MULTIPLE CHOICE

Exercise 1

For questions 11-15, listen to a radio interview in which a psychologist, Colin Fraser, talks
about cultural identity and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. When discussing his own cultural identity, Colin reveals
A. his resilience to changing cultures.
B. his unorthodox family background.
C. his ability to adapt.
D. his feeling of alienation.
12. What does Colin regard as the defining aspect of a person’s cultural identity?
A. the sense of birth right
B. the emotion it generates
C. the physical proximity to heritage
D. the symbols of tradition
13. What is the influence of a culture attributed to?
A. the dissemination of wisdom
B. connection between societies
C. knowledge of one’s background
D. the practice of archaic rituals
14. According to Colin, what makes a culture successful on the global scene?
A. its capacity for tolerance
B. its isolation from the mainstream
C. its aptitude for resolving conflicts
D. its ability to be self-effacing
15. During the conversation, Colin is
A. distinguishing between birthplace and residence.
B. advocating the celebration of heritage.
C. highlighting the differences in societies.
D. addressing the issues raised by conflicting cultures

1
Exercise 2
For questions 10-15, listen to a listen to a recording about someone giving advice on how to ask
their boss for a pay rise and choose the correct answer A, B or C which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. The key factor when asking for a pay rise is
A. voicing your demands in a convincing way.
B. making it clear you feel undervalued.
C. proving you are an asset in the business.
D. comparing yourself to the rest of the staff.
11. If you have any failings, you should
A. check that no one knows about them.
B. put them right gradually so that it is not too obvious.
C. accentuate your strengths, such as punctuality.
D. make sure your boss likes you as a person.
12. When preparing what to say in your salary negotiation
A. put yourself in your superior's shoes.
B. do not forget that you really need that extra money.
C. make a list of all the points in your favor.
D. focus on what you can do for the company in the future.
13. What should you do if your boss raises objections to your pay rise?
A. pre-empt them by raising them yourself and giving a counter argument
B. make sure you can quote company rules to him or her
C. appreciate that your boss is only doing his or her job
D. accept any offer as it is better than nothing
14. During salary negotiations, it is important to
A. mention that the company is very successful.
B. ensure your boss is aware that you are taking these negotiations seriously.
C. arrange to see your boss early in the day when he or she is fresh.
D. try not to put your boss in an awkward position.
15. What should you do if you do not get a pay rise or as much as you wanted?
A. be prepared for a long drawn-out conflict
B. know that you might have to resign as a matter of principle
C. either have an alternative or ask for constructive criticism
D. either get a colleague to back you up or talk to your boss again soon

2
Exercise 3

For questions 10-15, listen to a recording about rudeness and choose the correct answer A, B,
C or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
10. What is the main point of the anecdote Jeff tells?
A. That the young seem to lack social skills.
B. That it’s an all too familiar sight these days.
C. It’s the same thing as using your phone in the theatre.
D. They are no better than the Internet trolls.
11. What does Jeff say about the “death of deference”?
A. People no longer care what others think of them.
B. Teenagers didn’t want their behavior to be disapproved of.
C. For the most part, it had positive effects on society.
D. It made people disrespect those in authority.
12. What does Laura imply about teenage behavior?
A. There’s nothing that can be done about it.
B. That it’s not entirely their fault.
C. It’s worse nowadays than previously.
D. They are not taught how to behave.
13. How does Jeff respond to Laura’s opinion of teenagers?
A. He believes it is all their fault.
B. He thinks they are not properly brought up.
C. Those in charge of children should take responsibility.
D. He thinks she is just making excuses for bad behavior.
14. Both Jeff and Laura seem to agree that
A. A little bit of rudeness is a good thing.
B. Parents don’t teach their children how to converse.
C. The young don’t understand adult conversation.
D. The art of conversation has declined.
15. What does Laura say about modern technology and teenage behavior?
A. It has an effect on the development of social skills.
B. It is wholly responsible for today’s lack of social skills.
C. They become insulting and threatening.
D. They can hide from the world behind technology.

3
Exercise 4

For questions 10-15, listen to a radio discussion in which two writers, Tom Blake and Sally
Beauchamp, talk about their careers and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. What does Tom say about wanting to be a writer?
A. He had no idea that he would become a writer.
B. It was something he’d made up his mind to be.
C. It was always a possibility as a career.
D. He had no idea how one became a writer.
11. How does Tom feel about his contemporaries’ career choices at school?
A. He was baffled by their certainty.
B. He thought they lacked experience.
C. They hadn’t made their own decisions.
D. They were all following in their fathers’ footsteps.
12. What did it take Tom a long time to understand about American writers?
A. the importance of romance in their daily lives
B. the fact that their lives mirrored his own so closely
C. the influence that other people had on their writing
D. The practical considerations of time and money
13. How did Sally begin writing?
A. She was urged to write by her parents.
B. She became a journalist like her parents.
C. Early on she started to keep a journal.
D. Negative experiences created a need to express herself.
14. What does Sally say about journalism?
A. It provides her with story ideas.
B. It gives her less time for fiction.
C. It doesn’t bring in enough money.
D. It interferes with family life.
15. What aspect of the writing life do they both agree on?
A. It’s important for writers to have wide experience.
B. Writing fiction doesn’t provide a reliable income.
C. Writers tend to become self-absorbed and egocentric.
D. Journalism is the best way into becoming a writer.

