Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Caraga Administrative Region
Schools Division of Surigao del Norte
District of Tagana-an
TALAVERA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Talavera, Tagana-an, Surigao del Norte
School I.D.: 317809
S.Y. 2020-2021
Summative Test in Food and Beverage Services -12

Name: ______________________________Grade Level & Sec: ____________Score: ______

TEST I-
Instructions Read and analyze each statement carefully. Choose the letter that is best fitted in each statement.
Write your answer/s in your notebook.
1. What type of an advance arrangement is made to book a table in a certain restaurant?
A. Table Setting B. Dining Reservation C. Table Setup D. Fast Food
2. Which type of reservation system depends on the person designated, usually a host or hostess, to answer the phone,
record the details of the said reservation and taking their credit card information as guarantee?
A. Online Reservation System B. Manual Reservation C. Reservation System D. Web Reservation
3. Which one is NOT an acceptable restaurant telephone etiquette?
A. Always identify yourself at the beginning of all calls
B. Be sensitive to the tone of your voice
C. Allow interruptions to occur during conversation
D. Always speak into the telephone receiver with an even and low tone of voice
4. Which choice best describes the given statement: “Making sure that the caller is pleased with result and that everything
you promised is delivered”?
A. Following up the call
B. Thanking the caller
C. Asking question about everything
D. Answering the call with greetings professionally
5. Which material should be utilized by a reservation officer to know the products information offered when initiating the
manual reservations?
A. Manual Charts B. Calendars C. Diary D. Brochures
6. What type of food-service system is the most commonly used system in different food establishments?
A. Conventional Food Service System
B. Centralized (Commissary) Food Service System
C. Ready – Prepared Food Service System
D. Assembly – Food Service System
7. The food is produced onsite, it is usually chilled or frozen then reheated and served to customers on site and readily
available to the customers. Hospitals and prisons usually use it.
A. Ready- Prepared Food Service System
B. Conventional Food Service System
C. Assembly- Serve Food Service System
D. Centralized (Commissary) Food Service System
8. Which of the following sequence is correct for table skirting?
I. Decide on what design you are going to do that fits the occasion.
II. Fold the skirting cloth to the center to get the middle.
III. Measure equal distances for folds and pin down making sure that the skirting is securely fastened on the
tablecloth.
IV. Skirt the table using and combination of pleats.
V. Lay the top cloth and fastened with thumbtacks at the edge of the table.
VI. Pull the cloth adequately to straighten and smoothen the surface tacking it firmly on the table.
VII. Get the center front of the table.
VIII. Start fastening the cloth push a pin down to secure it on the edge of the table.
IX. Prepare the needed materials.
A. I – II – III – IV – V – VI – VII – VIII – IX
B. I – IX – VII – VI – V – II – VIII – III – IV
C. IX – I – V – VI – VII – II – VIII – III – IV
D. IX – I – VI – V – VII – VIII – II – IV – III
9. What is the purpose of checking the contrast as well as the color between table appointment and centerpiece?
A. Achieves balance coordination between table appointments.
 B. Harmonizes the table setting
C. Achieves proper distance between each table appointments
D. Signifies the mode and motif of the occasion
10. Which of the following is considered to be the primary importance of proper table setting?
A. Affects the mood of the meal and the diner’s enjoyment which can even affect their digestion
B. Saves space on the table and makes the serving more efficient
C. Serves as a guide for the server to identify the next course
D. Makes the guest feel extra special and promotes correct table etiquette
11. What table napkin fold can be created based from the given procedure below?
I. Lay the napkin face-down in front of you.
II. Fold the napkin in half to from a triangle with the open ends point away from you.
III. Fold the right-corner up so that the point rests directly on top of the middle- corner. The edge of this new flap
should lay on the center line of the napkin.
IV. Repeat step four on the other side, bringing the left-most corner up to meet the middle-corner, creating a
diamond shape.
V. Flip the napkin over.
VI. Fold the bottom of the napkin up about 2/4's of the way and press this fold down well.
VII. Curl the left and right sides of the napkin up so they meet in the middle and tuck one into the other.
A. Banana B. Bird of Paradise C. Crown D. Bishop Hat
12. What should be the first consideration in choosing the style of table skirting?
A. Where you intend to display it and how often you will be using the table skirt
B. The color, theme or motif of the dining area
C. The occasion, time and resources
D. Number of guest/s and manpower available
13. Which factor significantly affects the immediate consciousness of guests when entering the restaurant?
A. Ambiance B. Views C. Music D. Decor
14. This refers to the design of the restaurant, including the placement of tables, the kitchen, server stations, and
restrooms.
A. Layout B. Design C. Overview D. Floor Plan
15. Which among the choices can create a livelier, positive and fun atmosphere for guest/s dining experience?
A. Music B. Atmosphere C. View D. Décor
16. Where is the proper location/placement of the dinner knife in a cover?
A. Upper left side B. On the top of the charger C. Left side, nearest to the charger D. Right side,
nearest to the charger
17. It is also known as Gueridon type of table service.
A. American Style B. English Style C. French Style D. Russian Style
18. What type of glass is usually used for long drinks, fizzes, and fruit juices?
A. Collins Glass B. Brandy Snifter C. Champagne Flute D. Old Fashioned Glass
19. What kind of dinnerware measures 12” in diameter, and used as under liner for sit-down formal dinner?
A. Dinner Plate B. Charger C. Luncheon Plate D. Platter
20. Below are examples of basic folds, which is not belong to the group?
A. Pyramid B. Banana C. Tulip D. Bishop

Test –II Self-Check 1.1 True or False

Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct, and FALSE if it is incorrect. Write your answers in your notebook.

___________ 1. Conventional food service system is the most common of all systems in foodservice operation.
___________ 2. The food is produced on-site, it is usually chilled or frozen then reheated and served to customers on-site
and readily available to the customers.
___________ 3. Food is purchased then stored either chilled or frozen for later use.
___________4. A Family style restaurant serves moderately priced food in a casual atmosphere.
___________ 5. Hotels often specialize in certain types of food or present a certain unifying, and often entertaining
theme.
___________ 6. The large plate that is also called as charger and serves as an under-liner plate for the plate holding the
first course.
___________7.The placement of utensils is guided by the menu, the idea is that the guest will use the utensils in an
"outside-in" order.
____________8. If bread and butter knife was used, the bread plate goes above the salad fork, with the butter knife placed
diagonally across the edge of the plate, handle on the right side and blade facing down.
____________9.The largest of the forks, also called the entrée fork, should be placed on the left of the plate. Other
smaller forks for other courses are arranged to the left of the dinner fork, according to when they will be used.
___________10.Often, in less formal settings, the napkin and/or cutlery may be held together in a single bundle by a
napkin ring.
____________11.The dinner knife is set immediately to the right of the plate, cutting edge facing inward.
____________12. Beverage ware of any kind -- water, wine, juice, and iced tea are placed at the top right of the dinner
plate, above the knives and forks.
____________13. The napkin is folded or put in a napkin ring and placed either to the left of the forks or on the center of
the dinner plate. Sometimes, a folded napkin is placed under the forks.
____________14.If shellfish are to be served, the oyster fork goes to the left of the spoons.
____________15. If the salad is served after the entree, the small salad fork is placed to the right of the dinner fork, next
to the plate.

