
Option A. should be at the normal working pressure.
Option B. is not important.
Option C. should be released.
Correct Answer is. should be released.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 77.
One kg is the mass of.
Option A. one litre of pure water.
Option B. one pint of pure water.
Option C. one gallon of pure water.
Correct Answer is. one litre of pure water.
Explanation. NIL.
http://www.bartleby.com/68/85/3685.html
Question Number 78.
The centre of gravity of a triangle is.
Option A. 1/3 the median from the base.
Option B. 1/3 the bisector from the base.
Option C. 1/3 the height from the base.
Correct Answer is. 1/3 the median from the base.
Explanation. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Triangle
Question Number 79.
A lifting machine moves with an effort, a distance of 200
cm, in order to raise it 0.5 m. The Velocity Ratio is.
Option A. 0.25.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 40.
Explanation. Distance ratio input/ output = 2/0.5 = 4.
Velocity ratio is same as Distance ration.
Question Number 80.
Two Vectors are at 90 degrees to each other having
magnitudes of 3N and 4N. The resultant is.
Option A. 5N.
Option B. 1N.
Option C. 7N.
Correct Answer is. 5N.
Explanation. Vectors make a 3-4-5 triangle.
Question Number 81.
Which of the following has no units?.
Option A. Strain.
Option B. Stress.
Option C. Elasticity.
Correct Answer is. Strain.
Explanation. NIL.
2.2. Mechanics – Kinetics. Explanation. Average speed = distance/time =

1350/2.25 = 600 nm/h.
Question Number 1.
Question Number 7.
For a car weighing 1000 N, what force would be required
to accelerate the car to 3 ms-2. A spring extends 7 cm to the ground and back again 20
times a minute. What is the period?.
Option A. 3270 N.
Option B. 305.8 N. Option A. 7 cm.
Option C. 3000 N. Option B. 3 seconds.
Option C. 1/3 cycle.
Correct Answer is. 305.8 N.
Correct Answer is. 3 seconds.
Explanation. F = ma F = 1000/9.81 * 3 F = 305.8 N
(The 'divide by' 9.81 is necessary to convert the 1000 N Explanation. Frequency = 20/60 = 1/3 Hz. Time
into a mass (in kg)). period = 1/f = 3 seconds.

A time period of 10 microseconds is equal to a frequency A cyclist goes from rest to 50 m/s in 5 seconds. What is
of. the average acceleration?.
Option A. 100 kHz. Option A. 10 m/s2.
Option B. 10 kHz. Option B. 12 m/s2.
Option C. 1 Mhz. Option C. 8 m/s2.
Correct Answer is. 100 kHz. Correct Answer is. 10 m/s2.
Explanation. Frequency = 1/time period. 1/0.00001 = Explanation. Acceleration = change in speed / time.
100,000 = 100 kHz. Question Number 9.
Question Number 3. What is the period of a frequency of 4 Hz?.
The SI unit of acceleration is the. Option A. 8 seconds.
Option A. metre per second squared (m/s2). Option B. 0.25 seconds.
Option B. metre per second (m/s). Option C. 4 seconds.
Option C. square metre (m2). Correct Answer is. 0.25 seconds.
Correct Answer is. metre per second squared (m/s2). Explanation. Period = 1/f.
Question Number 4. A dot rotates around the circumference of a circle. If the
If a body starts at rest and reaches 84 m/s in 3 seconds, its vertical position of this dot is plotted on a graph with
acceleration is. respect to time the result will be.
Option A. 28 m/s2. Option A. a linear motion.
Option B. 14 m/s2. Option B. a transverse waveform.
Option C. 252 m/s2. Option C. a sinusoidal waveform.
Correct Answer is. 28 m/s2. Correct Answer is. a sinusoidal waveform.
Explanation. Acceleration = change in speed / time. Explanation. This is why an AC generator produces a
sine wave frequency.
Question Number 5.
Question Number 11.
The SI unit of velocity is the.
A freely falling body, falling from a height of 2km, and
Option A. metre per second squared (m/s2).
assuming g = 10m/s2, will strike the ground in a time of.
Option B. metre per second (m/s).
Option C. metre (m). Option A. 400s.
Option B. 80s.
Correct Answer is. metre per second (m/s).
Option C. 20s.
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 20s.
Question Number 6. Explanation. From the equations of motion s = ut +
An aircraft flies 1350 nmiles in 2h 15mins. What is the 1/2at2. If it starts at rest u (and hence ut) is zero. Use s =
average speed?. 2000 m, plug in the numbers and transpose for t.
Option A. 600 nmiles/hour.
Option B. 600 miles/hour.
Option C. 150 nmiles/hour.
Correct Answer is. 600 nmiles/hour.

What is the angular velocity of a shaft rotating at 300rpm A mass on a spring nearly hits the ground 20 times a
in radians/second?. minute, its frequency is.
Option A. 10π radians/second. Option A. 3 cycles per second.
Option B. 2π radians/second. Option B. 1/3 cycle per second.
Option C. 5π radians/second. Option C. 20 cycles per second.
Correct Answer is. 10π radians/second. Correct Answer is. 1/3 cycle per second.
Explanation. velocity = 2π(RPM)/60 = 2π * 300/60 = Explanation. cycles per minute = 20/60 cycles per
10π radians/second. second = 2/6 = 1/3 cycle per second.
The force that acts on a body to cause it to rotate in a A body travelling at 20 m/s accelerates to 36 m/s in 8
circular path is called the. seconds, what is its acceleration?.
Option A. centripetal force. Option A. 8 m/s2.
Option B. centrifugal force. Option B. 4 m/s2.
Option C. inertia force. Option C. 2 m/s2.
Correct Answer is. centripetal force. Correct Answer is. 2 m/s2.
Explanation. Centripetal' force is the force pulling the Explanation. V = u +at 36 = 20 + 8a 36-20 = 8a 16/8
rotating object towards the centre of rotation. 'Centrifugal' = a.
force is the equal and opposite reaction.
Question Number 19.
Question Number 14. A body dropped from 10 m will hit the ground in.
An aircraft of 2 metric tonnes uses 800 kilojoules kinetic Option A. 2 seconds.
energy to make an emergency stop. Its brakes apply a Option B. 0.2 seconds.
force of 10 kiloNewtons. What distance does it travel Option C. 1.41 second.
before it comes to a stop?.
Correct Answer is. 1.41 second.
Option A. 40m.
Explanation. s = ut + 1/2at2. Take s = 10, u = 0, a = g
Option B. 800m.
= 10. Calculate t. (Remember that 0 * t = 0).
Option C. 80m.
Correct Answer is. 80m. Question Number 20.
Explanation. Energy = Force * Distance. 800,000J = What is the rate of gravity?.
10,000N x Distance. Distance = ??. Option A. 12.7 m/s2.
Option B. 0.981 m/s2.
Question Number 15.
Option C. 9.81 m/s2.
A body rotating at an angular velocity of 5 radians/sec,
Correct Answer is. 9.81 m/s2.
with a radius of 5 metres has a speed of.
Explanation. Gravity = 9.81 m/s2.
Option A. 5π metres per second.
Option B. 5 metres per second. Question Number 21.
Option C. 25 metres per second. An object travels 18 km in 1 minute 30 seconds. What is
Correct Answer is. 25 metres per second. its average speed?.
Explanation. velocity = Radius * Omega (Omega = Option A. 200 m/s.
radians/sec). V = 5 * 5 = 25 m/s. Option B. 270 m/s.
Option C. 100 ms.
Question Number 16.
Correct Answer is. 200 m/s.
A mass of 400 kg moves 27metres, with a force of 54N,
what is the work produced?. Explanation. Average speed = distance/time = 18000
metres / 90 seconds = 200 m/s.
Option A. 1458 J.
Option B. 583.2 KJ. Question Number 22.
Option C. 10.1 KJ. 100 m is approximately.
Correct Answer is. 1458 J. Option A. 220 yards.
Explanation. Work = Force x Distance = 54 * 27 = Option B. 109 yards.
1458 J. It is not moving under gravity so the 400 kg is a Option C. 66 yards.
red herring. Correct Answer is. 109 yards.
Explanation. m = 3.3 ft. 100 m = 330 ft. 3 ft = 1 yd so
330/3 = 110 yards.
Question Number 23. speed, and direction).