4
Exercise 5

For questions 10-15, listen to an interview in which two people, Dana Singleton and Joe Fahey,
talk about transport and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. What does Dana say about her reason for joining the Accident Prevention Board?
A. She did it after being involved in an accident herself.
B. She felt strongly about what they were doing.
C. She was close to someone who had been an accident victim.
D. She felt pressure from people she worked with.
11. The interviewer mistakenly believes that the number of serious road accidents
A. has recently overtaken the number of accidents on public transport.
B. is presently at an all-time high.
C. is a direct result of more aggressive drivers on the roads.
D. has risen in proportion to the number of cars on the roads.
12. According to the statistics Dana quotes, there were more serious accidents per year
A. before 1926.
B. between 1926 and 1970.
C. between 1970 and 1990.
D. after 1990.
13. Which of the following facts about public transport does Joe not state?
A. Public transport has a relatively poor safety record.
B. People sometimes feel intimidated when using public transport.
C. The high cost of public transport puts a number of people off.
D. Most complaints are about unreliable services.
14. According to Joe, public transport would improve if the government
A. improved the road network.
B. made it free to travel by bus.
C. re-allocated public spending.
D. banned certain cars from roads.
15. What best sums up Dana’s and Joe’s opinions on driverless cars?
A. Joe feels more strongly that they could help the situation.
B. Dana disagrees with Joe that they are the transport of the future.
C. They share the same views on introducing them gradually.
D. They agree that the poor infrastructure will cancel out any benefit.

5
Exercise 6

For questions 10-15, listen to a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends
and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. In the incident that Liz describes
A. her daughter asked her to stop the car.
B. she had to interrupt the journey twice.
C. she got angry with her daughter.
D. her daughter wanted to get out of the car.
11. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends?
A. It contradicts other research on the subject.
B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing.
C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong.
D. It focuses on the effect they have on parents.
12. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend?
A. always confident that it was only a temporary situation
B. occasionally worried about the friend's importance to her daughter
C. slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes
D. highly impressed by her daughter's inventiveness
13. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that
A. they are having serious problems with their real friends.
B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do.
C. they want something that they cannot be given.
D. they want something that other children haven't got.
14. Karen says that the teenager who had invented a superhero is an example of
A. a very untypical teenager.
B. a problem that imaginary friends can cause.
C. something she had not expected to discover.
D. how children change as they get older.
15. According to Karen, how should parents react to imaginary friends?
A. They should pretend that they like the imaginary friend.
B. They shouldn't get involved in the child's relationship with the friend.
C. They should take action if the situation becomes annoying.
D. They shouldn't discuss the imaginary friend with their child.

6
Exercise 7
For questions 10-15, listen to a radio discussion about writing a novel and choose the correct
answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. What does Louise say about Ernest Hemingway's advice to writers?
A. It is useful to a certain extent.
B. It applies only to inexperienced novelists.
C. It wasn't intended to be taken seriously.
D. It might confuse some inexperienced novelists.
11. Louise says that you need to get feedback when you
A. have not been able to write anything for some time.
B. are having difficulty organizing your ideas.
C. are having contrasting feelings about what you have written.
D. have finished the book but not shown it to anyone.
12. Louise says that you should get feedback from another writer because
A. it is easy to ignore criticism from people who are not writers.
B. another writer may be kinder to you than friends and relatives.
C. it is hard to find other people who will make an effort to help you.
D. another writer will understand what your intentions are.
13. What does Louise regard as useful feedback?
A. a combination of general observations and detailed comments
B. both identification of problems and suggested solutions
C. comments focusing more on style than on content
D. as many points about strengths as weaknesses
14. What does Louise say about the people she gets feedback from?
A. Some of them are more successful than her.
B. She doesn't only discuss writing with them.
C. She also gives them feedback on their work.
D. It isn't always easy for her to get together with them.
15. One reaction to feedback that Louise mentions is that
A. it is justified but would require too much effort to act on.
B. it focuses on unimportant details rather than key issues.
C. it has been influenced by reading other people's novels.
D. it is not suggesting that major changes to the novel are required.

