EASA
EASA
EASA
Copyright notice
© European Union, 1998-2017
Except where otherwise stated, reuse of the EUR-Lex data for commercial or non-commercial purposes is authorised
provided the source is acknowledged ('© European Union, http://eur-lex.europa.eu/, 1998-2017') 2.
1 The published date represents the date when the consolidated version of the document was generated.
2 Euro-Lex, Important Legal Notice: http://eur-lex.europa.eu/content/legal-notice/legal-notice.html.
DISCLAIMER
This version is issued by the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) in order to provide its
stakeholders with an updated and easy-to-read publication. It has been prepared by putting together
the officially published regulations with the related acceptable means of compliance and guidance
material (including the amendments) adopted so far. However, this is not an official publication and
EASA accepts no liability for damage of any kind resulting from the risks inherent in the use of this
document.
LIST OF REVISIONS
Published Reason of revision
November 2017 First Easy Access Rules document powered by eRules
December 2017 To incorporate a missing table in GM1 ATM/ANS.OR.A.001 Scope
February 2018 To correct a minor editiorial mistake
June 2018 To correct an editorial error in GM1 to AMC2 ATS.OR.205(a)(2), paragraph (a)(4)
and to correct the applicability dates for the Implementing Rules (IRs)
The content of this document is arranged as follows: the cover regulation (recitals and articles) with
the implementing rule (IR) points appear first, followed by the related acceptable means of
compliance (AMC) and guidance material (GM) paragraph(s).
All elements (i.e. cover regulation, IRs, AMC, and GM) are colour-coded and can be identified
according to the illustration below. The Commission regulation or EASA Executive Director (ED)
decision through which the point or paragraph was introduced or last amended is indicated below the
point or paragraph title(s) in italics.
Implementing rule
Commission regulation
Guidance material
ED decision
INCORPORATED AMENDMENTS
IMPLEMENTING RULES (IRS) (COMMISSION REGULATIONS)
Incorporated Regulation
Affected Part Applicability date1, 2
Commission Regulation amendment
Regulation (EU) 2017/373 Annex I (Part-DEFINITIONS) N/A 2/1/2020, except for
the Agency and the
DAT providers
Annex II (Part-ATM/ANS.AR) 2/1/2020, except for
the Agency
Annex III (Part-ATM/ANS.OR) 2/1/2020, except for
the DAT providers
Annex IV (Part-ATS) 2/1/2020
Annex V (Part-MET) 2/1/2020
Annex VI (Part-AIS) 2/1/2020
Annex VII (Part-DAT) 1/1/2019 or
28/3/2017
Annex VIII (Part-CNS) 2/1/2020
Annex IX (Part-ATFM) 2/1/2020
Annex X (Part-ASM) 2/1/2020
Annex XI (Part-ASD) N/A
Annex XII (Part-NM) 2/1/2020
Annex XIII (Part-PERS) 2/1/2020, except for
the DAT providers
1 This is the date of application (i.e. the date from which an act or a provision in an act produces its full legal effects) as defined in the
relevant cover regulation article. Some provisions of the regulations though may be applicable at a later date (deferred applicability).
Besides, there may be some opt-outs (derogations from certain provisions) notified by the Member States.
2 Regulation (EU) 2017/373 shall apply from 2 January 2020. However:
- in respect of the Agency, Article 4(1), (2), (5), (6) and (8) and Article 5 shall apply from the date of entry into force of this Regulation;
- in respect of data services providers, Article 6 shall apply in any case from 1 January 2019 and, where such a provider applies for and
is granted a certificate in accordance with Article 6, from the date of entry into force of this Regulation.
Note: To access the official versions, please click on the hyperlinks provided above.
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Disclaimer ...................................................................................... 3
List of revisions .............................................................................. 4
Note from the editor ...................................................................... 5
Incorporated amendments ............................................................. 6
Table of contents ........................................................................... 8
Cover Regulation.......................................................................... 24
Article 1 Subject matter .................................................................................................... 28
GM1 Article 1 ‘Subject matter’ .............................................................................................. 28
GM1 ATS.OR.205(b)(6) Safety assessment and assurance of changes to the functional system
............................................................................................................................................. 184
ATS.OR.210 Safety criteria ................................................................................... 185
AMC1 ATS.OR.210(a) Safety criteria .................................................................................... 185
AMC2 ATS.OR.210(a) Safety criteria .................................................................................... 186
GM1 ATS.OR.210(a) Safety criteria ...................................................................................... 186
ATS.OR.215 Licensing and medical certification requirements for air traffic
controllers ............................................................................................................ 187
SECTION 3 — SPECIFIC HUMAN FACTORS REQUIREMENTS FOR AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL
SERVICE PROVIDERS ....................................................................................................... 188
ATS.OR.300 Scope ................................................................................................ 188
ATS.OR.305 Responsibilities of air traffic control service providers with regard to
the problematic use of psychoactive substances by air traffic controllers ......... 188
AMC1 ATS.OR.305(a) Responsibilities of air traffic control service providers with regard to the
problematic use of psychoactive substances by air traffic controllers ................................ 189
GM1 ATS.OR.305(a) Responsibilities of air traffic control service providers with regard to the
problematic use of psychoactive substances by air traffic controllers ................................ 189
GM2 ATS.OR.305(a) Responsibilities of air traffic control service providers with regard to the
problematic use of psychoactive substances by air traffic controllers ................................ 190
AMC1 ATS.OR.305(b) Responsibilities of air traffic control service providers with regard to the
problematic use of psychoactive substances by air traffic controllers ................................ 190
GM1 ATS.OR.305(b) Responsibilities of air traffic control service providers with regard to the
problematic use of psychoactive substances by air traffic controllers ................................ 191
ATS.OR.310 Stress ................................................................................................ 191
GM1 ATS.OR.310 Stress ....................................................................................................... 191
AMC1 ATS.OR.310(a) Stress ................................................................................................. 196
GM1 ATS.OR.310(a) Stress ................................................................................................... 197
GM1 ATS.OR.310(b) Stress ................................................................................................... 197
ATS.OR.315 Fatigue .............................................................................................. 197
GM1 ATS.OR.315 Fatigue ..................................................................................................... 198
AMC1 ATS.OR.315(a) Fatigue ............................................................................................... 198
GM1 to AMC1 ATS.OR.315(a) Fatigue...................................................................................... 198
GM2 to AMC1 ATS.OR.315(a) Fatigue...................................................................................... 199
GM3 to AMC1 ATS.OR.315(a) Fatigue .................................................................................. 199
GM1 ATS.OR.315(b) Fatigue ................................................................................................ 200
GM2 ATS.OR.315(b) Fatigue ................................................................................................ 200
ATS.OR.320 Air traffic controllers' rostering system(s) ....................................... 200
GM1 ATS.OR.320(a) Air traffic controllers’ rostering system(s) ........................................... 201
AMC1 ATS.OR.320(a)(6);(7) Air traffic controllers’ rostering system(s) ............................... 201
GM1 ATS.OR.320(b) Air traffic controllers’ rostering system(s) ........................................... 201
Chapter 5 — Requirements for tropical cyclone advisory centre (TCAC) ...................... 224
MET.OR.270 Tropical cyclone advisory centre responsibilities ........................... 224
Chapter 6 — Requirements for world area forecast centre (WAFC) ............................. 225
MET.OR.275 World area forecast centre responsibilities .................................... 225
SUBPART B — TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF METEOROLOGICAL SERVICES
(MET.TR) ........................................................................................................................ 226
SECTION 1 — GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ....................................................................... 226
MET.TR.115 Meteorological bulletins .................................................................. 226
GM1 MET.TR.115(a) Meteorological bulletins ..................................................................... 226
GM2 MET.TR.115(a) Meteorological bulletins ..................................................................... 226
GM3 MET.TR.115(a) Meteorological bulletins ..................................................................... 226
GM1 MET.TR.115(a)(2) Meteorological bulletins................................................................. 227
Chapter 4 — Technical requirements for volcanic ash advisory centres (VAAC) ........... 305
MET.TR.265 Volcanic ash advisory centre responsibilities .................................. 305
GM1 MET.TR.265(a) Volcanic ash advisory centres (VAACs) responsibilities ...................... 306
GM1 MET.TR.265(b)(2) Volcanic ash advisory centres (VAACs) responsibilities .................. 306
Chapter 5 — Technical requirements for tropical cyclone advisory centres (TCAC) ..... 307
MET.TR.270 Tropical cyclone advisory centre responsibilities ............................ 307
AMC1 MET.TR.270(b) Tropical cyclone advisory centres (TCACs) responsibilities ............... 307
GM1 MET.TR.270(b) Tropical cyclone advisory centres (TCACs) responsibilities................. 308
GM2 MET.TR.270(b) Tropical cyclone advisory centres (TCACs) responsibilities ................. 308
Chapter 6 — Technical requirements for world area forecast centres (WAFCs) ........... 309
MET.TR.275 World area forecast centre responsibilities .................................... 309
AMC1 MET.TR.275(a) World area forecast centres (WAFCs) responsibilities ...................... 311
GM1 MET.TR.275(a) World area forecast centres (WAFCs) responsibilities ........................ 311
GM2 MET.TR.275(a) World area forecast centres (WAFCs) responsibilities ........................ 312
GM1 MET.TR.275(b)(3) World area forecast centres (WAFCs) responsibilities ................... 312
AMC1 MET.TR.275(d) World area forecast centres (WAFCs) responsibilities ...................... 312
COVER REGULATION
COMMISSION IMPLEMENTING REGULATION (EU) 2017/373
of 1 March 2017
laying down common requirements for providers of air traffic management/air navigation services and
other air traffic management network functions and their oversight, repealing Regulation (EC) No 482/2008,
Implementing Regulations (EU) No 1034/2011, (EU) No 1035/2011 and (EU) 2016/1377 and amending
Regulation (EU) No 677/2011
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
1 OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1.
2 OJ L 96, 31.3.2004, p. 10.
3 OJ L 96, 31.3.2004, p. 20.
4 Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 1034/2011 of 17 October 2011 on safety oversight in air traffic management and air
navigation services and amending Regulation (EU) No 691/2010 (OJ L 271, 18.10.2011, p. 15).
5 Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 1035/2011 of 17 October 2011 laying down common requirements for the provision of
air navigation services and amending Regulations (EC) No 482/2008 and (EU) No 691/2010 (OJ L 271, 18.10.2011, p. 23).
6 Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10 March 2004 laying down the framework for the
creation of the single European Sky (OJ L 96, 31.3.2004, p. 1).
of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and Annex Vb thereto and to allow the commencement of
standardisation inspections in accordance with Article 24 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.
(3) Those requirements set out in Implementing Regulations (EU) No 1034/2011 and (EU)
No 1035/2011 should now be complemented and updated, in light of technical progress. It
should also be clarified that, for service providers to be issued and retain a certificate, or to
make a declaration, in accordance with this Regulation, they must comply, and continue to
comply, with those requirements as well as with the essential requirements referred to in
Article 8b(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. In addition, consistency should be ensured
between those requirements and the requirements set out in Commission Regulations (EU)
No 965/20121, (EU) No 1178/20112, (EU) No 139/20143 and (EU) 2015/3404, thus moving
towards a ‘total system approach’, which entails a logical and technologically consistent
approach across the various domains. Therefore, the requirements set out in Implementing
Regulations (EU) No 1034/2011 and (EU) No 1035/2011 should now be laid down in a single
instrument and Implementing Regulations (EU) No 1034/2011 and (EU) No 1035/2011 should
be repealed.
(4) Common rules for the certification and oversight of the service providers concerned are
essential to increase the Member States' confidence in each other's systems. Therefore, and in
order to ensure the highest level of safety and security, uniform requirements for the provision
of services and their oversight should be strengthened. That should ensure the safe, high-quality
provision of services for the purpose of air navigation and the mutual recognition of certificates
throughout the Union, thereby increasing freedom of movement and improving the availability
of those services.
(5) In order to ensure a harmonised approach to certification and oversight, the measures to be
implemented for security of systems, constituents in use and data should be coordinated across
Member States, functional airspace blocks and the network formed by the services, functions
and products offered by service providers, the Network Manager, aerodromes and other
persons providing the necessary infrastructure for flight operations.
(6) Safety management ensures the identification, assessment and minimisation of safety risks as
well as security vulnerabilities which have an impact on safety. Therefore, it is necessary to
further elaborate the requirements related to the safety assessment of changes to the
functional system by a certified organisation. Those requirements should be adapted taking into
account the integration of requirements relating to change management into the common
regulatory structure for civil aviation safety, as well as the experience gained by stakeholders
and competent authorities in the field of safety oversight.
(7) It is appropriate to introduce safety culture as an aspect of the management systems of the
service providers in a manner that promotes understanding and improvement of those systems,
1 Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related
to air operations pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 296, 25.10.2012, p. 1).
2 Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures
related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 311,
25.11.2011, p. 1).
3 Commission Regulation (EU) No 139/2014 of 12 February 2014 laying down requirements and administrative procedures related to
aerodromes pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 44, 14.2.2014, p. 1).
4 Commission Regulation (EU) 2015/340 of 20 February 2015 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures relating
to air traffic controllers' licences and certificates pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the
Council, amending Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 and repealing Commission Regulation (EU) No 805/2011
(OJ L 63, 6.3.2015, p. 1).
provision and ensuring proportionality according to the size, type and complexity of the
meteorological services provider.
(14) Common requirements should be established for the certification and oversight of data services
providers to ensure that the providers of aeronautical data for use on aircraft process the data
in an appropriate manner, which meets the airspace end-users' requirements and allows for
safe performance-based navigation operations.
(15) The aeronautical industry and the competent authorities of the Member States should be
allowed sufficient time to adapt to the new regulatory framework established by this Regulation
and to replace certificates issued before the date of application of this Regulation.
(16) However, in order to ensure consistency with Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, the relevant
provisions of this Regulation should apply to data services providers already from an earlier
date. Moreover, those providers should be allowed, on a voluntary basis, to apply for, and be
granted, the relevant certificates already immediately upon the entry into force of this
Regulation, so as to allow them, as entities that are not subject to Implementing Regulation (EU)
No 1035/2011 but that are subject to the practice of issuing voluntary letters of acceptance by
the Agency, to benefit from an early application of this Regulation in this regard and the mutual
recognition of those certificates. Such early application of this Regulation with respect to data
services providers would also relieve aircraft operators from their oversight responsibilities
when contracting the services of those providers, once the provider is certified for aeronautical
databases. Where such a provider makes use of that possibility, it should be bound by the
applicable requirements of this Regulation for the purposes of obtaining a certificate and
subsequently continue to be bound by those requirements. In view of this possibility for data
service providers, the relevant provisions of this Regulation concerning the competent authority
in respect of those providers, which is in this case only the Agency, should also apply already
from the date of entry into force of this Regulation.
(17) The provisions contained in Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/20121 should be
complemented with aspects related to the provision of air traffic services, to ensure consistency
of service provision with pilot and air traffic service personnel actions and requirements under
that Regulation.
(18) The safety acceptability of any change proposed by a service provider should be assessed based
on the analysis of the risks posed by the introduction of a change to its functional system,
differentiated under either quantitative or qualitative objective assessment criteria, or a
combination of both, to be determined at a local level.
(19) For reasons of consistency and ease of application, the provisions of Commission Regulation
(EC) No 482/20082 should be integrated in this Regulation and Commission Regulation (EC)
No 482/2008 should therefore be repealed.
1 Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 of 26 September 2012 laying down the common rules of the air and operational
provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation and amending Implementing Regulation (EU) No 1035/2011 and
Regulations (EC) No 1265/2007, (EC) No 1794/2006, (EC) No 730/2006, (EC) No 1033/2006 and (EU) No 255/2010 (OJ L 281, 13.10.2012,
p. 1).
2 Commission Regulation (EC) No 482/2008 of 30 May 2008 establishing a software safety assurance system to be implemented by air
navigation service providers and amending Annex II to Regulation (EC) No 2096/2005 (OJ L 141, 31.5.2008, p. 5).
(20) The requirements of Articles 12 and 21 of Commission Regulation (EU) No 677/20111 and
Annex VI thereto should be integrated in this Regulation in order to ensure a harmonised
approach to all service providers. Therefore, those provisions should be deleted.
(21) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2016/13772, which has not yet become applicable,
contains numerous errors. In order to eliminate those errors, while at the same time ensuring
the required legal clarity, it is appropriate to repeal Implementing Regulation (EU) 2016/1377
in its entirety and to replace it with the rules set out in this Regulation.
(22) The measures provided for in this Regulation are based on the opinion of the Agency in
accordance with Articles 17(2)(b) and 19(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008.
(23) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the
Committee established by Article 5(3) of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004,
HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:
SCOPE
In reference to the ‘scope’, please refer to GM1 ATM/ANS.OR.A.001 ‘Scope’.
Article 2 Definitions
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
For the purposes of this Regulation, the definitions in Annex I and the following definitions shall apply:
(1) the definitions in Article 2 of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 and Article 3 of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008, except for the definition of ‘certificate’ in Article 2(15) of Regulation (EC)
No 549/2004;
(2) ‘service provider’ means any legal or natural person providing functions or services of ATM/ANS
as defined in point (q) of Article 3 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 or other ATM network
functions, either individually or bundled for general air traffic;
1 Commission Regulation (EU) No 677/2011 of 7 July 2011 laying down detailed rules for the implementation of air traffic management
(ATM) network functions and amending Regulation (EU) No 691/2010 (OJ L 185, 15.7.2011, p. 1).
2 Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2016/1377 of 4 August 2016 laying down common requirements for service providers and
the oversight in air traffic management/air navigation services and other air traffic management network functions, repealing
Regulation (EC) No 482/2008, Implementing Regulations (EU) No 1034/2011 and (EU) No 1035/2011 and amending Regulation (EU)
No 677/2011 (OJ L 226, 19.8.2016, p. 1).
(3) ‘Network Manager’ means the body established in accordance with Article 6 of Regulation (EC)
No 551/2004 to perform the duties provided for in that Article and in Articles 3 and 4 of
Regulation (EU) No 677/2011;
(4) ‘pan-European service’ means an activity which is designed and established for users within
most or all Member States and which may also extend beyond the airspace of the territory to
which the Treaty applies;
(5) ‘data services provider (DAT provider)’ means an organisation, which is:
(a) type 1 DAT provider that processes aeronautical data for use on aircraft and provides an
aeronautical database meeting the DQRs, under controlled conditions, for which no
corresponding airborne application/equipment compatibility has been determined;
(b) type 2 DAT provider that processes aeronautical data and provides an aeronautical
database for use on certified aircraft application/equipment meeting the DQRs for which
compatibility with that application/equipment has been determined.
GENERAL
(a) Article 3(q) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 defines ATM/ANS as ‘the air traffic management
functions as defined in Article 2(10) of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004, air navigation services
defined in Article 2(4) of that Regulation, and services consisting in the origination and
processing of data and formatting and delivering data to general air traffic for the purpose of
safety-critical air navigation’.
(b) It should, therefore, be noted that ‘ATM/ANS’ includes more services and functions than ‘air
traffic management’ and ‘air navigation services’ together.
(c) It is important to note that ATS is included in ATM and ANS.
(d) As already defined, ‘ATM network functions’ refers to functions performed by the Network
Manager in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 677/2011.
1. Member States shall ensure that the appropriate ATM/ANS and ATM network functions are
provided in accordance with this Regulation in a manner that facilitates general air traffic, while
taking into account safety considerations and traffic requirements.
2. When Member States adopt additional provisions to complement this Regulation on any
matters left to the Member States under this Regulation, those provisions shall follow the
standards and recommended practices set by the Chicago Convention. Where use is made of
the provisions of Article 38 of the Chicago Convention, in addition to notifying the International
Civil Aviation Organisation, the Member States shall notify the European Aviation Safety Agency
(‘Agency’), with due justification, at the latest two months after the additional provisions have
been adopted.
3. Member States shall publish, in accordance with the Chicago Convention, those additional
provisions through their aeronautical information publications.
4. Where a Member State decides to organise the provision of certain specific air traffic services
in a competitive environment, that Member State shall take all appropriate measures to ensure
that the providers of those services shall neither engage in conduct that would have as its object
or effect the prevention, restriction or distortion of competition, nor shall they engage in
conduct that amounts to an abuse of a dominant position, in accordance with applicable Union
and national law.
1. The competent authority responsible for the issuing of certificates to service providers, for the
acknowledgment of receipts of declarations made by providers of flight information services
referred to in Article 7 where relevant, and for the oversight and enforcement in respect of
service providers shall be the national supervisory authority referred to in Article 4 of Regulation
(EC) No 549/2004 of the Member State where the legal or natural person applying for the
certificate or making the declaration has its principal place of operation or, if any, its registered
office, unless the Agency is the competent authority pursuant to Article 22a of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008.
For the purposes of this Regulation, data services providers and the Network Manager shall be
considered to be pan-European service providers in respect of which, in accordance with point
(c) of Article 22a of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, the Agency is the competent authority.
2. The competent authorities referred to in paragraph 1 shall comply with the requirements laid
down in Annex II.
3. Where one of the service providers concerned is an organisation in respect of which the Agency
is the competent authority, the competent authorities of the Member States concerned shall
coordinate with the Agency in order to ensure that the requirements set out in points (1), (2)
and (3) of point ATM/ANS.AR.A.005(b) of Annex II are complied with where, alternatively:
(a) service providers provide services in respect of functional airspace blocks that extend
across the airspace falling under the responsibility of more than one Member State, as
referred to in Article 2(3) of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004;
(b) service providers provide cross-border air navigation services as referred to in Article 2(5)
of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004.
4. Where a Member State has nominated or established more than one competent authority in
accordance with Article 4 of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 or as referred to in Article 2(3) to (6)
of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 to exercise the certification, oversight and enforcement tasks
under this Regulation, it shall ensure that the areas of competence of each of those authorities
are clearly defined, in particular in terms of responsibilities and geographic and airspace
limitation. In such a case, those authorities shall establish coordination between them, based
on written arrangements, so as to ensure effective oversight and enforcement in respect of all
service providers to which they issued certificates or, where relevant, which made declarations
to them.
5. When exercising their certification, oversight and enforcement tasks under this Regulation, the
competent authorities shall be independent of any service provider. That independence shall
be ensured by adequate separation, at least at the functional level, between the competent
authorities and the service providers. In this context, Member States shall ensure that the
competent authorities exercise their powers impartially and transparently.
6. Member States and, where the Agency is the competent authority, the Commission shall ensure
that their competent authorities do not allow their personnel to be involved in the exercise of
the certification, oversight and enforcement tasks of that authority under this Regulation where
there are indications that such involvement could result, directly or indirectly, in a conflict of
interest, in particular relating to family or financial interests.
7. The Agency shall maintain a database of contact details of the competent authorities referred
to in paragraph 1. For this purpose, Member States shall notify the Agency of the names and
addresses of their competent authorities, and of any subsequent changes thereto.
8. Member States and, where the Agency is the competent authority, the Commission shall
determine the necessary resources and capabilities required by the competent authorities for
the exercise of their tasks, in accordance with Article 4(4) of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 and
Article 22a of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, taking into account all relevant factors, including an
assessment carried out by the respective competent authorities to determine the resources
needed for the exercise of their tasks under this Regulation.
1. The competent authorities shall, where required for the exercise of their certification, oversight
and enforcement tasks under this Regulation, be empowered to:
(a) require the service providers subject to their oversight to provide all necessary
information;
(b) require any representative, manager or other member of the personnel of those service
providers to provide oral explanations on any fact, document, object, procedure or other
subject matter relevant to the oversight of the service provider;
(c) enter any premises and land, including operating sites, and means of transport of those
service providers;
(d) examine, copy or make extracts from any document, record or data held by or accessible
to those service providers, irrespective of the medium on which the information in
question is stored;
(e) carry out audits, assessments, investigations and inspections of those service providers.
2. The competent authorities shall, where required for the exercise of their certification, oversight
and enforcement tasks under this Regulation, also be empowered to exercise the powers set
out in paragraph 1 in relation to the contracted organisations subject to the service providers'
oversight, as referred to in point ATM/ANS.OR.B.015 of Annex III.
3. The powers provided for in paragraphs 1 and 2 shall be exercised in compliance with the
national law of the Member State where the activities in question take place, with due regard
for the need to ensure the effective exercise of those powers and for the rights and legitimate
interests of the service provider and any third persons concerned, and in compliance with the
principle of proportionality. Where, in accordance with the applicable national law, prior
authorisation from the judicial authority of the Member State concerned is needed to enter
premises, land and means of transport as referred to in point (c) of paragraph 1, the related
powers shall be exercised only after having obtained such prior authorisation.
When exercising the powers provided for in paragraphs 1 and 2, the competent authority shall
ensure that the members of its staff and, where relevant, any other expert participating in the
activities in question are duly authorised.
4. The competent authorities shall take or initiate any appropriate enforcement measure
necessary to ensure that the service providers to which they issued a certificate or, where
relevant, which made a declaration to them, comply and continue to comply with the
requirements of this Regulation.
Service providers shall be granted a certificate and be entitled to exercise the privileges granted within
the scope of that certificate, where, in addition to the requirements referred to in Article 8b(1) of
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, they comply and continue to comply with the following requirements:
(a) for all service providers, the requirements laid down in Annex III (Part-ATM/ANS.OR), Subparts
A and B, and in Annex XIII (Part-PERS);
(b) for service providers other than providers of air traffic services, in addition to the requirements
of point (a), the requirements laid down in Annex III (Part-ATM/ANS.OR), Subpart C;
(c) for providers of air navigation services, providers of air traffic flow management and the
Network Manager, in addition to the requirements of point (a), the requirements laid down in
Annex III (Part-ATM/ANS.OR), Subpart D;
(d) for providers of air traffic services, in addition to the requirements of points (a) and (c), the
requirements laid down in Annex IV (Part-ATS);
(e) for providers of meteorological services, in addition to the requirements of points (a), (b) and
(c), the requirements laid down in Annex V (Part-MET);
(f) for providers of aeronautical information services, in addition to the requirements of points (a),
(b) and (c), the requirements laid down in Annex VI (Part-AIS);
(g) for data services providers, in addition to the requirements of points (a) and (b), the
requirements laid down in Annex VII (Part-DAT);
(h) for providers of communication, navigation or surveillance services, in addition to the
requirements of points (a), (b) and (c), the requirements laid down in Annex VIII (Part-CNS);
(i) for providers of air traffic flow management, in addition to the requirements of points (a), (b)
and (c), the requirements laid down in Annex IX (Part-ATFM);
(j) for providers of airspace management, in addition to the requirements of points (a) and (b), the
requirements laid down in Annex X (Part-ASM);
(k) for providers of procedure design, in addition to the requirements of points (a) and (b), the
requirements laid down in Annex XI (Part-ASD), when those requirements will be adopted by
the Commission;
(l) for the Network Manager, in addition to the requirements of points (a), (b) and (c), the
requirements laid down in Annex XII (Part-NM).
Regulation), with the effect that the two concepts now have an identical certification and
oversight regime.
Where Member States allow providers of flight information services to declare their capability and
means of discharging the responsibilities associated with the services provided in accordance with
Article 8b(3) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, those providers shall fulfil, in addition to the
requirements referred to in Article 8b(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, the requirements laid down
in point ATM/ANS.OR.A.015 in Annex III to this Regulation.
1. Certificates that have been issued in accordance with Implementing Regulation (EU)
No 1035/2011 shall be deemed to have been issued in accordance with this Regulation.
2. Member States shall replace the certificates referred to in paragraph 1 with certificates
complying with the format laid down in Appendix 1 to Annex II by 1 January 2021 at the latest.
1. Regulation (EC) No 482/2008 and Implementing Regulations (EU) No 1034/2011 and (EU) No
1035/2011 are repealed.
2. Implementing Regulation (EU) 2016/1377 is repealed.
3. Articles 12 and 21 of Regulation (EU) No 677/2011 and Annex VI to that Regulation are deleted.
This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the
Official Journal of the European Union.
It shall apply from 2 January 2020.
However:
(1) Article 9(2) shall apply from the date of entry into force of this Regulation;
(2) in respect of the Agency, Article 4(1), (2), (5), (6) and (8) and Article 5 shall apply from the date
of entry into force of this Regulation;
(3) in respect of data services providers, Article 6 shall apply in any case from 1 January 2019 and,
where such a provider applies for and is granted a certificate in accordance with Article 6, from
the date of entry into force of this Regulation.
This Regulation shall be binding in its entirety and directly applicable in all Member States.
DAT PROVIDERS
In respect of DAT providers, Regulation (EU) 2017/373 applies from 1 January 2019.
However, DAT providers are allowed, on a voluntary basis, to apply for, and be granted, the relevant
certificates upon the entry into force of this Regulation (before 1 January 2019).
Where a DAT provider makes use of this possibility and is issued a certificate, it is bound by the
applicable requirements of this Regulation.
Until 1 January 2019, DAT providers may continue to apply for the issuance of a Letter of Acceptance
(LoA) by the Agency, in accordance with the terms and conditions set out in EASA Opinion 1/2005
issued on 21 January 2005.
Regulation (EU) 2017/343
ANNEX I — PART-DEFINITIONS
DEFINITIONS OF TERMS USED IN ANNEXES II TO XIII (PART-
DEFINITIONS)
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
For the purposes of Annexes II to XIII, the following definitions shall apply:
(1) ‘acceptable means of compliance (AMC)’ means non-binding standards adopted by the Agency
to illustrate means to establish compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
implementing rules;
(2) ‘aerial work’ means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services
such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and
rescue or aerial advertisement;
(3) ‘aerodrome climatological summary’ means a concise summary of specified meteorological
elements at an aerodrome, based on statistical data;
(4) ‘aerodrome climatological table’ means a table providing statistical data on the observed
occurrence of one or more meteorological elements at an aerodrome;
(5) ‘aerodrome elevation’ means the elevation of the highest point of the landing area;
(6) ‘aerodrome flight information service (AFIS)’ means flight information service and alerting
service for aerodrome traffic at an aerodrome;
(7) ‘aerodrome meteorological office’ means an office responsible for providing meteorological
service for an aerodrome;
(8) ‘aerodrome warning’ means information issued by an aerodrome meteorological office
concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of meteorological conditions which could
adversely affect aircraft on the ground, including parked aircraft and the aerodrome facilities
and services;
(9) ‘aeronautical data’ means a representation of aeronautical facts, concepts or instructions in a
formalised manner suitable for communication, interpretation or processing;
(10) ‘aeronautical database’ means a collection of aeronautical data organised and arranged as a
structured data set, stored electronically on systems, which is valid for a dedicated period and
may be updated;
(11) ‘aeronautical fixed service (AFS)’ means a telecommunication service between specified fixed
points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular, efficient and
economical operation of air services;
(12) ‘aeronautical fixed telecommunication network (AFTN)’ means a worldwide system of
aeronautical fixed circuits provided, as part of the AFS, for the exchange of messages and/or
digital data between aeronautical fixed stations having the same or compatible communications
characteristics;
(13) ‘aeronautical information’ means information resulting from the assembly, analysis and
formatting of aeronautical data;
(14) ‘aerodrome mapping data’ means data collected for the purpose of compiling aerodrome
mapping information;
(15) ‘aerodrome mapping database (AMDB)’ means a collection of aerodrome mapping data
organised and arranged as a structured data set;
(16) ‘aeronautical meteorological station’ means a station making observations and meteorological
reports for use in air navigation;
(17) ‘air-report’ means a report from an aircraft in flight prepared in conformity with the
requirements for position and operational and/or meteorological reporting;
(18) ‘aircraft’ means any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of
the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface;
(19) ‘AIRMET message’ means information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect
the safety of low-level aircraft operations and of the development of those phenomena in time
and space, and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the
flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof;
(20) ‘air traffic safety electronics personnel (ATSEP)’ means any authorised personnel who are
competent to operate, maintain, release from, and return into operations equipment of the
functional system;
(21) ‘air traffic services unit’ is a generic term meaning variously air traffic control unit, flight
information centre, aerodrome flight information service unit or air traffic services reporting
office;
(22) ‘alternate aerodrome’ means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes
either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing
where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft performance
requirements can be met and which is operational at the expected time of use;
(23) ‘alternative means of compliance (AltMOC)’ means those means of compliance that propose an
alternative to an existing AMC or those that propose new means to establish compliance with
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its Implementing Rules for which no associated AMC have
been adopted by the Agency;
(24) ‘altitude’ means the vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point,
measured from mean sea level;
(25) ‘area control centre (ACC)’ means a unit established to provide air traffic control service to
controlled flights in control areas under its jurisdiction;
(26) ‘area forecast for low-level flights’ means a forecast of weather phenomena for a flight
information region or sub-area thereof, issued to cover the layer below flight level 100 (or below
flight level 150 in mountainous areas, or higher, where necessary);
(27) ‘area navigation (RNAV)’ means a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any
desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or space-based navigation aids or within the
limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of them;
(28) ‘argument’ means a claim that is supported via inferences by a body of evidence;
(29) ‘ASHTAM’ means a special series of NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format of a change
in the activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance
to aircraft operations;
(30) ‘ATM network functions’ means the functions performed by the Network Manager in
accordance with Regulation (EU) No 677/2011;
(31) ‘audit’ means a systematic, independent and documented process for obtaining evidence and
evaluating it objectively to determine the extent to which requirements are complied with;
(32) ‘authoritative source’ means:
(a) a State authority: or
(b) an organisation formally recognised by the State authority to originate and/or publish
data which meets the data quality requirements (DQRs) as specified by that State;
(33) ‘automatic observing system’ means an observing system that measures, derives and reports
all required elements without human interaction;
(34) ‘aviation undertaking’ means an entity, person or organisation, other than the service providers
regulated by this Regulation, that is affected by or affects a service delivered by a service
provider;
(35) ‘break’ means a period of time within the duty period when an air traffic controller is not
required to perform duties, for recuperation purposes;
(36) ‘certified aircraft application’ means a software application approved by the Agency as part of
aircraft subject to Article 4 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008;
(37) ‘cloud of operational significance’ means a cloud with the height of cloud base below 1500 m
(5000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, or a
cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height;
(38) ‘commercial air transport’ means any aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers,
cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration;
(39) ‘control area’ means a controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the
earth;
(40) ‘critical incident stress’ means the manifestation of unusual and/or extreme emotional, physical
and/or behavioural reactions of an individual following an event or incident;
(41) ‘data quality’ means a degree or level of confidence that the provided data meets the user's
data requirements in terms of accuracy, resolution, integrity (or equivalent assurance level),
traceability, timeliness, completeness, and format;
(42) ‘data quality requirements (DQRs)’ means a specification of the characteristics of data (i.e.
accuracy, resolution, integrity (or equivalent assurance level), traceability, timeliness,
completeness and format) to ensure that the data is compatible with its intended use;
(43) ‘destination alternate’ means an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land
should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing;
(44) ‘duty’ means any task that an air traffic controller is required to perform by the air traffic control
service provider;
(45) ‘duty period’ means a period which starts when an air traffic controller is required by the air
traffic control service provider to report for or be available for or to commence duty and ends
when the air traffic controller is free from duty;
(46) ‘elevation’ means the vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the
earth, measured from mean sea level;
(47) ‘en-route alternate’ means an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land
in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en-route;
(48) ‘fatigue’ means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability
resulting from sleep loss or extended wakefulness, circadian phase or workload (mental or
physical activity, or both) that can impair an individual's alertness and ability to safely perform
his/her tasks;
(49) ‘flight documentation’ means documents, including charts or forms, containing meteorological
information for a flight;
(50) ‘flight information centre (FIC)’ means a unit established to provide flight information service
and alerting service;
(51) ‘flight information region (FIR)’ means an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight
information service and alerting service are provided;
(52) ‘flight level (FL)’ means a surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific
pressure datum, 1013,2 hectopascals (hPa), and is separated from other such surfaces by
specific pressure intervals;
(53) ‘flight test’ means a flight for the development phase of a new design (aircraft, propulsion
systems, parts and appliances), a flight to demonstrate compliance to certification basis or to
type design for aircraft coming from the production line, a flight intended to experiment new
design concepts, requiring unconventional manoeuvres or profiles for which it could be possible
to exit the already approved envelope of the aircraft or a training flight to perform either of
those flights;
(54) ‘forecast’ means a statement of expected meteorological conditions for a specified time or
period, and for a specified area or portion of airspace;
(55) ‘forecast for take-off’ means a forecast for a specified period of time, prepared by an aerodrome
meteorological office, which contains information on expected conditions over the runways
complex in regard to surface wind direction and speed and any variations thereof, temperature,
pressure (QNH) and any other element as agreed locally;
(56) ‘functional system’ means a combination of procedures, human resources and equipment,
including hardware and software, organised to perform a function within the context of
ATM/ANS and other ATM network functions;
(57) ‘general aviation’ means any civil aircraft operation other than aerial work or commercial air
transport;
(58) ‘grid point data in digital form’ means computer-processed meteorological data for a set of
regularly spaced points on a chart, for transmission from a meteorological computer to another
computer in a code form suitable for automated use;
(59) ‘guidance material’ means non-binding material developed by the Agency that helps to
illustrate the meaning of a requirement or specification and is used to support the
interpretation of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, its implementing rules and AMC;
(60) ‘gridded global forecasts’ means forecasts of expected values of meteorological elements on a
global grid with a defined vertical and horizontal resolution;
(61) ‘hazard’ means any condition, event, or circumstance which could induce a harmful effect;
(62) ‘height’ means the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,
measured from a specified datum;
(63) ‘level’ is a generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning
variously height, altitude or flight level;
(64) ‘local routine report’ means a meteorological report issued at fixed time intervals, intended only
for dissemination at the aerodrome of origin where the observations were made;
(65) ‘local special report’ means a meteorological report issued in accordance with the criteria
established for special observations, intended only for dissemination at the aerodrome of origin
where the observations were made;
(66) ‘meteorological bulletin’ means a text comprising meteorological information preceded by an
appropriate heading;
(67) ‘meteorological information’ means meteorological report, analysis, forecast, and any other
statement relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions;
(68) ‘meteorological observation’ means the measurement and/or evaluation of one or more
meteorological elements;
(69) ‘meteorological report’ means a statement of observed meteorological conditions related to a
specified time and location;
(70) ‘meteorological satellite’ means an artificial Earth satellite making meteorological observations
and transmitting these observations to Earth;
(71) ‘meteorological watch office’ means an office monitoring meteorological conditions affecting
flight operations and providing information concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence
of specified en-route weather phenomena, natural and other hazards which may affect the
safety of aircraft operations within a specified area of responsibility;
(72) ‘minimum sector altitude (MSA)’ means the lowest altitude which may be used which will
provide a minimum clearance of 300 m (1000 ft) above all objects located in an area contained
within a sector of a circle of 46 km (25 NM) radius centred on a significant point, the aerodrome
reference point (ARP) or the heliport reference point (HRP);
(73) ‘NOTAM’ means a notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information
concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service,
procedure, or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with
flight operations;
(74) ‘obstacle’ means all fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile objects, or parts
thereof, that:
(a) are located on an area intended for the surface movement of aircraft; or
(b) extend above a defined surface intended to protect aircraft in flight; or
(c) stand outside those defined surfaces and have been assessed as being a hazard to air
navigation;
(75) ‘OPMET’ means operational meteorological information for use in preparatory or in-flight
planning of flight operations;
(76) ‘OPMET databank’ means a databank established to store and make available internationally
operational meteorological information for aeronautical use;
(77) ‘pre-eruption volcanic activity’ means an unusual and/or increasing volcanic activity which
could presage a volcanic eruption;
(78) ‘prevailing visibility’ means the greatest visibility value, observed in accordance with the
definition of ‘visibility’, which is reached within at least half the horizon circle or within at least
half of the surface of the aerodrome. These areas could comprise contiguous or non-contiguous
sectors;
(79) ‘problematic use of psychoactive substances’ means the use of one or more psychoactive
substances by an individual, in a way that:
(a) constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health, or welfare of others;
and/or
(b) causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder;
(80) ‘prognostic chart’ means a forecast of (a) specified meteorological element(s) for a specified
time or period and a specified surface or portion of airspace, depicted graphically on a chart;
(81) ‘psychoactive substances’ means alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics,
cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, whereas caffeine and
tobacco are excluded;
(82) ‘rescue coordination centre (RCC)’ means a unit responsible for promoting efficient
organisation of search and rescue services, and for coordinating the conduct of search and
rescue operations within a search and rescue region;
(83) ‘rest period’ means a continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to and/or prior to
duty, during which an air traffic controller is free of all duties;
(84) ‘rostering system’ means the structure of duty and rest periods of air traffic controllers in
accordance with legal and operational requirements;
(85) ‘risk’ means the combination of the overall probability or frequency of occurrence of a harmful
effect induced by a hazard and the severity of that effect;
(86) ‘runway’ means a defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and
take-off of aircraft;
(87) ‘runway visual range (RVR)’ means the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre
line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or
identifying its centre line;
(88) ‘safety directive’ means a document issued or adopted by a competent authority which
mandates actions to be performed on a functional system or sets restrictions to its operational
use to restore safety when evidence shows that aviation safety may otherwise be compromised;
(89) ‘safety management system (SMS)’ means a systematic approach to managing safety, including
the necessary organisational structures, accountabilities, policies, and procedures;
(90) ‘search and rescue services unit’ is a generic term covering, as the case may be, rescue
coordination centre, rescue sub-centre or alerting post;
(91) ‘selected volcano observatory’ means a provider, selected by the competent authority, that
observes the activity of a volcano or a group of volcanoes and makes these observations
available to an agreed list of aviation recipients;
(92) ‘semi-automatic observing system’ means an observing system that allows the augmentation
of measured elements and requires a human in the loop for issuing the appropriate reports;
(93) ‘SIGMET’ means information concerning en-route weather phenomena, which may affect the
safety of aircraft operations;
(94) ‘SIGMET message’ means information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect
the safety of aircraft operations and of the development of those phenomena in time and space;
(95) ‘special air-report’ means a meteorological report by an aircraft issued in accordance with the
criteria based on observations made during the flight;
(96) ‘stress’ means the outcomes experienced by an individual when faced with a potential cause
(‘stressor’) of human performance modification. The experience of the stressor may impact the
individual's performance negatively (distress), neutrally or positively (eustress), based on the
individual's perception of his/her ability to manage the stressor;
(97) ‘system and equipment rating training’ means training designed to impart specific
system/equipment knowledge and skills leading towards operational competence;
(98) ‘tailored data’ means aeronautical data which is provided by the aircraft operator or DAT
provider on the aircraft operator's behalf and produced for this aircraft operator for its intended
operational use;
(99) ‘take-off alternate aerodrome’ means an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land
should this become necessary shortly after take-off and if it be not possible to use the
aerodrome of departure;
(100) ‘terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF)’ means a concise statement of the expected meteorological
conditions at an aerodrome for a specified period;
(101) ‘terrain’ means the surface of the Earth containing naturally occurring features such as
mountains, hills, ridges, valleys, bodies of water, permanent ice and snow, and excluding
obstacles;
(102) ‘threshold’ means the beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing;
(103) ‘touchdown zone’ means the portion of a runway, beyond the threshold, where it is intended
that landing aeroplanes first contact the runway;
(104) ‘tropical cyclone’ is a generic term for a non-frontal synoptic-scale cyclone originating over
tropical or subtropical waters with organised convection and definite cyclonic surface wind
circulation;
(105) ‘tropical cyclone advisory centre (TCAC)’ means a meteorological centre providing advisory
information to meteorological watch offices, world area forecast centres and international
OPMET databanks regarding the position, forecast direction and speed of movement, central
pressure and maximum surface wind of tropical cyclones;
(106) ‘visibility’ means visibility for aeronautical purposes, which is the greater of:
(a) the greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the
ground, can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright background;
(b) the greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1000 candelas can be seen and
identified against an unlit background;
(107) ‘volcanic ash advisory centre (VAAC)’ means a meteorological centre providing advisory
information to meteorological watch offices, area control centres, flight information centres,
world area forecast centres and international OPMET databanks regarding the lateral and
vertical extent and forecast movement of volcanic ash in the atmosphere following volcanic
eruptions;
(108) ‘world area forecast centre (WAFC)’ means a meteorological centre preparing and issuing
significant weather forecasts and upper-air forecasts in digital form on a global basis direct to
the Member States by appropriate means as part of the aeronautical fixed service;
(109) ‘world area forecast system (WAFS)’ means a worldwide system by which world area forecast
centres provide aeronautical meteorological en-route forecasts in uniform standardised
formats.
