Becker F3 Revision Kit

ACCA
Revision
Question Bank
F3 / FFA Financial Accounting
For examinations from September 2017 to August 2018
F3
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ACCA
F3/FFA FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
REVISION QUESTION BANK
For Examinations from September 2017 to August 2018
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Past ACCA examination questions are the copyright of the Association of Chartered Certified
Accountants and have been reproduced by kind permission.
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REVISION QUESTION BANK – FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING (F3/FFA)
The examination will consist of 35 two mark multiple choice questions (MCQs) and two 15 mark
questions in Section B (see Specimen Exam included). Section B will test consolidations and accounts
preparation. The consolidation question could include a small amount of interpretation and the
accounts preparation question could be set in the context of a sole trader or a limited company.
This Revision Question Bank includes non-MCQ questions on topics that will not be examined in
Section B but are provided for comprehensive revision. These are indicated *
CONTENTS
Question Page Answer Marks Date worked
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – BOOKKEEPING
1 Accruals and prepayments 1 1001 26

2 Depreciation and disposals 4 1002 32
3 Receivables and payables 9 1004 36
4 Inventory 14 1008 8
5 Books of prime entry and control accounts 16 1009 30
6 Journal entries 21 1011 14
DOUBLE-ENTRY AND RECORDING TRANSACTIONS
*7 Rook (ACCA J00) 23 1012 16

*8 Addax (ACCA J02) 24 1013 9
*9 Riffon (ACCA D03) 24 1014 12
CONTROL ACCOUNT RECONCILIATIONS
*10 United (ACCA J95) 25 1015 9

*11 Scimitar (ACCA D97) 26 1016 12
*12 Otter (ACCA D99) 27 1016 15
*13 Atanga (ACCA J07) 28 1017 7
BANK RECONCILIATIONS
14 MCQs Bank reconciliations 28 1017 18

*15 George (ACCA J99) 31 1018 17
SUSPENSE ACCOUNTS
16 MCQs Suspense accounts 32 1019 22

*17 Andromeda (ACCA J01) 36 1021 15
*18 Arbados (ACCA J04) 37 1022 9
*19 Lorca (ACCA D06) 37 1022 11
ADJUSTMENT TO PROFIT STATEMENTS
*20 Pride (ACCA Pilot Paper 2001) 38 1023 14

*21 Choctaw (ACCA J05) 39 1024 8
*22 Rampion (ACCA J06) 39 1025 11
All ACCA past exam question and answers have been updated, where necessary, to take account of changes in
syllabus and developments in IFRS.
©2017 DeVry/Becker Educational Development Corp. All rights reserved. (iii)
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING (F3/FFA) – REVISION QUESTION BANK
INCOMPLETE RECORDS
23 MCQs Incomplete records 40 1026 36

*24 Lamorgan (ACCA D01) 46 1028 10
*25 Altese, Senji & Aluki (ACCA J03) 47 1029 9
*26 Hasta (ACCA J07) 48 1030 11
REGULATORY FRAMEWORK
27 MCQs Regulatory Framework 48 1031 16

*28 IASB (ACCA J98) 50 1031 8
CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK
29 MCQs Qualitative characteristics 50 1032 38

*30 Four concepts (ACCA D98) 54 1033 12
*31 Materiality (ACCA J01) 54 1034 11
*32 Comparability (ACCA J04) 55 1035 5
IAS 1 PRESENTATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
33 MCQs IAS 1 55 1036 32

34 Arbalest (ACCA D97) 60 1037 15
35 Perseus (ACCA J01) 61 1038 15
36 Cronos (ACCA D02) 62 1040 15
37 Abrador (ACCA D03) 63 1041 15
38 Minica (ACCA J04) 65 1042 15
39 Shuswap (ACCA J05) 66 1043 15
CAPITAL STRUCTURE AND FINANCE COSTS
40 MCQs Capital structure and finance costs 67 1044 36

*41 Reserves and issues (ACCA J03) 72 1046 6
*42 Armani 72 1047 8
IAS 2 INVENTORIES
43 MCQs IAS 2 73 1047 20

*44 Sampi (ACCA J98) 76 1049 5
*45 P, Q & R (ACCA D94) 76 1049 8
IFRS 15 REVENUE FROM CONTRACTS WITH CUSTOMERS
46 MCQs Revenue 77 1051 10
IAS 16 PROPERTY PLANT AND EQUIPMENT
47 MCQs IAS 16 79 1051 26

*48 Non-current assets (ACCA J92) 82 1053 17
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IAS 38 INTANGIBLE ASSETS
49 MCQs IAS 38 83 1054 16

*50 Lion (ACCA D04) 85 1055 12
*51 Aircraft (ACCA J07) 86 1056 10
IAS 37 PROVISIONS, CONTINGENT LIABILITIES AND CONTINGENT ASSETS
52 MCQs IAS 37 86 1056 16

*53 Reserves (ACCA D94) 89 1057 12
IAS 10 EVENTS AFTER THE REPORTING PERIOD
54 MCQs IAS 10 89 1058 18

*55 Aluki (IASs 2, 10 & 37) (ACCA D03) 92 1059 9
*56 Quapaw (IASs 2, 10 & 37) (ACCA J05) 92 1059 6
*57 Umbria (IAS 10, 16 & 37) (ACCA D05) 93 1060 10
IAS 7 STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS
58 MCQs IAS 7 93 1061 24

59 Crash (ACCA Pilot Paper 2001) 97 1062 15
*60 Marmot (ACCA J02) 98 1063 10
61 Renada (ACCA J04) 99 1064 15
62 Sioux (ACCA J05) 100 1065 15
63 Joyce (ACCA D06) 101 1067 15
CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
*64 MCQs Consolidated financial statements 102 1068 44

65 Haydn & Strauss 108 1072 15
66 Dublin & Belfast 110 1073 15
67 Helios & Luna (ACCA D02) 111 1075 15
68 Bradshaw & Martin (ACCA D09) 112 1076 15
INTERPRETATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
69 MCQs Interpretation of financial statements 113 1076 26

*70 Beta (ACCA D98) 116 1078 15
*71 Weden (ACCA J02) 118 1079 10
*72 Apillon (ACCA J03) 119 1080 9
ACCA SPECIMEN EXAM (2 hours)
Section A
35 MCQs 121 1081 70
Section B
1 Keswick Co 131 1085 15
2 Malright Co 132 1085 15
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Question 1 MCQs ACCRUALS AND PREPAYMENTS
1.1 A company has sublet part of its offices and in the year ended 30 November 20X6 the rent
receivable was:
Until 30 June 20X6 $8,400 per year

From 1 July 20X6 $12,000 per year
Rent was paid quarterly in advance on 1 January, April, July, and October each year.
What amounts should appear in the company’s financial statements for the year ended
30 November 20X6?
Statement of Statement of
profit or loss financial position
A $9,900 $2,000 in sundry payables
B $9,900 $1,000 in sundry payables
C $10,200 $1,000 in sundry payables
D $9,900 $2,000 in sundry receivables (2 marks)
1.2 A business compiling its financial statements for the year to 31 July each year pays rent
quarterly in advance on 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October each year. The annual rent
was increased from $60,000 per year to $72,000 per year as from 1 October 20X6.
What figure should appear for rent expense in the business’s profit or loss for the year
ended 31 July 20X7?
A $62,000
B $63,000
C $69,000
D $70,000 (2 marks)
1.3 Beek receives rent for subletting part of its office premises to a number of tenants. In the year
ended 31 December 20X6 Beek received cash of $318,600 from its tenants.
Details of rent in advance and in arrears at the beginning and end of 20X6 are as follows:
31 December 31 December
20X6 20X5
$ $
Rent received in advance 28,400 24,600
Rent owing by tenants 18,300 16,900
All rent owing was subsequently received.
What figure for rental income should be included in Beek’s profit or loss for 20X6?
A $341,000
B $336,400
C $316,200
D $300,800 (2 marks)
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1.4 At 1 July 20X6 a company had prepaid insurance of $8,200. On 1 January 20X7 the
company paid $38,000 for insurance for the year to 30 September 20X7.
What figures should appear for insurance in the company’s financial statements for the
year ended 30 June 20X7?
Profit or loss Statement of financial position
A $27,200 Prepayment $19,000
B $39,300 Prepayment $9,500
C $36,700 Prepayment $9,500
D $55,700 Prepayment $9,500 (2 marks)
1.5 A company sublets part of its office accommodation. In the year ended 30 June 20X7 cash
received from tenants was $83,700. Details of rent in arrears and in advance at the beginning
and end of the year were:
In arrears In advance
$ $
30 June 20X6 3,800 2,400
30 June 20X7 4,700 3,000
All arrears of rent were subsequently received.

What figure for rental income should be included in the company’s profit or loss for the
A $80,600
B $83,400
C $84,000
D $85,800 (2 marks)
1.6 A business sublets part of its office accommodation. The rent is received quarterly in advance
on 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October. The annual rent has been $24,000 for some
years, but it was increased to $30,000 from 1 July 20X6.
What amounts for this rent should appear in the company’s financial statements for the
year ended 31 January 20X7?

A $27,500 $5,000 in sundry receivables
B $27,000 $2,500 in sundry receivables
C $27,000 $2,500 in sundry payables
D $27,500 $5,000 in sundry payables (2 marks)
1.7 During 20X6, Benz paid a total of $60,000 for rent, covering the period from 1 October 20X5
to 31 March 20X7.
What figures should appear in the company’s financial statements for the year ended 31
December 20X6?
A $40,000 Prepayment $10,000
B $40,000 Prepayment $15,000
C $50,000 Accrual $10,000
D $50,000 Accrual $15,000 (2 marks)
2 ©2017 DeVry/Becker Educational Development Corp. All rights reserved.
1.8 Jam is preparing its financial statements for the year ended 30 June 20X7. Its draft trial
balance includes:
(1) A balance for office expenses (including rent) paid in the financial year of $89,100
(2) A balance for prepayment of rent at 1 July 20X6 of $9,500
On 31 May 20X7 Jared paid three months’ rent in advance of $15,300.
Which of the following will be the figure for office expenses in Jam’s statement of profit
or loss for the year ended 30 June 20X7?
A $60,400
B $88,400
C $89,100
D $93,500 (2 marks)
1.9 Brindal acquired five apartments on 1 June 20X6 and immediately rented them out to
different tenants. Brindal has a credit balance on its rent receivable account in the trial
balance extracted as at 31 May 20X7 of $22,850. The bookkeeper has calculated that rents in
arrears as at 31 May 20X7 amounted to $4,490 and rents in advance at the same date
amounted to $7,720.
What was Brindal’s rental income for the year ended 31 May 20X7?
A $19,620
B $22,850
C $26,080
D $37,340 (2 marks)
1.10 Holly began trading on 1 July 20X6. The business is now preparing its financial statements
for the year ended 30 June 20X7. Rent is charged for the year from 1 April to 31 March, and
was $1,800 for the year ended 31 March 20X7 and $2,000 for the year ended 31 March 20X8.
Rent is payable quarterly in advance on 1 March, 1 June, 1 September and 1 December.
What is the charge to Holly’s statement of profit or loss for rent for the year ended 30
June 20X7?
A $1,650
B $1,700
C $1,850
D $1,900 (2 marks)
1.11 On 1 June 20X6, Heather paid an insurance invoice of $2,400 for the year to 31 May 20X7.
How will this be accounted for in Heather’s financial statement for the year ended 31
December 20X6?
profit of loss financial position
A $1,000 $1,400 prepayment
B $1,400 $1,000 accrual
C $1,400 $1,000 prepayment
D $1,200 $1,200 prepayment (2 marks)
1.12 On 1 January, a business had prepaid insurance of $10,000. On 1 August it paid, in full, an
insurance invoice of $36,000 for the year to 31 July 20X7.
What amounts will be included in the financial statements for the year ended 31
December 20X6?
A $15,000 $21,000
B $22,000 $23,000
C $25,000 $21,000
D $25,000 $15,000 (2 marks)
1.13 During the year ended 30 September 20X6, Priceless Co recorded the following cash
transactions:
(1) Payment of an annual insurance premium of $12,000 for the period to 31 December
20X6
(2) Receipt of $6,000 in respect of rent from a tenant covering the three month period to
30 November 20X6
What is the impact on the profit and net assets of making the year-end adjustments for
prepaid income and expenditure at 30 September 20X6?
Profit Net assets

A Decrease $1,000 Increase $1,000
B Decrease $7,000 Increase $7,000
C Decrease $1,000 Decrease $1,000
D Increase $7,000 Increase $7,000 (2 marks)
(26 marks)
Question 2 MCQs DEPRECIATION AND DISPOSALS
2.1 A business purchased a motor car on 1 July 20X6 for $20,000. It is to be depreciated at
20%per year on the straight line basis, assuming a residual value at the end of five years of
$4,000, with a proportionate depreciation charge in the year of purchase.
The $20,000 cost was correctly entered in the cash book but posted to the debit of the motor
vehicles repairs account.
How will the business profit for the year ending 31 December 20X6 be affected by the
error?
A Understated by $18,400
B Understated by $16,800
C Understated by $18,000
D Overstated by $18,400 (2 marks)
2.2 A company’s policy as regards depreciation of its plant and machinery is to charge
depreciation at 20% per year on cost, with proportional depreciation for items purchased or
sold during a year.
The company’s plant and machinery at cost account for the year ended 30 September 20X6 is
shown below:
Plant and machinery – cost
20X5 $ $
1 Oct Balance (all plant 200,000
purchased after 20X2)
20X6
20X6 30 Jun Transfer disposal account 40,000
1 Apr Cash-purchase of plant 50,000 30 Sept Balance 210,000
–––––––– ––––––––
250,000 250,000
———— ————
What should be the depreciation charge for plant and machinery (excluding any profit
or loss on the disposal) for the year ended 30 September 20X6?
A $42,000
B $43,000
C $45,000
D $51,000 (2 marks)
2.3 The plant and machinery at cost account of a business for the year ended 30 June 20X7 was as
follows:
20X6 $ 20X6 $
1 July Balance 240,000 30 Sept. Transfer disposal
account 60,000
20X7 20X7
1 Jan Cash-purchase of plant 160,000 30 Jun Balance 340,000
–––––––– ––––––––
400,000 400,000
———— ————
The company’s policy is to charge depreciation at 20% per year on the straight line basis,
with proportionate depreciation in the years of purchase and disposal.
What should be the depreciation charge for the year ended 30 June 20X7?
A $68,000
B $64,000
C $61,000
D $55,000 (2 marks)
2.4 A business’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December showed a profit of
$83,600. It was later found that $18,000 paid for the purchase of a motor van had been
debited to motor expenses account. It is the company’s policy to depreciate motor vans at
25% per year, with a full year’s charge in the year of acquisition.
What would the profit be after adjusting for this error?
A $70,100
B $97,100
C $101,600
D $106,100 (2 marks)
2.5 The plant and machinery cost account of a company is shown below. The company’s policy
is to charge depreciation at 20% on the straight line basis, with proportionate depreciation in
years of acquisition and disposal.
20X6 $ 20X6 $
1 Jan Balance 280,000 30 June Transfer disposal 14,000
1 Apr Cash 48,000
1 Sept Cash 36,000 31 Dec Balance 350,000
–––––––– ––––––––
364,000 364,000
———— ————
What should be the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December 20X6?
A $64,200
B $67,000
C $68,600
D $70,000 (2 marks)
2.6 Sam’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X6 showed a profit of
$83,600. It was later found that $18,000 paid for the purchase of a motor vehicle on 1
January 20X6 had been debited to motor expenses account. It is the company’s policy to
depreciate motor vehicles at 25% per year.
What is Sam’s profit for the year after adjusting for this error?
A $70,100
B $97,100
C $101,600
D $106,100 (2 marks)
2.7 On 1 January 20X4 Joffa purchased a new machine at a cost of $96,720. Delivery costs were
$3,660 and internal administration costs of $9,450 were incurred. At that time Joffa planned
to replace the machine in five years, when it would have no value, and to depreciate the
machine on a straight line basis.
Joffa decides on 1 January 20X6 that the machine only has one remaining year of useful life.
There is no expected change to the residual value at the end of its life.
What is the depreciation expense in respect of this machine for the year ended 31
December 20X6?
A $33,460
B $58,032
C $60,228
D $65,898 (2 marks)
2.8 On 1 April 20X5 Herepath bought a Foxy car for $23,500. The company’s depreciation
policy for cars is 30% per annum using the reducing balance method. On 1 April 20X7 the
Foxy was part-exchanged for a Vizgo car, which had a purchase price of $28,200. Herepath
paid the seller $19,350, in final settlement.
What was Herepath’s profit or loss on the disposal of the Foxy?
A $7,835 profit
B $2,665 loss
C $5,150 loss
D $6,250 loss (2 marks)
2.9 Redruth commenced trading on 1 April 20X4. The carrying amount of plant and equipment
in Redruth’s financial statements as at 31 March 20X6 was $399,960. The cost of these
assets was $614,500. On 31 March 20X7 an asset costing $11,500 was acquired.
Depreciation is charged on plant and equipment monthly at an annual rate of 25% straight
line. There are no residual values.
What is the carrying amount of Redruth’s plant and equipment in its statement of
financial position at 31 March 20X7?
A $254,960
B $257,835
C $299,970
D $308,595 (2 marks)
2.10 A car was purchased for $12,000 on 1 April 20X3 and has been depreciated at 20% each year
on a straight line basis assuming no residual value. The company’s financial year end is 31
December and its policy is to charge a full year’s depreciation in the year of purchase and no
depreciation in the year of sale. The car was traded-in for a replacement vehicle on 1 August
in 20X6 for an agreed figure of $5,000.
What was the profit or loss on the disposal of the vehicle in the year ended 31 December
20X6?
A Loss $1,144
B Profit $200
C Profit $1,000
D Profit $2,600 (2 marks)
2.11 A company bought a machine on 1 October 20X2 for $52,000. The machine had an expected
life of eight years and an estimated residual value of $4,000. On 31 March 20X7 the machine
was sold for $35,000. The company’s year end is 31 December. The company’s policy is to
depreciate assets on a straight-line basis with a full year’s depreciation in the year of purchase
and none in the year of sale.
What is the gain or loss on disposal of the machine?
A Loss $13,000
B Gain $7,000
C Gain $10,000
D Gain $13,000 (2 marks)
2.12 SSG bought a machine for $40,000 in January 20X3. The machine had an expected useful
life of six years and an expected residual value of $10,000. The machine was depreciated on
the straight-line basis where a full year’s charge in made in the year of purchase and none in
the year of sale. In December 20X6, the machine was sold for $15,000. The company
includes any profit or loss on disposal of assets with depreciation expense in its financial
statements. Its year end is 31 December.
What is the total amount charged to the statement of profit or loss over the life of the
machine?
A $15,000
B $20,000
C $25,000
D $30,000 (2 marks)
2.13 A company purchased equipment for $80,000 on 1 July 20X3. The company’s accounting
year end is 31 December and it has a policy to charge a full year’s depreciation in the year of
purchase. Equipment is depreciated on the reducing balance basis at 25% per annum.
What is the carrying amount of the equipment at 31 December 20X6?
A $18,984
B $25,312
C $29,531
D $33,750 (2 marks)
2.14 Stroma’s reporting date is 30 September. Stroma purchased a machine on 1 April 20X3 for
$200,000. The machine was estimated to have a useful life of eight years and depreciated at
25% per annum using the reducing balance method. On 31 January 20X6 the machine was sold
for $90,000. Stroma charges a full year’s depreciation in the years of purchase and disposal.
What is the profit or loss arising on the disposal of the machine to be included in the
statement of profit and loss for the year ended 30 September 20X6?
A Loss $22,500
B Loss $10,000
C Profit $5,625
D Profit $26,719 (2 marks)
2.15 On 1 September 20X4 Cyanne purchased a non-current asset for $88,000 which had a useful
life of four years and no residual value. The company’s policy is to depreciate non-current
assets at 25% per annum on the reducing balance basis.
When preparing the financial statements for the year to 31 October 20X6, the accountant
calculated the depreciation charge on the straight line basis.
What will be the effect of correcting the depreciation charge on profit for the year to 31
October 20X6?
A Reduced by $5,500
B Increased by $5,500
C Reduced by $16,500
D Increased by $16,500 (2 marks)
2.16 Strad depreciates non-current assets on the reducing balance basis at a rate of 25% per annum.
At 1 May 20X6, the company’s non-current assets had cost $680,500 and accumulated
depreciation was $285,900. In the year to 30 April 20X7, Strad bought new assets which cost
$32,800. All assets are depreciated for a full year, irrespective of the date of acquisition.
What is the depreciation charge for the year to 30 April 20X7?
A $98,650
B $106,850
C $178,325
D $249,800 (2 marks)
(32 marks)
Question 3 MCQs RECEIVABLES AND PAYABLES
3.1 At 30 September 20X5 a company’s loss allowance for trade receivables amounted to
$38,000, which was 5% of the receivables at that date.
At 30 September 20X6 receivables totalled $868,500. It was decided to write off $28,500 of
debts as irrecoverable and to keep the loss allowance at 5%.
What should be the total expense in profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 20X6
for irrecoverable debts?
A $32,500
B $33,925
C $42,000
D $70,500 (2 marks)
3.2 At 1 July 20X6 a company had a loss allowance for receivables of $83,000. During the year
ended 30 June 20X7 debts totalling $146,000 were written off. At 30 June 20X7 it was
decided that $218,000 was required as a loss allowance for receivables.
What is the total amount that should appear in profit or loss for the year ended 30 June
20X7 for irrecoverable debts?
A $11,000
B $155,000
C $281,000
D $364,000 (2 marks)
3.3 At 31 December 20X6 a company’s trade receivables totalled $864,000 and the loss
allowance for receivables was $48,000. It was decided that debts totalling $13,000 were to be
written off, and the loss allowance for receivables adjusted to 5% of the receivables.
What figures should appear in the financial statements in respect of receivables (after
accounting for the loss allowance)?
$ $
A 8,200 807,800
B 7,550 808,450
C 18,450 808,450
D 55,550 808,450 (2 marks)
3.4 The receivables ledger control account below contains several incorrect entries:
Receivables ledger control account
$ $
Opening balance 138,400 Credit sales 80,660
Contras against credit
balances in payables ledger 1,000
Cash received from credit Discounts allowed 1,950
customers 78,420 Irrecoverable debts written off 3,000
Dishonoured cheques 850
Closing balance 129,360
–––––––– ––––––––
216,820 216,820
———— ————
At the point of sale, customers are not expected to take advantage of settlement discounts.
What should the closing balance be when all the errors are corrected?
A $133,840
B $135,540
C $137,740
D $139,840 (2 marks)
3.5 Alpha buys goods from Beta. At 30 June Beta’s account in Alpha’s records showed $5,700
owing to Beta. Beta submitted a statement to Alpha as at the same date showing a balance
due of $5,200.
Which of the following could account fully for the difference?
A Alpha has sent a cheque to Beta for $500 which has not yet been received by Beta
B The credit side of Beta’s account in Alpha’s records has been undercast by $500
C An invoice for $250 from Beta has been treated in Alpha’s records as if it had been
a credit note
D Beta has issued a credit note for $500 to Alpha which Alpha has not yet received
(2 marks)
3.6 At 30 June 20X7 a company’s loss allowance for receivables was $39,000. At 30 June 20X7
trade receivables totalled $517,000. It was decided to write off debts totalling $37,000 and to
adjust the loss allowance for receivables to the equivalent of 5% of the trade receivables
based on past events.
What figure should appear in profit or loss for these items?
A $22,000
B $23,850
C $24,000
D $61,000 (2 marks)
3.7 Ordan received a statement from one of its suppliers, Alta, showing a balance due of $3,980.
The amount due according to the payables ledger account of Alta in Ordan’s records was only
$3,110. Comparison of the statement and the ledger account revealed the following differences:
(1) A payment sent by Ordan for $270 has not been allowed for in Alta’s statement
(2) Alta has not allowed for goods returned by Ordan $180
(3) Ordan made a contra entry, reducing the amount due to Alta by $320, for a balance
due from Alta in Ordan’s receivables ledger. No such entry has been made in Alta’s
records
What difference remains between the two companies’ records after adjusting for these
items?
A $100
B $460
C $640
D $740 (2 marks)
3.8 At 1 January 20X6 a company had a loss allowance for receivables of $18,000. At 31
December 20X6 the company’s trade receivables were $458,000. It was decided:
(1) To write off debts totalling $28,000 as irrecoverable
(2) To adjust the loss allowance for receivables to the equivalent of 5% of the
remaining receivables
What figure should appear in the company’s profit or loss for the total of debts written
off as irrecoverable and the movement in the loss allowance for receivables for the year
ended 31 December 20X6?
A $31,500
B $32,900
C $49,500
D $50,900 (2 marks)
3.9 A company purchases all goods on credit. The following payables ledger control account
contains some errors:
Payables ledger control account
$ $
Purchases 963,200 Opening balance 384,600
Cash paid to suppliers 988,400
Discounts received 12,600 Purchases returns 17,400
Contras with amounts
receivable in receivables ledger 4,200
–––––––– ––––––––
1,390,400 1,390,400
———— ————
What should the closing balance be when the errors have been corrected?
A $325,200
B $350,400
C $358,800
D $376,800 (2 marks)
3.10 An extract of Moon’s draft trial balance as at 31 October 20X6 includes the following:
Debit Credit
Loss allowance for receivables as at 1 November 20X5 $6,546
Trade receivables $251,760
As at 31 October 20X6 Grundle’s balance to Moon of $1,860 is irrecoverable. Blenheim