7
Exercise 8

For questions 10-15, listen to a radio interview with a chef about the process of eating and
choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. Heston mentions eating fish from a paper plate with a plastic knife and fork
A. because it is something listeners may have done.
B. because doing so made him think about the process of eating.
C. as an example of an unpleasant eating experience.
D. as an example of what influences the eating experience.
11. What does Heston say about taste?
A. Fat should be considered a taste.
B. Taste and flavor are separate from each other.
C. The sense of smell is involved in it.
D. The number of taste buds gradually decreases.
12. The experiment involving salt and other food shows that
A. it is possible to taste something that you can't smell.
B. the sense of smell is not as powerful as other senses.
C. food can taste better when you can't smell it.
D. the flavor of food can change as you eat it.
13. The story about the trainee waiters illustrates that
A. certain colors are more appealing than others.
B. something can seem to taste good because of its appearance.
C. one sense can strongly influence another.
D. some people can perceive taste better than others.
14. What does Heston say about bitterness?
A. It can give a false impression that something is harmful.
B. It can become the main reason why people like something.
C. Reactions to it can change over time.
D. Its function is widely misunderstood.
15. The problem with the dish Heston describes was caused by
A. its appearance.
B. the taste of it.
C. its combination of flavors.
D. the fact that people ate it repeatedly.

8
Exercise 9
For questions 10-15, listen to an interview with an IT consultant called Paul about how he
started his own business and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according
to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. That does Paul say about the first years of his working life?
A. He got a teaching post in the university where he had studied.
B. His first job began to feel rather monotonous as time went by.
C. The kind of tasks he was instructed to do gradually changed.
D. The work became less enjoyable when some colleagues moved away.
11. What does Paul say made him decide to start his own consultancy business?
A. He was persuaded to do so by some friends.
B. He read a book which inspired him to take action.
C. He thought he could take advantage of a growing trend.
D. He realized he had the skills to make a success of his own company.
12. What does Paul suggest is his favorite type of client?
A. people he knew when he was a student
B. people recommended by agents
C. people he has met at conferences
D. people he has worked with previously
13. What does Paul find the most difficult aspect of running his business?
A. gaining a quick understanding of an unfamiliar situation
B. setting fees that match the effort involved
C. making a good impression on a new team of people
D. getting reliable advice from financial experts
14. What does Paul say about the way he uses a business mentor?
A. He uses his mentor differently from the way others use theirs.
B. He finds his mentor often comes up with fresh ideas for his business.
C. He gets information about the latest business theories from his mentor.
D. He likes to gets his mentor's reactions to plans that he is considering.
15. Paul explains that in the coming year he is going to
A. employ some new consultants.
B. have more variety in his work.
C. move to a more convenient office.
D. learn some additional skills.

9
Exercise 10
For questions 10-15, listen to a radio interview with a travel writer called Marina Vardy and
choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what you hear. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
10. What made Marina start traveling?
A. a sudden desire to overcome her fear of the sea
B. a difficult problem in the life she had at the time
C. an unexpected opportunity to escape a boring routine
D. a friend's wish for a traveling companion
11. What is Marina’s main reason for being happy about her decision to go on that first journey?
A. It led to a successful career as an author.
B. It gave her a more positive outlook on life.
C. It offered her some exciting adventures.
D. It taught her to cope with difficulties.
12. How did Marina first get into writing?
A. She wanted to describe the different exotic places that she visited.
B. She found it satisfying to write her private feelings in a teenage diary.
C. She enjoyed the reaction of others to something she wrote as a young girl.
D. She was keen to be like her father, who was an enthusiastic writer.
13. What does Marina say is her greatest challenge?
A. feeling uncertain about the quality of her work
B. coping with some lack of support from her family
C. having to face danger for the sake of a story
D. finding things to write about that will interest her readers
14. Marina says that aspiring travel writers must ensure that they
A. work hard to make their writing style as good as they can.
B. try to make their readers experience strong emotions.
C. offer much more than an account of their own adventures.
D. keep their own grandmother in mind as they write.
15. What does Marina say she finds particularly rewarding about being a travel writer?
A. It has developed her powers of observation.
B. It offers her the chance to take revenge of unkind people.
C. It provides her with an adventurous lifestyle.
D. It gives her a satisfying psychological detachment.

10
Exercise 11
You will hear a radio interview in which a choreographer, Alice Reynolds, discusses
a dance programme. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear.

1 How is the programme designed to help youngsters?

A by getting them to talk about their feelings
B by encouraging them to loosen up
C by enabling them to convey their thoughts.
D by giving them a way to entertain themselves

2 When talking about the nature of communication, Alice reveals that

A teenagers are quick to react to a number of emotions.
B people who learn to show how they feel can articulate better.
C shy youngsters find the programme more useful than others.
D young people have a lot of pent up negative emotions.

3 What aspect of the programme encourages teenagers to face their troubles?

A the social side of dance
B the freedom of the movement
C the obligation to interact
D the release of feelings

4 Alice contrasts professional and amateur dancers in order to

A highlight the usefulness of the programme.
B emphasise the use of emotions in dance.
C illustrate the difference between teaching styles.
D explain the ability to recognise feelings.