A car moves over a distance of 5 miles at steady speed in Question Number 29.
10 minutes. What is the speed?.
Acceleration involves.
Option A. 30 mph.
Option A. change in speed or direction of movement.
Option B. 15 mph.
Option B. change of position with time.
Option C. 60 mph.
Option C. steady speed over a fixed period of time.
Correct Answer is. 30 mph.
Correct Answer is. change in speed or direction of
Explanation. in 10 mins, 10 miles in 20 mins, 15 movement.
miles in 30 mins, 30 miles in 1 hr.
Explanation. Acceleration is a vector (it has
Question Number 24. magnitude as well as direction).
A spaceship travels a distance of 480,000 miles in 2 days. Question Number 30.
What is its speed?.
What acceleration is produced if a mass increases speed
Option A. 48,000 mph. from rest to 10 ft/sec in 5 seconds?.
Option B. 36,000 mph.
Option A. 2 ft/sec2.
Option C. 10,000 mph.
Option B. 50 ft/sec2.
Correct Answer is. 10,000 mph. Option C. 0.5 ft/sec2.
Explanation. 480,000/48 = 10,000 MPH. Correct Answer is. 2 ft/sec2.
Question Number 25. Explanation. v = u + at' where u = 0, v = 10, t = 5, so a
A cyclist covers a distance of 1,000 m at a constant speed = v/t = 10/5 = 2.
in 90 seconds, What is his speed?. Question Number 31.
Option A. 50 m/s. A car travelling at a speed of 5 m/s accelerates at the rate
Option B. 12.5 m/s. of 1 m/s2. How long will it take to reach a speed of 20
Option C. 11.1 m/s. m/s?.
Correct Answer is. 11.1 m/s. Option A. 15 secs.
Explanation. 1000m/90secs = 11.1 m/s. Option B. 10 secs.
Option C. 20 secs.
Question Number 26.
Correct Answer is. 15 secs.
How long will it take a car moving at 60 km/hr to travel 90
km?. Explanation. The car gains 1 m/s every second, so to
add 15 m/s it will take 15 seconds.
Option A. 40 minutes.
Option B. 75 minutes. Question Number 32.
Option C. 90 minutes. Newton’s laws of motion apply to.
Correct Answer is. 90 minutes. Option A. solid substances only.
Explanation. km = 1.5 * 60, therefore at 60 km/h it Option B. all substances irrespective of state.
will take 1.5 hours = 90 mins. Option C. gases and liquids only.
Question Number 27. Correct Answer is. all substances irrespective of state.
An aircraft travels at 500 km/hr for 30 minutes at steady Explanation. Newtons laws apply to solids, liquids
speed. How far does it move in that time?. and gases.
Option A. 500 km. Question Number 33.
Option B. 1000 km. Which of Newton’s Laws apply most directly to an
Option C. 250 km. aircraft which is accelerating down a runway?.
Correct Answer is. 250 km. Option A. The 3rd law.
Explanation. 500 km/h for 30 m/s = a distance of 250 Option B. The 2nd law.
km. Option C. The 1st law.
Question Number 28. Correct Answer is. The 2nd law.
Which of the following affect the velocity of an object?. Explanation. Technically, all of Newton's laws apply
but the word accelerating indicates they are looking for
Option A. Speed and direction.
the second law - Force = mass x acceleration.
Option B. Speed and distance.
Option C. Speed and mass.
Correct Answer is. Speed and direction.
Explanation. Velocity is a vector (it has magnitude -
Question Number 34. Correct Answer is. The driven rotates twice as fast.
Which of Newton’s Laws apply most directly to a car Explanation. smaller wheel rotates at the faster speed
which is slowing down due to the braking action?. (of a ratio equal to their diameters).
Option A. The 1st law. Question Number 40.
Option B. The 3rd law.
An aircraft of 2 metric tonnes lands with 400 kilojoules of
Option C. The 2nd law.
energy, 10 kiloNewtons of force is applied at the brakes,
Correct Answer is. The 2nd law. how far does the aircraft take to stop?.
Explanation. The car is decelerating therefore it is Option A. 40 M.
obeying the second law - Force = mass * acceleration (but Option B. 400 M.
technically all three laws apply). Option C. 800 M.
Question Number 35. Correct Answer is. 40 M.
F = ma is an equation which expresses. Explanation. Work done = Force * energy. Work
Option A. Newton’s 1st law. required to convert all the kinetic energy = Force *
Option B. Newton’s 2nd law. distance. So Force * distance = 400,000 Joules. 10,000 N
Option C. Newton’s 3rd law. * distance = 400,000. Distance = 40 m.
Correct Answer is. Newton’s 2nd law. Question Number 41.
Explanation. Newton's second law is F = ma (Force = A radar rotates 1 revolution each 30 seconds and uses 10J
mass * acceleration). of energy each revolution. How many joules does it use in
a day?.
Question Number 36.
Option A. 28.8 kJ.
What force is required to produce an acceleration of 5
Option B. 720 kJ.
m/s2 on a mass of 2 kg?.
Option C. 7200 kJ.
Option A. 2.5 N.
Correct Answer is. 28.8 kJ.
Option B. 10 N.
Option C. 50 N. Explanation. =2 8 60 = 120 revs/hour = 120 8 24 =
2880 revs/day. 2880 8 10 = 28800 Joules = 28.8 kJ.
Correct Answer is. 10 N.
Explanation. F = ma = 2 * 5 = 10 Newtons (Force is Question Number 42.
measured in Newtons). A light aircraft flies in a semi-circle from point A to point
B. If the circle has a radius of 20km and the time taken is
Question Number 37.
30 minutes, the average speed is.
If a force of 10 lbf produces an acceleration of 2.5 ft/sec2,
Option A. 125.7 km/h.
on what mass is it acting?.
Option B. 110 km/h.
Option A. 4 slugs. Option C. 80 km/h.
Option B. 4 lb.
Correct Answer is. 125.7 km/h.
Option C. 25 slugs.
Explanation. arc distance = radius x angular distance
Correct Answer is. 4 slugs.
(in rads) = 20π = 60 km (approx, taking πas 3). 60 km in
Explanation. F = ma, 10 = m * 2.5, m = 10/2.5 = 4 30 minutes is 120 km/h (answer is slightly more because π
slugs. = 3.14, not 3.
What is acceleration?. The landing speed of an aircraft is 54 m/s2. If the
Option A. Rate of change of velocity. maximum deceleration is 3m/s2 the minimum length of
Option B. Rate of change of movement. runway required is.
Option C. Rate of change of position. Option A. 162m.
Correct Answer is. Rate of change of velocity. Option B. 486m.
Explanation. Acceleration is rate of change of Option C. 360m.
velocity. Correct Answer is. 486m.
Question Number 39. Explanation. NIL.
In a gear train the driver has 100 TPI and the driven has 50
TPI.
Option A. The driven rotates twice as fast.
Option B. The driver and driven rotate at the same
speed.
Option C. The driven rotates half as fast.
Question Number 44. Correct Answer is. increase with increasing mass of the
The number of radians in a semi circle are. object.
Option A. exactly 3. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. π. Question Number 50.
Option C. 2π.
For an object in circular motion at constant velocity, if the
Correct Answer is. π. radius of its path is doubled the centripetal force will.
Explanation. full circle = 2π radians, so a semicircle Option A. double.
= π radians = 3.142. Option B. remain the same.
Question Number 45. Option C. half.
The angular velocity of 500 RPM is, in rads/seconds is Correct Answer is. half.
equal to. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 1000π rads/s. Question Number 51.
Option B. 8.33π rads/s.
An aircraft weighing 6400 pounds lands at a speed of 10
Option C. 16.66π rads/s.
ft/Sec and stops in 10 Seconds. What force was generated
Correct Answer is. 16.66π rads/s. by the brakes (assuming gravity as 32 ft/sec).
Explanation. 500 * 2π/60 = 1000π/60 = 100π/6 = 16.66. Option A. -2000 Lbs.
Question Number 46. Option B. -200 Lbs.
Which of Newton's laws relates to the formula: Force = Option C. -640 Lbs.
mass * acceleration?. Correct Answer is. -200 Lbs.
Option A. 1st. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 2nd. Question Number 52.
Option C. 3rd.
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.'
Correct Answer is. 2nd. This is known as.
Explanation. Newton's Second Law F = ma. Option A. Newtons second law.
Question Number 47. Option B. Newtons third law.
The period of simple pendulum is. Option C. Newtons first law.
Option A. independent of its mass. Correct Answer is. Newtons third law.
Option B. longer for a heavy pendulum bob. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. longer on the earth than on the moon. Question Number 53.
Correct Answer is. independent of its mass. One radian is equal to.
Explanation. The only things that affect the period of Option A. the angle subtended at the centre of a circle
a pendulum is the length (greater length = longer period) when the arc-length formed between two
and gravity (greater gravity= shorter period). radial lines is equal in length to the radius.
Question Number 48. Option B. 66.67 degrees.
A satellite requires 10 Joules to rotate half a revolution, Option C. the angle subtended at the centre of a circle
which takes 30 seconds. What is the energy required for when the arc-length formed between two
one day?. radial lines is equal to π.
Option A. 14,400 J. Correct Answer is. the angle subtended at the centre of
Option B. 1,200 J. a circle when the arc-length formed between two radial
Option C. 28,800 J. lines is equal in length to the radius.
Correct Answer is. 28,800 J. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. 10 Joules * 2revs/min * 60 mins * 24 Question Number 54.

hours. A weight on a spring almost touches the floor 7 times over
Question Number 49. 21 seconds. What is its frequency?.
The size of Centripetal Force on an object travelling in a Option A. 3 cycles/second.

circle. Option B. 1/3 cycles/second.
Option C. 7 cycles/second.
Option A. increase with increasing mass of the object.
Option B. decreases with increasing speed of the Correct Answer is. 1/3 cycles/second.
object. Explanation. Frequency = number of oscillations
Option C. increases with an increasing radius of divided by time = 7/21 = 1/3.
circle.
Question Number 55.

Which of the following statements describes centrifugal
force?.
Option A. Equal to centripetal force and acts in the
opposite direction.
Option B. Greater than centripetal force and acts in
the opposite direction.
Option C. Smaller than centripetal force and acts in
the opposite direction.
Correct Answer is. Greater than centripetal force and
acts in the opposite direction.
Explanation. Centrifugal is away from centre and
equal (but opposite) to centripetal force.
Question Number 56.
A body starting from rest accelerates at the rate of 20
metres per second squared. What is the distance covered
until the body reaches a velocity of 50 metres per second?.
Option A. 0.625 kilometres.
Option B. 50 metres.
Option C. 62.5 metres.
Correct Answer is. 62.5 metres.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 57.
The oscillation produced by a pendulum 2500mm long
has a periodic time of.
Option A. 300 milliseconds.
Option B. 3 seconds.
Option C. 1.25 seconds.
Correct Answer is. 3 seconds.
Explanation. T = 2xπ√L/g = √2.5/10 = 6 * √0.25 = 6 *
0.5 = 3.
Question Number 58.
A drive shaft has a speed 150π radians a second. What is
the speed in RPM?.
Option A. 4500.
Option B. 9000.
Option C. 1500.
Explanation. 150π * 60/2π = 4500

2.3a. Mechanics – Dynamics. Question Number 6.

What is the kinetic energy of an aircraft of mass of 2
Question Number 1.
metric tonnes and has a velocity of 2m/s?.
As an object slides down a slope, its.
Option A. 8 kJ.
Option A. kinetic energy increases and its potential Option B. 4 kJ.
energy increases. Option C. 2 kJ.
Option B. kinetic energy increases and its potential
Correct Answer is. 4 kJ.
energy decreases.
Option C. kinetic energy decreases and its potential Explanation. Kinetic energy = 1/2mV. Only the V is
energy increases. squared. 2 metric tonnes = 2000 kg.
Correct Answer is. kinetic energy increases and its Question Number 7.
potential energy decreases. The work done in lifting a mass of 2000 kg vertically to a
Explanation. Potential energy is converted into height of 40 metres is.
kinetic energy. Option A. 80 kJ.
Question Number 2. Option B. 784.8 kJ.
Option C. 500 kJ.
A single fixed pulley (discounting friction etc) has a
mechanical advantage of. Correct Answer is. 784.8 kJ.
Option A. 2. Explanation. Work done = Force * distance (force =
Option B. 1/2. mass * gravity). Wd = 2000 * 10 * 40 = 800,000 approx.
Option C. 1. (answer is slightly less because g = 9.81, not 10).
Correct Answer is. 1. Question Number 8.
Explanation. NIL. If a machine has a mechanical advantage of 10 and a
velocity ratio of 20. The efficiency of the machine is.
Question Number 3.
Option A. 200%.
What is the ratio of load to effort called?.
Option B. 0.5.
Option A. Mechanical advantage. Option C. 2.
Option B. Velocity ratio.
Correct Answer is. 0.5.
Option C. Mechanical ratio.
Explanation. 10 times the force out and only 1/20th
Correct Answer is. Mechanical advantage.
speed, it must have an efficiency of a 1/2. (100% efficient
Explanation. NIL. it would have 10 times the force and 1/10th the speed -
Question Number 4. straight trade of force for speed).
1 kW is. Question Number 9.
Option A. 3413 BTU per hour. 1 Watt =.
Option B. 1.56 HP. Option A. 1kg/h.
Option C. 360 Joules. Option B. 1 Joule/s.
Correct Answer is. 3413 BTU per hour. Option C. 1 HP.
Explanation. 1 BTU = 0.293 W. 1 W = 1/0.293 BTU Correct Answer is. 1 Joule/s.
= 3.413 BTU. 1 kW = 3413 BTU. Explanation. 1 Watt = 1 Joule/second.
The tension in the cable of a crane is 2500 N and it lifts a How would you work out the work done by a machine
load through 50m, what is the work done on the load?. assuming it is 100% efficient?.
Option A. 1.25 * 10 J5. Option A. Input and output.
Option B. 500 J. Option B. Mechanical advantage and output.
Option C. 12.5 kJ. Option C. Mechanical advantage and input.
Correct Answer is. 1.25 * 10 J5. Correct Answer is. Mechanical advantage and input.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Assuming the 'input' means input force,
to calculate the work done you will need the input force
and the mechanical advantage of the machine to calculate
the output force and distance (Work done = force *
distance of output).

Ignoring friction, if you let an object slide down a slope, at What is 1 joule in calories?.
the bottom. Option A. 4.186.
Option A. the potential energy is equal to the kinetic Option B. 252.
energy. Option C. 0.239.
Option B. the potential energy is more than the kinetic Correct Answer is. 0.239.
energy.
Explanation. NIL.
Option C. the kinetic energy is more than the potential
energy. Question Number 17.
Correct Answer is. the kinetic energy is more than the If you push an object with a force of 5 N for 10 m in 4
potential energy. seconds, how much power is used?.
Explanation. All potential energy is converted to Option A. 12.5 watts.
kinetic energy. Option B. 8 watts.
Option C. 200 Watts.
Question Number 12.
Correct Answer is. 12.5 watts.
1 HP = 33000 ft.lbs/min or 500 ft.lbs/s or.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 736 Watts.
Option B. 746 Watts. Question Number 18.
Option C. 1360 Watts. What is the Kinetic Energy of a 2 kg object moving at a
Correct Answer is. 746 Watts. velocity of 12 m/s?.
Explanation. 1 HP = 746 Watts. Option A. 24 Joules.
Option B. 288 Joules.
Question Number 13.
Option C. 144 Joules.
A force of 15N is needed to move a body of mass 30kg
Correct Answer is. 144 Joules.
along a footpath with uniform velocity. Find the
coefficient of dynamic friction.(take g as 10m/s/s). Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 1/20. Question Number 19.
Option B. 1/2. A mass of 3kg weighs approximately.
Option C. 20.
Option A. 0.675 N.
Correct Answer is. 1/20. Option B. 6.6 LB.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. 1.3 LB.
Question Number 14. Correct Answer is. 6.6 LB.
A mass of 400kg moves 27 metres with a force of 54N. Explanation. 1 kg = 2.2 lb. So 3 kg = 3 * 2.2 = 6.6 lb.
What is the work produced?. Question Number 20.
Option A. 10.1kJ. Power is the rate of doing work. It is measured in.
Option B. 583.2kJ.
Option A. Watts/Seconds.
Option C. 1458J.
Option B. Joules/Seconds.
Correct Answer is. 1458J. Option C. Joules * Seconds.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Joules/Seconds.
The SI unit of Power is the. Question Number 21.
Option A. Volt. A 6000 kg engine is lifted off a wing to a height 0.5
Option B. Pascal. metres and then pushed across the hangar 24 meters. The
Option C. Watt. force required to push the trolley is 12 kN. What is the
Correct Answer is. Watt. work done to move the trolley?.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. 298kJ.
Option B. 84MJ.
Option C. 288kJ.
Correct Answer is. 288kJ.
Explanation. NIL.