Test III Directions: Analyze the given function/event below.

Draw the typical set-up requirement of the required event. Illustrate your answer in another sheet of paper.
Consider the functionality and ease of the arrangement and make your drawing presentable, neat and accurate.

Required event to be drawn:

1. A wedding Celebration with 100 guests
2. A conference with 50 participants
RUBRIC FOR PERFORMANCE TASK EVALUATION
The student was able to: Score/Points
• show an exemplary (strong) work illustration with complete details that is required for an exceptional
5
event. He/she goes beyond what is expected of him/her to complete the task.
• show a good (acceptable) work illustration with 80 – 90% correct details. He/she does what is expected
5
of him/her to complete the task.
• show a satisfactory (almost there but acceptable) work illustration with 70 – 79% correct details.
He/she does not complete the task and with limited understanding.
5
• show a weak work illustration (the work was done but incorrect). He/she does not complete the task
and/or has no understanding of what to do.

Prepared by:

Andelito P.Espaldon
Subject Teacher

Advance Merry Christmas and Prosperous New Year!

 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Caraga Administrative Region
Schools Division of Surigao del Norte
District of Tagana-an
TALAVERA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Talavera, Tagana-an, Surigao del Norte
School I.D.: 317809
S.Y. 2020-2021
Summative Test in Physical Education and Health -12

Name: _____________________________ Grade Level & Sec: ________________ Score: ______

Test I- Direction: Circle the letter of the best answer to the following questions.
1. What energy movement lasting about 5 to 15 minutes and does not require energy?
A. ATP B. Glycolytic C. Oxidative D. Aerobic
2. What energy system that breaks down carbohydrates using 1 to 2 minutes of energy?
A. Adenosine B. Glycolytic C. Oxidative D. Aerobic
3. What energy system that requires carbohydrates, fats and protein where energy is used in a longer
period of time?
A. Adenosine B. Glycolytic C. Oxidative D. Aerobic
4. The following are nutrients needed by the body to produce energy, except:
A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Protein D. Vitamin C
5. Ruxyll constantly performs aerobic exercises because he knows the benefits of it. Which of the
following is the least beneficial factor of aerobic exercise?
A. It builds muscles C. Reduce the risk of stroke
B. Strengthens the heart D. Controls blood the blood pressure
6. Clarabelle is planning to manage her exercise routine. For her to stick on her exercise routine, which of
the following is the best thing that she should do?
A. Set SMART goals C. Meditate
B. Walk before you run D. Observe others
7. Dancing offers creative outlet for people to express their personalities in a safe environment. The
statement means:
A. It improves the condition of the heart C. It improves aerobic fitness
B. Greater self-confidence and self-esteem D. Weight management
8. Reane performed a solo dance during the recital. The following steps were observed: bilao, hayon-
hayon, dos-a-dos and Jaleo, what is the dance genre?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
9. Hiroshi attended a battle during their school foundation day. He performed some b-boying, breaking,
and down rock moves. What type of dance competion he is joining?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
10. Liam and Denise are the loveliest couple I love to see performing the Cha cha cha, Rumba and Jive.
They won as the best couple for the Latin Discipline. What type of genre these dances belong?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
11. Which of the following dance genre often considered to have emerged as a rejection of or rebellion
against classical ballet?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
12. Which component of physical fitness refers to the physical attributes such as the cardio-respiratory,
muscular strength, and flexibility?
A. Fitness B. Health-related C. Skills-related D. Talent-related
13. The hexagonal test is performed by jumping to specific direction inside the hexagon in two revolutions
in the shortest period of time. Which component is being assessed?
A. Agility B. Balance C. Coordination D. Speed
14. Which of the following FITT principle refers to the amount of energy the exercise requires?
A. Frequency B. Intensity C. Time D. Type
15. Sunshine gain her weights and eventually turned obese over the years. Her reason is, “it’s easier for
me to find excuses not to exercise than to go out to do something”. This barrier in participating physical
activities refers to:
A. Lack of time C. Lack of will power
B. Lack of energy D. Lack of skill
16. The following are nutrients needed by the body to produce energy, except:
A. Carbohydrates B. Fats C. Protein D. Vitamin C

17. What energy movement lasting about 5 to 15 minutes and does not require energy?
A. ATP B. Glycolytic C. Oxidative D. Aerobic
18. What energy system that requires carbohydrates, fats and protein where energy is used in a longer
period of time?
 A. Adenosine B. Glycolytic C. Oxidative D. Aerobic
19. What energy system that breaks down carbohydrates using 1 to 2 minutes of energy?
B. Adenosine B. Glycolytic C. Oxidative D. Aerobic
20. Ruxyll constantly performs aerobic exercises because he knows the benefits of it. Which of the
following is the least beneficial factor of aerobic exercise?
A. It builds muscles C. Reduce the risk of stroke
B. Strengthens the heart D. Controls blood the blood pressure
21. Hiroshi attended a battle during their school foundation day. He performed some b-boying, breaking,
and down rock moves. What type of dance competion he is joining?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
22. Clarabelle is planning to manage her exercise routine. For her to stick on her exercise routine, which of
the following is the best thing that she should do?
A. Set SMART goals C. Meditate
B. Walk before you run D. Observe others
23. Liam and Denise are the loveliest couple I love to see performing the Cha cha cha, Rumba and Jive.
They won as the best couple for the Latin Discipline. What type of genre these dances belong?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
24. Reane performed a solo dance during the recital. The following steps were observed: bilao, hayon-
hayon, dos-a-dos and Jaleo, what is the dance genre?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
25. Which of the following dance genre often considered to have emerged as a rejection of or rebellion
against classical ballet?
A. Ballroom Dance B. Folk Dance C. Hip-hop Dance D. Modern Dance
26. Dancing offers creative outlet for people to express their personalities in a safe environment. The
statement means:
A. It improves the condition of the heart C. It improves aerobic fitness
B. Greater self-confidence and self-esteem D. Weight management
27. Sunshine was a great gymnast but with her busy schedule and task in expected from her in work, she
gained weights and eventually turned obese over the years. This barrier in participating physical
activities refers to:
A. Lack of time C. Lack of will power
C. Lack of energy D. Lack of skill
28. Which of the following FITT principle refers to the amount of energy the exercise requires?
A. Frequency B. Intensity C. Time D. Type
29. Which component of physical fitness refers to the physical attributes such as the cardio-respiratory,
muscular strength, and flexibility?
A. Fitness B. Health-related C. Skills-related D. Talent-related
30. The hexagonal test is performed by jumping to specific direction inside the hexagon in two revolutions
in the shortest period of time. Which component is being assessed?
A. Agility B. Balance C. Coordination D. Speed
Test II- Instruction; Try to identify the dance genre of the following terminologies. Write Folk, Modern,
Ballroom or Hip-hop
_______________1. Abduction
_______________2. Abracete
_______________3. B-boy
_______________4. Battle
_______________5. Bilao
_______________6. Breaking
_______________7. Cuban Breaks
_______________8. Cypher
_______________9. Distal
_______________10. Dos-a-Dos
_______________11. Down rock
_______________12. Flexion
_______________13. Hayon-hayon
_______________14. Jaleo