owes $12,650, but Moon believes a loss allowance of 40% of this amount is necessary.
What is the total debit required to Moon’s irrecoverable debts expense account?
A $374
B $1,860
C $3,346
D $6,920 (2 marks)
3.11 At its year end of 31 July 20X7 Hussar has trade receivables of $578,645, a loss allowance in
respect of Cusack as at 1 August 20X6 of $1,200 and a charge for irrecoverable debts expense
of $3,290. The following have still to be accounted for:
(1) Cusack’s account was settled in full in the year
(2) A loss allowance of $250 is required against the account of Dancer
(3) $89 was received at 31 July 20X7 in respect of an amount written off two years ago,
but only the cash book has been updated for this
What amounts should be shown in the financial statements as at 31 July 20X7?
A $2,251 $578,395
B $2,340 $577,606
C $2,340 $578,395
D $3,451 $578,395 (2 marks)
3.12 Quince’s trial balance extracted as at 31 May 20X7 includes the $456,875 for inventory as at
1 June 20X6. Inventory was physically counted on 31 May 20X7 and its cost has been
established at $572,904. Of this, inventory costing $27,485 is damaged and is estimated to
have a net realisable value of only $15,000.
What amount of closing inventory should appear in Quince’s financial statements as at
31 May 20X7?
A $456,875
B $545,419
C $560,419
D $572,904 (2 marks)
3.13 Samantha, a sole trader, does not keep a receivables control account or a sales day book and is
not registered for sales tax. The bookkeeper has discovered the following errors and
omissions in Samantha’s accounting records:
(1) A cheque for $180 from a customer has been returned unpaid by the bank. No
entries have been made in the accounting records for the return of the cheque
(2) A credit note for $12 was sent to a customer but was mistaken for an invoice by
Samantha’s accounts clerk when recording it
Which of the following journals will be entered in Samantha’s general ledger accounts
in order to correct these items?
A Dr Receivables $156, Dr Sales $24, Cr Cash $180
B Dr Cash $180, Cr Receivables $156, Cr Sales $24
C Dr Receivables $168, Dr Sales $12, Cr Cash $180
D Dr Irrecoverable debt expense $180, Dr Receivables $24, Cr Cash $180,
Cr Sales $24 (2 marks)
3.14 On 1 May, East owed a supplier $1,200. During the month of May, East:
(1) Purchased goods for $1,700 and the supplier offered a 5% discount for payment
within the month
(2) Returned goods valued at $100 which had been purchased in April
(3) Paid $1,615 for the goods delivered in May
What is the balance on the supplier’s account at the end of May?
A $1,015
B $1,100
C $1,185
D $1,300 (2 marks)
3.15 The revenue of a company was $4 million and its receivables were 7.5% of revenue. The
company wishes to have a loss allowance of 3% of receivables, which would result in an
increase of 25% of the current allowance.
What is the charge to profit or loss for irrecoverable debts?
A $1,800
B $2,250
C $9,000
D $12,000 (2 marks)
3.16 On 31 March 20X7, the balance on the receivables control account of Peak Co is $425,700.
The bookkeeper has identified that the following adjustments for receivables are required:
Irrecoverable debt recovered $2,000

Specific allowance $2,400
It was decided that a further allowance for receivables of 2% should be made for expected
credit losses. The allowance for receivables on 1 April 20X7 was $1,900.
What was the receivables expense for the year ended 31 March 20X7?
A $6,966
B $8,866
C $8,966
D $10,866 (2 marks)
3.17 The total of a list of balances in Retro Co’s receivables ledger was $633,700 on 30 September
20X6. This did not agree with the balance on Retro Co’s receivables ledger control account.
The following errors were discovered:
(1) A credit balance on an individual customer’s account of $200 was incorrectly

extracted as a debit balance
(2) An invoice for $3,223 was posted to the customer account as £3,232
(3) The total of the sales returns day book was overcast by $500
What amount should be shown in R Co’s statement of financial position for accounts
receivable at 30 September 20X6?
A $633,291
B $633,409
C $633,491
D $633,791 (2 marks)
3.18 Viki Co’s balance on the payables control account at 30 September 20X6 of $147,000 does
not agree to the total of the list of payables ledger balances. The following errors have been
found:
(1) A credit note from a supplier for $250 has been omitted from the purchase day book
(2) An invoice for $75 has been posted twice to the supplier’s account on the payables
ledger
(3) Cash paid to suppliers of $32,000 has been posted to the payables control account as
$23,000
What is the total on the payables control account after all errors have been corrected?
A $146,925
B $137,750
C $137,675
D $137,825 (2 marks)
(36 marks)
Question 4 MCQs INVENTORY
4.1 At 30 September 20X6 the closing inventory of a company amounted to $386,400. The
following items were included in this total at cost:
(1) 1,000 items which had cost $18 each. These items were all sold in October 20X6
for $15 each, with selling expenses of $800
(2) Five items which had been in inventory since 2001, when they were purchased for
$100 each, sold in October 20X6 for $1,000 each, net of selling expenses
What figure should appear in the company’s statement of financial position at 30

September 20X6 for inventory?
A $382,600
B $384,200
C $387,100
D $400,600 (2 marks)
4.2 The inventory value for the financial statements of Q for the year ended 31 December 20X6
was based on an inventory count on 4 January 20X7, which gave a total inventory value of
$836,200. Between 31 December and 4 January 20X7, the following transactions took place:
$
Purchases of goods 8,600
Sales of goods (profit margin 30% on sales) 14,000
Goods returned by Q to supplier 700
What adjusted figure should be included in the financial statements for inventories at 31
December 20X6?
A $834,300
B $838,100
C $842,300
D $853,900 (2 marks)
4.3 A business had an opening inventory of $180,000 and a closing inventory of $220,000 in its
financial statements for the year ended 31 December.
Which of the following entries for these opening and closing inventory figures are made
when completing the financial records of the business?
Debit Credit
$ $
A Inventory account 180,000
Profit or loss 180,000
Inventory account 220,000
B Profit or loss 180,000
C Inventory account 40,000
Purchases account 40,000
D Purchases account 40,000
(2 marks)
4.4 Franz is a manufacturer. Inventory is valued using the continuous weighted average method.
At 1 August 20X6 it held inventory of 2,400 units of product Z, valued at $10 each. During
the year the following transactions in product Z took place:
14 November 20X6 Sell 900 units
28 January 20X7 Purchase 1,200 units for $20,100
7 May 20X7 Sell 1,800 units
What was the value of Franz’s inventory of Zobdo at 31 July 20X7?
A $9,000
B $11,700
C $15,075
D $35,100 (2 marks)
(8 marks)
Question 5 MCQs BOOKS OF PRIME ENTRY AND CONTROL ACCOUNTS
5.1 The following control account has been prepared by a trainee accountant:
$ $
Opening balance 308,600 Cash received from credit customers 147,200
Credit sales 154,200 Discounts allowed to credit customers 1,400
Cash sales 88,100 Interest charged on overdue accounts 2,400
Contras against credit balances in Irrecoverable debts written off 4,900
payables ledger 4,600 Loss allowance 2,800
–––––––– ––––––––
555,500 555,500
———— ————
What should the closing balance be when all the errors made in preparing the
receivables ledger control account have been corrected?
A $395,200
B $304,300
C $307,100
D $309,500 (2 marks)
5.2 Which of the following correctly describes the imprest system of operating petty cash?
A The petty cash float is replenished by regular periodic transfers of equal amount
B The petty cash float is replenished by periodic transfers of the actual expenditure in
the period
C All expenses must be supported by a properly authorised voucher
D Petty cash is operated outside the business double entry accounting system
(2 marks)
5.3 The following receivables ledger control account for December prepared by a trainee
accountant contains a number of errors:
$ $
1 Dec Balance 614,000 30 Dec Credit sales 301,000
31 Dec Cash from credit Discounts allowed 3,400
customers 311,000 Irrecoverable debts written off 32,000
Interest charged on overdue
Contras against amounts due to accounts 1,600
suppliers in payables ledger 8,650 Balance 595,650
–––––––– ––––––––
933,650 933,650
———— ————
What should the closing balance on the control account be after the errors in it have
been corrected?
A $561,550
B $568,350
C $578,850
D $581,550 (2 marks)
5.4 The following receivables ledger control account for December has been prepared by a
trainee accountant:
$ $
1 Dec Balance 318,650 31 Dec Cash from credit customers 181,140
Credit sales 161,770 Interest charged on overdue
accounts 280
Irrecoverable debts w/off 1,390
Cash sales 84,260 Sales returns from credit
Discounts allowed to customers 3,990
credit customers 1,240 Balance 379,120
–––––––– ––––––––
565,920 565,920
———— ————
What should the closing balance at 31 December be after correcting the errors in the
account?
A $292,380
B $292,940
C $295,420
D $377,200 (2 marks)
5.5 Which of the following statements about a cash imprest system is/are correct?
(1) At any point in time physical cash plus petty cash vouchers will be equal to the
imprest balance
(2) There is no incentive to ensure all money disbursed is documented and supported by
vouchers
(3) It is difficult to reconcile an imprest system because it is not known exactly how
much should be in the float
(4) A fixed amount of cash is issued each month
A 1 only
B 4 only
C 1 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
5.6 A trainee accountant has prepared the following receivables ledger total account to calculate
the credit sales of a business which does not keep proper accounting records (all sales are on
credit):
Receivables ledger total account
$ $
Opening receivables 148,200 Credit sales 870,800
Cash received from customers 819,300
Discounts allowed to credit
customers 16,200
Irrecoverable debts written off 1,500
Returns from customers 38,700 Closing receivables 153,100

–––––––– ––––––––
1,023,900 1,023,900
———— ————
What is the sales figure when all the errors have been corrected?
A $835,400
B $848,200
C $877,600
D $880,600 (2 marks)
5.7 Johan enters into the following transactions with Marius, a supplier who is also a customer.
Marius buys goods from Johan on credit terms. Johan agrees to make contra entries in
Marius’ individual ledger accounts.
Which of Johan’s accounting records are affected by these transactions?
A Sales day book, payables ledger and sales ledger

B Purchase day book, payables ledger and sales ledger
C Sales day book and sales ledger
D Purchases day book and purchases ledger (2 marks)
5.8 At the end of December Rock’s payables control account and its list of payables ledger
balances fail to agree.
It is discovered that the total of the purchase day book for December has been recorded as
$11,750. The correct figure is $17,150.
Which one of the following is the correct adjustment in the payables control account
reconciliation?
A The control account balance should be reduced by $5,400

B The list of balances should be increased by $5,400
C The control account balance should be increased by $5,400
D The list of balances should be reduced by $5,400 (2 marks)
5.9 At 31 October 20X6 Osba had a receivables control account with a balance of $381,255. This
balance was $782 more than the total on the list of receivables balances at the same date.
Which one of the following errors would account for this difference?
A A receipt from Ellie for $391 had been recorded on the debit side of Ellie’s account.
Correct entries were made in the general ledger
B The total column in the sales day book had been overcast by $782
C A customer returned some goods to Osba on 30 November 20X6. These had
originally been invoiced at $782. Osba recorded a credit note in the sales day book
which was debited to the customer’s account
D An invoice to Plion plc for $391 had been recorded in the sales day book as a credit
note (2 marks)
5.10 A company operates an imprest system for petty cash. At 1 July there was a float of $150, but
it was decided to increase this to $200 from 1 August onwards. During July, the petty cashier
received $25 from staff for personal use of the photocopier and a personal cheque for $90 was
cashed for an employee. During July the company took $500 from its bank account to make
up the imprest balance for petty cash.
What was the total expense paid from petty cash in July?
A $385
B $435
C $515
D $615 (2 marks)
5.11 Patrick starts a new business. During the first year the entries in the sales ledger control
account are:
$
Sales 250,000
Bank receipts 225,000
Sales returns 2,500
Dishonoured cheques 3,500
Contra with purchase ledger control account 4,000
What is the balance on the sales ledger control account at the end of the year?
A $12,000
B $19,000
C $25,000
D $27,000 (2 marks)
5.12 Norris operates an imprest system for petty cash. On 1 February, the float was $300. He
decided that this should be increased to $375 at the end of February.
During February, the cashier paid $20 for window cleaning, $100 for stationery and $145 for
coffee and biscuits. The cashier received $20 from staff for private use of the photocopier
and $60 for a sundry cash sale.
What amount was drawn from the bank account for petty cash at the end of February?
A $185
B $260
C $315
D $375 (2 marks)
5.13 A sales tax registered company commenced trading on 1 December. In December, the
company sold goods that attracted sales tax at 15% with a net value of $200,000, goods
exempt from sales tax with a value of $50,000 and goods at 0% sales tax with a net value of
$25,000.
All purchases in December, which were all subject to 15% sales tax, were $161,000,
including sales tax.
What is the balance on the sales tax account at the end of December?
A Dr $9,000
B Dr $5,850
C Cr $5,850
D Cr $9,000 (2 marks)
5.14 Damien Co’s transactions for the month of September 20X6 were as follows:
$
Sales (including sales tax) 600,000
Purchases (excluding sales tax) 450,000
Damien Co is registered for sales tax at 20%. On 1 September 20X6 the sales tax account
showed sales tax recoverable by Damien Co of $2,000.
What was the balance on the sales tax account on 30 September 20X6?
A $8,000 Dr
B $8,000 Cr
C $12,000 Dr
D $12,000 Cr (2 marks)
5.15 Paula Co is reconciling its receivables control account and has discovered the following items:
(1) An invoice for $110 had been recorded in the receivables ledger as $1,100
(2) A cash sale of $100 to a customer had been posted to the receivables ledger
Where should each of the corrections be recorded?
Item 1 Item 2
A Control account Receivables ledger
B Receivables ledger Control account
C Control account Control account
D Receivables ledger Receivables ledger (2 marks)
(30 marks)
Question 6 MCQs JOURNAL ENTRIES
6.1 Which of the following journal entries is correct according to its narratives?
Dr Cr
$ $
A Wages account 38,000
Purchases account 49,000
Buildings account 87,000
Labour and materials used in construction of extension to factory
B Directors’ personal accounts:
K 30,000
L 40,000
Directors’ remuneration 70,000
Directors’ bonuses transferred to their accounts
C Suspense account 10,000
Sales account 10,000
Correction of error in addition – total of credit side of
sales account $10,000 understated
D Discount received 7,000
Trade payables 61,000
Bank 68,000
Payment to creditors after allowing for prompt
payment discount (2 marks)
6.2 Which of the following journal entries is correct according to their narratives?
Dr Cr
$ $
A Receivables ledger account 450
Irrecoverable debts account 450
Irrecoverable balance written off
B Share premium 40,000

Share capital 40,000
Bonus issue of 80,000 shares of $0.50 each
C Suspense account 1,000

Motor vehicles account 1,000
Correction of error – debit side of Motor vehicles
account undercast by $1,000
D Wages 2,500
Buildings 2,500
Capitalisation of labour costs on self-constructed
building (2 marks)
6.3 Which of the following journal entries are correct, according to their narratives?
Dr Cr
$ $
A Suspense account 18,000
Rent received account 18,000
Correction of error: $24,000 cash received for rent
was posted to the rent received account as $42,000
––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––
B X receivables account 22,000
Y receivables account 22,000
Correction of error: cash received from Y
wrongly entered to X’s account
––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––
C Share premium account 400,000
Share capital account 400,000
1 for 3 bonus issue on share capital
of 1,200,000 $0.50 shares
D ZX customer account 4,000

ZX supplier account 4,000
Set off (contra) of amount due to supplier ZX
against amount due from customer ZX
(2 marks)
6.4 What journal entry is required to record goods taken from inventory by the owner of a
business?
A Debit Drawings and Credit Purchases

B Debit Sales and Credit Drawings
C Debit Drawings and Credit Inventory
D Debit Purchases and Credit Drawings (2 marks)
6.5 Ewan, a sole trader, has taken goods during the year for his own use valued at $1,350. This
has not been recorded.
What will be the effects of accounting for these drawings?
Profit Assets and liabilities

A Increase profit Decrease asset
B Decrease profit Increase liability
C Increase profit No effect
D No effect Decrease asset (2 marks)
6.6 Leonard, a sole trader, extracts a trial balance as at 30 April 20X7. He subsequently discovers
that drawings amounting to $38,100 have been debited to other expenses account in error.
What correcting entries must be made?
A Dr Capital account and Cr Other expenses account

B Dr Other expenses account and Cr Capital account
C Dr Drawings account and Cr Suspense account
D Dr Suspense account and Cr Other expenses account (2 marks)
6.7 North, which is registered for sales tax, received an invoice from an advertising agency for
$4,000 plus sales tax. The rate of sales tax is 20%.
What are the correct ledger entries for this transaction?
Debit $ Credit $
A Advertising 4,000 Payables 4,000
B Advertising 4,800 Payables 4,800
C Advertising 4,800 Payables 4,000 and Sales tax 800
D Advertising 4,000 and Sales tax 800 Payables 4,800 (2 marks)
(14 marks)
Question 7 ROOK
The following transactions of Rook took place in the year ended 31 March 20X7:
(a) The clearance of a difference in the list of account balances for which a suspense account had
been opened. The difference was found to be caused by a $2,000 understatement of the debit
side of the salaries account in the general ledger; (2 marks)
(b) The acceptance of a car worth $6,000 in settlement of a trade account receivable of $7,500
due from Wren. No other money will be received from Wren. The car is to be used by one of
the sales representatives of Rook; (2 marks)
(c) The construction of an extension to Rook’s factory using materials from inventory and the
company’s own labour force. The costs were:
Materials taken from inventory $27,600

Labour $18,500
(3 marks)
(d) Rook purchased a number of assets from Crow. It was agreed that the total purchase price
was not to be paid immediately but was to remain as a loan to be repaid by Rook over several
years. The assets purchased were:
$
Motor vehicles 18,000
Plant and equipment 33,000
Goods for resale in the normal course of Rook’s business 20,000
______
71,000
———
(3 marks)
(e) The purchase of a car from Car Dealer on 18 March 20X7 for $20,000. On that date, Rook
gave in part exchange a vehicle which had cost $18,000 and which had a written down value
of $12,000. The agreed part exchange value of this vehicle was its written down value of
$12,000. The balance of $8,000 is to be paid on 30 April 20X7. (6 marks)
Required:
Show journal entries, with narrations, to record these transactions. Note that entries to ledger
control accounts are not required for item (b).
(16 marks)
Question 8 ADDAX
The following balances appeared in the statement of financial position of Addax at 31 March 20X6.
$
Plant and equipment – cost 840,000
Accumulated depreciation 370,000
In the year ended 31 March 20X7 the following transactions took place:
(1) Plant which had cost $100,000 with a written down value of $40,000 was sold for $45,000 on
10 December
(2) New plant was purchased for $180,000 on 1 October 20X6
It is the policy of the company to charge depreciation at 10% per year on the straight line basis with a
proportionate charge in the year of acquisition and no charge in the year of sale. None of the plant was
over ten years old at 31 March 20X6.
Required:
(a) Prepare ledger accounts recording the above transactions. A cash account is NOT
required. (5 marks)
(b) List the items which should appear in Addax’s statement of cash flows for the year
ended 31 March 20X7 based on these transactions and using the indirect method. Your
answer should include the headings under which they should appear in accordance with
IAS 7 Statement of Cash Flows. (4 marks)
(9 marks)
Question 9 RIFFON
The accounting records of Riffon included the following balances at 30 June 20X6:
$
Office buildings – cost 1,600,000
– accumulated depreciation
(10 years at 2% per year) 320,000
Plant and equipment – cost (all purchased in 20X4 or later) 840,000
– accumulated depreciation
(straight line basis at 25% per year) 306,000
During the year ended 30 June 20X7 the following events occurred:
20X6
1 July It was decided to revalue the office building to $2,000,000, with no change to
the estimate of its remaining useful life.
1 October New plant costing $200,000 was purchased.
20X7
1 April Plant which had cost $240,000 and with accumulated depreciation at 30 June
20X6 of $180,000 was sold for $70,000.
It is the company’s policy to charge a full year’s depreciation on plant in the year of acquisition and
none in the year of sale.
Required:
Prepare the following ledger accounts to record the above balances and events:
(a) Office building: cost/valuation;

accumulated depreciation;
revaluation surplus. (6 marks)
(b) Plant and equipment: cost;

accumulated depreciation;
disposal. (6 marks)
(12 marks)
Question 10 UNITED
A company maintains a receivables ledger control account in the general ledger, and includes the
balance on this account in its list of balances. It also maintains a memorandum individual receivables
ledger.
The following errors relating to receivables have been discovered.
(1) A credit note for $90 had been entered as if it were an invoice.
(2) Sales of $400 had been entered on the wrong side of a customer’s account in the individual
receivables ledger.
(3) A settlement discount of $70 taken up by a customer who was not expected to accept the offer
of a discount had been completely omitted from the records.
(4) An invoice of $123 had been entered in the sales day book as $321.
(5) No entry had been made to record an agreement to contra an amount owed to P of $600
against an amount owed by P of $700.
(6) Irrecoverable debts written off amounting to $160 had not been posted to the individual
receivables accounts, though otherwise correctly treated.
Required:
Prepare journal entries to correct each of the errors described in (1) to (6) above. Accounts
should be fully named, but narrative descriptions are not required.
(9 marks)
Question 11 SCIMITAR
Scimitar proves the accuracy of its ledgers by preparing monthly control accounts. At 1 September the
following balances existed in the company’s accounting records, and the control accounts agreed:
Debit Credit
$ $
Accounts receivable ledger totals 188,360 2,140
Accounts payable ledger totals 120 89,410
The following are the totals of transactions which took place during September, as extracted from the
company’s records:
$
Credit sales 101,260
Credit purchases 68,420
Sales returns 9,160
Purchases returns 4,280
Cash discounts received 880
Irrecoverable debts written off 460
Refunds to customers 300
Contra settlements 480
At 30 September the balances in the ledgers, as extracted, totalled:

Debit Credit
$ $
Accounts receivable ledger balances To be ascertained 2,680
Accounts payable ledger balances 90 To be ascertained
An initial attempt to balance the two ledgers showed that neither of them agreed with their control
accounts. The differences were found to be due to the following:
(1) A credit balance of $680 had been omitted when listing the accounts receivable ledger
balances;
(2) A contra settlement of $500 had not been included in the totals of transactions prepared for
the control accounts;
(3) A new employee had mistakenly entered five sales invoices into the purchases day book as if
they had been purchase invoices and entered the amounts to new accounts payable ledger
accounts. The total of these invoices was $1,360;
(4) A $20 cash refund to a customer was made that has not been included in the summary of
transactions given above. The $20 was entered to the accounts receivable ledger as if it had
been a cash receipt from the customer. This resulted in a $40 credit balance on the account,
which was still outstanding at 30 September.
When these errors had been corrected both control accounts agreed with the personal ledgers.
Required:
Prepare the accounts receivable ledger and accounts payable ledger control (total) accounts for
the month of September AFTER these errors had been corrected, and hence ascertain the missing
totals of the ledger balances as indicated above (debit balances in accounts receivable ledger and
credit balances in accounts payable ledger).
(12 marks)
Question 12 OTTER
Otter operates a computerised accounting system for its accounts receivable and accounts payable
ledgers. The control accounts for the month of September are in balance and incorporate the following
totals:
$
Accounts receivable ledger:
Balances at 1 September: Debit 386,430
Credit 190
Sales revenue 163,194
Cash received 158,288
Sales returns inwards 590
Credit balances at 30 September 370
Accounts payable ledger:

Balances at 1 September: Credit 184,740
Debit 520
Purchases 98,192
Cash payments 103,040
Discounts received 990
Purchases returns outwards 1,370
Debit balances at 30 September 520
Although the control accounts agree with the underlying ledgers, a number of errors have been found,
and there are also several adjustments to be made. These errors and adjustments are detailed below:
(1) Four sales invoices totalling $1,386 have been omitted from the records;
(2) A cash refund of $350 was paid to a customer, A Smith, whose account balance was a credit.
This refund was mistakenly treated as a payment to a supplier with the same name;
(3) A contra settlement offsetting a balance of $870 due to a supplier against the accounts
receivable ledger account for the same company is to be made;
(4) Irrecoverable debts totalling $1,360 are to be written off;
(5) During the month, settlement was reached with a supplier over a disputed account. As a
result, the supplier issued a credit note for $2,000 on 26 September. No entry has yet been
made for this;
(6) A purchases invoice for $1,395 was keyed in as $1,359;
(7) A payment of $2,130 to a supplier, B Jones, was mistakenly entered to the account of R
Jones;
(8) A debit balance of $420 existed in the accounts payable ledger at the end of August. The
supplier concerned cannot now be traced and it has been decided to write off this balance.
Required:
Prepare the accounts receivable and accounts payable ledger control accounts as they should
appear after allowing, where necessary, for the errors and adjustments listed.
(15 marks)
Question 13 ATANGA
The receivables ledger control account of Atanga at 31 December shows a debit balance of $487,600.
The list of receivables ledger balances at the same date totalled $455,800 debit. There were no credit
balances.
On investigation the following errors and revisions were found:
(1) The sales day book had been overcast by $2,000;
(2) A debt of $8,550 is to be written off;
(3) A credit note for $1,200 was entered on the debit side of the customer’s account;
(4) Contras against amounts owing to Atanga in the payables ledger totalling $16,100 were
entered on the debit side of the receivables ledger control account;
(5) A credit note for $5,600 sent to a customer and recorded at that figure should have been for
$4,500.
Required:
(a) Prepare a statement showing the necessary adjustments to the receivables ledger control
account balance. (4 marks)
(b) Prepare a statement showing the necessary adjustments to the total of the list of
receivables ledger balances. (3 marks)
(7 marks)
Question 14 MCQs BANK RECONCILIATIONS
14.1 Listed below are five potential causes of difference between a company’s cash book balance
and its bank statement balance as at 30 November:
(1) Cheques recorded and sent to suppliers before 30 November but not yet presented
for payment.
(2) An error by the bank in crediting to another customer’s account a lodgement made
by the company.
(3) Bank charges.
(4) Cheques paid in before 30 November but not credited by the bank until 3
December.
(5) A cheque recorded and paid in before 30 November but dishonoured by the bank.
Which of the following alternatives correctly analyses these items into those requiring
an entry in the cash book and those that would feature in the bank reconciliation?
Cash book entry Bank reconciliation

A 1, 2, 4 3, 5
B 2, 3, 5 1, 4
C 3, 4 1, 2, 5
D 3, 5 1, 2, 4 (2 marks)
14.2 Which TWO of the following statements about bank reconciliations are correct?
(1) If a cheque received from a customer is dishonoured, a credit entry in the cash book
is required
(2) A difference between the cash book and the bank statement must be corrected by
means of a journal entry
(3) Bank charges not yet entered in the cash book should be dealt with by an adjustment
in the bank reconciliation
(4) In preparing a bank reconciliation, lodgements recorded before date in the cash
book but credited by the bank after date should reduce an overdrawn balance in the
bank statement
A 1 and 3
B 2 and 3
C 1 and 4
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
14.3 The following bank reconciliation statement has been prepared for a company:
$
Overdraft per bank statement 39,800
Add: Deposits credited after date 64,100
–––––––
103,900
Less: Outstanding cheques presented after date 44,200
–––––––
Overdraft per cash book 59,700
–––––––
Assuming the amount of the overdraft per the bank statement of $39,800 is correct,
what should be the balance in the cash book?
A $19,900 overdrawn
B $68,500 overdrawn
C $59,700 overdrawn as stated
D $158,100 overdrawn (2 marks)
14.4 Sigma’s bank statement shows an overdrawn balance of $38,600 at 30 June. A check against
the company’s cash book revealed the following differences:
(1) Bank charges of $200 have not been entered in the cash book
(2) Lodgements recorded on 30 June but credited by the bank on 2 July $14,700
(3) Cheque payments entered in cash book but not presented for payment at 30 June
$27,800
(4) A cheque payment to a supplier of $4,200 charged to the account in June recorded
in the cash book as a receipt
Based on this information, what was the cash book balance BEFORE any adjustments?
A $16,900 overdrawn
B $34,100 overdrawn
C $43,100 overdrawn
14.5 The following bank reconciliation statement has been prepared by an inexperienced
bookkeeper at 31 December:
$
Balance per bank statement (overdrawn) 38,640
Add: Lodgements not credited 19,270
–––––––
57,910
Less: Unpresented cheques 14,260
–––––––
Balance per cash book 43,650
–––––––
What should the final cash book balance be when all the above items have been properly
dealt with?
A $5,110 overdrawn
B $33,630 overdrawn
C $43,650 overdrawn
14.6 The debit balance in Omar’s cash book at the year end is $42,510. The following items
appear in the bank reconciliation at the year end:
$
Unpresented cheques 2,990
Outstanding lodgements 10,270
A customer’s cheque for $2,470 was returned unpaid by the bank before the year end, but this
return has not been recorded in the cash book.
What was the balance shown by the bank statement?
A $47,320
B $37,700
C $35,230
D $32,760 (2 marks)
14.7 Z’s bank statement shows a balance of $825 overdrawn. The bank statement includes bank
charges of $50, which have not been entered in the cash book. There are unpresented cheques
totalling $475 and deposits not yet credited of $600. The bank statement incorrectly shows a
direct debit payment of $160, which relates to another customer of the bank.
What bank balance should be shown in Z’s statement of financial position?
A $590 overdrawn
B $540 overdrawn
C $790 overdrawn
D $840 overdrawn (2 marks)
14.8 In preparing a company’s bank reconciliation statement at 31 March, the following items are
causing the difference between the cash book balance and the bank statement balance:
(1) Unrecorded bank charges $380
(2) Error by bank $1,000 (cheque incorrectly debited to the account)
(3) Lodgements not credited $4,580
(4) Outstanding cheques $1,475
(5) Unrecorded direct debit $350
(6) Cheque paid in by the company that was subsequently dishonoured $400
Which of these items will require an entry in the cash book?
A 2, 4 and 6
B 3, 4 and 5
C 1, 2 and 3
D 1, 5 and 6 (2 marks)
14.9 A company has prepared its bank reconciliation at 31 March 20X7 taking the following
information into account:
$
Outstanding lodgements 5,000
Bank charges shown in the bank statement but not
recorded in the cash book 125
The adjusted cash book balance per the bank reconciliation was a debit balance of $1,060.
What was the balance as shown on the bank statement at 31 March 20X7?
A $1,140 debit
B $1,140 credit
C $1,265 debit
D $1,265 credit (2 marks)
(18 marks)
Question 15 GEORGE
George had completed his financial statements for the year ended 31 March, which showed a profit of
$81,208, when he realised that no bank reconciliation statement had been prepared at that date.
When checking the cash book against the bank statement and carrying out other checks, he found the
following:
(1) A cheque for $1,000 had been entered in the cash book but had not yet been presented.
(2) Cheques from customers totalling $2,890 entered in the cash book on 31 March were credited
by the bank on 1 April.
(3) Bank charges of $320 appear in the bank statement on 30 March but have not been recorded
by George.
(4) A cheque for $12,900 drawn by George to pay for a new item of plant had been mistakenly
entered in the cash book and the plant account as $2,900. Depreciation of $290 had been
charged to profit or loss for this plant.
(5) A cheque for $980 from a credit customer paid in on 26 March was dishonoured after 31
March and George decided that the debt would have to be written off, as the customer was
now untraceable.
(6) A cheque for $2,400 in payment for some motor repairs had mistakenly been entered in the
cash book as a debit and posted to the credit of motor vehicles account. Depreciation at 25%
per annum (straight line) is charged on motor vehicles, with a full year’s charge calculated on
the balance at the end of each year.
(7) The total of the payments side of the cash book had been understated by $1,000. On further
investigation it was found that the debit side of the purchases account had also been
understated by $1,000.
(8) George had instructed his bank to credit the interest of $160 on the deposit account
maintained for surplus business funds to the current account. This the bank had done on 28
March. George had made an entry on the payments side of the cash book for this $160 and
had posted it to the debit of interest expense account.
(9) George had mistakenly paid $870 for repairs to his house with a cheque drawn on the
business account. The entry in the cash book had been debited to repairs to premises account.
(10) George had also mistakenly paid $540 due to Paul, a trade supplier, to clear his account in the
accounts payable ledger, using a cheque drawn on George’s personal bank account. No
entries have yet been made for this transaction.
The cash book showed a debit balance of $4,890 before any correcting entries had been made. The
balance in the bank statement is to be derived in your answer.
Required:
(a) Prepare an adjusted cash book showing the revised balance which should appear in
George’s statement of financial position at 31 March. (6 marks)
(b) Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as at 31 March. (3 marks)
(c) Draw up a statement for George showing the effect on his profit of the adjustments
necessary to correct the errors found. (8 marks)
(17 marks)
Question 16 MCQs SUSPENSE ACCOUNTS
16.1 A company’s trial balance failed to agree, the totals being:
Debit $815,602
Credit $808,420
Which one of the following errors could fully account for the difference?
A The omission from the trial balance of the balance on the insurance expense account
$7,182 debit
B Discount allowed $3,591 debited in error to the discount received account
C No entries made in the records for cash sales totalling $7,182
D The returns outwards total of $3,591 was included in the trial balance as a debit
balance (2 marks)
16.2 A trial balance extracted from a sole trader’s records failed to agree, and a suspense account
was opened for the difference.
Which of the following errors would require an entry in the suspense account to correct
them?
(1) Discount allowed was mistakenly debited to discount received account
(2) Cash received from the sale of a non-current asset was correctly entered in the cash
book but was debited to the disposal account
(3) The balance on the rent account was omitted from the trial balance
(4) Goods taken from inventory by the proprietor had been recorded by crediting
Drawings account and debiting Purchases account
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 1 and 3 (2 marks)
16.3 A company’s trial balance does not balance. The totals are:
Debit $384,030
Credit $398,580
A suspense account is opened for the difference.
Which of the following pairs of errors could clear the balance on the suspense account
when corrected?
A Debit side of cash book undercast by $10,000; $6,160 paid for rent correctly entered
in the cash book but entered in the rent account as $1,610
B Debit side of cash book overcast by $10,000; $1,610 paid for rent correctly entered
C Debit side of cash book undercast by $10,000; $1,610 paid for rent correctly entered
D Debit side of cash book overcast by $10,000; $6,160 paid for rent correctly entered
in the cash book but entered in the rent account as $1,610 (2 marks)
The following information is relevant for questions 16.4 and 16.5:
A company’s draft financial statements for the year to 31 December showed a profit of $630,000.
However, the trial balance did not agree, and a suspense account appeared in the company’s draft
statement of financial position.
Subsequent checking revealed the following errors:
(1) The cost of an item of plant $48,000 had been entered in the cash book and in the plant
account as $4,800. Depreciation at the rate of 10% per year ($480) had been charged
(2) Bank charges of $440 appeared in the bank statement in December but had not been entered
in the company’s records
(3) A director paid $800 due to a supplier in the payables ledger by a personal cheque. The
bookkeeper recorded a debit in the supplier’s ledger account but did not complete the double
entry for the transaction. (The company does not maintain a payables ledger control account)
(4) The payments side of the cash book had been understated by $10,000
16.4 Which TWO of the above items would require an entry to the suspense account to
correct them?
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4 (2 marks)
16.5 What would the company’s profit become after the correction of the above errors?
A $624,440
B $624,760
C $625,240
D $634,760 (2 marks)
16.6 The following errors have occurred during Bombardier’s recent accounting period:
(1) A discount received from Bernard had been debited to purchases but was correctly
treated in the payables control account
(2) Goods returned by Cranberry had been debited to Cranberry’s account in the
receivables ledger and to the receivables control account but had been correctly
treated in the sales account
Which of these errors would give rise to an entry in a suspense account?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2 (2 marks)
16.7 Hywel’s trial balance includes a total amount for the sum of the individual receivables ledger
accounts as listed out at the year end. The trial balance fails to agree and a suspense account
is opened. The difference is found to be due to the following errors in Hywel’s ledger
accounts:
(1) The balance on Markham’s receivables ledger account is $9,890. This is incorrectly
included in the list of balances as $9,980
(2) A discount unexpectedly taken by Umberto of $33 was debited to his receivables
ledger account
(3) The sales revenue account is overcast by $110
Three journals are drafted to correct these errors.
What is the overall effect of these journals on the suspense account?
A $110 Cr
B $46 Cr
C $46 Dr
D $86 Dr (2 marks)
16.8 Llama maintains its petty cash records using an imprest system. The total petty cash float is
topped up monthly to $300. Last month the following expenses were paid from petty cash:
$
Stationery 36
Tea and coffee 60
Postage stamps 120
In error, the purchase of postage stamps was recorded as $12 and as a result $108 cash was
added to the petty cash float.
Which one of the following will result from the error?
A An imbalance in the trial balance of $108 and a petty cash balance that is $108 less
than it should be
B An understatement of expenses of $108 and a petty cash balance that is $192 less
than it should be
C An understatement of expenses of $108 and a petty cash balance that is $108 less
than it should be
D An imbalance in the trial balance of $192 and a petty cash balance that is $192 less
than it should be (2 marks)
16.9 As at 31 December Isambard’s trial balance failed to balance and a suspense account was
opened. When the following errors were discovered and then rectified, the suspense account
balance was eliminated.
(1) The debit side of the trial balance was undercast by $692
(2) A payment of $905 had been credited in the cash book but no other entry in respect
of it had been made
What was the original balance on the suspense account?
A $1,597 Dr
B $213 Dr
C $213 Cr
D $1,597 Cr (2 marks)
16.10 Teebee maintains a purchases ledger control account in its general ledger. The bookkeeper is
extracting a trial balance from a general ledger.
Which of the following errors in postings to the purchases ledger control account could
cause the trial balance totals to be unequal?
(1) A transposition error
(2) An error of omission
(3) An error of principle
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 2 only
16.11 A company has a suspense account balance in its trial balance of $560 credit.
It was discovered that discounts allowed of $700 have been debited to, instead of credited to,
the receivables control account.
What is the remaining balance on the suspense account after this error has been
adjusted for?
A $140 debit
B $840 debit
C $1,260 credit
D $1,960 credit (2 marks)
(22 marks)
Question 17 ANDROMEDA
The list of account balances of Andromeda at 31 December 20X6 did not balance. On investigation the
following errors and omissions were found. When all were corrected, the list of account balances
agreed.
(1) A loan of $20,000 from Jason, one of the directors of the company, had been correctly entered
in the cash book but posted to the wrong side of the loan account.
(2) The purchase of a motor vehicle on credit for $28,600 had been recorded by debiting the
supplier’s account and crediting motor expenses account.
(3) A cheque for $800 received from A Smith, a customer to whom goods are regularly supplied
on credit, was correctly entered into the cash book but was posted to the credit of
irrecoverable debts recovered account in the mistaken belief that it was a receipt from B
Smith, a customer whose debt had been written off some time earlier.
(4) In reconciling the company’s cash book with the bank statement it was found that bank
charges of $380 had not been entered in the company’s records.
(5) The total of the discounts received column in the cash book for December amounting to
$2,130 had not been posted to the discount received account.
(6) The company had purchased some plant on 1 January 20X6 for $16,000. The payment was
correctly entered in the cash book but was debited to plant repairs account. The depreciation
rate for such plant is 20% per year on the straight-line basis.
Control accounts are not maintained.
Required:
Prepare journal entries with narratives to correct the errors, write up the suspense account and
hence derive the opening balance on the suspense account representing the original difference.
(15 marks)
Question 18 ARBADOS
The draft financial statements of Arbados at 30 September have been prepared, but there remains a
difference of $100, which has been temporarily inserted as a credit in a suspense account in the
company’s statement of financial position. On investigation the following errors were found:
(1) $8,700 paid for repairs to premises and correctly recorded in the cash book was debited to the
premises asset account as $7,800.
(2) $1,000 received for the wreckage of a car destroyed in an accident while uninsured had been
correctly entered in the cash book but not posted anywhere. The car had cost $30,000 and
depreciation of $6,000 had already been charged on the car for the year to 30 September,
making accumulated depreciation on the car at that date $12,000. No entries have yet been
made to eliminate the cost and accumulated depreciation of the car.
It is the company’s policy to charge no depreciation on an asset in the year of its disposal.
Required:
Prepare journal entries, including narratives, to correct the errors, record the loss of the car and
clear the suspense account.
(9 marks)
Question 19 LORCA
Lorca’s draft statement of profit or loss showed a profit of $830,000. However, the trial balance did not
balance and a suspense account with a credit balance of $20,000 has been included in the statement of
financial position for the difference.
The following errors were found on investigation:
(1) The proceeds of issue of 100,000 $0.50 shares at $0.70 per share were correctly entered in the
cash book but had been credited to sales account.
(2) During the year $8,000 interest received on a holding of loan notes had been correctly entered
in the cash book but debited to interest payable account.
(3) In arriving at the net sales and purchases totals for the year, the $48,000 balance on the
returns outwards account had been transferred to the debit of sales account and the $64,000
balance on the returns inwards account had been transferred to the credit of purchases
account.
(4) A payment of $4,000 for rent had been correctly recorded in the cash book but debited to the
rent account as $40,000.
Required:
(a) Prepare journal entries to correct the errors. Narratives are NOT required. (7 marks)
(b) Calculate the revised profit after adjusting for the errors. (4 marks)
(11 marks)
Question 20 PRIDE
The following extracts have been taken from the trial balance of Pride at 31 March 20X7:
$000 $000
Equity shares ($0.50 each) 250
Share premium account 1 April 20X6 180
Retained earnings 31 March 20X7 91
Land at cost 210
Buildings – cost 1 April 20X6 200
– accumulated depreciation at 1 April 20X6 120
Plant and equipment – cost 318
– accumulated depreciation at 1 April 20X6 88
Receivables 146
Cash at bank 50
Payables 94
10% Loan notes (redeemable 20Y1) 100
Loss allowance for trade receivables 10
Suspense account 171
Notes:
(1) The retained earnings balance shown above includes $80,000 draft profit for the year before
corrections for the following items:
(2) The balance on the suspense account is made up as follows:

$000
Receipt of cash on 8 January 20X7 on the issue of 200,000
equity shares of $0.50 each at a premium of $0.30 per share 160
Proceeds of sale of plant * 11
–––
171
——
* Plant originally cost $18,000 and had been written down to $6,000 at 31 March 20X6.
The company’s policy is to provide depreciation for a full year in the year of acquisition of
assets and none in the year of sale.
(3) Depreciation is to be provided for on the straight line basis at the following annual rates:
Land Nil
Buildings 2%
Plant and equipment 20%
(4) The loss allowance for trade receivables is to be increased to $12,000.
(5) Prepayments and accruals as at 31 March 20X7 are to be accounted for:
Prepayments $8,000
Accrued expenses $4,000
(6) The value of closing inventory used in arriving at draft profit for the year was $180,000.
Required:
(a) Prepare an adjustment to profit statement. (4 marks)
(b) Prepare the statement of financial position of Pride as at 31 March 20X7 for publication
complying as far as possible with the provisions of IAS 1 Presentation of Financial
Statements. (10 marks)
(14 marks)
Question 21 CHOCTAW
The draft financial statements of Choctaw for the year ended 31 December 20X6 showed a profit of
$86,400. The trial balance did not balance, and a suspense account with a credit balance of $3,310 was
included in the statement of financial position.
In subsequent checking the following errors were found:
(1) Depreciation of motor vehicles at 25% was calculated for the year ended 31 December 20X6
on the reducing balance basis, and should have been calculated on the straight-line basis at
25%.
Relevant figures: Cost of motor vehicles, $120,000. Carrying amount at 1 January 20X6,
$88,000.
(2) Rent received from subletting part of the office accommodation $1,200 had been put into the
petty cash box. No receivable balance had been recognised when the rent fell due and no
entries had been made in the petty cash book or elsewhere for it. The petty cash float in the
trial balance is the amount according to the records, which is $1,200 less than the actual
balance in the box.
(3) Irrecoverable debts totalling $8,400 are to be written off.
(4) The opening accrual on the motor repairs account of $3,310, representing repair bills due but
not paid at 31 December 20X5, had not been brought down at 1 January 20X6.
After the necessary entries, the suspense account balanced.
Required:
Prepare journal entries, with narratives, to correct the errors found, and prepare a statement
showing the necessary adjustments to the profit.
(8 marks)
Question 22 RAMPION
The draft financial statements of Rampion for the year ended 31 December 20X6 included the
following:
$
Profit 684,000
Closing inventory 116,800
Trade receivables 248,000
Loss allowance for receivables 10,000
No adjustments have yet been made for the following matters:
(1) The company’s inventory count was carried out on 3 January 20X7 leading to the figure
shown above. Sales between the close of business on 31 December 20X6 and the inventory
count totalled $36,000. There were no deliveries from suppliers in that period. The company
fixes selling prices to produce a 40% gross profit on sales. The $36,000 sales were included
in the sales records in January 20X7.
(2) In December 20X6 a customer ordered $10,000 of goods. These goods cost $6,000. Due to a
clerical error the order was duplicated and goods were delivered and accounted for twice in
December. On 10 January 20X7 the customer returned the goods in the second delivery in
good condition.
(3) Goods included in inventory at cost $18,000 were sold in January 20X7 for $13,500. Selling
expenses were $500.
(4) $8,000 of trade receivables are to be written off as irrecoverable.
(5) The loss allowance for receivables is to be adjusted to the equivalent of 5% of the trade
receivables after allowing for the above matters.
Required:
(a) Prepare a statement showing the effect of the adjustments on the company’s profit for
the year ended 31 December 20X6. (5 marks)
(b) Show how the adjustments affect:
(i) Closing inventory;