DAT PROVIDERS
Aeronautical data in the context of DAT providers should mean that aeronautical data needed for the
functionality of certified aircraft application(s) and does not form part of its (their) approved type
design. It may change over the course of time such as e.g. ‘aerodrome mapping data’, ‘obstacles data’
and ‘terrain data’, etc. which are amongst other types of ‘aeronautical data’.
AUTHORISED PERSONNEL
(a) The achievement of competence is independent of the permission to perform any task.
Therefore, the ATSEP should be authorised to work on operational systems.
(b) It is intentionally not specified who is responsible for providing this authorisation. This is usually
done by the service provider, but it might be done by another entity depending on the national
arrangements for managing the competence and performance of ATSEP.
OPERATE, MAINTAIN, RELEASE FROM, AND RETURN INTO OPERATIONS
(c) The term ‘operate’ refers to the ability of the ATSEP to actively control a system and should not
be confused with, for example, the air traffic controllers’ function to operate particular
equipment in order to provide air traffic services. However, it is necessary for ATSEP to have an
understanding of how air traffic controllers operate or make use of operational systems, in
order to repair and maintain them appropriately. An ATSEP usually manages the engineering
operation of operational systems, for example by:
(1) making a radiotelephony test transmission to check a voice communication and control
system or a recording system;
(2) switching between systems A and B, or switching off the stand-by system, in case of
duplicated systems; or
(3) changing the range and gating maps of a radar system processor.
(d) The term ‘maintain’ refers to planned, preventative and corrective maintenance, including
fault-finding.
(e) The term ‘release from operations’ refers to the process of withdrawal from use of a
system/equipment from the operational environment, and ‘return into operations’ refers to the
process whereby the system/equipment is checked and restored to operational use, in
accordance with both risk assessment and mitigation.
SCOPE
The design, testing, installation and commissioning of operational systems and equipment are
excluded from the scope of this section.
DESIGN OF OPERATIONAL SYSTEMS AND EQUIPMENT
Design also includes software.
COMMISSIONING OF OPERATIONAL SYSTEMS AND EQUIPMENT
The term ‘commissioning’ is understood to be the process by which a system/equipment, which has
been installed, is tested to ensure that it works according to its design objectives or specifications, and
that it is ready to be operated and maintained in accordance with the users’ operational requirements.
ORGANISATIONS
Organisations formally recognised by the State authority to originate and/or publish data, which
meets the Data Quality Requirements (DQRs) as specified by that State, may be considered at least
but are not limited to Mapping, Cadastre, and Land Registry authorities.
GENERAL
Depending on the data characteristics considered, DQRs are specified as ‘internationally recognised
Data Quality Requirements’ (mainly when data is provided by authoritative sources), ‘end-user Data
Quality Requirements’ (typically for completeness, timeliness, etc.), or ‘system designer Data Quality
Requirements’ (considering other data characteristics, such as accuracy, resolution, assurance level,
traceability, format, etc.).
MOBILE OBJECTS
Mobile objects may be converted to fixed items in obstacle database taking into account its mobility
boundaries.
GENERAL
In practical terms, depending on the method of data collection used, terrain represents the continuous
surface that exists at the bare Earth, the top of the canopy or something in-between, also known as
‘first reflective surface’.
ANNEX II — PART-ATM/ANS.AR
REQUIREMENTS FOR COMPETENT AUTHORITIES —
OVERSIGHT OF SERVICES AND OTHER ATM NETWORK
FUNCTIONS
SUBPART A — GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
ATM/ANS.AR.A.001 Scope
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
This Annex establishes the requirements for the administration and management systems of the
competent authorities responsible for certification, oversight and enforcement in respect of the
application of the requirements set out in Annexes III to XIII by the service providers in accordance
with Article 6.
(a) The competent authority shall exercise certification, oversight and enforcement tasks in respect
of the application of the requirements applicable to service providers, monitor the safe
provision of their services and verify that the applicable requirements are met.
(b) The competent authorities shall identify and exercise the responsibilities for certification,
oversight and enforcement in a manner which ensures that:
(1) specific points of responsibility exist to implement each provision of this Regulation;
(2) they are aware of the safety oversight mechanisms and their results;
(3) relevant information exchange is ensured between competent authorities.
The competent authorities concerned shall regularly review the agreement on the supervision
of the service providers providing air navigation services in functional airspace blocks (FABs)
that extend across the airspace falling under the responsibility of more than one Member States
referred to in Article 2(3) of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 and, in the case of cross-border
provision of air navigation services, the agreement on the mutual recognition of supervisory
tasks referred to in Article 2(5) of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004, as well as the practical
implementation of those agreements, in particular in the light of achieved safety performance
of the service providers under their supervision.
(c) The competent authority shall establish coordination arrangements with other competent
authorities for notified changes to functional systems involving service providers under the
oversight of the other competent authorities. Those coordination arrangements shall ensure
the effective selection and review of those notified changes, in accordance with point
ATM/ANS.AR.C.025.
CONCLUSION OF AN AGREEMENT
The agreement on the supervision in a FAB or in cases of cross-border provision may be concluded
among:
(a) the competent authorities nominated or established under agreements concluded among
Member States in accordance with Article 2(3) of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004; or
(b) the competent authorities of the service providers in cases of cross-border provision.
(c) Normally, competent authorities act independently when making decisions on how to select
and review safety assessments, but in the case of multi-actor changes that cross State
boundaries, the only way to ensure the effective selection and review of the notified changes is
through coordination with other competent authorities. Coordination arrangements, which are
difficult to define in advance, are to be established when the need arises. The objective of these
agreements should be to ensure that the overall change is safe, i.e. the overall safety case is
based on a complete and correct set of assumptions and mitigations and the associated risk
assessments are valid.
(d) The arrangements should ensure that:
(1) the competent authorities involved evaluate in a harmonised way the risk posed by the
change, and as a consequence there is an agreement on what safety (support)
assessments will be reviewed by each competent authority; and
(2) individual reviews of safety (support) assessments assure the necessary conditions are
met, i.e. common assumptions and common mitigations are used correctly in each safety
(support) assessment and the identified risks are valid.
(e) However, the assurance that the set of common assumptions and common mitigations are
complete and correct cannot be provided in each individual safety case. The argument for that
assurance has to be made in an overall safety case and reviewed collectively by the competent
authorities involved in the overall change. The form of this collective review should be included
in the coordination agreement.
The competent authority shall make available the relevant legislative acts, standards, rules, technical
publications and related documents to its personnel in order to perform their tasks and to discharge
their responsibilities.
(a) The Agency shall develop acceptable means of compliance (AMC) that may be used to establish
compliance with the requirements of this Regulation. When AMC are complied with, the
applicable requirements of this Regulation shall be deemed to have been met.
(b) Alternative means of compliance (AltMOC) may be used to establish compliance with the
requirements of this Regulation.
(c) The competent authority shall establish a system to consistently evaluate that all AltMOC used
by itself or by the service providers under its oversight allow the establishment of compliance
with the requirements of this Regulation.
(d) The competent authority shall evaluate all AltMOC proposed by a service provider in accordance
with point ATM/ANS.OR.A.020 by analysing the documentation provided and, if considered
necessary, conducting an inspection of the service provider.
When the competent authority finds that the AltMOC are sufficient to ensure compliance with
the applicable requirements of this Regulation it shall without undue delay:
(1) notify the applicant that the AltMOC may be implemented and, if applicable, amend the
certificate of the applicant accordingly;
(2) notify the Agency of their content, including copies of all relevant documentation;
(3) inform other Member States about the AltMOC that were accepted.
(e) When the competent authority itself uses AltMOC to achieve compliance with the applicable
requirements of this Regulation, it shall:
(1) make them available to all service providers under its oversight;
(2) notify the Agency without undue delay.
The competent authority shall provide the Agency with a full description of the AltMOC,
including any revisions to procedures that may be relevant, as well as an assessment
demonstrating that the applicable requirements of this Regulation are met.
GENERAL
Alternative means of compliance used by a competent authority or by organisations under its
oversight may be used by other competent authorities or service providers only if processed again in
accordance with ATM/ANS.AR.A.015(d) and (e).
GENERAL
The information to be provided to other Member States following approval of an alternative means
of compliance (AltMoC) should contain a reference to the acceptable means of compliance (AMC) to
which such means of compliance provides an alternative, where such AMC exists, as well as a
reference to the corresponding implementing rule (IR), indicating, as applicable, the point(s) covered
by the AltMoC.
(a) The competent authority shall without undue delay notify the Agency in case of any significant
problems with the implementation of the relevant provisions of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008
and its implementing rules or of Regulations (EC) No 549/2004, (EC) No 550/2004, (EC)
No 551/2004 and Regulation (EC) No 552/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council1
applicable to service providers.
1 Regulation (EC) No 552/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10 March 2004 on the interoperability of the European
Air Traffic Management network (the interoperability Regulation) (OJ L 96, 31.3.2004, p. 26).
(b) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the
Council1, the competent authority shall provide the Agency with safety-significant information
stemming from the occurrence reports it has received.
1 Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 3 April 2014 on the reporting, analysis and follow-up of
occurrences in civil aviation, amending Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing
Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Regulations (EC) No 1321/2007 and (EC)
No 1330/2007 (OJ L 122, 24.4.2014, p. 18).
(a) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014, the competent authority shall implement a
system to appropriately collect, analyse, and disseminate safety information.
(b) The Agency shall implement a system to appropriately analyse any relevant safety information
received from the competent authorities and without undue delay provide to Member States
and the Commission, as appropriate, any information, including recommendations or corrective
actions to be taken, necessary for them to react in a timely manner to a safety problem involving
the service providers.
(c) Upon receiving the information referred to in points (a) and (b), the competent authority shall
take adequate measures to address the safety problem, including the issuing of safety directives
in accordance with point ATM/ANS.AR.A.030.
(d) Measures taken under point (c) shall immediately be notified to the service providers concerned
to comply with them, in accordance with point ATM/ANS.OR.A.060. The competent authority
shall also notify those measures to the Agency and, when combined action is required, the other
competent authorities concerned.
(a) The competent authority shall issue a safety directive when it has determined the existence of
an unsafe condition in a functional system requiring immediate action.
(b) The safety directive shall be forwarded to the service providers concerned and contain, as a
minimum, the following information:
(1) the identification of the unsafe condition;
(2) the identification of the affected functional system;
(3) the actions required and their rationale;
(4) the time limit for completing the actions required;
(5) its date of entry into force.
(c) The competent authority shall forward a copy of the safety directive to the Agency and any
other competent authorities concerned within one month from its issuance.
(d) The competent authority shall verify the compliance of service providers with the applicable
safety directives.
GENERAL
(a) The safety directive is a document issued by the competent authority, mandating actions to be
performed by one or more service providers, when evidence shows that aviation safety may
otherwise be compromised. Thus, the competent authority is responsible for the determination
of the actions required and their rationale.
(b) The competent authority is required to perform a verification of compliance of the service
providers with the safety directives in accordance with ATM/ANS.AR.A.030(d). In this respect,
ATM/ANS.AR.C.005(a)(6) requires the competent authority to establish a process to verify the
implementation of safety directives by the service providers. The actions that need to be taken
depend on the content of the safety directive and the nature of the unsafe condition.
CONTENT
This Safety Directive is issued in accordance with Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2017/373
[Describe the unsafe condition that is the reason for the issuance
Unsafe condition identified:
of the SD]
(a) The competent authority shall establish and maintain a management system, including, as a
minimum, the following elements:
(1) documented policies and procedures to describe its organisation, means and methods to
achieve compliance with Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its implementing rules as
necessary for the exercise of its certification, oversight and enforcement tasks under this
Regulation. The procedures shall be kept up to date and serve as the basic working
documents within that competent authority for all related tasks;
(2) a sufficient number of personnel, including inspectors, to perform its tasks and discharge
its responsibilities under this Regulation. Such personnel shall be qualified to perform
their allocated tasks and have the necessary knowledge, experience, initial, on-the-job
and recurrent training to ensure continuing competence. A system shall be in place to
plan the availability of personnel, in order to ensure the proper completion of all related
tasks;
(3) adequate facilities and office accommodation to perform those allocated tasks;
(4) a process to monitor compliance of the management system with the relevant
requirements and adequacy of the procedures, including the establishment of an internal
audit process and a safety risk management process. Compliance monitoring shall include
a feedback system of audit findings to the senior management of the competent
authority to ensure implementation of corrective actions as necessary;
(5) a person or group of persons ultimately responsible to the senior management of the
competent authority for the compliance monitoring function.
(b) The competent authority shall, for each field of activity included in the management system,
appoint one or more persons with the overall responsibility for the management of the relevant
task(s).
(c) The competent authority shall establish procedures for participation in a mutual exchange of
all necessary information and assistance with other competent authorities concerned, including
exchange of all findings raised and follow-up actions taken as a result of certification and
oversight of service providers exercising activities in the territory of a Member State, but
certified by the competent authority of another Member State or the Agency.
(d) A copy of the procedures related to the management system and their amendments shall be
made available to the Agency for the purpose of standardisation.
QUALIFIED PERSONNEL
The competent authority should:
(a) define and document the education, training, technical and operational knowledge, experience
and qualifications relevant to the duties of each position involved in oversight activities within
their structure;
(b) ensure specific training for those involved in oversight activities within their structure; and
(c) ensure that personnel designated to conduct safety regulatory audits, including auditing
personnel from qualified entities, meet specific qualification criteria defined by the competent
authority. The criteria should address:
(1) the knowledge and understanding of the requirements related to the services provision
in ATM/ANS and other ATM network functions against which safety regulatory audits
may be performed;
(2) the use of assessment techniques;
(3) the skills required for managing an audit; and
(4) the demonstration of competence of auditors through evaluation or other acceptable
means.
1 Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and the Council of 20 February 2008 on common rules in the
field of civil aviation and establishing a European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC,
Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 and Directive 2004/36/EC (OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1).
2 Regulation (EC) No 549/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10 March 2004 laying down the
framework for the creation of the single European sky (the framework Regulation) - Statement by the Member States on
military issues related to the single European sky (OJ L 96, 31.3.2004, p. 1).
3 Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10 March 2004 on the provision of air
navigation services in the single European sky (the service provision Regulation) (OJ L 96, 31.3.2004, p. 10).
4 Regulation (EC) No 551/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10 March 2004 on the organisation and
use of the airspace in the single European sky (the airspace Regulation) - Commission statement (OJ L 96, 31.3.2004,
p. 20).
5 Regulation (EC) No 552/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10 March 2004 on the interoperability of
the European Air Traffic Management network (the interoperability Regulation) (OJ L 96, 31.3.2004, p. 26).
(b) The training programme and the training plan should be updated, as needed, to reflect at least
changes in aviation legislation and industry. The training programme should also cover specific
needs of the personnel and the competent authority.
(c) The competent authority should ensure that its personnel, including its inspectors for the
oversight of services provision in ATM/ANS and other ATM network functions, undergo
recurrent training at regular intervals as defined by the competent authority or whenever
deemed necessary in order to keep being up to date.
SUFFICIENT PERSONNEL
(a) This guidance material for the determination of the required personnel is limited to the
performance of certification and oversight tasks, excluding personnel required to perform tasks
subject to any national regulatory requirements.
(b) The elements to be considered when determining required personnel and planning their
availability may be divided into quantitative and qualitative:
(1) Quantitative elements:
(i) number of initial certificates to be issued;
(ii) number of service providers certified by the competent authority; and
(iii) number of flight information services providers having declared their activity to the
competent authority.
(2) Qualitative elements:
(i) size, nature, and complexity of activities of service providers (cf. AMC1
ATM/ANS.OR.B.005(e));
(ii) results of past oversight activities, including audits, inspections and reviews, in
terms of risks and regulatory compliance:
(A) number and level of findings; and
(B) implementation of corrective actions; and
(iii) size of the Member State’s aviation industry and potential growth of activities in
the field of civil aviation, which may be an indication of the number of new
applications and changes to existing certificates to be expected.
(c) Based on existing data from previous oversight planning cycles and taking into account the
situation within the Member State’s aviation industry, the competent authority may estimate:
(1) the standard working time required for processing applications for new certificates;
(2) the standard working time required for processing declarations;
(3) the number of new declarations or changed declarations;
(4) the number of new certificates to be issued for each planning period; and
(5) the number of changes to existing certificates and changes to functional systems to be
processed for each planning period.
(d) In line with the competent authority’s oversight policy, the following planning data should be
determined specifically for each service provider, certified or declared, as well as for the
Network Manager:
(1) standard number of audits/inspections to be performed per oversight planning cycle;
(2) standard duration of each audit/inspection;
(3) standard working time for audit/inspection preparation, on-site audit/inspection,
reporting and follow-up per inspector for the oversight of services provision and other
ATM network functions; and
(4) minimum number and required qualification of inspectors for the oversight of services
provision and other ATM network functions for each audit/inspection.
(e) Standard working time could be expressed either in working hours or in working days per
inspector for the oversight of services provision and other ATM network functions. All planning
calculations should then be based on the same unit (hours or working days).
(f) For each service provider, the number of working hours/days per planning period for each
qualified inspector for the oversight of services provision and other ATM network functions that
may be allocated for certification, oversight and enforcement activities should be determined
taking into account:
(1) purely administrative tasks not directly related to oversight and certification;
(2) training;
(3) participation in other projects;
(4) planned absence; and
(5) the need to include a reserve for unplanned tasks or unforeseeable events.
(g) The determination of working time available for certification, oversight and enforcement
activities should also take into account the possible use of third parties.
(a) The competent authority may allocate its tasks related to the certification or oversight of service
providers under this Regulation, other than the issuance of certificates themselves, to qualified
entities. When allocating such tasks, the competent authority shall ensure that it has:
(1) a system in place to initially and continuously assess that the qualified entity complies
with Annex V to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. This system and the results of the
assessments shall be documented; and
(2) established a documented agreement with the qualified entity, approved by both parties
at the appropriate management level, which clearly defines:
(i) the tasks to be performed;
(ii) the declarations, reports and records to be provided;
(iii) the technical conditions to be met when performing such tasks;
(iv) the related liability coverage;
(v) the protection given to information acquired when carrying out such tasks.
(b) The competent authority shall ensure that the internal audit process and the safety risk
management process required by point ATM/ANS.AR.B.001(a)(4) cover all tasks performed on
its behalf by the qualified entity.
CERTIFICATION TASKS
The tasks that may be performed by a qualified entity on behalf of the competent authority include
those related to the initial certification and continuing oversight of service providers as defined in this
Regulation, with the exclusion of the issuance of a certificate.
(a) The competent authority shall have a system in place to identify changes that affect its
capability to perform its tasks and discharge its responsibilities under this Regulation. This
system shall enable it to take action, as appropriate, to ensure that the management system
remains adequate and effective.
(b) The competent authority shall update its management system to reflect any change to this
Regulation in a timely manner, so as to ensure effective implementation.
(c) The competent authority shall notify the Agency of significant changes affecting its capability to
perform its tasks and discharge its responsibilities under this Regulation.
ATM/ANS.AR.B.015 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
(a) The competent authority shall establish a system of record-keeping providing for adequate
storage, accessibility, and reliable traceability of:
(1) the management system's documented policies and procedures;
(2) training, qualification, and authorisation of personnel as required by point
ATM/ANS.AR.B.001(a)(2);
(3) the allocation of tasks, covering the elements required by point ATM/ANS.AR.B.005, as
well as the details of tasks allocated;
(4) certification and/or declaration processes;
(5) designations of air traffic services and meteorological services providers, as appropriate;
(6) certification and oversight of service providers exercising activities within the territory of
the Member State, but certified by the competent authority of another Member State or
the Agency, as agreed between those authorities;
(7) the evaluation and notification to the Agency of AltMOC proposed by service providers
and the assessment of AltMOC used by the competent authority itself;
(8) compliance of service providers with the applicable requirements of this Regulation after
the issuance of the certificate or, where relevant, submission of a declaration, including
the reports of all audits, covering findings, corrective actions, and date of action closure,
and observations as well as other safety-related records;
(9) enforcement measures taken;
(10) safety information, safety directives and follow-up measures;
(11) the use of flexibility provisions in accordance with Article 14 of Regulation (EC)
No 216/2008.
(b) The competent authority shall maintain a list of all service provider certificates issued and
declarations received.
(c) All records shall be kept for a minimum period of 5 years after the certificate ceases to be valid
or the declaration is withdrawn, subject to the applicable data protection law.
(a) The competent authorities shall regularly monitor and assess the safety performance of the
service providers under their oversight.
(b) The competent authorities shall use the results of the monitoring of safety performance in
particular within their risk-based oversight.
(a) Within the framework of point ATM/ANS.AR.B.001(a)(1), the competent authority shall
establish a process in order to verify:
(1) service providers' compliance with the applicable requirements set out in Annexes III to
XIII, and any applicable conditions attached to the certificate before the issue of that
certificate. The certificate shall be issued in accordance with Appendix 1 to this Annex;
(2) compliance with any safety-related obligations in the designation act issued in
accordance with Article 8 of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004;
(3) continued compliance with the applicable requirements of the service providers under
its oversight;
(4) implementation of safety objectives, safety requirements and other safety-related
conditions identified in declarations of verification of systems, including any relevant
declaration of conformity or suitability for use of constituents of systems issued in
accordance with Regulation (EC) No 552/2004;
(5) the implementation of safety directives, corrective actions and enforcement measures.
(b) The process referred to in point (a) shall:
(1) be based on documented procedures;
(2) be supported by documentation specifically intended to provide its personnel with
guidance to perform their tasks related to certification, oversight and enforcement;
(3) provide the organisation concerned with an indication of the results of the certification,
oversight and enforcement activity;
(4) be based on audits, reviews and inspections conducted by the competent authority;
(5) with regard to certified service providers, provide the competent authority with the
evidence needed to support further action, including measures referred to in Article 9 of
Regulation (EC) No 549/2004, Article 7(7) of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004, and by Articles
10, 25, and 68 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 in situations where requirements are not
complied with;
(6) with regard to service providers making declarations, provide the competent authority
with the evidence to take, if appropriate, remedial action which may include enforcement
actions, including, where appropriate, under national law.
ATM/ANS.AR.C.010 Oversight
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
(a) The competent authority, or qualified entities acting on its behalf, shall conduct audits, in
accordance with Article 5.
(b) The audits referred to in point (a) shall:
(1) provide the competent authority with evidence of compliance with the applicable
requirements and with the implementing arrangements;
(2) be independent of any internal auditing activities undertaken by the service provider;
(3) cover complete implementing arrangements or elements thereof, and processes or
services;
(4) determine whether:
(i) the implementing arrangements comply with the applicable requirements;
(ii) the actions taken comply with the implementing arrangements and the applicable
requirements;
(iii) the results of actions taken match the results expected from the implementing
arrangements.
(c) The competent authority shall, on the basis of the evidence at its disposal, monitor the
continuous compliance with the applicable requirements of this Regulation of the service
providers under its oversight.
AUDITS
The audits should include oversight of changes to the functional system in order to:
(a) verify that changes made to the functional system:
(1) comply with ATM/ANS.OR.A.045;
(2) have been managed in accordance with the procedures identified in
ATM/ANS.OR.B.010(a) that have been approved; and
(3) are being verified against the monitoring criteria that were identified in the assurance
argument as a result of complying with ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(b)(2) or ATS.OR.205(b)(6), as
appropriate; and
(b) verify that if, as a result of the monitoring referred to in (a)(3), the argument, referred to in
ATS.OR.205(a)(2) and ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(a)(2), is found to be incomplete and/or incorrect,
then the service provider has initiated a change or has revised the argument such that the
inferences or evidence are now sufficient to justify the claim.
IMPLEMENTING ARRANGEMENTS
Implementing arrangements should be considered to be the service provider’s (safety) management
system(s) documentation, manuals, service provision conditions or the certificate and the content of
the declaration, as applicable.
(a) The competent authority shall establish and update annually an oversight programme taking
into account the specific nature of the service providers, the complexity of their activities, the
results of past certification and/or oversight activities and shall be based on the assessment of
associated risks. It shall include audits, which shall:
(1) cover all the areas of potential safety concern, with a focus on those areas where
problems have been identified;
(2) cover all the service providers under the supervision of the competent authority;
(3) cover the means implemented by the service provider to ensure the competency of
personnel;
(4) ensure that audits are conducted in a manner commensurate with the level of the risk
posed by the service provider operations and services provided; and
(5) ensure that for service providers under its supervision, an oversight planning cycle not
exceeding 24 months is applied.
The oversight planning cycle may be reduced if there is evidence that the safety
performance of the service provider has decreased.
For a service provider certified by the competent authority, the oversight planning cycle
may be extended to a maximum of 36 months if the competent authority has established
that, during the previous 24 months:
(i) the service provider has demonstrated an effective identification of aviation safety
hazards and management of associated risks;
(ii) the service provider has continuously demonstrated compliance with the change
management requirements under points ATM/ANS.OR.A.040 and
ATM/ANS.OR.A.045;
(iii) no level 1 findings have been issued;
(iv) all corrective actions have been implemented within the time period accepted or
extended by the competent authority as defined in point ATM/ANS.AR.C.050.
If, in addition to the above, the service provider has established an effective continuous
reporting system to the competent authority on the safety performance and regulatory
compliance of the service provider, which has been approved by the competent
authority, the oversight planning cycle may be extended to a maximum of 48 months;
(6) ensure follow-up of the implementation of corrective actions;
(7) be subject to consultation with the service providers concerned and notification
thereafter;
(8) indicate the envisaged interval of the inspections of the different sites, if any.
(b) The competent authority may decide to modify the objectives and the scope of pre-planned
audits, including documentary reviews and additional audits, wherever that need arises.
(c) The competent authority shall decide which arrangements, elements, services, functions,
physical locations, and activities are to be audited within a specified time frame.
(d) Audit observations and findings issued in accordance with point ATM/ANS.AR.C.050 shall be
documented. The latter shall be supported by evidence, and identified in terms of the applicable
requirements and their implementing arrangements against which the audit has been
conducted.
(e) An audit report, including the details of the findings and observations, shall be drawn up and
communicated to the service provider concerned.
GENERAL
(a) When establishing an oversight programme appropriate to each provider, the competent
authority should take into account the safety performance of the service provider to be audited.
Inspectors for the oversight of services provision and other ATM network functions should work
in accordance with the schedule provided to them.
(b) Having regard to the performance of service providers, the competent authority may vary the
frequency of the audits or inspections.
(c) When defining the oversight programme, the competent authority should assess the risks
related to the activity of each service provider, certified or declared, or the Network Manager,
and adapt the audits and inspections to the level of risk identified.
(a) Following the process laid down in point ATM/ANS.AR.C.005(a), upon receiving an application
for the issuance of a certificate to a service provider, the competent authority shall verify the
service provider's compliance with the applicable requirements of this Regulation.
(b) The competent authority may require any audits, inspections or assessments it finds necessary
before issuing the certificate.
(c) The certificate shall be issued for an unlimited duration. The privileges of the activities that the
service provider is approved to conduct shall be specified in the service provision conditions
attached to the certificate.
(d) The certificate shall not be issued where a level 1 finding remains open. In exceptional
circumstances, finding(s), other than level 1, shall be assessed and mitigated as necessary by
the service provider and a corrective action plan for closing the finding(s) shall be approved by
the competent authority prior to the certificate being issued.
(2) mode S.
(e) Limitations for the provision of data from automatic dependant surveillance (ADS) could be:
(1) ADS-C; and
(2) ADS-B.
ATM/ANS.AR.C.025 Changes
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
(a) Upon receiving a notification for a change in accordance with point ATM/ANS.OR.A.045, the
competent authority shall comply with points ATM/ANS.AR.C.030, ATM/ANS.AR.C.035 and
ATM/ANS.AR.C.040.
(b) Upon receiving a notification for a change in accordance with point ATM/ANS.OR.A.040(a)(2)
that requires prior approval, the competent authority shall:
(1) verify the service provider's compliance with the applicable requirements before issuing
the change approval;
(2) take immediate appropriate action, without prejudice to any additional enforcement
measures, when the service provider implements changes requiring prior approval
without having received competent authority approval referred to in point (1).
(c) To enable a service provider to implement changes to its management system and/or safety
management system, as applicable, without prior approval in accordance with point
ATM/ANS.OR.A.040(b), the competent authority shall approve a procedure defining the scope
of such changes and describing how such changes will be notified and managed. In the
continuous oversight process, the competent authority shall assess the information provided in
the notification to verify whether the actions taken comply with the approved procedures and
applicable requirements. In case of any non-compliance, the competent authority shall:
(1) notify the service provider of the non-compliance and request further changes;
(2) in case of level 1 and level 2 findings, act in accordance with point ATM/ANS.AR.C.050.
(c) The competent authority should, in due time, verify the compliance of the service provider and,
depending on the change, examine the need for prescribing any condition for the operation of
it during the change.
(d) For changes requiring prior approval, the competent authority may conduct an audit of the
service provider in order to verify the service provider’s compliance with the applicable
requirements.
(e) When notifying, the competent authority should also inform the service provider of the right of
appeal, as exists under the applicable national legislation.
APPROPRIATE ACTION
Appropriate action by the competent authority may include suspension, limitation or revocation of
the service provider’s certificate.
GENERAL
The review by the competent authority is focused on the change management procedures and not on
the project management part of these procedures that are not required by the regulations, even
though they may be useful for the smooth execution of the project dealing with the change.
Consequently, not all parts of a procedure may be approved by the competent authority. The
approved parts should be identified in the record (see AMC1 ATM/ANS.AR.B.015(a)(8)) and
communicated to the service provider.
APPROVAL OF PROCEDURES
(a) When approving the change management procedures for functional systems as per
ATM/ANS.OR.B.010, the competent authority should perform the following:
(1) check that the procedures used by a service provider to manage changes cover the life
cycle of a change as defined in ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(a)(1) or ATS.OR.205(a)(1);
(2) use the compliance matrix provided by the service provider (referred to in
AMC1 ATM/ANS.OR.B.010(a)), when reviewing the content of the procedures,
modifications and/or deviations referred to in ATM/ANS.AR.C.030(a); as part of the
oversight activity, the competent authority should check that the compliance matrix
covers all the aforementioned requirements.
(3) check that the procedures make mandatory provisions that require actions to be
undertaken and all required evidence to be produced to comply with requirements laid
down in ATM/ANS.OR.A.045, ATM/ANS.OR.C.005, ATS.OR.205 and ATS.OR.210;
(4) check that the procedures identify the roles and responsibilities of the service provider
in the change management processes;
(5) check that the procedures state that it is not allowed to use new, modified or deviating
change management procedures until approval is granted; and
(6) check that the procedures state that any change selected for review must not enter into
operational service before the approval is granted.
(b) The competent authority should provide a response to the service provider’s notification of
change referred to in ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(a) without undue delay.
DEVIATIONS
Some changes might stem from the need to implement immediate action and, therefore, their
implementation cannot be delayed until they receive approval or communication that the change is
not being reviewed from the competent authority such as changes due to urgent unforeseen
circumstances that would, if uncorrected, lead to an immediate unsafe condition, presence of volcanic
ash, etc.
The competent authority may consider this type of changes as part of the approval of change
management procedures for functional systems.
(d) The competent authority shall inform the service provider of its decision to review a notified
change to a functional system and provide the associated rationale to the service provider upon
request.
Increasing
Review
Don’t
Review
Increasing probability
(of an uncomplete and/or incorrect safety (support) argument being developed)
Increasing
(of the consequences of a change)
Risk
Increasing severity
Review
Don’t
Review
Increasing probability
(of an uncomplete and/or incorrect safety (support) argument being developed)
(a) When the competent authority reviews the argument for a notified change, it shall:
(1) assess the validity of the argument presented with respect to point
ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(a)(2) or ATS.OR.205(a)(2);
(2) coordinate its activities with other competent authorities whenever necessary.
(b) The competent authority shall, alternatively:
(1) approve the argument referred to in point (a)(1), with conditions where applicable, when
it is shown to be valid and so inform the service provider,
(2) reject the argument referred to in point (a)(1) and inform the service provider together
with a supporting rationale.
(a) Upon receiving a declaration from a provider of flight information services intending to provide
such services, the competent authority shall verify that the declaration contains all the
information required by point ATM/ANS.OR.A.015 and shall acknowledge receipt of the
declaration to that service provider.
(b) If the declaration does not contain the required information, or contains information that
indicates non-compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent authority shall
notify the provider of flight information services concerned about the non-compliance and
request further information. If necessary, the competent authority shall carry out an audit of
the provider of flight information services. If the non-compliance is confirmed, the competent
authority shall take action provided for in point ATM/ANS.AR.C.050.
(c) The competent authority shall keep a register of the declarations of providers of flight
information services which were made to it in accordance with this Regulation.
(a) The competent authority shall have a system to analyse findings for their safety significance and
decide on enforcement measures on the basis of the safety risk posed by the service provider's
non-compliance.
(b) In circumstances where no or very low additional safety risk would be present with immediate
appropriate mitigation measures, the competent authority may accept the provision of services
to ensure continuity of service whilst corrective actions are being taken.
(c) A level 1 finding shall be issued by the competent authority when any serious non-compliance
is detected with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
implementing rules as well as Regulations (EC) No 549/2004, (EC) No 550/2004, (EC)
No 551/2004, and (EC) No 552/2004 and their implementing rules, with the service provider's
procedures and manuals, with the terms of conditions of certificate or certificate, with the
designation act, if applicable, or with the content of a declaration which poses a significant risk
to flight safety or otherwise calls into question the service provider's capability to continue
operations.
Level 1 findings shall include but not be limited to:
(1) promulgating operational procedures and/or providing a service in a way which
introduces a significant risk to flight safety;
(2) obtaining or maintaining the validity of the service provider's certificate by falsification
of submitted documentary evidence;
(3) evidence of malpractice or fraudulent use of the service provider's certificate;
(4) the lack of an accountable manager.
(d) A level 2 finding shall be issued by the competent authority when any other non-compliance is
detected with the applicable requirements of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and its
implementing rules as well as Regulations (EC) No 549/2004, (EC) No 550/2004, (EC)
No 551/2004, and (EC) No 552/2004 and their implementing rules, with the service provider's
procedures and manuals or with the terms of conditions or certificate, or with the content of a
declaration.
(e) When a finding is detected, during oversight or by any other means, the competent authority
shall, without prejudice to any additional action required by Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and
this Regulation, as well as Regulations (EC) No 549/2004, (EC) No 550/2004, (EC) No 551/2004
and (EC) No 552/2004 and their implementing rules, communicate the finding to the service
provider in writing and require corrective action to address the non-compliance(s) identified.
(1) In the case of level 1 findings, the competent authority shall take immediate and
appropriate action, and may, if appropriate, limit, suspend or revoke in whole or in part
the certificate while ensuring the continuity of services provided that safety is not
compromised, and in the case of the Network Manager, it shall inform the Commission.
The measure taken shall depend upon the extent of the finding and shall remain until
successful corrective action has been taken by the service provider.
(2) In the case of level 2 findings, the competent authority shall:
(i) grant the service provider a corrective action implementation period included in
an action plan appropriate to the nature of the finding;
(ii) assess the corrective action and implementation plan proposed by the service
provider and, if the assessment concludes that they are sufficient to address the
non-compliance(s), accept them.
(3) In the case of level 2 findings, where the service provider fails to submit a corrective
action plan that is acceptable to the competent authority in light of the finding, or where
the service provider fails to perform the corrective action within the time period accepted
or extended by the competent authority, the finding may be raised to a level 1 finding,
and action taken as laid down in point (1).
(f) For those cases not requiring level 1 and 2 findings, the competent authority may issue
observations.
OBSERVATIONS
The observation should be a way to communicate and draw future audit teams’ attention on specific
matters that deserve scrutiny. It should be communicated to the audited service provider.
APPENDICES TO ANNEX II
EUROPEAN UNION
COMPETENT AUTHORITY
Pursuant to Implementing Regulation (EU) 2017/373 and subject to the conditions specified below, the
[competent authority] hereby certifies
as a service provider with the privileges, as listed in the attached service provision conditions.
CONDITIONS:
This certificate is issued subject to the conditions and the scope of providing services and functions as listed
in the attached service provision conditions.
This certificate is valid whilst the certified service provider remains in compliance with Implementing
Regulation (EU) 2017/373 and the other applicable regulations and, when relevant, with the procedures in
the service provider's documentation.
Subject to compliance with the foregoing conditions, this certificate shall remain valid unless the certificate
has been surrendered, limited, suspended or revoked.
Date of issue:
Signed:
[Competent authority]
SERVICE PROVIDER
CERTIFICATE
Date of issue:
ATM/ANS.OR.A.001 Scope
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
In accordance with Article 6, this Annex establishes the requirements to be met by the service
providers.
1 Commission Regulation (EU) No 677/2011 of 7 July 2011 laying down detailed rules for the implementation of air traffic management
(ATM) network functions and amending Commission Regulation (EU) No 691/2010 (OJ L 185, 15.7.2011, p. 1).
ANS
air navigation services
CNS
air traffic management communication service
ATS
navigation service
air traffic services
ATC surveillance service
air traffic control service
- area control service
- approach control service
- aerodrome control service MET
meteorological service
air traffic advisory service
ASM DAT
airspace management data services
ATFM ASD
air traffic flow management airspace design services
ATM ATM
network
func.
Services/ ATM network functions
Functions
Figure 1: The scope of the services as specified in Annex Vb to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 and, additionally, the other
ATM network functions.
SERVICES
(a) Annex III (Part-ATM/ANS.OR) applies to the service providers, as relevant, and contains the
common requirements for the service providers. This Annex is broken down into four subparts:
(1) Subpart A — General requirements (ATM/ANS.OR.A);
(2) Subpart B — Management (ATM/ANS.OR.B);
(3) Subpart C — Specific organisational requirements for service providers other than ATS
providers (ATM/ANS.OR.C); and
(4) Subpart D — Specific organisational requirements for ANS and ATFM providers and the
Network Manager (ATM/ANS.OR.D).
(b) Subpart D applies only to ANS and ATFM providers and the Network Manager (and not to ASM
and DAT providers).
(c) Thereafter, each specific requirement for various service providers is allocated to an annex
(Annexes IV to XII) which contains specific requirements for that service provider. Table 1 below
indicates which annexes are applicable to each service provided.
(d) Annex XIII contains requirements for service providers regarding personnel training and
competence assessment.
ED Decision 2017/001/R
Annex III
Annex Annex Annex Annex Annex Annex Annex Annex Annex Annex
(Part-ATM/ANS.OR)
IV V VI VII VIII IX X XI XII XIII
(Part- (Part- (Part- (Part- (Part- (Part- (Part- (Part- (Part- (Part-
Subpart Subpart Subpart Subpart
ATS) MET) AIS) DAT) CNS) ATFM) ASM) ASD) NM) PERS)
A B C D
Air traffic services
X X X X
(see Note 1)
Meteorological
X X X X X
services
Aeronautical
X X X X X
information services
Data services X X X X
Communication,
navigation and X X X X X
surveillance service
Air traffic flow
X X X X X
management service
Airspace management
X X X X
service
Airspace design service X X X tbd*
Network Manager X X X X X
service providers
X
(see Note 2)
Table 1: Applicability of annexes to service providers
X = Applicable annexes for each service provider.