_______________15. Latin Discipline

_______________16. Plantar
_______________17. Proximal
_______________18. Spot Turn
_______________19. Standard Discipline
_______________20. Whisk

Prepared by:
Andelito P.Espaldon
Subject Teacher
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Caraga Administrative Region
Schools Division of Surigao del Norte
District of Tagana-an
TALAVERA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Talavera, Tagana-an, Surigao del Norte
School I.D.: 317809
S.Y. 2020-2021
Summative Test in Entrepreneurship -12

Name: _____________________________ Grade Level & Sec: ________________ Score: ______

Test I- Instruction

Multiple Choice: Read and answer each statement carefully then circle the letter of the best answer.
1. Who acts as a coordinating agent in a capitalist economy?
A. Manager B. Finance Officer C. Entrepreneur D. Broker
2. Which of the following is not a definition of Entrepreneurship?
A. It creates opportunities, ensures social justice, instills confidence and stimulates the economy.
B. It is an important part of the economic growth strategies of many local and national governments around the
world.
C. Refers to a person who sets up a business with the aim to make a profit.
D. The act of creating a business or businesses while building and scaling it to generate a profit.
3. Which of the following is a relevance of Entrepreneurship to SHS Students?
A. It generates new wealth in an economy.
B. It aids students from all socioeconomic backgrounds to think outside the box.
C. It creates opportunities and ensures social justice.
D. It creates job.
4. Which statement is not correct about the status of entrepreneurship in the Philippines?
A. The number of business establishments formed every year would generally show an increasing trend.
B. N-entrepreneurs are people who can secure resources such as technology and information to gain distinct,
sustainable, competitive advantages.
C. In 2005, the top 50 Philippine corporations in terms of sales could be broken down into 25 private domestic
firms, 20 foreign firms, and 5 government-owned and/or controlled corporations.
D. The 22 companies could be identified with 11 families and individuals, mostly Filipinos of Chinese ethnic
background.
5. Which of the following words is not associated with entrepreneur?
A. innovative B. impulsive C. collaborative D. Creative
6. Ronald is graduating SHS. After his graduation, he is planning to put up a computer shop. What core
competency he needs to develop?
A. Arts and design B. Systems and application C. repairs and maintenance D. machine and equipment
7. Leticia is an employee of a fast-food chain. What common competency she needs to develop?
A. Time management B. Managing Conflict C. Leadership D. Critical thinking
8. Mang Tomas is the owner of the Tomas Welding Shop. What common competency he needs to develop?
A. Change management B. Human Relations C. Time management D. AB&C
9. If Promotions and Advertising are core competency in Entrepreneurship, _______ is a common competency
in Entrepreneurship.
A. managing sales
B. listening to the sentiments of workers
C. coordinating with partners
D. Conducting research
10. If good human relations is to Interpersonal Competency, Visioning is to ________.
A. Personal competency B. Core Competency C. Common Competency D. Business Competency
11. All are core competencies in Entrepreneurship, except:
A. basic bookkeeping/ accounting skills
B. communication skills
C. building relations with customer
D. building competitive advantage

12. Which of the following is not a business competency? This competency covers the outcomes required to
build, _____, grow a micro/small T scale enterprise - like developing, and maintaining small-scale business,
establish customer base, and manage business finances.
A. Establish customer service
B. Manage finances
C. Preparing business letters
D. Monitoring operations
13. Which is not a goal of entrepreneurial competency?
A. Expanding the enterprise
B. Expanding markets and clientele
C. Developing individuals and teams
D. enhancing one’s business skill
14. All are important aspects of Entrepreneurship as a course, except:
A. Discussion on economic issues and concerns.
B. Explanation of key concepts of competencies in Entrepreneurship.
C. Discussion on the relevance of the course.
D. Exploration of career opportunities.
15. Which of the following does not cover a high-performing enterprise?
A. Build and develop the enterprise to be more competitive within a changing business environment.
B. Creating gaps among employees.
C. Responding to consumers’ demand.
D. Maintaining product quality and accessibility.
16. Which is referred to as a marketing offering?
A. Product/Service B. Sales C. Company D. Goals
17. Which of the following is not a tangible product?
A. Car B. Alcohol C. event organizer D. Face mask
18. Which is referred to as the production of an essentially intangible benefit?
A. Items B. Company C. Service D. Market
19. Which of the following is a customer need that an Entrepreneur should consider?
A. Usability B. income C. occupation D. savings
20. Which is not an after sales service?
A. Online support B. warranty & Guarantee C. Returns & Replacement D. Employee training
Test –II Identification. Read and analyze the statements below and identify whether it requires a
common competency or core competency. Write A if it is a common competency and B if it is a core
competency. Write your answer in the space provided.
_________1. Writing business correspondence.
_________2. Preparing income statement
_________3. Designing for packaging and labelling.
_________4. Relating with staff and co-workers.
_________5. Managing quality customer service.
_________6. Giving solution to a problem.
_________7. Coordinating with channel of distribution.
_________8. Negotiating with suppliers.
_________9. Adopting to work environment.
_________10. Able to operate computer system and applications.
Test III- Instruction. Read and analyze the facts about the competencies in Entrepreneurship below.
Determine whether the statement is TRUE OR FALSE. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and write
FALSE if otherwise. Write your answer before the number.
_________1. Entrepreneurship can be learned by anyone, it‟s not something that can simply learn in a
classroom.
_________2. Certain skills, such as communication, delegating and respecting others can only be acquired
through practice and developing „habits of character‟.
_________3. Habits of character may not strictly be related to business but are to do with the kind of person
the entrepreneur is and what he/she does.
_________4. An entrepreneur has to have certain cultivated and inherent qualities in order to make a success
of his or her venture.
_________5. Hard work and determination to win have made many successful business people to reach their
aspired goals.
_________6. An Entrepreneur must hesitate for personal or other reasons.
_________7. Business involves many risks, which an entrepreneur must hesitate to take.
_________8. New ideas help make a business venture successful.

_________9. Certain attributes are essential for an Entrepreneur to establish his or her business on sound
footing.
_________10. The only way to acquire the habits essential for entrepreneurs is by acting in a way inconsistent
with them.
_________11. Products do not carry an element of service.
_________12. A service is the result of the application of skills and expertise towards an identified need.
__________13. A service isn't something you can try out before you pay for it.
__________14. All products are countable, touchable, and visible, a consumer can assess its durability by
examining it.
__________15. Products are tangible and discernible items that the organization produces.
__________16. Products and services can both be perishable.
__________17. Service is associated with physical items.
__________18. A product is an offering that derives value from intangible elements.
__________19. A product may be capable of being reused for a certain time.
__________20. Service has no connection with the sale of products.

