1) How do you achieve elasticity in the AWS cloud?

a) Using multiple availability zones

b) Auto scaling
c) Ensure a fixed number of EC2
d) Using multiple S3 buckets
2) What is Route 53? It is a service that ...
a) ... enables you to decouple and scale microservices
b) ... offer object storage with industry-leading scalability and security
c) ... connects user requests to infrastructure running in AWS
3) Availability Zones do not share single points of failure.
a) True
b) False
4) Which service can you use to build data lakes?
a) EFS
b) S3
c) EBS
d) EC2
5) Amazon RDS is used for transactional workloads.
a) True
b) False
6) Amazon ElastiCache is used for...
a) Content, catalog, profile management, and mobile apps
b) Internet-scale apps, ecommerce systems, and immersive apps
c) Caching, gaming leaderboards, and real-time analytics
7) Which database is compatible with MongoDB?
a) Amazon Aurora
b) Amazon DocumentDB
c) Amazon QLDB
d) Amazon Timestream
8) Which service can help you centrally manage your IT service lifecycle?
a) AWS Service Catalog
b) AWS Systems Manager
c) Any database
9) What is the service quote for EC2-Classic Elastic IPs?
a) 1
b) 10
c) 3
d) 5
10) Which service provides the information required to launch an instance?
a) Amazon Elastic Block Storage (EBS)
b) Amazon Machine Image (AMI)
c) S3
11) What is AWS Elastic Beanstalk? A service that ...
a) …quickly deploys and manages applications in the AWS Cloud
b) …is built to store and retrieve any amount of data from anywhere
c) …lets you add user sign-up, sign-in, and access control to your web apps
12) How much data can you store in Amazon S3?
a) 5 TB
b) 100 TB
c) Unlimited amounts
d) 1 GB
13) What is AWS Batch? A service that ...
a) ... supports interactive query, makes it easy to analyse data in Amazon S3
b) ... handles job execution and compute resource management
c) ...makes it easy to set up, operate, and send notifications from the cloud
14) What is AWS Secrets Manager used for?
a) Storing passwords
b) Protecting access to your applications, services, and IT resources
c) Storing highly confidential documents
15) Which is a fully managed data security and data privacy service?
a) Amazon Lex
b) Amazon Polly
c) Amazon Alexa
d) Amazon Macie
16) What is cloud computing?
a) A hosting solution
b) A SaaS offering
c) On-demand delivery of IT resources via the internet, pay-as-you-go pricing
17) What is a hybrid deployment?
a) All applications are run and built in the cloud
b) Cloud-based resources are connected to on-premises infrastructure/apps
c) Deployment of resources using virtualization and resource management tools
18) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the cloud?
a) Stop guessing capacity
b) Increase speed and agility
c) Trade upfront expense for variable expense
d) Have someone else manage all of your infrastructure
19) A memory optimized EC2 instance is ...
a) Suitable for data warehousing
b) Ideal for high performance databases
c) Offers high performance processors
20) Which EC2 pricing option offers up to 90% off on-demand pricing?
a) Reserved Instances
b) Amazon EC2 Savings Plan
c) Spot
d) Dedicated Hosts
21) Which service creates a boundary around your AWS resources?
a) Availability Zone
b) Region
c) Amazon VPC
d) Subnet
22) Which of the below is an object storage service?
a) EBS
b) Amazon S3
c) EFS
d) EC2
23) How many storage classes does Amazon S3 have?
a) 2
b) 13
c) 6
d) 5
24) EFS stores data in ...
a) ... a single availability zone
b) ... in multiple availability zones
25) Which of the following is a graph database?
a) DocumentDB
b) DynamoDB
c) Neptune
d) Redshift
26) Why is AWS more economical than traditional data centers for applications with varying
compute workloads?
a) Amazon EC2 costs are billed on a monthly basis.
b) Users retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances
c) Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on demand when needed.
d) Users can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.
27) hich AWS service would simplify the migration of a database to AWS?
a) AWS Storage Gateway
b) AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
c) Amazon EC2
d) Amazon AppStream 2.0
28) Which AWS offering enables users to find, buy, and immediately start using software solutions
in their AWS environment?
a) AWS Config
b) AWS OpsWorks
c) AWS SDK
d) AWS Marketplace
29) Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS?
a) AWS Config
b) Amazon Route 53
c) AWS Direct Connect
d) Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)
30) Which of the following is an AWS responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model?
a) Configuring third-party applications
b) Maintaining physical hardware
c) Securing application access and data
d) Managing guest operating systems
31) Which component of the AWS global infrastructure does Amazon CloudFront use to ensure
low-latency delivery?
a) AWS Regions
b) Edge locations
c) Availability Zones
d) Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
32) How would a system administrator add an additional layer of login security to a user's AWS
Management Console?
a) Use Amazon Cloud Directory
b) Audit AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles
c) Enable multi-factor authentication
d) Enable AWS CloudTrail
33) Which service can identify the user that made the API call when an Amazon EC2 instance is
terminated?
a) AWS Trusted Advisor