(ii) Receivables, showing separately the deduction of the loss allowance.
(6 marks)
(11 marks)
Question 23 MCQs INCOMPLETE RECORDS
A is a sole trader who does not keep full accounting records. The following details relate to her
transactions with credit customers and suppliers for the year ended 30 November 20X6:
$
Trade receivables, 1 December 20X5 130,000
Trade payables, 1 December 20X5 60,000
Discounts received 2,960
Irrecoverable debts 4,160
Amount due from a customer who is also a supplier offset
against an amount due for goods supplied by him 2,000
Trade receivables, 30 November 20X6 181,000
Trade payables, 30 November 20X6 84,000
23.1 Based on the above information, what figure should appear in A’s statement of profit or
loss for the year ended 30 November 20X6 for sales revenue?
A $748,960
B $740,800
C $744,960
D $823,960 (2 marks)
23.2 Based on the above information, what figure should appear in A’s statement of profit or
loss for the year ended 30 November 20X6 for purchases?
A $283,760
B $325,840
C $329,760
D $331,760 (2 marks)
23.3 A sole trader fixes her prices by adding 50% to the cost of all goods purchased. On 31
October 20X6 a fire destroyed a considerable part of the inventory and all inventory records.
Her statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 October 20X6 included the following
figures:
$ $
Sales 281,250
Opening inventory at cost 183,600
Purchases 249,200
–––––––
432,800
Closing inventory at cost 204,600 228,200
––––––– –––––––
Gross profit 53,050
–––––––
Using this information, what inventory loss has occurred?
A $40,700
B $61,050
C $87,575
D $110,850 (2 marks)
23.4 The following information is available for the year ended 31 December for a trader who does
not keep proper accounting records:
$
Opening inventories at 1 January 38,000
Closing inventories at 31 December 45,000
Purchases 637,000
Gross profit percentage on sales 30%
Based on this information, what was the trader’s sales figure for the year?
A $819,000
B $900,000
C $920,000
D $837,200 (2 marks)
23.5 Wanda keeps no accounting records. The following information is available about her
position and transactions for the year ended 31 December:
$
Opening net assets at 1 January 210,000
Drawings during the year 48,000
Capital introduced during the year 100,000
Closing net assets at 31 December 400,000
Based on this information, what was Wanda’s profit for the year?
A $42,000
B $138,000
C $242,000
D $338,000 (2 marks)
23.6 A trader who fixes her prices by adding 50% to cost actually achieved a mark-up of 45%.
Which of the following factors could account for the shortfall?
A Sales were lower than expected

B Opening inventories had been overstated
C Closing inventories were higher than opening inventories
D Goods taken from inventories by the proprietor were recorded by debiting drawings
and crediting purchases with the cost of the goods. (2 marks)
23.7 The following information is available for a sole trader who keeps no accounting records:
$
Net business assets at 1 July 20X6 186,000
Net business assets at 30 June 20X7 274,000
During the year ended 30 June 20X7:

Cash drawings by proprietor 68,000
Additional capital introduced by proprietor 50,000
Business cash used to buy a car for the proprietor’s wife,
who takes no part in the business 20,000
Using this information, what is the trader’s profit for the year ended 30 June 20X7?
A $50,000
B $86,000
C $90,000
D $126,000 (2 marks)
23.8 Which of the following factors could cause a company’s gross profit percentage on sales
to fall below the expected level?
A Overstatement of closing inventories

B The incorrect inclusion in purchases of invoices relating to goods supplied in the
following period
C The inclusion in sales of the proceeds of sale of non-current assets
D Reduction of overheads incurred in the production process (2 marks)
23.9 The following information is available for Orset, a sole trader who does not keep full
accounting records:
$
Inventory 1 July 20X6 138,600
30 June 20X7 149,100
Sales for year ended 30 June 20X7 1,008,000
Orset makes a standard gross profit margin of 30%.
Based on these figures, what is Orset’s purchases figure for the year ended 30 June
20X7?
A $695,100
B $705,600
C $716,100
D $785,885 (2 marks)
23.10 The following information is available about the transactions of Razil, a sole trader who does
not keep proper accounting records:
$
Opening inventory 77,000
Purchases 763,000
Sales 945,000
Mark up on cost 25%
Based on this information, what should be the cost of Razil’s closing inventory?
A $70,000
B $84,000
C $85,750
D $131,250 (2 marks)
23.11 Plym is a retailer which is registered for sales tax which is at the rate of 20%. For the year to
30 June 20X7 Plym paid $69,600 to suppliers in respect of goods for resale and showed
$89,400 revenue in the statement of profit or loss. There was no change in the figures for
inventory and trade payables in the statements of financial position as at 30 June 20X6 and
20X7.
What was Plym’s gross profit for the year ended 30 June 20X7?
A $4,900
B $16,500
C $19,800
D $31,400 (2 marks)
23.12 Muse commences trading on 1 January 20X6 and has zero inventories at that date. During
20X6 it has purchases of $455,000, incurs carriage inwards of $24,000, and carriage outwards
of $29,000. Inventories at 31 December 20X6 are valued at $52,000.
Which of the following is the cost of sales figure for the year ended 31 December 20X6?
A $427,000
B $432,000
C $456,000
D $531,000 (2 marks)
23.13 Sunil started business on 1 December 20X5 with cash of $5,000. He has not yet prepared a
full set of financial statements. As at the end of his first year of trading he has cash at bank of
$1,726. He made sales of $33,498 during the year and paid expenses in cash of $19,385. He
has no outstanding liabilities at the end of the period and has no non-current assets or
inventory, but one customer owes him $2,387.
Sunil made no other capital contributions but withdraw cash amounting to $15,000 in the
period.
What is Sunil’s profit for the year to 30 November 20X6 and his net assets at the end of
the period?
Profit Net assets

A $11,726 $1,726
B $14,113 $4,113
C $11,726 $4,113
D $14,113 $1,726 (2 marks)
23.14 Randolph started a trading business on 1 May 20X6 with capital of $40,000. In his first year
of trading he made a profit of $117,000, selling goods at a mark-up on cost of 60%. He
injected additional capital of $30,000 in the year and withdrew a monthly amount of $3,200
for his living expenses. At the end of the year he withdrew all remaining goods inventory
with a resale value of $7,200 for his personal use.
What were Randolph’s net assets at 30 April 20X7?
A $141,400
B $144,100
C $144,280
D $179,300 (2 marks)
23.15 Paul is a sole trader whose accounting records are incomplete. All the sales are cash sales and
during the year $50,000 was banked, including $5,000 from the sale of a business car. He
paid out $12,000 wages in cash and withdrew $2,000 per month for his living expenses. Cash
in hand at the beginning and end of the year was $300 and $400 respectively.
What were Paul’s sales for the year?
A $80,900
B $81,000
C $81,100
D $86,100 (2 marks)
23.16 Which one of following formulae may be used to calculate the profit of a business?
A Opening capital – drawings + capital introduced – closing capital
B Closing capital + drawings – capital introduced – opening capital
C Opening capital + drawings – capital introduced – closing capital
D Closing capital – drawings + capital introduced – opening capital (2 marks)
23.17 Bob used the following balances to prepare his final accounts as at 30 April 20X7:
$ $
Receivables 6,000
Bank loan 3,000
Bank overdraft 2,500
Drawings 4,100
Capital 12,500
Revenue 22,000
Purchases 19,200
Rent 5,400
Bank interest 825
Heat and light 4,475
–––––– ––––––
40,000 40,000
–––––– ––––––
The business does not hold inventory. No further adjustments were required.
What is Bobs’ opening capital figure as at 1 May 20X7?
A $12,500
B $8,400
C $16,300
D $500 (2 marks)
23.18 Jay sells fruit and all sales are for cash. The takings are banked at the end of each week and a
cash float of $50 is maintained. During the week commencing 25 March, the following
payments were made from cash:
$
Payments to suppliers 340
Wages 150
Rent 70
Jay banked $600 at the end of the week.
What were the cash takings for the week commencing 25 March?
A $1,110
B $1,160
C $600
D $560 (2 marks)
(36 marks)
Question 24 LAMORGAN
You are preparing a statement of profit or loss and statement of financial position for Lamorgan, a sole
trader who does not keep adequate accounting records.
The following information is available to you to calculate the figures for inclusion in the accounts for
sales revenue, purchases and closing inventory for the year ended 30 June 20X7:
(a) Sales revenue

$
Cash received from credit customers 218,500
Cash sales receipts paid into bank 114,700
Expenses paid out of cash sales before banking 9,600
Trade receivables: 30 June 20X6 41,600
30 June 20X7 44,200
Refunds to customers 800
Amount due from credit customer deducted by Lamorgan in paying
supplier’s account 700
Required:
Calculate the sales revenue figure from this information. (5 marks)
(b) Purchases
$
Payments to suppliers 114,400
Trade payables: 30 June 20X6 22,900
30 June 20X7 24,800
Cost of items taken from inventory by Lamorgan for personal use 400
Amount due from credit customer deducted by Lamorgan in settling
supplier’s account 700
Required:
Calculate the purchases figure from this information. (3 marks)
(c) Closing inventory
Cost of inventory obtained from physical count on 30 June 20X7 $77,700
This figure does NOT include any amounts for the two items below:
(i) An inventory line which had cost $1,800 was found to be damaged. Remedial work
costing $300 is needed to enable the items to be sold for $1,700. Selling expenses
of $100 would also be incurred in selling these items.
(ii) Goods sent to a customer on approval in May 20X7 were not included in the
inventory. The sale price of the goods was $4,000 and the cost $3,000. The
customer notified his acceptance of the goods in July 20X7. Note: No adjustment to
the sales figure in (a) above is required for this item.
Required:
Calculate the adjusted closing inventory figure from this information. (2 marks)
(10 marks)
Question 25 ALTESE, SENJI & ALUKI
(a) The net assets of Altese, a trader, at 1 January 20X6 amounted to $128,000.
During the year to 31 December 20X6 Altese introduced a further $50,000 of capital and
made drawings of $48,000.
At 31 December 20X6 Altese’s net assets totalled $184,000.
Required:
Using this information calculate Altese’s total profit for the year ended 31 December
20X6. (3 marks)
(b) Senji does not keep proper accounting records, and it is necessary to calculate her total
purchases for the year ended 31 January 20X7 from the following information:
$
Trade payables 31 January 20X6 130,400
31 January 20X7 171,250
Payment to suppliers 888,400
Cost of goods taken from inventory by
Senji for her personal use 1,000
Refunds received from suppliers 2,400
Required:
Calculate the figure for purchases for inclusion in Senji’s financial statements. (3 marks)
(c) Aluki fixes prices to make a standard gross profit percentage on sales of 331/3%.
The following information for the year ended 31 January 20X7 is available to calculate her
sales total for the year.
$
Inventory: 1 February 20X6 243,000
31 January 20X7 261,700
Purchases 595,400
Required:
Calculate the sales figure for the year ended 31 January 20X7. (3 marks)
(9 marks)
Question 26 HASTA
Hasta is an antique dealer operating from rented premises. He keeps few accounting records. All his
sales and purchases are for cash, except for some sales to other dealers which are made on credit.
The following information is available to prepare his statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31
December 20X6:
As at 31 December
20X6 20X5
Assets and liabilities $ $
Equipment 2,000 1,200
Inventory 88,500 85,000
Trade receivables 6,400 4,800
Payable for expenses 1,400 1,100
Cash summary
$ $
1 Jan Balance – float 100 31 Dec Wages for assistant 15,600
Sundry expenses 8,300
31 Dec Cash from customers 191,400 Purchases of new equipment 2,000
Proceeds of sale of Purchases ?
equipment 700 Drawings ?
Balance – float 150
––––––– –––––––
192,200 192,200
––––––– –––––––
Hasta keeps cash that is in hand at the end of each week as drawings, subject to the retention of the
float. No record has been made of payments for purchases of goods for sale. He fixes his selling price
for all items by doubling their cost. He allowed a trade discount of $9,000, representing 30% on selling
price, for sales to dealers with a normal price of $30,000.
All the equipment held at the beginning of the year was sold for $700, and new equipment purchased
for $2,000.
A full year’s depreciation is to be charged on the new equipment at 20%, with no depreciation on the
items sold.
Required:
(a) Prepare Hasta’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X5.
(9 marks)
(b) Calculate Hasta’s drawings for the year ended 31 December 20X6. (2 marks)
(11 marks)
Question 27 MCQs REGULATORY FRAMEWORK
27.1 Whose needs are general purpose financial statements intended to meet?
A Shareholders of incorporated entities

B The general public
C Users of financial statements
D Regulatory authorities (2 marks)
27.2 Which body develops International Financial Reporting Standards?
A IASB
B IFRS Foundation
C IFRS IC
D IFRS Advisory Council (2 marks)
27.3 According to the International Accounting Standards Board, in whose interests are
financial reporting standards issued?
A Company directors
B The public
C Company auditors
D The government (2 marks)
27.4 Which of the following are roles of the IASB?
(1) Responsibility for all IFRS technical matters

(2) Publication of IFRSs
(3) Overall supervision and governance of the IFRS Advisory Council
(4) Final approval of interpretations by the IFRS Interpretations Committee
A 2 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1, 2 and 3
27.5 The issue of a new IFRS means that:
(1) An existing standard may be partially or completely withdrawn

(2) Issues that are not in the scope of an existing standard are covered
(3) Issues raised by users of existing standards are explained and clarified
(4) Current financial reporting practice is modified
Which combination of the above will most likely be the result of issuing a new IFRS?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 2, 3 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
27.6 Which of the following are stages in the due process of developing a new International
Financial Reporting Standard?
(1) Issuing a discussion paper that sets out the possible options for a new standard
(2) Publishing clarification on the interpretation of an IFRS
(3) Drafting an IFRS for public comment
(4) Analysing the feedback received on a discussion paper
A 1, 2 and 3
B 2, 3 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
27.7 Which one of the following sentences is NOT a distinction between financial accounts
and management accounts?
A Financial accounts are primarily for external users and management accounts are
primarily for internal users
B Financial accounts are normally produced annually and management accounts are
normally produced monthly
C Financial accounts are mandatory whereas management accounts are voluntary
D Financial accounts are audited by management whereas management accounts are
audited by external auditors (2 marks)
27.8 Which of the following bodies has responsibility for encouraging global convergence of
international financial reporting standards?
A The International Financial Reporting Standards Interpretations Committee
B The International Financial Reporting Standards Foundation
C The International Accounting Standards Board
D The International Accounting Standards Committee (2 marks)
(16 marks)
Question 28 IASB
(a) State the objectives of the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB). (3 marks)
(b) As well as developing International Accounting Standards, the IASB has published a
Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting.
Required:
State the purposes of the Framework. (5 marks)
(8 marks)
Question 29 MCQs QUALITATIVE CHARACTERISTICS AND ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS
29.1 Which of the following most closely describes the meaning of relevance in the IASB’s
“Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting”?
A It makes information provided in the financial statements useful to primary users

B It ensures that accounting records and financial statements are free from bias
C It provides a predictive or confirmatory value that can make a difference in a decision
D It ensures that financial statements comply with all accounting standards and legal
requirements (2 marks)
29.2 Which of the following statements about accounting concepts and the characteristics of
financial information is correct?
(1) The concept of substance over form means that the legal form of a transaction must
be reflected in financial statements, regardless of the economic substance
(2) Under the recognition concept only items capable of being measured in monetary
terms can be recognised in financial statements
(3) It may sometimes be necessary to exclude information that is relevant and reliable
from financial statements because it is too difficult for some users to understand
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 3 only
D None of these statements (2 marks)
29.3 Which of the following statements about accounting concepts are correct?
(1) The entity concept requires that a business is treated as being separate from its
owners
(2) The prudence concept means that the lowest possible values should be applied to
income and assets and the highest possible values to expenses and liabilities
(3) The money measurement concept means that only assets capable of being reliably
measured in monetary terms can be included in the financial statements
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
29.4 Which of the following statements about accounting concepts are correct?
(1) The money measurement concept requires all assets and liabilities to be accounted
for at original (historical) cost
(2) The substance over form convention means that the economic substance of a transaction
should be reflected in the financial statements, not necessarily its legal form
(3) The realisation concept means that profits or gains cannot normally be recognised in
profit or loss until realised
(4) The application of the prudence concept means that assets must be understated and
liabilities must be overstated in preparing financial statements
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
29.5 A sole trader is $5,000 overdrawn at her bank. She receives $1,000 from a credit customer.
Which elements of the financial statements will change due to this transaction?
A Assets and liabilities only

B Liabilities only
C Assets only
D Assets, liabilities and equity (2 marks)
29.6 A company includes in inventory goods received before the year end for which invoices are
not received until after the year end.
Which of the following concepts is the company applying?
A Historical cost
B Accruals
C Going concern
D Substance over form (2 marks)
29.7 Which one of the following best describes the objective of management’s stewardship of
a company?
A Profit maximisation
B Safeguarding cash
C Accountability for company’ assets
D High dividends for shareholders (2 marks)
29.8 What is the primary objective of general purpose financial statements?
A To provide financial information to the users of such information

B To maintain records of assets and liabilities
C To show the results of management’s stewardship
D To fulfil statutory requirements (2 marks)
29.9 Which of the following are necessary characteristics of “faithful representation” of

information?
(1) Information is free from bias

(2) Information is complete within the bounds of materiality and cost
(3) Information is free from material error
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
29.10 The IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting (the Conceptual Framework)
sets out the concepts that underlie the preparation and presentation of financial statements for
external users.
According to the Conceptual Framework, which of the following describes the inclusion
of an amount in the financial statements”?
A Disclosure
B Faithful presentation
C Measurement
D Recognition (2 marks)
29.11 Which of the following statements is correct?
A Profit is the amount by which the value of assets only have increased during the year
B Profit is the amount by which the value of liabilities only have decreased during the year
C Profit is not related to changes in the value of assets and liabilities
D Profit is the amount by which the increase in the value of assets exceeds the
increase in the value of liabilities during the year (2 marks)
29.12 Which of the following is the basis on which allowance for depreciation is charged to the
statement of profit or loss?
A Accruals
B Going concern
C Prudence
D Historical cost (2 marks)
29.13 In the last financial year, Cuchabee issued an invoice for $28,900 for the sale of a non-current
asset with a carrying amount of $27,600.
What was the effect of this transaction on the company’s assets, liabilities and equity?
Assets Liabilities Equity

A Unchanged Reduced Increased
B Increased Unchanged Increased
C Increased Reduced Increased
D Reduced Unchanged Reduced (2 marks)
29.14 The IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting identifies four qualitative
characteristics that enhance the usefulness of information that is relevant and faithfully
represented.
Which of the following are examples of those characteristics?
(1) Consistency
(2) Cost constraint
(3) Timeliness
(4) Understandability
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 1 and 4 (2 marks)
29.15 Following the preparation of the financial statements, the accountant of Tamore has
discovered that the depreciation charge has been overstated.
When the depreciation charge is corrected, how are the elements of the financial
statements affected?
Assets Liabilities Equity

A Increased Decreased Unchanged
B Decreased Increased Increased
C Decreased Unchanged Decreased
D Increased Unchanged Increased (2 marks)
29.16 Consider the following statements:
(1) Items are reported in the statement of financial position based on the presumption
that the entity will not be required to significantly reduce the scale of its operations
(2) Non-current assets are always valued at historical cost in the statement of financial
position
Which of the following is correct?
Statement (1) Statement (2)

A Describes the accruals concept Is true
B Describes the going concern concept Is true
C Describes the accruals concept Is false
D Describes the going concern concept Is false (2 marks)
29.17 Which of the following is represented by the residual interest in the assets of the entity
after deducting all its liabilities?
A Income
B Profit
C Gains
D Equity (2 marks)
29.18 Consider the following statements about the IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial
Reporting:
(1) It will not be changed because it sets out underlying concepts

(2) It is intended to assist users in preparing financial statements
(3) It is an International Financial Reporting Standard
Which of the above statements is/are true?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 2
D 2 and 3 (2 marks)
29.19 What is defined by the following statement?
“A resource controlled by an entity as a result of past events and from which future economic
benefits are expected to flow to the entity.”
A Income
B An expense
C A liability
D An asset (2 marks)
(38 marks)
Question 30 FOUR CONCEPTS
Required:
Define the following accounting concepts and explain for each their implications for the
preparation of financial statements:
(a) Business entity concept; (3 marks)

(b) Going concern; (3 marks)
(c) Materiality; (3 marks)
(d) Fair presentation. (3 marks)
(12 marks)
Question 31 MATERIALITY
The International Accounting Standards Board’s “Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting” sets
out among other things the qualitative characteristics of financial statements, and states that information
in them needs to have the fundamental characteristics of relevance and faithful representation. IAS 1
“Presentation of Financial Statements” also contains important provisions relating to financial
statements.
Required:
(a) Define “materiality” in relation to financial statements, and state two factors affecting
the assessment of materiality. (2 marks)
(b) Briefly explain what makes information in financial statements relevant to users.
(2 marks)
(c) Two characteristics contributing to faithful representation are “neutrality” and
“completeness”.
(i) Explain the meaning of these two terms;

(ii) Give an example of a possible conflict between qualitative characteristics.
(4 marks)
(d) One of the requirements of the Framework is that financial statements should be free
from material error. Suggest THREE safeguards which may exist, inside or outside a
company, to ensure that the financial statements are in fact free from material error.
(3 marks)
(11 marks)
Question 32 COMPARABILITY
Comparability is a characteristic which adds to the usefulness of financial statements.
Required:
(a) Explain what is meant by the term “comparability” in financial statements, referring to
TWO types of comparison that users of financial statements may make. (3 marks)
(b) Briefly explain TWO ways in which the IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial
Reporting and the requirements of accounting standards aid the comparability of
financial information. (2 marks)
(5 marks)
Question 33 MCQs IAS 1
33.1 Which of the following could appear as separate items in the statement of changes in
equity required by IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements as part of a company’s
financial statements?
(1) Transfer to retained earnings

(2) Loss on sale of investments
(3) Proceeds of an issue of equity shares
(4) Dividends proposed after the year end
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
33.2 Which of the following items must be disclosed in a company’s published financial
statements (including notes) if material, according to IAS 1 Presentation of Financial
Statements?
(1) Finance costs

(2) Staff costs
(3) Depreciation and amortisation expense
(4) Movements on share capital
A 1 and 3 only
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 (2 marks)
33.3 Which of the following items may appear in a company’s statement of changes in equity,
according to IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements?
(1) Revaluation surplus

(2) Dividends proposed
(3) Proceeds of equity share issue
(4) Total comprehensive income for the period
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
33.4 Which of the following should NOT appear in a company’s statement of profit or loss
and other comprehensive income?
A A loss after taxation for the financial year