Prepared by:

Andelito P. Espaldon
Subject Teacher
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Caraga Administrative Region
Schools Division of Surigao del Norte
District of Tagana-an
TALAVERA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Talavera, Tagana-an, Surigao del Norte
School I.D.: 317809
S.Y. 2020-2021
Summative Test in Practical Research -12

Name: _____________________________ Grade Level & Sec: ________________ Score: ______

Test I- Instruction: Read and understand each statement and circle the letter of the correct answer.
1. Variable, sometimes called
A. Product B. Outcome C. Both A & B D. None
2. Variables are variables that have two or more categories, but which do not have an intrinsic order.
A.Nominal B. Dichotomus C. Interval D. Ordinal
3. Variables are variables that have two or more categories just like nominal variables only the categories can also be
ordered or ranked.
A. Dichotoumous B. Interval C. Ordinal D. Nominal
4. Variables are nominal variables, which have only two categories or levels. For example, if we were looking at
gender, we would most probably categorize somebody as either "male" or "female".
A. Nominal B. Ordinal C. Interval D. Dichotomous
5. Variables are interval variables.
A. Balance B. Interval C. Ratio D. All of these
6. These are topics that depend greatly on the writer‘s opinion, which tend to be biased or prejudicial. Facts cannot
support topics like these.
A. Controversial topics B. Highly technical subject C. Hard-to-investigate subjects D. None
7. For a beginner, researching on topics that require an advance study, technical knowledge, and vast experience is a
very difficult.
A. Highly technical subject B. Hard-to-investigate subjects C. Controversial topics D. Both A & C
8. A topic or a subject is hard to investigate if there is no available data or reading materials about it and if such
materials are not update or obsolete.
A. Too narrow subjects B. Too broad subjects C. Hard-to-investigate subjects D. Vague subjects
9. A subject or a topic that are too broad will prevent the researcher from giving a concentrated or in –depth analysis
of the subject matter of the research paper.
A. Too broad subjects B. Vague subjects C. Hard-to-investigate subjects D.All
10. Choosing topics like these will prevent you from having a clear insights or focus on your study.
A. Vague subjects B. Too broad subjects C.Both a & B D. Controversial topics
11. Are pieces of information that can be counted and which are usually gathered by surveys from large numbers of
respondents?
A. Qualitative B. Quantitative C. Quality D. Qualititive
12. Is, for many of us, just the way we do things.
A. Process B. Research C. Research process D. All
13. Below are the characteristics of a good research paper title, which is not belong to the group?
A. Condenses the paper‘s content in a few words.
B. Captures the readers ‘attention.
C. Differentiates the paper from other papers of the same subject area.
D. All of the above
14. Three basic tips to keep in mind while writing a title. Which is not belong to the group.
A. Both B, C & D
B. Keep it simple, brief and attractive.
C. Use appropriate descriptive words.
D. Avoid abbreviations and jargon.
15. Is a specific statement of prediction?
A. Hypothesis B. Hypothisis C. Both A & B D. None

1. When your prediction does not specify a direction, we say you have a.
 A. One-tailed hypothesis.
B. Two-tailed hypothesis.
C. Alternative hypothesis.
D. Outcome variable.
2. Is an evaluative report of information found in the literature related to your selected area of study?
A. Summarize B. Evaluate C. Clarify D. Literature review
3. A literature review is more than the search for information, and goes beyond being a descriptive.
A. Annotated bibliography
B. Research problem
C. Conceptualized
D. All
4. While the research problem is still being conceptualized, the researcher must already start.
A. Investigating B. Existence C. Objectives D. Reviewing literature
5. All are Purpose of Review of Related Literature (RRL), which is not belong t the group?
A. It helps the researcher identify and define a research problem.
B. It helps justify the need for studying a problem.
C. It prevents unnecessary duplication of a study.
D. All
6. Styles or Approaches of RRL or Review of Related Literature, which is not belong to the group.
A. Traditional Review of Literature
B. Systematic Review of Literature
C. Both A & B
D. None
7. Aim to find as much as possible of the research relevant to the particular research questions, and use explicit
methods to identify what can reliably be said on the basis of these studies.
A. Systematic reviews
B. "traditional" literature review
C. Conceptual review
D. Critical review
8. Provides an overview of the research findings on particular topics.
A. Conceptual review
B. State-of-the-Art review
C. "traditional" literature review
D. Expert review
9. Analysis of concepts or ideas to give meaning to some national or world issues.
A. Conceptual review B. Critical review C. Expert review D. Scoping review
10. Focuses on theories or hypotheses and examines meanings and results of their application to situation.
A. Conceptual review B. Critical review C. Expert review D. Scoping review
26. Makes the researcher deal with the latest research studies on the subject.
A. Conceptual review B. Critical review C. State-of-the-Art review D. Expert review
27. Encourages a well-known expert to do the RRL because of the influence of certain ideology, paradigm, or belief
on him/her.
A. Scoping review B. Conceptual review C. Critical review D. Expert review
28. Prepares a situation for a future research work in the form of project making about community development,
government policies, and health services, among others.
A. Conceptual review B. Critical review C. Scoping review D. Expert review
29. Referencing is important BECAUSE.
A. It allows people to check the accuracy of your interpretation of other people‘s work It is not just referencing
that is important it is also the accuracy of the referencing and the consistent use of a style.
B. aim to find as much as possible of the research relevant
C. occur in other approaches to reviewing research evidence.
D. All
30. Is the highest ethical standards shall be applied to basic education research.
A. Research Ethics B. conforming C. Consent D. Honesty
31. Research participants should have informed.
A. Accuracy B. Consent C. Risk D. Honesty
32. Must be cognizant about the general.
A. Consent B. Accuracy C. Purpose D. All

33. Three very important research ethical issues, which is not belong to the group.
A. Protecting participants from harm.
 B. Ensuring confidentiality of data
C. Subject deception
D. All
34. Is an analytical tool with several variations and contexts?
A. Conceptual B. Paradigm C. conceptual framework D. None
35. Capture something real and do this in a way that is easy to remember and apply.
A. Dependent B. Independent C. conceptual frameworks D. Both A & B
36. Decide on what will be your research topic. The topic should be within your field of specialization.
A. Choose your topic B. Do a literature review C. Topic D. None
37. Review relevant and updated research on the theme that you decide to work on after scrutiny of the issue at hand.
A. Do a literature review B. Generate C. Framework D. Variables
38. These information‘s are a compiled, resources gathered from an extensive literature review; much of the
information is verbatim from the various web sites.
A. Outcomes B. Sampling C. Introduction D. Both A & C
39. Is a type of empirical investigation?
A. Quantitative researchB. Research Design C. Observable D. Survey Research
40. Uses interviews, questionnaires, and sampling polls to get a sense of behavior with intense precision.
A. Correlational Research B. Survey Research C. Descriptive D. Comparative
41. Tests for the relationships between two variables. Performing correlational research is done to establish what the
effect of one on the other might be and how that affects the relationship.
A. Survey Research B. Comparative C. Correlational Research D. Descriptive
42. As stated by Good and Scates as cited by Sevilla (1998), the descriptive method is oftentimes as a survey or a
normative approach to study prevailing conditions.
A. Descriptive B. Comparative C. Survey Research D.All
43. Examine patterns of similarities and differences across a moderate number of cases.
A. Descriptive B. Survey Research C. Comparative D. Correlational Research
44. According to Devin Kowalczyk, that Ex post facto design is a quasi-experimental study examining how an
independent variable, present prior to the study, affects a dependent variable.
A. Comparative B. Descriptive C. Ex Post Facto D. Survey Research
45. Is guided specifically by a hypothesis.
A. Experimental Research B. Ex Post Facto C. Comparative D. Descriptive
46. Design involves selecting groups, upon which a variable is tested without any random pre-selection process.
A. Quasi-experimental Research
B. True Experimental Design
C. Ex Post Facto
D. All
47. Is a type of experimental design and is thought to be the most accurate type of experimental research.
A. True Experimental Design B. Ex Post Facto C. Descriptive D. Comparative
48. Is the generic term that researchers use for a measurement device (survey, test, questionnaire, etc.).
A. Instrument B. Survey C. Questionnaires D. None
49. Refers to the ease with which an instrument can be administered, interpreted by the participant, and
scored/interpreted by the researcher.
A. Projective device B. Attitude scales C. Usability D. All
50. Is the extent to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to measure and performs as it is designed to
perform?
A. External validity B. Content validity C. Validity D. Reliability