5 What point does Alice make about the study into a person’s personality?
A It found that certain types of people dance better than others.
B Personality has a bearing on people’s willingness to participate.
C Who people are can be recognised through their movements.
D It revealed that most people try to hide their true nature.

11
Exercise 12

You will hear an interview with someone who consulted a 'life coach' to improve her life. For
questions 16-20 choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

16 Brigid says that she consulted a life coach because

A she had read a great deal about them.
B both her work and home life were getting worse.
C other efforts to improve her life had failed.
D the changes she wanted to make were only small ones.

17 What did Brigid's coach tell her about money?

A It would be very easy for Brigid to get a lot of it.
B Brigid's attitude towards it was uncharacteristic of her.
C Brigid placed too much emphasis on it in her life.
D Few people have the right attitude towards it.

18 What does Brigid say about her reaction to her coach's advice on money?
A She felt silly repeating the words her coach gave her.
B She tried to hide the fact that she found it ridiculous.
C She felt a lot better as a result of following it.
D She found it difficult to understand at first.

19 What does Brigid say happened during the other sessions?

A She was told that most people's problems had the same cause.
B Her powers of concentration improved.
C Some things she was told to do proved harder than others.
D She began to wonder why her problems had arisen in the first place.

20 What has Brigid concluded ?

A The benefits of coaching do not compensate for the effort required.
B She was too unselfish before she had coaching.
C She came to expect too much of her coach.
D It is best to limit the number of coaching sessions you have.

12
Exercise 13

You will hear an interview with someone whose family spent a year living without
television. For questions 16-20 choose the answer (A, B, Cor D) which fits best
according to what you hear, in the exam you will hear the piece twice.

16 One reason why the family decided not to have a television was that
A the reception from the communal aerial was often poor.
B they did not think the satellite technician would do the job properly.
C linking up with the communal aerial was complicated.
D they preferred to enjoy the beauty of their new surroundings.

17 One thing that Miranda enjoyed about not having a television was
A telling other people about what they did instead.
B returning to hobbies they had previously given up.
C observing the reaction of others when they found out.
D feeling more energetic during the evening.

18 Miranda says that one disadvantage of not having a television was

A the fact that they could not follow their favourite series.
B a constant desire to be more up-to-date with the news.
C being unable to discuss topics they had previously discussed.
D feeling out of touch with what other people talked about.

19 What does Miranda say about getting connected again?

A She felt it would be of some benefit to the whole family.
B She agreed because her attitude towards television had changed.
C She initially disagreed with her husband about doing so.
D She felt that they were doing so because they were lazy people.

20 Miranda says that since they got a television again, her children
A are more able to distinguish good programmes from rubbish.
B sometimes refuse to watch it when she suggests they do so.
C have decided not to return to the habit of watching it.
D never watch it simply because they are feeling lazy.

13
Exercise 14

You will hear an interview with someone who reviews hotels. For questions 16-20
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. In the
exam you will hear the piece twice.

16 What does Paddy say about some readers of her column?

A They suspect that she enjoys criticising hotels.
B Her attitude to hotels has changed because of their response.
C Her comments match their experiences of hotels.
D They prefer reading about hotels they would not want to visit.

17 What does Paddy say about some hotel-keepers?

A They sometimes have to force themselves to have a sense of humour.
B They would be more suited to a different profession.
C They expect to receive negative comments about their hotels.
D They are surprised that they become friends of hers.

18 Paddy says that some hotel-keepers she has contacted about the book have
A realised that she does not really have an assistant called Emily.
B corrected inaccuracies that were in her review of their hotels.
C responded favourably despite criticisms she had made.
D made her wonder whether her reviews of their hotels were unfair.

19 Paddy says that one hotel-keeper she spoke to told her that
A other people are unlikely to be treated in the same way in hotels as she is.
B he was unwilling to discuss some of the comments in her review.
C her reviews did not have as much influence as she believed.
D he no longer wanted his hotel to appear in the book.

20 The same owner also told her that

A he had passed information about her to other hotels.
B he resented her description of him in her review.
C he did not understand why she wanted to put his hotel in her book.
D there was nothing distinctive about her physical appearance.

14
Exercise 15

You will hear part of a radio interview with two academics, Anne Trowell and
Jonathan Sims, on internet technology. For questions 16 – 20, choose the answer (A,
B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

16 Anne and Jonathan agree that people become anxious when technology
A begins to control their children’s lives.
B establishes unsustainable connections.
C forces a redefinition of social relations.
D introduces feelings of inadequacy.

17 What point is made about changes in our relationship with technology?

A The changes will require creative thinking.
B Technology will have to be more tightly controlled.
C People must learn to trust technology.
D The changes will involve more attention to detail.

18 When talking about internet search engines, the speakers agree that
A they are improving social interaction.
B much information is oversimplified.
C they sometimes lead to confusion.
D basic knowledge is widely available.