B Dividends received from investments
C Gain on revaluation of a non-current asset
D Dividends paid to shareholders during the year (2 marks)
33.5 DT’s final dividend for the year ended 31 October 20X6 of $150,000 was declared on 1
February 20X7 and paid on 1 April 20X7. The financial statements were approved on 31
March 20X7.
Which TWO of the following statements describe the correct treatment of the dividend
in DT’s financial statements?
(1) The payment settles an accrued liability in the statement of financial position as at
31 October 20X6
(2) The dividend is shown as a deduction in the statement of profit or loss for the year
ended 31 October 20X7
(3) The dividend is shown as an accrued liability in the statement of financial position
as at 31 October 20X7
(4) The dividend is disclosed in the notes to the financial statements at 31 October
20X6
(5) The dividend is presented in the statement of changes in equity for the year ended
31 October 20X7
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 3 and 5
D 4 and 5 (2 marks)
33.6 Which of the following most accurately defines “going concern” in accordance with
IAS°1 Presentation of Financial Statements?
A The directors do not intend to liquidate the entity or to cease trading in the
foreseeable future
B The entity is able to pay its debts as and when they fall due
C The directors expect the entity’s assets to yield future economic benefits
D Financial statements have been prepared on the assumption that the entity is solvent
and would be able to settle all liabilities in full in the event of being wound up
(2 marks)
33.7 According to IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, compliance with International

Financial Reporting Standards will normally ensure which one of the following?
A The entity’s inventory is valued at net realisable value

B The entity’s assets are valued at their break-up value
C The entity’s financial statements are prepared on the assumption that it is a going
concern
D The entity’s financial position, financial performance and cash flows are “presented
fairly” (2 marks)
33.8 Monksford is preparing its financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X6. Its
draft trial balance shows the following balances:
$
Income tax payable at 1 January 20X6 2,091
Income tax paid in full settlement of 20X5 liability 1,762
Income tax due for the year ended 31 December 20X6 is estimated to be $2,584.
What is Monksford’s income tax expense in its statement of profit or loss for the year
ended 31 December 20X6?
A $1,269
B $2,255
C $2,584
D $2,913 (2 marks)
33.9 In the current financial year, Natamo has raised a loan for $3 million. The loan is repayable
in 10 equal half-yearly instalments. The first instalment is due six months after the loan was
received.
How should the loan be reported in Natamo’s next financial statements?
A As a current liability
B As a long term liability
C As part of equity
D As both a current and a long term liability (2 marks)
33.10 When reporting profit for a period, companies are required to ensure that income and
expenses are correctly classified.
Which one of the following items will NOT be included in profit or loss for the period?
A Interest payable
B Dividend paid to equity shareholders
C Depreciation charge for the year
D Income tax expense (2 marks)
33.11 When reviewing the draft financial statements, the Finance Director of Harlequin discovered
that no provision had been made for consultancy fees incurred in respect of a proposed
investment.
How will the profit and net assets reported in the financial statements be affected when
the provision is made?
Profit Net assets

A Increase Increase
B Increase Decrease
C Decrease Increase
D Decrease Decrease (2 marks)
33.12 Garden has a 30 November reporting date. On 10 November 20X6 Garden bought a machine
for $85,000. $5,000 cash was paid to the supplier and the balance of the purchase price was
financed by taking out a loan for $80,000. The loan will be repaid in 10 equal half-yearly
instalments, with the first instalment falling due on 10 May 20X7.
How should this transaction be reported in Garden’s statement of financial position at

30 November 20X6?
A A non-current asset of $85,000, a current liability of $64,000 and a non-current liability of

$16,000
B A non-current asset of $85,000 and a non-current liability of $80,000
C A non-current asset of $85,000, a current liability of $16,000 and a non-current liability of
$64,000
D A non-current asset of $85,000 and a current liability of $80,000 (2 marks)
33.13 Which of the following should be recognised in other comprehensive income as an

unrealised gain?
(1) Interest earned but not yet credited

(2) Rental income received for a future period
(3) An increase in the value of a non-current asset
(4) A gain on the sale of shares held in a quoted company
A 3 only
B 3 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 (2 marks)
33.14 The draft 20X6 statement of financial position of Vale reported retained earnings of
$1,644,900 and net assets of $6,957,300. It was then discovered that several items in opening
inventory had been valued at selling price. This resulted in a $300,000 overstatement of
opening inventory. The closing inventory had been correctly valued in the draft 20X6
financial statements.
What are the correct figures for retained profit and net assets in the statement of
financial position for 20X6?
Retained earnings Net assets

A $1,644,900 $6,657,300
B $1,644,900 $6,957,300
C $1,944,900 $6,657,300
D $1,944,900 $6,957,300 (2 marks)
33.15 The accountant of Verse is preparing the company’s draft financial statements and must
decide how the following items should be reported:
(1) Gain on revaluation of property

(2) Interest charge on long-term borrowings
Which items should be included in the calculation of total comprehensive income for the
year?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 2
33.16 Fudge Co’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 20X7 shows a profit for
the year of $575,000. During the year, a dividend of $130,000 was paid to equity
shareholders and land costing $600,000 was revalued to $640,000.
What was the total comprehensive income for the year?
A $40,000
B $485,000
C $575,000
D $615,000 (2 marks)
(32 marks)
Question 34 ARBALEST
The summarised statement of financial position of Arbalest at 30 September 20X5 was as follows:
Cost Aggregate Carrying

depreciation amount
$000 $000 $000
Non-current assets
Land 2,000 nil 2,000
Buildings 1,500 450 1,050
Plant and equipment 2,800 1,000 1,800
_____ _____ _____
6,300 1,450 4,850
_____ _____
Current assets 3,180
______
Total assets 8,030
———
Equity and liabilities
Equity shares ($0.50 each) 1,500
Share premium account 400
Retained earnings 4,060
_____
5,960
Current liabilities 2,070
______
Total equity and liabilities 8,030
———
During the year ended 30 September 20X6 the company had the following transactions:
(1) 1 November 20X5: The company made an issue to its members of one share for every three
held (a rights issue) at a price of $1.50 per share. All the rights issue shares were taken up.
(2) 1 December 20X5: Sale for $70,000 of a plant and equipment which had cost $1,000,000 and
a carrying amount of $200,000.
(3) 1 March 20X6: A bonus (capitalisation) issue of one share for every one held at that date,
using the share premium account as far as possible for the purpose.
(4) 1 June 20X6: Purchased a new factory block for $3,000,000 (including land $600,000).
(5) 1 July 20X6: Purchased plant and equipment for $1,600,000.
(6) 30 September 20X6: The company decided to revalue the land held at 30 September 20X5
from $2,000,000 to $2,500,000. The company depreciation policies are:
Land no depreciation
Buildings 2% per annum on cost, straight-line basis
Plant and equipment 10% per annum on cost, straight-line basis
Proportionate depreciation is allowed for in the year of purchase of an asset, with none in the
year of disposal.
Profit for the year was $370,000.
Required:
(a) Prepare a statement of changes in equity (as required by IAS 1 Presentation of Financial
Statements) for the year ended 30 September 20X6. (6 marks)
(b) Prepare for the company’s statement of financial position at 30 September 20X6, a note
showing movements on non-current assets (as required by IAS 16 Property, Plant and
Equipment). (9 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 35 PERSEUS
The list of account balances of Perseus contains the following items at 31 December:
Dr Cr
$ $
Opening inventory 3,432,000
Accounts receivable ledger balances 2,980,000 1,970
Accounts payable ledger balances 14,300 1,210,400
Prepayments 770,000
Cash at bank A 940,000
Overdraft at bank B 360,000
In the course of preparing the financial statements at 31 December, the need for a number of
adjustments emerged, as detailed below:
(1) Closing inventory amounted to $4,190,000 before allowing for the adjustments required by
the following:
(i) Some items included in closing inventory at cost of $16,000 were found to be
defective and were sold after the reporting period for $10,400. Selling costs
amounted to $600.
(ii) Goods with a sales value of $88,000 were delivered to the wrong customer on 28
December. The goods were returned, in good condition, in January and
subsequently dispatched to the correct customer. The cost of the goods was
$66,000.
(2) Accounts receivable amounting to $92,000 are to be written off.
(3) A loss allowance for irrecoverable debts is to be made for 5% of accounts receivable.
(4) The manager of the main selling outlet of Perseus is entitled to a commission of 2% of the
company’s profit after charging that commission. The profit amounted to $1,101,600 before
including the commission, and after adjusting for items (1) to (4) above. The manager has
already received $25,000 on account of the commission due for the year to 31 December.
Required:
Show how the final figures for current assets should be presented in the statement of financial
position at 31 December.
(15 marks)
Question 36 CRONOS
The following items have been extracted from the trial balance of Cronos as at 30 September 20X6:
Reference
to notes $ $
Purchases 1,748,200
Carriage inwards 38,100
Carriage outwards (2) 47,250
Sales 3,210,000
Wages and salaries (2 & 3) 694,200
Sundry administrative expenses (2) 381,000
Loss allowance for trade receivables, at 1 October 20X5 (4) 18,200
Irrecoverable debts written off during the year (4) 14,680
Office equipment as at 1 October 20X5: (5)
Cost 214,000
Office equipment: additions during year 48,000
proceeds from sale 12,600
Interest paid (2) 30,000
Notes
(1) Closing inventory amounted to $219,600.
(2) Prepayments and accruals:

Prepayments Accruals
$ $
Carriage outwards 1,250
Wages and salaries 5,800
Sundry administrative expenses 4,900 13,600
Interest payable 30,000
(3) Wages and salaries cost is to be allocated:

– cost of sales 10%
– distribution costs 20%
– administrative expenses 70%
(4) Further irrecoverable debts totalling $8,000 are to be written off, and the closing loss
allowance is to amount to 5% of the final trade receivables figure. All irrecoverable debt
expenses are to be included in administrative expenses.
(5) Office equipment:
Depreciation is to be provided at 20% per annum on the straight line basis, with a full year’s
charge in the year of purchase and none in the year of sale.
During the year equipment which had cost $40,000, with accumulated depreciation of
$26,800, was sold for $12,600.
Required:
(a) Prepare the company’s statement of profit or loss in accordance with IAS 1 Presentation
of Financial Statements. (12 marks)
(b) Which of the following list must be presented in the statement of profit or loss in
accordance with IAS 1? Select all that apply.
Item Description
A Gross profit
B Revenue
C Finance costs
D Cost of sales
E Dividend paid
F Share of profit or loss from associate (3 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 37 ABRADOR
(a) At 31 December 20X6 the following balances existed in the accounting records of Abrador:
Reference
to notes $000
Equity shares, $0.50 (1) 1,000
Share premium account (1) 400
Suspense account (1) 800
Retained earnings (2) 7,170
Deferred development costs 570
Property, plant and equipment – cost 5,000
depreciation at 31 December 20X5 (3) 1,000
Inventory at 31 December 20X6 3,900
Trade receivables (4) 3,400
Overdraft at bank 100
Loss allowance for trade receivables
at 31 December 20X5 (4) 100
6% Loan notes (5) 400
Notes
(1) On 31 December 20X6 the company issued for cash 1,000,000 equity shares at a
premium of $0.30 per share. The proceeds have been debited to cash and credited
to the suspense account.
(2) The profit for the year is included in the figure of $7,170,000 above but does not
include adjustments for Notes (3) and (4) below.
(3) Depreciation is to be provided at 25% per year on the reducing balance basis, on the
property, plant and equipment.
(4) Debts totalling $400,000 are to be written off and the loss allowance for trade
receivables is to be adjusted to 3% of accounts receivable.
(5) The 6% loan notes are due for redemption on 31 December 20X7 and the obligation
is not to be refinanced. All interest due to 31 December 20X6 has been paid.
Required:
Prepare Abrador’s statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X6 for

publication, using the format in IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements.
Note: The information in (b) below is not relevant for this part of the question. (10 marks)
(b) The deferred development costs of $570,000 in (a) above are made up as follows:
Project A
Completed by 31 December 20X5 $ $
Balance of costs as at 31 December 20X5 400,000
Amortised 20X6 (100,000) 300,000
––––––––
Project B
In progress
Total costs as at 31 December 20X5 150,000
Further costs in 20X6 120,000 270,000
–––––––– ––––––––
Balance as at 31 December 20X6 570,000
————
The charge in profit or loss for 20X6 was $185,000 made up as follows:
$
Project A Amortisation 100,000
Project C Research costs written off 85,000
Required:
State the figures for the disclosure note summarising this information required by
IAS 38 Intangible Assets. A statement of the company’s policy for research and
development expenditure is NOT required. (5 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 38 MINICA
The following balances have been extracted from the accounting records of Minica at 31 December
20X6:
Reference $
to notes
Revenue 2 3,845,000
Purchases 3 2,184,000
Office equipment at 1 January 20X6 2, 3 and 4
Cost 460,000
Loss allowance for receivables at 1 January 20X6 5 20,000
Irrecoverable debts written off during the year 15,000
Sundry administrative expenses 416,000
The following further information is available:
(1) Closing inventory amounts to $450,000.
(2) Some office equipment, which had cost $20,000, with accumulated depreciation at 1 January
20X6 of $14,000, was sold for $15,000 during the year. The sale proceeds were included in
the sales figure of $3,845,000.
(3) The cost of new equipment purchased on 1 July 20X6 for $60,000 has been included in the
purchases figure of $2,184,000
(4) The company depreciates its office equipment at 20 % per year on the straight line basis, with
proportionate depreciation in the year of purchase but none in the year of sale. None of the
equipment held at 1 January 20X6 was more than three years old.
(5) The loss allowance for trade receivables at 31 December 20X6 is to be 5% of accounts
receivable.
(6) Accruals and prepayments on sundry administrative expenses at 31 December 20X6 were:
$
Accrued expenses 28,700
Prepaid expenses 14,400
(7) The directors propose a dividend of 6c per share on the equity shares (4,000,000 shares of
$0.25 each) to be paid in July 20X7.
No dividends were paid in 20X6.
Required:
(a) Prepare Minica’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X6 for
internal use. (13 marks)
(b) Calculate the total amount of the proposed dividend and state how it should be dealt
with in Minica’s published financial statements. (2 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 39 SHUSWAP
The draft statement of financial position shown below has been prepared for Shuswap as at 31
December 20X6:
Cost Accumulated Carrying
depreciation amount
Assets $000 $000 $000
Non-current assets
Land and buildings 9,000 1,000 8,000
–––––– –––––– ––––––
30,000 10,000 20,000
——— ———
Current assets
Inventories 3,000
Receivables 2,600
Cash at bank 1,900
––––––
Total assets 27,500
———
Equity
Equity shares ($0.50 each) 6,000
Non-current liabilities: Loan notes (redeemable 20Y0) 2,000
Current liabilities: Trade payables 2,100
––––––
22,500
Suspense account 5,000
––––––
27,500
———
The following further information is available:
(1) It has been decided to revalue the land and buildings to $12,000,000 at 31 December 20X6.
(2) Trade receivables totalling $200,000 are to be written off.
(3) During the year there was a contra settlement of $106,000 in which an amount due to a
supplier was set off against the amount due from the same company for goods sold to it. No
entry has yet been made to record the set-off.
(4) Some inventory items included in the draft statement of financial position at cost $500,000
were sold after the reporting period for $400,000, with selling expenses of $40,000.
(5) The suspense account is made up of two items:
(a) The proceeds of issue of 4,000,000 $0.50 shares at $1·10 per share, credited to the
suspense account from the cash book.
(b) The balance of the account is the proceeds of sale of some plant on 1 January 20X6
with a carrying amount at the date of sale of $700,000 and which had originally cost
$1,400,000. No other accounting entries have yet been made for the disposal apart
from the cash book entry for the receipt of the proceeds. Depreciation on plant has
been charged at 25% (straight line basis) in preparing the draft statement of
financial position without allowing for the sale. The depreciation for the year
relating to the plant sold should be adjusted for in full.
Required:
(a) Prepare Shuswap’s statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X6, complying

as far as possible with IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements. (13 marks)
(b) Calculate Shuswap’s gearing ratio as at 31 December 20X6 and briefly state its
meaning. (2 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 40 MCQs CAPITAL STRUCTURE AND FINANCE COSTS
40.1 A company has issued 50,000 equity shares of $0.25 each at a premium of $0.50 per share.
The cash received was correctly recorded but the full amount was credited to the equity share
capital account.
Which of the following journal entries is needed to correct this error?
Debit Credit
$ $
A Share premium account 25,000
Share capital account 25,000
B Share capital account 25,000
Share premium account 25,000
C Share capital account 12,500
Share premium 25,000
Cash 37,500
D Share capital account 37,500
Share premium account 37,500 (2 marks)
40.2 Which of the following journal entries could correctly record a bonus (capitalisation)
issue of shares?
Debit Credit
$ $
A Cash 100,000
Equity share capital 100,000
B Equity share capital 100,000
C Share premium 100,000
D Retained earnings 100,000
Share premium 40,000 (2 marks)
40.3 Which of these statements about limited liability companies is/are correct?
(1) A company might make a bonus (capitalisation) issue to raise funds for expansion
(2) Both realised and unrealised gains and losses are included in the statement of
comprehensive income required by IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
40.4 Which of the following statements about financial accounting for a limited liability
company is true?
A A revaluation surplus arises when a non-current asset is sold at a profit

B The market value of an equity share is not recorded
C The notes to the financial statements must contain details of all adjusting events as
defined in IAS 10 Events after the Reporting Period
D The dividend paid in the year cannot exceed the profits of that year (2 marks)
40.5 Evon issued 1,000,000 equity shares of $0.25 each at a price of $1·10 per share, all received
in cash.
What should be the accounting entries to record this issue?
A Debit: Cash $1,100,000

Credit: Share capital $250,000
Share premium $850,000
B Debit: Share capital $250,000
Share premium $850,000
Credit: Cash $1,100,000
C Debit: Cash $1,100,000
Credit: Share capital $1,100,000
D Debit: Cash $1,100,000
Credit: Share capital $250,000
Retained earnings $850,000
(2 marks)
40.6 At 1 July 20X6 a limited liability company’s capital structure was as follows:
$
Equity share capital (of $0.50 each) 500,000
In the year ended 30 June 20X7 the company made the following share issues:
1 January 20X7: A bonus issue of one share for every four in issue at that date, using the
share premium account.
1 April 20X7: A rights issue of one share for every ten in issue at that date, at $1·50 per
share.
What will be the balances on the company’s share capital and share premium accounts
at 30 June 20X7 as a result of these issues?
Share capital Share premium

$ $
A 687,500 650,000
B 675,000 375,000
C 687,500 400,000
D 687,500 150,000 (2 marks)
40.7 Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) A company might make a rights issue if it wished to raise more equity capital
(2) A rights issue might increase the share premium account whereas a bonus issue is
likely to reduce it
(3) A rights issue will always increase the number of shareholders in a company
whereas a bonus issue will not
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
40.8 Where should dividends paid to equity shareholders be shown in a company’s published
A In other comprehensive income

B In the statement of financial position
C In the statement of changes in equity
D In the statement of profit or loss (2 marks)
40.9 At 30 June 20X6 a company had $1m 8% loan notes in issue. Interest is paid half-yearly on
30 June and 31 December.
On 30 September 20X6 the company redeemed $250,000 of these loan notes at par, and paid
the interest due to that date.
On 1 April 20X7 the company issued $500,000 7% loan notes at par. Interest is payable half-
yearly on 31 March and 30 September.
What figure should appear in the company’s statement of profit or loss for finance costs
for the year ended 30 June 20X7?
A $88,750
B $82,500
C $73,750
D $65,000 (2 marks)
40.10 Diamond issues 250,000 equity shares with a nominal value of $2 each at a price of $3.55
each for cash.
Which of the following sets of entries would be made to record this transaction?
A Cr Bank $887,500, Dr Share capital $500,000, Dr Share premium $387,500

B Dr Bank $887,500, Cr Share capital $250,000, Cr Share premium $637,500
C Dr Bank $887,500, Cr Share capital $500,000, Cr Share premium $387,500
D Cr Bank $887,500, Dr Share capital $250,000, Dr Share premium $637,500
(2 marks)
40.11 The following balances have been extracted from Saracen’s trial balance at 31 December
20X6:
Debit Credit
$ $
Retained earnings at 1 January 20X6 4,695,600
10% Loan notes issued in 20X3 1,300,000
Loan note interest paid 65,000
Profit for the year ended 31 December 20X6 is $520,000. Income tax for the year has been
estimated at $156,000.
What is the figure for retained earnings in Saracen’s statement of financial position as
at 31 December 20X6?
A $4,929,600
B $4,994,600
C $5,059,600
D $5,215,600 (2 marks)
40.12 Floyd made a rights issue of 150,000 $1 equity shares at price of $1.20 per share.
What is the correct journal to record this?

Dr Cr
$ $
A Bank 180,000
B Bank 180,000
C Bank 180,000
D Bank 150,000
Share capital 120,000 (2 marks)
40.13 The following information is available about a company’s dividends:

$
20X6
September Paid final dividend for the year ended
30 June 20X6 (declared August 20X6) 600,000
20X7
March Paid interim dividend for the year ended30 June 20X7 250,000
September Paid final dividend for the year ended
30 June 20X7 (declared August 20X7) 750,000
How should these dividends be recognised in the company’s profit or loss for the year
ended 30 June 20X7 and its statement of financial position as at that date?
Profit or loss Statement of

for the period financial position
A $1,000,000 deduction $750,000 liability
B $850,000 deduction $nil
C $nil $750,000 liability
D $nil $nil (2 marks)
40.14 Which TWO items in the statement of financial position would change immediately
following an issue of redeemable preference shares?
(1) Cash
(2) Retained earnings
(3) Finance cost
(4) Equity
(5) Long-term debt
A 1 and 5
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 4
D 3 and 5 (2 marks)
40.15 Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to a rights issue made by a
company?
(1) A rights issue capitalises the company’s reserves, which can be a disadvantage, as
this can reduce the amount of reserves available for future dividends
(2) A rights issue is offered to the company’s existing shareholders and is usually at a
discounted price compared to the nominal value of a share
Statement 1 Statement 2
A Correct Correct
B Correct Incorrect
C Incorrect Correct
D Incorrect Incorrect (2 marks)
40.16 During the year to 30 September 20X6 K Co made the following payments:
(1) $40,000 interest on $800,000 10% loan notes issued on 1 January 20X6. Interest is
payable on 30 June and 31 December
(2) $12,000 dividend on 200,000 $1 6% irredeemable preference shares
(3) $5,000 dividend on 100,000 $1 5% redeemable preference shares
What should be the finance cost in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30
September 20X6?
A $45,000
B $60,000
C $65,000
D $77,000 (2 marks)
40.17 Shane Co has the following share capital in issue at 31 March 20X7:
30,000 2% $1 irredeemable preference shares

20,000 4% $1 redeemable preference shares
100,000 $0.50 equity shares
What amount will be included as equity capital in the statement of financial position at
31 March 20X7?
A $130,000
B $70,000
C $80,000
D $100,000 (2 marks)
40.18 Problem Co makes a 1 for 5 bonus issue using the share premium account to the extent that it
is possible. Immediately before the bonus issue, the company had the following equity
balances:
$
Share capital ($1 shares) 100,000
What is the balance on the retained earnings account after the bonus issue has been
recorded?
A $460,000
B $465,000
C $440,000
D $455,000 (2 marks)
(36 marks)
Question 41 RESERVES AND ISSUES
(a) The term “reserves” is frequently found in the statement of financial position of a company.
Required:
(i) Explain the meaning of “reserves” in this context.
(ii) Give two examples of reserves and explain how each of your examples comes
into existence. (3 marks)
(b) A company’s share capital may be increased by a bonus (capitalisation) issue or a rights issue.
Required:
Define “bonus issue” and “rights issue” and explain the fundamental difference between
these two types of share issue. (3 marks)
(6 marks)
Question 42 ARMANI
At 31 December the capital structure of Armani was as follows:

$000
Equity share capital ($0.50 each) 1,500
Share premium 300
Revaluation surplus 150
Retained earnings 75
The directors, none of whom is a qualified accountant, are considering the following proposals:
(a) To make a bonus issue of one equity share for every two held to raise $750,000. (4 marks)
(b) To pay a dividend of $0.05 per share. (1 mark)
(c) To increase the revaluation surplus to $500,000 by revaluing goodwill from $750,000 to
$1,100,000. (1 mark)
(d) To combine all reserves into a single figure. (2 marks)
Required:
Comment on the validity of each of these proposals.