Prepared by:
Andelito P. Espaldon
Subject Teacher

“Life is full of challenges; we must strive and move positive for the future”
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Caraga Administrative Region
Schools Division of Surigao del Norte
District of Tagana-an
TALAVERA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Talavera, Tagana-an, Surigao del Norte
School I.D.: 317809
S.Y. 2020-2021
Summative Test in Media and information Literacy -12

Name: _____________________________ Grade Level & Sec: ________________ Score: ______

Test I- Instructions: Read each statement carefully. Choose the letter of the correct answer and write it on the space
provided before the number.
1. At what age did people improve the power of transistors that led to the transistor radio, electronic circuits, and the early
computers?
a. Pre-industrial age b. Electronic age c. Industrial age d. Information age
2. Which of the following media is from INDUSTRIAL AGE?
a. Cave paintings b. Mainframe computers c. Typewriter d. Augmented Reality/Virtual Reality
3. In this era, people discovered fire, developed paper from plants, and forged weapons and tools with stone, bronze,
copper and iron.
a. Pre-industrial age b. Industrial age c. Electronic age d. Information age
4. In this era, people used the power of steam, developed machine tools, established iron production, and the
manufacturing of various products (including books through the printing press)
a. Information age b. Electronic age c. Pre-industrial age d. Industrial age
5. The use of Facebook belongs to this age.
a. New Media Era b. Electronic Age c. Literacy Age d. Tribal Age
6. Which of the following forms of Media is not from the Electronic Age?
a. Transistor Radio b. Large electronic computers c. Mainframe computers d. Portable computers
7. It is characterized by the internet that paved the way for faster communication and the creation of social networks.
a. Pre-industrial age b. Industrial age c. electronic age d. Information age
8. Electronic age is characterized by the invention of transistors that last from?
a. 1990s-2000s b. 1930s-1980s c. 1700s-1930s d. before 1700s
9. Which of the following statements is NOT true about pre-industrial age?
a. People have learned how to make tools out stones
b. Paper is made out of papyrus
c. China has the oldest newspaper which is the Dibao
d. People used typewriters as tools for communication.
10. Which of the following mediums are used during the electronic age?
a. Clay tablets b. Virtual reality c. cloud and big data d. LCD projectors
11. The following are media used to share and store information during the industrial age EXCEPT __?
a. Mainframe computers such as IBM 704
b. Newspaper- The London Gazette
c. Telegraph
d. Punch cards
12. Which statement is true about Johannes Gutenberg?
a. A Scottish-born inventor, scientist, and engineer who is credited with inventing and patenting the first
practical telephone. He also co-founded the American Telephone and Telegraph Company (AT&T) in 1885.
b. A German goldsmith, inventor, printer, and publisher who introduced printing to Europe with the printing
press. His introduction of mechanical movable type printing to Europe started the Printing Revolution and is regarded as a
milestone of the second millennium, ushering in the modern period of human history.
c. An American programmer. He is best known as the creator of Live Journal and is the author of a variety of
free software projects such as memcached, PubSubHubbub, OpenID, and Perkeep.
d. An American media magnate, internet entrepreneur, and philanthropist. He is known for co-founding
Facebook, Inc. and serves as its chairman, chief executive officer, and controlling shareholder.
13. Which statement is true about Mark Zuckerberg?
a. An American programmer. He is best known as the creator of Live Journal and is the author of a variety of
free software projects such as memcached, PubSubHubbub, OpenID, and Perkeep.
b. A Scottish-born inventor, scientist, and engineer who is credited with inventing and patenting the first
practical telephone.

c. He is known for co-founding Facebook, Inc. and serves as its chairman, chief executive officer, and
controlling shareholder.
 d. A German goldsmith, inventor, printer, and publisher who introduced printing to Europe with the printing
press.
14. Which device is used for applying pressure to an inked surface resting upon a print medium (such as paper or cloth),
thereby transferring the ink?
a. Acta Diurna b. Telegraph c. Telephone d. d. Printing Press
15. Which of the following does not belong to the Pre-Industrial Age?
a. Cave Paintings b. Acta Diurna c. Printing Press (Wood blocks) d. Newspaper The London Gazette.
16. It is an informed critical understanding of the mass media.
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
17. Knowing when you need to find more information about the subject.
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
18. Is the ability or responsibility to use appropriate technology?
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
19. Access, manage, integrate, evaluate, design, and create information to improve learning in all subject areas.
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
20. The ability to access, analyze, evaluate and create messages in a variety of forms.
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
21. It knows how to learn, how to find information, evaluate it, and use it wisely and effectively.
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
22. It is all about using information to create new meaning.
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
23. Communicate, solve problems, access, and manage to improve learning in all subject areas.
a. Information Literacy b. Media Literacy c. Social Media d. Technology Literacy
24. In what year does technology literacy mean knowing how to program code?
a. 1970’s b. 1980’s c. 1990’s d. 2000
25. In the year _________ technology literacy means knowing how to work basic tools like word processing and
spreadsheet.
a. 1970’s b. 1980’s c. 1990’s d. 2000
26. Choose from the following choices below the similarities of technology and media literacy:
a. Both are essential for individuals to function and succeed in today’s society.
b. They are connected by spreading information around the people with different types of media.
c. They cooperate together to contribute to the promotion of the new literacy in knowledge societies.
d. none of the above
27. Which of the following statements below is the similarity of media and information literacy?
a. It serves as an information tool for all.
b. Both are essential for individuals to function and succeed in today’s society.
c. They are connected by spreading information around the people with different types of media.
d. They cooperate together to contribute to the promotion of the new literacy in knowledge societies.
28. Which of the following statements below is the similarity between information and technology literacy?
a. Both are essential for individuals to function and succeed in today’s society.
b. They are connected by spreading information around the people with different types of media.
c. They cooperate together to contribute to the promotion of the new literacy in knowledge societies.
d. It’s all about information giving and educating people. It is the ability of a person to know, create, evaluate
and use a certain thing. It is also a mastery and understanding of a thing.
29. Which of the following is the meaning of literacy?
a. It is the ability to read and write.
b. To learn new things
c. To enhance skills and talent
d. To be creative and informative in life
30. Which of the following statements is the similarity of the three literacies?
a. Both are essential for individuals to function and succeed in today’s society.
b. They are connected by spreading information around the people with different types of media.
c. They cooperate together to contribute to the promotion of the new literacy in knowledge societies.
d. It’s all about information giving and educating people. It is the ability of a person to know, create, evaluate
and use a certain thing. It is also a mastery and understanding of a thing.
TEST-II Write True if the statement is correct and False if it is wrong. (X2)
____1. Update passwords frequently. Keep an eye on any dormant accounts if you not to delete them.
____2. Social media can also be a valuable source of information, capable of spreading stories far faster than traditional
media outlets.
____3. Social media is under pre-historic age.
____4. Keep your personal and professional identities separate.
____5. THINK before you click.