Note 1: Section 3 of Annex IV (Part-ATS) only applies to providers of air traffic control services and not to providers of alerting, air traffic advisory, and flight information services.
Note 2: The applicability of Annex XIII is dependent upon the scope as specified within each of the subparts of Annex XIII.
* to be introduced under RMT.0445, as necessary.
(a) Application for a service provider certificate or an amendment to an existing certificate shall be
made in a form and manner established by the competent authority, taking into account the
applicable requirements of this Regulation.
(b) In accordance with Article 6, in order to obtain the certificate, the service provider shall comply
with:
(1) the requirements referred to in Article 8b(1) of Regulation (EU) No 216/2008;
(2) the common requirements set out in this Annex;
(3) the specific requirements set out in Annexes IV to XIII, where those requirements are
applicable in light of the services that the service provider provides or plans to provide.
(a) Notwithstanding point (b), the air traffic services provider may apply for a certificate limited to
the provision of services in the airspace under the responsibility of the Member State where its
principal place of operation or, if any, registered office is located, when it provides or plans to
provide services only with respect to one or more of the following categories:
(1) aerial work;
(2) general aviation;
(3) commercial air transport limited to aircraft with less than 10 tonnes of maximum take-
off mass or less than 20 passenger seats;
(4) commercial air transport with less than 10 000 movements per year, regardless of the
maximum take-off mass and the number of passenger seats; for the purposes of this
provision, ‘movements’ means, in a given year, the average over the previous three years
of the total number of take-offs and landings.
(b) In addition, the following air navigation service providers may also apply for a limited certificate:
(1) an air navigation service provider, other than a provider of air traffic services, with a gross
annual turnover of EUR 1 000 000 or less in relation to the services they provide or plan
to provide;
(2) an air navigation service provider providing aerodrome flight information services by
operating regularly not more than one working position at any aerodrome.
(c) As determined by the competent authority, an air navigation service provider applying for a
limited certificate in accordance with points (a) or (b)(1) shall comply, as a minimum, with the
following requirements set out in:
(1) point ATM/ANS.OR.B.001 Technical and operational competence and capability;
(2) point ATM/ANS.OR.B.005 Management system;
(3) point ATM/ANS.OR.B.020 Personnel requirements;
(4) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.075 Open and transparent provision of services;
(5) Annexes IV, V, VI and VIII, where those requirements are applicable in light of the services
that the service provider provides or plans to provide, in accordance with Article 6.
(d) As determined by the competent authority, the air navigation service provider applying for a
limited certificate in accordance with point (b)(2) shall comply, as a minimum, with the
requirements set out in points (c)(1) to (c)(4) and with the specific requirements set out in
Annex IV.
(e) An applicant for a limited certificate shall submit an application to the competent authority in
a form and manner established by the competent authority.
GENERAL
The relationship between the type of service provision, criteria to be complied with and the applicable
rules are indicated in Table 2 below.
Type of service Type of approval Criteria to be Applicable Rules
complied with
Air traffic service Limited Certificate ATM/ANS.OR.A.010(a) ATM/ANS.OR.B.001
providers ATM/ANS.OR.B.005
ATM/ANS.OR.B.020
ATM/ANS.OR.A.075
Annex IV
Air navigation service Limited Certificate ATM/ANS.OR.A.010(b)(1) ATM/ANS.OR.B.001
providers ATM/ANS.OR.B.005
(other than the air traffic ATM/ANS.OR.B.020
services providers) ATM/ANS.OR.A.075
(gross annual turnover Annexes V, VI and VIII
of EUR 1 000 000 or less) depending upon service
provision
Air navigation service Limited Certificate ATM/ANS.OR.A.010(b)(2) ATM/ANS.OR.B.001
providers ATM/ANS.OR.B.005
(aerodrome flight ATM/ANS.OR.B.020
information services ATM/ANS.OR.A.075
providers operating Annex IV
regularly not more than
one working position at
any aerodrome)
Table 2: Type of service provision, criteria to be complied with, and the applicable rules
(a) Pursuant to Article 7, a flight information services provider may declare its capability and means
of discharging the responsibilities associated with the services provided where it meets, in
addition to the requirements referred to in Article 8b(1) of Regulation (EU) No 216/2008, the
following alternative requirements:
(1) the flight information services provider provides, or plans to provide, its services by
operating regularly not more than one working position;
(2) those services are of a temporary nature, for a duration agreed with the competent
authority as necessary to ensure proportional safety assurance.
(b) A flight information services provider declaring its activities shall:
(1) provide the competent authority with all the relevant information prior to commencing
operations, in a form and manner established by the competent authority;
(2) provide the competent authority with a list of the alternative means of compliance used,
in accordance with point ATM/ANS.OR.A.020;
(3) maintain compliance with the applicable requirements and with the information given in
the declaration;
(4) notify the competent authority of any changes to its declaration or the means of
compliance it uses through submission of an amended declaration;
(5) provide its services in accordance with its operations manual and comply with all the
relevant provisions contained therein.
(c) Before ceasing the provision of its services, the flight information services provider declaring its
activities shall notify the competent authority within a period determined by the competent
authority.
(d) A flight information services provider declaring its activities shall comply with the following
requirements set out in:
(1) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.001 Scope;
(2) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.020 Means of compliance;
(3) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.035 Demonstration of compliance;
(4) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.040 Changes — general;
(5) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.045 Changes to the functional system;
(6) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.050 Facilitation and cooperation;
(7) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.055 Findings and corrective actions;
(8) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.060 Immediate reaction to a safety problem;
(9) point ATM/ANS.OR.A.065 Occurrence reporting;
(10) point ATM/ANS.OR.B.001 Technical and operational competence and capability;
(11) point ATM/ANS.OR.B.005 Management system;
(12) point ATM/ANS.OR.B.020 Personnel requirements;
(13) point ATM/ANS.OR.B.035 Operations manuals;
(14) point ATM/ANS.OR.D.020 Liability and insurance cover,
(15) Annex IV.
(e) A flight information services provider declaring its activities shall only start operation after
receiving the acknowledgement of receipt of the declaration from the competent authority.
(a) Alternative means of compliance (AltMOC) to the AMC adopted by the Agency may be used by
the service provider to establish compliance with the requirements of this Regulation.
(b) When the service provider wishes to use an AltMOC, it shall, prior to implementing it, provide
the competent authority with a full description of the AltMOC. The description shall include any
revisions to manuals or procedures that may be relevant, as well as an assessment
demonstrating compliance with the requirements of this Regulation.
A service provider may implement these alternative means of compliance subject to prior
approval by the competent authority and upon receipt of the notification as prescribed in point
ATM/ANS.AR.A.015(d).
A declaration made by the flight information services provider in accordance with point
ATM/ANS.OR.A.015 shall remain valid subject to:
(a) the flight information services remaining in compliance with the applicable requirements of this
Regulation, including those concerning facilitating and cooperating for the purposes of the
exercise of the powers of the competent authorities and those concerning the handling of
findings as specified in point ATM/ANS.OR.A.050 and ATM/ANS.OR.A.055 respectively;
(b) the declaration not having been withdrawn by the provider of such services or deregistered by
the competent authority.
A service provider shall provide all the relevant evidence to demonstrate compliance with the
applicable requirements of this Regulation at the request of the competent authority.
(b) Changes should only be implemented upon receipt of approval by the competent authority in
accordance with the procedure established by that authority.
(c) The service provider should operate under the conditions prescribed by the competent
authority during such changes, as applicable.
(e) When a change affects other service providers and/or aviation undertakings, as identified in
point (a)(3), the service provider and these other service providers, in coordination, shall
determine:
(1) the dependencies with each other and, where feasible, with the affected aviation
undertakings;
(2) the assumptions and risk mitigations that relate to more than one service provider or
aviation undertaking.
(f) Those service providers affected by the assumptions and risk mitigations referred to in point
(e)(2) shall only use, in their argument for the change, agreed and aligned assumptions and risk
mitigations with each other and, where feasible, with aviation undertakings.
NOTIFICATION
The notification of a change should not be considered complete until the following information is
provided:
(a) Name of the organisation notifying the change;
(b) Unique identifier of change;
(c) Version number of notification;
(d) Title of the change;
(e) Date of the submission of the original of this change notification;
(f) Scheduled date of entry into service (even if only approximate);
(g) Details of the change and its impact;
(h) The list of the service providers and other aviation undertakings that are affected by the change
as identified in ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(a)(3);
(i) Entity in charge of the assurance case; and
(j) Identity of a point of contact for communications with the competent authority.
NOTIFICATION
(a) A change should be notified as soon as the data defined in AMC1 ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(a) is
available. The decision to review a change by the competent authority will be based, in most
circumstances, on the notification data. Exceptions to this are cases where the competent
authority is not familiar with the type of change or the complexity of the change requires a more
thorough consideration.
(b) Early and accurate notification facilitates the interactions between the provider and the
competent authority and, thus, maximises the likelihood of introducing a change into service in
due time and according to the service provider’s initial schedule when the competent authority
has decided to review an assurance case. Therefore, it is advisable that the change description
(h) All notified changes should be unambiguously identified. The service provider and its competent
authority should agree on a means of referencing so as to associate a unique identifier to a
given notified change.
(i) For routine changes, the notification to the competent authority may be done in a simpler
manner, e.g. using forms less detailed than those specified in AMC1 ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(a) or
notifying these changes collectively after being implemented at regular periods of times agreed
between the provider and the competent authority. A service provider and its competent
authority should coordinate so as to reach a common agreement on these types of changes that
may not be reviewed by the competent authority. The list of such changes should be
documented and formalised. The formalised agreement becomes part of the change
management procedures identified in ATM/ANS.OR.B.010. Consequently, the list will be
reviewed by the competent authority as part of the audits it performs that are described in
ATM/ANS.AR.C.010(a). The relevant audit activity is detailed in
AMC1 ATM/ANS.AR.C.010(a)(a)(2).
authority, and inform other service providers and aviation undertakings that were initially
informed about the change.
safety argument, coherent with the arguments of the individual changes, that claims the complete
change is safe should be provided.
CHANGE AFFECTING MULTIPLE SERVICE PROVIDERS AND AVIATION UNDERTAKINGS — ASSUMPTIONS AND
RISK MITIGATIONS
In order to satisfy ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(e)(2), the affected service providers coordination will identify
those assumptions and risk mitigations that relate to:
(a) more than one service provider;
(b) a service provider and one or more aviation undertakings; or
(c) multiple service providers and aviation undertakings.
LACK OF COORDINATION
(a) If an aviation undertaking decides not to cooperate, the service provider, who has identified
dependencies with the aviation undertaking, in accordance with ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(e)(1),
needs to consider the impact of having the assumptions and risk mitigations not agreed with
that aviation undertaking. It should propose a way forward by doing one or more of the
following:
(1) making the assumptions themselves and providing evidence that supports them;
(2) adding additional mitigating measures so that the change remains acceptably safe;
(3) modifying the scope of the change, or even reconsidering and cancelling the change.
(b) The service provider affected by a lack of cooperation with an aviation undertaking may wish to
inform its competent authority about those aviation undertakings that are not participating and
its form of non-participation, in order to seek the assistance of the competent authority in trying
to persuade the aviation undertaking to participate.
A service provider shall facilitate inspections and audits by the competent authority or by a qualified
entity acting on its behalf and it shall cooperate as necessary for the efficient and effective exercise of
the powers of the competent authorities referred to in Article 5.
After receipt of notification of findings from the competent authority, the service provider shall:
(a) identify the root cause of the non-compliance;
(b) define a corrective action plan that meets the approval by the competent authority;
(c) demonstrate corrective action implementation to the satisfaction of the competent authority
within the time period proposed by the service provider and agreed with that authority, as
defined in point ATM/ANS.AR.C.050(e).
GENERAL
(a) Corrective action is the action taken to eliminate or mitigate the root cause(s) and prevent the
recurrence of existing detected non-compliance or other undesirable condition or situation.
(b) The proper determination of the root cause is crucial for defining effective corrective actions.
GENERAL
The corrective action plan defined by the service provider should address the effects of the non-
conformity and its root cause.
A service provider shall implement any safety measures, including safety directives, mandated by the
competent authority in accordance with point ATM/ANS.AR.A.025(c).
(a) A service provider shall report to the competent authority, and to any other organisation
required by the Member State where the service provider provides its services, any accident,
serious incident and occurrence as defined in Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European
Parliament and of the Council1 and Regulation (EU) No 376/2014.
(b) Without prejudice to point (a), the service provider shall report to the competent authority and
to the organisation responsible for the design of system and constituents, if different from the
service provider, any malfunction, technical defect, exceeding of technical limitations,
occurrence, or other irregular circumstance that has or may have endangered the safety of
services and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident.
(c) Without prejudice to Regulations (EU) No 996/2010 and (EU) No 376/2014, the reports referred
to in points (a) and (b) shall be made in a form and manner established by the competent
authority and contain all the pertinent information about the event known to the service
provider.
(d) Reports shall be made as soon as possible and in any case within 72 hours of the service provider
identifying the details of the event to which the report relates unless exceptional circumstances
prevent this.
(e) Without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014, where relevant, the service provider shall
produce a follow-up report to provide details of actions it intends to take to prevent similar
occurrences in the future, as soon as these actions have been identified. This report shall be
produced in a form and manner established by the competent authority.
REPORTING PROCEDURES
The service provider should establish procedures to be used for reporting to the competent authority
and any other organisation required which include:
(a) description of the applicable requirements for reporting;
(b) description of the reporting mechanism, including reporting forms, means and deadlines;
(c) personnel responsible for reporting; and
(d) description of mechanism and personnel responsibilities for identifying root causes, and the
actions that may be needed to be taken to prevent similar occurrences in the future, as
appropriate.
1 Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 October 2010 on the investigation and prevention of
accidents and incidents in civil aviation and repealing Directive 94/56/EC (OJ L 295, 12.11.2010, p. 35).
GENERAL
The reporting to the organisations defined in the ATM/ANS.OR.A.065 does not affect the need to
report to other organisations with which the service provider interfaces, and which might be involved
in or be affected by the reported event (e.g. other service providers involved in an occurrence,
aerodrome operators, etc.).
GENERAL
(a) The service provider should submit all reportable occurrences as defined in Regulation (EU)
No 2015/10181.
(b) In addition to the reports required by (a), the service provider should report volcanic ash clouds,
encountered by aircraft operators, for which it has become aware of.
1 Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2015/1018 of 29 June 2015 laying down a list classifying occurrences in civil aviation to be
mandatorily reported according to Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 163, 30.6.2015,
p. 1).
A service provider shall have in place contingency plans for all the services it provides in the case of
events which result in significant degradation or interruption of its operations.
GENERAL
The contingency plan may include the definition of the measures, the coordination with other actors
(i.e. the State, the competent authorities, possibly the other service providers, the insurance
companies, aerodrome operators, as applicable) and alternative services needed in case of
degradation or interruption of the services, while the applicability of emergency response planning
may be attributable to or affected by an aviation safety occurrence.
(a) A service provider shall provide its services in an open and transparent manner. It shall publish
the conditions of access to its services and changes thereto and establish a consultation process
with the users of its services on a regular basis or as needed for specific changes in service
provision, either individually or collectively.
(b) A service provider shall not discriminate on grounds of nationality or other characteristic of the
user or the class of users of its services in a manner that is contrary to Union law.
GENERAL — PROVIDERS OF AIR NAVIGATION SERVICES AND AIR TRAFFIC FLOW MANAGEMENT
Providers of air navigation services and air traffic flow management should consult with the users of
their services at least once a year.
A service provider shall ensure that it is able to provide its services in a safe, efficient, continuous and
sustainable manner, consistent with any foreseen level of overall demand for a given airspace. To this
end, it shall maintain adequate technical and operational capacity and expertise.
(a) A service provider shall implement and maintain a management system that includes:
(1) clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout its organisation,
including a direct accountability of the accountable manager;
(2) a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the service provider with regard
to safety, quality, and security of its services, collectively constituting a policy, signed by
the accountable manager;
(3) the means to verify the performance of the service provider's organisation in light of the
performance indicators and performance targets of the management system;
(4) a process to identify changes within the service provider's organisation and the context
in which it operates, which may affect established processes, procedures and services
and, where necessary, change the management system and/or the functional system to
accommodate those changes;
(5) a process to review the management system, identify the causes of substandard
performance of the management system, determine the implications of such
substandard performance, and eliminate or mitigate such causes;
(6) a process to ensure that the personnel of the service provider are trained and competent
to perform their duties in a safe, efficient, continuous and sustainable manner. In this
context, the service provider shall establish policies for the recruitments and training of
its personnel;
(7) a formal means for communication that ensures that all personnel of the service provider
are fully aware of the management system that allows critical information to be conveyed
and that makes it possible to explain why particular actions are taken and why procedures
are introduced or changed.
(b) A service provider shall document all management system key processes, including a process
for making personnel aware of their responsibilities, and the procedure for the amendment of
those processes.
(c) A service provider shall establish a function to monitor compliance of its organisation with the
applicable requirements and the adequacy of the procedures. Compliance monitoring shall
include a feedback system of findings to the accountable manager to ensure effective
implementation of corrective actions as necessary.
(d) A service provider shall monitor the behaviour of its functional system and, where
underperformance is identified, it shall establish its causes and eliminate them or, after having
determined the implication of the underperformance, mitigate its effects.
(e) The management system shall be proportionate to the size of the service provider and the
complexity of its activities, taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in
those activities.
(f) Within its management system, the service provider shall establish formal interfaces with the
relevant service providers and aviation undertakings in order to:
(1) ensure that the aviation safety hazards entailed by its activities are identified and
evaluated, and the associated risks are managed and mitigated as appropriate;
(2) ensure that it provides its services in accordance with the requirements of this
Regulation.
(g) In the case that the service provider holds also an aerodrome operator certificate, it shall ensure
that the management system covers all activities in the scope of its certificates.
RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE TYPE OF SERVICE AND SAFETY MANAGEMENT — QUALITY MANAGEMENT
(a) All service providers are required to establish and maintain a management system. However,
only an air traffic services provider can have managerial control over functions directly affecting
the safety of the flight (e.g. the ATCO to separate aircraft from each other). Hence, the
management system requirements in Annex III, which apply to all service providers, are more
broadly associated with the quality of the service rather than the safety of the service. Annex IV
(Part-ATS) has specific safety management requirements for the provision of air traffic services.
Therefore, only the air traffic services provider (that providing air traffic control, alerting service,
air traffic advisory service or flight information service) is required to have a safety management
system and undertake safety assessment of changes to the functional system.
(b) Service providers other than the air traffic services provider can still affect the safety of the
flight through functions or services they provide, but this will always be influenced by the way
in which the air traffic services provider or airspace user are using those functions or services.
Therefore, service providers other than air traffic services providers have a management system
which manages the performance of service (rather than the safe use of their services for flight
navigation and the control which is beyond the managerial control of the service provider). This
performance of the service refers to such properties of the service provided such as accuracy,
reliability, integrity, availability, timeliness, etc.
(c) It is quite likely that air traffic services providers have contractual arrangements in place with
other service providers, whose services they use, specifying the required performance and
requiring the service provider to inform, in a timely manner, the air traffic services provider of
any impact on the performance of services supplied.
(d) When the service provider other than an air traffic services provider provides services or
functions directly to a flight (e.g. MET) without involving air traffic services, then the safe use of
those services is the responsibility of the users of those services.
(e) When the air traffic services provider also provides other services, it may choose to combine
the necessary performance and safety management activities into an integrated management
system covering all services.
GENERAL
An ISO 9001 certificate, issued by an appropriately accredited organisation, addressing the quality
management elements required in this Subpart should be considered a sufficient means of
compliance for the service provider. In this case, the service provider should accept the disclosure of
the documentation related to the certification to the competent authority upon the latter’s request.
GENERAL
ISO 9001 Certificate(s) covers (cover) the quality management elements of the management system.
Other elements required by this Regulation in reference to the management system that are not
covered by the ISO 9001 certificate issued by an appropriately accredited organisation should be
subject to oversight by the competent authority.
POLICY
(a) The policy should:
(1) be signed by the accountable manager;
(2) reflect organisational commitments regarding performance of its services and safety,
where applicable, and its proactive and systematic management;
(3) include reporting principles; and
(4) include a commitment to:
(i) improve towards the highest performance standards so as to support the
achievement of the highest level of safety;
(ii) comply with all applicable legislation and requirements, meet all applicable
standards and consider best practices;
(iii) continually improve the effectiveness of the management system;
(iv) provide appropriate resources;
(v) enforce the performance of the service required to support the achievement of the
highest level of safety in the airspace where the service is provided as one primary
responsibility of all managers; and
(vi) that the purpose of reporting is improvement and not to apportion blame to
individuals.
(b) Senior management should:
(1) ensure that the policy:
(i) is appropriate to the purpose of service providers;
(ii) provides a framework for establishing and reviewing objectives in relation to the
provision of the service;
(iii) is communicated and understood within the service provider; and
(iv) is reviewed for continuing suitability;
(2) continually promote the policy to all personnel and demonstrate their commitment to it;
(3) provide necessary and appropriate human and financial resources for its implementation;
and
(4) establish objectives in relation to the provision of the services and performance
standards.
POLICY FOR AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES PROVIDERS VS POLICY FOR ALL OTHER SERVICE PROVIDERS
If a service provider does not undertake the provision of air traffic services, then the policy will be
recognisable more as a quality policy that is concerned with the performance of the service and
conformance to the service provision requirements supporting the achievement of the highest level
of safety in the airspace where the service is provided. Should the service provider undertake the
provision of air traffic services, then ATS.OR.200 also applies and the policy will need to be expanded
to include both the safety and the quality of the service.
SAFETY CULTURE
The policy should actively encourage effective safety reporting and, by defining the line between
acceptable performance (often unintended errors) and unacceptable performance (such as
negligence, recklessness, violations or sabotage), provide fair protection to reporters. A safety or just
culture may not, however, preclude the ‘criminalisation of error’, which is legally, ethically and morally
within the sovereign rights of any Member State, provided that European Union law and established
international agreements are observed. A judicial investigation, and consequences of some form, may
be expected following an accident or serious incident especially if a system failure resulted in lives lost
or property damaged, even if no negligence or ill intent existed. A potential issue could, therefore,
exist if voluntary hazard reports, which relate to latent deficiencies of a system or its performance,
are treated in the same way as those concerning accident and serious incident investigations. The
intent of protecting hazard reports should not challenge the legitimacy of a judicial investigation or
demand undue immunity.
(c) In regard to the exchange of meteorological information for operational purposes, the
management system should include verification and validation procedures and resources for
monitoring adherence to the prescribed transmission schedules for individual messages and/or
bulletins required to be exchanged as well as the times of their filing for transmission. The
management system should be capable of detecting excessive transit times of messages and
bulletins received.
PERFORMANCE MONITORING AND MEASUREMENT — SERVICE PROVIDER OTHER THAN AIR TRAFFIC
SERVICES PROVIDER
A performance indicator (PI) is a type of performance measurement. An organisation may use PIs to
evaluate its success, or to evaluate the success of a particular activity in which it is engaged.
Sometimes success is defined in terms of making progress towards strategic goals, but often success
is simply the repeated, periodic achievement of some level of operational goal (e.g. zero defects).
Accordingly, choosing the right PIs relies upon a good understanding of what is important to the
organisation. Since there is a need to understand well what is important, various techniques to assess
the present state of the business, and its key activities, are associated with the selection of PIs. These
assessments often lead to the identification of potential improvements, so performance indicators are
routinely associated with 'performance improvement' initiatives. When PIs have performance targets
associated with them, they are known as key performance indicators (KPIs).
COMMUNICATION RESPONSIBILITIES
The senior management should ensure that appropriate communication processes are established
within the service provider and that communication takes place regarding the effectiveness of the
management system.
(2) The compliance monitoring function should be structured according to the size of the
service provider and the complexity of the activities to be monitored, including those
which have been subcontracted.
(b) A service provider should monitor compliance with the procedures they have designed to
ensure that services are provided with the required safety levels and quality, as applicable. In
doing so, they should as a minimum, and where appropriate, monitor:
(1) manuals, logs, and records;
(2) training standards; and
(3) management system procedures.
(c) Organisational set-up
(1) A person should be responsible for compliance monitoring to ensure that the service
provider continues to meet the requirements of this Part and other applicable Parts. The
accountable manager should ensure that sufficient resources are allocated for
compliance monitoring.
(2) Personnel involved in the compliance monitoring should have access to all parts of service
provider and, as necessary, any contracted organisation.
(3) In the case the person responsible for compliance monitoring acts also as safety manager,
the accountable manager, with regard to his or her direct accountability for safety, should
ensure that sufficient resources are allocated to both functions, taking into account the
size of the service provider and the nature and complexity of its activities.
(4) The independence of the compliance monitoring function should be established by
ensuring that audits and inspections are carried out by personnel not directly involved in
the activity being audited.
(d) Compliance monitoring documentation
(1) Relevant documentation should include relevant part(s) of the service provider’s
management system documentation.
(2) In addition, relevant documentation should also include:
(i) terminology;
(ii) specified activity standards;
(iii) a description of the service provider;
(iv) allocation of duties and responsibilities;
(v) procedures to ensure compliance;
(vi) the compliance monitoring programme, reflecting:
(A) the schedule of the monitoring programme;
(B) audit procedures;
(C) reporting procedures;
(D) follow-up and corrective action procedures; and
(E) the record-keeping system;
(vii) the training syllabus referred to in (e)(2); and
(b) In consideration of operating regularly not more than one working position at any aerodrome
referred to in ATM/ANS.OR.A.010(b)(2), this means that for the majority (i.e. greater than 50 %)
of time an aerodrome is operational, only one working position is used.
(c) Table 3 below illustrates the circumstances under which the service provider could be
considered as non-complex.
Type of service Criteria to be complied with
Air traffic services Eligible for limited certificate and meets criteria in ATM/ANS.OR.A.010(a)
CNS/MET/AIS Eligible for limited certificate and meets criteria in ATM/ANS.OR.A.010(b)(1)
AFIS Eligible for limited certificate and meets criteria in ATM/ANS.OR.A.010(b)(2)
ASM/ATFM/DAT Workforce of 20 or less FTEs per service
Table 3: Non-complex service provider
GENERAL
Within the scope of this Regulation, only the air traffic services provider can identify hazards, assess
the associated risks and mitigate or propose mitigating measures where necessary. This requirement
implies that all service providers (air traffic services and non-air traffic services) establish formal
interfaces (e.g. service level agreements, letters of understanding, memorandum of cooperation)
between the relevant services providers themselves or between the service providers and other
aviation undertakings (e.g. aerodrome operators) so as to ensure that hazards associated with the use
of the services they provide are identified and the risks assessed and whenever needed mitigated. It
does not imply that this has to be done by the service providers themselves (e.g. MET or AIS providers
cannot do this by themselves) as only the air traffic services provider can, but they need to establish
the interfaces with those service providers (ATS providers) or other aviation undertaking (e.g.
aerodrome operators) who are able to do so. The formal interfaces could address the mitigation
means put on the different providers (e.g. via requirements in a service level agreement).
(a) A service provider shall use procedures to manage, assess and, if necessary, mitigate the impact
of changes to its functional systems in accordance with points ATM/ANS.OR.A.045,
ATM/ANS.OR.C.005, ATS.OR.205 and ATS.OR.210, as applicable.
(b) The procedures referred to in point (a) or any material modifications to those procedures shall:
(1) be submitted, for approval, by the service provider to the competent authority;
(2) not be used until approved by the competent authority.
(c) When the approved procedures referred to in point (b) are not suitable for a particular change,
the service provider shall:
(1) make a request to the competent authority for an exemption to deviate from the
approved procedures;
(2) provide the details of the deviation and the justification for its use to the competent
authority;
(3) not use the deviation before being approved by the competent authority.
GENERAL
(a) The procedures, and the change of the procedures, used by a service provider to manage
changes should cover the complete lifecycle of a change.
(b) The service provider should show that the procedures address all the actions and all the
evidence needed in order to comply with the requirements laid down in ATM/ANS.OR.A.045,
ATS.OR.205, ATS.OR.210, and ATM/ANS.OR.C.005, as appropriate. For that purpose, the service
provider should use a compliance matrix, which shows:
(1) which part of a procedure addresses which part of the Regulation (i.e. the requirement
of the implementing rule); and
(2) the rationale explaining how the procedures demonstrate compliance with the
Regulation.
(c) The service provider should ensure that the roles and responsibilities for the change
management processes are identified in the procedures.
(d) Procedures should be submitted in a manner agreed between the service provider and the
competent authority. Until an agreement is reached, the competent authority will prescribe the
means of submission.
(e) The procedure that defines the notification process for changes includes:
(1) the point of contact in charge of the notification of changes, e.g. person, or part of the
organisation and the role;
(2) the means used for notification, e.g. fax, email, mail, use of database or others.
(f) The management of change procedures should include a change identification procedure. This
procedure, which is a precursor of the change notification process, should seek out potential
changes, confirm that there is a real intent to implement them (propose the change) and, if so,
initiate the notification process.
COMPLIANCE MATRIX
The following example of a matrix could be used by the service provider to document the compliance
status of its change management procedures.
Service provider [Name of the provider]
Date MM/DD/YYYY
Requirement Competent
in the AMC Procedure Rationale Status authority
Regulation comment
ATM/ANS.OR. None Procedure ‘ JKL ’ Paragraph 4 states that Non- To be
A.045(c) — version ‘ c.d ’ the transition into approved assessed
— Paragraph 4 operation of any
functional change will
occur following the
completion of the
activities required by the
procedures XYZ, MNO,
and ABC
ATM/ANS.OR. AMC1 ATM/ANS. Procedure ‘ XYZ ’ Paragraph 3 stresses that Approved None
A.045(d) OR.A.045(d) — version ‘ a.b ’ a change subject to
— Paragraph 3 competent authority
review should not be
allowed to be put into
service before formal
approval has been
granted.
GENERAL
(a) As part of the change management procedures, the service provider should keep a register of
the records of all notified changes. The register should include:
(1) the status of the implementation of the change, i.e. planned, under review, under
implementation, implemented, or cancelled;
GENERAL
(a) The change management procedures for changes to functional systems should include:
(1) the identification and notification of proposed changes;
(2) the identification of the scope of the change, i.e. the identification of what parts of the
functional system are to be changed or are affected by the change;
(3) the assessment and assurance of the change;
(4) the approval of the change; and
(5) the establishment of the monitoring criteria to ensure that the change will remain
acceptable as long as it is in operation (acceptably safe for air traffic service providers or
acceptably trustworthy for other service providers). The monitoring of the changed
system is part of the activities related to the management system of the service provider.
It is not covered by the change management procedures themselves.
(b) The procedures that manage changes to functional systems do not include the processes to
identify the circumstances that will trigger the change. These should be part of the management
system(s) as laid down in ATM/ANS.OR.B.005 and/or ATS.OR.200, as applicable.
(c) The change management procedures should address the following:
(1) procedural-oriented content, which details:
(i) the roles and activities with regard to change management, safety assessment and
safety support assessment;
(ii) the identification of the parts of the functional system affected by the proposed
change;
(iii) the type of safety assessment or safety support assessment that has to be used for
the identified type of changes;
(iv) the competence of the persons performing change management, safety
assessments and safety support assessments;
(v) the identified triggers for performing a safety assessment and a safety support
assessment;
(vi) the means of change notification; ‘means’ includes the form of notification;
(vii) the means of identifying any organisations or aviation undertakings using the
service that are potentially affected by the change; and
(viii) the means of informing those identified in (vii).
(2) Method-oriented content, which details description of the safety assessments and safety
support assessments methods and mitigation methods used by the service provider.
(d) For each change management procedure or part of a change management procedure approved,
the agreement on notification of any change over them should be documented and formalised.
In any case, the service provider should keep records of these changes.
(a) Contracted activities include all the activities within the scope of the service provider's
operations, in accordance with the terms of the certificate, that are performed by other
organisations either themselves certified to carry out such activity or if not certified, working
under the service provider's oversight. A service provider shall ensure that when contracting or
purchasing any part of its activities to external organisations, the contracted or purchased
activity, system or constituent conforms to the applicable requirements.
(b) When a service provider contracts any part of its activities to an organisation that is not itself
certified in accordance with this Regulation to carry out such activity, it shall ensure that the
contracted organisation works under its oversight. The service provider shall ensure that the
competent authority is given access to the contracted organisation to determine continued
compliance with the applicable requirements under this Regulation.
GENERAL
(a) A service provider may contract certain activities to external organisations. ‘Contracted
activities’ means those activities within the service provision conditions attached to the service
provider’s certificate that are performed by other organisations either themselves certified to
carry out such an activity or if not certified, working under the service provider’s oversight. The
scope of the service provider's oversight covers the contracted activities performed by the
external organisation that is not itself certified in accordance with this Regulation.
(b) Activities contracted to external organisations for the provision of services may include areas
such as:
(1) aeronautical information services;
(2) meteorological services, etc.
(c) In the case of activities contracted, the service provider should define relevant management
responsibilities within its own organisation.
(d) The ultimate responsibility for the services provided by contracted organisations should always
remain with the contracting service provider.
(c) In order to ensure that the contracted organisation is able to perform the contracted activities,
the service provider may conduct a prior audit of the contracted party.
Contracted external A contracting service provider undertakes A contracting service provider undertakes
organisation compliance monitoring of the contracted compliance monitoring of the contracted
certified to provide external organisation and should at least external organisation and should at least
the activity check that the certificate effectively check that the certificate effectively
covers the contracted activities and that covers the contracted activities and that
it is valid. it is valid.
Contracted external The contracted external organisation The activity cannot be contracted to the
organisation NOT works under the oversight of the external organisation.
certified to provide contracting service provider.
the activity
Table 4: Responsibility when contracting activities
(a) A service provider shall appoint an accountable manager, who has the authority over ensuring
that all activities can be financed and carried out in accordance with the applicable
requirements. The accountable manager shall be responsible for establishing and maintaining
an effective management system.
(b) A service provider shall define the authority, duties and responsibilities of the nominated post
holders, in particular of the management personnel in charge of safety, quality, security, finance
and human resources-related functions as applicable.
ACCOUNTABLE MANAGER
Depending on the size, structure and complexity of the organisation, the accountable manager may
be:
(a) the chief executive officer (CEO);
(b) the chief operating officer (COO);
(c) the chairperson of the board of directors;
(d) a partner; or
(e) the proprietor.
GENERAL
Senior management should appoint a member of the service provider’s management who,
irrespective of other responsibilities, should have responsibility and authority that includes:
(a) ensuring that processes needed for the management system are established, implemented and
maintained;
(b) reporting to senior management on the performance of the management system and any need
for improvement; and
(c) ensuring the promotion of awareness of performance and service requirements throughout the
service provider and of the impact it has on safety.
A service provider shall ensure that there are adequate and appropriate facilities to perform and
manage all tasks and activities in accordance with the applicable requirements.
ATM/ANS.OR.B.030 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
(a) A service provider shall establish a system of record-keeping that allows adequate storage of
the records and reliable traceability of all its activities, covering in particular all the elements
indicated in point ATM/ANS.OR.B.005.
(b) The format and the retention period of the records referred to in point (a) shall be specified in
the service provider's management system procedures.
(c) Records shall be stored in a manner that ensures protection against damage, alteration and
theft.
GENERAL
(a) The record-keeping system should ensure that all the records required in ATM/ANS.OR.B.030(a)
are accessible whenever needed. These records should be organised in a way that ensures
traceability and retrieval throughout the retention period.
(b) Records should be kept in paper form or in electronic format or a combination of both. Records
stored on microfilm or optical disc format are also acceptable. The records should remain legible
throughout the required retention period. The retention period starts when a record has been
created or last amended.
(c) Paper systems should use robust material which can withstand normal handling and filing.
(d) Computer systems should have at least one backup system which should be updated within
24 hours of any new entry. Computer systems should include safeguards against the probability
of unauthorised personnel altering the data.
(e) All computer hardware used to ensure data backup should be stored in a different location from
that containing the working data and in an environment that ensures they remain in good
condition. When hardware or software changes take place, special care should be taken that all
necessary data continues to be accessible at least through the full retention period.
GENERAL
The record-keeping provision is intended to address the management system records rather than
operational data which is covered by other record-keeping applicable requirements.
RETENTION PERIOD
The records should be kept for a minimum period of at least 5 years unless otherwise specified by the
competent authority.
(a) A service provider shall provide and keep up to date its operations manuals relating to the
provision of its services for the use and guidance of operations personnel.
(b) It shall ensure that:
(1) operations manuals contain the instructions and information required by the operations
personnel to perform their duties;
(2) relevant parts of the operations manuals are accessible to the personnel concerned;
(3) the operations personnel are informed of amendments to the operations manual
applying to their duties in a manner that enables their application as of their entry into
force.
ATM/ANS.OR.C.001 Scope
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
This Subpart establishes the requirements to be met by the service provider other than the air traffic
services provider, in addition to the requirements set out in Subparts A and B.
(a) For any change notified in accordance with point ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(a)(1), the service provider
other than the air traffic services provider shall:
(1) ensure that a safety support assessment is carried out covering the scope of the change
which is:
(i) the equipment, procedural and human elements being changed;
(ii) interfaces and interactions between the elements being changed and the
remainder of the functional system;
(iii) interfaces and interactions between the elements being changed and the context
in which it is intended to operate;
(iv) the life cycle of the change from definition to operations including transition into
service;
(v) planned degraded modes;
(2) provide assurance, with sufficient confidence, via a complete, documented and valid
argument that the service will behave and will continue to behave only as specified in the
specified context.
(b) A service provider other than an air traffic services provider shall ensure that the safety support
assessment referred to in point (a) comprises:
(1) verification that:
(i) the assessment corresponds to the scope of the change as defined in point (a)(1);
(ii) the service behaves only as specified in the specified context;
(iii) the way the service behaves complies with and does not contradict any applicable
requirements of this Regulation placed on the services provided by the changed
functional system; and
(2) specification of the monitoring criteria necessary to demonstrate that the service
delivered by the changed functional system will continue to behave only as specified in
the specified context.
GENERAL
(a) The safety support assessment should be conducted by the service provider itself. It may also
be carried out by another organisation, on its behalf, provided that the responsibility for the
safety support assessment remains with the service provider.
(b) A safety support assessment needs to be performed when a change affects a part of the
functional system managed by a service provider other than an air traffic services provider and
it is being used in the provision of its services. The safety support assessment or the way it is
conducted does not depend on whether the change is a result of a business decision or a
decision to improve the service performance.
(3) a change to the context in which the service provider’s functional system operates as a
result of a proposed change by another service provider, another organisation regulated
by Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 or an unregulated body.
(b) The granularity of the safety support case report will depend on:
(1) the scope of the change;
(2) the nature and number of arguments; and
(3) the necessary and sufficient evidence needed to provide appropriate confidence that the
safety support assurance is valid (complete and correct).
The scope of the change is the set of changed, directly impacted and indirectly impacted
components identified when the iteration identifies no new components.
(d) The context in which the changed service is intended to be provided (see
ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(a)(1)(iii)) includes the interface through which the service will be delivered
to other service providers.
TRAINING
If the change modifies the way people interact with the rest of the functional system, then they will
require training before the change becomes operational. Care should be taken when training
operational staff before the change is operational, as the training may change the behaviour of the
operational staff when they interact with the existing functional system before any other part of the
change is made, and so the training may have to be treated as a transitional stage of the change. For
example, as a result of training, ATCOs may come to expect information or alerts to be presented
differently. People may also need refreshment training periodically in order to ensure that their
performance does not degrade over time. The training needed before operation forms part of the
design of the change, while the refreshment training is part of the maintenance of the functional
system after the change is in operation.
INTERACTIONS
The identification of changed interactions is necessary in order to identify the scope of the change
because any changed behaviour in the system comes about via a changed interaction. Changed
interaction happens via an interaction at an interface of the functional system and the context in which
it operates. Consequently, identification of both interfaces and interactions is needed to ensure that
all interactions have identified interfaces and all interfaces have identified interactions. From this, all
interactions and interfaces that will be changed can be identified.
FORM OF ASSURANCE
Service providers other than air traffic services providers should ensure that the assurance is
documented in a safety support case.
necessary mitigations, should the failures materialise and the installation not be
performed as intended.
(b) Safety support requirements
(1) The safety support requirements are characteristics/items of the functional system to
ensure that the system operates as specified. Based on the verification/demonstration of
these characteristics/items, it could be concluded that the specifications are met.
(2) The highest-layer of safety support requirements represents the desired behaviour of the
change at its interface with the operational context. These, ultimately become the
specification, once the implementation is verified.
(3) In almost all cases, verification that a system behaves as specified cannot be
accomplished to an acceptable level of confidence at the level of its interface with its
operational environment. To this end, the system verification should be decomposed into
verifiable parts, taking into account the following principles:
(i) Verification relies on requirements placed on these parts via a hierarchical
decomposition of the top-level requirements, in accordance with the constraints
imposed by the chosen architecture.
(ii) At the lowest level, this decomposition places requirements on elements, where
verification that the implementation satisfies its requirements can be achieved by
testing.
(iii) At higher levels in the architecture, during integration, verified elements of
different types are combined into subsystems/components, in order to verify more
complete parts of the system.
(iv) While they cannot be fully tested, other verification techniques may be used to
provide sufficient levels of confidence that these subsystems/components do what
they are supposed to do.
(v) Consequently, since decomposing the system into verifiable parts relies on
establishing requirements for those parts, then safety support requirements are
necessary.