A ball is dropped from rest. What is its speed after 4 The SI unit of energy is the.
seconds? (Take g as 10m/s/s). Option A. Watt (W).
Option A. 80m/s. Option B. Pascal (Pa).
Option B. 40m/s. Option C. Joule (J).
Option C. 20m/s. Correct Answer is. Joule (J).
Correct Answer is. 40m/s. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 29.
Question Number 23. A 4.5 kW electric motor is 90% efficient. How much
1 KW is equal to. energy does it use in 20 seconds?.
Option A. 1.34 HP. Option A. 90 kJ.
Option B. 1000 Joules. Option B. 2.25 kJ.
Option C. 252 BTU. Option C. 100 kJ.
Correct Answer is. 1.34 HP. Correct Answer is. 100 kJ.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.
Ten kilograms is expressed numerically as. A pile driver of mass 1000 kg, hits a post 3 m below it. It
Option A. 1 Mg. moves the post 10 mm. Assuming gravity = 10 m/s, what
Option B. 10 K. is the kinetic energy of the pile driver?.
Option C. 10 kg. Option A. 30 kJ.
Correct Answer is. 10 kg. Option B. 45 kJ.
Option C. 90 kJ.
Explanation. 10 kilograms = 10 kg.
Correct Answer is. 30 kJ.
Question Number 25.
Explanation. NIL.
An object accelerating down a slope would gain kinetic
energy. Question Number 31.
Option A. less than the potential energy lost. The SI unit for work is the.
Option B. greater than the potential energy lost. Option A. Joule.
Option C. equal to the potential energy lost. Option B. Watt.
Correct Answer is. equal to the potential energy lost. Option C. horsepower.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Joule.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 26.
A block slides down a slope. Assuming there is no Question Number 32.
friction. What work is done if a force of 100 N moves a body 15
Option A. kinetic energy is gained at the same rate as metres?.
potential energy is lost. Option A. 1500 kJ.
Option B. kinetic energy is gained at a greater rate Option B. 1.5 kJ.
than potential energy is lost. Option C. 0.15 mJ.
Option C. potential energy is gained at a greater rate Correct Answer is. 1.5 kJ.
than kinetic energy is lost.
Explanation. Work = force * distance 100N * 15m =
Correct Answer is. kinetic energy is gained at the same 1500J, or 1.5kJ.
rate as potential energy is lost.
Question Number 33.
Explanation. KE gained = PE lost (at the same rate).
Power is the rate of doing work. It is measured in.
Question Number 27.
Option A. Joules * Seconds.
The English unit of mass is. Option B. Joules/Seconds.
Option A. the Newton. Option C. Watts/Seconds.
Option B. the kilogram. Correct Answer is. Joules/Seconds.
Option C. the slug.
Explanation. Power = energy per second =
Correct Answer is. the slug. Joules/second.
Explanation. The British unit of mass is the Slug.
Question Number 34.

A block slides down a slope. Assuming there is no
friction.
Option A. potential energy is gained at a greater rate
than kinetic energy is lost.
Option B. kinetic energy is gained at the same rate as
potential energy is lost.
Option C. kinetic energy is gained at a greater rate
than potential energy is lost.
Correct Answer is. kinetic energy is gained at the same
rate as potential energy is lost.
Explanation. KE gained = PE lost (at the same rate).

2.3b. Mechanics – Dynamics. Question Number 6.

A gyro with a fixed point free to rotate in three axis is.
Question Number 1.
Option A. a tied gyro.
A good refrigerant has a.
Option B. a space gyro.
Option A. low condensation temperature and high Option C. an earth gyro.
condensation pressure.
Correct Answer is. a tied gyro.
Option B. low condensation temperature and low
condensation pressure. Explanation. If the gyro is fixed to one point, it is a
Option C. high condensation temperature and low tied gyro. (An earth gyro is 'tied' specifically to an earth
condensation pressure. reference point).
Correct Answer is. high condensation temperature and Question Number 7.
low condensation pressure. What type of friction requires the greatest force to
Explanation. NIL. overcome it?.
Question Number 2. Option A. Dynamic friction.
Option B. Static friction.
What is the momentum of a ball of mass 2 grams and has a
Option C. Rolling friction.
velocity of 10cm/s?.
Correct Answer is. Static friction.
Option A. 5 kg.m/s.
Option B. 20 kg.m/s. Explanation. Static friction (sometimes called
Option C. 0.0002 kg.m/s. 'stiction') is the greatest friction. Followed by Dynamic
and Rolling respectively.
Correct Answer is. 0.0002 kg.m/s.
Explanation. Momentum = mass * velocity. But first Question Number 8.
convert the numbers to SI. (2 grammes = 2/1000 kg. 10cm If a gyro is constrained to an external reference and has
= 10/1000 Metres). three degrees of freedom it is.
Question Number 3. Option A. a tied gyro.
Option B. an earth gyro.
A gyroscope suffers from apparent wander. This is due to.
Option C. a space gyro.
Option A. friction on the gimbals and bearings.
Correct Answer is. a tied gyro.
Option B. the earth's rotation.
Option C. the aircraft flying along a north/south track. Explanation. A tied gyro has one axis fixed to a point
(in space or on earth). An earth gyro is a tied gyro but with
Correct Answer is. the earth's rotation.
one axis specifically fixed to a reference on earth.
Explanation. Real wander is physical movement
from friction in bearings. Apparent wander is due to effect Question Number 9.
of earth's rotation. The point at which an applied force overcomes friction
and an object begins to move is the co-efficient of.
Question Number 4.
Option A. limiting friction.
The SI unit of momentum is the.
Option B. static friction.
Option A. metre squared (m2). Option C. kinetic friction.
Option B. kilogram metre per second.
Correct Answer is. limiting friction.
Option C. kilogram / metre (kg/m).
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. kilogram metre per second.
Explanation. Momentum = mass * velocity. So units Question Number 10.
are kg m/s. The amount a gyro precesses when a torque is applied is.
Question Number 5. Option A. proportional to the torque.
Option B. inversely proportional to the torque.
Precession in a gyro is.
Option C. proportional to the square of the torque.
Option A. proportional to the magnitude of the torque
Correct Answer is. proportional to the torque.
applied.
Option B. proportional to the square of the magnitude Explanation. NIL.
of the torque applied.
Option C. inversely proportional to the magnitude of
the torques applied.
Correct Answer is. proportional to the magnitude of the
torque applied.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 11.

The gyroscopic principle is based upon.
Option A. Newton’s 3rd Law.
Option B. Newton’s 2nd Law.
Option C. Newton’s 1st Law.
Correct Answer is. Newton’s 1st Law.
Explanation. Newton's First Law is also called the
'Inertia Law'.
Question Number 12.
A mass of 20kg produces a momentum of 300kgm/s.
What is the Kinetic energy?.
Option A. 3250 Joules.
Option B. 2250 Joules.
Option C. 0.25 Kilojoules.
Explanation. Momentum = MV, 300 = 20V, V = 15.
KE = 1/2MV2 = 1/2*20*15*15 = 2250J.
Question Number 13.
A motorcycle of mass 400kg is moving at a velocity of
8m/s. Calculate its momentum.
Option A. 3200 kgm/s.
Option B. 50 kgm/s.
Option C. 320 kgm/s.
Correct Answer is. 3200 kgm/s.
Explanation. Momentum = mass * velocity.
Question Number 14.
If the speed of a gyro is increased, the force required to
precess the gyro is.
Option A. increased.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. decreased.
Correct Answer is. increased.
Explanation. Rigidity increases with RPM.
2.4a. Mechanics Fluid Dynamics. Explanation. 1 litre of water has a mass of 1kg. 1000

litres of water has a mass of 1 metric tonne. 9.2 tonnes of
Question Number 1. water is 9200 litres. But fuel is lighter than water (0.8x) so
The specific gravity of a substance is calculated by. the uplift will be more than 9200 litres.
Option A. density of the body squared multiplied by Question Number 7.
the density of water.
Specific gravity.
Option B. the density of the body divided by the
density of water. Option A. is measured in kg/m2.
Option C. density of the body multiplied by the Option B. is measured in kg/m3.
density of water. Option C. has no units.
Correct Answer is. the density of the body divided by Correct Answer is. has no units.
the density of water. Explanation. Specific gravity is the density of the
Explanation. Specific' always means 'per' something fluid divided by the density of water. Since both have the
or divide by. same units (kg/m3) they cancel - hence, no units.

The SI unit of density is the. The standard temperature and pressure for measuring the
density of liquids is.
Option A. kilogram per cubic metre (kg/m3).
Option B. Pascal (Pa). Option A. 15 °C and 760 mmHg.
Option C. cubic metre (m3). Option B. 0 °C and 760 mmHg.
Option C. 4 °C and 760 mmHg.
Correct Answer is. kilogram per cubic metre (kg/m3).
Correct Answer is. 4 °C and 760 mmHg.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Since water is most dense at 4 °C (1000
Question Number 3. kg/m3), this is used as the standard temperature. When
Relative density is. working out specific gravity, the fluid in question must
Option A. density of water x density of medium. also be 4 °C. (But remember it is 0 °C for gases, and room
Option B. density of water/density of medium. temp - 20 °C - for barometers).
Option C. density of medium/density of water. Question Number 9.
Correct Answer is. density of medium/density of water. The standard temperature and pressure for measuring the
Explanation. NIL. volume of liquids and solids is.
Question Number 4. Option A. 20 °C and 700 mmHg.
Option B. 20 °C and 760 mmHg.
The standard for measuring density is.
Option C. 0 °C and 760 mmHg.
Option A. 0 °C and 760 mm of mercury.
Correct Answer is. 20 °C and 760 mmHg.
Option B. -20 °C and 700 mm of mercury.
Option C. +20 °C and 760 mm of mercury. Explanation. Since the volume of solids and gases
changes with temperature (and a lesser amount with
Correct Answer is. 0 °C and 760 mm of mercury.
pressure) the standard for measuring volume is 20 °C.
Explanation. STP. (room temp.) and 760mmHg (standard sea level
Question Number 5. atmospheric pressure).
1kg of water is heated from 0 °C to 2 °C. Its volume will. Question Number 10.
Option A. decrease. Given that 1 cubic foot of water weighs 62.4 lbs and the
Option B. stay the same. specific gravity of fuel is 0.81, what is the weight of 10
Option C. increase. cubic foot of fuel?.
Correct Answer is. decrease. Option A. 402.8 lbs.
Explanation. When ice melts, its volume decreases Option B. 505.4 lbs.
up to 3 °C. Option C. 770.3 lbs.
Question Number 6. Correct Answer is. 505.4 lbs.
A pilot requests 9.2 tonnes of fuel. The bowser driver Explanation. 10 * 62.4 = 624. 624 * 081 =.
reports to the pilot that the specific gravity is 0.8, what
will the uplift be?.
Option A. 7360 litres.
Option B. 11500 litres.
Option C. 9200 litres.
Correct Answer is. 11500 litres.
Question Number 11.

At what temperature does water have the greatest
density?.
Option A. 0 °C.
Option B. 100 °C.
Option C. 4 °C.
Correct Answer is. 4 °C.
Explanation. Solidification begins at 4 °C when
cooling.
Question Number 12.
The specific gravity of methylated spirit is 0.8. Its density
is.
Option A. 800 g/m3.
Option B. 800 kg/m3.
Option C. 80 kg/m3.
Correct Answer is. 800 kg/m3.
Explanation. sg = density of fluid/density of water
density of fluid = sg * density of water density of water =
1000 kg/m3.
Question Number 13.
The density of Cu is 8,900kg/m3. What is its relative
density?.
Option A. 890.
Option B. 8.9.
Option C. 89.
Explanation. rel. density = density of
substance/density of water= 8900/1000.

2.4b. Mechanics Fluid Dynamics. Question Number 6.