TEST –III
ENRICHMENT
 List down the 10 reasons why do you think this lesson is important?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Prepared by:
Vicente C. Toraja
Subject Teacher

“Technology helps individual awareness thru civilization”

 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Caraga Administrative Region
Schools Division of Surigao del Norte
District of Tagana-an
TALAVERA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Talavera, Tagana-an, Surigao del Norte
School I.D.: 317809
S.Y. 2020-2021
Summative Test in Introduction to Philosophy of the Human Person -12

Name: _____________________________ Grade Level & Sec: ________________ Score: ______

TEST –I Directions: Read and understand each statement and write the letter of the correct answer on your answer sheet.
1. What do you call the study that is concerned with a particular objective of investigation?
A. Logic B. Bahala Na C. Study of all things D. First cause or Highest Principles
2. What kind of Filipino philosophy wherein Filipino believes in ‘gulong ng palad’ (wheel of fortune) and looks at life as
a series of up and downs and makes the Filipino an unmitigated optimist?
A. Logic B. Bahala Na C. Study of all things D. Filipino Philosophy of Time
3. What kind of principle states that nothing exists without sufficient reason for its being and existence?
A. Ethics B. Logic C. Principle of excluded middle D. Principle of Sufficient reason
4. Whatever is; whatever is not is not; everything is what it is. Everything is its own being, and not being is not being.
What principle is this?
A. Principle of Identity
B. Principle of excluded middle
C.Principle of Non-contradiction
D. Principle of Sufficient reason
5. What kind of philosophy investigates things not by using any other laboratory instrument or investigative tools, neither
on the basis of supernatural revelation?
A. Metaphysics B. Philosophy C. Science D. Natural light of reasoning
6. What kind of principle declares that “a thing is either is or is not; everything must be either be or not be; between being
and not-being, there is no middle ground possible”?
A. Principle of Identity
B. Principle of excluded middle
C. Principle of Noncontradiction
D. Principle of Sufficient reason
7. What kind of principle states that it is impossible for a thing to be and not to be at the same time, and at the same
respect?
A. Epistemology B. Metaphysics C. Principle of Identity D. Principle of Noncontradiction
8. What kind of study follows certain steps or employs certain procedures?
A. Metaphysics B. Philosophy C. Science D. Natural light of Reasoning
9. What kind of principle states that from which something proceeds in any manner?
A. Principle of Identity
B. Principle of Noncontradiction
C. Principle of excluded middle
D. First cause or Highest Principles
10. What branch of science states that by natural light of reason study the first cause or highest principles of all things?
A. Metaphysics B. Philosophy C. Science D. Natural light of Reasoning
11. It is an extension of a fundamental and necessary drive in every human being to know what is real.
A. Metaphysics B. Philosophy C. Science D. Natural light of Reasoning
12. What would happen if Metaphysics, one of the branches of philosophy, is omitted?
A. No moral virtue and evaluates human actions
B. No nature, source, limitation and validity of knowledge
C. No studies the first causes or highest principles of all things
D. No fundamental and necessary drive in every human being to know what is real.
13. What do you think is the focus of study of Epistemology?
A. kind of reasoning that validate the arguments
B. extension of a fundamental and necessary drive in every human being
C. focused on how the nature of moral virtue and evaluates human action.
D. study or branch that deals with nature, source, limitation and validity of knowledge.

14. What is the meaning of logic in philosophy?

A. It is the validity of the arguments regarding such objects.
 B. extension of a fundamental and necessary drive in every human being
C. focused on how the nature of moral virtue and evaluates human action.
D. study or branch that deals with nature, source, limitation and validity of knowledge.
15. Where did the Bahala Na attitude of the Filipino come from?
A. From the Spaniards
B. From the ideas of all philosophers
C. From the name of a supreme being which is Batula or Bathala
D. From the name of an ancient people that gives their ideas and opinions.
16. What kind of Filipino philosophy wherein Filipino believes in ‘gulong ng palad’ (wheel of fortune) and looks at life as
a series of up and downs and makes the Filipino an unmitigated optimist?
A. Bahala Na B. Logic C. Study of all things D. Filipino Philosophy of Time
17. What kind of principle states that nothing exists without sufficient reason for its being and existence?
A. Ethics B. Logic C. Principle of excluded middle D. Principle of Su fficient reason
18. What kind of philosophy investigates things not by using any other laboratory instrument or investigative tools,
neither on the basis of supernatural revelation?
A. Metaphysics B. Philosophy C. Science D. Natural light of reasoning
19. What kind of study follows certain steps or employs certain procedures?
A. Metaphysics B. Philosophy C. Science D. Natural light of reasoning
20. What branch of science that by natural light of reason studies the first cause or highest principles of all things?
A. Metaphysics B. Philosophy C. Science D. Natural light of reasoning
21. What kind of reasoning validates the arguments?
A. Bahala Na B. Logic C. Study of all things D. Filipino Philosophy of Time
22. What kind of Filipino Philosophy which came from the name of a supreme being which is Batula or Bathala?
A. Bahala Na B. Logic C. Study of all things D. Filipino Philosophy of Time
23. What do you call the study that is concerned with a particular objective of investigation?
A. Bahala Na B. Logic C. Study of all things D. First cause or Highest Principles
24. What principle states that it is impossible for a thing to be and not to be at the same time, and at the same respect?
A. Epistemology B. Metaphysics C. Principle of Identity D. Principle of Noncontradiction
25. What principle states that from which something proceeds in any manner?
A. Principle of Identity
B. Principle of Noncontradiction
C. Principle of excluded middle
D. First cause or Highest Principles
26. Whatever is; whatever is not is not; everything is what it is. Everything is its own being, and not being is not being.
What principle is this?
A. Principle of Identity
B. Principle of Noncontradiction
C. Principle of excluded middle
D. Principle of Sufficient reason
27. What do you think the focus of the study of Epistemology?
A. Kind of reasoning that validate the arguments
B. Extension of a fundamental and necessary drive in every human being
C. Focused on how the nature of moral virtue and evaluates human action.
D. Study or branch that deals with nature, source, limitation and validity of knowledge.
28. What do you think the meaning of logic is?
A. Kind of reasoning that validate the arguments
B. Extension of a fundamental and necessary drive in every human being
C. Focused on how the nature of moral virtue and evaluates human action.
D. Study or branch that deals with nature, source, limitation and validity of knowledge.
29. Where did the Bahala Na attitude of the Filipino come from?
A. From the Spaniards
B. From the ideas of all philosophers
C. From the name of a supreme being which is Batula or Bathala
D. From the name of an ancient people that gives their ideas and opinions.
30. What is the focus of the study of Metaphysics?
A. Deals with nature, source, limitation and validity of knowledge.
B. Exploring the nature of moral virtue and evaluating human actions.
C. Impossible for a thing to be and not to be at the same time, and at the same respect.
D. An extension of a fundamental and necessary drive in every human being to know what is real.