NOTE: The mark allocation is shown against each of the four proposals.
(8 marks)
43.1 According to IAS 2 Inventories, which of the following costs should be included in
valuing the inventories of a manufacturing company?
(1) Carriage inwards

(2) Carriage outwards
(3) Depreciation of factory plant
(4) General administrative overheads
A 1 and 3 only
B 1, 2 and 4
C 2 and 3 only
43.2 Which of the following costs should be included in valuing inventories of finished goods
held by a manufacturing company, according to IAS 2 Inventories?

(4) Accounts department costs relating to wages for production employees
A 1 and 4 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4
43.3 IAS 2 Inventories defines the extent to which overheads are included in the cost of inventories
of finished goods.
Which of the following statements about the IAS 2 requirements relating to overheads
are true?
(1) Finished goods inventories may be valued on the basis of labour and materials cost
only, without including overheads
(2) Factory management costs should be included in fixed overheads allocated to

inventories of finished goods
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
43.4 Which of the following statements about inventory valuation are correct?
(1) The carrying amount should be as close as possible to net realisable value
(2) The valuation of finished goods inventory must include production overheads
(3) Production overheads included in valuing inventory should be calculated by
reference to the company’s normal level of production during the period
(4) In assessing net realisable value, inventory items must be considered separately, or
in groups of similar items, not by taking the inventory value as a whole
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2, 3 and 4
D 3 and 4 only (2 marks)
43.5 Woodpecker has produced an inventory list which, taking account of physical quantities,
gives the following values:
Cost Net realisable value
$ $
5 mm nuts 100 180
7 mm nuts 170 190
10 mm nuts 180 150
8 mm washers 120 160
15 mm bolts 190 170
What is the correct value of inventory to be included in the statement of financial
position?
A $710
B $740
C $760
D $850 (2 marks)
43.6 Sculpart buys and sells original sculptures. An item in inventory at 31 March 20X7 had been
bought four years ago at a cost of $15,000. It had originally been anticipated that this item
would be sold for $22,000. To date the best offer which has been received is $17,500 from an
overseas collector. This offer has been made on the basis that the item will be transported to
the collector. It is estimated that the costs of shipping and insurance are $3,000.
At what amount should Sculpart include the item in inventory at 31 March 20X7?
A $14,500
B $15,000
C $17,500
D $22,000 (2 marks)
43.7 The price of a raw material used by Diska is volatile. At the close of business on 30
November 20X6, the company had 430 kg of the material in inventory. At 1 November there
had been none of the material in inventory. The movements in November were as follows:
Date Receipts Issues
4 Nov 800 kg at $45 per kg
12 Nov 650 kg
23 Nov 720 kg
Using the first in first out (FIFO) method of inventory valuation, what is the value of the
inventory of the material at 30 November 20X6?
A $21,596
B $23,850
C $24,760
D $25,800 (2 marks)
43.8 Josh Franklin buys and sells art and jewellery. At 31 May 20X7 he had three items in
inventory; a painting, a necklace and a pair of earrings. He had bought the painting for
$3,500, believing it was an original by Graham Knuttel. He has since discovered that it is a
good copy and it is unlikely that it would sell for more than $1,200. The necklace was bought
several years ago for $900, while the earrings were bought for $800. The earrings and
necklace are of the same style and could be sold as a set at a combined price of $3,500.
At figure for inventory should be reported in his statement of financial position at 31
May 20X7?
A $7,000
B $5,200
C $4,700
D $2,900 (2 marks)
43.9 Silur buys and restores items of exclusive vintage jewellery. At 31 May 20X7, there were
three items in inventory as follows:
Necklace Bracelet Pendant
$ $ $
Purchase cost 12,000 31,000 45,000
Expected selling price 25,000 38,000 53,000
Restoration costs to date 6,000 5,000 2,000
Further costs before sale 2,000 3,000 1,000
What was the total value of Silur’s inventory at 31 May 20X7?
A $88,000
B $100,000
C $106,000
D $107,000 (2 marks)
43.10 The following figures relate to inventory held at 31 March 20X6:

Product A Product B
Units held 2,000 5,000
Cost per unit $14 $16
Selling price $17 $20
Modifications costing $5 per unit would need to be made to product A to achieve the selling
price of $17.
What is the value of inventory held at 31 March 20X6 in accordance with IAS 2
Inventories?
A $108,000
B $124,000
C $134,000
D $104,000 (2 marks)
(20 marks)
Question 44 SAMPI
Sampi is a manufacturer of garden furniture. The company has consistently used the FIFO (first in, first
out) method in valuing inventory, but it is interested to know the effect on its inventory valuation of
using the continuous weighted average method instead.
At 28 February the company had inventory of 4,000 standard plastic tables, and has calculated its value
on each side of the three bases as:
Unit Total
cost value
Basis $ $
FIFO 16 64,000
Weighted average 13 52,000
During March the movements on the inventory of tables were as follows:
Received from factory:

Production
Number cost per
Date of units unit
$
8 March 3,800 15
22 March 6,000 18
Revenue: Number of
units
12 March 5,000
18 March 2,000
24 March 3,000
28 March 2,000
On a FIFO basis the inventory at 31 March was $32,400.
Required:
Calculate the value of the inventory at 31 March using the continuous weighted average cost.
Note: In arriving at the total inventory values you should make calculations to two decimal places
(where necessary) and deal with each inventory movement in date order.
(5 marks)
Question 45 P, Q & R
(a) A firm buys and sells two models, P and Q. The following unit costs are available (all figures
are in $s and all the costs are borne by the firm):
P Q
Purchase cost 100 200
Delivery costs from supplier 20 30
Delivery costs to customers 22 40
Coloured sales packaging costs 15 18
Selling price 150 300
Required:
Calculate the figure to be included in closing inventory for a unit of each model;
according to IAS 2. (3 marks)
(b) A firm has the following transactions with its product R.
Year 1
Opening inventory: nil
Buys 10 units at $300 per unit
Sells 8 units at $400 per unit
Year 2
Sells 25 units at $400 per unit.
Required:
Calculate on an item by item basis for both year 1 and year 2:
(i) closing inventory;

(ii) sales revenue;
(iii) cost of sales;
(iv) gross profit;
using the FIFO method of inventory valuation. Present all workings clearly. (5 marks)
(8 marks)
Question 46 MCQs Revenue
46.1 Which TWO of the following statements regarding the accruals basis are correct?
(1) Income and expenses are recorded in the financial statements in the periods to
which they relate
(2) All expenses but not income are recognised and accrued for
(3) The effects of transactions and other events are recognised when they occur
(4) Revenue is recognised when it can be matched with expenditure incurred
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
46.2 IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers sets out principles of revenue recognition.
Which of the following are indicators that revenue should be recognised for the sale of
goods?
(1) The seller has transferred physical possession of the goods

(2) The customer has legal title to the asset
(3) The customer has paid for the goods
(4) The customer has the significant risks and rewards of ownership
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
46.3 OC signed a contract to provide office cleaning services to PQ for one year from 1 October
20X6 for $500 per month. The contract required PQ to make a single payment to OC for all
12 months at the beginning of the contract.
OC received $6,000 on 1 October 20X6.
What amount of revenue should OC recognise in its statement of profit or loss for the
year ended 31 March 20X7?
A $nil
B $300
C $3,000 profit
D $6,000 profit (2 marks)
46.4 LP received an order to supply a customer with 10,000 units of product A every month for
two years. The customer had negotiated a low price of $200 per 1,000 units and agreed to pay
$12,000 in advance every six months.
The customer made the first payment on 1 July 20X6 and LP supplied the goods each month
from that date.
LP’s year end is 30 September.
In addition to the effect of cash received, what is the effect of this order on LP’s financial
statements for the year ended 30 September 20X6, in accordance with IFRS 15 Revenue
from Contracts with Customers?
Revenue Statement of financial position
A $6,000 $36,000 trade receivable
B $6,000 $6,000 current liability
C $12,000 $36,000 trade receivable
D $12,000 No effect (2 marks)
46.5 On 31 March 20X7, DT received an order from a new customer, XX, for goods with a sales
value of $900,000. XX enclosed a deposit with the order of $90,000.
On 31 March 20X7, DT had not dispatched any goods. DT is considering the following possible
entries for the transaction in its financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X7:
(1) Include $900,000 in revenue
(2) Include $90,000 in revenue
(3) Do not include any amount in revenue
(4) Recognise a trade receivable for $810,000
(5) Recognise a trade payable for $90,000
How should DT account for this transaction in its financial statements for the year
ended 31 March 20X7 in accordance with IFRS?
A 1 and 4
B 2 and 5
C 3 and 4
D 3 and 5 (2 marks)
(10 marks)
47.1 On 1 January 20X6 a company purchased some plant. The invoice showed:
$
Cost of plant 48,000
Delivery to factory 400
One year warranty covering breakdown during 20X6 800
––––––
49,200
———
Modifications to the factory building costing $2,200 were necessary to enable the plant to be
installed.
What amount should be capitalised for the plant in the company’s records in
accordance with IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment?
A $48,000
B $48,400
C $50,600
D $51,400 (2 marks)
47.2 At 31 December 20X6 Cutie owned a building that had cost $800,000 on 1 January 2006. It
was being depreciated at 2% per year.
On 31 December 20X6 a revaluation to $1,000,000 was recognised. At this date the building
had a remaining useful life of 40 years.
Which of the following pairs of figures correctly reflects the effects of the revaluation?
Depreciation charge for Revaluation surplus
year ending 31 December 20X7 as at 31 December 20X6
$ $
A 25,000 200,000
B 25,000 360,000
C 20,000 200,000
D 20,000 360,000 (2 marks)

(1) All non-current assets must be depreciated
(2) If goodwill is revalued, the revaluation surplus appears in the statement of changes
in equity
(3) If a tangible non-current asset is revalued, all tangible assets of the same class
should be revalued
(4) In a company’s published statement of financial position, tangible assets and
intangible assets must be shown separately
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4 (2 marks)
47.4 Which of the following should be recognised as an asset under IAS 16 Property, Plant
and Equipment?
A The cost of repainting a building

B The replacement of broken windows in a building
C The purchase of a car by a car dealer for re-sale
D Legal fees incurred on the purchase of a building (2 marks)
47.5 Gilmore purchased a machine for $15,000. The transportation costs were $1,500 and
installation costs were $750. The machine broke down at the end of the first month in use and
cost $400 to repair. Gilmore depreciates machinery at 10% each year on cost, assuming no
residual value.
What is the carrying amount of the machine after one year in accordance with IAS 16
Property, Plant and Equipment?
A $13,500
B $14,850
C $15,525
D $15,885 (2 marks)
47.6 Groomers took delivery of a machine on 1 May 20X6. The invoice shows the following:
$
Model XY54 124,760
Delivery 1,250
Installation 3,750
Maintenance 1 May 20X6 – 30 April 20X7 2,400
What is the cost of the machine in accordance with IAS 16 Property, Plant and
Equipment?
A $124,760
B $126,010
C $129,760
D $132,160 (2 marks)
47.7 Resol owns three properties which are revalued at each reporting date. Relevant information
on 30 November 20X6 is as follows:
Head office Warehouse Factory

Carrying amount $700,000 $400,000 $1,200,000
Market value $740,000 $405,000 $1,100,000
At 1 December 20X5, equity included a revaluation surplus of $294,000 which comprised the
following:
Head office Warehouse Factory
$186,000 $68,000 $40,000
What amount of revaluation surplus should appear in Resol’s statement of financial

position at 30 November 20X6?
A $254,000
B $294,000
C $299,000
D $339,000 (2 marks)
47.8 During the year, Clonadde made a profit on the sale of a machine and recognised a surplus on
the revaluation of a building.
Which of the following is correct?
A Both the profit and the surplus are recognised gains

B Both the profit and the surplus are realised gains
C Only the sale of the machine is a recognised gain
D Only the increase in value of the building is a recognised gain (2 marks)
47.9 At 1 May 20X6, Bloxden had a revaluation surplus of $1,257,000 in respect of the revaluation
of its head office.
During the year to 30 April 20X7, the value of the head office was increased by a further
$82,000. In the same period, the value of the company’s factory fell by $90,000.
What amount of revaluation surplus should appear in Bloxden’s statement of financial

position at 30 April 20X7?
A $1,167,000
B $1,249,000
C $1,257,000
D $1,339,000 (2 marks)
47.10 At 30 April 20X6, Mixtures had recognised a revaluation gain of $30,000 in respect of one of
its properties. In the year to 30 April 20X7, the value of another of its properties fell by
$45,000, due to the announcement of a plan to build a new road. The second property had not
previously been revalued.
How are Mixture’s profit for the year and the revaluation surplus as at 30 April 20X7
affected by these valuations?
Profit or loss Revaluation surplus
A Not affected Not affected
B Not affected Reduced by $45,000
C Reduced by $15,000 Reduced to $nil
D Reduced by $45,000 Not affected (2 marks)
47.11 During the last financial year, a building owned by Mountain has increased in value. The
directors wish to recognise this increase.
In which components of the financial statements will the increase be reflected?
(1) Statement of profit or loss
(2) Other comprehensive income
(3) Statement of financial position
(4) Statement of changes in equity
A 1 and 4 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
47.12 On 1 April 20X5, F Co revalued a property. As a result, the annual depreciation charge
increased by $20,000 as compared to depreciation based on historical cost. F Co wishes to
make the allowed transfer of excess depreciation between the revaluation surplus and retained
earnings in accordance with IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment. Immediately before the
transfer was made, retained earnings and the revaluation surplus were as follows:
$
Revaluation surplus 200,000
What should be the balance on the retained earnings and revaluation surplus accounts
after the transfer?
Retained earnings Revaluation surplus

$ $
A 855,000 20,000
B 855,000 180,000
C 895,000 220,000
D 895,000 180,000 (2 marks)
47.13 On 1 October 20X1, X Co purchased a property for $400,000. The property had a useful life
of 40 years and was depreciated on a straight-line basis. On 1 October 20X5, the property
was revalued to $432,000. The remaining useful life at that date was 36 years. The company
wishes to make the allowed transfer of excess depreciation between the revaluation surplus
and retained earnings.
Which of the following correctly records the transfer at 30 September 20X6?
Debit Credit
A Retained earnings $2,000 Revaluation surplus $2,000
B Revaluation surplus $2,000 Retained earnings $2,000
C Retained earnings $12,000 Revaluation surplus $12,000
D Revaluation surplus $12,000 Retained earnings $12,000 (2 marks)
(26 marks)
Question 48 NON-CURRENT ASSETS
(a) Explain the following terms as used by accountants:
(i) asset;
(ii) current asset;
(iii) non-current asset; and
(iv) depreciation. (7 marks)
(b) Explain which of the following may be recognised as an asset of a business for
accounting purposes.
(i) a screwdriver bought some years ago;

(ii) a machine hired by the business;
(iii) the good reputation of the business with its customers. (5 marks)
(c) The non-current assets in the statement of financial position of a limited liability company
have been summarised as follows:
$m
Land at valuation 3
Buildings at cost 1
Plant and equipment – cost 2
depreciation (1.5) 0.5
___ ____
4.5
——
Required:
Explain the meaning of this $4.5 million figure to one of the company’s shareholders and
comment on its relevance from a shareholder’s point of view. (5 marks)
(17 marks)
49.1 IAS 38 Intangible Assets governs the accounting treatment of expenditure on research and
development. The following statements about the provisions of IAS 38 may or may not be
correct:
(1) Capitalised development expenditure must be amortised over a period not exceeding
five years
(2) If all the conditions specified in IAS 38 are met, development expenditure may be
capitalised if the directors decide to do so
(3) Capitalised development costs are shown in the statement of financial position
under the heading of Non-current Assets
(4) Amortisation of capitalised development expenditure will appear as an item in a
company’s statement of changes in equity
Which of these statements is/are true?
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 3 only (2 marks)
49.2 Which of the following statements about goodwill is correct?
A Goodwill may only be revalued to a figure in excess of cost if there is relevant and
reliable evidence to support the revaluation
B Internally-generated goodwill may be capitalised if certain criteria are met
C Purchased goodwill is the difference between the cost of acquiring an entity and the
fair value of its identifiable net assets
D The period over which goodwill is amortised must be disclosed in a note to the
financial statements (2 marks)
49.3 Which of the following statements about intangible assets in company financial
statements is true according to International Financial Reporting Standards?
A Internally-generated goodwill should not be capitalised

B Development expenditure may be capitalised if certain conditions are met
C Research costs must be capitalised if certain conditions are met
D An entity can choose not to recognise purchased goodwill (2 marks)
49.4 Which of the following statements about intangible assets are correct?
(1) If certain criteria are met, research expenditure must be recognised as an intangible
asset
(2) Goodwill may not be revalued upwards
(3) Internally-generated goodwill should not be capitalised
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
49.5 Resdev incurred the following expenditure on research and development in the year to 30
November 20X6:
Project 175 $2.5 million

Project 175 is investigating the link between vitamin deficiency and emotional well-being. If
a link is proven the company may produce a food additive to improve well-being.
Project 254 was completed during the year after a period of 15 months. It has achieved its
aim of reducing the material cost of a new product. Production of the product commenced on
1 September 20X6. The first sales are expected in February 20X7 and the expected life of the
product is four years. The project meets the capitalisation criteria of IAS 38 Intangible Assets.
Project 393 is a joint research project with a leading University.
What amount of research and development expenditure should appear in Resdev’s
statement of profit or loss for the year to 30 November 20X6?
A $2.5 million
B $7.3 million
C $7.4 million
D $8.9 million (2 marks)
49.6 Which of the following statements about intangible assets is/are true?
(1) All intangible assets should be reported in the statement of financial position
(2) Only purchased intangible assets can be reported in the statement of financial position
(3) Goodwill can only be carried in the statement of financial position at cost
A None of the statements

B 2 only
C 1 and 3
D 2 and 3 (2 marks)
49.7 Which of the following correctly state the accounting treatment for research costs and
development expenditure, assuming that any relevant criteria are met?
Research Development
A May be capitalised May be capitalised
B Must be written off May be capitalised
C May be capitalised Must be capitalised
D Must be written off Must be capitalised (2 marks)
49.8 Prior to 30 April 20X6 Marley had paid $300,000 to fund a research project. Following
positive results, it was decided in May 20X6 to spend a further $600,000 to develop the new
product, and production also commenced in May 20X6. The product is expected to have a
commercial life of eight years. The development expenditure meets the criteria for
capitalisation in accordance with IAS 38 Intangible Assets.
What amount should be expensed to profit or loss for the year to 30 April 20X7?
A $nil
B $37,500
C $75,000
D $112,500 (2 marks)
(16 marks)
Question 50 LION
Lion manufactures medicinal drugs. At 1 April 20X6 the following balances existed in the records:
Deferred development expenditure $1,200,000
Project Q. $800,000 is the balance remaining of expenditure totalling $1,000,000 on a completed
project which is being amortised on the straight line basis over 10 years.
Project R. $400,000 is the accumulated costs to 31 March 20X6 of developing a new drug. The
project was completed in January 20X7 and sales of the drug are expected to begin in
July 20X7.
Equipment used in research $300,000 (cost $500,000, depreciation to date $200,000).
During the year ended 31 March 20X7 the following costs were incurred:
Project R Costs to complete $250,000
Project S (a research project) $140,000
Purchase of testing equipment for use in the research department $180,000.
All equipment has an estimated useful life of five years, and a full year’s depreciation is charged in the
year of acquisition.
Required:
(a) Calculate the figures to be included in Lion’s statement of profit or loss for the year
ended 31 March 20X7 and statement of financial position as at that date, and state the
headings under which they will appear. (6 marks)
(b) Prepare the disclosure notes required by IAS 38 Intangible Assets. (An accounting
policy note for research and development expenditure is NOT required.) (6 marks)
(12 marks)
Question 51 AIRCRAFT
A company manufacturing aircraft engages in a number of research and development projects.
At 1 January 20X6 the company’s records showed total capitalised development costs of $18 million
made up as follows:
$000
Project A17: 14,000
This project was completed in 20X5 at a total cost of $16 million
and is being amortised over eight years on the straight line basis,
beginning on 1 January 20X5.
Project J9: 4,000
This project began in 20X4 and the $4 million balance represents
expenditure qualifying for capitalisation to 31 December 20X5
This project is due to be completed in 20X9 ––––––
18,000
––––––
During the year ended 31 December 20X6 the following further expenditure was incurred:
$000
Project J9: Further expenditure qualifying for capitalisation $1,500
Project A20: Investigation into new materials for aircraft construction $3,000
Required:
(a) Calculate the amounts for research and development to be included in the company’s
statement of profit or loss and statement of financial position for the year ended 31
December 20X6. (4 marks)
(b) Discuss the principle accounting concepts applicable to the accounting treatment of
development expenditure. You are NOT required to provide the criteria for recognition
of an intangible asset arising from development in IAS 38 Intangible Assets. (6 marks)
(10 marks)
52.1 Which of the following statements about provisions, contingencies and events after the
reporting period is correct?
A A company expecting future operating losses should make provision for those
losses as soon as it becomes probable that they will be incurred
B Details of all adjusting events after the reporting period must be disclosed by note in
a company’s financial statements
C A contingent asset must be recognised as an asset in the statement of financial
position if it is probable that it will arise
D Contingent liabilities must be treated as actual liabilities and provided for when it is
probable that they will arise, if they can be measured with reliability (2 marks)
52.2 Which of the following statements about contingent assets and contingent liabilities is
true?
(1) A contingent asset should be disclosed by note if an inflow of economic benefits is

probable
(2) A contingent liability should be disclosed by note if it is probable that a transfer of
economic benefits to settle it will be required, with no provision being made
(3) No disclosure is required for a contingent liability if it is less than probable that a
transfer of economic benefits to settle it will be required
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 3 only
D None of these statements (2 marks)
(1) Contingent assets are included as assets in financial statements if it is probable that
they will arise
(2) Contingent liabilities must be provided for in financial statements if it is probable
that they will arise
(3) Details of all adjusting events after the reporting period must be given in notes to
the financial statements
(4) Material non-adjusting events are disclosed by note in the financial statements
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 4
D 3 and 4 (2 marks)
52.4 The following items have to be considered in finalising the financial statements of Borgen:
(1) Borgen offers three-month warranties on all its products. Previous experience
shows that about 5% of sales give rise to a warranty claim
(2) Borgen has guaranteed the overdraft of another company. The likelihood of a
liability arising under the guarantee is assessed as possible
What is the correct treatment of these items in Borgen’s financial statements under
International Financial Reporting Standards?
Item (1) Item (2)

A Recognise a provision Disclose by note only
B Disclose by note only No treatment
C Recognise a provision Recognise a provision
D Disclose by note only Disclose by note only (2 marks)
52.5 On 20 November 20X6, Clifdan received a letter from a customer claiming $250,000 in
compensation for damage caused by one of Clifdan’s products. Clifdan replied to the
customer accepting liability and offering $100,000 in compensation. The customer refused
the offer and is now taking legal action against Clifdan.
Clifdan’s legal advisors have indicated that the case is unlikely to be heard in court for at least
nine months and that the court is likely to award $150,000 in compensation.
What amount should be provided for the claim in the financial statements of Clifdan for
the year to 31 December 20X6?
A $nil
B $100,000
C $150,000
D $250,000 (2 marks)
52.6 Brouha manufactures animal feed. The company accountant is preparing the 20X7 financial
statements and considering the effect of a claim for damages of $50,000 received during the
year. The company has offered the claimant $5,000 to settle the claim. The customer has
declined the offer and made a claim to the court. The company’s legal advisors have noted
that a similar claim was recently rejected in court.
How should the claim be reported in the 20X7 financial statements?
A No disclosure
B Disclosure as a contingent liability
C As a provision of $5,000
D As a provision of $50,000 (2 marks)
52.7 A customer of Pern claims that, on 22 March 20X6, a fault in a product sold by Pern caused
damage to its production line. The customer is seeking damages of $85,000. Pern has
accepted liability and offered to pay $40,000 to repair the damage. The customer has refused
this offer. The matter will be settled in a court case which is scheduled for July 20X7. Pern’s
legal representative has indicated that the court is almost certain to accept the customer’s
claim for $85,000.
How should this matter be dealt with in Pern’s financial statements for the year to 30
April 20X6?
A As a current liability of $40,000
B As a non-current liability of $40,000
C As a current liability of $85,000
D As a non-current liability of $85,000 (2 marks)
52.8 At the reporting date, future obligations to transfer economic benefits may be classified as:
(1) liabilities;
(2) provisions; or
(3) contingent liabilities.
Which of the above are recognised in the statement of financial position?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
(16 marks)
Question 53 RESERVES
Required:
For each of the following pairs of concepts, carefully explain the distinction between the first item
of each pair and the second:
(a) Reserves; cash in hand.