19 How does Jonathan define the problem of increased connectivity between people?
A It facilitates the communication of false emotion.
B It decreases the likelihood of agreement.
C It allows only a few people to compete for attention.
D It makes human interaction dependent on machines.

20 What does Anne find striking about international news in the digital age?
A the limited focus of the public
B the diversity of the media used
C the risks involved in reporting
D the need for sensitivity in editing

15
Exercise 16

You will hear a discussion in which two people, Sam Williamson and Kathleen Smithson,
talk about strategies to help the poor in resource-rich developing countries. For questions
16-20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

16 According to Sam, the 'paradox of plenty' results in

A a vastly unequal distribution of wealth.
B the discovery of resources in developing countries.
C a reduction in the variety of products reaching the market.
D communities losing interest in government activities.
17 The company Sam worked for in Ghana
A caused severe problems for local companies.
B was criticised for not being trustworthy.
C adopted an approach that was innovative to the region.
D did not receive full cooperation from the authorities.
18 What does Kathleen think about contracts between governments and companies being made
public?
A It is not something business leaders want to do.
B It is only part of the process of reducing poverty.
C It is ineffective because of the public indifference.
D It will never lead to any great changes.
19 What problem does Kathleen highlight about original government documents?
A They are incomprehensible to ordinary citizens.
B They are sometimes altered to hide the truth.
C It can take years for them to be released.
D They cost a great deal to distribute.
20 The agreement made in Australia that Sam mentions
A focused solely on how to spread wealth.
B involved talks between a company and the public.
C resulted in compensation for pollution being accepted.
D was made after citizens became ill.

16
Exercise 17

You will hear a discussion in which two authors, Emma Jameson and Philip Cross, talk about
writing a novel. For questions 16-20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits
according to what you hear.

16 What does Emma say about the process of writing a novel?

A No two writers use the same approach.
B It cannot be put into words.
C There is no universal formula for it.
D Most writers are unwilling to discuss it.
17 According to Philip, a novel is likely to fail when the opening
A contains plenty of little-known vocabulary.
B pays too little attention to detail.
C doesn't introduce enough main characters.
D reveals too much about the plot.
18 Emma warns that having a flexible outline for the plot
A creates more difficulties than having a set outline.
B limits the writer's options for the ending.
C is a strategy only experienced writers can adopt.
D may result in the storyline becoming unclear.
19 Emma's tip for getting thoughts down into writing immediately
A means not necessarily writing the novel in sequence.
B increases an author's speed of writing.
C helps the writer meet deadlines more easily.
D makes the plot seem more realistic.
20 Philip believes that asking for advice before the novel is completed
A shows a lack of judgement.
B can lead to confusion.
C is likely to cause misunderstandings.
D should only be done as a last resort.

17
Exercise 18

You will hear part of a discussion in which two consultants, Abbie Dale and Ryan
Richardson, are talking about two different small businesses that have achieved success. For
questions 16-20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits according to what you hear.

16 What does.the company Ryan has chosen encourage its customers to do?
A buy every kit it produces
B create new designs and submit them
C personalise their online purchases
D tell others how good the products are
17 According to Abbie, the social clothing company's customers
A like to draw attention to themselves.
B are willing to help in publicity campaigns.
C show creativity in the videos they send in.
D have become fiercely loyal to the brand.
18 Ryan believes that the main difference between the two companies is
A the number of employees they have taken on.
B the way in which they have developed.
C the variety of problems they have to solve.
D the age range they cater for.
19 What does Abbie find most astonishing about the company she talks about?
A its skill in collaborating with partners
B the owner's ability to keep developments secret
C the fact that it has grown so fast
D the number of products it aims to launch
20 According to Ryan, people who buy and assemble the electronic kits
A should start their own businesses.
B are surprised by their simplicity.
C find the experience rewarding.
D aren't frightened of making mistakes.

18
Exercise 19

You will hear part of a discussion in which two educationalists, David Shaw and Anoushka
Patel, talk about education standards in the UK. For questions 16-20, choose the answer (A,
B, C or D) which best fits according to what you hear.

16 What criticism does Anoushka make of primary school education?

A It has remained the same for too long.
B The teachers are inadequately prepared.
C It is not sufficiently varied.
D Pupils no longer find it enjoyable.
17 According to the statistics David quotes, the secondary school exam results pupils achieve
A have caused the national average to fall dramatically.
B cannot be directly compared to those of foreign pupils.
C do not reflect the true level of education in the UK.
D can be accurately predicted when they leave primary school.
18 Anoushka says that pupils who perform poorly do so because
A they lack the ability to concentrate in class.
B education is not a top priority for them.
C teachers are unable to provide them with enough attention.
D it is impossible for their parents to buy books.
19 David claims that universities are guilty of
A ignoring the advice given by the Department of Education.
B making it easier for students to get good degrees.
C accepting too many applications from school leavers.
D exaggerating the quality of teaching they offer.
20 Anoushka makes the point that universities in the UK
A have adapted to meet the needs of society.
B should not have to answer questions about their policies.
C have maintained a traditional approach to education.
D are still considered to be the best in the world.