(4) The way safety support requirements are achieved, is not of particular interest in a safety
assessment, because a safety support argument demonstrates the trustworthiness of the
specification.
(5) The architecture may not have requirements. During development, the need to argue
satisfaction of system level requirements, which cannot be performed at the system level
for any practical system, drives the architecture because verifiability depends on the
decomposition of the system into verifiable parts.
(6) Demonstration that safety support requirements at system level are met allows them to
be transformed into the safety support specification.
(c) Satisfaction of safety support requirements
(1) The concept laid down in AMC2 ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(a)(2) is that, provided the system
and each subsystem/component/element meet its requirements, the system will behave
as specified. This will be true provided (2), (3) and (4) below are met.
(2) The activity needed to meet objective (c) of AMC2 ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(a)(2) consists of
obtaining sufficient confidence that the set of requirements is complete and correct, i.e.
that:
(i) the architectural decomposition leads to a complete and correct set of
requirements being allocated to each subsystem/component/element;
(ii) each requirement is a correct, complete and unambiguous statement of the
desired behaviour, and does not contradict another requirement or any other
subset of requirements; and
(iii) the requirements allocated to a subsystem/component/element necessitate the
complete required behaviour of the subsystem/component/element in the target
environment.
(3) This should take into account specific aspects such as:
(i) the possible presence of functions within the subsystem/component/element that
produce unnecessary behaviour. For instance, in the case where a previously
developed part is used, activities should be undertaken to identify all the possible
behaviours of the part. If any of these behaviours is not needed for the foreseen
use, then additional requirements may be needed to make sure that these
functions are not solicited or inadvertently activated in operation or that the
effects of any resulting behaviour are mitigated;
(ii) subsystem/component/element requirements that are not directly related to the
desired behaviour of the functional system. This kind of requirement can, for
instance, ask that the subsystem/component/element be developed in a given
syntax or be designed in a certain way. These requirements often relate to
technical aspects of the subsystem/component/element. Activities should be
undertaken to ensure that each of these requirements is a correct, complete and
unambiguous statement of the desired effect, and does not contradict another
requirement or any other subset of requirements.
(4) The system behaviour should be considered complete in the sense that the specification
is only true for the defined context. This restriction to the context of the use of the service
makes safety support assessment and assurance of changes to the functional system a
practical proposition.
(d) Traceability of requirements
The traceability requirement can be met by tracing to the highest-level element in the
architectural hierarchy that has been shown to satisfy its requirements, by verifying it in
isolation. It is likely and completely acceptable that this point will be reached at a different
architectural level for each element.
(e) Satisfaction of safety support requirements
(1) The component view taken must be able to support verification, i.e. the component must
be verifiable — see guidance in (b).
(2) Care should be taken in selecting subsystems that are to be treated as components for
verification to ensure that they are small and simple enough to be verifiable.
(3) The context argument needs to demonstrate that the context in which a component is
verified does not compromise the claim that the specification is true over a specified
context, i.e. the component verification context is correctly related to the context
claimed for the operation of the functional system.
(f) Configuration identification
(1) This is only about configuration of the evidence and should not be interpreted as
configuration management of the functional system. However, since the safety support
assessment is based on a set of elements and the way they are interlinked, the safety
support assessment should only be valid if the configuration remains as described in the
safety support argument.
(2) Evidence for the use of a component should rely on testing activities considering the
actual usage of domains and contexts. When the same component is used in different
parts of the system or in different systems, it may not be possible to rely on testing in a
single context since it is unlikely that the contexts for each use will be the same or can be
covered by a single set of test conditions. This applies equally to the reuse of evidence
gathered from testing subsystems.
(b) The operational context must be specified so that its adherence to (a)(1) and (a)(2) is observable
and measurable either directly or indirectly with a degree of certainty commensurate with the
level of confidence sought from assurance.
SPECIFICATION
‘Continue to behave only as specified in the specified context’ means that assurance needs to be
provided that the monitoring requirements are suitable for demonstrating that the service behaves
only as specified in the specified context during operation.
ASSURANCE LEVELS
The use of assurance level concepts, e.g. design assurance levels (DAL), software assurance levels
(SWAL), hardware assurance levels (HWAL), can be helpful in generating an appropriate and sufficient
body of evidence to help establish the required confidence in the argument.
VERIFICATION
The service provider other than the air traffic services provider should ensure that verification
activities of the safety support assessment process include verification:
(a) that the full scope of the change is addressed throughout the whole assessment process, i.e. all
the elements of the functional system or environment of operation that are changed or affected
by the change and those unchanged elements that depend upon them and on which they
depend are identified;
(b) that the way the service behaves complies with and does not contradict any requirements
placed on the changed service by another part of the regulations or conditions attached to the
providers’ certificate;
(c) that the specification of the way the service behaves and the safety support requirements are
complete and correct;
(d) that the specification of the operational context is complete and correct;
(e) that the specification was analysed in the context in which it is intended to operate;
(f) of the completeness of the argument as per AMC2 ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(a)(2);
(g) that the safety support requirements are correct and complete by reference to the
specification; and
(h) to the intended degree of confidence, that the implementation satisfies the safety support
requirements and behaves only as specified in the given operational context.
VERIFICATION
This requirement is seeking verification because it is a simple cross-check of available material, i.e.
that the specification reflects the requirements of other parts of this Regulation.
(a) Behaviour
ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(b)(1)(ii) requires that the service meets its specification. Consequently, the
specification must be complete and valid, i.e. it includes the behaviour addressed in
ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(b)(1)(iii) and any additional behaviour in the specified context.
(b) Compliance with other requirements
(1) ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(b)(1)(iii) requires the service providers to identify all parts of this
Regulation that impose behaviour on the changed service and also includes any
conditions attached to the certificate. They have to identify only those parts of this
Regulation that describe required behaviour relevant to the changed service. The
identified behaviour shall be included in the specification of the changed service.
Note that the Regulation or conditions attached to the certificate may render compliance
with technical standards and ICAO SARPs mandatory.
(2) Compliance with other non-mandatory standards may also be a necessary condition for
other reasons.
(3) ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(b)(1)(iii) does not state that the service only meets the requirements
of the other parts of this Regulation. It may do other things as well, as described in (5)
below.
(4) In ATM/ANS.OR.C.005(b)(1)(iii), ‘does not contradict’ is used to express the concern that
behaviour beyond that required by a standard might cause the behaviour required by the
standard to be undermined.
(5) The behaviour of a service is likely to include behaviour unspecified in standards; such
behaviour may come from:
(i) the behaviour of degraded modes of operation;
(ii) additional behaviour not required by the standard, but put there for commercial
purposes, e.g. competitive edge; or
(iii) other behaviour identified by the customer, e.g. an air traffic services provider.
(6) Consequently, the total behaviour should be specified.
MONITORING
Service providers other than an air traffic services provider should ensure that within the safety
support assessment process for a change, the monitoring criteria that are to be used to demonstrate
that the safety support case remains valid during the operation of the changed functional system, i.e.
that the changed service continues to meet its specification, are identified and documented. These
criteria should be such that:
(a) they indicate that the assumptions made in the safety support case remain valid; and
(b) if the properties being monitored remain within the bounds set by these criteria, the service
will be behaving as specified.
ATM/ANS.OR.D.001 Scope
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
This Subpart establishes the requirements to be met by air navigation services (ANS) and air traffic
flow management (ATFM) providers and the Network Manager, in addition to the requirements set
out in Subparts A, B and C.
1 Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 390/2013 of 3 May 2013 laying down a performance scheme for air navigation services
and network functions (OJ L 128, 9.5.2013, p. 1).
(2) The annual plan shall cover the following provisions on the level and quality of service,
such as the expected level of capacity, safety, environment and cost-efficiency:
(i) information on the implementation of new infrastructure or other developments,
and a statement on how they will contribute to improving the performance of the
air navigation services provider or of the air traffic flow management provider,
including level and quality of services;
(ii) performance indicators, as may be applicable, consistent with the performance
plan referred to in Article 11 of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004, against which the
performance level and quality of service may be reasonably assessed;
(iii) information on the measures foreseen to mitigate the safety risks identified by the
air navigation services and air traffic flow management provider, including safety
indicators to monitor safety risk and, where appropriate, the estimated cost of
mitigation measures;
(iv) the air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers' expected
short-term financial position as well as any changes to or impacts on the business
plan.
(c) Performance part of the plans
The air navigation services and the air traffic flow management providers shall make the content
of the performance part of their business plans and of their annual plans available to the
Commission on its request, under the conditions set by the competent authority in accordance
with national law.
(a) Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers and the Network Manager
shall, as an integral part of their management system as required in point ATM/ANS.OR.B.005,
establish a security management system to ensure:
(1) the security of their facilities and personnel so as to prevent unlawful interference with
the provision of services;
(2) the security of operational data they receive, or produce, or otherwise employ, so that
access to it is restricted only to those authorised.
(b) The security management system shall define:
(1) the procedures relating to security risk assessment and mitigation, security monitoring
and improvement, security reviews and lesson dissemination;
(2) the means designed to detect security breaches and to alert personnel with appropriate
security warnings;
(3) the means of controlling the effects of security breaches and to identify recovery action
and mitigation procedures to prevent re-occurrence.
(c) Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers and the Network Manager
shall ensure the security clearance of their personnel, if appropriate, and coordinate with the
relevant civil and military authorities to ensure the security of their facilities, personnel and
data.
(d) Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers and the Network Manager
shall take the necessary measures to protect their systems, constituents in use and data and
prevent compromising the network against information and cyber security threats which may
have an unlawful interference with the provision of their service.
Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers shall be able to meet their financial
obligations, such as fixed and variable costs of operation or capital investment costs. They shall use an
appropriate cost-accounting system. They shall demonstrate their ability through the annual plan as
referred to in point ATM/ANS.OR.D.005(b), as well as through balance sheets and accounts, as
applicable under their legal statute, and regularly undergo an independent financial audit.
(a) Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers and the Network Manager
shall have in place arrangements to cover liabilities related to the execution of their tasks in
accordance with the applicable law.
(b) The method employed to provide the cover shall be appropriate to the potential loss and
damage in question, taking into account the legal status of the providers concerned and the
Network Manager and the level of commercial insurance cover available.
(c) Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers and the Network Manager
which avail themselves of services of another service provider shall ensure that the agreements
that they conclude to that effect specify the allocation of liability between them.
(a) Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers shall provide an annual report
of their activities to the competent authority.
(b) For air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers, the annual report shall
cover their financial results, without prejudice to Article 12 of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004, as
well as their operational performance and any other significant activities and developments in
particular in the area of safety.
(c) The Network Manager shall, in accordance with Article 20 of Regulation (EU) No 677/2011,
provide an annual report of its activities to the Commission and the Agency. This report shall
cover its operational performance, as well as significant activities and developments in
particular in the area of safety.
(d) The annual reports referred to in points (a) and (c) shall include as a minimum:
(1) an assessment of the level of performance of services provided;
(2) for air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers, their performance
compared to the performance targets established in the business plan referred to in point
ATM/ANS.OR.D.005(a), comparing actual performance against the performance set out
in the annual plan by using the indicators of performance established in the annual plan;
(3) for the Network Manager, its performance compared to the performance objectives
established in the Network Strategy Plan referred to in Article 2(24) of Regulation (EU)
No 677/2011, comparing actual performance against the performance set out in the
Network Operational Plan referred to in Article 2(23) of that Regulation by using the
indicators of performance established in the Network Operational Plan;
(4)an explanation for differences with the relevant targets and objectives and an identification
of the measures required to address any gaps between the plans and actual performance,
during the reference period referred to in Article 11 of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004;
(5) developments in operations and infrastructure;
(6) the financial results, where they are not published separately in accordance with
Article 12(1) of Regulation (EC) No 550/2004;
(7) information about the formal consultation process with the users of its services;
(8) information about the human resources policy.
(e) Air navigation services and air traffic flow management providers and the Network Manager
shall make their annual reports available to the Commission and the Agency on their request.
They shall also make those reports available to the public, under the conditions set by the
competent authority in accordance with Union and national law.
ANNEX IV — PART-ATS
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF AIR TRAFFIC
SERVICES
SUBPART A — ADDITIONAL ORGANISATION REQUIREMENTS
FOR PROVIDERS OF AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (ATS.OR)
ATS.OR.100 Ownership
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
(a) An air traffic services provider shall notify the competent authorities of:
(1) its legal status, its ownership structure and any arrangements having a significant impact
on control over its assets;
(2) any links with organisations not involved in the provision of air navigation services,
including commercial activities in which they are engaged either directly or through
related undertakings, which account for more than 1 % of their expected revenue;
furthermore, it shall notify any change of any single shareholding which represents 10 %
or more of their total shareholding.
(b) An air traffic services provider shall take all necessary measures to prevent any situation of
conflict of interests that could compromise the impartial and objective provision of its services.
In addition to point ATM/ANS.OR.A.075 of Annex III, the air traffic service provider shall neither
engage in conduct that would have as its object or effect the prevention, restriction or distortion of
competition, nor shall they engage in conduct that amounts to an abuse of a dominant position, in
accordance with applicable Union and national law.
An air traffic services provider shall have in place a safety management system (SMS), which may be
an integral part of the management system required in point ATM/ANS.OR.B.005, that includes the
following components:
(1) Safety policy and objectives
(i) Management commitment and responsibility regarding safety which shall be included in
the safety policy.
(ii) Safety accountabilities regarding the implementation and maintenance of the SMS and
the authority to make decisions regarding safety.
(iii) Appointment of a safety manager who is responsible for the implementation and
maintenance of an effective SMS;
(iv) Coordination of an emergency response planning with other service providers and
aviation undertakings that interface with the ATS provider during the provision of its
services.
(v) SMS documentation that describes all the elements of the SMS, the associated SMS
processes and the SMS outputs.
(2) Safety risk management
(i) A process to identify hazards associated to its services which shall be based on a
combination of reactive, proactive and predictive methods of safety data collection.
(ii) A process that ensures analysis, assessment and control of the safety risks associated
with identified hazards.
(iii) A process to ensure that its contribution to the risk of aircraft accidents is minimised as
far as is reasonably practicable.
(3) Safety assurance
(i) Safety performance monitoring and measurement means to verify the safety
performance of the organisation and validate the effectiveness of the safety risk controls.
(ii) A process to identify changes which may affect the level of safety risk associated with its
service and to identify and manage the safety risks that may arise from those changes.
(iii) A process to monitor and assess the effectiveness of the SMS to enable the continuous
improvement of the overall performance of the SMS.
(4) Safety promotion
(i) Training programme that ensures that the personnel are trained and competent to
perform their SMS duties.
(ii) Safety communication that ensures that the personnel are aware of the SMS
implementation.
(c) the top management of the provider carries an overall safety responsibility.
(5) The safety manager or any other relevant person may attend, as appropriate, safety
review board meetings. He or she may communicate to the accountable manager all
information, as necessary, to allow decision-making based on safety data.
COORDINATION OF EMERGENCY RESPONSE PLANNING FOR ATS PROVIDERS — COMPLEX ATS PROVIDERS
(a) An air traffic services provider should develop, coordinate and maintain a plan for its response
to an emergency. It should:
(1) reflect the nature and complexity of the activities performed by the air traffic services
provider;
(2) ensure an orderly and safe transition from normal to emergency operations;
(3) ensure safe continuation of operations or return to normal operations as soon as
practicable; and
(4) ensure coordination with the ERPs of other organisations, where appropriate.
(b) For emergencies occurring at the aerodrome or in its surroundings, the plan should be aligned
with the aerodrome ERP and be coordinated with the aerodrome operator.
TYPES OF EMERGENCIES
At least the following types of emergencies may be considered:
(a) aircraft emergencies;
(b) natural phenomena (e.g. extreme weather conditions);
COORDINATION OF THE EMERGENCY RESPONSE PLANNING FOR ATS PROVIDERS — COMPLEX ATS
PROVIDERS
For aerodrome-related emergencies, please refer to GM4 ADR.OPS.B.005(a) ‘Aerodrome Emergency
Planning’.
(f) Taking into account that the SMS is being required to manage safety, it can be assumed that by
continuously improving the effectiveness of the SMS, ATS providers should be able to better
manage and mitigate, and ultimately control the safety risks associated with the provisions of
their services.
(2) Regular meetings with personnel where information, actions and procedures are
discussed, may be used to communicate safety matters.
(a) For any change notified in accordance with point ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(a)(1), the air traffic
services provider shall:
(1) ensure that a safety assessment is carried out covering the scope of the change, which is:
(i) the equipment, procedural and human elements being changed;
(ii) interfaces and interactions between the elements being changed and the
remainder of the functional system;
(iii) interfaces and interactions between the elements being changed and the context
in which it is intended to operate;
(iv) the life cycle of the change from definition to operations including transition into
service;
(v) planned degraded modes of operation of the functional system; and
(2) provide assurance, with sufficient confidence, via a complete, documented and valid
argument that the safety criteria identified via the application of point ATS.OR.210 are
valid, will be satisfied and will remain satisfied.
(b) An air traffic services provider shall ensure that the safety assessment referred to in point (a)
comprises:
(1) the identification of hazards;
(2) the determination and justification of the safety criteria applicable to the change in
accordance with point ATS.OR.210;
(3) the risk analysis of the effects related to the change;
(4) the risk evaluation and, if required, risk mitigation for the change such that it can meet
the applicable safety criteria;
(5) the verification that:
(i) the assessment corresponds to the scope of the change as defined in point (a)(1);
(ii) the change meets the safety criteria;
(6) the specification of the monitoring criteria necessary to demonstrate that the service
delivered by the changed functional system will continue to meet the safety criteria.
GENERAL
(a) The safety assessment should be conducted by the air traffic services provider itself. It may also
be carried out by another organisation, on its behalf, provided that the responsibility for the
safety assessment remains with the air traffic services provider.
(b) A safety assessment needs to be performed when a change affects a part of the functional
system managed by the provider of air traffic services and that is being used in the provision of
its (air traffic) services. The safety assessment or the way it is conducted does not depend on
whether the change is a result of a business decision or a decision to improve safety.
(4) Furthermore, directly and indirectly affected components will be identified as a result of
applying the above iteratively to any directly and indirectly affected components that
have been identified previously.
The scope of the change is the set of changed, directly impacted and indirectly impacted
components identified when the iteration identifies no new components.
(d) The context in which the changed service is intended to operate (see ATS.OR.205(a)(1)(iii))
includes the interface through which the service will be delivered to its users.
TRAINING
If the change modifies the way people interact with the rest of the functional system, then a training
might be required before the change becomes operational. Care should be taken when training
operational staff before the change is operational, as the training may change the behaviour of the
operational staff when they interact with the existing functional system before any other part of the
change is made, and so may have to be treated as a transitional stage of the change.
For example, as a result of training, air traffic controllers (ATCOs) may come to expect information or
alerts to be presented differently. People may also need refreshment training periodically in order to
ensure that their performance does not degrade over time. The training needed before operation
forms part of the design of the change, while the refreshment training is part of the maintenance of
the functional system after the change is in operation.
INTERACTIONS
The identification of changed interactions is necessary in order to identify the scope of the change
because any changed behaviour in the system comes about via a changed interaction. Changed
interaction happens via an interaction at an interface of the functional system and the context in which
it operates. Consequently, identification of both interfaces and interactions is needed to be sure that
all interactions have identified interfaces and all interfaces have identified interactions. From this, all
interactions and interfaces that will be changed can be identified.
FORM OF ASSURANCE
The air traffic services provider should ensure that the assurance required by ATS.OR.205(a)(2) is
documented in a safety case.
(2) Optimally, a sufficient set of criteria would consist of the minimum set of non-overlapping
valid criteria and it is preferable to a set containing overlapping criteria.
(3) Criteria that are not relevant, i.e. ones that do not address the safety goal of the change
at all, should be removed from the set as they contribute nothing, may contradict other
valid criteria and may serve to confuse.
(4) There are two forms of overlap: complete overlap and partial overlap.
(i) In the first case, one or more criteria can be removed and the set would remain
sufficient, i.e. there are unnecessary criteria.
(ii) In the second case, (partially overlapping criteria) if any criterion were to be
removed, the set would not be sufficient. Consequently, all criteria are necessary;
however, validating the set would be much more difficult. Showing that a set of
criteria with significant overlap do not contradict each other is extremely difficult
and consequently prone to error.
(5) It may, in fact, be simpler to develop an architecture that supports non-overlapping
criteria than to attempt to validate a partially overlapping set of criteria.
(b) Safety requirements
(1) The safety requirements are design characteristics/items of the functional system to
ensure that the system operates as specified. Based on the verification/demonstration of
these characteristics/items, it could be concluded that the safety criteria are met.
(2) The highest layer of safety requirements represents the desired safety behaviour of the
change at its interface with the operational context.
(3) In almost all cases, verification that a system behaves as specified cannot be
accomplished, to an acceptable level of confidence, at the level of its interface with its
operational environment. To this end, the system verification should be decomposed into
verifiable parts, taking into account the following principles:
(i) Verification relies on requirements placed on these parts via a hierarchical
decomposition of the top level requirements, in accordance with the constraints
imposed by the chosen architecture.
(ii) At the lowest level, this decomposition places requirements on elements, where
verification that the implementation satisfies its requirements can be achieved by
testing.
(iii) At higher levels in the architecture, during integration, verified elements of
different types are combined into subsystems/components, in order to verify more
complete parts of the system.
(iv) While they cannot be fully tested, other verification techniques may be used to
provide sufficient levels of confidence that these subsystems/components do what
they are supposed to do.
(v) Consequently, since decomposing the system into verifiable parts relies on
establishing requirements for those parts, then safety requirements are necessary.
(4) The architecture may not have requirements. During development, the need to argue
satisfaction of safety criteria, which cannot be performed at the system level for any
practical system, drives the architecture because verifiability depends on the
decomposition of the system into verifiable parts.
(c) Satisfaction of safety criteria
(1) The concept laid down in AMC2 ATS.OR.205(a)(2) is that, provided each element meets
its safety requirements, the system will meet its safety criteria. This will be true provided
(2) and (3) below are met.
(2) The activity needed to meet this objective consists of obtaining sufficient confidence that
the set of safety requirements is complete and correct, i.e. that:
(i) the architectural decomposition of the elements leads to a complete and correct
set of safety requirements being allocated to each sub-element;
(ii) each safety requirement is a correct, complete and unambiguous statement of the
desired behaviour and does not contradict another requirement or any other
subset of requirements; and
(iii) the safety requirements allocated to an element necessitate the complete
required safety behaviour of the element in the target environment.
(3) This should take into account specific aspects such as:
(i) the possible presence of functions within the element that produce unnecessary
behaviour. For instance, in the case where a previously developed element is used,
activities should be undertaken to identify all the possible behaviours of the
element. If any of these behaviours is not needed for the foreseen use, then
additional requirements may be needed to make sure that these functions will not
be solicited or inadvertently activated in operation or that the effects of any
resulting behaviour are mitigated;
(d) other requirements that are not directly related to the desired behaviour of the functional
system. These requirements often relate to technical aspects of the system or its components.
Activities should ensure that each of these requirements does not compromise the safety of the
system, i.e. does not contradict the safety requirements or criteria.
(e) Traceability of requirements
The traceability requirement can be met by tracing to the highest-level element in the
architectural hierarchy that has been shown to satisfy its requirements, by verifying it in
isolation.
(f) Satisfaction of safety requirements
(1) The component view taken must be able to support verification, i.e. the component must
be verifiable.
(2) Care should be taken in selecting subsystems that are to be treated as components for
verification to ensure that they are small and simple enough to be verifiable.
(g) Adverse effects on safety
(1) Interactions of all changed components or components affected by the change, operating
in their defined context, have to be identified and assessed for safety in order to be able
to show that they do not adversely affect safety. This assessment must include the failure
conditions for all components and the behaviour of the services delivered to the
component including failures in those services.
(2) Interactions between changing components, as they are installed during transitions into
operation, and the context in which they operate have to be identified and assessed for
safety in order to be able to show that they do not adversely affect safety. This
assessment must include the failure conditions for all installation activities.
In some cases, installing components during transition into operation may cause
disruption to services other than the one being changed. These services fall within the
scope of the change (see GM1 ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(c); (d)), and consequently the safety
effects failures of these services, due to failures of the installation activities, have to be
assessed as well and, if necessary, their impacts mitigated.
(3) Interactions in complex systems are dealt with in ATM/ANS.OR.A.045(e)(1).
(h) Configuration identification
(1) AMC2 ATS.OR.205(a)(2), point (f) is only about configuration of the evidence and should
not be interpreted as configuration management of the changed functional system.
However, since the safety case is based on a set of elements and the way they are joined
together, the safety case will only be valid if the configuration remains as described in the
safety case.
(2) Evidence for the use of a component should rely on testing activities considering the
actual usage domains and contexts. When the same component is used in different parts
of the system or in different systems, it may not be possible to rely on testing in a single
context since it is unlikely that the contexts for each use will be the same or can be
covered by a single set of test conditions. This applies equally to the reuse of evidence
gathered from testing subsystems.
SAFETY CRITERIA
‘Safety criteria will remain satisfied’ means that the safety criteria continue to be satisfied after the
change is implemented and put into operation. The safety case needs to provide assurance that the
monitoring requirements of ATS.OR.205(b)(6) are suitable for demonstrating, during operation, that
the safety criteria remain satisfied and, therefore, the argument remains valid.
ASSURANCE LEVELS
The use of assurance level concepts, e.g. design assurance levels (DAL), software assurance levels
(SWAL), hardware assurance levels (HWAL), can be helpful in generating an appropriate and sufficient
body of evidence to help establish the required confidence in the argument.
SAFETY REQUIREMENTS
The following non-exhaustive list contains examples of safety requirements that specify:
(a) for equipment, the complete behaviour, in terms of functions, accuracy, timing, order, format,
capacity, resource usage, robustness to abnormal conditions, overload tolerance, availability,
reliability, confidence and integrity;
The complete behaviour is limited to the scope of the change. Safety requirements should only
apply to the parts of a system affected by the change. In other words, if parts of a system can
be isolated from each other and only some parts are affected by the change, then these are the
only parts that are of concern;
(b) for people, their performance in terms of tasks (e.g. accuracy, response times, acceptable
workload, reliability, confidence, skills, and knowledge in relation to their tasks);
(c) for procedures, the circumstances for their enactment, the resources needed to perform the
procedure (i.e. people and equipment), the sequence of actions to be performed and the timing
and accuracy of the actions; and
(d) interactions between all parts of the system.
HAZARDS TO BE IDENTIFIED
The following hazards should be identified:
(a) New hazards, i.e. those introduced by the change relating to the:
(1) failure of the functional system; and
(2) normal operation of the functional system; and
(b) Already existing hazards that are affected by the change and are related to:
(1) the existing parts of the functional systems; and
(2) hazards outside the functional system, for example, those inherent to aviation.
HAZARD IDENTIFICATION
(a) Completeness of hazard identification
In order to achieve completeness in the identification of hazards, it might be beneficial to
aggregate hazards and to formulate them in a more abstract way, e.g. at the service level. This
might in turn have drawbacks when analysing and evaluating the risk of the hazards. The
appropriate level of detail in the set of hazards and their formulation, therefore, depends on
the change and the way the safety assessment is executed.
Only credible hazards need to be identified. A credible hazard is one that has a material effect
on the risk assessment. A hazard will not be considered credible when it is either highly
improbable that the hazard will occur or that the accident trajectories it initiates will
materialise. In other words, a hazard need not be considered if it can be shown that it induces
an insignificant risk.
RISK EVALUATION
The air traffic services provider should ensure that the risk evaluation includes:
(a) an assessment of the identified hazards for a notified change, including possible mitigation
means, in terms of risk or in terms of proxies or a combination of them;
(b) a comparison of the risk analysis results against the safety criteria taking the uncertainty of the
risk assessment into account; and
(c) the identification of the need for risk mitigation or reduction in uncertainty or both.
Proxies
Risk
Move Move
TX/RX ? Taxiiway
Safety Acceptance Criteria (Proxies):
1. Control – Turbulence
Reduce
Transmisivity
2. Communications – Signal quality
3. Vision – Human error rate
Risk
① ②
(2) The risk due to the introduction of the wind farm will rise from ① to ②, if not mitigated,
because:
(i) turbulence will increase and so may destabilise manoeuvring of aircraft;
(ii) the movement of the blades will cause radio interference (communications radio
and surveillance radar) and so communications may be lost or aircraft may be
hidden from view on the radar screen; and
(iii) the flicker in the peripheral vision of ATCOs, caused by the rotation of the blades,
may capture attention and increase their perception error rate.
(3) The problem of analysing the safety impact can be split into these areas of concern since
they do not interact or overlap and so satisfy the independence criterion (b) of
AMC2 ATS.OR.210(a). However, whilst it can be argued that each is a circumstantial
hazard and that in each case a justifiable qualitative relationship can be established
linking the hazard with the resulting accident (so satisfying the causality criterion (a) of
AMC2 ATS.OR.210(a)), the actual or quantitative logical relationship is, in each case,
extremely difficult to determine. Conditions for seeking proxies have, therefore, been
established:
Performing a risk evaluation using actual risk may not be worthwhile due to the
considerable cost and effort involved; and
The first two criteria for proxies have been satisfied.
Consequently, it may be possible to find proxies that can be used more simply and
effectively than performing an analysis based on risk.
(4) The solutions proposed below are for illustrative purposes only. There are many other
solutions and, for each change, several should be investigated. In this example, the
following proxies, which satisfy the measurability criterion (c) of AMC2 ATS.OR.210(a),
are used to set safety criteria:
(i) Turbulence can be measured and predicted by models so the level of turbulence
can be a proxy.
In this example, let’s assume the only significant effect of turbulence is to light
aircraft using a particular taxiway. It is possible to predict the level of turbulence at
different sites on the aerodrome and an alternative taxiway is found where the
level of turbulence after the introduction of the wind farm will be less than that
currently encountered on the present taxiway. This can be confirmed during
operation after the change by monitoring.
(ii) Signal quality can be also be predicted by models and measured so it can be used
as a proxy.
In this example, it is possible to move the communications transmitter and receiver
aerials so that communications are not affected by interference. Sites can be found
using modelling and the signal quality confirmed prior to moving the aerials by trial
installations during periods when the aerodrome is not operating.
(iii) Human error rate in detecting events on the manoeuvring area can be measured
in simulations and can be used as a proxy.
It is suggested that increasing the opaqueness of the glass in the control tower will
reduce the effects of flicker on the ATCOs, but there is no direct relationship
between the transmissivity and the effects of flicker. It is, therefore, decided to
make a simulation of the control tower and measure the effects of flicker on human
error rate using glass of different levels of transmissivity.
However, there is a conflict between increasing the opaqueness of the glass to
reduce the effects of flicker and decreasing it to improve direct vision, which is
needed so that manoeuvring aircraft can be seen clearly. In other words, the
simulation predicts a minimum for the human error rate that relates to a decrease,
as the effects of flicker decrease, followed by an increase, as the effects of a lack
of direct vision increase. This minimum is greater than the human error rate
achieved by the current system and so the risk of the wind farm, in respect of
flicker, cannot be completely mitigated. This is shown by the red box with a
question mark in it on the diagram.
(5) Finally, the argument for the performance of surveillance radars is commonly performed
using risk. This can be repeated in this case since the idea is to filter the effects of the
interference without increasing the risk. Moreover, if necessary, a system may be added
(or a current one improved) to reduce the risk simply and economically and the effects
of the additional system may be argued using risk.
(6) Since risks can be combined, the safety impacts of the changes to the surveillance radar
by filtering the effects of the interference together with the addition of another system
or the improvement of the current system can be established by summing the risks
associated with these two kinds of change.
(7) In these circumstances, it is not possible to argue objectively that the risk of introducing
the wind farm has been mitigated, as risks cannot be summed with proxies. This
demonstrates the difficulties of using proxies. However, it may be possible to argue
convincingly, albeit subjectively, that installing another system or improving the current
system improves the current level of risk by a margin large enough to provide adequate
compensation for the unmitigated effects of flicker.
(8) In summary, this example shows how proxies and risks can be combined in a single
assurance case to argue that a change to a functional system can be introduced safely. It
also demonstrates that the strategies available to demonstrate safety are not generic,
but are dependent on identifying analysable qualities or quantities related to specific
properties of the system or service that are impacted by the change.
(b) Use of proxies when changing to electronic flight strips
(1) An air traffic services provider considers the introduction of a digital strip system in one
of its air traffic control towers to replace the paper flight progress strips currently in use.
This change is expected to have an impact on several aspects of the air traffic control
service that is provided such as the controller’s recollection of the progress of the flight,
the mental modelling of the traffic situation and the communication and task allocation
between controllers. A change of the medium, from paper to digital, might, therefore,
have implications on the tower operations, and, hence, on the safety of the air traffic.
The actual relation between the change of the strip medium and the risk for the traffic is,
however, difficult to establish.
(2) The influence of the quantity on the risk is globally known, but cannot easily be
quantified. One difficulty is that strip management is at the heart of the air traffic control
operations: the set of potential sequences of events from a strip management error to
an accident or incident is enormous. This set includes, for example, the loss of the call
sign at the moment a ground controller needs to intervene in a taxiway conflict, and
whether this results in an incident depends, for example, on the visibility. This set also
includes the allocation of a wrong standard instrument departure (SID) to an aircraft, and
whether this results in an accident depends, for example, on the runway configuration.
(3) The Bow Tie Model of a strip management error has, figuratively speaking, a vertically
stretched right part. This expresses that a hazard — such as the loss of a single strip —
may have many different outcomes which heavily depend on factors that have nothing
to do with the cause of the hazard — factors such as the status of the aircraft
corresponding to the absent strip, that aircraft’s position on the aerodrome, the traffic
situation and the visibility.
(4) Another difficulty with the relationship between the change of the medium and the risk
to the air traffic is that several human and cultural aspects are involved. The difficulty lies
in the largely unknown causal relationship between these human and cultural aspects
and the occurrences of accidents and incidents. As an example of this, it is noted that
strip manipulation — like moving a strip into another bay, or making a mark to indicate
that a landing clearance is given — assists a controller in distinguishing the potential from
the actual developments. The way of working with paper strips generates impressions in
a wider variety than digital strips by their physical nature: handling paper strips has
tactile, auditory and social aspects. This difference in these aspects may lead to a
difference in the quality of the controller’s situation awareness which may lead to a
difference in the efficacy of the controller’s instructions and advisories, which may lead
to a difference in the occurrence of accidents and incidents. However, the relation
between the change of the medium and the risk for the air traffic is difficult to assess and
would require a great deal of effort, time and experimentation to quantify.
Situation Quality
Awareness instructions
Figure 3: Relation between the change of flight strip and the risk
(5) There is probably a relation between the change of the flight progress strip medium and
the risk for air traffic: a new human–machine interface may have an effect on the
situation awareness of some individual controllers in some circumstances, which might
have an effect on whether, when and what instructions are given, and this in turn
influences the aircraft movements, and, hence, the risks. The question by what amount
risks increase or decrease is very hard to answer.
(6) Performing a risk evaluation using actual risk may not be worthwhile due to the
difficulties and considerable cost and effort involved in assessing the risk of the change
directly. Therefore, the use of proxies might be preferred. A quantity is only considered
an appropriate proxy if it satisfies the criteria in point AMC2 ATS.OR.210(a):
(i) Causality: The quantity used as proxy can be expected to be influenced by the
change, and the risk can be expected to be influenced by the quantity. In addition
to this causal relationship, a criterion can be formulated and agreed upon that
expresses by which amount the value of the quantity may shift due to the change.
Note that the influence of the proxy on the risk cannot easily be quantified,
otherwise it might be more beneficial to use risk as a measure and the quantity as
an auxiliary function.
(ii) Measurability: The influence of the change on the quantity can be assessed before
as well as after the change.
(iii) Independence: When the proxy selected does not cover all hazards, a set of proxies
should be used. Any proxy of that set should be sufficiently isolated from other
proxies to be treated independently.
! ?
Change Proxy Risk to traffic
(7) There is a relationship between the change and the proxy, and there is a relationship
between the proxy and the risk to traffic. The first relationship can be assessed (indicated
by the ‘!’), while the second cannot (indicated by the ‘?’). An acceptance criterion is
typically formulated for the amount the proxy value might increase or decrease.
(8) Proxy 1: Head-down time. The head-down time is a good proxy as it satisfies the
conditions of:
(i) Causality: It is known that more head-down time leads to a higher risk but there is
no well-established or generally accepted statement in literature in terms of: ‘x %
more head-down time implies y% more accidents’, not to mention for the specific
circumstances of the specific air traffic control tower. The causal relationship
indicated in Figure 4 can be established because:
(A) the head-down time can be expected to change as the manipulation, writing
and reading of digital strips might cost more, or perhaps less, attention and
effort than the handling of paper strips;
(B) the loss of head-up time of ground and runway controllers implies less
surveillance, at least less time for the out-of-the-window-view in good
visibility, and this implies a later or less probable detection of conflicts; and
(C) an example of an acceptance criterion reads: ‘The introduction of the digital
strip system does not lead to a significant increase in the head down time’.
(ii) Measurability: The influence of the change on the head-down time can be assessed
before the change by means of real-time human-in-the-loop experiments in which
controllers are tasked to handle equal amounts of traffic in equal circumstances,
one time using paper strips and another time using digital strips. The percentage
of head-down time can then be determined by observing the controllers by
cameras and eye-trackers.
(9) Proxy 2: Fraction of erroneous SID allocations. The fraction of erroneous SID allocations
is a good proxy as it satisfies the conditions of:
(i) Causality: It can be imagined that an erroneous SID selected in the flight
management system (FMS) might lead to accidents, but the precise conditional
RISK MITIGATION
When the risk evaluation results show that the safety criteria cannot be satisfied, then the air traffic
services provider should either abandon the change or propose additional means of mitigating the
risk. If risk mitigation is proposed, then the air traffic services provider should ensure that it identifies:
(a) all of the elements of the functional system, e.g. training, procedures that need to be
reconsidered; and
(b) for each part of the amended change, those parts of the safety assessment (requirements from
(a) to (f)) that need to be repeated in order to demonstrate that the safety criteria will be
satisfied.
types of accident at the expense of others. More detailed management and control of
risk includes:
(i) Severity classes may be used as the basis for reporting accident statistics.
(ii) Severity classes combined with frequency (or probability) classes can be used to
define criteria for decision-making regarding risk acceptance.
(iii) The total risk associated with one or more severity classes can be managed and
controlled. For example, the sum of the risk from all severity classes represents the
total risk and may be used as a basis for making decisions about changes.
(iv) Similarly, the risk associated with accident types of different levels of severity can
be compared. For example, comparing runway infringement accidents with low
speed taxiway accidents would allow an organisation to focus their efforts on
mitigating the accident type with greatest risk.
(c) The air traffic services provider should coordinate its severity scheme(s) when performing multi-
actor changes to ensure adequate assessment. This includes coordination with air traffic
services providers outside of the EU.
VERIFICATION
The air traffic services provider should ensure that verification activities of the safety assessment
process include verification that:
(a) the full scope of the change is addressed throughout the whole assessment process, i.e. all the
elements of the functional system or environment of operation that are changed and those
unchanged elements that depend upon them and on which they depend are identified;
(b) the way the service behaves complies with and does not contradict any applicable requirements
placed on the changed service or the conditions attached to the providers certificate;
(c) the specification of the way the service behaves is complete and correct;
(d) the specification of the operational context is complete and correct;
(e) the risk analysis is complete as per AMC1 ATS.OR.205(b)(3);
(f) the safety requirements are correct and commensurate with the risk analysis;
(g) the design is complete and correct with reference to the specification and correctly addresses
the safety requirements;
(h) the design was the one analysed; and
(i) the implementation, to the intended degree of confidence, corresponds to that design and
behaves only as specified in the given operational context.
criteria rather than design criteria. Monitoring is, therefore, only applicable following entry into
service of the change.
(b) Monitoring is likely to be of internal parameters of the functional system that provide a good
indication of the performance of the service. These parameters may not be directly observable
at the service level, i.e. at the interface of the service with the operational context. For example,
where a function is provided by multiple redundant resources, the availability of the function
will be so high that monitoring it may not be useful. However, monitoring the availability of
individual resources, which fail much more often, may be a useful indicator of the performance
of the overall function.
(a) An air traffic services provider shall determine the safety acceptability of a change to a
functional system, based on the analysis of the risks posed by the introduction of the change,
differentiated on basis of types of operations and stakeholder classes, as appropriate.
(b) The safety acceptability of a change shall be assessed by using specific and verifiable safety
criteria, where each criterion is expressed in terms of an explicit, quantitative level of safety risk
or another measure that relates to safety risk.
(c) An air traffic services provider shall ensure that the safety criteria:
(1) are justified for the specific change, taking into account the type of change;
(2) when fulfilled, predict that the functional system after the change will be as safe as it was
before the change or the air traffic services provider shall provide an argument justifying
that:
(i) any temporary reduction in safety will be offset by future improvement in safety;
or
(ii) any permanent reduction in safety has other beneficial consequences;
(3) when taken collectively, ensure that the change does not create an unacceptable risk to
the safety of the service;
(4) support the improvement of safety whenever reasonably practicable.
(d) Proxies might be preferred where the extra effort needed to identify, describe and analyse a
complete set of sequences of events from the occurrence of a hazard to the occurrence of an
accident or incident has no added value in the safety assessment. The intrinsic reasons for the
amount of the extra effort are the number of significantly different event sequences, the
complexity of some accident scenarios, the existence of many barriers preventing the
occurrence of a hazard developing into an accident and the lack of evidence on the probability
of some events or the frequency of occurrence of some external circumstances and factors. The
usage of proxies might then make the safety assessment more tractable and comprehensible
and increase the quality of the risk analysis.