(b) Ownership interest; capital employed.
(c) Liability; expense.
(d) Contingent liability; provision.
(12 marks)
Question 54 MCQs IAS 10 AND IAS 37
54.1 The draft financial statements of a limited liability company are under consideration. The
accounting treatment of the following material events after the reporting period needs to be
determined:
(1) The bankruptcy of a major customer, with a substantial debt outstanding at the end
of the reporting period
(2) A fire destroying some of the company’s inventory (the company’s going concern
status is not affected)
(3) An issue of shares to finance expansion
(4) Sale for less than cost of some inventory held at the end of the reporting period
According to IAS 10 Events after the Reporting Period, which of the above events require
an adjustment to the figures in the draft financial statements?
A 1 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 2 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
54.2 In finalising the financial statements of a company for the year ended 30 June 20X7,
which of the following material matters should be adjusted for?
(1) A customer who owed $180,000 at the 30 June 20X7 went bankrupt in July 20X7
(2) The sale in August 20X7 for $400,000 of some inventory items carried in the
statement of financial position at $500,000
(3) A factory with a value of $3,000,000 was seriously damaged by a fire in July 20X7.
The factory was back in production by August 20X7 but its value was reduced to
$2,000,000
(4) The company issued 1,000,000 equity shares in August 20X7
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4 (2 marks)
54.3 Which of the following events occurring after the reporting period are classified as
adjusting, if material?
(1) The sale of inventories valued at cost at the end of the reporting period for a figure
in excess of cost
(2) A valuation of land and buildings providing evidence of an impairment in value at
the year end
(3) The issue of shares and loan notes
(4) The insolvency of a customer with a balance outstanding at the year end
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
54.4 Which of the following events between the end of the reporting period and the date the
financial statements are authorised for issue must be adjusted in the financial statements?
(1) Declaration of equity dividends
(2) Decline in market value of investments
(3) The announcement of changes in tax rates
(4) The announcement of a major restructuring
A 1 only
B 2 and 4
C 3 only
D None of them (2 marks)
54.5 Which TWO of the following events after the reporting period would normally qualify
as adjusting events according to IAS 10 Events after the Reporting Period?
(1) The bankruptcy of a credit customer with a balance outstanding at the end of the
reporting period
(2) A decline in the market value of investments
(3) The declaration of a dividend on equity shares
(4) The determination of the cost of assets purchased before the end of the reporting
period
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4 (2 marks)
54.6 On 7 November 20X6 there was a fire in the warehouse of Yorkfab, in which inventory
valued at $120,000 was destroyed. This represented 30% of the company’s inventory. Under
the terms of the insurance contract, the insurance company has stated that it will only pay out
the first $30,000 of the claim.
How should this be reported in the financial statements for the year to 31 October 20X6?
Statement of profit or loss Disclosure in the notes

A $nil None
B $nil A loss of $90,000
C $120,000 A receivable of $30,000
D $90,000 loss None (2 marks)
54.7 On 20 May 20X7 the finance director of Orajee reported to the board of directors that the
company’s financial statements for the year to 31 March 20X7 reported a profit of
$3,528,650.
On 26 May 20X7 the directors were informed of the following:
(1) A flood on 25 May 20X7 in one of Orajee’s warehouses damaged inventory valued
at $330,000. All inventory was uninsured against flood damage. It will cost $20,000
to dispose of the damaged items and clear up the affected part of the warehouse
(2) An insurance claim in respect of inventory which was stolen on 2 April 20X7 was
settled for $250,000. The finance director had anticipated that the claim would be
settled for $270,000
What is Orajee’s reported profit for the year to 31 March 20X7 when these events have
been accounted for?
A $3,198,650
B $3,178,650
C $3,428,650
D $3,528,650 (2 marks)
54.8 On 1 December 20X6, after Flower’s draft financial statements for the year to 30 September
20X6 had been prepared, the accountant received a letter regarding an accident which had
taken place on 14 September 20X6.
The accident had destroyed a machine with a carrying amount of $275,000. The first $30,000
of any claim is not covered under the company’s insurance policy. The accountant had
treated this correctly when drafting the financial statements.
The letter now informs Flower that as the accident was due to negligence, the entire loss is
uninsured.
How does the information in the letter affect the draft financial statements?
A $245,000 loss should be disclosed in a note

B $275,000 loss should be disclosed in a note
C $245,000 should be expensed to profit or loss
D $275,000 should be expensed to profit or loss (2 marks)
54.9 On 6 March 20X7, there was a fire in Tingle’s factory. Tingle incurred $125,000 in repairing
the damage. As Tingle had insurance cover, $125,000 was reported as a receivable in the
draft financial statements for the year to 30 April 20X7. In May 20X7, the insurance
company advised that due to non-compliance with the terms of the insurance contract, only
$12,500 of the repair costs would be reimbursed.
Which of the following is the correct accounting treatment for the repair costs in the
financial statements for the year to 30 April 20X7?
A Only a disclosure note is required

B Only an expense of $112,500 should be recognised
C Only a receivable for $12,500 should be recognised
D Both an expense of $112,500 and a receivable for $12,500 should be recognised
(2 marks)
(18 marks)
Question 55 ALUKI
The directors of Aluki, a fashion wholesaler, are reviewing the company’s draft financial statements for
the year ended 30 September 20X6, which show a profit of $900,000 before tax. The following matters
require consideration:
(a) Closing inventory includes:
(i) 3,000 skirts at cost $40,000. Since the year end they have all been sold for $65,000,
with selling expenses of $3,000.
(ii) 2,000 jackets at cost $60,000. Since the year end half the jackets have been sold for
$25,000 (selling expenses $1,800) and the remainder are expected to sell for
$20,000 with selling expenses of $2,000. (2 marks)
(b) An employee dismissed in August 20X6 began an action for damages for wrongful dismissal
in October 20X6. She is claiming $100,000 in damages. Aluki is resisting the claim and the
company’s lawyers have advised that the employee has a 30% chance of success in her claim.
The financial statements currently include a provision for the $100,000 claim. (4 marks)
(c) In October 20X6 a fire destroyed part of the company’s warehouse, with an uninsured loss of
inventory worth $180,000 and damage to the building, also uninsured, of $228,000. The
going concern status of the company is not affected.
The financial statements currently make no mention of the fire losses. (3 marks)
Required:
Explain to the directors how these matters should be treated in the financial statements for the
year ended 30 September 20X6, stating the relevant accounting standards.
(9 marks)
Question 56 QUAPAW
The directors of Quapaw are reviewing the company’s draft financial statements for the year ended 31
December 20X6.
The following material matters are under discussion:
(a) During the year the company has begun selling a product with a one-year warranty under
which manufacturing defects are rectified without charge. Some claims have already arisen
under the warranty. (3 marks)
(b) During the inventory count on 31 December, some goods which had cost $80,000 were found
to be damaged. In February 20X7 the damaged goods were sold for $85,000 by an agent who
received a 10% commission out of the sale proceeds. (3 marks)
Required:
Advise the directors on the correct treatment of these matters, stating the relevant accounting
standard which justifies your answer in each case.
(6 marks)
Question 57 UMBRIA
The directors of Umbria are reviewing the company’s draft financial statements for the year ended 30
June 20X7. The following material matters are under discussion:
(1) After the end of the reporting period one of the company’s factories was seriously damaged
by fire. Insurance will only cover part of the loss suffered. The company’s going concern
status is not affected.
(2) Umbria guaranteed the overdraft of another company in 20X5. No disclosure has been made
in previous financial statements, but events in the latter part of the year ended 30 June 20X7
suggest that it is probable that a liability will fall on Umbria in 20X8.
(3) One of the company’s directors was dismissed in March 20X7 for disclosing confidential
information to a competitor. Umbria then commenced an action against this director, and the
company has been advised that it is probable that substantial damages will be awarded.
(4) One of the company’s buildings was revalued during the year. The directors are uncertain
how the revaluation gain should be included in the financial statements. The gain has been
separately disclosed as an item in the draft statement of profit or loss.
Required:
Explain how each of these four matters should be dealt with in the financial statements for the
year ended 30 June 20X7, stating in each case the relevant accounting standard.
(10 marks)
Question 58 MCQs STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS
58.1 An extract from a statement of cash flows prepared by a trainee accountant is shown below:
$m
Profit before taxation 28
Adjustments for:
Depreciation (9)
––
Operating profit before working capital changes 19
Decrease in inventories 3
Increase in receivables (4)
Increase in payables (8)
––
Cash generated from operations 10
—
Which of the following criticisms of this extract are correct?
(1) Depreciation charges should have been added, not deducted
(2) Decrease in inventories should have been deducted, not added
(3) Increase in receivables should have been added, not deducted
(4) Increase in payables should have been added, not deducted
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
58.2 Which of the following items could appear in a company’s statement of cash flows?
(1) Proposed dividends
(2) Rights issue of shares
(3) Bonus issue of shares
(4) Repayment of loan
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
58.3 A draft statement of cash flows contains the following calculation of net cash inflow from
operating activities:
$m
Operating profit 13
Depreciation 2
Decrease in inventories (3)
Decrease in trade and other receivables 5
Decrease in trade payables 4
–––
Net cash inflow from operating activities 21
Which of the following corrections need to be made to the calculation?

(1) Depreciation should be deducted, not added
(2) Decrease in inventories should be added, not deducted
(3) Decrease in receivables should be deducted, not added
(4) Decrease in payables should be deducted, not added
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
58.4 A company sold a building at a profit.
How should this transaction be treated in the company’s statement of cash flows?
Proceeds of sale Profit on sale

A Cash inflow under Added to profit in calculating cash flow
Financing activities from operating activities
B Cash inflow under Deducted from profit in calculating cash flow
Investing activities from operating activities
C Cash inflow under Added to profit in calculating cash flow from
Investing activities operating activities
D Cash inflow under Deducted from profit in calculating cash flow
Financing activities from operating activities (2 marks)
58.5 APM provides the following note property, plant and equipment in its statement of financial
position:
Cost Depreciation Carrying amount
$000 $000 $000
Opening balance 25 12 13
Additions 15 15
Depreciation 4 (4)
Disposals (10) (8) (2)
––– ––– –––
Closing balance 30 8 22
––– ––– –––
There was a gain on disposal of $3,000.
What is the net cash outflow for investing activities relating to property, plant and
equipment?
A $10,000
B $12,000
C $13,000
D $15,000 (2 marks)
58.6 The following information was extracted from the statements of financial position of Abacus
at 31 December 20X6 and 31 December 20X5:
20X6 20X5
$000 $000
Inventory 120 100
Receivables 175 140
Trade payables 215 175
What is the overall effect of the above on Abacus’s cash flows in the year ended 31
December 20X6?
A $25,000 outflow
B $15,000 outflow
C $15,000 inflow
D $25,000 inflow (2 marks)
58.7 The following extract is from the financial statements of Pompeii at 31 October:
20X6 20X5
$000 $000
Share capital 120 80
Share premium 60 40
Retained earnings 85 68
–––– ––––
265 188
Non-current liabilities
Bank loan 100 150
–––– ––––
365 338
–––– ––––
What is the cash inflow from financing activities to be disclosed in the statement of cash
flows for the year ended 31 October 20X6?
A $10,000
B $27,000
C $60,000
D $110,000 (2 marks)
58.8 Greenfinch has an operating profit which exceeds the net cash inflow from operating
activities.
Which of the following changes over the year could have caused this difference?
A Trade payables increased

B Inventory decreased
C Prepayments decreased
D Trade receivables increased (2 marks)
58.9 During the year to 30 April 20X7 Jaunty had purchased non-current assets which cost
$687,000. The company financed the purchases by taking out loans totalling $597,000, and
paying the balance in cash. In addition, non-current assets with a carrying amount of $75,000
were sold at a loss of $15,000.
What figure should appear for net cash used in investing activities in the statement of
cash flows for the year to 30 April 20X7?
A $537,000
B $627,000
C $672,000
D $687,000 (2 marks)
58.10 At 1 November 20X5 the non-current assets of Field had a carrying amount of $2,758,940.
During the year to 31 October 20X6, assets with a carrying amount of $273,790 were sold at a
loss of $15,850, and new assets costing $568,900 were purchased.
What figure should appear for net cash used in investing cash flows in the statement of
cash flows for the year to 31 October 20X6?
A $257,940
B $295,110
C $310,960
D $568,900 (2 marks)
58.11 The statements of financial position of Jurric at 30 April 20X7 and 20X6 include the
following:
20X7 20X6
$ $
Inventory 193,885 164,843
Payables 62,887 87,996
How should the changes in these amounts be reflected in the statement of cash flows for
the year to 30 April 20X7?
Change in inventory Change in payables

A Inflow Inflow
B Outflow Outflow
C Inflow Outflow
D Outflow Inflow (2 marks)
58.12 At 31 May 20X7 and 20X6 Dron had the following balances:
20X7 20X6
$000 $000
Property, plant and equipment 2,110 1,945
Equity shares, $1 1,200 800
Share premium 760 500
Non-current loans 174 550
The depreciation charge for the year to 31 May 20X7 was $270,000. There were no disposals
of non-current assets during the year.
What figure should appear as the net cash flow from investing activities in the statement
of cash flows for the year to 31 May 20X7?
A $179,000
B $435,000
C $601,000
D $719,000 (2 marks)
(24 marks)
Question 59 CRASH
The statements of financial position of Crash at 31 March 20X7 and 31 March 20X6 were as follows:
20X7 20X6
Reference $000 $000 $000 $000
to notes
Assets
Non-current assets (1)
Cost 10,950 9,000
Accumulated depreciation (3,600) 7,350 (3,300) 5,700
–––––– ––––––
Current assets
Inventories 1,350 1,215
Trade and other receivables 1,290 1,350
Cash 105 2,745 60 2,625
–––––– –––––– –––––– ––––––
Total assets 10,095 8,325
——— ———
Equity
Share capital 3,000 2,250
Share premium account 1,200 750
Revaluation surplus 750 –
Retained earnings 3,045 7,995 2,640 5,640
–––––– ––––––
10% Loan notes (2) 750 1,500
Current liabilities
Trade and other payables 1,080 990
Bank overdraft 270 1,350 195 1,185
–––––– –––––– –––––– ––––––
Total equity and liabilities 10,095 8,325
——— ———
Notes:
(1) Non-current assets
(i) During the year non-current assets, which had cost $1,500,000 and which had a
carrying amount of $300,000 at 31 March 20X6, were sold for $375,000.
(ii) Land acquired in 20X3 was revalued upwards by $750,000 in preparing the
statement of financial position at 31 March 20X7.
(2) Loan notes
Interest is due half-yearly on 30 September and 31 March and was paid on the due dates. The
company repaid $750,000 loan notes on 31 March 20X7.
(3) Profit after interest for the year ended 31 March 20X7 was $405,000. No dividends were paid
during the year.
Required:
(a) Prepare a statement of cash flows for Crash for the year ended 31 March 20X7 using the
indirect method, complying as far as possible with the requirements of IAS 7 Statement
of Cash Flows. (11 marks)
(b) Calculate the gearing ratio and the current ratio for Crash for the two years ended 31
March 20X6 and 20X7. (4 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 60 MARMOT
The following information is available about the transactions of Marmot for the year ended 31
December:
$000
Depreciation 880
Cash paid for expenses 2,270
Increase in inventories 370
Cash paid to employees 2,820
Decrease in receivables 280
Decrease in payables 390
Profit before taxation* 2,370
*Marmot has no interest payable or investment income.
Required:
Calculate Marmot’s net cash flow from operating activities for the company’s statement of cash
flows for the year ended 31 December using:
(a) the direct method;

(b) the indirect method.
(10 marks)
Question 61 RENADA
The summarised financial statements of Renada at 31 October 20X6 and 31 October 20X5 are given
below:
Statements of financial position
31 October
Reference 20X6 20X5
to notes $000 $000 $000 $000
Assets
Non-current assets
(at carrying amount) (1), (2), (3) 1,800 1,000
Current assets
Inventories 1,600 600
Receivables 1,800 1,270
Cash – 3,400 140 2,010
––––– ––––– ––––– –––––
Total assets 5,200 3,010
——— ———
Equity
Equity share capital (4) 600 500
Share premium account (4) 820 420
Revaluation surplus (5) 300 –
Retained earnings 1,080 920
––––– 2,800 ––––– 1,840
Current liabilities
Bank overdraft 260 –
Income tax 40 120
Trade payables 2,100 2,400 1,050 1,170
––––– ––––– ––––– –––––
Total equity and liabilities 5,200 3,010
——— ———
Statements of profit or loss
31 October
20X6 20X5
$000 $000
Gross profit 1,800 2,100
Operating expenses (1,600) (1,500)
–––– ––––
Profit before tax 200 600
Income tax expense (40) (120)
–––– ––––
Profit for the year 160 480
—— ——
Notes
(1) On 1 November 20X5 office equipment that had cost $240,000, with a carrying amount of
$80,000, was sold for $30,000.
(2) The purchase of new non-current assets took place near the end of the year.
(3) The depreciation charge for the year ended 31 October 20X6 was $120,000.
(4) The equity share issue was on 31 October 20X6.
(5) Some of the non-current assets were revalued upwards by $300,000 on 1 November 20X5.
Required:
(a) Prepare a statement of cash flows for Renada for the year ended 31 October 20X6 in
accordance with IAS 7 Statement of Cash Flows. (11 marks)
(b) Calculate the ROCE ratio and the quick ratio for Renada for the two years ended 31
October 20X5 and 20X6. (4 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 62 SIOUX
The following information is available for Sioux:

Statements of financial position at 31 December
20X6 20X5
$000 $000 $000 $000
Assets
Non-current assets
Cost or valuation 11,000 8,000
Accumulated depreciation (5,600) (4,800)
––––– –––––
Carrying amount 5,400 3,200
Current assets
Cash at bank 400 7,600 100 6,800
––––– –––––– ––––– ––––––
13,000 10,000
——— ———
Equity
Equity share capital 1,000 1,000
Revaluation surplus 1,500 1,000
Retained earnings 3,100 5,600 2,200 4,200
––––– –––––
10% Loan notes 3,000 2,000
Current liabilities
Trade payables 3,700 3,200
Income tax 700 4,400 600 3,800
––––– –––––– ––––– ––––––
13,000 10,000
——— ———
Summarised statements of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X6
$000
Profit from operations 2,650
Finance cost (loan note interest) (300)
–––––
2,350
Income tax expense (700)
––––––
Profit for the year 1,650
———
Notes
(1) During the year non-current assets which had cost $800,000, with a carrying amount of
$350,000, were sold for $500,000.
(2) The revaluation surplus arose on the revaluation of some land that was not being depreciated.
(3) The 20X5 income tax liability was settled at the amount provided for at 31 December 20X5.
(4) The additional loan notes were issued on 1 January 20X6. Interest was paid on 30 June and
31 December 20X6.
(5) Dividends paid during the year amounted to $750,000.
Required:
(a) Prepare Sioux’s statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 December 20X6, using the
indirect method, adopting the format in IAS 7 Statement of Cash Flows. (12 marks)
(b) Calculate the current ratio, quick ratio and gearing ratio for Sioux for the year ended 31
December 20X6 if the following transactions occurred on that date:
(i) Customers paid $1,000,000;
(ii) A further $1,000,000 10% loan notes were issued;
(iii) Suppliers were paid $2,000,000. (3 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 63 JOYCE
The statements of financial position of Joyce at 30 June 20X7 and 20X6 are as follows:
Reference 30 June 20X7 30 June 20X6

to notes $000 $000 $000 $000
Non-current assets (carrying amount) 1 148,000 130,000
Current assets
Cash at bank – 4,600
–––––– 35,400 –––––– 26,200
––––––– –––––––
183,400 156,200
––––––– –––––––

Share premium account 5,000 4,000
Retained earnings 1 28,000 18,000
––––––– –––––––
Total equity 157,000 133,000
Non-current liabilities 8% Loan notes 3 10,000 8,000
Current liabilities
Payables 7,100 9,200
Current tax payable 2 8,000 6,000
Bank overdraft 1,300 –
––––– 16,400 ––––– 15,200
––––––– –––––––
183,400 156,200
––––––– –––––––
Notes
(1) The depreciation charge for the year was $13,000,000
(2) $6,200,000 was paid during the year to settle the income tax liability at 30 June 20X6.
(3) The additional loan notes were issued on 1 January 20X7. All interest due was paid on 31
December 20X6 and 30 June 20X7.
(4) Dividends paid during the year totalled $4,000,000.
Required:
Prepare a statement of cash flows for Joyce for the year ended 30 June 20X7, using the indirect
method, complying as far as possible with the requirement of IAS 7 Statement of Cash Flows.
(15 marks)
Question 64 MCQs CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
64.1 At 1 January Barley acquired 100% of the share capital of Corn for $1,400,000. At that date
the share capital of Corn consisted of 600,000 equity shares of $0.50 each and its reserves
were $50,000. On acquisition Corn had some assets whose carrying amount was $230,000
but the fair value was $250,000.
What was goodwill on acquisition?
A $730,000
B $750,000
C $1,030,000
D $1,050,000 (2 marks)
64.2 Gonzo acquired 80% of the share capital of Bamboo a number of years ago. Bamboo has
issued 200,000 $1 shares which had a market price of $3.10 on acquisition. The carrying
amount of Bamboo’s net assets today is $650,000; this is $50,000 higher than it was on
acquisition.
What amount should be shown for non-controlling interest in Gonzo’s consolidated
statement of financial position today?
A $120,000
B $124,000
C $130,000
D $134,000 (2 marks)
64.3 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Dissimilar activities of a parent company and a subsidiary can be a reason for non-
consolidation of the subsidiary
(2) A non-controlling interest must be presented in a consolidated statement of financial

position as a separate line item within equity
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
64.4 Salt owns 100% of Pepper. During the year Salt sold goods to Pepper for a sales price of
$1,044,000, generating a margin of 25%. 40% of these goods had been sold on by Pepper to
external parties at the end of the reporting period.
What adjustment for unrealised profit should be made in Salt’s consolidated financial
statements?
A $83,520
B $104,400
C $125,280
D $156,600 (2 marks)
On 1 January 20X6, Jarndyce acquired 80% of the equity share capital of Skimpole for $576,000. The
statements of financial position of the two companies at 31 December 20X6 were as follows:
Jarndyce Skimpole
$000 $000
Net assets 468 432
Investment in Skimpole 576 –
––––– ––––
1,044 432
––––– ––––
Retained earnings
At 31 December 20X5 144 108
Profit for 20X6 180 144
––––– ––––
1,044 432
––––– ––––
Non-controlling interest is valued at fair value on acquisition, which was $140,000. There has been no
impairment of goodwill since the acquisition took place.
64.5 What amount of goodwill should be included in the consolidated statement of financial
position of Jarndyce as at 31 December 20X6?
A $144,000
B $230,400
C $345,600
D $428,000 (2 marks)
64.6 What is the non-controlling interest in the consolidated statement of financial position of
Jarndyce as at 31 December 20X6?
A $86,400
B $140,000
C $168,800
D $201,600 (2 marks)
64.7 On 1 April 20X1, Woolwich paid $816,000 for 80% of Malta’s $408,000 share capital.
Malta’s retained earnings at that date were $476,000. At 31 March 20X7 the retained
earnings of the companies are:
$000
Woolwich 1,224
Malta 680
Woolwich’s inventory includes goods purchased from Malta for $18,000. Malta makes a
profit at 20% on the cost of all goods sold to Woolwich.
What are the retained earnings in the consolidated statement of financial position of
Woolwich as at 31 March 20X7?
A $1,384,320
B $1,384,800
C $1,387,200
D $1,439,200 (2 marks)
64.8 During the year Subway invoiced $200,000 to its parent company for transfers of goods in
inventory. Transfers were made at a 25% mark-up. At the end of the year the parent still held
60% of the goods in inventory.
What adjustment should be made for unrealised profit in the consolidated financial
statements for the year?
A $16,000
B $24,000
C $30,000
D $40,000 (2 marks)
64.9 Which of the following statements regarding the equity method of accounting is true?
(1) An investment in an associate is always carried at cost
(2) An investor recognises its share of the associate’s profit or loss in profit or loss
A Neither statement
B Statement 1 only
C Statement 2 only
D Both statements (2 marks)
64.10 Which of the following could provide evidence of “significant influence”?