19
Exercise 20

You will hear a discussion in which two biologists, Ian Cartwright and Angela Sharpe, talk
about conservation and the public's perception of it. For questions 16-20, choose the answer
(A, B, C or D) which best fits according to what you hear.

16 According to Ian, why aren't people easily convinced of the importance of protecting
endangered species?
A They find it difficult to understand the concept.
B They are presented with information that is too vague.
C They do not believe human activity causes extinction.
D They think that conservationists are exaggerating the situation.
17 Angela says that eco-tourism has been successful because
A it provides locals with a long-term source of income.
B it has been properly managed by governments in developing countries.
C it encourages people to have more respect for nature.
D it is affordable for a large number of people from developed countries.
18 The story Ian tells about how economists determined the value of the environment highlights
A what a complex subject economics can be.
B the ease with which false promises are made.
C why companies get away with polluting lakes.
D how ignorant people are of the role nature plays in their lives.
19 What explanation does Angie give for people being indifferent to the destruction of the
ecosystem?
A They believe scientists will fix the problem.
B The vast majority do not suffer too much when it happens.
C They consider the exploitation of environmental resources necessary.
D They think the cost of replacing unrecognised benefits has been overestimated.
20 The species Ian refers to
A indicate how fast an ecosystem is likely to collapse.
B only live in one specific ecosystem.
C are extremely sensitive to environmental change.
D appear to be in the greatest danger of extinction.

20
Exercise 21

You will hear a discussion in which two people, Derek Grant and Lucy Wadham, talk about
the current state of mass tourism. For questions 16-20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D)
which fits best according to what you hear.

16 From the figures quoted by Lucy, it can be concluded that

A most of the revenue generated from safari packages goes to the airline.
B mass tourism inevitably leads to poverty.
C hotels in developing countries do not have high standards.
D there aren't sufficient local products to cater for tourists.

17 What does Derek say about governments whose countries are tourist destinations?
A They are constantly trying to increase their profit margins.
B They ignore the negative impacts of mass tourism.
C They have very limited bargaining power.
D They are unfamiliar with aspects of modern business methods.

18 Derek's example of excessive water consumption caused by mass tourism shows how
A ineffective the laws are in developing countries.
B local food production can be adversely affected by it.
C difficult it is to find sources of pure water.
D valuable a resource water has become in recent years.

19 Lucy says that when a resort loses its appeal,

A the locals are left to fend for themselves.
B money has to be spent on a new infrastructure.
C the cost of package holidays falls considerably.
D it becomes vulnerable to natural disasters.

20 According to Derek, tourism

A does more harm than good in the long run.
B is too big an industry to be tampered with.
C is largely responsible for global inequality.
D promotes cultural sensitivity most of the time

21
Exercise 22

You will hear part of a discussion in which a developer, Faye Mannia, and an
environmentalist, Peter Green, talk about a new government-run trial. For questions 16-20,
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

16 At the beginning of the discussion, it can be inferred that Faye believes the listeners
A are confident their government always acts wisely.
B are unfamiliar with current property values.
C may be biased against her point of view.
D have no knowledge of the trials whatsoever.

17 Peter says that the new government plan

A will lead to a reduction in the diversity of wildlife.
B has not been supported by a single scientist.
C should be delayed by at least ten years.
D may cause property prices to rise too quickly.

18 Faye mentions the iron ore mine in Brazil

A to point out that development is occurring on a global scale.
B to show the importance of increasing employment opportunities.
C to highlight the dangers of allowing poverty to spread.
D to illustrate the need to respond to changing priorities.

19 Peter fears that those involved in the new plan

A will break the law and go unpunished.
B cannot be trusted to pay for the habitats they destroy.
C will use it to their advantage.
D are unlikely to make any compromises during negotiations.

20 Faye accuses environmentalists of

A using the media to attack developers.
B having a lack of foresight.
C not appreciating historic buildings.
D ignoring the wishes of the general public

22
Exercise 23

You will hear a radio interview with a sports scientist talking about the effects of age on
ability to perform in endurance sports. For questions 16-20, choose the answer (A, B, C or
D) which fits best according to what you hear.

16 What point is Robert upholding when he says 'the Tour de France is living proof of this'?
A Athletes should not be permitted to compete at these levels after the age of 40.
B No athlete is physiologically capable of winning once past 35.
C The vast majority of athletes reach a peak of fitness at the age of 35 and then decline.
D The average age of competitors in endurance sports is 29.

17 What was Robert's motivation for entering the Tour De France in his forties?
A so that the British Team had a competitor over 40
B to prove something to researchers
C to achieve a personal goal
D to finish his cycling career on a high

18 Why do the ages for best average performance in Marathons differ between men and
women?
A Female entrants are on average younger than male entrants.
B Women lose their lung and muscle capacity faster than men.
C Men demonstrate a faster average speed than women at different ages.
D Statistically, few women over 45 actually complete the Marathon.