Viscosity can be described as.
Question Number 1.
Option A. Newton's 1st law of motion.
Atmospheric pressure at ISA conditions is.
Option B. fluids flowing in a straight line.
Option A. 1013 pa. Option C. the internal resistance for a fluid to flow.
Option B. 1013 bar.
Correct Answer is. the internal resistance for a fluid to
Option C. 1013 mBar.
flow.
Correct Answer is. 1013 mBar.
Explanation. Viscosity is opposition to flow of a
Explanation. NIL. fluid.
Convert 220 gallons to litres. How much lift is produced on a wing can be derived from.
Option A. 1000 litres. Option A. Bernoulli's Theorem.
Option B. 48.4 litres. Option B. Faraday's law.
Option C. 500 litres. Option C. Charles law.
Correct Answer is. 1000 litres. Correct Answer is. Bernoulli's Theorem.
Explanation. Imagine how many times a large coke Explanation. Bernoulli's theorem.
bottle goes into a normal engine oil container (about 4
(and a bit)), then * 220. Question Number 8.
http://www.metric-conversions.org/ Pressure in a pipe is.
Question Number 3. Option A. force per unit area.
Option B. mass divided by cross-sectional area.
The SI unit of pressure is the.
Option C. weight per unit area.
Option A. Newton per metre squared (N/m2).
Correct Answer is. force per unit area.
Option B. Cubic metre (m3).
Option C. kilogram per metre cubed (kg/m3). Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. Newton per metre squared (N/m2).
Explanation. Pressure = force / area. So units of
pressure is Newtons / square metre (or better known as
Pascals).
Question Number 4.
A gauge indicates 15 PSIG. What is the absolute
pressure?.
Option A. 30 PSI.
Option B. 0.3 PSI.
Option C. Zero PSI.
Correct Answer is. 30 PSI.
Explanation. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure +
atmospheric pressure. (The G in PSIG means 'gauge')
Atmospheric pressure varies slightly so is not always the
14.7 PSI of the ISA.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pound-force_per_square_inc
h
Question Number 5.
Water is most dense at.
Option A. -4 °C.
Option B. 0 °C.
Option C. +4 °C.
Correct Answer is. +4 °C.
Explanation. As water cools, the molecules begin to
crystallise at 4 °C. Crystallized water (i.e. ice) has a
greater volume than liquid water and therefore less
density (that is why ice floats).
http://www.physicalgeography.net/fundamentals/8a.html
3a. Thermodynamics. Option B. the amount of vibration of molecules.

Option C. the heat energy of particles.
Question Number 1.
Correct Answer is. the amount of vibration of
Convert 25 degrees centigrade to fahrenheit. molecules.
Option A. 57. Explanation. Heat energy applied to an object does
Option B. 77. not necessarily increase temperature (eg. when melting or
Option C. -7. evaporating).
Question Number 8.
Explanation. (25*1.8)+32= 77.
What temperature scale is used with the combined gas
Question Number 2. law?.
You are at the north pole where the temperature is minus Option A. Absolute.
50 °C below freezing. What sort of thermometer would Option B. Fahrenheit.
you use to measure it?. Option C. Celsius.
Option A. Water. Correct Answer is. Absolute.
Option B. Alcohol. Explanation. Kelvin (absolute scale) is always used
Option C. Mercury. with the combined gas law equation.";.
Correct Answer is. Alcohol.
Question Number 9.
Explanation. NIL.
What is 1 btu/lb in joules per kilogram?.
Question Number 3. Option A. 2326 j/kg.
Convert 15 °C to °F. Option B. 4128 j/kg.
Option A. 37 °F. Option C. 9.18 j/kg.
Option B. 59 °F. Correct Answer is. 2326 j/kg.
Option C. 62 °F. Explanation. This is referring to specific energy
Correct Answer is. 59 °F. content (J/kg or Btu/lb) of fuel. 1 btu = 1055 J. 1 lb = 2.2
Explanation. ISA sea level temperature 15 °C = 59 °F. kg. Therefore 1 btu = 2326 J/kg.
1 degree rise on the centigrade scale will cause a. 1 CHU = Centigrade Heat Unit = 1400 ft lbs =energy to
Option A. 1.8 degree rise in Fahrenheit. raise.
Option B. 33 degree rise in Fahrenheit. Option A. 1 lb of water by 1 °F.
Option C. 0.911 degree rise in Fahrenheit. Option B. 1 kg of water by 1 °C.
Correct Answer is. 1.8 degree rise in Fahrenheit. Option C. 1 lb of water by 1 °C.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. 1 lb of water by 1 °C.
Explanation. 1 CHU is the heat required to raise 1 lb
Question Number 5.
of water 1 degree Centigrade (=1.8 BTU).
1 calorie is equal to.
Question Number 11.
Option A. 4 J.
Option B. 40 J. 1 BTU = 778 ft lbs which is the energy required to raise
Option C. 400 J. the temperature of.
Correct Answer is. 4 J. Option A. 1 lb of water by 1 °F.
Option B. 1 kg of water by 1 °F.
Explanation. NIL.
Option C. 1 lb of water by 1 °C.
Question Number 6. Correct Answer is. 1 lb of water by 1 °F.
1 BTU equals. Explanation. 1 BTU is the heat required to raise 1 lb
Option A. 1055 Joules. of water 1 degree Fahrenheit.
Option B. 1055 Calorie.
Question Number 12.
Option C. 1055 kJ.
A temperature of 41 degrees Fahrenheit is, in Centigrade.
Option A. 9 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 5 degrees.
Question Number 7. Option C. 7 degrees.
Temperature is a measure of. Correct Answer is. 5 degrees.
Option A. the amount of friction produced by two Explanation. C = 5/9(F-32).
mating surfaces.

Heat is described as. One degree increment on the Centigrade scale is equal to
Option A. a high temperature. what increment on the Fahrenheit scale?.
Option B. energy in transit. Option A. 1.8 °F.
Option C. the stored energy in a hot body. Option B. 33 °F.
Correct Answer is. energy in transit. Option C. 12 °F.
Explanation. Heat is a type of transfer of energy Correct Answer is. 1.8 °F.
which increases the kinetic energy of the molecules Explanation. A change of' 1 degree C. it is equal to 'a
within a body. change of' 1.8 degree F.
600K is equal to. Transfer of heat from a hot area to a cold area is.
Option A. 853 °C. Option A. conduction.
Option B. 873 °C. Option B. convection.
Option C. 326.85 °C. Option C. radiation.
Correct Answer is. 326.85 °C. Correct Answer is. conduction.
Explanation. Subtract 273.15. Explanation. Convection is a transfer of 'matter' from
one place to another. Radiation is a system which heats up
Question Number 15.
anything in its path. but heat is not 'transferred'.
When gases change temperature/pressure, the scale used
is. Question Number 21.
Option A. Kelvin. Fahrenheit may be converted to Celsius by using the
Option B. degrees Fahrenheit. equation.
Option C. degrees Centigrade. Option A. °C = 5/9 * ( °F - 32).
Correct Answer is. Kelvin. Option B. °C = 5/9 * °F - 32.
Option C. °C = 9/5 * °F + 32.
Explanation. Always use the Kelvin scale in
thermodynamics. Correct Answer is. °C = 5/9 * ( °F - 32).
Explanation. °C = 5/9( °F-32). °F = 9/5 °F + 32.
Question Number 16.
Convert 100 °C to Kelvin. Question Number 22.
Option A. 173 K. What is 1 BTU/lb in joules per kilogram?.
Option B. 373 K. Option A. 4128 joules per kilogram.
Option C. 273 K. Option B. 9.18 joules per kilogram.
Correct Answer is. 373 K. Option C. 2326 joules per kilogram.
Explanation. Degrees C to Kelvin - just add 273. Correct Answer is. 2326 joules per kilogram.
Explanation. 1 BTU/lb = 2326 j/kg. This is referring
Question Number 17.
to heat of combustion of fuel.
-40 °C in Fahrenheit is.
Question Number 23.
Option A. 72 °F.
Option B. 8 °F. Celsius to Fahrenheit is calculated by.
Option C. -40 °F. Option A. (9/5 * °C) + 32.
Correct Answer is. -40 °F. Option B. (5/9 * °C) + 32.
Option C. (5/9 + 32) + °C.
Explanation. °F = 1.8 °C + 32 1.8(-40) + 32 = -40 °F.
Please do not report this as an error. Correct Answer is. (9/5 * °C) + 32.
Explanation. Remember standard sea level
Question Number 18.
temperature is 15 °C and 59F. Make °C = 15 on each
Absolute zero is. formula above, and see which comes out at 59 °F".
Option A. 0 °C.
Question Number 24.
Option B. 273.15 K.
Option C. -273.15 °C. The percentage of nitrogen in air is approximately.
Correct Answer is. -273.15 °C. Option A. 0.62.
Option B. 0.21.
Explanation. Absolute zero is - 273.15 degrees
Option C. 0.78.
Celsius.
Explanation. NIL.

When a system undergoes a complete cycle where the net For a fixed mass of water at sea level ISA conditions and
heat supplied is equal to work done plus a change in at 10,000ft.
internal energy - this is known as. Option A. the water will boil at a lower temperature
Option A. 2nd Law of thermodynamics. than sea level.
Option B. First law of thermodynamics. Option B. the water will boil at the same temperature
Option C. Ideal Gas law. as sea level.
Correct Answer is. First law of thermodynamics. Option C. the water will boil at a higher temperature
than sea level.
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. the water will boil at a lower
Question Number 26. temperature than sea level.
In a heat pump. Explanation. As pressure drops, so does the boiling
Option A. the evaporator gains heat during the heating temperature.
cycle.
Question Number 31.
Option B. the condenser always loses heat.
Option C. the pump operates in both directions. Dew point is.
Correct Answer is. the pump operates in both Option A. the temperature at which condensation
directions. actually occurs.
Option B. the temperature below which condensation
Explanation. NIL.
occurs.
Question Number 27. Option C. the temperature above which condensation
What is -28 °C on the Kelvin scale?. occurs.
Option A. 245 K. Correct Answer is. the temperature below which
Option B. 18 K. condensation occurs.
Option C. 291 K. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 245 K. Question Number 32.
Explanation. -28 + 273 = 245. By adding impurities to water.
Question Number 28. Option A. the melting point will increase and the
When water freezes, heat energy is. boiling point decrease.
Option B. there will be no effect to the melting and
Option A. absorbed.
boiling points.
Option B. retained.
Option C. the melting point will decrease and the
Option C. released.
boiling point will increase.
Correct Answer is. released.
Correct Answer is. the melting point will decrease and
Explanation. Freezing is 'exothermic'. the boiling point will increase.
842 degrees Fahrenheit is equal to. Question Number 33.
Option A. 450 Degrees Celsius. Which type of circuit is used when the temperature of the
Option B. 400 Degrees Celsius. source has insufficient heat for thermocouple
Option C. 232.2 degrees Celsius. application?.
Correct Answer is. 450 Degrees Celsius. Option A. thermistor.
Explanation. C = 5/9(F - 32). Option B. temperature bulb.
Option C. balanced bridge.
Correct Answer is. thermistor.
Explanation. NIL.

Four pounds of gas at a temperature of 17 °C is heated to 89 °C. The absolute temperature scale that has the same
The specific heat at constant pressure and constant volume are increments as the Fahrenheit scale is the.
0.2404 and 0.1718 respectively. Find the heat absorbed by the
gas at constant pressure and at constant volume.
Option A. Rankin scale.
Option B. Kelvin scale.
Option A. 70.1 C.H.U. and 50 C.H.U.
Option C. Celsius scale.
Option B. 49.5 C.H.U. and 69 C.H.U.
Option C. 69.2 C.H.U. and 49.5 C.H.U. Correct Answer is. Rankin scale.
Correct Answer is. 69.2 C.H.U. and 49.5 C.H.U. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Q = mC(T2 -T1), 4 * 0.2404 * 72 = 69.2 Question Number 41.

CHU, and 4 * 0.1718 * 72 = 49.5 CHU. The absolute temperature scale that has the same
Question Number 35. increments as the Celsius scale is the.
In 'standard conditions' what is the standard for Option A. Rankin scale.

measurement of volume and density of a gas?. Option B. Kelvin scale.
Option C. Fahrenheit scale.
Option A. 0 °C and 760mm of Mercury.
Option B. 20 °C and 700mm of Mercury. Correct Answer is. Kelvin scale.
Option C. 20 °C and 760mm of Mercury. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 0 °C and 760mm of Mercury.
Explanation. STP also applies to solids and liquids.
Question Number 36.
In 'standard conditions' what is the standard for
measurement of volume and density of a liquid or solid?.
Option A. 20 °C and 760mm of Mercury.
Option B. 0 °C and 760mm of Mercury.
Option C. 20 °C and 700mm of Mercury.
Correct Answer is. 0 °C and 760mm of Mercury.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 37.
842 Degrees Fahrenheit is equal to.
Option A. 450 Degrees Celsius.
Option B. 232.2 Degrees Celsius.
Option C. 400 Degrees Celsius.
Correct Answer is. 450 Degrees Celsius.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 38.
Which of the following 2 points are equal?.
Option A. -32 °C and 0 °F.
Option B. 40 °C and 40 °F.
Option C. -40 °C and -40 °F.
Correct Answer is. -40 °C and -40 °F.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 39.
What is 100 Degrees Centigrade in Fahrenheit?.
Option A. 30 Degrees.
Option B. 148 Degrees.
Option C. 212 Degrees.
Correct Answer is. 212 Degrees.
Explanation. NIL.
3b. Thermodynamics. Option C. the same.