31. What is a defect in an argument other than its having false premises?
A. equivocation B. Fallacies C. appeal to pity D. Appeal to ignorance
32. What is a specific kind of appeal to emotion in which someone tries to win support for an argument or idea by
exploiting his or her opponent’s feelings of guilt?
 A. Composition B. Equivocation C. Appeal to pity D. Appeal to ignorance
33. What states that whatever has not been proved false must be true, and vice versa?
A. Composition B. Equivocation C. Appeal to pity D. Appeal to ignorance
34. What fallacy infers that something is true of the whole from the fact that is true of some part of the whole?
A. Composition B. Equivocation C. Appeal to pity D. Appeal to ignorance
35. What fallacy is a logical chain of reasoning of a term or a word several times, but giving the particular word a
different meaning each time?
A. Composition B. Equivocation C. Appeal to pity D. Appeal to ignorance
36. What kind of fallacy that reason’s logically that something true of a thing must also be true of all or some of its parts?
A. Division B. Against to force C. Against the person D. Appeal to the people
37. In what way is critical thinking a tool for reasoning?
A. Critical thinking deductive arguments.
B. Critical thinking is inductive arguments.
C. Critical thinking reverse of the fallacy is division.
D. Critical thinking is distinguishing facts and opinions or personal feelings
38. It is a specific kind of appeal to emotion in which someone tries to win support for an argument or idea by exploiting
his/her opponents feeling of pity and guilt. What kind of appeal is this?
A. Appeal to force B. Appeal to pity C. Appeal to ignorance D. Appeal to the People
39. What type of basic reasoning that draws conclusion from usually one broad judgment or definition and one more
specific assertion?
A. Reduction B. Suspension C. Deductive reasoning D. Inductive reasoning
40. What do you call that phenomenologist “brackets” which questions truth or reality and simply describes the contents
of consciousness?
A. Reduction B. Suspension C. Deductive reasoning D. Inductive reasoning
41. What do you call the defect in an argument other than its having a false premise?
A. Fallacy B. Suspension C. Deductive reasoning D. Inductive reasoning
42. What ideas justify the Fact or Truth?
A. Ideas based on direct evidence, actual experience, or observation.
B. Ideas referring “the way how one applies his mind to collect information.
C. Phenomenologist “brackets” all questions of truth or reality and simply describes the contents of consciousness
suspension
D. Basic reasoning that draws conclusion from usually one broad judgment or definition and one more specific
assertion
43. What do you think is the meaning of Intelligence in philosophy?
A. It is based on direct evidence, actual experience, or observation.
B. It’s referring “the way how one applies his mind to collect information.
C. It is phenomenologist “brackets” all questions of truth or reality and simply describes the contents of
consciousness Suspension
D. It is basic reasoning that draws conclusion from usually one broad judgment or definition and one more
specific assertion
44. Why do you think that Truth is perceived through 5 senses, namely, seeing, hearing, tasting, smelling & touching &
using 6th sense intelligence?
A. Perceived as a statement of belief or feeling.
B. Perceived his truth suggests to understand, analyze & interpret, to acquire knowledge.
C. Perceived as truth is only the "reality" of circumstances, applicable only for that moment.
D. His discretion in applying the knowledge for meaningful expression & maximum positive advantage at the
right place, time & circumstances to the right people or thing.
45. What details would you use to support the view of Knowledge?
A. It is based on direct evidence, actual experience, or observation
B. It is perceive through 5 senses, namely, seeing, hearing, tasting, smelling & touching & using 6th sense
intelligence
C. It is a collection of information, which can contain good & bad, sensitive & sensible, emotional, purposeful
and wasteful information.
D. It is a type of basic reasoning that draws conclusion from usually one broad judgment or definition and one
more specific assertion
46. What fallacy states that whatever has been proved false must be true, and vice versa?
A. Appeal to force B. Appeal to ignorance C. Appeal to pity D. Appeal to the People

47. What details would you use to support the view of Knowledge?
A. It is based on direct evidence, actual experience, or observation
B. It is perceive through 5 senses, namely, seeing, hearing, tasting, smelling & touching & using 6th sense
intelligence
 C. It is a collection of information, which can contain good & bad, sensitive & sensible, emotional, purposeful
and wasteful information.
D. It is a type of basic reasoning that draws conclusion from usually one broad judgment or definition and one
more specific assertion.
48. What do you think is the meaning of Intelligence in philosophy?
A. It is based on direct evidence, actual experience, or observation.
B. It’s referring “the way how one applies his mind to collect information.
C. It is phenomenologist “brackets” all questions of truth or reality and simply describes the contents of
consciousness Suspension.
D. It is basic reasoning that draws conclusion from usually one broad judgment or definition and one more
specific assertion.
49. What ideas justify the Fact or Truth?
A. Ideas based on direct evidence, actual experience, or observation.
B. Ideas referring “the way how one applies his mind to collect information.
C. Phenomenologist “brackets” all questions of truth or reality and simply describes the contents of
consciousness Suspension
D. basic reasoning that draws conclusion from usually one broad judgment or definition and one more specific
assertion
50. Why do you think that Truth is perceived through 5 senses, namely, seeing, hearing, tasting, smelling & touching &
using 6th sense intelligence?
A. Perceived as a statement of belief or feeling.
B. Perceived his truth suggests to understand, analyze & interpret, to acquire knowledge.
C. Perceived as truth is only the "Reality" of circumstances, applicable only for that moment.
D. His discretion in applying the knowledge for meaningful expression & maximum positive advantage at the
right place, time & circumstances to the right people or thing.

Prepared by:
Andelito P. Espaldon
Subject Teacher

“The life in front of you is far more important that the life behind you”
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Caraga Administrative Region
Schools Division of Surigao del Norte
District of Tagana-an
TALAVERA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Talavera, Tagana-an, Surigao del Norte
School I.D.: 317809
S.Y. 2020-2021
Summative Test in Philippine Politics and Governance -12

Name: _____________________________ Grade Level & Sec: ________________ Score: ______

Directions. Read carefully and choose the letter of the correct answer. Write your answer on a separate sheet of paper.
1. What do you call by the people’s ideas about right and wrong?
A. Belief B. Ideology C. Manners D. Values
2. Which of the following is a people’s assessment of reality and what they hold is true?
A. Belief B. Ideology C. Manners D. Values
3. What is the study of “who gets what, when, and how”?
A. Governance B. Politics C. The Science of Politics D. All of the above
4. Which of the following practices deception and manipulation?
A. Decisions B. Governance C. People D. Politics
5. Which of the following defined as the systematic study of political governmental institutions and processes?
A. Governance B. Political science C. Politics D. All of them
6. Which of the following is a process of decision-making by which decisions are implemented?
A. Governance B. Political science C. Politics D. All of the above
7. What is the similarity between politics and governance?
A. They are both exercises of power.
B. They both deal with decision-making.
C. They consist of people acting politically.
D. They are concerned with the association of human beings into ‘body politic’.
8. What does transparency mean in good governance?
A. serve and care
B. effective policy making
C. enforcement is done in a manner that follows rules and regulations
D. both men and women must have a representative in every governmental process
9. Why does good governance need to ensure transparency?
A. for them to be honest
B. being answerable for actions
C. to show people their consistency as good government
D. to meet the needs of society while making the best use of the resource
10. What is the crucial requirement for good governance?
A. Accountability B. Participation C. Responsiveness D. Transparency
11. What is the key requirement of good governance?
A. Accountability B. Participation C. Responsiveness D. Transparency
12. Why does good governance entail respect for law and human rights?
A. for the exercise of its power on the people
B. to show people that they care and they are protected
C. it is primarily concerned with the association of people
D. they must have the consent of the governed to achieve peace and unity.
13. Why does good governance need participation?
A. for the fairness
B. to give freedom to people to make a decision
C. because it is a crucial requirement for good governance
D. to make sure that the people are involved with every decision they make and to reduce misunderstanding
14. Does governance need to entail competence?
A. No, they just have to be legit.
B. Yes, just to be effective in every way.
C. No, it does not need to entail competence.
D. It may or may not. They only need to implement.
15. Is the accountability of good governance a crucial requirement?
A. No, being transparent is enough.
B. No, the crucial requirement is participation.
C. Yes, good governance must be accountable to the public to ensure transparency.
D. Yes, it is also a crucial requirement but the most crucial requirement is effectiveness and efficiency.