19 How does qualitative analysis disprove the theory of age-related decline?

A It shows that decline is by no means uniform.
B It indicates that training time is a decisive factor.
C It highlights flaws in the theory of muscle loss.
D It proves that some people can halt the decline completely.

20 What conclusions does Robert draw from the research he has mentioned?
A Winning is possible at any age.
B Failure is inevitable when you don't follow the 10% rule.
C When winning is your goal you can achieve great things.
D Age should not be viewed as an obstacle to success.

23
Exercise 24

For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with Kevin Langtree, who has just been voted Best
Young Chef of the Year and choose the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to what
you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. How does Kevin account for his success?

A. He tries to love every minute of the work.
B. He learns a lot from the diversity of food and people he meets.
C. He envisions how takeaway meals will become in the future.
D. He learns to stop being unkind towards fast food.

12. What is Kevin's opinion about fish and chips?

A. He is ambivalent about having them every day.
B. He finds them indispensable in Britons' diet.
C. He thinks they do not bring the diversity that he loves.
D. He wants to incorporate them into food from different countries.

13. What does Kevin think about restaurants and takeaways in Britain?
A. Finding a parking slot to have meals is a major problem.
B. They should be restructured to display more variety.
C. Too many of them are from India and China.
D. They're all very difficult to get to without a car.

14. What does Kevin say about the American fast-food outlets?
A. They target children and young people.
B. They are cheaper than the other restaurants.
C. They make every customer look cool.
D. They are slowly taking over other fast-food outlets.

15. On mentioning root vegetables, what point does Kevin want to make?
A. British people are becoming more and more xenophobic.
B. There is greater choice, but imported foodstuffs are expensive.
C. The root vegetables produced in Britain in the past were best.
D. Cosmopolitan food reflects a generally less insular society.

24
Exercise 25

You will hear a discussion in which two historians, Matt Thomas and Sue Wilkins, talk about
a book they have written. For questions 16-20, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear.

16 Sue says that

A until recently amateur archaeologists weren't allowed to dig on the Thames foreshore.
B official authorisation is needed to excavate along the river.
C any finds must be reported to the Port of London Authority.
D she had to be a member of a society to dig under any part of the Thames.

17 Matt says that, in the past, poverty-stricken children

A would hunt for birds along the river banks.
B used to try and sell things to people walking along the river.
C would burn things they found by the river to keep warm.
D discovered things in the mud at certain times of the day.

18 How did Sue use to feel about the Thames?

A nostalgic because she visited the river with her parents
B excited about finding rare jewellery and other treasures
C repulsed by the appearance of the water
D revolted by the thought that she would excavate in mud one day

19 Matt is intrigued by
A what can be learnt from the artefacts they find.
B the transport people used in the Middle Ages.
C how London's inhabitants used to dispose of their rubbish.
D the large expanses of mud which are exposed when the tide goes out.

20 What makes the discovery of the small-scale items so important?

A their surprising ornamental use
B what they reveal about family relationships
C the fact that the mud has conserved them remarkably well
D the fact that they confirm a widely held theory

25
Exercise 26

You will hear part of a discussion programme where Florence, a marketing expert, and
Mark, a retail analyst, discuss impulse buying. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (a, b, c
d) which fits hest according to what you hear.

1. What does Mark imply when talking about the items made people purchase through
impulse shopping?
a. Many expensive items are often purchased in this way.
b. Impulse shopping can result in consumers buying unnecessary items.
c. Most impulse buys take place in clothes shops.
d. People very often purchase items that they cannot afford.

2. What point do both Mark and Florence make about the retail industry?
a. It actively encourages impulse-buying behaviours.
b. It maximises its profits by offering promotions on expensive items.
c. It has conducted extensive research into influencing people's way of thinking.
d. It often presents products of lesser quality as a good deal.

3. What do Mark and Florence agree has made impulse buying easier?
a. more disposable income
b. the availability of cheaper products
c. a wider variety of payment methods
d. advances in technology

4. When describing the relationship between stress and shopping, Florence says that
a. shopping may help to briefly reduce stress levels.
b. all impulse buys are done when the consumer is stressed.
c. the act of shopping can be stressful in itself.
d. consumers shop online to avoid stress.

5. What advice does Mark have for anyone wanting to curb their spending habits?
a. avoid the shops altogether
b. be aware that emotions guide purchasing decision
c. delay making a purchase
d. set a monthly budget for one’s spending.

26
Exercise 27

You will hear part of a discussion in which two people, Gillian and Angus, are discussing the
process of ageing after attending a talk on the subject. For questions 1-5, choose the answer
(a, b, c or d) which fits best according to what you hear.