(e) The main advantages of proxies are the easy recognition of safety issues by operational staff
involved in the safety assessment, and the direct focus on the analysis and mitigation of the
identified hazards and safety issues introduced or affected by the change.
(f) The main disadvantage of using proxies is that it is not possible to express risk by a uniform
measure. However, the value of the proxy should be measurable.
(g) For further details on the use of proxies, please refer to GM1 to AMC1 ATS.OR.205(b)(4), which
contains two examples to assist in the selection and use of proxies in safety analysis.
An air traffic services provider shall ensure that air traffic controllers are properly licensed and hold a
valid medical certificate, in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2015/340.
ATS.OR.300 Scope
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
This section establishes the requirements to be met by the air traffic control service provider with
regard to human performance in order to:
(a) prevent and mitigate the risk that air traffic control service is provided by air traffic controllers
with problematic use of psychoactive substances;
(b) prevent and mitigate the negative effects of stress on air traffic controllers to ensure the safety
of air traffic;
(c) prevent and mitigate the negative effects of fatigue on air traffic controllers to ensure the safety
of air traffic.
(a) An air traffic control service provider shall develop and implement a policy, with related
procedures, in order to ensure that the problematic use of psychoactive substances does not
affect the provision of air traffic control service.
(b) Without prejudice to provisions laid down in Directive 95/46/EC of the European Parliament
and of the Council1 and to the applicable national legislation on testing of individuals, the air
traffic control service provider shall develop and implement an objective, transparent and non-
discriminatory procedure for the detection of cases of problematic use of psychoactive
substances by air traffic controllers. This procedure shall take into account provisions laid down
in point ATCO.A.015 of Regulation (EU) 2015/340.
(c) The procedure in point (b) shall be approved by the competent authority.
1 Directive 95/46/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 24 October 1995 on the protection of individuals with regard to
the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data (OJ L 281, 23.11.1995, p. 31).
POLICY
(a) Guidance for the development and implementation of the policy is contained in ICAO Doc 9654
‘Manual on Prevention of Problematic Use of Substances in the Aviation Workplace’, First
Edition - 1995, and in particular:
(1) Attachment A (pp. 27–34) as regards elements for the definition and the implementation
of policy and programme;
(2) Chapter 3 (pp. 9–12) as regards the identification, treatment, and rehabilitation of staff,
with related supporting material, available in Attachment C (pp. 61–68); and
(3) Attachment D (pp. 69–75) as regards the employment consequences of problematic use
of substances.
ATS.OR.310 Stress
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
In accordance with point ATS.OR.200, an air traffic control service provider shall:
(a) develop and maintain a policy for the management of air traffic controllers' stress, including the
implementation of a critical incident stress management programme;
(b) provide air traffic controllers with education and information programmes on the prevention of
stress, including critical incident stress, complementing human factors training provided in
accordance with Sections 3 and 4 of Subpart D of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2015/340.
same time encompassing the subjective experience of this pressure. Usually the term is
used in a negative way. In this sense, the lay use of the term ‘stress’ encompasses both
the cause and the effect, and this can lead to confusion as to its meaning.
(b) Technical definitions of stress
(1) Even in its technical use, the word ‘stress’ is sometimes used when the term ‘stressor’ (or
pressure) would be more appropriate, referring to the cause of a stress experience.
Stressors can be internal (cognitive or physical) or external (environmental) to the
individual and may be defined as any activity, event or other stimulus that causes the
individual to experience stress.
(2) It is helpful to clarify the way the term ‘stress’ and other technical terms are used. For
the purposes of this guidance material, stress is defined following the Transactional
Model of Stress. This views stress as the outcomes experienced by an individual when
faced with a potentially stressful event. The experience of the event as negatively
stressful (distress), neutral or positive (eustress) is based on the individual’s perception
of their ability to manage the event. Under this definition, stress is a manifestation in the
individual of usually negative effects, which can lead to a decrease in performance and
negative health effects.
(3) A stressor can also act to improve performance when it is a stimulus to increase arousal
and improves the outputs of an individual in the short to medium term. Too much arousal
paradoxically leads to an inverse effect and subsequent detriment in performance.
(4) Acute stress is, as its name suggests, episodic and occurring for short periods of time. In
most cases, the cause of the stress is eliminated by the air traffic controller taking action
to manage the situation leading to stress. High levels of acute stress may lead to hyper-
arousal and may leave an air traffic controller feeling exhausted. It is important to identify
work situations that lead to this acute stress and manage this within the work schedule.
(5) Chronic stress differs from acute stress only in that it is ongoing and even low levels of
continuous chronic stress can lead to performance degradation and serious health
implications, if it is not addressed. Chronic stress is insidious in its nature and a sufferer
may become so accustomed to the sensations that they are unaware of the long-term
negative effects. Chronic stress commonly leads to a sense of inability to cope.
(6) Both acute and chronic stresses have the potential to lead individuals into hyper-aroused
states which may result in panic where task and skill performance, planning, reasoning
and judgement are significantly impaired. In such instances, a well-practised but incorrect
action, for that particular circumstance, may be performed when an alternative and more
appropriate response is required.
(7) Chronic stress may result in a condition known as burnout. Burnout is generally identified
by the following characteristics: disaffection with the job leading to a decrease in
motivation with an associated decrease, perceived or otherwise, in performance.
(c) Sources of stress
Broadly speaking, the stress experienced by an air traffic controller at work is a function of their
underlying background levels of stress, related to lifestyle, health and well-being, personality,
organisational/work environment, levels of satisfaction with life generally, and the acute stress
imposed by and operational conditions at any given time. There are three major sources of
stress: environmental, work-related, and personal.
(3) Behavioural
(i) Self-medication, drugs or alcohol;
(ii) Excess fatigue;
(iii) Sleep disruption;
(iv) Social withdrawal;
(v) Absenteeism;
(vi) Staff turnover rates; and
(vii) Job performance decrements.
(e) Impact of stress on air traffic controllers’ performance of air traffic control tasks
Any source of stress has the potential to create unique subjective experiences in different
individuals, and these may be positive or negative experiences or something in between.
(f) Negative experiences of stress
There is a number of ways in which stress experienced by air traffic controllers can be
manifested in the performance of air traffic control tasks. Some of these are listed in Table 1,
but, in general terms, performance of tasks decreases due to the detrimental effects that high
levels of stress can have on perception, awareness, decision-making and judgement. In the
longer term, health and well-being may also be compromised, leading to decreased
performance of air traffic controllers.
Table 1 below shows the effects on air traffic controller performance which can be linked to
stress and which can potentially have very significant implications for the safety performance
of an operation.
Difficulty in concentrating and reduced vigilance — easily distracted.
Errors, omissions, mistakes, incorrect actions, poor judgment and memory.
Tendency to cut corners, skip items and look for the easiest way out.
Either slowness (due to lack of interest) or hyperactivity (due to adrenaline).
Focusing on easily manageable details while ignoring serious threats.
Tendency to pass responsibility on to others.
Fixation on single issues or even a mental block.
Unwillingness to make decisions — decisions are postponed or take longer to be made.
Fewer plans and backup plans are made.
Increase in risk-taking, leading to an increase in the number of violations, especially when frustrated
with failures.
Excessively hurried actions — due to adrenaline and alertness level, there is a tendency to act very
quickly even when there is no time pressure. Hurried actions increase the chance of errors.
In cases of significantly high stress, a controller will often:
(1) return to old procedures that may no longer be applicable, appropriate or safe;
(2) use non-standard phraseology when communicating;
(3) return to the use of one’s native language; and/or
(4) look for items in a place where they used to be, but are no longer located.
Table 1: Effects of stress on physical and mental performance of air traffic control tasks
(b) In accordance with the policy in point (a), the air traffic control service provider should establish
and implement:
(1) procedures for critical incident stress management;
(2) principles and procedures to enable stress reporting;
(3) principles and procedures for occurrence investigation and analysis to consider stress as
contributing factor; and
(4) method(s) for the identification and management of the effect of air traffic controllers’
stress on the safety of operations.
ATS.OR.315 Fatigue
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
In accordance with point ATS.OR.200, an air traffic control service provider shall:
(a) develop and maintain a policy for the management of air traffic controllers' fatigue;
(b) provide air traffic controllers with information programmes on the prevention of fatigue,
complementing human factors training provided in accordance with Sections 3 and 4 of
Subpart D of Annex I to Regulation (EU) 2015/340.
EFFECTS OF FATIGUE
Guidance material on fatigue and its effects on safety-relevant aviation professionals may be found in
Chapter 2 ‘Scientific principles for fatigue management’ of ICAO Doc 9966 ‘Manual for the Oversight
of Fatigue Management Approaches’, second edition 2016.
FATIGUE TAXONOMY
When establishing procedures to enable air traffic controllers to report when fatigued, an associated
taxonomy for fatigue should be established.
(iv) swapped shifts between air traffic controllers and impact on the established
fatigue management principles;
(3) verification of the use and of the effectiveness of the procedure allowing air traffic
controllers to self-declare fatigue, when such procedure is established; and
(4) analysis if specific roster patterns generate fatigue and, as a consequence, sickness or
cases of provisional inability in accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) 2015/340.
INFORMATION PROGRAMMES
Information programmes may consist of lectures, leaflets, posters, CDs, and any other informative
material to raise the awareness of the effects of fatigue on the individuals and on air traffic control
service provision, and to advise on the need and the means to manage it. When choosing the most
appropriate information programme and the medium, the air traffic control service provider should
evaluate the level of awareness of its staff of fatigue management, the type of operations (e.g. single-
person operations, nightshifts), and the periodicity of human factors training in the scope of refresher
training.
INFORMATION PROGRAMMES
Scientific material proposed as guidance for information programmes on fatigue may be found in the
document ‘Fatigue and Sleep Management: Personal strategies for decreasing the effects of fatigue
in air traffic control’ (Brussels: Human Factors Management Business Division (DAS/HUM),
EUROCONTROL, 2005).
(a) An air traffic control service provider shall develop, implement and monitor a rostering system
in order to manage the risks of occupational fatigue of air traffic controllers through a safe
alternation of duty and rest periods. Within the rostering system, the air traffic control service
provider shall specify the following elements:
(1) maximum consecutive working days with duty;
(2) maximum hours per duty period;
(3) maximum time providing air traffic control service without breaks;
(4) the ratio of duty periods to breaks when providing air traffic control service;
(5) minimum rest periods;
(6) maximum consecutive duty periods encroaching the night time, if applicable, depending
upon the operating hours of the air traffic control unit concerned;
(7) minimum rest period after a duty period encroaching the night time;
(8) minimum number of rest periods within a roster cycle.
(b) An air traffic control services provider shall consult those air traffic controllers who will be
subject to the rostering system, or, as applicable, their representatives, during its development
and its application, to identify and mitigate risks concerning fatigue which could be due to the
rostering system itself.
NIGHT TIME
Night time should be considered as the time between midnight and 05.59.
(a) An air traffic services provider shall be able to demonstrate that its working methods and
operating procedures are compliant with:
(1) Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012; and
(2) the standards laid down in the following Annexes to the Chicago Convention, as far as
they are relevant to the provision of air traffic services in the airspace concerned:
(i) Annex 10 on aeronautical telecommunications, Volume II on communication
procedures including those with PANS Status in its 6th edition of October 2001,
including all amendments up to and including No 89;
(ii) without prejudice to Regulation (EU) No 923/2012, Annex 11 on air traffic services
in its 13th edition of July 2001, including all amendments up to and including
No 49.
(b) Notwithstanding point (a), for air traffic services units providing services for flight testing, the
competent authority may specify additional or alternative conditions and procedures to those
contained in point (a) when so required for the provision of services for flight testing.
SPECIAL AND ALTERNATIVE CONDITIONS AND OPERATING PROCEDURES FOR ATS PROVIDERS PROVIDING
SERVICES TO FLIGHT TESTS
(a) While flight tests are regularly conducted in compliance with the standards and the provision
specified in ATS.TR.100(a), some of them need to follow specific additional or alternative
conditions and procedures approved by the competent authority to meet the needs of flight
tests carried out during the flight. This is also the case for flight tests involving more than one
aircraft in the same flight test. These special provisions will not jeopardise the safety of the
other airspace users and the population in the area overflown.
(b) In order to ensure safe operations within the provision of air traffic service for flight tests
control, the air traffic controllers providing these services may need to have specific knowledge
of flight tests and/or be briefed, depending on the specificities of the flight profiles.
(c) Air traffic controllers that provide air traffic services to flight tests (flight test ATCOs) may need
to obtain their specific competence through a dedicated training as specified in Commission
Regulation (EU) 2015/340.
(d) Air traffic services for flight test should be provided through dedicated and specific procedures.
These procedures should address:
(1) Compatibility with other airspace users
(i) In order to ensure the compatibility of the flight test with other airspace users and
to ensure safe operations and an acceptable rate of success of flight test, the air
traffic services provider should ensure proper coordination at all levels, including
strategic, pre-tactical and real-time coordination.
(ii) An air traffic services unit providing services to flight test is responsible for ensuring
compatibility of their activities with other airspace users.
(2) Flight plan
The air traffic services unit should obtain all the necessary details related to flight tests
(e.g. from the design organisation or the entity wishing to carry out the flight test).
(3) Flight tests with limited manoeuvrability
During certain phases of the flight test, the capability to normally perform manoeuvres
may only be possible after a necessary period of time (e.g. for the flight crew to get into
a configuration that allows the execution of these manoeuvres).
The air traffic services provider should obtain the necessary information about the phases
of flight and the duration if known.
For the conduct of these flights, the use of a temporarily reserved area is preferred. If
unable, after prior coordination with the relevant air traffic services units neighbouring
the flight tests, the use of a transponder should be mandated.
This real-time information does not relieve the air traffic services unit responsible for
providing services to the flight tests from the obligation to ensure traffic separation and
assure compatibility with all airspace users.
(e) The above-mentioned procedures are not exhaustive and additional provisions may be
necessary to meet the needs of flight tests. The paramount principle is anyhow to make
provisions without contradicting the standards and the provision specified in ATS.TR.100(a).
ANNEX V — PART-MET
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF
METEOROLOGICAL SERVICES
SUBPART A — ADDITIONAL ORGANISATION REQUIREMENTS
FOR PROVIDERS OF METEOROLOGICAL SERVICES (MET.OR)
(a) A meteorological services provider shall provide operators, flight crew members, air traffic
services units, search and rescue services units, aerodrome operators, accident and incident
investigation bodies, and other service providers and aviation entities with the meteorological
information necessary for the performance of their respective functions, as determined by the
competent authority.
(b) A meteorological services provider shall confirm the operationally desirable accuracy of the
information distributed for operations, including the source of such information, whilst also
ensuring that such information is distributed in a timely manner and updated, as required.
INFORMATION TO BE PROVIDED
An agreement between the meteorological services provider and the appropriate ATS unit should be
established to cover:
(a) the provision in air traffic services units of displays related to integrated automatic systems;
(b) the calibration and maintenance of these displays/instruments;
(c) the use to be made of these displays/instruments by air traffic services personnel;
(d) as and where necessary, supplementary visual observations, such as meteorological
phenomena of operational significance in the climb-out and approach areas, if and when made
by air traffic services personnel to update or supplement the information supplied by the
meteorological station;
(e) meteorological information obtained from aircraft taking off or landing such as on wind shear;
and
(f) if available, meteorological information obtained from ground weather radar.
(a) A meteorological services provider shall retain meteorological information issued for a period
of at least 30 days from the date of issue.
(b) This meteorological information shall be made available, on request, for inquiries or
investigations and, for these purposes, shall be retained until the inquiry or investigation is
completed.
A meteorological services provider shall ensure it has systems and processes in place, as well as access
to suitable telecommunications facilities to:
(a) enable the exchange of operational meteorological information with other meteorological
services providers;
(b) provide the required meteorological information to the users in a timely manner.
GENERAL
Operational meteorological information is disseminated to international OPMET databanks and the
centres for the operation of aeronautical fixed service satellite distribution systems.
OPMET DATABANK
The list of relevant meteorological exchange requirements for OPMET can be found in the FASID tables
in ICAO Doc 7754 (EUR ANP).
The meteorological services provider responsible for the area concerned shall provide meteorological
bulletins to the relevant users, via the aeronautical fixed service or the internet.
The meteorological services provider responsible for the area concerned shall, using WAFS BUFR data,
notify the WAFC concerned immediately if significant discrepancies are detected or reported in
respect of WAFS significant weather (SIGWX) forecasts, concerning:
(a) icing, turbulence, cumulonimbus clouds that are obscured, frequent, embedded, or occurring
at a squall line, and sandstorms/dust storms;
(b) volcanic eruptions or a release of radioactive materials into the atmosphere of significance to
aircraft operations.
ROUTINE OBSERVATIONS
Meteorological stations should make routine observations throughout the 24 hours of each day or as
determined by the competent authority.
METAR
At aerodromes that are not operational throughout the 24 hours, the issuance of a METAR should
commence at least 3 hours prior to the aerodrome resuming operations, or as agreed between the
meteorological services provider and the operators concerned to meet pre-flight and in-flight planning
requirements for flights due to arrive at the aerodrome as soon as it is opened for use.
(e) concise description of the event including, as appropriate, level of intensity of volcanic activity,
occurrence of an eruption and its date and time and the existence of a volcanic ash cloud in the
area together with direction of ash cloud movement and height.
DISPLAY
Where automated equipment forms part of an integrated semi-automatic observing system, displays
of data which are made available to the local ATS units should be a subset of and displayed parallel to
those available in the aeronautical meteorological stations or meteorological offices. In those displays,
each meteorological element should be annotated to identify, as appropriate, the locations for which
the element is representative.
PREPARATION OF FORECASTS
The extent of the aerodrome meteorological office responsibilities to prepare forecasts may relate to
the local availability and use of en-route and aerodrome forecast material received from other offices.
COMPETENT AUTHORITY
The competent authority identifies the types of forecasts and other meteorological information that
need to be provided by the aerodrome meteorological office to flights with which it is concerned.
FORMAT OF FORECASTS
The length of the forecast messages and the number of changes indicated in the forecast should be
kept to a minimum.
AUTOMATIC CANCELLATION
The issue of a new forecast by an aerodrome meteorological office, such as a routine aerodrome
forecast, automatically cancels any forecast of the same type previously issued for the same place and
for the same period of validity or part thereof.
AMENDMENTS TO WARNINGS
If it is known that an existing warning no longer accurately describes the existing or expected future
evolution of the phenomena, a new warning, correctly describing the hazard should be issued
(avoiding the use of the code word ‘AMD’, not included in the templates for warnings), followed
immediately by the cancellation of the original, erroneous one. The new warning should be issued
before the cancellation in order to ensure there is always a warning in force and that the cancellation
is not mistakenly understood to mean the hazard has completely dissipated.
PRE-FLIGHT PLANNING
The service for pre-flight planning should be confined to flights originating within the territory of the
State concerned.
FLIGHT DOCUMENTATION
‘Flight documentation’, for the purpose of meteorology, is understood as being documents, including
charts or forms, containing meteorological information for a flight.
CLIMATOLOGICAL INFORMATION
The aerodrome meteorological office should make available such climatological tables within a time
period as agreed between the competent authority and the relevant user.
(a) An aerodrome meteorological office shall issue aerodrome forecasts as a TAF at a specified
time.
(b) When issuing TAF, the aerodrome meteorological office shall ensure that not more than one
TAF is valid at an aerodrome at any given time.
DISSEMINATION OF TAF
TAF and amendments thereto are disseminated to international OPMET databanks and the centres
designated for the operation of aeronautical fixed service satellite distribution systems.
(a) An aerodrome meteorological office shall prepare forecasts for landing as determined by the
competent authority.
(b) This forecast for landing shall be issued in the form of a TREND forecast.
(c) The period of validity of a TREND forecast shall be 2 hours from the time of the report which
forms part of the landing forecast.
RANGE
Landing forecasts are intended to meet the requirements of local users and of aircraft within about
one hour’s flying time from the aerodrome.
PREPARATION
As all the aerodromes do not need to be provided with forecasts for landing, the competent authority
determines on which aerodromes these types of forecasts will be provided by the aerodrome
meteorological office.
TREND FORECAST
A TREND forecast is understood as being a concise statement of the expected significant changes in
the meteorological conditions at that aerodrome to be appended to a METAR, and if agreed between
the aeronautical meteorological station and the appropriate ATS unit as well in a local routine report
and local special report.
CANCELLATION OF WARNINGS
The criteria for the cancellation of a wind shear warnings are defined locally for each aerodrome, as
agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office, the appropriate ATS units and the operators
concerned.
(a) An aerodrome meteorological office shall provide operators and flight crew members with:
(1) forecasts, originating from the WAFS, of the elements listed in points (1) and (2) of point
MET.OR.275(a);
(2) METAR or SPECI, including TREND forecasts, TAF or amended TAF for the aerodromes of
departure and intended landing, and for take-off, en-route and destination alternate
aerodromes;
(3) aerodrome forecasts for take-off;
(4) SIGMET and special air-reports relevant to the whole route;
(5) volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisory information relevant to the whole route;
(6) area forecasts for low-level flights in chart form prepared in support of the issuance of an
AIRMET message, and an AIRMET message for low-level flights relevant to the whole
route;
(7) aerodrome warnings for the local aerodrome;
(8) meteorological satellite images;
(9) ground-based weather radar information.
(b) Whenever the meteorological information to be included in the flight documentation differs
materially from that made available for flight planning, the aerodrome meteorological office
shall:
(1) advise immediately the operator or flight crew concerned;
(2) if practicable, provide the revised meteorological information in agreement with the
operator.
GENERAL
Forecasts of upper-air humidity and geopotential altitude of flight levels are used only in automatic
flight planning and do not need to be displayed.
SIGMET
Special air-reports supplied to operators and flight crew members will be those not already used in
the preparation of SIGMET.
(a) An aerodrome meteorological office shall provide, as necessary, its associate aerodrome control
tower with:
(1) local routine and special reports, METAR, TAF and TREND forecasts and amendments
thereto;
(2) SIGMET and AIRMET information, wind shear warnings and alerts and aerodrome
warnings;
(3) any additional meteorological information agreed upon locally, such as forecasts of
surface wind for the determination of possible runway changes;
(4) information received on volcanic ash cloud, for which a SIGMET has not already been
issued, as agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office and the aerodrome
control tower concerned;
(5) information received on pre-eruption volcanic activity and/or a volcanic eruption as
agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office and the aerodrome control tower
concerned.
(b) An aerodrome meteorological office shall provide its associate approach control unit with:
(1) local routine and special reports, METAR, TAF and TREND forecasts and amendments
thereto;
(2) SIGMET and AIRMET information, wind shear warnings and alerts and appropriate special
air-reports and aerodrome warnings;
(3) any additional meteorological information agreed upon locally;
(4) information received on volcanic ash cloud, for which a SIGMET has not already been
issued, as agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office and the approach
control unit concerned;
(5) information received on pre-eruption volcanic activity and/or a volcanic eruption as
agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office and the approach control unit
concerned.
BOUNDARIES
The boundaries of the area over which meteorological watch is to be maintained by a meteorological
watch office should be coincident with the boundaries of a flight information region or a control area
or a combination of flight information regions and/or control areas.
AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT
If the information requested from an aircraft in flight is not available in the associated meteorological
watch office, that meteorological watch office should request the assistance of another
meteorological office in providing it.
DIGITAL FORMAT
In addition to the issuance of SIGMET information in abbreviated plain language, SIGMET information
should be issued in a digital format.
DISSEMINATION
(a) SIGMET messages are disseminated to meteorological watch offices and WAFCs and to other
meteorological offices. SIGMET messages for volcanic ash are also disseminated to VAACs.
(b) SIGMET messages are disseminated to international OPMET databanks and the centres
designated for the operation of aeronautical fixed service satellite distribution systems.
SOURCE
SIGMET messages concerning volcanic ash clouds and tropical cyclones should be based on advisory
information provided by VAACs and Tropical Cyclone Advisory Centres (TCACs), respectively.
DIGITAL FORMAT
In addition to the issuance of AIRMET information in abbreviated plain language, AIRMET information
should be issued in a digital format.
DISSEMINATION
(a) AIRMET messages are disseminated to meteorological watch offices in adjacent flight
information regions and to other meteorological watch offices or aerodrome meteorological
offices, as agreed by the competent authorities concerned.
(b) AIRMET messages are transmitted to international operational meteorological databanks and
the centres for the operation of aeronautical fixed service internet-based services.
ALPHANUMERICAL FORMAT
The format of the meteorological bulletins is understood to be that in alphanumerical format.
HEADING
Detailed specifications on format and contents of the heading are given in the WMO Publication
No 386, Manual on the Global Telecommunication System, Volume I, and in the ICAO Manual of
Aeronautical Meteorological Practice (ICAO Doc 8896).
LOCATION INDICATOR
ICAO location indicators are listed in ICAO Doc 7910 - Location Indicators.
(a) Local routine and local special reports and METAR shall contain the following elements in the
order indicated:
(1) identification of the type of report;
(2) location indicator;
(3) time of the observation;
(4) identification of an automated or missing report, when applicable;
(5) surface wind direction and speed;
(6) visibility;
(7) runway visual range, when the reporting criteria are met;
(8) present weather;
(9) cloud amount, cloud type only for cumulonimbus and towering cumulus clouds and
height of cloud base or, where measured, vertical visibility;
(10) air temperature and dew-point temperature;
(11) QNH and, when applicable, in local routine and local special reports, QFE;
(12) supplementary information, when applicable.
(b) In local routine and local special reports:
(1) if the surface wind is observed from more than one location along the runway, the
locations for which these values are representative shall be indicated;
(2) when there is more than one runway in use and the surface wind related to these
runways is observed, the available wind values for each runway shall be given, and the
runways to which the values refer shall be reported;
(3) when variations from the mean wind direction are reported in accordance with point
MET.TR.205(a)(3)(ii)(B), the two extreme directions between which the surface wind has
varied shall be reported;
(4) when variations from the mean wind speed (gusts) are reported in accordance with point
MET.TR.205(a)(3)(iii), they shall be reported as the maximum and minimum values of the
wind speed attained.
(c) METAR
(1) METAR shall be issued in accordance with the template shown in Appendix 1 and
disseminated in the METAR code form prescribed by the World Meteorological
Organisation.
(11) when the amount of a cloud layer below 1 500 ft (450 m) changes:
(i) from scattered (SCT) or less to broken (BKN) or overcast (OVC); or
(ii) from BKN or OVC to SCT or less.
(f) When so agreed between the meteorological services provider and the competent authority,
local special reports shall be issued whenever the following changes occur:
(1) when the wind changes through values of operational significance. The threshold values
shall be established by the meteorological service provider in consultation with the
appropriate ATS unit and operators concerned, taking into account changes in the wind
which would:
(i) require a change in runway(s) in use;
(ii) indicate that the runway tailwind and crosswind components have changed
through values representing the main operating limits for typical aircraft operating
at the aerodrome;
(2) when the visibility is improving and changes to or passes through one or more of the
following values, or when the visibility is deteriorating and passes through one or more
of the following values:
(i) 800, 1 500 or 3 000 m;
(ii) 5 000 m, in cases where significant numbers of flights are operated in accordance
with the visual flight rules;
(3) when the runway visual range is improving and changes to or passes through one or more
of the following values, or when the runway visual range is deteriorating and passes
through one or more of the following values: 50, 175, 300, 550 or 800 m;
(4) when the onset, cessation or change in intensity of any of the following weather
phenomena occurs:
(i) dust storm;
(ii) sandstorm;
(iii) funnel cloud (tornado or waterspout);
(5) when the onset or cessation of any of the following weather phenomena occurs:
(i) low drifting dust, sand or snow;
(ii) blowing dust, sand or snow;
(iii) squall;
(6) when the height of base of the lowest cloud layer of BKN or OVC extent is lifting and
changes to or passes through one or more of the following values, or when the height of
base of the lowest cloud layer of BKN or OVC extent is lowering and passes through one
or more of the following values:
(i) 100, 200, 500 or 1 000 ft (30, 60, 150 or 300 m);
(ii) 1 500 ft (450 m), in cases where significant numbers of flights are operated in
accordance with the visual flight rules;
(7) when the sky is obscured and the vertical visibility is improving and changes to or passes
through one or more of the following values, or when the vertical visibility is deteriorating
and passes through one or more of the following values: 100, 200, 500 or 1 000 ft (30, 60,
150 or 300 m);
(8) any other criteria based on local aerodrome operating minima, as agreed between the
meteorological services providers and the operators.
TEMPLATE FOR THE LOCAL ROUTINE REPORTS AND LOCAL SPECIAL REPORTS
Local routine reports and local special reports should be issued in abbreviated plain language, in
accordance with the below template.
Template for the local routine (MET REPORT) and local special (SPECIAL) reports
Key:
M = inclusion mandatory, part of every message;
C = inclusion conditional, dependent on meteorological conditions;
O = inclusion optional.
Detailed
Element Template(s) Examples
content
Identification Type of report MET REPORT or SPECIAL MET REPORT
of the type of SPECIAL
report (M)
Location ICAO location nnnn YUDO
indicator (M) indicator (M)
Time of the Day and actual nnnnnnZ 221630Z
observation time of the
(M) observation in
UTC
Identification Automated AUTO AUTO
of an report
automated identifier (C)
report (C)
Surface wind Name of the WIND WIND 240/4MPS
(M) element (M) (WIND 240/8KT)
Runway (O) RWY nn[L] or RWY nn[C] or RWY nn[R]
Runway TDZ WIND RWY 18 TDZ
section (O) 190/6MPS
Wind direction nnn/ VRB BTN nnn/ C (WIND RWY 18 TDZ
(M) AND nnn/ A 190/12KT)
or VRB L
Wind speed [ABV]n[n][n]MPS (or [ABV]n[n]KT) M WIND VRB1MPS
(M) WIND
Significant MAX[ABV]nn[n] MNMn[n] CALM
speed (WIND VRB2KT)
variations (C) WIND VRB BTN 350/
Significant VRB BTN nnn/ — AND 050/1MPS
directional AND nnn/ (WIND VRB BTN 350/
variations (C) AND 050/2KT)
Runway MID
section (O) WIND 270/ABV49MPS
Detailed
Element Template(s) Examples
content
Wind direction nnn/ VRB BTN nnn/ C (WIND 270/ABV99KT)
(O) AND nnn/ A
or VRB L WIND 120/3MPS
Wind speed [ABV]n[n][n]MPS (or [ABV]n[n]KT) M MAX9 MNM2
(O) (WIND 120/6KT
Significant MAX[ABV]nn[n] MNMn[n] MAX18 MNM4)
speed
variations (C) WIND 020/5MPS VRB
Significant VRB BTN nnn/ — BTN 350/ AND 070/
directional AND nnn/ (WIND 020/10KT VRB
variations (C) BTN 350/ AND 070/)
Runway END
section (O) WIND RWY 14R MID
Wind direction nnn/ VRB BTN nnn/ C 140/6MPS
(O) AND nnn/ A (WIND RWY 14R MID
or VRB L 140/12KT)
Wind speed [ABV]n[n][n]MPS (or [ABV]n[n]KT) M
(O) WIND RWY 27 TDZ
Significant MAX[ABV]nn[n] MNMn[n] 240/8MPS
speed MAX14 MNM5 END
variations (C) 250/7MPS
Significant VRB BTN nnn/ — (WIND RWY 27 TDZ
directional AND nnn/ 240/16KT
variations (C) MAX28 MNM10 END
250/14KT)
Visibility (M) Name of the VIS C VIS 350M
element (M) A CAVOK
Runway (O) RWY nn[L] or RWY nn[C] or RWY nn[R] V VIS 7KM
Runway TDZ O VIS 10KM
section (O) K VIS RWY 09 TDZ 800M
Visibility (M) n[n][n][n]M or n[n]KM END 1200M
Runway MID VIS RWY 18C TDZ 6KM
section (O) RWY 27 TDZ 4000M
Visibility (O) n[n][n][n]M or n[n]KM
Runway END
section (O)
Visibility (O) n[n][n][n]M or n[n]KM
Runway visual Name of the RVR RVR RWY 32 400M
range (C) element (M) RVR RWY 20 1600M
Runway (C) RWY nn[L] or RWY nn[C] or RWY nn[R] RVR RWY 10L BLW
Runway TDZ 50M
section (C) RVR RWY 14 ABV
Runway visual [ABV or BLW] nn[n][n]M 2000M
range (M) RVR RWY 10 BLW
Runway MID 150M
section (C) RVR RWY 12 ABV
Runway visual [ABV or BLW] nn[n][n]M 1200M
range (C) RVR RWY 12 TDZ
Runway END 1100M MID ABV
section (C) 1400M
Detailed
Element Template(s) Examples
content
Runway visual [ABV or BLW] nn[n][n]M RVR RWY 16 TDZ
range (C) 600M MID 500M END
400M
RVR RWY 26 500M
RWY 20 800M
Present Intensity of FBL or —
weather (C) present MOD or
weather (C) HVY
Characteristics DZ or RA or FG or BR or MOD RA
and type of SN or SG or SA or DU or HVY TSRA
present PL or DS or HZ or FU or HVY DZ
weather (C) SS or FZDZ or VA or SQ or FBL SN
FZUP or FC or PO or TS or HZ
FZRA or SHGR or BCFG or BLDU FG
SHGS or SHRA or or BLSA or VA
SHSN or SHUP or BLSN or DRDU MIFG
TSGR or TSGS or or DRSA or
TSRA or TSSN or DRSN or FZFG HVY TSRASN
TSUP12 or UP or MIFG or FBL SNRA
PRFG or
// FBL DZ FG
HVY SHSN BLSN
HVY TSUP
//
Cloud (M) Name of the CLD CLD NSC
element (M) CLD SCT 300M OVC
Runway (O) RWY nn[L] or RWY nn[C] or RWY nn[R] 600M
Cloud amount FEW or OBSC NSC or NCD (CLD SCT 1000FT OVC
(M) or SCT or 2000FT)
vertical BKN or
visibility (O) OVC or CLD OBSC VER VIS
/// 150M
Cloud type (C) CB or TCU — (CLD OBSC VER VIS
or /// 500FT)
Height of n[n][n][n] [VER VIS CLD BKN TCU 270M
cloud base or M n[n][n]M(o (CLD BKN TCU 900FT)
the value of (or r VER VIS CLD RWY 08R BKN
vertical n[n][n][n] n[n][n][n]F 60M RWY 26 BKN 90M
visibility (C) FT) T)] (CLD RWY 08R BKN
or or 200FT RWY 26 BKN
///M VER VIS 300FT)
(or ///M CLD /// CB ///M (CLD
///FT) (or VER VIS /// CB ///FT)
///FT) CLD /// CB 400M (CLD
/// CB 1200FT)
CLD NCD
Name of the T T17
element (M) TMS08
Detailed
Element Template(s) Examples
content
Air Air [MS]nn
temperature temperature
(M) (M)
Dew-point Name of the DP DP15
temperature element (M) DPMS18
(M) Dew-point [MS]nn
temperature
(M)
Pressure Name of the QNH QNH 0995HPA
values (M) element (M) QNH 1009HPA
QNH (M) nnnnHPA
Name of the QFE QNH 1022HPA QFE
element (O) 1001HPA
QFE (O) [RWY nn[L] or RWY nn[C] or RWY nn[R]] QNH 0987HPA QFE
nnnnHPA RWY 18 0956HPA
[RWY nn[L] or RWY nn[C] or RWY nn[R] RWY 24 0955HPA
nnnnHPA]
Supplementary Significant CB or TS or MOD TURB or SEV TURB or WS or FC IN APCH
information (C) meteorological GR or SEV SQL or MOD ICE or SEV ICE or FZDZ WS IN APCH 60M-
phenomena or FZRA or SEV MTW or SS or DS or BLSN or FC WIND 360/13MPS
(C) WS RWY 12
Location of the IN APCH [n[n][n][n]M-WIND nnn/n[n]MPS] or
phenomena IN CLIMB-OUT [n[n][n][n]M-WIND REFZRA
(C) nnn/n[n]MPS] CB IN CLIMB-OUT
(IN APCH [n[n][n][n]FT-WIND nnn/n[n]KT] or RETSRA
IN CLIMB-OUT [n[n][n][n]FT-WIND
nnn/n[n]KT]) or
RWY nn[L] or RWY nn[C] or RWY nn[R]
Recent REFZDZ or REFZRA or REDZ or RE[SH]RA or
weather (C) RE[SH]SN or RESG or RESHGR or RESHGS or
REBLSN or RESS or REDS or RETSRA or RETSSN
or RETSGR or RETSGS or REFC or REPL or REUP
or REFZUP or RETSUP or RESHUP or REVA or
RETS
Trend forecast Name of the TREND TREND NOSIG TREND
(O) element (M) BECMG FEW 600M
Change NOSIG BECMG or TEMPO
indicator (M) (TREND BECMG
Period of FMnnnn and/or TLnnnn or FEW 2000FT)
change (C) ATnnnn
Wind (C) nnn/[ABV]n[n][n]MPS TREND TEMPO 250/18
[MAX[ABV]nn[n]] MPS MAX25
(or nnn/[ABV]n[n]KT (TREND TEMPO
[MAX[ABV]nn]) 250/36KT MAX50)
Visibility (C) VIS n[n][n][n]M or C
VIS n[n]KM A TREND BECMG AT1800
Weather FBL or — NSW V VIS 10KM NSW
phenomenon: MOD or O TREND BECMG TL1700
intensity (C) HVY K VIS 800M FG
Weather DZ or FG or
phenomenon: RA or BR or
Detailed
Element Template(s) Examples
content
characteristics SN or SA or TREND BECMG
and SG or DU or FM1030 TL1130
type (C) PL or HZ or CAVOK
DS or FU or
SS or VA or TREND TEMPO TL1200
FZDZ or SQ Or VIS 600M BECMG
FZRA or PO or AT1230 VIS 8KM NSW
SHGR or FC or CLD NSC
SHGS or TS or TREND TEMPO
SHRA or BCFG or FM0300 TL0430 MOD
SHSN or BLDU FZRA
TSGR or or BLSA TREND BECMG
TSGS or or BLSN FM1900 VIS 500M HVY
TSRA or or SNRA
TSSN DRDU TREND BECMG
or FM1100 MOD SN
DRSA TEMPO
or FM1130 BLSN
DRSN
or FZFG TREND BECMG AT1130
or CLD OVC 300M
MIFG (TREND BECMG
or PRFG AT1130 CLD OVC
Name of the CLD 1000FT)
element (C)
Cloud amount FEW or OBSC NSC TREND TEMPO TL1530
and vertical SCT or BKN HVY SHRA CLD BKN CB
visibility (C) or OVC 360M
Cloud type (C) CB or TCU — (TREND TEMPO
Height of n[n][n][n] [VER TL1530 HVY SHRA CLD
cloud base or M (or VIS BKN CB 1200FT)
the value of n[n][n][n]F n[n][n]
vertical T) M (or
visibility (C) VER VIS
n[n][n][
n]FT)]
RANGES AND RESOLUTIONS — LOCAL ROUTINE REPORTS AND LOCAL SPECIAL REPORTS
(a) The ranges and resolutions for the numerical elements included in the local routine reports and
local special reports are shown below.
Ranges and resolutions for the numerical elements included in local routine reports and local special
reports
Element elements included in the local routine
Range Resolution
reports and local special reports
Runway: 01–36 1
Wind direction: °true 010–360 10
Wind speed: MPS 1– 99* 1
KT 1– 199* 1
Visibility: M 0– 750 50
M 800– 4 900 100
KM 5– 9 1
KM 10– 0 (fixed value: 10 KM)
Runway visual range: M 0– 375 25
M 400–750 50
M 800–2 000 100
Vertical visibility: M 0–75 15
M 90–600 30
FT 0–250 50
FT 300–2 000 100
Clouds: height of cloud base: M 0–75 15
M 90–3 000 30
FT 0–250 50
FT 300–10 000 100
Air temperature; °C –80 – +60 1
Dew-point temperature:
QNH; QFE: hPa 0500–1 100 1
* There is no aeronautical requirement to report surface wind speeds of 100 kt (50 m/s) or more; however,
provision has been made for reporting wind speeds up to 199 kt (99 m/s) for non-aeronautical purposes, as
necessary.
** Under circumstances as specified in AMC1 MET.TR.205(e)(1); otherwise a resolution of 100 ft (30 m) is to
be used.
(b) The explanations for the abbreviations can be found in the Procedures for Air Navigation
Services — ICAO Abbreviations and Codes (PANS-ABC, ICAO Doc 8400).
LOCATION INDICATORS
The location indicators and their significations are published in ICAO Doc 7910 - Location Indicators.
AUTOMATED REPORTING
Local routine reports and local special reports and METAR from automatic observing systems should
be identified with the word ‘AUTO’.
AUTOMATED REPORTING
METAR, local routine reports and local special reports from automatic observing systems may be used
as agreed between the aeronautical meteorological stations and the users.
(b) In local routine reports and local special reports when reported by a semi-automatic observing
system, the following significant meteorological conditions, or combinations thereof, should be
reported in the supplementary information:
(1) cumulonimbus clouds (CB);
(2) thunderstorm (TS);
(3) moderate or severe turbulence (MOD TURB, SEV TURB);
(4) wind shear (WS);
(5) hail (GR);
(6) severe squall line (SEV SQL);
(7) moderate or severe icing (MOD ICE, SEV ICE);
(8) freezing precipitation (FZDZ, FZRA);
(9) severe mountain waves (SEV MTW);
(10) dust storm, sandstorm (DS, SS);
(11) blowing snow (BLSN); and
(12) funnel cloud (tornado or water spout) (FC).