16. What is ideology?

A. The basic beliefs and values of people.
 B. It is people’s assessment of reality and ideas about right and wrong.
C. It advances a model of the desired future, a vision of the good society.
D. All of the above
17. What is an analysis of the grounds and concepts expressing fundamental beliefs?
A. Beliefs B. Ideology C. Study D. Values
18. What does the Latin word ‘liber’ mean?
A. Free B. Freedom C. Free Men D. Free World
19. What is the central theme of liberal ideology?
A. It is to enjoy one’s own life dependently.
B. It is to enjoy one’s own life independently.
C. A commitment to the individual and the desire to construct a society in which man can satisfy their interests
and achieve fulfillment
D. All of the above
20. What belief that a man is generally good and that his ability to reason allows him to attain economic, political, and
social progress?
A. Communism B. Environmentalism C. Feminism D. Liberalism
21. What is an extreme left-wing ideology?
A. Communism B. Environmentalism C. Feminism D. Liberalism
22. Which of the following is the belief in the supreme importance of the individual over any social group or collective
body?
A. Individualism B. Liberalism C. Socialism D. All of the above
23. Which of the following is a moral standard of fairness and impartiality?
A. Injustice B. Justice C. Social Democracy D. Unfairness
24. Which of the following favors balancing between the market and the state?
A. Fairness B. Injustice C. Justice D. Social Democracy
25. What is the ideology which is viewed as opposed to capitalism?
A. Communism B. Feminism C. Liberalism D. Socialism
26. How does ideology Socialism help us?
A. It does not promote violence.
B. It denotes giving what is due to each person.
C. It tends to support the status quo and advocates change.
D. This tries to provide a more humane and socially valuable substitute.
27. Which of the following is a movement that stands for political conditions rejecting democracy?
A. Communism B. Conservatism C. Fascism D. Religious Fundamentalism
28. What is the unusual political ideology?
A. Communism B. Environmentalism C. Fascism D. Religious Fundamentalism
29. What does the ideology Feminism mean?
A. It only favors women.
B. The theory of social equality of the sexes.
C. Have a strong anti-liberal and anti-conservative.
D. Concerned with the attainment of gender inequality in the political, economic, and social spheres of life.
30. Concerns about the natural environment and particularly about reducing environmental degradation.
A. Communism B. Environmentalism C. Fascism D. Religious Fundamentalism
31. Which of the following refers to an individual group’s right to use power by making decisions, giving directives, and
demanding compliance?
A. Authority B. Legitimacy C. Power D. Sovereignty
32. The ability to coerce or reward stems from _____ power.
A. Formal B. Information C. Personal D. Referent
33. Power based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits are known as _____
power.
A. Coercive B. Formal C. Personal D. Referent
34. A power that is based on the subordinates’ fear of the leader; maintained by the use of threats and punishment.
A. Coercive B. Legitimate C. Referent D. Social
35. _____ involves relying on one's authority position or stressing that a request is in accordance with organizational
policies or rules.
A. Exchange B. Legitimacy C. Consultation D. Rational persuasion
36. The power tactic of _____ involves using warnings, repeated demands, and threats.
A. Consultation B. Legitimacy C. rational persuasion D. Inspirational appeal
37. is any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an individual's employment and creates a hostile work
environment
A. Affirmative action B. Coalition building C. Sexual harassment D. Equal employment opportunity
38. It allows a person to lead or to inspire without relying on set rules or traditions
A. Beauty B. Charisma C. Moral D. Values

39. The following are sources of power EXCEPT

A. Authority B. Force C. Influence D. Knowledge
40. This refer to relationships evolve over time as individuals gain or lose certain types of power relative to others.
A. Dynamic B. Latent C. Perceived D. Relative
41. What type of power exhibited by the leader of an organization who had certain powers because of the position they
hold within the organization?
A. Military B. Legitimate C. Political D. All are correct
42. Political activities include complaining to one's supervisor, bypassing the chain of command, forming coalitions,
obstructing organizational politics, excessively adhering to rules, developing contacts outside the organization.
A. External B. Internal C. Illegitimate D. Legitimate
43. Which of the following does NOT described referent power?
A. Power is gained by a leader who has strong interpersonal relationship skills.
B. A power wielded by celebrities and film stars as they have huge following amongst masses who like them,
identify with them and follow them.
C. A power that is based on one person’s belief that another has certain characteristics.
D. Power refers to the ability of a leader to influence a follower because of the follower's loyalty, respect,
friendship, admiration, affection, or a desire to gain approval.
44. You want a new personal computer to help you do a better job. You developed some new techniques that will bring
gaming up a notch. What power is given in an example?
A. Dynamic B. Expert C. Knowledge D. Relative
45. Which of the following definition is mismatched?
A. Authority is an official right to make and to enforce decisions, whereas influence is the ability to affect the
actions of others apart from authority to do so.
B. Authority stems from rank, whereas influence rests largely upon personal attributes.
C. Authority is based upon the status one holds, whereas influence is based upon the esteem one receives.
D. Authority stems from personal attributes, whereas influence is based on an uncodified collective sense.
46.This refer to relationships evolve over time as individuals gain or lose certain types of power relative to others
A. Dynamic B. Latent C. Perceived D. Relative
47.Political activities include complaining to one's supervisor, bypassing the chain of command, forming coalitions,
obstructing organizational politics, excessively adhering to rules and developing contacts outside the organization.
A. External B. Internal C. Illegitimate D. Legitimate
48.You want a new personal computer to help you do a better job. You developed some new techniques that would
bring gaming up a notch. Which power is described in the given example?
A. Dynamic B. Expert C. Knowledge D. Relative
49.Power based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits are known as _____
power.
A. Coercive B. Formal C. Personal D. Referent
50. Which of the following definition is mismatched?
A. Authority is an official right to make and to enforce decisions, whereas influence is the ability to affect the
actions of others apart from authority to do so.
B. Authority stems from rank, whereas influence rests largely upon personal attributes.
C. Authority is based upon the status one holds, whereas influence is based upon the esteem one receives.
D. Authority stems from personal attributes, whereas influence is based on an uncodified collective sense

Prepared by:

Andelito P.Espaldon
Subject Teacher

“Leaders are meant to served, not to be serve”