Correct Answer is. more.
Question Number 1.
Explanation. Cp is slightly higher than Cv. Usually it
For a heat pump to internally heat it uses a.
only applies to gases. For example the Cp for air is 1.4
Option A. inside evaporator. times more than its Cv.
Option B. inside condenser.
Option C. outside condenser. Question Number 7.
Correct Answer is. inside condenser. Adiabatic compression is when.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. no heat is lost or gained.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heat_pump Option B. kinetic energy is gained.
Option C. heat is given off to the surroundings.
Question Number 2.
Correct Answer is. no heat is lost or gained.
The heat required to change a liquid to a gas is called the
Explanation. NIL.
heat of.
Option A. condensation. Question Number 8.
Option B. fusion. The heat required to change a solid to a liquid is called the
Option C. vapourisation. heat of.
Correct Answer is. vapourisation. Option A. vapourisation.
Explanation. Liquid to gas is vapourisation. Solid to Option B. condensation.
liquid is fusion (another term for melting - like fusion Option C. fusion.
welding). Correct Answer is. fusion.
Question Number 3. Explanation. Another word for melting is 'fusion' (as
in fusion welding - or... 'a fuse').
What is the SI units for specific heat capacity?.
Option A. Jkg-1k-1. Question Number 9.
Option B. J/S/C. Latent heat is the.
Option C. J/ kg. Option A. heat required to raise the temperature of a
Correct Answer is. Jkg-1k-1. body by 1 °C.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. heat required to raise 1kg of matter by 1K.
Option C. heat required to change the state of a body.
Question Number 4.
Correct Answer is. heat required to change the state of a
The most common refrigerants are. body.
Option A. water, ammonia, freon. Explanation. Latent' means 'hidden'. It is the heat
Option B. water, freon, carbon dioxide. energy required to change the state (melt or vapourise).
Option C. ammonia, freon, methyl bromide. No rise in temperature is pruduced whilst doing so - hence
Correct Answer is. water, ammonia, freon. the 'hidden' bit.
Explanation. All are refrigerants - water is used in Question Number 10.
cooling towers. Methyl bromide is almost completely
The intensity of radiated heat is.
phased out due to safety and environmental reasons.
Carbon dioxide has been used but no more due to Option A. inversely proportional to the square of the
availability of better refrigerants such as ammonia. distance from the source of the heat.
Option B. not effected by the distance from the source
Question Number 5. of the heat.
How is heat transferred in a vacuum?. Option C. directly proportional to distance from the
Option A. Convection. source of the heat.
Option B. Conduction. Correct Answer is. inversely proportional to the square
Option C. Radiation. of the distance from the source of the heat.
Correct Answer is. Radiation. Explanation. Like most such things, intensity of heat,
Explanation. NIL. gravity, magnetism etc. - they all reduce with the square
of the distance (i.e. double the distance and the intensity is
Question Number 6. 1/4).
The specific heat capacity of a gas heated at constant
pressure, when compared to the specific heat capacity of a
gas heated at constant volume, is.
Option A. more.
Option B. less.

As a block of ice is melted (to 4 °C). Its volume. Convection does not occur in.
Option A. remains the same. Option A. liquids.
Option B. decreases. Option B. liquids.
Option C. increases. Option C. solids.
Correct Answer is. decreases. Correct Answer is. solids.
Explanation. Ice expands as it gets colder - which is Explanation. The medium must 'flow' for conduction
why water pipes burst if they freeze. to take place.
A good refrigerant has. A process where volume does not change is.
Option A. high condensing pressure, low evaporating Option A. isochoric.
temperature. Option B. isobaric.
Option B. high condensing pressure, high evaporating Option C. isothermic.
temperature. Correct Answer is. isochoric.
Option C. low condensing pressure, low vaporating
Explanation. NIL.
temperature.
Correct Answer is. low condensing pressure, low Question Number 18.
vaporating temperature. A process where heat is not transferred to or from a gas is.
Explanation. The refrigerant must evaporate at lower Option A. adiabatic.
temperature than the 'cold space' and must condense at a Option B. isochoric.
relatively high temperature, with a low compression level. Option C. isobaric.
Question Number 13. Correct Answer is. adiabatic.
In a heat pump. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. In a heat pump. Question Number 19.
Option B. the condenser loses heat. A process where pressure does not change is known as.
Option C. flow across the condenser is always in one
Option A. isochoric.
direction.
Option B. isothermic.
Correct Answer is. the condenser loses heat. Option C. isobaric.
Explanation. Heat pumps can be used to cool as well Correct Answer is. isobaric.
as heat. Refrigerant flow changes direction respectively,
Explanation. Iso' means equal. 'bar' is pressure.
but the condensor always rejects the heat.
Question Number 20.
Question Number 14.
When a liquid is heated, it expands.
Charles' Law states that.
Option A. more than a solid.
Option A. volume varies inversely with temperature.
Option B. less than a solid.
Option B. volume varies directly with temperature.
Option C. more than a gas.
Option C. volume equals pressure * temperature.
Correct Answer is. more than a solid.
Correct Answer is. volume varies directly with
temperature. Explanation. Generally speaking, liquids have a
greater coefficient of thermal expansion than solids.
Explanation. NIL.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Charles_law Question Number 21.
Question Number 15. If pressure on a liquid increases, whilst temperature is
held constant, the volume will.
Boyle's law states that.
Option A. decrease.
Option A. pressure equals temperature divided by
Option B. remain constant.
volume.
Option C. increase.
Option B. pressure varies directly with volume.
Option C. pressure varies inversely with volume. Correct Answer is. remain constant.
Correct Answer is. pressure varies inversely with Explanation. Liquids are incompressible.
volume.
Explanation. Pressure rises, volume decreases.

A process where temperature remains the same is known The atmosphere's temperature changes at a rate of -1.98
as. °C per 1000 ft up to 36,000 ft where it remains constant at.
Option A. isobaric. Option A. -56 °F.
Option B. isochoric. Option B. -52 °C.
Option C. isothermic. Option C. -56 °C.
Correct Answer is. isothermic. Correct Answer is. -56 °C.
Explanation. Iso' means equal. 'Thermal' is Explanation. The troposphere is a constant -56
temperature. degrees C.
What is descriptive of Boyle's Law? (P=Pressure, A process where heat is given off to its surroundings is
V=Volume, T=Temperature). called.
Option A. P is proportional to 1/T. Option A. isothermal.
Option B. P is proportional to 1/V. Option B. adiabatic.
Option C. P is proportional to T. Option C. isobaric.
Correct Answer is. P is proportional to 1/V. Correct Answer is. isothermal.
Explanation. Pressure (P) is inversely proportional to Explanation. Adiabatic' is a process where NO heat is
volume (V). given off to its surroundings. Isobaric is constant pressure.
Isothermal, to keep constant temperature must give off
Question Number 24.
heat as it is compressed.
A compressor increases.
Question Number 30.
Option A. kinetic energy.
Option B. potential energy. A body which is allowed to expand when heated, expands
Option C. moving energy. past the pressure imposed on it and.
Correct Answer is. potential energy. Option A. a force is produced.
Option B. nothing will happen.
Explanation. Compressed air is a form of 'potential
Option C. work is done.
energy'.
Correct Answer is. work is done.
Question Number 25.
Explanation. Work is done when it exerts a force and
P1 * V1 / T1 = P2 * V2 / T2 is (P=Pressure, V=Volume, moves (work = force x distance). Yes, a force is produced
T=Temperature). but this is not the whole story.
Option A. Ideal gas law.
Question Number 31.
Option B. Charles' law.
Option C. Boyle's law. The quantity of heat developed by burning 1 kg of fuel is
known as.
Correct Answer is. Ideal gas law.
Option A. radiant heat.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. latent heat.
Question Number 26. Option C. heat of combustion.
V1 / T1 = V2 / T2 at a constant pressure is (P=Pressure, Correct Answer is. heat of combustion.
V=Volume, T=Temperature). Explanation. The energy content of fuel is known as
Option A. ideal gas law. 'heat of combustion'.
Option B. Boyle's law.
Question Number 32.
Option C. Charles' law.
The transfer of heat through radiation is achieved by the
Correct Answer is. Charles' law.
application of radioactive isotopes.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. the application of radioactive isotopes.
Question Number 27. Option B. warming up the intervening medium.
P1 * V1 = P2 * V2 at a constant temperature is Option C. not warming up the intervening medium.
(P=Pressure, V=Volume, T=Temperature). Correct Answer is. warming up the intervening
Option A. Boyle's law. medium.
Option B. ideal gas law. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. Charles' law.
Correct Answer is. Boyle's law.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 33. Explanation. Air is 78% (approx. 4/5) nitrogen and
The dew point is. 21% (approx 1/5) oxygen.
Option A. the point when air is cooled at which the Question Number 39.
moisture just starts to condense. What is meant by adiabatic?.
Option B. the point at which air can be heated.
Option A. All heat crosses the boundary.
Option C. the point when air is cooled at which the
Option B. No heat crosses the boundary.
moisture does not condense.
Option C. Some heat crosses the boundary.
Correct Answer is. the point when air is cooled at which
Correct Answer is. No heat crosses the boundary.
the moisture just starts to condense.
Explanation. No heat is lost or gained in an adiabatic
Explanation. Check the definition of dew point.
process.
Question Number 34.
Question Number 40.
What are common refrigerant agents?.
If a gas is heated and its temperature is raised by 1K. What
Option A. formaldehyde, ammonia, carbon dioxide. happens to its volume?.
Option B. water, freon, ammonia.
Option A. Decreases by 1/273.
Option C. Dry ice, methyl bromide, water.
Option B. Increases by 1/273.
Correct Answer is. water, freon, ammonia. Option C. Remains the same.
Explanation. Water is used in cooling towers (and Correct Answer is. Increases by 1/273.
when you sweat). Freon and ammonia are commonly used
Explanation. Charles's Law. Also how the absolute
in fridges and air-con systems.
zero (-273 °C is calculated).
Question Number 35.
Question Number 41.
During a process of gas heating, no heat is absorbed or
If a block of ice melts in a glass of water, the level of
given out. It is.
water in the glass will.
Option A. adiabatic.
Option A. fall.
Option B. isochoric.
Option B. rise.
Option C. isothermal.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. adiabatic.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. No heat absorbed or given out is
Explanation. NIL.
'adiabatic'.
Question Number 42.
Question Number 36.
If heat is constant, and if pressure increases on a liquid
During a pressurising process, all heat is given away. It is.
what will the volume do?.
Option A. adiabatic.
Option A. Increase.
Option B. isochoric.
Option B. Remains constant.
Option C. isothermal.
Option C. Decrease.
Correct Answer is. isothermal.
Correct Answer is. Remains constant.
Explanation. All heat given away keeps the process at
Explanation. Liquids are considered incompressible,
constant temperature - thus 'isothermal'.
therefore their volume remains constant.
Question Number 37.
Question Number 43.
A material capable of going direct from solid to gas is a.
Radiant heat of a body, heated from a radiant source is.
Option A. substrate.
Option A. inversely proportional to the square of the
Option B. substance.
distance.
Option C. sublimate.
Option B. proportional to distance.
Correct Answer is. sublimate. Option C. inversely proportional.
Explanation. A sublimate can go directly from solid Correct Answer is. inversely proportional to the square
to gas. of the distance.
Question Number 38. Explanation. The wording of this question is terrible,
The composition of the atmosphere is approximately. but it is probably referring to radiant heat being inversely
proportional to the square of the distance from the source
Option A. 1/5 oxygen and 4/5 nitrogen.
of the.
Option B. 4/5 oxygen and 1/5 nitrogen.
Option C. 2/5 oxygen and 3/5 nitrogen.
Correct Answer is. 1/5 oxygen and 4/5 nitrogen.