1. When talking about the lecture, Gillian and Angus agree that
a. parts of the presentation were confusing.
b. the lecture gave them a different perspective on ageing.
c. the presentation was too focused on neuroscience.
d. the lecturer was very knowledgeable on the subject of ageing.

2. According to the discussion, what is true about the front part of the brain?
a. It undergoes significant development during our late twenties.
b. It is usually fully developed in early childhood.
c. It is in a process of development during adolescence.
d. It is the largest and most complex part of the brain.

3. What does Gillian imply about emotions?

a.The fact that teenagers may display excessive emotions can be justified.
b. Adults are better at recognising other people's emotions.
c. As teenagers become adults, their emotions follow a standard pattern.
d. Certain emotions are harder to control as we grow older.

4. What point is made when Gillian and Angus discuss the concept of maturity?
a. Biological factors are wholly responsible for a teenager's maturity.
b. Environmental factors influence maturity.
c. Some teenagers are more mature than others.
d. A teenager's level of maturity can be fully explained by science.

5. According to Gillian and Angus, what is one advantage of being an older adult?
a. greater feelings of self-worth
b. more wisdom
c. enhanced creativity
d. increased feelings of peace

27
Exercise 28
You will hear an interview with two experts on technology and learning. For questions 1-6,
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

1. What does Michael say about online learning?

A It appeals to a greater variety of learning styles.
B It enables learning to suit the needs of the individual.
C It may one day replace the traditional school system.
D It allows us to choose the subjects we study.

2. When discussing the Khan Academy, Michael and Helen agree that it
A focuses only on mastering a specific subject, like maths.
B offers a generous amount of teaching and practice.
C has brought education to huge numbers of people.
D is less effective in generating original thought.

3. TED serves as an example of a site

A whose speakers provide amusing, factual talks.
B whose original focus has changed over time.
C which offers extended lectures in various subjects.
D which presents the same speakers every year.

4. Both Michael and Helen agree that schools

A are too rigid in the choice of subjects taught.
B are not tolerant of independent thinkers.
C educate children for the present, not the future.
D underestimate the importance of failure in learning.

5. What conclusions about gaming do Michael and Helen reach?

A It provides relief from difficult everyday issues.
B It generates cooperation between participants.
C It can be a huge source of knowledge.
D Its competitive aspect can become addictive.

6. When discussing the potential of gaming, Helen reveals that she is

A surprised at the abilities it develops in gamers.
B excited about the endless possibilities.
C doubtful about our ability to see the bigger picture.
D concerned about the time gamers spend online

28
Exercise 29

Listen to an interview in which two trendspotters talk about their work. For questions 1-6,
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.

1. What does Liz say about her career change?

A She had always been fascinated by youth-led trends.
B She moved as a result of something she had read.
C She wanted to improve her knowledge of design.
D She had no idea it was so complex a field.

2. What contrast is highlighted between macro and micro trends?

A Micro trends are influenced by current issues.
B Macro trends are of greater interest to high street retailers.
C Micro trends can occasionally outlast macro trends.
D Macro trends are harder to identify.

3. When Liz initially started trendspotting, she

A wasted too much time browsing - the Internet.
B photographed anything that triggered an idea.
C found street fashion less creative than today.
D made errors about what to photograph.

4. When asked about his work, Josh reveals that

A he prefers being freelance to agency work.
B his image on social media is one of his top priorities.
C only a small part of his day involves looking for ideas.
D trendspotting online requires different skills.

5. Liz and Josh agree a qualification in marketing is

A unnecessary to succeed as a trendspotter.
B valuable as a foundation for this career.
C helpful only if it covers consumer psychology.
D advisable as clients prefer qualified forecasters.

6. Liz and Josh both say that their work

A is instinctive by nature.
B requires knowledge of a specific subject.
C needs to be constantly updated.
D demands a good sense of timing.

29
Exercise 30

You will hear part of an interview with Miriam Baker, a psychologist, about how social
media has changed self-expression. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which
fits best according to what you hear.

1 According to Miriam, what is the main reason people feel the need to create perfect images
of their lives on social media?
A They are hoping to attract more friends.
B They want their lives to seem more exciting.
C They are in need of validation.
D They have very unhappy lives.

2 In Miriam's view, the average user of social media is

A driven and only interested in self-gratification.
B lonely and looking for meaningful connections.
C curious and concerned with their surroundings.
D volatile and confused about what they want.

3 When discussing her own experience with social media, Miriam reveals
A her unexpected pleasure at the response.
B her desire to engage with it more.
C her worry of becoming addicted.
D her anxiety of not being accepted.

4 Miriam compares media in the past with social media today to

A highlight the reduction in consumption.
B focus on the differing subject matter.
C explain the difference in the audience.
D illustrate the variety of content.

5 What advice does Miriam give about combating `Digital Narcissism'?

A Be true to who you really are.
B Try to post more meaningful content.
C Focus on others and not yourself.
D Do things that increase your self-esteem

30