The location of the condition should be indicated. Where necessary, additional information
should be included using abbreviated plain language.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION — SEA-SURFACE TEMPERATURE AND STATE OF THE SEA AND OF THE
RUNWAY
In METAR, information on sea-surface temperature and the state of the sea or the significant wave
height, from aeronautical meteorological stations established on offshore structures in support of
helicopter operations, should be included in the supplementary information.
* Fictitious location
* Fictitious location
(2) Any observed value which does not fit the reporting scale in use shall be rounded down
to the nearest lower step in the scale.
(3) In local routine and local special reports, visibility along the runway(s) shall be reported
together with the units of measurement used to indicate visibility.
(c) Runway visual range (RVR)
(1) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR, the RVR shall be reported in steps
of 25 m when it is less than 400 m; in steps of 50 m when it is between 400 and 800 m;
and in steps of 100 m when it is more than 800 m.
(2) Any observed value which does not fit the reporting scale in use shall be rounded down
to the nearest lower step in the scale.
(3) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR:
(i) when the RVR is above the maximum value that can be determined by the system
in use, it shall be reported using the abbreviation ‘ABV’ in local routine and local
special reports, and the abbreviation ‘P’ in METAR followed by the maximum value
that can be determined by the system;
(ii) when the RVR is below the minimum value that can be determined by the system
in use, it shall be reported using the abbreviation ‘BLW’ in local routine and local
special reports, and the abbreviation ‘M’ in METAR, followed by the minimum
value that can be determined by the system.
(4) In local routine and local special reports:
(i) the units of measurement used shall be included;
(ii) if the RVR is observed from only one location along the runway, such as the
touchdown zone, it shall be included without any indication of location;
(iii) if the RVR is observed from more than one location along the runway, the value
representative of the touchdown zone shall be reported first, followed by the
values representative of the mid-point and stop-end, and the locations for which
these values are representative shall be indicated;
(iv) when there is more than one runway in use, the available RVR values for each
runway shall be reported, and the runways to which the values refer shall be
indicated.
(d) Present weather phenomena
(1) In local routine and local special reports, observed present weather phenomena shall be
reported in terms of type and characteristics and qualified with respect to intensity, as
appropriate.
(2) In METAR, observed present weather phenomena shall be reported in terms of type and
characteristics and qualified with respect to intensity or proximity to the aerodrome, as
appropriate.
(3) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR, the following characteristics of
present weather phenomena, as necessary, shall be reported using their respective
abbreviations and relevant criteria, as appropriate:
(i) Thunderstorm (TS)
Used to report a thunderstorm with precipitation. When thunder is heard or
lightning is detected at the aerodrome during the 10-minute period preceding the
time of observation but no precipitation is observed at the aerodrome, the
abbreviation ‘TS’ shall be used without qualification.
(ii) Freezing (FZ)
Supercooled water droplets or precipitation, used with types of present weather
phenomena in accordance with Appendix 1.
(4) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR:
(i) one or more, up to a maximum of three, of the present weather abbreviations shall
be used, as necessary, together with an indication, where appropriate, of the
characteristics and intensity or proximity to the aerodrome, so as to convey a
complete description of the present weather of significance to flight operations;
(ii) the indication of intensity or proximity, as appropriate, shall be reported first
followed respectively by the characteristics and the type of weather phenomena;
(iii) where two different types of weather are observed, they shall be reported in two
separate groups, where the intensity or proximity indicator refers to the weather
phenomenon which follows the indicator. However, different types of
precipitation occurring at the time of observation shall be reported as one single
group with the dominant type of precipitation reported first and preceded by only
one intensity qualifier which refers to the intensity of the total precipitation.
(e) Clouds
(1) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR, the height of cloud base shall be
reported in steps of 100 ft (30 m) up to 10 000 ft (3 000 m).
(2) Any observed value which does not fit the reporting scale in use shall be rounded down
to the nearest lower step in the scale.
(3) In local routine and local special reports:
(i) the units of measurement used for the height of cloud base and vertical visibility
shall be indicated;
(ii) when there is more than one runway in use and the heights of cloud bases are
observed by instruments for these runways, the available heights of cloud bases
for each runway shall be reported, and the runways to which the values refer shall
be indicated.
(f) Air temperature and dew-point temperature
(1) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR, the air temperature and the dew-
point temperature shall be reported in steps of whole degrees Celsius.
(2) Any observed value which does not fit the reporting scale in use shall be rounded to the
nearest whole degree Celsius, with observed values involving 0,5° rounded up to the next
higher whole degree Celsius.
(3) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR, a temperature below 0 °C shall
be identified.
(g) Atmospheric pressure
(1) In local routine and local special reports and in METAR, QNH and QFE shall be computed
in tenths of hectopascals and reported therein in steps of whole hectopascals, using four
digits.
(2) Any observed value which does not fit the reporting scale in use shall be rounded down
to the nearest lower whole hectopascal.
(3) In local routine and local special reports:
(i) QNH shall be included;
(ii) QFE shall be included if required by users or, if so agreed locally between the
provider of meteorological services, the ATS unit and the operators concerned, on
a regular basis;
(iii) the units of measurement used for QNH and QFE values shall be included;
(iv) if QFE values are required for more than one runway, the required QFE values for
each runway shall be reported, and the runway(s) to which the values refer shall
be indicated.
(4) In METAR, only QNH values shall be included.
VISIBILITY
In METAR, visibility should be reported as prevailing visibility. When the visibility is not the same in
different directions and:
(a) when the lowest visibility is different from the prevailing visibility, and (1) less than 1 500 m or
2) less than 50 % of the prevailing visibility, and less than 5 000 m, the lowest visibility observed
should also be reported and, when possible, its general direction in relation to the aerodrome
reference point indicated by reference to one of the eight points of the compass;
(b) if the lowest visibility is observed in more than one direction, then the most operationally
significant direction should be reported; and
(c) when the visibility is fluctuating rapidly, and the prevailing visibility cannot be determined, only
the lowest visibility should be reported, with no indication of direction.
VISIBILITY — VALUES
In local routine reports and local special reports, when instrumented systems are used for the
measurement of visibility:
(a) if the visibility is observed from more than one location along the runway, the values
representative of the touchdown zone should be reported first, followed, as necessary, by the
values representative of the mid-point and stop-end of the runway, and the locations for which
these values are representative should be indicated; and
(b) when there is more than one runway in use and the visibility is observed related to these
runways, the available visibility values for each runway should be reported, and the runways to
which the values refer should be indicated.
(c) When indications of tendency are not available, no abbreviations should be included.
Used with types of present weather phenomena. Light intensity should be indicated only for
precipitation.
Vicinity (VC)
Between approximately 8 and 16 km of the aerodrome reference point and used only in METAR
with present weather when not reported under AMC1 MET.TR.205(d)(3) and MET.TR.205(d)(3).
The following meteorological elements shall be observed and/or measured with specified accuracy
and disseminated by automatic or semi-automatic meteorological observing system.
(a) Surface wind direction and speed
The mean direction and the mean speed of the surface wind shall be measured, as well as
significant variations of the wind direction and speed (gusts), and reported in degrees true and
knots, respectively.
(1) Siting
The meteorological instrument used to measure surface wind direction and speed shall
be situated in such a way as to provide data which is representative of the area for which
the measurements are required.
(2) Display
Surface wind displays relating to each sensor shall be located in the meteorological
station. The displays in the meteorological station and in the air traffic services units shall
relate to the same sensors, and where separate sensors are required, the displays shall
be clearly marked to identify the runway and section of runway monitored by each
sensor.
(3) Averaging
The averaging period for surface wind observations shall be:
(i) 2 minutes for local routine and local special reports and for wind displays in ATS
units;
(ii) 10 minutes for METAR, except that when the 10-minute period includes a marked
discontinuity in the wind direction and/or speed; only data occurring after the
discontinuity shall be used for obtaining mean values; hence, the time interval in
these circumstances shall be correspondingly reduced.
(b) Visibility
(1) The visibility shall be measured or observed, and reported in metres or kilometres.
(2) Siting
The meteorological instrument used to measure visibility shall be situated in such a way
as to supply data which is representative of the area for which the measurements are
required.
(3) Displays
When instrumented systems are used for the measurement of visibility, visibility displays
relating to each sensor shall be located in the meteorological station. The displays in the
meteorological station and in the air traffic services units shall relate to the same sensors,
and where separate sensors are required, the displays shall be clearly marked to identify
the area monitored by each sensor.
(4) Averaging
The averaging period shall be 10 minutes for METAR, except that when the 10-minute
period immediately preceding the observation includes a marked discontinuity in the
visibility, only those values occurring after the discontinuity shall be used for obtaining
mean values.
(c) Runway visual range (RVR)
(1) Siting
The meteorological instrument used to assess the RVR shall be situated in such a way as
to provide data which is representative of the area for which the observations are
required.
(2) Instrumented systems
Instrumented systems based on transmissometers or forward-scatter meters shall be
used to assess RVR on runways intended for Categories II and III instrument approach and
landing operations, and for Category I instrument approach and landing operations as
determined by the competent authority.
(3) Display
Where the RVR is determined by instrumented systems, one display or more, if required,
shall be located in the meteorological station. The displays in the meteorological station
and in the air traffic services units shall relate to the same sensors, and where separate
sensors are required, the displays shall be clearly marked to identify the runway and
section of runway monitored by each sensor.
(4) Averaging
(i) Where instrumented systems are used for the assessment of the RVR, their output
shall be updated at least every 60 seconds to permit the provision of current,
representative values.
(ii) The averaging period for RVR values shall be:
(A) 1 minute for local routine and special reports and for RVR displays in ATS
units;
(B) 10 minutes for METAR, except that when the 10-minute period immediately
preceding the observation includes a marked discontinuity in RVR values;
then only those values occurring after the discontinuity shall be used for
obtaining mean values.
(d) Present weather phenomena
(1) The following present weather phenomena shall be reported, as a minimum: rain, drizzle,
snow and freezing precipitation, including intensity thereof, haze, mist, fog, freezing fog
and thunderstorms, including thunderstorms in the vicinity.
(2) Siting
The meteorological instrument used to measure present weather at the aerodrome and
its vicinity shall be situated in such a way as to provide data which is representative of
the area for which the measurements are required.
(e) Clouds
(1) Cloud amount, cloud type and height of cloud base shall be observed and reported as
necessary to describe the clouds of operational significance. When the sky is obscured,
vertical visibility shall be observed and reported, where measured, instead of cloud
amount, cloud type and height of cloud base. The height of cloud base and vertical
visibility shall be reported in feet.
(2) Siting
The meteorological instrument used to measure clouds amount and height shall be
situated in such a way as to provide data which is representative of the area for which
the measurements are required.
(3) Display
When automated equipment is used for the measurement of the height of cloud base, at
least one display shall be located in the meteorological station. The displays in the
meteorological station and in the air traffic services units shall relate to the same sensors,
and where separate sensors are required, the displays shall be clearly marked to identify
the area monitored by each sensor.
(4) Reference level
(i) The height of cloud base shall be reported above aerodrome elevation.
(ii) When a precision approach runway in use has a threshold elevation of 50 ft (15 m)
or more below the aerodrome elevation, local arrangements shall be made in order
that the height of cloud bases reported to arriving aircraft shall refer to the
threshold elevation.
(iii) In the case of reports from offshore structures, the height of cloud base shall be
given above mean sea level.
(f) Air temperature and dew-point temperature
(1) The air temperature and dew-point temperature shall be measured, displayed and
reported in degrees Celsius.
(2) When automated equipment is used for the measurement of air temperature and dew-
point temperature, the displays shall be located in the meteorological station. The
displays in the meteorological station and in the air traffic services units shall relate to
the same sensors.
(g) Atmospheric pressure
(1) The atmospheric pressure shall be measured, and QNH and QFE values shall be computed
and reported in hectopascals.
(2) Display
(i) When automated equipment is used for the measurement of atmospheric
pressure, QNH and, if required in accordance with point MET.TR.205(g)(3)(ii), QFE
displays relating to the barometer shall be located in the meteorological station
with corresponding displays in the appropriate air traffic services units.
(ii) When QFE values are displayed for more than one runway, the displays shall be
clearly marked to identify the runway to which the QFE value displayed refers.
(3) Reference level
A reference level for the computation of QFE shall be used.
HUMAN OBSERVATION
Observers at an aerodrome should be located, as far as practical, so as to provide data which is
representative of the area for which the observations are required.
HUMAN OBSERVATION
When a semi-automatic observing system is used, the observer should be located, as far as practical,
so as to supply data which is representative of the area for which the observations are required.
SURFACE WIND
(a) When local routine reports and local special reports are used for departing or arriving aircraft,
the surface wind observations for these reports should be representative of conditions along
the runway or the touchdown zone respectively.
(b) For METAR, the surface wind observations should be representative of the conditions above the
whole runway where there is only one runway and the whole runway complex where there is
more than one runway.
VISIBILITY — GENERAL
(a) When instrumented systems are used for the measurement of visibility, their output should be
updated at least every 60 seconds to permit provision of current representative values.
(b) When instrumented systems are used for the measurement of visibility, it should be measured
at a height of approximately 7.5 ft (2.5 m) above the runway.
(c) When local routine reports and local special reports are used for departing aircraft, the visibility
observations for these reports should be representative of the conditions along the runway.
(d) When local routine reports and local special reports are used for arriving aircraft, the visibility
observations for these reports should be representative of the touchdown zone of the runway.
(e) For METAR, the visibility observations should be representative of the aerodrome.
VISIBILITY — SITING
(a) When instrumented systems are used for the measurement of visibility, representative visibility
observations should be obtained by the use of sensors appropriately sited.
(b) Sensors for visibility observations for local routine reports and local special reports should be
sited to give the best practicable indications of visibility along the runway and touchdown zone.
VISIBILITY — AVERAGING
The averaging period for visibility should be 1 minute for local routine reports and local special reports
and for visibility displays in ATS units.
(3) for a runway with lights switched off (or at the lowest setting pending the resumption of
operations), the optimum light intensity that would be appropriate for operational use in
the prevailing conditions.
(e) In METAR, the RVR should be based on the maximum light intensity available on the runway.
CLOUDS — GENERAL
(a) Cloud observations for local routine reports and local special reports should be representative
of the runway threshold(s) in use.
(b) Cloud observations for METAR should be representative of the aerodrome and its vicinity.
CLOUDS — SITING
(a) When instrumented systems are used for the measurement of the cloud amount and the height
of cloud base, representative observations should be obtained by the use of sensors
appropriately sited.
(b) For local routine reports and local special reports, in the case of aerodromes with precision
approach runways, sensors for cloud amount and height of cloud base should be sited to give
the best practicable indications of the cloud amount and height of cloud base at the threshold
of the runway in use. For that purpose, a sensor should be installed at a distance of less than
4 000 ft (1 200 m) before the landing threshold.
(a) Meteorological information for operators and flight crew members shall:
(1) cover the flight in respect of time, altitude and geographical extent;
(2) relate to appropriate fixed times or periods of time;
(3) extend to the aerodrome of intended landing, also covering the meteorological
conditions expected between the aerodrome of intended landing and alternate
aerodromes designated by the operator;
(4) be up to date.
(b) Meteorological information provided to rescue coordination centres shall include the
meteorological conditions that existed in the last known position of a missing aircraft and along
the intended route of that aircraft with particular reference to elements which are not being
distributed routinely.
(c) Meteorological information provided to aeronautical information services units shall include:
(1) information on meteorological service intended for inclusion in the aeronautical
information publication(s) concerned;
(2) information necessary for the preparation of NOTAM or ASHTAM;
(3) information necessary for the preparation of aeronautical information circulars.
(d) Meteorological information included in flight documentation shall be represented as follows:
(1) winds on charts shall be depicted by arrows with feathers and shaded pennants on a
sufficiently dense grid;
(2) temperatures shall be depicted by figures on a sufficiently dense grid;
(3) wind and temperature data selected from the data sets received from a world area
forecast centre shall be depicted in a sufficiently dense latitude/longitude grid;
(4) wind arrows shall take precedence over temperatures and chart background;
(5) height indications referring to en-route meteorological conditions shall be expressed as
determined to be appropriate for the situation, for instance in flight levels, pressure,
altitude or height above ground level, whilst all references referring to aerodrome
meteorological conditions shall be expressed in height above the aerodrome elevation.
(e) Flight documentation shall comprise:
(1) forecasts of upper-wind and upper-air temperature;
(2) SIGWX phenomena;
(3) METAR or, when issued, SPECI for the aerodromes of departure and intended landing,
and for take-off, en-route and destination alternate aerodromes;
(4) TAF or amended TAF for the aerodromes of departure and intended landing, and for take-
off, en-route and destination alternate aerodromes;
(5) a SIGMET message, and, when issued, an AIRMET message and appropriate special air-
reports relevant to the whole route;
(6) volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisory information relevant to the whole route.
However, when agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office and the operators
concerned, flight documentation for flights of two hours' duration or less, after a short stop or
turnaround, may be limited to the information operationally needed, but in all cases the flight
documentation shall at least comprise the meteorological information listed in points (3), (4),
(5) and (6).
(f) Charts generated from digital forecasts shall be made available, as required by operators, for
fixed areas of coverage as shown in Appendix 2.
(g) When forecasts of upper-wind and upper-air temperature listed under point MET.OR.275(a)(1)
are supplied in chart form, they shall be fixed-time prognostic charts for flight levels as specified
in points MET.TR.260(b), MET.TR.275(c) and MET.TR.275(d). When forecasts of SIGWX
phenomena listed under point MET.TR.275(a)(2) are supplied in chart form, they shall be fixed-
time prognostic charts for an atmospheric layer limited by flight levels as specified in point
MET.TR.275(b)(3).
(h) The forecasts of upper-wind and upper-air temperature and of SIGWX phenomena above flight
level 100 shall be supplied as soon as they become available, but not later than 3 hours before
departure.
(i) Aeronautical climatological information shall be prepared in the form of aerodrome
climatological tables and aerodrome climatological summaries.
FLIGHT DOCUMENTATION
(a) Where the forecasts are supplied in chart form, flight documentation for low-level flights,
including those in accordance with the visual flight rules, operating up to flight level 100 or up
to flight level 150 in mountainous areas or higher, where necessary, should contain the
following as appropriate to the flight:
(1) information from relevant SIGMET and AIRMET messages;
(2) upper wind and upper-air temperature charts; and
(3) significant weather charts.
(b) Where the forecasts are not supplied in chart form, flight documentation for low-level flights,
including those in accordance with the visual flight rules, operating up to flight level 100 or up
to flight level 150 in mountainous areas or higher, where necessary, should contain the
following information as appropriate to the flight: SIGMET and AIRMET information.
MODEL CHARTS
This guidance provides examples of model charts.
(a) UPPER WIND AND TEMPERATURE CHART FOR STANDARD ISOBARIC SURFACE
MODEL IS
Example 1. Arrows, feathers and pennants (Mercator projection)
(b) UPPER WIND AND TEMPERATURE CHART FOR STANDARD ISOBARIC SURFACE
MODEL IS
Example 2. Arrows, feathers and pennants (Polar stereographic projection)
CHARTS
Charts included in flight documentation should have a high standard of clarity and legibility and should
have the following physical characteristics:
(a) For convenience, the largest size of charts should be about 42 × 30 cm (standard A3 size) and
the smallest size should be about 21 × 30 cm (standard A4 size). The choice between these sizes
should depend on the route lengths and the amount of detail that needs to be given in the
charts as agreed between the meteorological authorities and the users concerned;
(b) Major geographical features, such as coastlines, major rivers and lakes, should be depicted in a
way that makes them easily recognisable;
(c) For charts prepared by computer, meteorological data should take preference over basic chart
information, the former cancelling the latter wherever they overlap;
(d) Major aerodromes should be shown as a dot and identified by the first letter of the name of the
city the aerodrome serves as given in Table AOP of the EUR air navigation plan;
(e) A geographical grid should be shown with meridians and parallels represented by dotted lines
at each 10°-latitude and longitude; dots should be spaced one degree apart;
(f) Latitude and longitude values should be indicated at various points throughout the charts; and
(g) Labels on the charts for flight documentation should be clear and simple and should present
the name of the world area forecast centre or, for non-WAFS products, the originating centre,
the type of chart, date and valid time and, if necessary, the types of units used in an
unambiguous way.
CHARTS
(a) The minimum number of charts for flights between flight level 250 and flight level 630 should
include a high-level SIGWX chart (flight level 250 to flight level 630) and a forecast 250 hPa wind
and temperature chart.
(b) The actual charts provided for pre-flight and in-flight planning and for flight documentation
should be agreed between the meteorological providers and the users concerned.
CLIMATOLOGICAL SUMMARIES
Aerodrome climatological summaries should follow the procedures prescribed by the World
Meteorological Organization and should be made available in a form to meet a specific user request.
CLIMATOLOGICAL TABLE
An aerodrome climatological table should indicate:
(a) mean values and variations therefrom, including maximum and minimum values, of
meteorological elements; and/or
(b) the frequency of occurrence of present weather phenomena affecting flight operations at the
aerodrome; and/or
(c) the frequency of occurrence of specified values of one, or of a combination of two or more,
elements.
CLIMATOLOGICAL TABLE
Aerodrome climatological tables should include information required for the preparation of
aerodrome climatological summaries.
CLIMATOLOGICAL SUMMARIES
Aerodrome climatological summaries should cover:
(a) frequencies of the occurrence of runway visual range/visibility and/or height of base of the
lowest cloud layer of BKN or OVC extent below specified values at specified times;
(b) frequencies of visibility below specified values at specified times;
(c) frequencies of the height of base of the lowest cloud layer of BKN or OVC extent below specified
values at specified times;
(d) frequencies of occurrence of concurrent wind direction and speed within specified ranges;
(e) frequencies of surface temperature in specified ranges of 5°C at specified times; and
(f) mean values and variations therefrom, including maximum and minimum values of
meteorological elements required for operational planning purposes, including take-off
performance calculations.
CLIMATOLOGICAL INFORMATION
In cases where it is impracticable to meet the requirements for aeronautical climatological information
on a national basis, the collection, processing and storage of observational data may be effected
through computer facilities available for international use, and the responsibility for the preparation
of the required aeronautical climatological information may be delegated by agreement between the
competent authorities concerned.
(a) Aerodrome forecasts and amendments thereto shall be issued as a TAF and shall include, in the
order indicated, the:
(1) identification of the type of forecast;
(2) location indicator;
(3) time of issue of forecast;
(4) identification of a missing forecast, when applicable;
(5) date and period of validity of forecast;
(6) identification of a cancelled forecast, when applicable;
(7) surface wind;
(8) visibility;
(9) weather;
(10) cloud;
(11) expected significant changes to one or more of these elements during the period of
validity.
(b) TAF shall be issued in accordance with the template shown in Appendix 3 and disseminated in
the TAF code form.
(c) The period of validity of a routine TAF shall be either 9 or 24 or 30 hours and shall be filed for
transmission not earlier than 1 hour before the commencement of their period of validity.
(d) TAF, if disseminated in digital form, shall:
(1) be formatted in accordance with a globally interoperable information exchange model;
(2) use geography markup language (GML);
(3) be accompanied by the appropriate metadata.
(4) Cloud
(i) The cloud amount shall be forecast using the abbreviations ‘FEW’, ‘SCT’, ‘BKN’ or
‘OVC’, as necessary. When it is expected that the sky will remain or become
obscured and clouds cannot be forecasted and information on vertical visibility is
available at the aerodrome, the vertical visibility shall be forecasted in the form
‘VV’ followed by the forecasted value of the vertical visibility.
(ii) When several layers or masses of cloud are forecasted, their amount and height of
base shall be included in the following order:
(A) the lowest layer or mass regardless of amount, to be forecasted as FEW, SCT,
BKN or OVC as appropriate;
(B) the next layer or mass covering more than 2/8, to be forecast as SCT, BKN or
OVC as appropriate;
(C) the next higher layer or mass covering more than 4/8, to be forecast as BKN
or OVC as appropriate;
(D) cumulonimbus clouds and/or towering cumulus clouds, whenever
forecasted and not already included under points (A) to (C).
(iii) Cloud information shall be limited to cloud of operational significance; when no
cloud of operational significance is forecasted and ‘CAVOK’ is not appropriate, the
abbreviation ‘NSC’ shall be used.
(f) Use of change groups
(1) The criteria used for the inclusion of change groups in TAF or for the amendment of TAF
shall be based on any of the following weather phenomena, or combinations thereof,
being forecasted to begin or end or change in intensity:
(i) freezing fog;
(ii) freezing precipitation;
(iii) moderate or heavy precipitation (including showers thereof);
(iv) thunderstorm;
(v) dust storm;
(vi) sandstorm.
(2) When a change in any of the elements given in point (a) is required to be indicated, the
change indicators ‘BECMG’ or ‘TEMPO’ shall be used followed by the time period during
which the change is expected to occur. The time period shall be indicated as the beginning
and end of the period in whole hours UTC. Only those elements for which a significant
change is expected shall be included following a change indicator. However, in the case
of significant changes in respect of cloud, all cloud groups, including layers or masses not
expected to change, shall be indicated.
(3) The change indicator ‘BECMG’ and the associated time group shall be used to describe
changes where the meteorological conditions are expected to reach or pass through
specified threshold values at a regular or irregular rate and at an unspecified time during
the time period. The time period shall not exceed 4 hours.
(4) The change indicator ‘TEMPO’ and the associated time group shall be used to describe
expected frequent or infrequent temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions
which reach or pass specified threshold values and last for a period of less than 1 hour in
each instance and, in the aggregate, cover less than one half of the forecast period during
which the fluctuations are expected to occur. If the temporary fluctuation is expected to
last 1 hour or longer, the change group ‘BECMG’ shall be used in accordance with point
(3), or the validity period should be subdivided in accordance with point (5).
(5) Where one set of prevailing weather conditions is expected to change significantly and
more or less completely to a different set of conditions, the period of validity shall be
subdivided into self-contained periods using the abbreviation ‘FM’ followed immediately
by a six-figure time group in days, hours and minutes UTC indicating the time the change
is expected to occur. The subdivided period following the abbreviation ‘FM’ shall be self-
contained and all forecasted conditions given before the abbreviation shall be
superseded by those following the abbreviation.
(g) The probability of occurrence of an alternative value of a forecast element or elements shall be
included when:
(1) a 30 or 40 % probability of alternative meteorological conditions exists during a specific
forecast time period; or
(2) a 30 or 40 % probability of temporary fluctuations in meteorological conditions exists
during a specific forecast time period.
This shall be indicated in the TAF by using the abbreviation ‘PROB’ followed by the
probability in tens of per cent and, in the case referred to in point (1), the time period
during which the values are expected to apply, or in the case referred to in point (2), by
using the abbreviation ‘PROB’ followed by the probability in tens of per cent, the change
indicator ‘TEMPO’ and associated time group.
EXAMPLE OF TAF
TAF for YUDO (Donlon/International)*:
TAF YUDO 151800Z 1600/1618 13005MPS 9000 BKN020 BECMG 1606/1608 SCT015CB BKN020 TEMPO
1608/1612 17006G12MPS 1000 TSRA SCT010CB BKN020 FM161230 15004MPS 9999 BKN020
Meaning of the forecast:
TAF for Donlon/International* issued on the 15th of the month at 1800 UTC valid from 0000 UTC to 1800 UTC
on the 16th of the month; surface wind direction 130 degrees; wind speed 5 knots; visibility 9 kilometres,
broken cloud at 2 000 feet; becoming between 0600 UTC and 0800 UTC on the 16th of the month, broken
cloud at 800 feet; temporarily between 0800 UTC and 1200 UTC on the 16 th of the month surface wind
direction 170 degrees; wind speed 15 knots gusting to 25 knots; visibility 1 000 metres in a thunderstorm with
moderate rain, scattered cumulonimbus cloud at 300 metres and broken cloud at 2 000 feet; from 1230 UTC
on the 16th of the month, surface wind direction 150 degrees; wind speed 4 knots; visibility 10 kilometres or
more; and broken cloud at 2 000 feet.
* Fictitious location
ACCURACY OF TAF
Guidance on operationally desirable accuracy of TAF is given below:
Element to be forecast Operationally desirable Minimum percentage of
accuracy of forecasts cases within range
TAF
Wind direction ± 20° 80 % of cases
Wind speed ± 2.5 m/s (5 kt) 80 % of cases
Visibility ± 200 m up to 800 m 80 % of cases
± 30 % between 800 m and 10 km
Precipitation Occurrence or non-occurrence 80 % of cases
Cloud amount One category below 450 m (1 500 ft) 70 % of cases
Occurrence or non-occurrence of BKN or OVC
between 450 m (1 500 ft) and 3 000 m (10 000 ft)
Cloud height ± 30 m (100 ft) up to 300 m (1 000 ft) 70 % of cases
± 30 % between 300 m (1 000 ft) and 3 000 m
(10 000 ft)
Air temperature ± 1°C 70 % of cases
VISIBILITY
The visibility included in TAF refers to the forecast prevailing visibility.
PERIOD OF VALIDITY
(a) The periods of validity for 9-hour TAF should commence at 00, 03, 06, 09, 12, 15, 18 and 21 UTC
and for 24- and 30-hour TAF at 00, 06, 12 and 18 UTC or 03, 09, 15, and 21 UTC.
(b) The 24- and 30-hour TAF periods of validity should be determined based on the types of
operations, as agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office and the operators
concerned.
At aerodromes with limited hours of operation, the beginning of the period of validity of a TAF
should commence at least 1 hour prior to the aerodrome resuming operations, or more as
agreed between the aerodrome meteorological office and the operators concerned, to meet
planning requirements for flights that arrive at the aerodromes as soon as it is opened for use.
(c) Routine TAF valid for 9 hours should be issued every 3 hours, and those valid for 24 or 30 hours
should be issued every 6 hours.
FORMAT OF TAF
Guidance on the information exchange model, XML/GML and the metadata profile is provided in the
Manual on the Digital Exchange of Aeronautical Meteorological Information (ICAO Doc 10003).
THRESHOLD VALUES
The threshold values should be established by the aerodrome meteorological office in consultation
with the appropriate ATS units and operators concerned, taking into account changes in the wind
which would:
(a) require a change in runway(s) in use; and
(b) indicate that the runway tailwind and crosswind components will change through values
representing the main operating limits for typical aircraft operating at the aerodrome.
VISIBILITY
In TREND forecasts appended to local routine reports and local special reports, visibility refers to the
forecast visibility along the runway(s).
forecast period but the time is uncertain, the abbreviations ‘FM’, ‘TL’ or ‘AT’ and their associated
time groups should be omitted and the change indicator ‘TEMPO’ should be used alone.
(a) A forecast for take-off shall refer to a specified period of time and shall contain information on
expected conditions over the runway complex in regard to surface wind direction and speed
and any variations thereof, temperature, pressure, and any other elements as agreed between
the aerodrome meteorological office and the operators.
(b) The order of the elements and the terminology, units and scales used in forecasts for take-off
shall be the same as those used in reports for the same aerodrome.
AMENDMENTS TO FORECASTS
(a) The criteria for the issuance of amendments to forecasts for take-off for surface wind direction
and speed, temperature and pressure, and any other elements agreed locally should be agreed
between the aerodrome meteorological office and the operators concerned.
(b) The criteria should be consistent with the corresponding criteria for special reports established
for the aerodrome.
(a) Wind shear warnings shall be issued in accordance with the template in Appendix 4.
(b) The sequence number referred to in the template in Appendix 4 shall correspond to the number
of wind shear warnings issued for the aerodrome since 00.01 UTC on the day concerned.
(c) Wind shear alerts shall give concise, up-to-date information related to the observed existence
of wind shear involving a headwind/tailwind change of 15 kt (7,5 m/s) or more which could
adversely affect aircraft on the final approach path or initial take-off path and aircraft on the
runway during the landing roll or take-off run.
(d) Wind shear alert shall, if practicable, relate to specific sections of the runway and distances
along the approach path or take-off path as agreed between the aerodrome meteorological
office, the appropriate ATS units and the operators concerned.
(b) When the above template is used, the sequence number referred to in the template should
correspond to the number of aerodrome warnings issued for the aerodrome since 00.01 UTC
on the day concerned.
Ranges and resolutions for the numerical elements included in volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisory
messages, SIGMET/AIRMET messages and aerodrome and wind shear warnings
Elements Range Resolution
Summit elevation: M 000–8 100 1
FT 000–27 000 1
Advisory number: for VA (index)* 000–2 000 1
for TC (index)* 00–99 1
Maximum surface wind: MPS 00–99 1
KT 00–199 1
Central pressure: hPa 850–1 050 1
Surface wind speed: MPS 15–49 1
KT 30–99 1
Surface visibility: M 0000–0750 50
M 0800–5 000 100
Cloud: height of base: M 000–300 30
FT 000–1 000 100
Cloud: height of top: M 000–2 970 30
M 3 000–20 000 300
FT 000–9 900 100
FT 10 000–60 000 1 000
Latitudes: ° (degrees) 00–90 1
(minutes) 00–60 1
Longitudes: ° (degrees) 000–180 1
(minutes) 00–60 1
Flight levels: 000–650 10
Movement: KMH 0–300 10
KT 0–150 5
* Non-dimensional
(b) The explanations for the abbreviations can be found in the Procedures for Air Navigation
Services — ICAO Abbreviations and Codes (PANS ABC, ICAO Doc 8400).
(a) The content and order of elements in a SIGMET message shall be in accordance with the
template shown in Appendix 5.
(b) SIGMET messages shall consist of three types:
(1) SIGMET for en-route weather phenomena other than volcanic ash or tropical cyclones,
referred as WS SIGMET;
(2) SIGMET for volcanic ash, referred as WV SIGMET;
(3) SIGMET for tropical cyclones, referred as WC SIGMET.
(c) The sequence number of SIGMET messages shall consist of three characters comprising one
letter and two numbers.
(d) Only one of the phenomena listed in Appendix 5 shall be included in a SIGMET message, using
the appropriate abbreviations and the following threshold value of surface wind speed of 34 kt
(17 m/s) or more for tropical cyclone.
(e) SIGMET information concerning thunderstorms or a tropical cyclone shall not include
references to associated turbulence and icing.
(f) SIGMET, if disseminated in digital form, shall be:
(1) formatted in accordance with a globally interoperable information exchange model and
shall use geography markup language (GML);
(2) accompanied by the appropriate metadata.
FORMAT
SIGMET, when issued in graphical format, should be as specified below:
(a) SIGMET FOR TROPICAL CYCLONE — MODEL STC
(c) SIGMET FOR PHENOMENA OTHER THAN TROPICAL CYCLONE AND VOLCANIC ASH —
MODEL SGE
AIRSPACE
In cases where the airspace is divided into a flight information region (FIR) and an upper-flight
information region (UIR), the SIGMET message should be identified by the location indicator of the
ATS unit serving the FIR.
SEQUENCE NUMBER
The letters to be used as the first character for the sequence number to indicate the specified en-
route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations should be:
Letter to be used in sequence number for
SIGMET Type Specified en-route phenomena
specified en-route phenomena
WC Tropical cyclone C
For WC exchange test purposes X
WV Volcanic ash A
For WV exchange test purposes Y
WS Thunderstorm T
Turbulence U
Icing I
Freezing rain F
Mountain wave M
Dust storm D
Sandstorm S
Radioactive cloud R
For WS exchange test purposes Z
SEQUENCE NUMBER
The three-character number to be used in the sequence number should correspond to the number of
SIGMET messages, dependent on the phenomena as indicated by the first character, issued for the
flight information region since 0001 UTC on the day concerned.
FORM
SIGMET messages should be disseminated in a digital form, in addition to the abbreviated plain
language.
FORM
Guidance on the information exchange model, GML, and the metadata profile is provided in the
Manual on the Digital Exchange of Aeronautical Meteorological Information (ICAO Doc 10003).
(a) The content and order of elements in an AIRMET message shall be in accordance with the
template shown in Appendix 5.
(b) The sequence number referred to in the template in Appendix 5 shall correspond to the number
of AIRMET messages issued for the flight information region since 00.01 UTC on the day
concerned.
(c) Only one of the phenomena in Appendix 5 shall be included in an AIRMET message, using the
appropriate abbreviations and the following threshold values, when the phenomena is below
flight level 100, or below flight level 150 in mountainous areas, or higher, where necessary:
(1) wind speed above 30 kt (15 m/s);
(2) widespread areas affected by reduction of visibility to less than 5 000 m, including the
weather phenomenon causing the reduction of visibility;
(3) widespread areas of broken or overcast cloud with height of base less than 1 000 ft
(300 m) above ground level.
(d) AIRMET messages concerning thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds shall not include
references to associated turbulence and icing.
FIR
The flight information region may be divided in sub-areas.
(a) When chart form is used for area forecasts for low-level flights, the forecast of upper wind and
upper-air temperature shall be issued for points separated by no more than 300 NM and for, as
a minimum, the following altitudes: 2 000, 5 000 and 10 000 ft (600, 1 500 and 3 000 m) and
15 000 ft (4 500 m) in mountainous areas. The issuance of forecasts of upper wind and upper-
air temperature at an altitude of 2 000 ft (600 m) may be subject to local orographic
considerations as determined by the competent authority.
(b) When chart form is used for area forecasts for low-level flights, the forecast of SIGWX
phenomena shall be issued as low-level SIGWX forecast for flight levels up to 100, or up to flight
level 150 in mountainous areas, or higher, where necessary. Low-level SIGWX forecasts shall
include:
(1) the following phenomena warranting the issuance of a SIGMET: icing, turbulence,
cumulonimbus clouds that are obscured, frequent, embedded or occurring at a squall
line, sandstorms/dust storms and volcanic eruptions or a release of radioactive materials
into the atmosphere, and which are expected to affect low-level flights;
(2) the following elements in area forecasts for low-level flights: surface wind, surface
visibility, significant weather phenomena, mountain obscuration, cloud, icing,
turbulence, mountain wave and height of zero-degree isotherm.
(c) When the competent authority has determined that the density of traffic operating below flight
level 100 warrants the issuance of an AIRMET message, the area forecasts shall be issued to
cover the layer between the ground and flight level 100, or up to flight level 150 in mountainous
areas, or higher, where necessary, and shall contain information on en-route weather
phenomena hazardous to low-level flights, in support of the issuance of the AIRMET message
and the additional information required for low-level flights.
(a) The advisory information on volcanic ash shall be issued in abbreviated plain language and in
accordance with the template shown in Appendix 6. When no abbreviations are available,
English plain language text, to be kept to a minimum, shall be used.
(b) The volcanic ash advisory information, when prepared in graphical format, shall be as specified
below
DTG: 20080923/0130Z
VAAC: TOKYO
VOLCANO: KARYMSKY 1000-13
PSN: N5403 E15927
AREA: RUSSIA
SUMMIT ELEV: 1536M
ADVISORY NR: 2008/4
INFO SOURCE: MTSAT-1R KVERT KEMSD
AVIATION COLOUR CODE: RED
ERUPTION DETAILS: ERUPTION AT 20080923/0000Z FL300 REPORTED
OBS VA DTG: 23/0100Z
OBS VA CLD: FL250/300 N5400 E15930 — N5400 E16100 — N5300 E15945 MOV SE
20KT SFC/FL200 N5130 E16130 — N5130 E16230 — N5230 E16230 —
N5230 E16130 MOV SE 15KT
FCST VA CLD +6 HR: 23/0700Z FL250/350 N5130 E16030 — N5130 E16230 — N5330 E16230 —
N5330 E16030 SFC/FL180 N4830 E16330 — N4830 E16630 — N5130
E16630 — N5130 E16330
FCST VA CLD +12 HR: 23/1300Z SFC/FL270 N4830 E16130 — N4830 E16600 — N5300 E16600 —
N5300 E16130
FCST VA CLD +18 HR: 23/1900Z NO VA EXP
RMK: LATEST REP FM KVERT (0120Z) INDICATES ERUPTION HAS CEASED. TWO
DISPERSING VA CLD ARE EVIDENT ON SATELLITE IMAGERY
NXT ADVISORY: 20080923/0730Z
BUFR CODE
The BUFR code form is contained in the WMO Publication No 306, Manual on Codes, Volume I.2,
Part B — Binary Codes.
(a) The advisory information on tropical cyclones shall be issued for tropical cyclones when the
maximum of the 10-minute mean surface wind speed is expected to reach or exceed 34 kt
during the period covered by the advisory.
(b) The advisory information on tropical cyclones shall be in accordance with Appendix 7.
DTG: 20040925/1600Z
TCAC: YUFO
TC: GLORIA
NR: 01
PSN: N2706 W07306
MOV: NW 12KT
C: 965HPA
MAX WIND: 73KT
FCST PSN +6 HR: 25/2200Z N2748 W07350
FCST MAX WIND +6 HR: 73KT
FCST PSN +12 HR: 26/0400Z N2830 W07430
FCST MAX WIND +12 HR: 73KT
FCST PSN +18 HR: 26/1000Z N2852 W07500
FCST MAX WIND +18 HR: 70KT
FCST PSN +24 HR: 26/1600Z N2912 W07530
FCST MAX WIND +24 HR: 60KT
RMK: NIL
NXT MSG: 20040925/2000Z
(a) WAFCs shall use processed meteorological data in the form of grid point values expressed in
binary form (GRIB code form) for the supply of gridded global forecasts and BUFR code form for
the supply of forecast of significant weather phenomena.