Combined gas law relates volume, pressure and. The Steam Point of water is.
Option A. temperature. Option A. 0 Kelvin.
Option B. density. Option B. 373 Kelvin.
Option C. velocity. Option C. 273 Kelvin.
Correct Answer is. temperature. Correct Answer is. 373 Kelvin.
Explanation. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 Combined (or Explanation. K = C + 273.
ideal) gas law.
Question Number 51.
Question Number 45. A 200 cm titanium bar increases in length by 2 cm when
The heat given off by burning a 1kg block of wood is. its temperature rises by 100 °C. Its linear expansivity is.
Option A. transmissive heat. Option A. 0.0101 per °C.
Option B. radiant heat. Option B. 0.01 per °C.
Option C. latent heat. Option C. 0.0001 per °C.
Correct Answer is. radiant heat. Correct Answer is. 0.0001 per °C.
Explanation. The embers of burning wood produce Explanation. Expansion = L x alpha x temp.change
radiant heat. So alpha = Expansion/(L x temp.change) = 2/(200 * 100)
= 0.0001 per °C.
Question Number 46.
H20 in what form holds most energy?. Question Number 52.
Option A. Steam. Heat transmission by convection is confined to.
Option B. Ice. Option A. liquids and gases.
Option C. Water. Option B. gases and solids.
Correct Answer is. Steam. Option C. solids and liquids.
Explanation. Water in the form of steam has the most Correct Answer is. liquids and gases.
energy. Explanation. In convection, the material must 'flow'
and carry the heat with it.
Question Number 47.
A block of metal is melted. It will. Question Number 53.
Option A. remain the same volume. Which contains the least amount of heat energy?.
Option B. decrease in volume. Option A. Both 1 kg of ice at 0 °C and 1 kg of water at
Option C. increase in volume. 0 °C have the same amount of heat energy.
Correct Answer is. increase in volume. Option B. 1 kg of water at 0 °C.
Option C. 1 kg of ice at 0 °C.
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. Both 1 kg of ice at 0 °C and 1 kg of
Question Number 48. water at 0 °C have the same amount of heat energy.
The energy that ice at 0 °C must gain so that it turns to Explanation. The temperature only is a measure of
water at 0 °C is called. the heat energy, not the state.
Option A. the latent heat of vaporisation.
Question Number 54.
Option B. sensible energy.
Option C. the latent heat of fusion. Which weighs the most?.
Correct Answer is. the latent heat of fusion. Option A. 1 kg of ice at 0 °C.
Option B. Both 1 kg of ice at 0 °C and 1 kg of water at
Explanation. Fusion means 'to melt'.
0 °C have the same weight.
Question Number 49. Option C. 1 kg of water at 0 °C.
Ideal gas goes through an isothermal process. It is in Correct Answer is. Both 1 kg of ice at 0 °C and 1 kg of
accordance with which law?. water at 0 °C have the same weight.
Option A. Gay Lussac's. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. Boyle's.
Option C. Charles's.
Correct Answer is. Boyle's.
Explanation. Boyle's Law (P/V = constant) assumes
constant temperature (isothermal).
Question Number 55.

Which has the greatest density?.
Option A. 1 kg of ice at 0 °C.
Option B. 1 kg of water at 0 °C.
Option C. Both 1 kg of ice at 0 °C and 1 kg of ice at 0
°C have the same density.
ice at 0 °C have the same density.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 56.
Which has the greatest volume?.
Option A. 1 kg of water at 0 °C.
Option B. 1 kg of ice at 0 °C.
Option C. Both 1 kg of ice at 0 °C and 1 kg of ice at 0
°C have the same volume.
ice at 0 °C have the same volume.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 57.
The temperature at which water will exist as a solid, liquid
and gas, all at the same time, is called.
Option A. the triple point and is approximately 0 °C.
Option B. the tri-state point and is approximately at 0
°C.
Option C. the tri-state point and is approximately 98
°C.
Correct Answer is. the triple point and is approximately
0 °C.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 58.
Material A and material B are both removed from the
same oven at the same time, after being in the same
amount of time. Material A is a higher temperature than
material B. This is because.
Option A. material B has a higher specific heat
capacity.
Option B. material A must have had a higher
temperature before it was put in the oven.
Option C. material A has a higher specific heat
capacity.
Correct Answer is. material A has a higher specific heat
capacity.
Explanation. NIL.

4. Optics (Light). Explanation. Dispersion also limits the bandwidth in

step index fibres. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John
Question Number 1. Crisp.
What is the thickness of a single mode fibre optic?.
Question Number 7.
Option A. 200 micrometres.
Attenuated pulses have their sizes and shape restored by.
Option B. 5 micrometres.
Option C. 50 micrometres. Option A. regenerators.
Option B. impedance matching transformers.
Correct Answer is. 5 micrometres.
Option C. opto-isolators.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics 3rd Edition
Correct Answer is. regenerators.
John Crisp and Barry Elliot Page 67.
Explanation. Regenerators are placed in the fibre
Question Number 2. optic line (usually not less than 1 km spacings) to boost
Divergent light rays give rise to. the signal (like a relay system). Thus reducing attenuation
Option A. a real image. at the recieving end. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John
Option B. a virtual image. Crisp.
Option C. chromatic aberrations. Question Number 8.
Correct Answer is. a virtual image. Attenuation in fibre optic cables is most often caused by.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. backscattering and microbends.
Question Number 3. Option B. microbends and scattering.
Option C. absorption and scattering.
In fibreoptics the type of cable is chosen by.
Correct Answer is. absorption and scattering.
Option A. matching the diameter of the cable to the
wavelength. Explanation. Although all three (microbends,
Option B. distance required to travel. scattering and absorbtion) cause attenuation in fibre
Option C. the strength of signal needed. optics, microbends are the most easy to manufacture out
of the cable. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
Correct Answer is. distance required to travel.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Question Number 9.
Crisp. For a concave lens the image is.
Question Number 4. Option A. virtual.
Option B. real.
A material with a gradually varying refractive index is
Option C. a chromatic orb.
said to have a.
Correct Answer is. virtual.
Option A. graded index.
Option B. step index. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. single index. Question Number 10.
Correct Answer is. graded index. In a fibre optic flying control system.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Option A. the sensor and the transmitter require
Crisp. electrical power.
Question Number 5. Option B. the transmitter requires power.
Option C. the sensor requires electrical power.
Fibre optic cables are capable of transmitting light at.
Correct Answer is. the sensor and the transmitter
Option A. 1.99 * 108 m/s.
require electrical power.
Option B. 3 * 108 m/s.
Option C. 0.99 * 108 m/s. Explanation. The transmitter is an LED or laser (both
need power) and the receiver is a photodiode, which needs
Correct Answer is. 1.99 * 108 m/s.
electrical power. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John
Explanation. Speed of light in a vacuum is 3 * 10 to Crisp.
the power 8. But the refractiv index of glass is about 1.5.
So divide 3 * 10 to the power 8 by 1.5...Introduction to
Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
Question Number 6.
Step index fibres suffer from.
Option A. dispersion.
Option B. scatter.
Option C. attenuation.
Correct Answer is. dispersion.

Photons in a semiconductor are stimulated to produce When light rays enter a medium with a different refractive
excess photons to be emitted. This is a. index they.
Option A. photodiode. Option A. change direction.
Option B. laser diode. Option B. reflect.
Option C. LED. Option C. change speed.
Correct Answer is. laser diode. Correct Answer is. change speed.
Explanation. LASER - Light Amplification by the Explanation. They will only change direction if they
Stimulated Emition of Radiation. Introduction to Fiber hit the surface at an angle other than 0 degrees (to the
Optics by John Crisp. normal). It will always change speed however.
In a fibre optic flying control system, which of the A converging lens can focus light rays because.
following are used?. Option A. the incoming rays are already converging.
Option A. Single mode fibre. Option B. it is spherical.
Option B. Multi mode fibre. Option C. the light rays travel more slowly at the
Option C. Dual mode fibre. centre.
Correct Answer is. Multi mode fibre. Correct Answer is. it is spherical.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Explanation. A converging lens is a part of a sphere,
Crisp. so light rays hit it at different angles depending upon its
distance from the principle axis.
Question Number 13.
A fibre optic cable is attenuated at 29 dB/metre. This is Question Number 18.
referring to. If a ray of light enters a fibre optic cable with a refractive
Option A. allowable loss. index of 1.5, what is the speed of the ray in the cable?.
Option B. the figure allowed for when calculating Option A. 300,000 kilometres per second.
power gain. Option B. 400,000 kilometres per second.
Option C. the maximum cable run allowed in the Option C. 200,000 kilometres per second.
system. Correct Answer is. 200,000 kilometres per second.
Correct Answer is. the figure allowed for when Explanation. vacuum / speed of light in medium. 1.5
calculating power gain. = 300,000 / C, C = 200,000 km/s. Introduction to Fiber
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Optics by John Crisp.
Crisp.
Question Number 19.
Question Number 14. vacuum / speed of light in medium. 1.5 = 300,000 / C, C =
The fibre optic receiver is a. 200,000 km/s. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
Option A. laser diode. Option A. a constant refractive index across its cross
Option B. photodiode. sectional area.
Option C. light emitting diode. Option B. a variable refractive index across its cross
Correct Answer is. photodiode. sectional area.
Option C. a sudden change in refractive index.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John
Crisp. Correct Answer is. a variable refractive index across its
cross sectional area.
Question Number 15.
Regenerators are used in fibre optic systems to reduce. Crisp.
Option A. dispersion.
Question Number 20.
Option B. random emission.
Option C. attenuation. A mirror.
Correct Answer is. attenuation. Option A. refracts all light.
Option B. reflects all light.
Option C. absorbs a percentage of light.
Crisp.
Correct Answer is. absorbs a percentage of light.
Explanation. NIL.

The width of a multimode fibre optic cable (including the What is the speed of light in air at 0 °C.
cladding) is. Option A. 331 m/s.
Option A. 1 µm. Option B. 300 m/µs.
Option B. 100 µm. Option C. 331 mm/s.
Option C. 10 µm. Correct Answer is. 300 m/µs.
Correct Answer is. 100 µm. Explanation. Standard figure is 300,000,000 m/s.
Explanation. This must be referring to the 'overall' Convert that to m/microsecond and you must divide by
diameter - i.e that of the cladding, since the core is 50 or 1,000,000. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
62.5 micrometers (microns). Introduction to Fiber Optics
Question Number 27.
by John Crisp.
How far will light travel in one year?.
Question Number 22.
Option A. 9.46 * 1015 m.
A varying refractive index optical fibre is a. Option B. 1.5 * 1011 m.
Option A. single index. Option C. 3 * 1015 m.
Option B. graded index. Correct Answer is. 9.46 * 1015 m.
Option C. step index.
Explanation. 60 * 60 * 24 * 365 * 300000000 =
Correct Answer is. graded index. 9.46.... What a calculation to do without your calculator -
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John estimate as best you can.
Crisp.
Question Number 28.
Question Number 23. When different signals are transmitted down a fibre optic
Refractive index is. core, are they distinguished by a.
Option A. the speed of light in the medium divided by Option A. active filter.
the speed of light in air. Option B. passive filter.
Option B. the speed of light in air divided by the speed Option C. star coupler.
of light in the medium. Correct Answer is. passive filter.
Option C. the speed of light in air multiplied by the
Explanation. A 'passive filter' simply sorts out and/or
speed of light in the medium.
blocks certain wavelengths. An 'active filter' will catch
Correct Answer is. the speed of light in air multiplied certain wavelengths and convert them to other
by the speed of light in the medium. wavelength. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
Question Number 29.
Crisp page 11.
On an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR), the
Question Number 24. amount of attenuation in the cable is.
What is the speed of light in km/s?. Option A. read from the cathode ray display.
Option A. 3000. Option B. derived from a graph.
Option B. 3 * 108. Option C. dialed into OTDR.
Option C. 300000. Correct Answer is. read from the cathode ray display.
Correct Answer is. 300000. Explanation. See 'Introduction to Fiber Optics' pg.
Explanation. 300,000,000 m/s = 300,000,000/1000 157. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
km/s = 300,000 km/s. Introduction to Fiber Optics by
Question Number 30.
John Crisp.
In a flat surfaced mirror, the angle of reflection is.
Question Number 25.
Option A. equal to the angle of incidence.
The focal point of a mirror is. Option B. less than the angle of incidence.
Option A. 1/2 the radius. Option C. more than the angle of incidence.
Option B. the radius. Correct Answer is. equal to the angle of incidence.
Option C. 2 * the radius.
Explanation. The angle of incidence is the angle the
Correct Answer is. 1/2 the radius. light makes with the 'normal' line. The angle of reflection
Explanation. NIL. is equal on the other side of the 'normal' line.