b) AWS CloudTrail
c) AWS X-Ray
d) AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM)
34) Which service would be used to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms?
a) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
b) AWS CloudTrail
c) AWS Trusted Advisor
d) Amazon Route 53
35) Where can a user find information about prohibited actions on the AWS infrastructure?
a) AWS Trusted Advisor
b) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
c) AWS Billing Console
d) AWS Acceptable Use Policy
36) Which are the three fundamental drivers of cost with AWS?
a) compute, storage, security
b) compute, outbound data transfer, monitoring
c) compute, storage, outbound data transfer
d) monitoring, CPU, security
37) Which service can you use to create cost estimates to suit your AWS use cases?
a) AWS Cost explorer
b) AWS Pricing Calculator
c) Amazon Forecast
38) Which two support plans offer access to the full set of Trusted Advisor checks?
a) Business & Enterprise
b) Developer & Business
c) Enterprise & Developer
d) Basic & Developer
39) Which support plan offers a response time of 15 minutes for Business/Mission-critical system
down?
a) Developer
b) Enterprise
c) Business
d) Basic
40) Which of the below IS NOT a cloud computing model?
a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
b) Database as a Service (DaaS)
c) Software as a Service (SaaS)
d) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
41) Which service helps you understand and manage your AWS costs and usage over time?
a) AWS Budgets
b) AWS Savings Plan
c) AWS Cost Explorer
42) Which service establishes a dedicated network connection from your premises to AWS?
a) Route 53
b) Elastic Loadbalancer
c) AWS Direct Connect
43) AWS is responsible for the security ...
a) ... in the cloud
b) ... of the cloud
c) Both
44) Which statement is TRUE for the AWS global infrastructure?
a) A Region consists of a single Availability Zone.
b) An Availability Zone consists of two or more Regions.
c) A Region consists of two or more Availability Zones.
d) An Availability Zone consists of a single Region.
45) Which factors should be considered when selecting a Region?
a) Access to 24/7 technical support, Proximity to your customers
b) Compliance with data governance/ legal requirements, Access to the internet
c) Proximity to customers, Compliance with data governance/legal requirements
d) Ability to assign custom permissions to different users
46) The level of support that you choose is not determined by Region.
a) True
b) False
47) Network Access Control Lists are ...
a) Stateless
b) Stateful
48) A Security Group is a virtual firewall that controls inbound/outbound traffic at subnet level.
a) True
b) False
49) Which do you choose if you need to retain data after you stopped an EC2 instance?
a) Instance store
b) Amazon EBS Volume
50) Which storage class is ideal for data archiving?
a) S3
b) S3 Glacier
c) S3 Infrequent Access (IA)
51) EC2 Auto-Scaling knows which two approaches?
a) Dynamic and static scaling
b) Dynamic and predictive scaling
c) Predictive and static scaling
52) Which of the services is a publish/subscribe service?
a) EC2
b) SQS
c) SNS
d) Eventbridge
53) Amazon Fargate manages ...
a) ... server infrastructure
b) ....containers
54) Lambda only runs code when triggered
a) True
b) False
55) What are the contract length options for Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances?
a) 2 and 5 years
b) 3 and 5 years
c) Flexible
d) 1 and 3 years
56) You want to deploy and manage containerized applications. Which service should you use?
a) AWS Lambda
b) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
c) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
d) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)
57) Security groups are ...
a) They are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default.
b) They are stateful and allow all inbound traffic by default.
c) They are stateless and deny all inbound traffic by default.
d) They are stateless and allow all inbound traffic by default.
58) Which of the following is NOT a RDS database engine?
a) MariaDB
b) Amazon Aurora
c) Oracle Database
d) DynamoDB
59) Which type/s of data store is/are supported by Elasticache?
a) DAX
b) Redis only
c) Redis and Memcached
d) Memcached only
60) Do not use the root user for everyday tasks.
a) True
b) False
61) Where do you find AWS security and compliance reports?
a) Ask your account manager
b) AWS Trusted Advisor
c) on the AWS website
d) AWS Artifact
62) Which service provides detailed attack diagnostics and the ability to detect and mitigate
sophisticated DDoS attacks?
a) AWS Shield
b) AWS Shield Advanced
c) AWS Inspector
d) Amazon Macie
63) Which of the following is NOT an AWS support plan?
a) Developer
b) Innovation
c) Enterprise
d) Basic
64) Which of the below describes the "lift-and-shift" migration approach?
a) Retiring
b) Rehosting
c) Refactoring
d) Replatforming
65) Which AWS Trusted Advisor category includes checks for your service limits and overutilized
instances?
a) Security
b) Fault Tolerance
c) Performance
d) Cost Optimization
Answer key:

1b, 2c, 3a, 4b, 5a, 6c, 7b, 8a, 9d, 10b, 11a, 12c, 13b, 14b, 15d, 16c, 17b, 18d, 19b, 20c, 21c, 22b, 23c,
24b, 25c, 26c, 27b, 28d, 29d, 30b, 31b, 32c, 33b, 34a, 35d, 36c, 37b, 38a, 39b, 40b, 41c, 42c, 43b,
44c, 45c, 46a, 47a, 48b, 49b, 50b, 51b, 52c, 53a, 54a, 55d, 56d, 57a, 58d, 59c, 60a, 61d, 62b, 63b,
64b, 65c