(b) For global gridded forecasts, WAFCs shall:
(1) prepare forecasts of:
(i) upper wind;
(ii) upper-air temperature;
(iii) humidity;
(iv) direction, speed and flight level of maximum wind;
(v) flight level and temperature of tropopause;
(vi) areas of cumulonimbus clouds;
(vii) icing;
(viii) clear-air and in-cloud turbulence;
(ix) geopotential altitude of flight levels;
four times a day and be valid for fixed valid times at 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33 and
36 hours after the time (00.00, 06.00, 12.00 and 18.00 UTC) of the synoptic data on which
the forecasts were based;
(2) issue forecasts in the order referred to in point (1) and complete their dissemination as
soon as technically feasible, but not later than 6 hours after standard time of observation;
(3) provide grid point forecasts in a regular grid with a horizontal resolution of 1,25° of
latitude and longitude and comprising:
(i) wind data for flight levels 50 (850 hPa), 100 (700 hPa), 140 (600 hPa),
180 (500 hPa), 240 (400 hPa), 270 (350 hPa), 300 (300 hPa), 320 (275 hPa),
340 (250 hPa), 360 (225 hPa), 390 (200 hPa), 410 (175 hPa), 450 (150 hPa) and
530 (100 hPa);
(ii) temperature data for flight levels 50 (850 hPa), 100 (700 hPa), 140 (600 hPa),
180 (500 hPa), 240 (400 hPa), 270 (350 hPa), 300 (300 hPa), 320 (275 hPa),
340 (250 hPa), 360 (225 hPa), 390 (200 hPa), 410 (175 hPa), 450 (150 hPa) and
530 (100 hPa);
(iii) humidity data for flight levels 50 (850 hPa), 100 (700 hPa), 140 (600 hPa) and
180 (500 hPa);
(iv) horizontal extent and flight levels of base and top of cumulonimbus clouds;
(v) icing for layers centred at flight levels 60 (800 hPa), 100 (700 hPa), 140 (600 hPa),
180 (500 hPa), 240 (400 hPa) and 300 (300 hPa);
(vi) clear-air turbulence for layers centred at flight levels 240 (400 hPa), 270 (350 hPa),
300 (300 hPa), 340 (250 hPa), 390 (200 hPa) and 450 (150 hPa);
(vii) in-cloud turbulence for layers centred at flight levels 100 (700 hPa), 140 (600 hPa),
180 (500 hPa), 240 (400 hPa) and 300 (300 hPa);
(viii) geopotential altitude data for flight levels 50 (850 hPa), 100 (700 hPa),
140 (600 hPa), 180 (500 hPa), 240 (400 hPa), 270 (350 hPa), 300 (300 hPa),
320 (275 hPa), 340 (250 hPa), 360 (225 hPa), 390 (200 hPa), 410 (175 hPa),
450 (150 hPa) and 530 (100 hPa).
(c) For global forecasts of en-route significant weather phenomena, WAFCs shall:
(1) prepare SIGWX forecasts four times a day and shall be valid for fixed valid times at
24 hours after the time (00.00, 06.00, 12.00 and 18.00 UTC) of the synoptic data on which
the forecasts were based. The dissemination of each forecast shall be completed as soon
as technically feasible, but not later than 9 hours after standard time of observation;
(2) issue SIGWX forecasts as high-level SIGWX forecasts for flight levels between 250 and
630;
(3) include in SIGWX forecasts the following items:
(i) tropical cyclone provided that the maximum of the 10-minute mean surface wind
speed is expected to reach or exceed 34 kt (17 m/s);
(ii) severe squall lines;
(iii) moderate or severe turbulence (in cloud or clear air);
(iv) moderate or severe icing;
(v) widespread sandstorm/dust storm;
(vi) cumulonimbus clouds associated with thunderstorms and with points (i) to (v);
(vii) non-convective cloud areas associated with in-cloud moderate or severe
turbulence and/or moderate or severe icing;
(viii) flight level of tropopause;
(ix) jet streams;
(x) information on the location of volcanic eruptions that are producing ash clouds of
significance to aircraft operations, comprising: volcanic eruption symbol at the
location of the volcano and, in a separate text box on the chart, the volcanic
eruption symbol, the name of the volcano, if known, and the latitude/longitude of
the eruption. In addition, the legend of SIGWX charts should indicate ‘CHECK
SIGMET, ADVISORIES FOR TC AND VA, AND ASHTAM AND NOTAM FOR VA’;
(xi) information on the location of a release of radioactive materials into the
atmosphere of significance to aircraft operations, comprising: the radioactive
materials in the atmosphere symbol at the location of the release and, in a separate
box on the chart, the radioactive materials in the atmosphere symbol,
latitude/longitude of the site of the release and, if known, the name of the site of
the radioactive source. In addition, the legend of SIGWX charts on which a release
of radiation is indicated should contain ‘CHECK SIGMET AND NOTAM FOR RDOACT
CLD’.
GRIB CODE
The GRIB code form is contained in the WMO Publication No 306, Manual on Codes, Volume I.2,
Part B — Binary Codes.
BUFR CODE
The BUFR code form is contained in the WMO Publication No 306, Manual on Codes, Volume I.2,
Part B — Binary Codes.
APPENDICES TO ANNEX V
Appendix 1
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
1 To be included if visibility or runway visual range < 1 500 m; for up to a maximum of four runways.
2
Heavy used to indicate tornado or waterspout; moderate (no qualifier) to indicate funnel cloud not reaching the ground.
Template for SIGMET and AIRMET messages and special air-reports (uplink)
Key:
M = inclusion mandatory, part of every message;
C = inclusion conditional, whenever applicable; and
= = a double line indicates that the text following it should be placed on the subsequent line.
Note: The ranges and resolutions for the numerical elements included in SIGMET/AIRMET messages and in
special air-reports are shown in Appendix 8.
Template(s)
Detailed
Elements SPECIAL Examples
content SIGMET AIRMET
AIR-REPORT
Location ICAO location Nnnn — YUCC
indicator of indicator of the YUDD
FIR/CTA (M) ATS unit serving
the FIR or CTA
to which the
SIGMET/AIRMET
refers (M)
Identification Message SIGMET nnn AIRMET [nn]n ARS SIGMET 5
(M) identification SIGMET A3
and sequence AIRMET 2
number (M) ARS
Validity Day-time groups VALID nnnnnn/nnnnnn — VALID
period (M) indicating the 221215/2216
period of 00
validity in UTC VALID
(M) 101520/1018
00
VALID
251600/2522
00
Location Location nnnn– YUDO–
indicator of indicator of YUSO–
MWO (M) MWO
originating the
message with a
separating
hyphen (M)
Name of the Location nnnn nnnnnnnnnn nnnn nnnnnn YUCC
FIR/CTA or indicator and FIR[/UIR] or nnnn nnnnnnnnnn AMSWELL FIR
aircraft name of the nnnnnnnnnn CTA FIR[/n] YUDD
identification FIR/CTA for SHANLON
(M) which the FIR/UIR
SIGMET/AIRMET YUCC
is issued or AMSWELL
aircraft FIR/2
radiotelephony YUDD
call sign (M) SHANLON FIR
VA812
Template(s)
Detailed
Elements SPECIAL Examples
content SIGMET AIRMET
AIR-REPORT
Phenomenon Description of OBSC TS[GR] SFC WSPD TS SEV TURB
(M) the EMBD TS[GR] nn[n]MPS TSGR FRQ TS
phenomenon FRQ TS[GR] (or SFC WSPD SEV TURB OBSC TSGR
causing the SQL TS[GR] nn[n]KT) SEV ICE EMBD TSGR
issuance of
SIGMET/AIRMET TC nnnnnnnnnn or SFC VIS nnnnM SEV MTW TC GLORIA
(C) NN (nn) HVY SS TC NN
SEV TURB ISOL TS[GR] VA CLD [FL VA ERUPTION
SEV ICE OCNL TS[GR] nnn/nnn] MT ASHVAL
SEV ICE (FZRA) MT OBSC VA [MT PSN S15
SEV MTW BKN CLD nnnnnnnnn E073 VA CLD
HVY DS nnn/[ABV]nnnn n] MOD TURB
HVY SS M MOD TURB MOD MTW
[VA ERUPTION] (or BKN CLD MOD ICE ISOL CB
[MT] [nnnnnnnnnn] nnn/[ABV]nnnn BKN CLD
[PSN FT) 120/900M
Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] OVC CLD (BKN CLD
Ennn[nn] or nnn/[ABV]nnnn 400/3000FT)
Wnnn[nn]] M OVC CLD
VA CLD (or OVC CLD 270/ABV3000
RDOACT CLD nnn/[ABV]nnnn M
FT) (OVC CLD
ISOL CB 900/ABV1000
OCNL CB 0FT)
FRQ CB SEV ICE
ISOL TCU RDOACT CLD
OCNL TCU
FRQ TCU
MOD TURB
MOD ICE
MOD MTW
Observed or Indication OBS [AT nnnnZ] OBS AT OBS AT 1210Z
forecast whether the FCST [AT nnnnZ] nnnnZ OBS
phenomenon information is FCST AT
(M) observed and 1815Z
expected to
continue, or
forecast (M)
Location (C) Location Nnn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or NnnnnWnnn S OF N54
(referring to Nnn[nn] Ennn[nn] or nn or N OF N50
latitude and Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or NnnnnEnnn N2020
longitude (in Snn[nn] Ennn[nn] nn or W07005
degrees and or SnnnnWnnn N2706
minutes)) N OF Nnn[nn] or nn or W07306
S OF Nnn[nn] or SnnnnEnnnn N48 E010
N OF Snn[nn] or n N OF N1515
S OF Snn[nn] or AND
[AND] W OF E13530
W OF Wnnn[nn] or W OF E1554
E OF Wnnn[nn] or N OF LINE
W OF Ennn[nn] or S2520
E OF Ennn[nn] W11510 —
Template(s)
Detailed
Elements SPECIAL Examples
content SIGMET AIRMET
AIR-REPORT
or S2520
[N OF, NE OF, E OF, SE OF, S OF, SW OF, W12010
W OF, NW OF] WI N6030
[LINE] Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or E02550 —
Ennn[nn] — N6055
E02500 —
Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or N6050
Ennn[nn] E02630
or ENTIRE FIR
WI Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or ENTIRE CTA
Ennn[nn] —
Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn] —
Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn] —
[Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn] —
Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn]]
or
ENTIRE FIR1
or
ENTIRE CTA1
Level (C) Flight level or [SFC/]FLnnn or [SFC/]nnnnM (or FLnnn or FL180
altitude and [SFC/]nnnnFT) or FLnnn/nnn or TOP nnnnM (or FL050/080
extent (C)2 FLnnn or [TOP] ABV FLnnn or3 nnnnFT) TOP FL390
CB TOP [ABV] FLnnn WI nnnKM OF SFC/FL070
CENTRE (or CB TOP [ABV] FLnnn WI TOP ABV
nnnNM OF CENTRE) or CB TOP [BLW] FL100
FLnnn WI nnnKM OF CENTRE (or CB TOP FL310/450
[BLW] FLnnn WI nnnNM OF CENTRE) or1 CB TOP FL500
FLnnn/nnn [APRX nnnKM BY nnnKM] WI 270KM OF
[nnKM WID LINE BTN CENTRE
(nnNM WID LINE BTN)] (CB TOP
[Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or FL500 WI
Ennn[nn] Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] 150NM OF
or Ennn[nn] [ — Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] CENTRE)
Wnnn[nn] or Ennn[nn]] [ — Nnn[nn] or FL310/350
Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or Ennn[nn]]] (or APRX
FLnnn/nnn [APRX nnnNM BY nnnNM] 220KM BY
[Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or 35KM
Ennn[nn] Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] FL390
or Ennn[nn] [ — Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn]
Wnnn[nn] or Ennn[nn]] [ — Nnn[nn] or
Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or Ennn[nn]]])
Template(s)
Detailed
Elements SPECIAL Examples
content SIGMET AIRMET
AIR-REPORT
Movement Movement or MOV N [nnKMH] or MOV NNE [nnKMH] — MOV E
or expected expected or MOV NE [nnKMH] or MOV ENE 40KMH
movement movement [nnKMH] or MOV E [nnKMH] or MOV (MOV E 20KT)
(C) (direction and ESE [nnKMH] or MOV SE [nnKMH] or MOV SE
speed) with MOV SSE [nnKMH] or MOV S [nnKMH] STNR
reference to one or MOV SSW [nnKMH] or MOV SW
of the sixteen [nnKMH] or MOV WSW [nnKMH] or
points MOV W [nnKMH] or MOV WNW
of compass, or [nnKMH] or MOV NW [nnKMH] or MOV
stationary (C) NNW [nnKMH] (or MOV N [nnKT] or
MOV NNE [nnKT] or MOV NE [nnKT] or
MOV ENE [nnKT] or MOV E [nnKT] or
MOV ESE [nnKT] or MOV SE [nnKT] or
MOV SSE [nnKT] or MOV S [nnKT] or
MOV SSW [nnKT] or MOV SW [nnKT] or
MOV WSW [nnKT] or MOV W [nnKT] or
MOV WNW [nnKT] or MOV NW [nnKT]
or MOV NNW [nnKT]) or STNR
Changes in Expected INTSF or WKN or NC — WKN
intensity (C) changes in
intensity (C)
Forecast Forecast FCST nnnnZ TC — — FCST 2200Z
position (C) position of CENTRE Nnn[nn] or TC CENTRE
volcanic ash Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or N2740
cloud or the Ennn[nn] W07345
centre of the TC or FCST 1700Z
or other FCST nnnnZ VA CLD VA CLD APRX
hazardous APRX S15 E075 —
phenomena1 at [nnKM WID LINE BTN S15 E081 —
the end of the (nnNM WID LINE S17 E083 —
validity period BTN)] S18 E079 —
of the SIGMET Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn] S15 E075
message (C) Wnnn[nn] or FCST 0500Z
Ennn[nn] ENTIRE FIR
— Nnn[nn] or FCST 0500Z
Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or ENTIRE CTA
Ennn[nn] FCST 0500Z
[ — Nnn[nn] or NO VA EXP
Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn]]
[ — Nnn[nn] or
Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn]]
[AND]
or2
FCST nnnnZ
ENTIRE FIR3
1 To be used for hazardous phenomena other than volcanic ash cloud and tropical cyclones.
2 To be used for two volcanic ash clouds or two centres of tropical cyclones simultaneously affecting the FIR concerned.
3
Only for SIGMET messages for volcanic ash.
Template(s)
Detailed
Elements SPECIAL Examples
content SIGMET AIRMET
AIR-REPORT
or
FCST nnnnZ
ENTIRE CTA3
or
FCST nnnnZ NO VA
EXP
or1
[FCST nnnnZ Nnn[nn]
Wnnn[nn] or
Nnn[nn] Ennn[nn] or
Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Snn[nn] Ennn[nn]
or
N OF Nnn[nn] or
S OF Nnn[nn] or
N OF Snn[nn] or
S OF Snn[nn]
[AND]
W OF Wnnn[nn] or
E OF Wnnn[nn] or
W OF Ennn[nn] or
E OF Ennn[nn]
or
[N OF, NE OF, E OF,
SE OF, S OF, SW OF,
W OF, NW OF] [LINE]
Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn]
Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn] — Nnn[nn]
or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn]
or Ennn[nn]
or
WI2 Nnn[nn] or
Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn] — Nnn[nn]
or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn]
or Ennn[nn] —
Nnn[nn] or Snn[nn]
Wnnn[nn] or
Ennn[nn] — Nnn[nn]
or Snn[nn] Wnnn[nn]
or Ennn[nn]]
OR
1 To be used for hazardous phenomena other than volcanic ash cloud and tropical cyclones.
2
The number of coordinates should be kept to a minimum and should not normally exceed seven.
Template(s)
Detailed
Elements SPECIAL Examples
content SIGMET AIRMET
AIR-REPORT
Cancellation Cancellation of CNL SIGMET [nn]n CNL AIRMET — CNL SIGMET 2
of SIGMET/AIRMET nnnnnn/nnnnnn or [nn]n 101200/1016
SIGMET/AIR referring to its CNL SIGMET [nn]n nnnnnn/nnnnn 00
MET (C) identification nnnnnn/nnnnnn [VA n CNL SIGMET 3
MOV TO nnnn FIR]1 251030/2514
30 VA MOV
TO YUDO FIR
CNL AIRMET
151520/1518
00
1
Only for SIGMET messages for volcanic ash.
1
If ash reported (e.g. AIREP) but not identifiable from satellite data.
1
Up to four selected layers.
Note 1: The ranges and resolutions for the numerical elements included in advisory messages for tropical
cyclones are shown in Appendix 8.
Note 2: The explanations for the abbreviations can be found in Procedures for Air Navigation Services — ICAO
Abbreviations and Codes (PANS-ABC, Doc 8400).
Note 3: All the elements are mandatory.
Note 4: Inclusion of a ‘colon’ after each element heading is mandatory.
Note 5: The numbers 1 to 19 are included only for clarity and they are not part of the advisory message, as
shown in the example.
Element Detailed content Template(s) Examples
1 Identification of the Type of message TC TC
type of message ADVISORY ADVISORY
2 Time of origin Year, month, day DTG: nnnnnnnn/nnn DTG: 20040925/1
and time in UTC of nZ 600Z
issue
3 Name of TCAC Name of TCAC TCAC: nnnn or TCAC: YUFO
(location indicator or nnnnnnnnnn TCAC: MIAMI
full name)
4 Name of tropical Name of tropical TC: nnnnnnnnnnnn TC: GLORIA
cyclone cyclone or‘NN’ for or NN
unnamed tropical
cyclone
5 Advisory number Advisory number NR: nn NR: 01
(starting with ‘01’
for each cyclone)
6 Position of the Position of the PSN: Nnn[nn] or PSN: N2706
centre centre of the Snn[nn] W07306
tropical cyclone (in Wnnn[nn] or
degrees and Ennn[nn]
minutes)
7 Direction and Direction and speed MOV: N nnKMH (or MOV: NW 20KMH
speed of of movement given KT) or NNE
movement in sixteen compass nnKMH (or KT)
points and km/h (or or NE nnKMH
kt), respectively, or (or KT) or ENE
moving slowly (< nnKMH (or KT)
6 km/h (3 kt)) or or E nnKMH (or
stationary (< 2 km/h KT) or ESE
(1 kt)) nnKMH (or KT)
or SE nnKMH
(or KT) or SSE
nnKMH (or KT)
or S nnKMH (or
KT) or SSW
nnKMH (or KT)
or SW nnKMH
(or KT) or WSW
nnKMH (or KT)
Ranges and resolutions for the numerical elements included in volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisory
messages, SIGMET/AIRMET messages and aerodrome and wind shear warnings
Elements Range Resolution
Summit elevation: M 000–8100 1
FT 000–27000 1
1
Advisory number: for VA (index) 000–2000 1
for TC (index)1 00–99 1
Maximum surface wind: MPS 00–99 1
KT 00–199 1
Central pressure: hPa 850–1050 1
Surface wind speed: MPS 15–49 1
KT 30–99 1
Surface visibility: M 0000–0750 50
M 0800–5000 100
Cloud: height of base: M 000–300 30
FT 000–1000 100
Cloud: height of top: M 000–2970 30
M 3000–20000 300
FT 000–9900 100
FT 10000–60000 1000
Latitudes: ° (degrees) 00–90 1
(minutes) 00–60 1
Longitudes: ° (degrees) 000–180 1
(minutes) 00–60 1
Flight levels: 000–650 10
Movement: KMH 0–300 10
KT 0–150 5
1
Non-dimensional
ANNEX VI — PART-AIS
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF
AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES
SUBPART A — ADDITIONAL ORGANISATION REQUIREMENTS
FOR PROVIDERS OF AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION
SERVICES (AIS.OR)
(a) An aeronautical information services provider shall ensure that information and data are
available for operations in a form suitable for:
(1) flight operating personnel, including flight crew;
(2) flight planning, flight management systems and flight simulators;
(3) air traffic services providers which are responsible for flight information services,
aerodrome flight information services and the provision of pre-flight information.
(b) Aeronautical information services providers shall ensure the integrity of data and confirm the
level of accuracy of the information distributed for operations, including the source of such
information, before such information is distributed.
An aeronautical information services provider shall be able to demonstrate that their working
methods and operating procedures are compliant with the standards in the following Annexes to the
Chicago Convention as far as they are relevant to the provision of aeronautical information services in
the airspace concerned:
(a) Annex 4 on aeronautical charts in its 11th edition of July 2009, including all amendments up to
and including No 58;
(b) without prejudice to Commission Regulation (EU) No 73/20101, Annex 15 on aeronautical
information services in its 14th edition of July 2013, including all amendments up to and
including No 38.
1 Commission Regulation (EU) No 73/2010 of 26 January 2010 laying down requirements on the quality of aeronautical data and
aeronautical information for the single European sky (OJ L 23, 27.1.2010, p. 6).
(a) The DAT provider shall receive, assemble, translate, select, format, distribute and/or integrate
aeronautical data and information that is released by an authoritative source for use in
aeronautical databases on certified aircraft application/equipment.
In specific cases, if aeronautical data is not provided in the aeronautical information publication
(AIP) or by an authoritative source or does not meet the applicable data quality requirements
(DQRs), that aeronautical data may be originated by the DAT provider itself and/or by other DAT
providers. In this context, that aeronautical data shall be validated by the DAT provider
originating it.
(b) When so requested by its customers, the DAT provider may process tailored data provided by
the aircraft operator or originating from other DAT providers for use by that aircraft operator.
The responsibility for this data and its subsequent update shall remain with the aircraft
operator.
GENERAL
(a) Aeronautical data and information in this context should consist of:
(1) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package (IAIP); and/or
(2) obstacle data; and/or
(3) terrain data; and/or
(4) Aerodrome Mapping Data (AMD); and/or
(5) other data and information that is validated by the DAT provider for the purpose of
provision of its services.
(b) Aeronautical databases should be databases, used on certified aircraft application/equipment,
that support the flight operation where incorrect data leads to failures having at least minor or
higher failure effect.
(c) The scope should not include databases that are approved as part of the type design of the
aircraft or engine (e.g. engine power settings (take-off, climb, maximum continuous thrust
(MCT), cruise) and aircraft performance data (e.g. take-off distance, V speeds)).
GENERAL
(a) In the context of this Regulation, aeronautical databases should include databases, used on
certified aircraft applications, that support the flight operation of aircraft for the purpose of
primary communication, navigation and surveillance (CNS) or supplementing CNS.
(1) Database used in primary CNS applications (e.g. flight management system (FMS)).
(2) Database used in supplementary CNS applications including but not limited to systems
generating alerts and used for awareness having the following databases:
(i) database for synthetic vision systems;
(ii) terrain database (TAWS);
(iii) obstacle database (TAWS);
(iv) aerodrome mapping database (AMDB);
(v) brake assistance to vacate; and
(vi) surface indication and alert system.
(b) Databases for which the DAT provider is not required to be certified in accordance with this
Regulation include but are not limited to:
(1) databases provided and/or used by the operator of the aircraft that are monitored under
the operator’s responsibility and not loaded into certified aircraft applications (e.g.
airport moving map used in electronic flight bags (EFBs), take-off and landing
performance used in EFBs);
(2) databases not having any safety affect (e.g. used for passenger in-flight entertainment
(IFE) systems outside the flight deck, etc.); and
(3) databases for systems applications/equipment installed on aircraft certified for visual
flight rules (VFR) operation only, except those used for primary navigation to meet the
airspace usage requirements.
DATA SOURCE
The DAT provider should use data coming from authoritative sources. If such data is not formally made
available by an authoritative source or does not meet the applicable data quality requirements, but is
required by end users, the DAT provider may use data from other (non-authoritative) sources,
provided these have been verified and validated by the DAT provider itself and/or other DAT providers
to conform with the relevant standards and data quality requirements.
If a non-authoritative source is used for the data release, the DAT provider should issue a statement
at its discretion.
NON-AUTHORITATIVE SOURCE
(a) A non-authoritative source may be an organisation other than those defined in point 32 of
Annex I, but providing and/or publishing data derived from data gathering or measuring
performed (e.g. by aircraft operators, air crew, DAT providers, or other similar operational
organisations, or a combination thereof), transformation of various sources to provide
aeronautical data which conform with relevant standards and data quality requirements as
specified by the airspace end users.
(b) When validating data from a non-authoritative source, the DAT provider should proceed by
using either additional information sources to validate this data (like satellite imagery, data or
manuals from other providers, users, military, etc.), or data which has been tested and
confirmed through operations.
DATA SOURCE
The first known DAT provider that uses data coming from other (non-authoritative) sources in the
aeronautical data chain, accepts the responsibility of the data originator (i.e. ensuring that the data
meets the data quality requirements).
END USER
In the context of this Regulation, the end users should be considered the ‘airspace users’ as defined
in Article 2(8) of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004.
GENERAL
(a) The full responsibility for the origination and provision of tailored data and its subsequent
updates, as required, should lie with the aircraft operator.
(b) The origination and provision of tailored data by an aircraft operator or on the aircraft
operator’s behalf for the purpose of air operation is not part of the DAT provider’s scope of
activities and this Regulation does not cover its oversight.
(c) The use of tailored data is related and limited to the operational purposes of the aircraft
operator that requested the insertion of the tailored data.
DQR COMPATIBILITY
The Type 2 DAT provider should ensure through an appropriate arrangement that the equipment
design approval holder or an applicant for an approval of that specific design is responsible for
demonstrating (e.g. using system verification tests, sampling checks, etc.) that the DQRs are consistent
with the intended function of the equipment.
6. Deviations: Deviations
7. New database release: 8. Additional database release (correction):
9. Declaration of conformity: [XXX] databases released and distributed are produced in compliance with
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
10. Attesting staff:
AIRAC cycle/
validity period:
Field 5:
In case of Type 1 DAT provider, list the standard data formats.
In case of Type 2 DAT provider, list the equipment models and part numbers where compatibility has been demonstrated, or make
reference to the document containing equipment models and part numbers where compatibility has been demonstrated.
Field 6: List the deviations or make reference to where the deviation information can be found (e.g. a weblink).
Field 10:Signature of an authorised representative of the applicant.
INDEPENDENCE
A DAT provider should ensure that the attesting staff and the person involved in the database release
is not a single person (i.e. the four-eye principle).
In addition to point ATM/ANS.OR.B.005, the DAT provider, as applicable for the type of DAT provision,
shall establish and maintain a management system that includes control procedures for:
(a) document issue, approval or change;
(b) DQRs change;
(c) verification that incoming data has been produced in accordance with the applicable standards;
(d) timely update of the data used;
(e) identification and traceability;
(f) processes for reception, assembly, translation, selection, formatting, distribution and/or
integration of data into a generic database or database compatible with the specific aircraft
application/equipment;
(g) data verification and validation techniques;
(h) identification of tools, including configuration management and tools qualification, as
necessary;
(i) handling of errors/deficiencies;
(j) coordination with the aeronautical data source provider(s) and/or DAT provider(s), and with the
equipment design approval holder or an applicant for an approval of that specific design when
providing type 2 DAT services;
(k) issue of statement of conformity;
(l) controlled distribution of databases to users.
TOOLS QUALIFICATION
Tools qualification should meet the standards specified in EUROCAE ED-76A/RTCA DO-200B
‘Standards for Processing Aeronautical Data’, dated June 2015. EUROCAE ED-76/RTCA DO-200A may
be also used for the demonstration of compliance.
DAT.OR.115 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
In addition to ATM/ANS.OR.B.030, the DAT provider shall include in its record-keeping system the
elements indicated in DAT.OR.110.
GENERAL
The DAT provider should notify the competent authority of the following by using the occurrence
reporting form:
(a) errors/deficiencies affecting safe operations in an airspace segment/block;
(b) errors/deficiencies with negative impact on safety stemming from a source in a Member State
or a functional airspace block (FAB); and
(c) errors/deficiencies with negative impact on safety stemming from erroneous processing of the
data or information within the intended aircraft application/equipment.
UNSAFE CONDITION
‘Unsafe condition’ may be considered as a situation where due to a data error there will be, but is not
limited to:
aircraft deviation from the published procedure;
erroneous warning (red colour) in the cockpit (e.g. PULL UP, TERRAIN, RWY TOO SHORT);
pilot workload increase due to presentation of misleading or conflicting data in the primary
flight display; and
malfunction or defect of an indication system at a critical phase of the flight, etc.
DATA SOURCE
In reference to the ‘data source’, please refer to AMC1 DAT.OR.100(a) ‘Aeronautical data and
information’.
DATA EXCHANGE
To support data integrity, the DAT provider may use digital data sets as a preferred means of data
exchange.
DATA PROCESSING
The DAT provider should keep the records for a period of at least 3 years after the end of the validity
period of the database unless otherwise specified by other applicable requirements.
SIGNATURE
The attesting staff, authorised by the DAT provider, may sign the statements issued in accordance with
DAT.OR.105(b) manually or in a digital manner (e.g. digital signature).
ATTESTING STAFF
(a) To qualify as attesting staff, appropriate knowledge, background, experience and specific
training or assessment established by the DAT provider should be required.
(b) Training should be provided to develop a satisfactory level of knowledge of organisational
procedures, processes and products, aviation law, and associated IRs, AMC and GM, relevant to
the particular role.
(c) In addition to the general training policy, the DAT provider should define its own standards for
training, including qualification standards, for personnel to be identified as attesting staff.
(d) The training should be updated in response to experience gained and technological
advancements.
The DAT provider shall ensure the necessary formal interfaces with:
(a) aeronautical data source(s) and/or other DAT providers;
(b) the equipment design approval holder for type 2 DAT provision, or an applicant for an approval
of that specific design;
(c) aircraft operators, as applicable.
INTERFACES WITH THE AERONAUTICAL DATA SOURCE AND/OR OTHER DAT PROVIDERS
(a) The DAT provider should demonstrate that formal interfaces with aeronautical data sources or
other DAT providers are implemented. Procedures should be established to communicate
instances of erroneous, inconsistent or missing data to such providers and monitor that timely
and effective responses are received.
(b) Where resolution and correction cannot be obtained for data that has been called into question,
the DAT provider’s procedures for dealing with this situation should ensure that the DAT
provider communicates the alteration or removal of data which the aeronautical data source
and/or other DAT provider has not concurred with or resolved. The DAT provider’s procedures
should confirm that effective controls are in place to ensure that an unsafe product is not
released and that such concerns are communicated to customers in accordance with the
requirements laid down in DAT.OR.200.
INTERFACES WITH THE AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT DESIGN APPROVAL HOLDER FOR TYPE 2 DAT PROVISION
The DAT provider should demonstrate that formal interfaces exist with the equipment design approval
holder. In particular, the DAT provider’s procedures should stipulate that the equipment design
approval holder communicates and responds to issues and constraints concerning
compatibility/eligibility for installation between their equipment and the databases of the DAT
provider.
(a) A communication, navigation or surveillance services provider shall ensure the availability,
continuity, accuracy and integrity of their services.
(b) A communication, navigation or surveillance services provider shall confirm the quality level of
the services they are providing, and shall demonstrate that their equipment is regularly
maintained and, where required, calibrated.
A communication, navigation or surveillance services provider shall be able to demonstrate that its
working methods and operating procedures are compliant with the standards of Annex 10 to the
Chicago Convention on aeronautical telecommunications in the following versions as far as they are
relevant to the provision of communication, navigation or surveillance services in the airspace
concerned:
(a) Volume I on radio navigation aids in its 6th edition of July 2006, including all amendments up to
and including No 89;
(b) Volume II on communication procedures, including those with PANS status in its 6th edition of
October 2001, including all amendments up to and including No 89;
(c) Volume III on communications systems in its 2nd edition of July 2007, including all amendments
up to and including No 89;
(d) Volume IV on surveillance radar and collision avoidance systems in its 4th edition of July 2007,
including all amendments up to and including No 89;
(e) Volume V on aeronautical radio frequency spectrum utilisation in its 3rd edition of July 2013,
including all amendments up to and including No 89.
ANNEX IX — PART-ATFM
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF AIR TRAFFIC
FLOW MANAGEMENT
TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF AIR TRAFFIC
FLOW MANAGEMENT (ATFM.TR)
An air traffic flow management provider shall be able to demonstrate that its working methods and
operating procedures are compliant with Commission Regulations (EU) No 255/20101 and (EU)
No 677/2011.
1 Commission Regulation (EU) No 255/2010 of 25 March 2010 laying down common rules on air traffic flow management (OJ L 80,
26.3.2010, p. 10).
ANNEX X — PART-ASM
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF AIRSPACE
MANAGEMENT
TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF AIRSPACE
MANAGEMENT (ASM.TR)
An airspace management provider shall be able to demonstrate that its working methods and
operating procedures are compliant with Commission Regulations (EC) No 2150/20051 and (EU)
No 677/2011.
1 Commission Regulation (EC) No 2150/2005 of 23 December 2005 laying down common rules for the flexible use of airspace (OJ L 342,
24.12.2005, p. 20).
ANNEX XI — PART-ASD
SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF PROCEDURE
DESIGN
The Network Manager shall be able to demonstrate that its working methods and operating
procedures are compliant with other Union legislation and in particular with Regulation (EU)
No 255/2010 and (EU) No 677/2011.
ATSEP.OR.100 Scope
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
(a) This Subpart establishes the requirements to be met by the service provider with respect to the
training and the competence assessment of air traffic safety electronics personnel (ATSEP).
(b) For the service providers applying for a limited certificate in accordance with points (a) and (b)
of point ATM/ANS.OR.A.010 and/or declaring its activities in accordance with point
ATM/ANS.OR.A.015, the minimum requirements to be met with respect to the training and the
competence assessment of ATSEP may be determined by the competent authority. Those
minimum requirements shall be based on qualification, experience and recent experience, to
maintain specific equipment or types of equipment and ensuring equivalent level of safety.
GENERAL
Whilst it is acknowledged that ‘power supply’ and ‘air conditioning’ systems and equipment that can
be critical elements of the aviation safety chain and that personnel should, therefore, be appropriately
trained in those areas, it is not considered that this training should fall within the scope of the ATSEP
training provisions. In general, ATSEP do not work on these systems, but rather control and manage
the release of power and air conditioning systems, to and from operational service. In this situation,
the person does not have, and is not expected to have, extensive knowledge of the aviation
environment to provide the required service. Consequently, the vast majority of the Initial Training
objectives would not be applicable to a power engineer.
In accordance with point ATM/ANS.OR.B.005(a)(6), the service provider employing ATSEP shall
establish a training and competence assessment programme to cover the duties and responsibilities
to be performed by ATSEP.
When ATSEP are employed by a contracted organisation, the service provider shall ensure that those
ATSEP have received the applicable training and competences foreseen in this Subpart.
GENERAL
The training and competence assessment programme should include:
(a) the training policy;
(b) the description of all training activities and the interrelations between different training
activities;
(c) the description of the function/role of the phase/course supervisor, instructors and assessors;
(d) the description of the qualifications of instructional and competence assessment personnel;
(e) the target group of learners;
(f) the description of the minimum qualification of learners or required entry levels (‘learner’ is the
generic term for a person performing a learning activity without any reference to his or her
status (ab initio/student/trainee));
(g) the description of knowledge outcome and performance objectives;
(h) the record of supervisory, instructional and competence assessment personnel participating in
a course;
(i) the training environment (e.g. infrastructure, equipment, etc.);
(j) the training methodology (e.g. classroom instruction, self-study, computer-based training
(CBT), on-the-job training (OJT), etc.);
(k) the training material;
(l) the training schedule;
(m) the competence assessment method (e.g. pre-course, on-training evaluation, post-course, etc.);
(n) the record of individual learners training and competence assessment; and
(o) the feedback mechanisms.
CHANGE OF ORGANISATION
When already qualified and experienced ATSEP move from one service provider to another, the
receiving service provider may conduct an analysis and/or competence assessment of their previous
training. Any identified training shortcomings, relative to their new duties assignments should be
addressed through additional training.
ATSEP.OR.110 Record-keeping
Regulation (EU) 2017/373
In addition to point ATM/ANS.OR.B.030, the service provider employing ATSEP shall maintain records
of all the training completed by ATSEP, as well as the competence assessment of ATSEP and make such
records available:
(a) on request, to the ATSEP concerned;
(b) on request, and with the agreement of the ATSEP, to the new employer when the ATSEP is
employed by a new entity.
The service provider shall ensure that ATSEP are proficient in the language(s) required to perform their
duties.
LANGUAGE LEVEL
Service providers should determine the level of language proficiency based on the particular ATSEP
duties, the safety criticality of the system ATSEP will need to work on, and taking into account the
language requirements related to operating instructions, manuals, and the need to communicate
across operational boundaries that require a common language.
STRUCTURE SYLLABI
Guidance material on how to read the tables in the appendices contained in this Subpart A of
ANNEX XIII is provided in Appendix 5a.
BASIC TRAINING
For the purpose of this section, ‘basic training’ is understood as being training designed to impart
fundamental knowledge of the service provider’s operational environment.
QUALIFICATION TRAINING
For the purpose of this section, ‘qualification training’ is understood as being training designed to
impart knowledge and skills appropriate to the qualification stream to be pursued in the service
provider’s operational environment.
SYSTEM/EQUIPMENT RATING TRAINING
For the purpose of this section, ‘system/equipment rating training’ is understood as being training
designed to impart system/equipment-related knowledge and skills leading towards operational
competence.
CONTINUATION TRAINING
For the purpose of this section, ‘continuation training’ is understood as being training designed to
maintain and/or augment existing knowledge and skills related to the ATSEP assigned responsibilities
and duties.
MINIMUM TRAINING
The basic training contained within the requirement is the minimum training that needs to be followed
by all who aim at becoming ATSEP. However, service providers may decide to add additional subjects
or topics that may be specific to their national or local environment.
COMPOSITION OF COURSES
Basic training may be provided as a stand-alone course or as part of a larger initial training course
(i.e. basic plus qualification training).
GENERAL
The subjects, topics, and sub-topics should be tailored to:
(a) the responsibility of the ATSEP regarding the service provider’s activities; and
(b) prior experience and education of the candidate ATSEP.
SHARED
The objectives contained in Appendix 1a to this AMC should be included in the basic training course.
STREAMS
The topics, sub-topics and objectives contained in Appendix 2a to this AMC should be included in the
basic training course.
ENTRY LEVEL
In some instances, only a limited number of training objectives will need to be taught to learners
ATSEP. This is usually the case when the entry level of learners includes some form of previous
qualification (e.g. engineering degree or diploma). In this case, the length of training and the number
of objectives may be less than that of a course directed to learners who have little or no engineering
or technical qualifications. If no engineering or technical qualifications are required prior to starting
the basic training, then it may be necessary to include additional objectives in the training that will
prepare learners to deal with the basic training.
GENERAL
The subjects, topics, and sub-topics should be tailored to:
(a) the responsibility of the ATSEP regarding the service provider’s activities; and
(b) prior experience and education of the candidate ATSEP.
SHARED
The objectives contained in Appendix 3a to this AMC should be included in the qualification training
course.
MINIMUM TRAINING
The qualification training contained within the requirement is the minimum training that needs to be
followed by all who aim at becoming ATSEP. However, service providers may decide to add additional
subjects or topics that may be specific to their national or local environment.
COMPOSITION OF COURSES
Qualification training may be provided as (a) stand-alone course(s) or as part of a larger course.
FLEXIBILITY
Service providers may choose to add content to a qualification stream to tailor the training to meet
the needs of the individual organisation.
STREAMS
The objectives contained in Appendix 4a to this AMC should be included in the qualification training
course.
STREAMS
For the purpose of this section, ‘streams’ is understood as being a cluster of training objectives that
support a particular area of work.
Qualification
Streams
COM-VCE
COM-DAT
NAV-NDB
NAV-DF
Development
route NAV-VOR
SMC is
considered as NAV-DME 1 + n S/E SMC S/E
an extension of rating(s) Development
one of the NAV-ILS training training
other
disciplines. NAV-MLS
BASIC TRAINING
ATSEP
activities may SUR-PSR ATSEP able to ATSEP able to
alternate
perform Level perform SMC
between SMC A and/or B Level A and/or B
SUR-SSR
and specialist and/or C tasks and/or C tasks
tasks. once training once training is
SUR-ADS
is successfully successfully
completed. completed.
DAT-DP
SMC-COM
SMC with S/E
Direct route rating at level
SMC-NAV
SMC S/E A
ATSEP rating
training in relevant
activities are SMC-SUR
stream(s)
SMC only
SMC-DAT
A direct route
SMC relies on
specialists to
execute level B
tasks on S/E.
(a) The system and equipment rating training of ATSEPs shall be applicable to the duties to be
performed and include one or several of the following:
(1) theoretical courses;
(2) practical courses;
(3) on-the-job training.
(b) The system and equipment rating training shall ensure that candidate ATSEP acquire knowledge
and skills pertaining to:
(1) the functionality of the system and equipment;
(2) the actual and potential impact of ATSEP actions on the system and equipment;
(3) the impact of the system and equipment on the operational environment.
The continuation training of ATSEPs shall comprise refresher, equipment/systems upgrades and
modifications, and/or emergency training.
GENERAL
The frequency and duration of continuation training should be determined by taking into account the
ATSEP task exposure (recency) as well as the complexity of the operation and of the maintenance of
systems.
REFRESHER TRAINING
(a) For the purpose of this section, ‘refresher training’ is understood as being training designed to
review, reinforce or upgrade existing knowledge and skills (including team skills).
(b) Refresher training may periodically include training to refresh and augment ATSEP team skills.
Team skills include but are not limited to communication, negotiation, decision-making, conflict
resolution and listening skills.
EMERGENCY TRAINING
(c) ‘Emergency training’ is understood as being training designed to broaden knowledge, skills, and
behaviour in case of emergency, unusual or degraded situation. Most of the training will be site-
specific or may make use of incident or accident analysis.
(d) The term ‘emergency’ is considered as a serious, unexpected and/or potentially dangerous
situation requiring immediate action(s), e.g. complete loss of any of the following:
radar display picture;
Electronic Flight Progress Strip system;
main, standby and emergency communications on multiple frequencies due to external
interference blocking the radiotelephony channels.
(e) The term ‘unusual situation’ is considered as a set of circumstances which are neither habitually
nor commonly experienced and for which an ATSEP has not developed a practised response.