In a multimode fibre optic cable, the. What will the image produced through a divergent lens
Option A. diameter is greater than the wavelength. be?.
Option B. diameter is less than the wavelength. Option A. Negative.
Option C. diameter is equal to the wavelength. Option B. Real.
Correct Answer is. diameter is greater than the Option C. Virtual.
wavelength. Correct Answer is. Virtual.
Explanation. Multimode fibres are bigger than single Explanation. The image produced by a divergent
mode fibres. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp. (concave) lens is a 'VIRTUAL' image. i.e you could not
take a photograph of it.
Question Number 32.
A converging lens converges light rays because. Question Number 37.
Option A. it is not a sphere. When a beam of light passes from one medium to another
Option B. the light source is already converging. with a different refractive index, what will happen to the
Option C. the light waves are refracted less in the beam of light?.
centre of the lens than they are at the Option A. Total internal reflection.
extremities. Option B. Change speed.
Correct Answer is. the light waves are refracted less in Option C. Total internal refraction.
the centre of the lens than they are at the extremities. Correct Answer is. Change speed.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. A beam of light passes from one
medium to another - its speed will change. This is the only
Question Number 33.
statement of certainty, since no information is given about
In fibre optics. The fibre cable has a refractive index of the angle of incidence.
1.5, what is its speed?.
Question Number 38.
Option A. 300 meters/microsecond.
Option B. 400 meters/microsecond. A fibre optic cable has different refractive indexes across
Option C. 200 meters/microsecond. its core diameter, it is a.
Correct Answer is. 200 meters/microsecond. Option A. single mode fibre.
Option B. graded index fibre.
Explanation. n = speed of light in vacuum / speed of
Option C. step index fibre.
light in substance. 1.5 = 300m per microsecond / speed of
light in fibre. Transpose.. Introduction to Fiber Optics by Correct Answer is. graded index fibre.
John Crisp. Explanation. A fibre optic with a different refractive
index across its core diameter is a 'graded index'.
Question Number 34.
Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
A material, which has a varying refractive index is a.
Question Number 39.
Option A. step index.
Option B. single index. Incident light travelling from air to water, the light is.
Option C. double index. Option A. bent towards the normal.
Correct Answer is. step index. Option B. not bent.
Option C. bent away from the normal.
Explanation. A varying refractive index is either 'step
index' or 'graded index'. Step index is the only answer Correct Answer is. bent towards the normal.
available. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp. Explanation. Light travelling from air to water, the
waves are bent (or angled) less when measured to the
Question Number 35.
normal.
A ray of light that travels through the centre of curvature
of a concave mirror before being reflected, how is it Question Number 40.
reflected?. If a light is beamed at a flat mirror, what is the angle it
Option A. Through the focal point. reflects at?.
Option B. Neither of the above. Option A. Reflective index.
Option C. Through the centre of curvature. Option B. Angle of incidence.
Correct Answer is. Through the focal point. Option C. Reactive angle.
Explanation. The focal point and the centre of Correct Answer is. Angle of incidence.
curvature of the concave mirror lie on the same center Explanation. The angle the light hits a mirror (to the
line. A ray of light travelling along that centre line will be normal) is the Angle of Incidence. The angle it bounces
reflected right back along the same path - through the off (to the normal) is the Angle of Reflection. The two
focal point. angles are always equal.
Question Number 41. output end which is dependent upon the

In a graded index multimode fibre is the refractive index. length of the cable.
Option A. is high. Correct Answer is. have diameter matched to
Option B. varies high and low. wavelength of light passed.
Option C. is low. Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp
Correct Answer is. varies high and low. page 64.
Explanation. In a graded index fibre optic cable, the Question Number 47.
refractive index is low at the edge, high in the centre and When an emergent light wave enters a divergent lens.
then low at the other edge. Introduction to Fiber Optics by
Option A. it will focus beyond the lens.
John Crisp.
Option B. it will focus behind the lens.
Question Number 42. Option C. it is s spherical.
The fibre optic receiver is a. Correct Answer is. it will focus behind the lens.
Option A. photodiode. Explanation. A divergent lens (also known as
Option B. laser diode. concave lens) focuses the image on the same side of the
Option C. light emitting diode. lens as the object. It is therefore a virtual image.
Correct Answer is. photodiode. Question Number 48.
Explanation. The fibre optic receiver is a photo In a concave mirror, light rays parallel to mirror axis will
diode. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp. be reflected.
Question Number 43. Option A. through the focal point.
The usable bandwidth of a fibre is determined by. Option B. back to the centre of curvature.
Option C. parallel to mirror axis.
Option A. the wavelength of the light.
Option B. the angle of total internal reflection. Correct Answer is. through the focal point.
Option C. the intermodal dispersion. Explanation. All the light rays focus at the focal
Correct Answer is. the intermodal dispersion. point.
Explanation. Bandwidth is the range of frequencies Question Number 49.
that can be transmitted. Since different frequencies travel In a concave mirror, a light ray passing through the focal
at different speed (in glass) they will arrive at the other point will be reflected.
end at different times. This is the cause of intermodal
Option A. through the focal point.
dispersion. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
Option B. on the centre line of the mirror.
Question Number 44. Option C. parallel to the axis.
If, with a concave mirror the image is placed beyond the Correct Answer is. parallel to the axis.
centre of curvature, the image produced will be. Explanation. All rays which pass through the focal
Option A. virtual, erect and larger. point, reflect from the mirror then travel parallel to the
Option B. real, inverted and smaller. axis.
Option C. real, erect and larger.
Question Number 50.
Correct Answer is. real, inverted and smaller.
A passive sensor.
Explanation.
Option A. does not require power.
Question Number 45. Option B. requires power for the sensor.
The power of a lens is calculated from the. Option C. requires power for the transmitter.
Option A. reciprocal of the focal length. Correct Answer is. does not require power.
Option B. product of the focal length and its distance Explanation. Passive sensors do not require power.
from the pole. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
Option C. focal length squared.
Question Number 51.
Correct Answer is. reciprocal of the focal length.
Refractive index is.
Explanation. focal length squared.
Option A. lower for 4ºC water than 0ºC ice.
Question Number 46. Option B. higher for diamond than acrylic.
Single mode optical fibre cable will. Option C. highest for water.
Option A. have several light rays to pass. Correct Answer is. higher for diamond than acrylic.
Option B. have diameter matched to wavelength of Explanation. Diamond has the highest refractive
light passed. index. Note: 4 °C. water is more dense than ice so has
Option C. cause distortion to the light wave at the greater refractive index.
Question Number 52. Correct Answer is. distance required to travel.

For optical fibres, the refractive index of the cladding Explanation. Type of cable (not the diameter) - single
compared to that of the core. mode, multimode or graded index etc. is chosen for its
Option A. can be either bigger or smaller depending attenuation and hence length. Introduction to Fiber Optics
on specification. by John.
Option B. is always smaller. Question Number 57.
Option C. is always larger.
When refraction takes place.
Correct Answer is. is always smaller.
Option A. the frequency remains constant.
Explanation. Cladding always has a lower refractive Option B. the speed of the wave remains constant.
index. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp. Option C. the wavelength remains constant.
Question Number 53. Correct Answer is. the frequency remains constant.
The ability for a fibreoptic cable to carry waves is Explanation. Frequency remains constant.
dependent on.
Question Number 58.
Option A. material, absorption and speed of light.
When light meets a Glass / Air boundary at an angle of
Option B. internal reflection.
incidence less than the critical angle.
Option C. material, diameter and absorption.
Option A. Total Internal Reflection takes place.
Correct Answer is. internal reflection.
Option B. no light is reflected.
Explanation. Fiber optics carry light by Total Internal Option C. both reflection and refraction takes place.
Reflection. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp.
Correct Answer is. both reflection and refraction takes
Question Number 54. place.
In spherical aberrations. Explanation. Even at angles less than the critical, a
Option A. incident rays further from the axis intersect small portion of the light in reflected Introduction to Fiber
slightly closer to the lens to produce a Optics by John Crisp.
distorted picture. Question Number 59.
Option B. incident rays further from the axis intersect
An object placed more than twice the focal length beyond
slightly further away from the lens to
a converging lens will form an image that is.
produce a distorted picture.
Option C. the bending of light through lens intersect Option A. inverted, larger and virtual.
at the same point (achromatic lens). Option B. inverted, smaller and real.
Option C. erect, smaller and real.
Correct Answer is. incident rays further from the axis
intersect slightly closer to the lens to produce a distorted Correct Answer is. inverted, smaller and real.
picture. Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 55. A parabolic mirror may be used to prevent.
In a fibre optic flying control system. Option A. lateral inversion.
Option A. the sensor and transmitter require electrical Option B. spherical aberration.
power. Option C. formation of a penumbra.
Option B. the sensor inputs to the transmitter which Correct Answer is. spherical aberration.
needs electrical power. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. the sensor needs electrical power.
Question Number 61.
Correct Answer is. the sensor and transmitter require
electrical power. The refractive index for air is approximately.
Explanation. The sensor is a photodiode or a PIN Option A. 1.
diode (needs power) and the transmitter is an LED or laser Option B. 10.
(needs power). Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Option C. 0.
Crisp. Correct Answer is. 1.
Question Number 56. Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John

Crisp.
In fibreoptics, the type of cable is chosen by.
Option A. the strength of signal needed.
Option B. matching the diameter of the cable with the
wavelength.
Option C. distance required to travel.

In optical fibres the total internal reflection of light only Lasers use which source of light?.
occurs at angles. Option A. Scattered.
Option A. less than the critical angle. Option B. Refraction.
Option B. equal to the critical angle. Option C. Coherent.
Option C. greater than the critical angle. Correct Answer is. Coherent.
Correct Answer is. greater than the critical angle. Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John
Explanation. Remember that the critical angle is Crisp.
measured from the normal (or perpendicular) to the
Question Number 68.
surface. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John Crisp page
15. Illumination of one lumen per metre squared is one.
Option A. luxor.
Question Number 63.
Option B. lux.
In a concave mirror, if an object is placed between the Option C. candle.
focal point and the pole, the image will be.
Correct Answer is. lux.
Option A. real, erect and diminished.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. virtual and on the opposite side.
Option C. real, inverted and larger. Question Number 69.
Correct Answer is. virtual and on the opposite side. The amount of light emitted by a lamp can be measured
Explanation. NIL. in.
Option A. candle's.
Question Number 64.
Option B. luxors.
The purpose of a patch cord used with an OTDR is. Option C. lumens.
Option A. to compensate for any contraction of the Correct Answer is. lumens.
Fiber optic cable during test.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. to overcome the dead zone problem caused
by reflection at OTDR launch connector. Question Number 70.
Option C. to attenuate OTDR output power which The light gathering power of a lens is indicated by its.
could cause damage to the cable under test.
Option A. material.
Correct Answer is. to overcome the dead zone problem Option B. thickness of the lens.
caused by reflection at OTDR launch connector. Option C. focal ratio.
Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics John Crisp Correct Answer is. focal ratio.
Page 156.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 65.
Question Number 71.
The power of a lens is measured in.
In order for a converging lens to form a real image, the
Option A. Lumens per Watt. object distance must be more than.
Option B. Watts.
Option A. focal length.
Option C. Diopters.
Option B. 5 times the thickness of the lens.
Correct Answer is. Diopters. Option C. 1 inch.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. focal length.
For a concave lens, the image is. Question Number 72.
Option A. real. A ______ lens is thicker in the middle than at the edges. It
Option B. virtual. is.
Option C. a chromatic orb.
Option A. converging.
Correct Answer is. virtual. Option B. concave.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. upsharp.
Correct Answer is. converging.
Explanation. NIL.
http://www.phys.hawaii.edu/~teb/optics/java/clens/
Question Number 73.

When is the only time a concave mirror forms a virtual
image?.
Option A. When the object is at the focal point.
Option B. When the object is inside the focal point.
Option C. When the object is placed at the centre of
curvature.
Correct Answer is. When the object is inside the focal
point.
Explanation. NIL.
http://www.glenbrook.k12.il.us/gbssci/phys/class/refln/u
13l3e.html
Question Number 74.
A convex mirror forms a virtual image when.
Option A. the object is at the centre of curvature.
Option B. the object is inside the focus.
Option C. always.
Correct Answer is. always.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 75.
A Concave mirror is used in.
Option A. a rear view mirror.
Option B. a periscope.
Option C. headlights.
Correct Answer is. headlights.
Explanation. NIL.

5. Wave Motion and Sound. Question Number 7.

The first overtone of a sound wave is the.
Question Number 1.
Option A. 1st harmonic.
When the movement of an object rotating around a radius
Option B. fundamental frequency.
at a constant speed is projected onto a plane, the projected
Option C. 2nd harmonic.
image follows what path?.
Correct Answer is. 2nd harmonic.
Option A. Sinusoidal.
Option B. Lateral. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. Longitudinal. Question Number 8.
Correct Answer is. Sinusoidal. Two pure tones of similar frequency are heard by a
Explanation. NIL. person. What will they hear?.
Question Number 2. Option A. One pure tone.
Option B. A beat of the two tones.
The speed of sound in air at 0 °C is approximately.
Option C. Two tones.
Option A. 331 m/s.
Correct Answer is. A beat of the two tones.
Option B. 3 * 108 m/s.
Option C. 181 m/s. Explanation. At certain points, the troughs cancel the
peaks. At other points the peaks 'add to' other peaks. The
net effect is a low frequency oscillation in amplitude.".
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 9.
Question Number 3.
Two sound waves of the same frequency and amplitude
If a wave traveling to a point meets a wave traveling from are moving half a wavelength out of phase with each
that point, of equal frequency. other. What will be heard?.
Option A. the two waves cancel each other out. Option A. Nothing.
Option B. they will have no effect on each other. Option B. Twice the volume of one of the sound
Option C. a standing wave is formed. waves.
Correct Answer is. a standing wave is formed. Option C. Half the volume of one of the sound waves.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Nothing.
Question Number 4. Explanation. The peaks will cancel the troughs.
Quality of sound depends upon. Question Number 10.
Option A. pure sound waves being produced by the A fire engine is approaching you with its siren on. As it
source. passes you its pitch.
Option B. frequency and harmonics of the waves Option A. stay the same.
being produced. Option B. increases.
Option C. quality of the receiver. Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. frequency and harmonics of the Correct Answer is. decreases.
waves being produced.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 11.
Question Number 5.
Quality of sound is dependant on.
Particles vibrating in air.
Option A. number and pitch of harmonics.
Option A. tend to give off heat. Option B. medium it is traveling through.
Option B. tend to give off light. Option C. frequency of the supply.
Option C. produce waves.
Correct Answer is. number and pitch of harmonics.
Correct Answer is. produce waves.
Explanation. Quality of sound is dependant upon the
Explanation. Particles vibrating in air produce sound. number of harmonics and the pitch.
Question Number 6.
The fundamental frequency is the.
Option A. 3rd harmonic.
Option B. 1st harmonic.
Option C. 2nd harmonic.
Correct Answer is. 1st harmonic.
Explanation. NIL.

What frequency is a tone which is 4 times the fundamental If a tuning fork is struck and held close to the ear and
frequency?. slowly rotated about the vertical axis, in one rotation how
Option A. 2nd overtone. many times is there no sound?.
Option B. 3rd overtone. Option A. 2.
Option C. 3rd harmonic. Option B. Sound is audible for the whole revolution.
Correct Answer is. 3rd overtone. Option C. 4.
Explanation. The 4th harmonic is also called the 3rd Correct Answer is. 2.
overtone. Explanation. Two sound waves interfere creating a
relatively 'dead' zone for approximately 2 quarters of the
Question Number 13.
rotation.
Intensity of sound waves.
Question Number 18.
Option A. is not affected by distance.
Option B. varies inversely as the square of distance What is the phenomenon that occurs when a siren that
from source. approaches you, at the point of passing, the pitch
Option C. vary directly as per distance from source. decreases?.
Correct Answer is. varies inversely as the square of Option A. Resonance.
distance from source. Option B. Doppler effect.
Option C. Echo.
Explanation. Sound diminishes with the square of the
distance from the source (i.e double the distance = 1/4 the Correct Answer is. Doppler effect.
dB, triple the distance = 1/9 the dB etc.) - Technically Explanation. Doppler effect.
called a log-linear scale.
Question Number 19.
Question Number 14. For hearing protection, noise cancelling headphones.
In a standing wave the point where continuous vibration Option A. cannot reduce the noise from outside
of maximum amplitude occurs is called the. completely.
Option A. harmonic. Option B. operate by destructive interference of sound
Option B. anti-node. waves.
Option C. node. Option C. operate by constructive interference of
Correct Answer is. anti-node. sound waves.
Explanation. The peaks are the anti-nodes. See Correct Answer is. operate by destructive interference
External website. of sound waves.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number 15.
The name given to sounds below that which the human Question Number 20.
ear can detect, i.e. below 20Hz is. Tuning forks are used to vibrate musical instruments
Option A. ultra sound. because.
Option B. infra sound. Option A. they produce both of the other effects
Option C. sonic pitch. described.
Correct Answer is. infra sound. Option B. they produce a beat when played together
with the instrument.
Explanation. See how silent thunder can shatter
Option C. they produce a pure note.
windows at External website.
Correct Answer is. they produce a pure note.
Question Number 16.
Explanation. A tuning fork produces a pure note,
The speed of sound in dry air is 331 m/s. In a solid the which can be used to tune a guitar (for example) by
speed would. listening for the beat produced when played alongside an
Option A. increase. out-of-tune string.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. stay the same.
Correct Answer is. increase.
Explanation. Speed of sound is greater in a solid than
in air.

When an open pipe is played and a note is heard. A wave in which the vibrations are perpendicular, or at
Option A. the lowest frequency of the note is called right angles to the direction of wave travel is a.
second harmonic. Option A. Dispersion Wave.
Option B. resonance occurs with standing waves set Option B. Longitudinal Wave.
up inside the pipe. Option C. Transverse Wave.
Option C. there is a 180º phase change at the open Correct Answer is. Transverse Wave.
end.
Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. resonance occurs with standing
waves set up inside the pipe. Question Number 27.
Explanation. NIL. When a string vibrates, the point at which maximum
displacement occurs is called the.
Question Number 22.
Option A. node.
Two sound waves are the same but slightly out of phase. Option B. antinode.
This means that. Option C. primary node.
Option A. the beat frequency is the same. Correct Answer is. antinode.
Option B. there will be no beat frequency.
Explanation. NIL.
Option C. the beat frequency will be slightly different.
Correct Answer is. the beat frequency is the same. Question Number 28.
Explanation. The beat frequency is the same Increasing the frequency of a sound wave increases its.
frequency as either of the two frequencies. Option A. pitch.
Option B. loudness.
Question Number 23.
Option C. moment.
In a vibrating string, the point at which there is no
Correct Answer is. pitch.
displacement is called a.
Explanation. NIL.
Option A. antinode.
Option B. node. Question Number 29.
Option C. fundamental mode. A wave in which the vibrations are parallel to, or along,
Correct Answer is. node. the direction of travel is a.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. Transverse Wave.
Option B. Upright Wave.
Question Number 24.
Option C. Longitudinal Wave.
The amplitude of a Transverse Wave is the distance from.
Correct Answer is. Longitudinal Wave.
Option A. the top of a peak to the bottom of a trough.
Explanation. NIL.
Option B. half the distance from peak to trough.
Option C. one peak to the next. Question Number 30.
Correct Answer is. half the distance from peak to If a string is vibrating at the 3rd harmonic, it will be
trough. oscillating at.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. Fundamental Frequency.
Option B. 4 times its fundamental frequency.
Question Number 25.
Option C. 3 times its fundamental frequency.
Increasing the Amplitude of a sound wave increases its.
Correct Answer is. 3 times its fundamental frequency.
Option A. pitch.
Explanation. 1st harmonic = 1 * fundamental
Option B. moment.
frequency. 2nd harmonic = 2 * fundamental frequency.
Option C. loudness.
3rd harmonic = 3 fundamental frequency.
Correct Answer is. loudness.
Question Number 31.
Explanation. NIL.
The varying pitch of the sound of a train passing by is
caused by a phenomenon known as.
Option A. Doppler effect.
Option B. double frequency.
Option C. resonance.
Correct Answer is. Doppler effect.
Explanation. NIL.

Wavelength is. What is the wavelength of a note of frequency 1kHz when
Option A. distance from trough to crest. its velocity is 340m/s?.
Option B. distance between crests. Option A. 3.4m.
Option C. distance between top and bottom. Option B. 0.34m.
Correct Answer is. distance between crests. Option C. 0.34km.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. 0.34m.
Explanation. V = f λ λ=V/f =340/1000 (answer in SI
Question Number 33.
units of metres).
The speed of sound at standard atmospheric temperature
and pressure is. 6.
Option A. 34 Km/s. Question Number 1.
Option B. 340 m/s.
A body drops from 10m, it will hit the ground in.
Option C. 340 Km/s.
Option A. √2 seconds.
Option B. 2 seconds.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. 1 Second.
Question Number 34. Correct Answer is. √2 seconds.
In which medium does sound travel the fastest?. Explanation. s = ut + ½ at2 s = 1/2at2 since u = 0 10 =
Option A. Steel. ½(10)t2 since a = 10 (approx.) t = √(10/5) = √2.
Option B. Air. Question Number 2.
Option C. Water.
What height of water is equivalent to 1 atmosphere?.
Correct Answer is. Steel.
Option A. 29ft.
Explanation. Fastest to slowest - Solid, liquid, gas. Option B. 101ft.
Question Number 35. Option C. 33ft.
Which has the most effect on the speed of sound in air?. Correct Answer is. 33ft.
Option A. Temperature. Explanation. Approximately 10 m (33 ft) depth of
Option B. Wavelength. water = 1 atmosphere.
Option C. Frequency. Question Number 3.
Correct Answer is. Temperature. 10 BTU is equivalent to.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. 63,560 Joules.
Question Number 36. Option B. 10,550 Joules.
Option C. 570 Joules.
The fundamental frequency of a control cable is 10 Hz,
the frequency of the 2nd Harmonic is. Correct Answer is. 10,550 Joules.
Option A. 20 Hz. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 20 KHz. Question Number 4.
Option C. 10 Hz.
What does 'temperature of a body' mean?.
Correct Answer is. 20 Hz.
Option A. Its hotness.
Explanation. 2nd harmonic = 2* fundamental Option B. How it radiates heat.
frequency. Option C. Its ability to retain heat.
Question Number 37. Correct Answer is. Its hotness.
Which of the following is an example of a Longitudinal Explanation. NIL.
Wave?. http://www.answers.com/topic/temperature
Option A. Sound Wave.
Option B. Radio Wave.
Option C. Light Wave.
Correct Answer is. Sound Wave.
Explanation. NIL.

Module 2 Physics - With Answers

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Module 2 Physics - With Answers

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Module 2 Physics - With Answers

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

EASA

1. Matter. Question Number 6.

Question Number 12. Question Number 17.

Question Number 23. Correct Answer is. compound.

Question Number 34. Correct Answer is. 8.

Question Number 45. Question Number 51.

Question Number 56. Question Number 61.

Question Number 66. Question Number 71.

Question Number 77.

2.1. Mechanics – Statics. Question Number 6.

Question Number 12. Explanation. A 'couple' is 2 forces acting in the same

Question Number 32. Option A. compressive strain.

Question Number 43. Question Number 48.

Question Number 65. Question Number 71.

Question Number 76.

2.2. Mechanics – Kinetics. Explanation. Average speed = distance/time =

Question Number 2. Question Number 8.

Question Number 12. Question Number 17.

Question Number 23. speed, and direction).

Correct Answer is. 28,800 J. Explanation. NIL.

Explanation. 10 Joules * 2revs/min * 60 mins * 24 Question Number 54.

The size of Centripetal Force on an object travelling in a Option A. 3 cycles/second.

Question Number 55.

2.3a. Mechanics – Dynamics. Question Number 6.

Question Number 11. Question Number 16.

Question Number 22. Question Number 28.

Question Number 34.

2.3b. Mechanics – Dynamics. Question Number 6.

Question Number 11.

2.4a. Mechanics ­ Fluid Dynamics. Explanation. 1 litre of water has a mass of 1kg. 1000

Question Number 2. Question Number 8.

Question Number 6. Correct Answer is. 505.4 lbs.

Question Number 11.

2.4b. Mechanics ­ Fluid Dynamics. Question Number 6.

3a. Thermodynamics. Option B. the amount of vibration of molecules.

Question Number 13. Question Number 19.

Question Number 25. Question Number 30.

Question Number 34. Question Number 40.

Explanation. Q = mC(T2 -T1), 4 * 0.2404 * 72 = 69.2 Question Number 41.

In 'standard conditions' what is the standard for Option A. Rankin scale.

3b. Thermodynamics. Option C. the same.

Question Number 11. Question Number 16.

Question Number 22. Question Number 28.

Question Number 44. Question Number 50.

Question Number 55.

4. Optics (Light). Explanation. Dispersion also limits the bandwidth in

Question Number 11. Question Number 16.

Question Number 21. Question Number 26.

Question Number 31. Question Number 36.

Question Number 41. output end which is dependent upon the

Question Number 52. Correct Answer is. distance required to travel.

Question Number 56. Explanation. Introduction to Fiber Optics by John

Question Number 62. Question Number 67.

Question Number 73.

5. Wave Motion and Sound. Question Number 7.

Question Number 12. Question Number 17.

Question Number 21. Question Number 26.

Question Number 32. Question Number 38.

You might also like

2.4a. Mechanics Fluid Dynamics. Explanation. 1 litre of water has a mass of 1kg. 1000

2.4b. Mechanics Fluid Dynamics. Question Number 6.