(f) The term ‘degraded situation’ is considered as a situation that is the result of a technical system
failure or malfunction or a set of circumstances arising from human error or violation of rules
affecting the quality of the service provided (i.e. the service continues to be available, even
though in a reduced or limited way). For instance, external main supply’s failure to a Category III
ILS localiser field site cabin or a normally dual channel DME having a fault on one channel.
MEANING
‘Competence’ is understood as a situation where ATSEP possess the required level of knowledge,
technical and behavioural skills and experience, and language proficiency when required, in order to
be authorised to perform duties on the system and equipment they are competent to work on.
BEHAVIOURAL SKILLS
Behavioural skills are non-technical skills and attitudes that ATSEP need to perform effectively.
Examples of potential behavioural skills criteria related to initial and ongoing competence are:
(a) cooperation within a team;
(b) attitudes towards safety and security;
(c) flexibility;
(d) analytical thinking; and
(e) ability to communicate effectively.
EXPERIENCE
To be considered suitably experienced, technical skills assessors should:
(a) have clear understanding of the service provider’s assessment process and procedures
applicable;
(b) have clear understanding of the performance required of the ATSEP during the assessment
and/or on-going assessment;
(c) have the ability to evaluate, in an objective and independent manner, whether the ATSEP has
achieved or is maintaining the level of performance required;
(d) have the ability to assess and, if required, act when intervention is necessary to ensure that
safety is not compromised;
(e) have the ability to analyse and accurately describe and/or record strengths and weaknesses of
an ATSEP performance; and
(f) use appropriate interpersonal and communication skills to brief and debrief an ATSEP, if
required.
A service provider employing ATSEP shall ensure that technical skills assessors have successfully
completed an assessor course and are suitably experienced to assess the criteria defined in point
ATSEP.OR.305(b).
GENERAL
The technical skills assessor is the person who is considered suitable to determine whether an ATSEP
is technically competent to operate, maintain, release from and return into operations systems that
are necessary for the provision of services. This assessment may be in any context where assessment
of technical skills is required, e.g. assessment of first competence, ongoing competence.
ASSESSMENT RESPONSIBILITIES
(a) Where a technical skills assessor works regularly with an ATSEP, he or she is required to assess
the ATSEP. Continuous assessment may be appropriate, i.e. assessment may be achieved by the
technical assessor observing the standard of an ATSEP’s work on a continuous basis as he or she
works with the ATSEP during normal operational duties.
(b) If the appointed technical assessor also acts as line manager to the individual ATSEP, the service
provider should have in place a process to reduce biases. Responsibility for determining
competence lies with the person having the safety accountability for the ATSEP function.
Subject 1: INDUCTION
TOPIC 1 BASIND — Induction
Sub-topic 1.1 — Training and Assessment Overview
Sub-topic 1.2 — National Organisation
Sub-topic 1.3 — Workplace
Sub-topic 1.4 — ATSEP role
Sub-topic 1.5 — European/Worldwide Dimension
Sub-topic 1.6 — International Standards and Recommended Practices
Sub-topic 1.7 — Data Security
Sub-topic 1.8 — Quality Management
Sub-topic 1.9 — Safety Management System
Sub-topic 1.10 — Health and Safety
Subject 2: AIR TRAFFIC FAMILIARISATION
TOPIC 1 BASATF — Air Traffic Familiarisation
Sub-topic 1.1 — Air Traffic Management
Sub-topic 1.2 — Air Traffic Control
Sub-topic 1.3 — Ground-based Safety Nets
Sub-topic 1.4 — Air Traffic Control Tools and Monitoring Aids
Sub-topic 1.5 — Familiarisation
The subjects, topics and sub-topics are repeated in this AMC for the convenience of the reader and do
not form a part of it.
SUBJECT 1: INDUCTION
TOPIC 1: INDUCTION
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Training and assessment overview
1.1.1 Describe the training scheme and 2 Initial (basic and qualification), S/E rating and
progression towards ATSEP competence continuation training. Course aims, objectives,
and topics.
1.1.2 State the assessment requirements, 1 —
procedures, and methods
1.1.5 State future developments in systems 1 e.g. data link, satellite-based navigation, gate-to-
and/or ATM/ANS practices which may gate (CDM), ATC tools, continuous approach, 4D
impact on services provided trajectory, business trajectory, SWIM, NOP,
SESAR (UDPP, modes of separation), ASAS.
1.1.6 List the standard units of measurement used 1 Speed, distance, vertical distance, time,
in aviation direction, pressure, temperature.
The Subjects are repeated in this Appendix for the convenience of the reader and do not form a part
of it.
SUBJECT 3: AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES (AIS)
TOPIC 1: AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Aeronautical Information Services
1.1.1 State the organisation of the AIS 1 —
1.1.2 Define the AIP 1 e.g. contents of AIP, AIC and types of publication:
AIRAC, non-AIRAC, data collection and
preparation, data format, distribution channels,
supporting systems and tools
1.1.3 Define the aeronautical charting service 1 Types of aeronautical charts, operational use of
charts, supporting systems and tools
1.1.4 Define the NOTAM services 1 —
1.1.5 Define the ATS Reporting Office 1 e.g. purpose of flight plans and other ATS
messages, types of flight plans (FPL and RPL),
contents of flight plans and other ATS messages,
distribution of flight plans and other ATS
messages, supporting systems and tools
1.1.6 Define the European AIS Database 1 e.g. central single source, validation, redundancy,
EAD structure
1.1.7 Define procedures for providing 1 Information of a permanent nature, information
Communications, Navigation and of a temporary nature, status report of NAVAIDs
Surveillance (CNS) data
SUBJECT 4: METEOROLOGY
TOPIC 1: METEOROLOGY
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Introduction to meteorology
1.1.1 State the relevance of meteorology in 1 Influence on the operation of aircraft, flying
aviation conditions, aerodrome conditions
SUBJECT 5: COMMUNICATION
TOPIC 1: GENERAL INTRODUCTION
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Introduction to communications
1.1.1 State the structure of the communication 1 Voice communication, data communication
domain
1.1.2 State major substructures of the 1 Air-ground, ground-ground, air-air
communication domain communications
1.1.3 State ATS requirements for safe 1 Safety, reliability, availability, coverage, QoS,
communications latency
1.1.4 State the aeronautical communication 1 Mobile, fixed
services
SUBJECT 6: NAVIGATION
TOPIC 1: INTRODUCTION
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Purpose and use of navigation
1.1.1 Explain the need for navigation in aviation 2 Positioning, guidance, planning
1.1.2 Characterise navigation methods 2 e.g. historical overview, visual, celestial,
electronic (on-board, radio, space-based and
relative)
3.2.2 Explain the need for redundancy in 2 Ensuring continuity of service, maintainability,
navigation systems reliability
SUBJECT 7: SURVEILLANCE
TOPIC 1: INTRODUCTION TO SURVEILLANCE
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Introduction to surveillance
1.1.1 Define surveillance in the context of ATM 1 What (positioning/identification) and why
(maintain separation)
1.1.2 Define the various surveillance domains 1 Air-air, ground-air, ground-ground
1.1.3 List the surveillance techniques 1 Non-cooperative, cooperative, dependent,
independent techniques
1.1.4 Define the current and emerging surveillance 1 Radar technology, ADS technology,
systems in use in ATM multilateration, TIS
1.1.5 Explain the role and the current use of 2 Separation, vectoring, data acquisition
surveillance equipment by ATM Detection and ranging, safety nets
e.g. weather mapping
1.1.6 State ICAO and any local legal requirements 1 e.g. ICAO Annex 10 Vol. IV
1.1.7 List the main users of surveillance data 1 HMI, safety nets, FDPS, air defence systems, flow
management
1.3.3 State the limitations of primary radar 1 Line of sight, environmental, clutter, no
identification of the target, no height information
(in case of 2D radar)
1.1.2 Describe the technical system architecture of 2 Main monitoring and control architecture
the SMC function and its subordinate e.g. Surveillance: Radar stations,
systems communications, processing, display
Communications: TX/RX, circuit management,
networks, HMI, standby facilities, recording
Navigation: NDB, VOR, ILS, DF
DP: FDPS, data communications
Facilities: Power, generators, UPS, battery,
environmental (heating, cooling), fire and
security
1.1.3 Describe the transfer of responsibility for a 2 Operational and technical responsibility
service Configuration and monitoring access and
responsibility
1.5.2 State which parties may be involved in the 1 e.g. ATC supervisors (local and remote), ATSEP
coordination and reporting of emergency supervisors (local and remote), management,
situations police, MIL, medical, accident investigation
branch
1.5.3 Explain the responsibilities and/or duties of 2 —
SMC members during an emergency situation
by using an example scenario
1.5.4 State the succession of authorities and 1 Hierarchy of responsibility
responsibilities in the event that the
nominated person or function is not available
Subject 1: SAFETY
TOPIC 1 — Safety Management
Sub-topic 1.1 — Policy and Principles
Sub-topic 1.2 — Concept of Risk and Principles of Risk Assessment
Sub-topic 1.3 — Safety Assessment Process
Sub-topic 1.4 — Air Navigation System Risk Classification Scheme
Sub-topic 1.5 — Safety Regulation
TOPIC 7 — Stress
Sub-topic 7.1 — Stress
Sub-topic 7.2 — Stress Management
TOPIC 8 — Human Error
Sub-topic 8.1 — Human Error
The subjects, topics and sub-topics are repeated in this AMC for the convenience of the reader and do
not form a part of it.
SUBJECT 1: SAFETY
TOPIC 1: SAFETY MANAGEMENT
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Policy and principles
1.1.1 Explain the underlying need for safety 2 ICAO Annex 19, lessons learnt from events,
management policy and principles evolving environment, requirements
1.1.2 State the safety management policy 1 ICAO Annex 19, priority of safety, the safety
objective of ATM, roles and responsibilities
1.1.3 Explain safety management principles 2 ICAO Annex 19, safety achievement, safety
assurance, safety promotion
1.1.4 Appreciate the reactive and proactive nature 3 e.g. ICAO Annex 19
of safety management policy and principles e.g. nature of events, reason model, events
investigation, safety assessment
1.1.5 Explain the link between safety management 2 ICAO Annex 19, safety occurrences, setting of
principles and the life cycle of an ATM safety levels, system safety assessment, safety
system surveys, safety monitoring, system safety
assessment documentation, lesson
dissemination, safety improvement, use of
safety data to assist in decommissioning or
replacement of system
1.1.6 Relate the ATSEP role and responsibilities to 4 Competency, occurrence reporting
safety management
1.1.7 State the role and content of a typical SMS 1 ICAO Annex 19
within an ANSP
1.1.8 Explain the ‘just culture’ concept 2 Benefits, prerequisites, constraints
TOPIC 4: MEDICAL
SUB-TOPIC 4.1: Fatigue
4.1.1 Describe the effect of fatigue on human 2 Physiological, cognitive and relational effects
performance e.g. lack of concentration, irritability, frustration
4.1.2 Recognise the signs of fatigue in oneself and 1 e.g. making frequent mistakes, unable to
in others concentrate, lack of normal humour, sleeping
and/or eating disorders
4.1.3 Explain how to respond to indications of 2 Take time off, rest for short periods of time,
fatigue in an appropriate manner seek professional help
TOPIC 6: COMMUNICATION
SUB-TOPIC 6.1: Written report
6.1.1 Appreciate the importance of recording 3 ATSEP technical report, logs, system
information by writing effectively degradation reports, specification, system
manager report
6.1.2 Use appropriate terminology to 3 Be concise, clear; common technical terms;
communicate effectively in writing convey key points
TOPIC 7: STRESS
SUB-TOPIC 7.1: Stress
7.1.1 Explain the process of stress 2 Causes, stress mechanism, consequences in
different work situations (e.g. online
intervention, maintenance, training)
7.1.2 State the symptoms of stress 1 e.g. frustration, anger, irritability, aggressive
and/or irrational behaviour, helplessness
1. COMMUNICATION — VOICE
Subject 1: VOICE
TOPIC 1 — Air-Ground
Sub-topic 1.1 — Transmission/Reception
Sub-topic 1.2 — Radio Antenna Systems
Sub-topic 1.3 — Voice Switch
Sub-topic 1.4 — Controller Working Position
Sub-topic 1.5 — Radio Interfaces
TOPIC 2 — COMVCE — Ground-Ground
Sub-topic 2.1 — Interfaces
Sub-topic 2.2 — Protocols
Sub-topic 2.3 — Switch
Sub-topic 2.4 — Communication chain
Sub-topic 2.5 — Controller working position
Subject 2: TRANSMISSION PATH
TOPIC 1 — Lines
Sub-topic 1.1 — Lines Theory
Sub-topic 1.2 — Digital Transmissions
Sub-topic 1.3 — Types of Lines
TOPIC 2 — Specific Links
Sub-topic 2.1 — Microwave Link
Sub-topic 2.2 — Satellite
Subject 3: RECORDERS
TOPIC 1 — Legal Recorders
Sub-topic 1.1 — Regulations
Sub-topic 1.2 — Principles
Subject 4: FUNCTIONAL SAFETY
TOPIC 1 — Safety Attitude
Sub-topic 1.1 — Safety Attitude
TOPIC 2 — Functional Safety
Sub-topic 2.1 — Functional safety
2. COMMUNICATION — DATA
Subject 1: DATA
TOPIC 1 — Introduction to Networks
Sub-topic 1.1 — Types
Sub-topic 1.2 — Networks
Sub-topic 1.3 — External Network Services
Sub-topic 1.4 — Measuring Tools
Sub-topic 1.5 — Troubleshooting
TOPIC 2 — Protocols
Sub-topic 2.1 — Fundamental Theory
Sub-topic 2.2 — General Protocols
Sub-topic 2.3 — Specific Protocols
TOPIC 3 — National Networks
Sub-topic 3.1 — National Networks
TOPIC 4 — European Networks
Sub-topic 4.1 — Network Technologies
TOPIC 5 — Global Networks
Sub-topic 5.1 — Networks and Standards
Sub-topic 5.2 — Description
Sub-topic 5.3 — Global Architecture
Sub-topic 5.4 — Air-Ground Sub-Networks
Sub-topic 5.5 — Ground-Ground Sub-Networks
Sub-topic 5.6 — Networks on Board of the Aircraft
Sub-topic 5.7 — Air-Ground Applications
Subject 2: TRANSMISSION PATH
TOPIC 1 — Lines
Sub-topic 1.1 — Lines Theory
Sub-topic 1.2 — Digital Transmission
Sub-topic 1.3 — Types of Lines
TOPIC 2 — Specific Links
Sub-topic 2.1 — Microwave Link
Sub-topic 2.2 — Satellite
Subject 3: RECORDERS
TOPIC 1 — Legal Recorders
Sub-topic 1.1 — Regulations
Subject 4: DATA
TOPIC 1 — Data Essential Features
Sub-topic 1.1 — Data Significance
Sub-topic 1.2 — Data Configuration Control
Sub-topic 1.3 — Data Standards
TOPIC 2 — ATM Data — Detailed structure
Sub-topic 2.1 — System Area
Sub-topic 2.2 — Characteristic Points
Sub-topic 2.3 — Aircraft Performances
Sub-topic 2.4 — Screen Manager
Sub-topic 2.5 — Auto-coordination Messages
Sub-topic 2.6 — Configuration Control Data
Sub-topic 2.7 — Physical Configuration Data
Sub-topic 2.8 — Relevant Meteo Data
Sub-topic 2.9 — Alert and Error Messages to ATSEP
Sub-topic 2.10 — Alert and Error Messages to ATCO
Subject 5: COMMUNICATION DATA
TOPIC 1 — Introduction to Networks
Sub-topic 1.1 — Types
Sub-topic 1.2 — Networks
Sub-topic 1.3 — External Network Services
Sub-topic 1.4 — Measuring Tools
Sub-topic 1.5 — Troubleshooting
TOPIC 2 — Protocols
Sub-topic 2.1 — Fundamental Theory
Sub-topic 2.2 — General Protocols
Sub-topic 2.3 — Specific Protocols
TOPIC 3 — DATDP — National Networks
Sub-topic 3.1 — National Networks
Subject 6: SURVEILLANCE — PRIMARY
TOPIC 1 — ATC Surveillance
Sub-topic 1.1 — Use of PSR for Air Traffic Services
Subject 7: SURVEILLANCE — SECONDARY
TOPIC 1 — SSR AND MSSR
Sub-topic 1.1 — Use of SSR for Air Traffic Services
TOPIC 2 — Mode S
Sub-topic 2.1 — Introduction to Mode S
TOPIC 3 — Multilateration
Sub-topic 3.1 — MLAT Principles
Subject 8: SURVEILLANCE — HMI
TOPIC 1 — HMI
Sub-topic 1.1 — ATCO HMI
Subject 9: SURVEILLANCE DATA TRANSMISSION
TOPIC 1 — Surveillance Data Transmission
Sub-topic 1.1 — Technology and Protocols
Subjects, topics and sub-topics from Appendix 4a are repeated in this AMC for the convenience of the
reader and do not form a part of it.
SUBJECT 1: VOICE
TOPIC 1: AIR-GROUND
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Transmission/reception
1.1.1 Perform typical measurements on a 3 Frequency (single carrier, offset carrier),
transmitter modulation, channel spacing, output power,
SWR
1.1.2 Adjust a generic radio transmitter 4 Noise, intermodulation, harmonics, power,
bandwidth
1.1.3 Analyse the block diagram of a generic radio 4 Characteristics (modulation, single carrier,
transmitter channel spacing), functionalities
1.1.4 Perform typical measurements on a receiver 3 Frequency, modulation, channel spacing,
sensitivity, selectivity
1.1.5 Adjust a generic radio receiver 4 Signal to noise ratio, harmonics
1.1.6 Analyse the block diagram of a generic radio 4 Characteristics (single carrier, channel spacing,
receiver sensitivity, selectivity)
TOPIC 2: GROUND-GROUND
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Interfaces
2.1.1 Describe the different types of interfaces 2 Analogue (2, 4, 6 and 8 wires), digital (ISDN;
64 Kb, 2 Mb)
2.1.2 Explain the advantages and disadvantages of 2 Analogue (2, 4, 6 and 8 wires), digital (ISDN;
each type 64 Kb, 2 Mb)
2.1.3 Operate measuring equipment 3 e.g. dB meters, level meters, generators, sniffer
SUBJECT 3: RECORDERS
TOPIC 1: LEGAL RECORDERS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Regulations
1.1.1 Explain the international regulations 2 ICAO (recording and reproducing)
1.1.2 Explain national regulations 2 Appropriate national regulations
1.1.3 Explain how service providers comply with 2 e.g. storage media, access to recording and
the regulations reproducing room, time to store information
(overwrite/erase voice or data), procedure to
reproduce information.
SUB-TOPIC 1.2: Principles
1.2.1 Explain the principles of recording and 2 e.g. storage media (tape, optical and magnetic
reproducing disc), A/D-D/A converters, frequency range (300
to 3 400 Hz), channel capacity, time
synchronisation, connection to a network,
synchronisation of radar and voice recording,
replay limitations
SUBJECT 1: DATA
TOPIC 1: INTRODUCTION TO NETWORKS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Types
1.1.1 State the evolution of network topologies 1 LAN, WAN
e.g. architectures, size of the segments, length
of the systems, quality of service
1.1.2 Explain how networks meet requirements 2 Redundancy, bandwidth, BER, time delay,
network security
TOPIC 2: PROTOCOLS
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Fundamental theory
2.1.1 Apply the principles of layers 3 Differences between layers
e.g. layer(s) of sniffer information
2.1.2 Apply the principles of addressing strategy 3 Masks, subnets
IP addressing, MAC addressing
e.g. same logical network computers and
systems
2.1.3 Apply the principles of routing strategy 3 Routing tables, priorities, fault tolerance,
management of routing strategy, static and
dynamic routing
e.g. unicast, multicast, broadcast
SUBJECT 3: RECORDERS
TOPIC 1: LEGAL RECORDERS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Regulations
1.1.1 Explain the international regulations 2 ICAO (recording and reproducing)
1.1.2 Explain national regulations 2 Appropriate national regulations
1.1.3 Explain how service providers comply with 2 e.g. confidentiality when handling recorders,
the regulations procedures for access to recorders, storage
media, access to recording and reproducing
room, time to store information
(overwrite/erase voice or data), procedure to
reproduce information
1.1.4 Describe the overall performance 2 Coverage, accuracy, availability of the system,
integrity, continuity
1.1.5 Explain the technical limitations of DF 2 Sensitivity to interference
1.1.6 Describe the current situation 2 e.g. number, type, users, national context
SUBJECT 3: GNSS
TOPIC 1: GNSS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: General view
1.1.1 Explain the importance and continuing 2 FANS CNS/ATM concept, ICAO Doc 9849,
development of GNSS Navigation Application & NAVAID Infrastructure
Strategy for the ECAC Area up to 2020,
EUROCONTROL GNSS Policy, SESAR ATM Master
Plan
1.1.2 Describe the elements of GNSS within 2 Core constellations, ABAS, SBAS (EGNOS)
Europe e.g. GBAS, SCAT 1, APV, ICAO Annex 10
1.1.3 Appreciate the sources of interference to 3 Intentional, unintentional, ionospheric
GNSS signals interference, solar activity
1.1.4 Explain who has responsibility for GNSS 2 e.g.
oversight in your State and how it is carried e.g. EASA, GSA, NSA, ANSP
out
1.1.5 Appreciate the impact of the modernisation 3 Introduction of L5, E5A, E5B
of GNSS on the ARNS bands e.g. COMPASS
1.1.6 Explain the need for a minimum number of 2 e.g. AUGUR
visible satellites needed to provide integrity
monitoring
1.1.7 Describe the purpose of the GNSS NOTAM 2 ICAO Annex 10, Vol. 1
SUBJECT 3: GNSS
TOPIC 1: GNSS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: General view
1.1.1 Explain the importance and continuing 2 FANS CNS/ATM concept, ICAO Doc 9849,
development of GNSS Navigation Application & NAVAID Infrastructure
Strategy for the ECAC Area up to 2020,
EUROCONTROL GNSS Policy, SESAR ATM Master
Plan
1.1.2 Describe the elements of GNSS within 2 Core constellations, ABAS, SBAS (EGNOS)
Europe e.g. GBAS, SCAT 1, APV, ICAO Annex 10
1.1.3 Appreciate the sources of interference to 3 Intentional, unintentional, ionospheric
GNSS signals interference, solar activity
1.1.4 Explain who has responsibility for GNSS 2 e.g. EASA, GSA, NSA, ANSP
oversight in your State and how it is carried
out
1.1.5 Appreciate the impact of the modernisation 3 Introduction of L5, E5A, E5B
of GNSS on the ARNS bands e.g. COMPASS
1.1.6 Explain the need for a minimum number of 2 e.g. AUGUR
visible satellites needed to provide integrity
monitoring
1.1.7 Describe the purpose of the GNSS NOTAM 2 ICAO Annex 10, Vol. 1
SUBJECT 3: GNSS
TOPIC 1: GNSS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: General view
1.1.1 Explain the importance and continuing 2 FANS CNS/ATM concept, ICAO Doc 9849,
development of GNSS Navigation Application & NAVAID Infrastructure
Strategy for the ECAC Area up to 2020,
EUROCONTROL GNSS Policy, SESAR ATM Master
Plan
1.1.2 Describe the elements of GNSS within 2 Core constellations, ABAS, SBAS (EGNOS)
Europe e.g. GBAS, SCAT 1, APV, ICAO Annex 10
1.1.3 Appreciate the sources of interference to 3 Intentional, unintentional, ionospheric
GNSS signals interference, solar activity
1.1.4 Explain who has responsibility for GNSS 2 e.g. EASA, GSA, NSA, ANSP
oversight in your State and how it is carried
out
1.1.5 Appreciate the impact of the modernisation 3 Introduction of L5, E5A, E5B
of GNSS on the ARNS bands e.g. COMPASS
1.1.6 Explain the need for a minimum number of 2 e.g. AUGUR
visible satellites needed to provide integrity
monitoring
1.1.7 Describe the purpose of the GNSS NOTAM 2 ICAO Annex 10, Vol. 1
1.1.5 Explain the importance and need for ILS 2 ILS beam protection, increased significance
obstacle-free zones during LVP conditions
1.1.6 Explain the current situation 2 e.g. number, type, users, national context
1.1.7 Consider the need for ATC ILS status 2 No continuous monitoring by ATSEP
indications
1.2.2 Characterise the signals to be radiated 2 Amplitude and phase relationship, antenna
systems
1.2.3 Relate the adjustment of signals generated 4 Phases and amplitudes in antenna array,
to the resulting beam patterns and modulations on carrier signal, phase and
standards amplitude of side band
1.2.4 Describe the required performance of an 2 Beam bend potential, coverage, impact on
antenna array location of critical and sensitive area
1.9.6 Appreciate troubleshooting of ILS LOC, GP 3 DDM and SDM misalignment, coverage pilot
and marker beacons reported errors, field checks, monitor checks
Additional: for achievement of competence,
this objective shall be applied practically, at the
latest, by the end of the S/E rating training
e.g. lack of power, carrier frequency deviation,
harmonic ratio, depth of modulation
maintenance and flight inspection manuals,
procedures and reports
1.9.7 Appreciate the origin of ILS errors 3 Additional: for achievement of competence,
this objective shall be applied practically, at the
latest, by the end of the S/E rating training
e.g. Multipath, EMC, interference with radio
broadcast transmissions (harmonics)
SUBJECT 3: GNSS
TOPIC 1: GNSS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: General view
1.1.1 Explain the importance and continuing 2 FANS CNS/ATM concept, ICAO Doc 9849,
development of GNSS Navigation Application & NAVAID Infrastructure
Strategy for the ECAC Area up to 2020,
EUROCONTROL GNSS Policy, SESAR ATM
Master Plan
1.1.2 Describe the elements of GNSS within 2 Core constellations, ABAS, SBAS (EGNOS)
Europe e.g. GBAS, SCAT 1, APV, ICAO Annex 10
1.1.3 Appreciate the sources of interference to 3 Intentional, unintentional, ionospheric
GNSS signals interference, solar activity
1.1.4 Explain who has responsibility for GNSS 2 e.g. EASA, GSA, NSA, ANSP
oversight in your State and how it is carried
out
1.1.5 Appreciate the impact of the modernisation 3 Introduction of L5, E5A, E5B
of GNSS on the ARNS bands e.g. COMPASS
1.1.6 Explain the need for a minimum number of 2 e.g. AUGUR
visible satellites needed to provide integrity
monitoring
1.1.7 Describe the purpose of the GNSS NOTAM 2 ICAO Annex 10, Vol. 1
SUBJECT 3: GNSS
TOPIC 1: GNSS
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: General view
1.1.1 Explain the importance and continuing 2 FANS CNS/ATM concept, ICAO Doc 9849,
development of GNSS Navigation Application & NAVAID Infrastructure
Strategy for the ECAC Area up to 2020,
EUROCONTROL GNSS Policy, SESAR ATM Master
Plan
1.1.2 Describe the elements of GNSS within 2 Core constellations, ABAS, SBAS (EGNOS)
Europe e.g. GBAS, SCAT 1, APV, ICAO Annex 10
1.1.3 Appreciate the sources of interference to 3 Intentional, unintentional, ionospheric
GNSS signals interference, solar activity
1.1.4 Explain who has responsibility for GNSS 2 e.g. EASA, GSA, NSA, ANSP
oversight in your State and how it is carried
out
1.1.5 Appreciate the impact of the modernisation 3 Introduction of L5, E5A, E5B
of GNSS on the ARNS bands e.g. COMPASS
1.5.2 Describe the basic elements of a generic 2 LNA, local oscillator, coherent oscillator, down-
receiver converter, filtering, rejection, IF, PSD, AGC, STC,
beam switching
1.5.3 Appreciate the importance of STC 3 Saturation, RF-IF dynamic range
2.1.2 Relate key parameters and necessity to 4 Specific equations for ranging and power
achieve performances budget, PRF, frequency with respect to range
and accuracy, PD, frequency diversity, range
with respect to TX power, antenna gain,
receiver MDS, update rate, beamwidth,
extractor minimum target threshold,
polarisation, influence to meteorology
2.2.3 Describe how to operate a sensor 2 e.g. block diagram, timing relations, video path,
frequency diversity, polarisation, controller
structure
2.2.4 Describe the basic functions of the antenna 2 e.g. hardware function overview, control/switch
unit unit, external interface, azimuth encoding,
monopulse techniques
1.1.4 Appreciate how to operate the system 3 e.g. configuration, adjust parameters, start up
and shut down, monitoring
1.1.5 Explain the principles of emergency 2 —
switching
1.4.7 Describe the data format of the received 2 P1, P2, P3, P4, P5, P6 signals and DPSK
transponder messages modulation (P6)
1.4.8 Describe the data format of the transmitted 2 Field lengths, data bits, Gray code, unused bits,
transponder messages Mode S reply (preamble and data)
1.4.9 Describe the basic characteristics of a 2 Timing, modulation, pulse width, power output
transmitter
1.4.10 Describe the use of the transponder as a 2 —
field monitor
TOPIC 2: MODE S
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Introduction to Mode S
2.1.1 Explain the need for and benefits of Mode S 2 Classical SSR limitations, resolution, accuracy,
integrity, enhanced data (e.g. 25 ft resolution,
aircraft ID, BDS information)
2.1.2 Explain the working principles of Mode S 2 Mode S interrogation, Mode S reply, Mode S
uplink and downlink capability, Mode S
formats/protocols, ELS, EHS
2.1.3 Explain the complementary use of Mode S 2 Mode interlace pattern, operational use of all-
and conventional SSR call, roll-call
2.1.4 Explain Mode S implementation 2 Elementary and enhanced surveillance, II and SI
codes, use of BDS
TOPIC 3: MULTILATERATION
SUB-TOPIC 3.1: MLAT in use
3.1.1 Explain how pilot and controller operations 2 Mode A assigned at gate, coverage of MLAT
are impacted by the use of an MLAT system
3.1.2 Describe the ground mode of transponders 2 Aircraft interrogations, squitters, change of
transponder mode
1.1.3 State the latest developments, 1 e.g. current and recent test and trials, ICAO
implementation plans and projects status, EUROCONTROL, FAA and other
authorities positions, airline and equipment
manufacturer positions, ATC procedures, time
scales
TOPIC 2: ADS-B
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Introduction to ADS-B
2.1.1 Explain the basic principles of ADS-B 2 Autonomous operation, navigation solutions,
link options, aircraft situation awareness
2.1.2 Identify the major elements of ADS-B 3 e.g. ADS-B global chain (from the aircraft to the
controller HMI), GNSS, FMS, encoding,
scheduling, link
TOPIC 3: ADS-C
SUB-TOPIC 3.1: Introduction to ADS-C
3.1.1 Explain the basic principles of ADS-C 2 Contract, multi-contract, time, event triggering
3.1.2 Identify the major elements of the ADS-C 3 ADS-C global chain (from the aircraft to the
system controller HMI), GNSS, processor, link, ground
station
1.1.3 Identify the data transmission architecture 3 Fault tolerance, redundancy of line equipment
in a multisensor environment e.g. software fallback capability, contingency of
service, RADNET
1.1.4 Characterise the degradations of the 2 e.g. saturation, excess latency
surveillance transmission network
TOPIC 3: TESTING
SUB-TOPIC 3.1: Testing
3.1.1 Appreciate the techniques available for 3 e.g. code walkthrough, modelling, simulation
system and performance requirements real time and fast time, black box testing, formal
testing methods, use of independent test personnel,
data corruption simulation, hardware failure
simulation
3.1.2 Appreciate the techniques available for 3 e.g. system integration testing, load testing,
system testing and integration regression testing
SUBJECT 4: — DATA
TOPIC 1: DATA ESSENTIALS FEATURES
SUB-TOPIC 1.1: Data significance
1.1.1 Explain the significance of data 2 Criticality (critical/non critical), legality (ICAO,
CAA, organisation), use (advisory, control)
TOPIC 2: PROTOCOLS
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Fundamental theory
2.1.1 Apply the principles of layers 3 Differences between layers
e.g. layer(s) of sniffer information
2.1.2 Apply the principles of the addressing 3 Masks, subnets
strategy IP addressing, MAC addressing
e.g. same logical network computers and
systems
2.1.3 Apply the principles of the routing strategy 3 Routing tables, priorities, fault tolerance,
management of routing strategy, static and
dynamic routing
e.g. unicast, multicast, broadcast
TOPIC 2: MODE S
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Introduction to Mode S
2.1.1 Explain the need for and benefits of Mode 2 Classical SSR limitations, resolution, accuracy,
S integrity, enhanced data (e.g. 25 ft resolution,
aircraft ID, BDS information)
2.1.2 Explain the working principles of Mode S 2 Mode S interrogation, Mode S reply, Mode S
uplink and downlink capability, Mode S
formats/protocols, ELS, EHS
2.1.3 Explain the complementary use of Mode S 2 Mode interlace pattern, operational use of all-
and conventional SSR call, roll-call
2.1.4 Explain Mode S implementation 2 Elementary and enhanced surveillance, II and SI
codes, use of BDS
TOPIC 3: MULTILATERATION
SUB-TOPIC 3.1: MLAT principles
3.1.1 Explain the MLAT system architecture 2 Standards, transmitters and receivers, data
processing/fusion, redundancy, performance,
costs, timing solutions, etc.
3.1.2 Appreciate the principles of MLAT system 3 Triangulation, coverage, position calculation
e.g. SCAS
3.1.3 Describe how to operate the system 2 Tracking, map creation and blanking
3.1.4 Describe testing possibilities for MLAT 2 e.g. SASS-C
TOPIC 2: GROUND-GROUND
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Interfaces
2.1.1 Describe the different types of interfaces 2 Analogue (2, 4, 6 and 8 wires), digital ISDN
(64 Kb, 2 Mb)
1.1.3 Describe the current situation 2 e.g. number, types, users, user groups, national
context, European context
1.1.4 State the role of the DME infrastructure in 1 PBN
the future navigation applications
1.1.5 Explain the differences between DME and 2 e.g. azimuth and range
TACAN for civilian use
TOPIC 2: MODE S
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Introduction to Mode S
2.1.1 Explain the need for and benefits of Mode S 2 Classical SSR limitations, resolution, accuracy,
integrity, enhanced data (e.g. 25 ft resolution,
aircraft ID, BDS information)
2.1.2 Explain the working principles of Mode S 2 Mode S interrogation, Mode S reply, Mode S
uplink and downlink capability, Mode S
formats/protocols, ELS, EHS
2.1.3 Explain the complementary use of Mode S 2 Mode Interlace Pattern, Operational use of All-
and conventional SSR call, Roll-call
2.1.4 Explain Mode S implementation 2 Elementary and enhanced surveillance, II and SI
codes, use of BDS
TOPIC 3: MULTILATERATION
SUB-TOPIC 3.1: MLAT principles
3.1.1 Explain the MLAT system architecture 2 Standards, transmitters and receivers, data
processing/fusion, redundancy, performance,
costs, timing solutions, etc.
3.1.2 Appreciate the principles of MLAT system 3 Triangulation, coverage, position calculation
e.g. SCAS
3.1.3 Describe how to operate the system 2 Tracking, map creation and blanking
3.1.4 Describe testing possibilities for MLAT 2 e.g. SASS-C
TOPIC 2: MODE S
SUB-TOPIC 2.1: Introduction to Mode S
2.1.1 Explain the need for and benefits of Mode S 2 Classical SSR limitations, resolution, accuracy,
integrity, enhanced data (e.g. 25 ft resolution,
aircraft ID, BDS information)
2.1.2 Explain the working principles of Mode S 2 Mode S interrogation, Mode S reply, Mode S
uplink and downlink capability, Mode S
formats/protocols, ELS, EHS
2.1.3 Explain the complementary use of Mode S 2 Mode interlace pattern, operational use of
and conventional SSR all-call, roll-call
2.1.4 Explain Mode S implementation 2 Elementary and enhanced surveillance, II and SI
codes, use of BDS
TOPIC 3: MULTILATERATION
SUB-TOPIC 3.1: MLAT principles
3.1.1 Explain the MLAT system architecture 2 Standards, transmitters and receivers, data
processing/fusion, redundancy, performance,
costs, timing solutions, etc.
3.1.2 Appreciate the principles of MLAT system 3 Triangulation, coverage, position calculation
e.g. SCAS
3.1.3 Describe how to operate the system 2 Tracking, map creation and blanking
3.1.4 Describe testing possibilities for MLAT 2 e.g. SASS-C
Appendix 5a
ED Decision 2017/001/R
SYLLABI STRUCTURE
This guidance material provides explanatory material on how to read the tables in the appendices
contained in this Subpart A of ANNEX XIII.
(a) Structure of the syllabi
Each table represents a syllabus which has been structured according to the following:
(1) for ease of reading, each table repeats the titles of all subjects that are listed in the
Implementing Rule; and
(2) these subjects are further divided into the topics that are listed in the Implementing Rule;
then
(3) topics are divided into one or more sub-topics; and
(4) sub-topics contain one or more training objectives.
Subject
Topic
Sub- topic
Objectiv
Figure 1: Structure of tables
e
Taxonomy
Level
(c) Corpus
Objectives relate to single activities, where possible.
A number of the objectives refer to ‘generic equipment’ within the corpus. In this context,
generic equipment is considered a piece of equipment and/or didactic device which can be used
to meet objectives. The equipment/device is not necessarily identical or similar to the
operational equipment.
Note: Generic equipment gives flexibility to the course designer. In some instances, operating
organisations may, as an alternative to the above, choose to conduct the training on equipment
that is similar or identical to the operational equipment that will be used during
system/equipment rating training.
The objective above may be achieved through the use of any type of radio transmitter.
(d) Taxonomy levels
The five taxonomy levels should be understood to have the following levels of complexity:
(1) Level 1 — Basic knowledge of the subject. It is the ability to remember essential points,
to memorise data, and retrieve it.
(2) Level 2 — The ability to understand and to discuss the subject matter intelligently in
order to represent and act upon certain objects and events.
(3) Level 3 — Thorough knowledge of the subject and the ability to apply it with accuracy.
The ability to make use of the repertoire of knowledge to develop plans and activate
them.
(4) Level 4 — The ability to establish a line of action within a unit of known applications
following the correct chronology and the adequate method to resolve a problem
situation. This involves the integration of known applications in a familiar situation.
(5) Level 5 — The ability to analyse new situations in order to elaborate and apply one or
another relevant strategy to solve a complex problem. The defining feature is that the
situation is qualitatively different to those previous met, requiring judgement and
evaluation of options.
(e) Content
The content illustrates and details performance.
It may be composed of two parts: implicit and explicit. The explicit content is what is written in
the content field proper to the objective, while the implicit content is not written in the content
field of each objective, but rather implied in the corpus of the objective and other elements
(stream, subject, etc.).
When the items are in a list, each of them is to be addressed as a minimum.
Optional content items are italicised and clearly preceded with the words ‘Optional content’.
They help to illustrate the type of content that may be used to achieve given objectives.
Even when all of the items are optional, the objective has to be performed according to the
action verb included.
Where content refers to other documents (e.g. ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices),
users should take care to use the most recent version of the referenced document(s) or its parts.
(f) Additional note in content
(1) Contained within the content of some objectives that have been assigned, the action verb
‘Appreciate’ is an additional note that elaborates on the ultimate intentions of the
objective. The additional note states: ‘For achievement of competence, this objective
shall be applied practically, at the latest, by the end of the S/E rating training.’
1.2.1 Identify the causes of a fault, based 3 Additional: for achievement of competence,
on test tool measurements this objective should be applied practically,
at the latest, by the end of the S/E rating
training
e.g. data analyser, line analyser
Figure 4: Example of an objective with ‘Appreciate + additional note’
(2) When the verb ‘appreciate’ is used with the additional note, the objective may, as a
minimum, be taught as a theoretical objective during qualification training. This is
permitted when using ‘appreciate’, i.e. learners should be able to understand a situation
and know what is involved in a problem-solving situation, to state a plan without applying
it. However, it is acknowledged that these objectives, without any practical application,
are of extremely limited operational competence value. Therefore, these objectives
should, at the latest, be achieved practically during system/equipment rating training.
(g) Common training objectives
An objective should be considered common to two or more qualification streams if the objective
recurs verbatim and the context within which the objective is applied does not change.
Common objectives should be taught at least once when:
(1) training for two or more qualification streams are combined to form one course; or
(h) a course is provided for the purpose of an ATSEP acquiring an additional qualification stream.
Action verbs
The tables below list action verbs and their associated taxonomy levels that are used in training
objectives.
Definition of verbs — Level 1
Verb Definition Example
Define State what it is and what its limits are; Define airborne safety nets.
state the definition.
Draw Produce a picture, pattern, or diagram. Draw the MLAT system architecture.
List Say one after the other. List the most common weather messages.
Name Give the name of objects or procedures. Name a range of air-ground aviation-
related network concepts.
Recognise Know what it is, because you have seen it Recognise surveillance information on a
before. display.
State Say or write in a formal or definite way. State the function of a network
management system.
(i) Acronyms
The following abbreviations are applied within the tables:
AAIM Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
ABAS Aircraft-Based Augmentation System
ACARS Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System
ACAS Airborne Collision Avoidance System
ACC Area Control Centre
A/D Analogue/Digital
ADEX-P ATS Data Exchange Presentation
ADS Automatic Dependent Surveillance
ADS B ADS — Broadcast
ADS C ADS — Contract
ADF Automatic Direction Finder
AFDX Avionics Full-duplex Ethernet Switch
AFTN Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network
AGC Automatic Gain Control
AIC Aeronautical Information Circular
AIDC ATS Interfacility Data Communications
AIP Aeronautical Information Publication