(1) 51% of the voting power of the investee
(2) interchange of management personnel
(3) participation in decisions about dividends
(4) provision of essential technical information
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
64.11 Which of the following statements regarding accounting for associates is true?
(1) Any goodwill relating to an associate is included in the carrying amount of the
investment
(2) An investment in an associate is accounted for using the equity method from the end
of the reporting period in which the associate is acquired
A Neither statement
B Statement 1 only
C Statement 2 only
D Both statements (2 marks)
64.12 Which of the following statements apply when producing a consolidated statement of
financial position?
(1) All intra-group balances should be eliminated
(2) Intra-group profit in year-end inventory should be eliminated
(3) Closing inventory held by subsidiaries needs to be included at fair value
A 1 only
B 1 and 2
C 2 and 3
D 3 only (2 marks)
64.13 At 1 July 20X6 Kipper acquired 25% of the equity share capital of Pike for $960,000 when
the retained earnings of Pike were $1,080,000. Pike appointed two of Kipper’s directors to
the board of Pike.
Both companies prepare financial statements to 31 May each year. The summarised
statement of financial position for Pike at 31 May 20X7 is as follows:
$000
Share capital 1,200
–––––
3,585
––––––
Pike has not issued any new shares since Kipper acquired its holding.
What amount of investment in Pike will appear in the consolidated statement of

financial position of Kipper at 31 May 20X7?
A $896,250
B $960,000
C $1,117,500
D $1,387,500 (2 marks)
64.14 Bram owns 70% of the shares in Stoker. Bram has payables of $244,000. Stoker has
payables of $40,000 of which $6,000 is owed to Bram. Bram has receivables of $360,000
and Stoker has receivables of $150,000.
What amounts should be recorded for consolidated receivables and payables in the
group financial statements of Bram?
Payables Receivables
A $278,000 $504,000
B $278,000 $516,000
C $290,000 $504,000
D $290,000 $516,000 (2 marks)
64.15 Venus acquired 75% of Mercury’s 100,000 $1 equity share capital on 1 November 20X6.
The consideration consisted of $2 cash per share and 1 share in Venus for every 1 share
acquired in Mercury. Venus shares have a nominal value of $1 and a fair value of $1.75. The
fair value of the non-controlling interest was $82,000 and the fair value of net assets acquired
was $215,500.
What should be recorded as goodwill on acquisition of Venus in the consolidated

A $16,500
B $63,375
C $91,500
D $147,750
64.16 On 30 June 20X3 Petra acquired 90% of the share capital of Sabu. The non-controlling
interest had a fair value of $450,000.
Extracts from the statements of financial position of Sabu at 30 June 20X3 and 30 June 20X7
are shown below:
30 June 20X3 30 June 20X7
$ $
Share premium account 200,000 200,000
Retained earnings 3,200,000 4,000,000
What figure for non-controlling interest should appear in the consolidated statement of
financial position as at 30 June 20X7?
A $420,000
B $450,000
C $500,000
D $530,000
64.17 At 31 December 20X6 the following require inclusion in a company’s separate financial
statements:
(1) In January 20X7 the company received $6,000 for management charges from a
subsidiary company covering the six months to 31 December 20X6
(2) On 1 January 20X6 the company made a loan of $9,000 to an associate, repayable
on 1 January 20X7, charging interest at 3% per year. On the due date the loan,
together with the whole of the interest due was repaid
(3) The company has paid $12,000 in 20X6 for software licences covering the year
ending 31 July 20X7
For these items, what total figure should be included in current assets in the company’s
separate statement of financial position at 31 December 20X6?
A $13,270
B $19,270
C $22,270
D $27,270
64.18 During the last three years Harvert had held 400,000 equity shares in Jamee. Jamee has
$500,000 shares of $0.50 each in issue. The finance director of Harvert is also a director of
Jamee.
How should the investment in Jamee be treated in the consolidated financial statements
of Harvert?
A As a non-current asset investment

B As a current asset investment
C As an associate
D As a subsidiary (2 marks)
64.19 Which of the following statements regarding group accounting is/are correct?
(1) Only the group’s share of the assets of a subsidiary is included in the consolidated
statement of financial position
(2) Only the group’s share of the net assets of an associate is reflected in the
consolidated statement of financial position
(3) Share capital in a consolidated statement of financial position includes the share
capital of both the parent and the subsidiary
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 3 only
D None of the statements (2 marks)
64.20 During the last financial year, Orius acquired 44% of the equity shares of Eerus. Under the
terms of the acquisition, the finance director of Orius was appointed to the board of directors
of Eerus.
How should Orius account for its interest in Eerus in the consolidated financial
statements?
A As a subsidiary, using acquisition accounting

B As a subsidiary, using equity accounting
C As an associate, using acquisition accounting
D As an associate, using equity accounting (2 marks)
64.21 Panther Co acquired 80% of the equity shares in Seal Co on 31 August 20X6. The statements
of profit or loss of the two companies for the year ended 31 December 20X6 showed:
Panther Co Seal Co
$ $
Revenue 100,000 62,000
Cost of sales 25,000 16,000
During October 20X6, sales of $6,000 were made by Panther Co to Seal Co. None of these
items remained in inventory at the year end.
What is the consolidated revenue for Panther Group for the year ended 31 December
20X6?
A $156,000
B $118,667
C $144,800
D $114,667 (2 marks)
64.22 Honey Co acquired 75% of Bee Co on 1 April 20X6, paying $2 for each equity share
acquired. The fair value of the non-controlling interest at 1 April 20X6 was $300. Bee Co’s
individual financial statements as at 30 September 20X6 included:
$
Statement of financial position
Equity share capital ($1 each) 1,000
Retained earnings 710
––––––
1,710
———
Statement of profit or loss
Profit after tax for the year 250
Profit accrued evenly throughout the year.
What is the goodwill on acquisition on 1 April 20X6?
A $715
B $90
C $517
D $215 (2 marks)
(44 marks)
Question 65 HAYDN & STRAUSS
Haydn acquired 75% of the share capital of Strauss on 1 January 20X3 when the balance on retained
earnings was $24,000 and there was no revaluation surplus. Strauss has not issued or redeemed any
share capital since 1 January 20X3.
Their respective statements of financial position as at 31 December 20X6 are as follows:
Haydn Strauss
$ $
Non-current assets
Tangible 131,500 144,000
Investment in Strauss 93,500 –
_______ _______
225,000 144,000
Current assets 57,000 110,400
________ ________
282,000 254,400
———— ————
Equity share capital, $1 50,000 36,000

Share premium – 24,000
Retained earnings 150,000 120,000
_______ _______
250,000 192,000
Current liabilities 32,000 62,400
________ ________
282,000 254,400
———— ————
Non-controlling interest is valued at fair value, which is based on the market price of Strauss’s shares,
which on 1 January 20X3 was $3.50.
At the year end the current liabilities of Strauss include an amount payable to Haydn of $3,000 which
related to some goods purchased three months ago.
Required:
(a) Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Haydn group as at 31
December 20X6. (11 marks)
(b) Haydn sold goods to Strauss during the year, at a profit, and Strauss still held one quarter of
these goods at the year end.
Consolidated revenue should be calculated using which of the following formulae?
A Haydn + 75% Strauss – 100% intra-group revenue

B Haydn + 100% Strauss – 25% intra-group revenue
C Haydn + 100% Strauss – 100% intra-group revenue
D Haydn + 75% Strauss – 25% intra-group revenue (2 marks)
(c) Haydn is considering acquiring a number of equity shares in Bach.
Which TWO of the following would indicate that Haydn has significant influence over
Bach?
(1) Haydn has the ability to dictate strategic policy

(2) There is an interchange of managerial personnel between the two companies
(3) Haydn provides essential technical assistance to Bach
(4) Haydn has control of the board of directors
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4 (2 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 66 DUBLIN & BELFAST
The following are the draft statements of financial position of Dublin and its subsidiary Belfast as at
31 December 20X6:
Dublin Belfast
Assets $ $ $ $
Non-current assets
Tangible assets 157,000 82,000
Investments: Belfast 58,000
Others 12,000
Current assets
Cash at bank and in hand 8,000 25,150
Trade receivables 96,800 46,900
Inventory 73,200 35,200
______ ______
178,000 107,250
_______ _______
405,000 189,250
_______
———
Equity
Share capital ($1 shares) 250,000 50,000
Retained earnings 32,000 40,000
_______
282,000 111,250
Non-current liabilities: 6% Loan 20,000
Current liabilities
Trade payables 123,000 58,000
_______ _______
405,000 189,250
_______
———
Notes:
(1) Dublin acquired 40,000 shares in Belfast on 1 January 20X5 for a cost of $58,000 when the
balances on Belfast’s reserves were:
$
Revaluation surplus –
(2) Non-controlling interest is valued at fair value, which was $14,500 on 1 January 20X5.
(3) At 31 December 20X6 Belfast’s inventory included $12,000 of goods purchased from Dublin.
Dublin earns a gross profit of 25% on sales.
(4) At 31 December 20X6 Dublin’s trade receivables include $28,000 due from Belfast and
Belfast’s trade payables include $28,000 due to Dublin.
Required:
Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X6 of Dublin.
(15 marks)
Question 67 HELIOS AND LUNA
Helios acquired 80% of the equity share capital of Luna for $700,000 on 1 July 20X4, when the
retained profits of Luna amounted to $60,000. There have been no movements on Luna’s share capital
or share premium account since that date.
At 30 June 20X7 the summary statements of financial position of the two companies were as follows:
Helios Luna
$000 $000
Tangible non-current assets 280 490
Investment in Luna 700
Net current assets 130 260
–––––– ––––
1,110 750
——— ——

Share premium account 350 200
–––––– ––––
1,110 750
——— ——
Net current assets include intra-group account balances that have been agreed between Helios and
Luna. At 30 June 20X7 $27,000 was due from Helios to Luna.
Luna has some land whose fair value is $20,000 greater than its carrying amount on acquisition.
Non-controlling interest is valued at fair value on acquisition, which was $179,000.
Required:
(a) Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position of Helios and its subsidiary as at
30 June 20X7. (11 marks)
(b) The following table shows factors to be considered when determining whether a parent-
subsidiary relationship exists.
Factor Description
A Greater than 50% of equity shares held by investor
B Ability to control board of directors
C Participation in policy-making processes
D Material transactions between the two entities
E Interchange of managerial personnel
F Non-controlling interest
G Provision of essential technical assistance
H 100% of equity shares held by investor
Required:
Which of the above factors A to H illustrate the existence of a parent-subsidiary

relationship? (4 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 68 BRADSHAW & MARTIN
You are presented with the following information for Bradshaw and its subsidiary, Martin:
Statements of profit or loss for the year ended 31 October 20X6
Bradshaw Martin
$000 $000
Revenue 125,000 77,900
Cost of sales (65,000) (38,500)
––––––– –––––––
Distribution costs (6,750) (8,050)
Administrative expenses (17,500) (9,780)
Finance costs – (20)
Income from Martin: Loan note interest 15 –
Dividends 5,200 –
––––––– –––––––
Profit before tax 40,965 21,550
Income tax expense (19,250) (10,850)
––––––– –––––––
Profit for the year 21,715 10,700
––––––– –––––––
The following information is also available:
(i) Bradshaw purchased 80% of the share capital of Martin on 1 November 20X5 for
$34,000,000. At that date, Martin’s equity consisted of 23,150,000 $1 equity shares and
retained earnings of $5,338,000.
(ii) It is group policy to value the non-controlling interest at fair value. The fair value of the non-
controlling interest at the acquisition date was $7,408,000.
(iii) Bradshaw owns $150,000 of Martin’s $200,000 loan notes. The annual interest rate on the
loan notes is 10%.
(iv) During the year ended 31 October 20X6 Bradshaw sold goods to Martin for $15,000,000.
Bradshaw made a profit on these goods of $2,500,000. Martin still has all of these goods in
inventory at 31 October 20X6.
(v) All Martin’s dividends of $6,500,000 were paid in the financial year ended 31 October 20X6.
Required:
(a) Calculate the goodwill arising on the acquisition of Martin as at 1 November 20X5.
(3 marks)
(b) Prepare the consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 October 20X6.
(8 marks)
(c) The following table shows factors to be considered when determining whether a parent-
associate relationship exists.
Factor Description
A Greater than 80% of equity shares held by investor
B Holding six of eight positions on the board of directors
C Participation in policy-making processes
D Material transactions between the two entities
E Interchange of managerial personnel
F Existence of non-controlling interest
G Provision of essential technical assistance
H 40% of preference shares held by investor
Required:
Which of the above factors A to H illustrate the existence of a parent-associate

(15 marks)
Question 69 MCQs INTERPRETATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
69.1 Which of the following are reasons why financial statement analysis is useful to
investors?
(1) To monitor current investments or to plan future ones

(2) Because past performance is often a good indicator of future performance
(3) Because future trends can then be accurately predicted
(4) To assess the risk associated with their expected returns
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
69.2 Which of the following will be of least concern to a company’s providers of loan finance?
A Current share price

B Profitability
C Short-term liquidity
D Solvency (2 marks)
69.3 Which of the following are true of trend analysis?
(1) It uses changes in monetary amount and percentage terms to identify patterns
(2) It concentrates on the relative size of current assets
(3) It examines changes over time
(4) It examines the relationships of percentage changes to each other
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
69.4 Which of the following are short-term liquidity ratios?
(1) Current ratio

(2) Inventory turnover
(3) Gearing ratio
(4) Quick ratio
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4 (2 marks)
69.5 Gormenghast’s current ratio has been calculated as 1.2. However, it has now been discovered
that closing inventory has been understated by $24,000 and opening inventory has been
overstated by $24,000.
What impact have these misstatements made on the calculations of Gormenghast’s

current ratio and inventory days?
Current ratio Inventory days

A Higher Higher
B Higher Lower
C Lower Higher
D Lower Lower (2 marks)
69.6 In a period of rising prices Andreas has decided to value inventory at average cost rather than
FIFO. Inventory levels remain unchanged.
What impact does this decision have on the gross margin and current ratio?
Gross margin Current ratio

A Higher Higher
B Higher Lower
C Lower Higher
D Lower Lower (2 marks)
69.7 Which ONE of the following formulae correctly expresses the relationship between the
return on capital employed (ROCE), net profit margin (NPM) and asset turnover (AT)?
A ROCE = NPM ÷ AT
B ROCE = NPM + AT
C ROCE = NPM × AT
D ROCE = NPM – AT (2 marks)
69.8 What is the effect on working capital of an increase in inventories of $500, a decrease in
the bank balance of $600 and an increase in payables of $1,400?
A $1,500 decrease
B $1,300 decrease
C $1,300 increase
D $1,500 increase (2 marks)
69.9 The Statement of financial position of Jardino includes the following information:
$
Non-current assets 219,650
Current liabilities 64,290
What is the amount of working capital?
A $60,510
B $64,290
C $124,800
D $280,160 (2 marks)
69.10 Aeon uses the first in, first out (FIFO) method of inventory valuation; Baco uses the average
cost (AVCO) method. Over the last year, the unit cost of items purchased has been falling.
There are no other factors that may affect the inventory turnover ratio derived from the
published financial statements.
Which of the following statements regarding the inventory turnover ratio is correct?
A Aeon will have a shorter inventory turnover period than Baco

B Baco will have a shorter inventory turnover period than Aeon
C The inventory turnover period for both companies will be the same
D The method of inventory valuation will not affect inventory turnover (2 marks)
69.11 The financial statements of a company show that during the past year the company has:
(1) Raised a long term loan to finance the purchase of non-current assets
(2) Reduced the value of closing inventory
How are the current ratio and gearing affected in comparison to last year?
Current ratio Gearing

A Increased Decreased
B Decreased Increased
C Decreased Decreased
D Increased Increased (2 marks)
69.12 In the last financial year, the net profit margin of Grippa was 14.7% and asset turnover was
2.3 times.
What was the company’s return on capital employed for the financial year?
A It cannot be calculated on the information given

B 17%
C 33.81%
D 6.39% (2 marks)
69.13 The following information relates to Light Co and Murky Co:

Light Co Murky Co
Equity $1,500,000 $1,500,000
Profit before interest and tax $100,000 $100,000
Gearing ratio 25% 35%
Both companies borrow money at an interest rate of 5% and no new loans have been taken
out during the year.
Based on this information, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A Murky Co’s interest cover is higher than Light Co’s

B Light Co’s interest cover is higher than Murky Co’s
C Light Co and Murky Co have the same interest cover
D It is not possible to draw any conclusions regarding interest cover from the
information provided (2 marks)
(26 marks)
Question 70 BETA
Beta is reviewing the financial statements of two companies, Zeta and Omega. The companies trade as
wholesalers, selling electrical goods to retailers on credit. Their statements of profit or loss for the year
ended 31 March 20X7 are as follows:
Zeta Omega
$000 $000 $000 $000
Sales revenue 4,000 6,000
Cost of sales
Opening inventory 200 800
Purchases 3,200 4,800
Less: Closing inventory 400 800
_____ _____
3,000 4,800
_____ _____
Expenses:
Distribution costs 200 150
Administrative expenses 290 250
Interest paid 10 400
____ ____
500 800
____ ____
Profit before tax 500 400
Taxation 120 90
____ ____
Profit for the year 380 310
—— ——
Statement of financial position as at 31 March 20X7
Zeta Omega
$000 $000 $000 $000
Assets
Tangible non-current assets
Warehouse and office buildings 1,200 5,000
Equipment and vehicles 600 1,000
_____ _____
1,800 6,000
Current assets
Inventories 400 800
Trade receivables 800 900
Other receivables 150 80
Cash at bank 100
_____ _____
1,350 1,880
______ ______
3,150 7,880
——— ———
Equity
Share capital 1,000 1,600
_____ _____
1,950 2,890
Non-current loan (interest 10% per annum) 4,000
Current liabilities
Other payables 80 100
Overdraft 200
Taxation 120 90
_____ _____
1,200 990
______ ______
3,150 7,880
——— ———
Required:
(a) Calculate the following for Zeta and Omega:
(i) Two measures of profitability;

(ii) Two short-term liquidity ratios;
(iii) Three efficiency ratios. (7 marks)
(b) Based on the ratios you have calculated in (a), compare the profitability, liquidity and
efficiency of the two companies. (5 marks)
(c) Omega is much more highly geared than Zeta.
Explain the implications of this for the two companies. (3 marks)
(15 marks)
Question 71 WEDEN
The summarised financial statements of Weden, a manufacturing company, are shown below:
Statements of profit or loss

Year ended Year ended
31 March 20X7 31 March 20X6
$000 $000 $000 $000
Sales revenue 4,000 3,200
Cost of sales
Purchases 3,200 1,800
_____ _____
3,500 2,600
less: Closing inventory 500 300
_____ _____
(3,000) (2,300)
_____ _____
Gross profit 1,000 900
Expenses (450) (400)
Interest paid (200) (100)
______ ______
Profit 350 400
——— ———
Statements of financial position
31 March 20X7 31 March 20X6

$000 $000 $000 $000
Assets
Non-current assets 4,000 1,970
Current assets
Inventory 500 300
Receivables – trade 800 600
Prepayments 70 60
Cash 10 50
_____ _____
1,380 1,010
______ ______
5,380 2,980
——— ———
Equity
Share premium account 200 200
Retained earnings 1,100 750
_____ _____
1,900 1,550
10% Loan notes 2,000 1,000
Current liabilities
Payables – trade 1,400 380
Accruals 80 1,480 50 430
_____ ______ _____ ______
5,380 2,980
——— ———
Required:
(a) Calculate the following five ratios for each of the two years:
(i) return on capital employed;

(ii) return on equity;
(iii) current ratio;
(iv) inventory turnover (use closing figures);
(v) number of days’ purchases in trade payables. (5 marks)
(b) Comment briefly on the changes in the company’s results and position between the two
years, mentioning possible causes for the changes. (5 marks)
(10 marks)
Question 72 APILLON
Extracts from the financial statements of Apillon for the years ended 31 March 20X6 and 20X7 are
given below:
Year ended 31 March
Statement of profit or loss 20X7 20X6
$000 $000 $000 $000
Revenue (Note 1) 3,800 3,100
Cost of sales
Purchases (Note 2) 2,580 2,080
——— ———
3,120 2,440
Less: closing inventory 720 540
——— (2,400) ——— (1,900)
——— ———
Expenses (1,100) (900)
——— ———
Profit 300 300
——— ———
Year ended 31 March

Statement of financial position 20X7 20X6
$000 $000 $000 $000
Current assets
Inventory 720 540
Trade receivables 700 450
—— 1,420 —— 990
Current liabilities
Bank overdraft 170 860 20 430
—— ——
Notes:
(1) Revenue includes cash sales $100,000 in 20X7 ($300,000 in 20X6).

(2) All purchases are on credit.
Required:
(a) Calculate the following for each of the two years:
(i) Current ratio;

(ii) Quick ratio (acid test);
(iii) Inventory turnover period (use closing inventory);
(iv) Average period of credit allowed to customers;
(v) Average period of credit taken from suppliers.
Calculate items (iii), (iv) and (v) in days. (5 marks)
(b) Make four brief comments on the changes in the position of the company as revealed by
the changes in these ratios and/or in the given figures from the financial statements.
(4 marks)
(9 marks)
SPECIMEN EXAM
Section A – ALL 35 questions are compulsory and MUST be attempted
1 Which of the following calculates a sole trader’s net profit for a period?
A Closing net assets + drawings – capital introduced – opening net assets

B Closing net assets – drawings + capital introduced – opening net assets
C Closing net assets – drawings – capital introduced – opening net assets
D Closing net assets + drawings + capital introduced – opening net assets
2 Which of the following explains the imprest system of operating petty cash?
A Weekly expenditure cannot exceed a set amount

B The exact amount of expenditure is reimbursed at intervals to maintain a fixed float
C All expenditure out of the petty cash must be properly authorised
D Regular equal amounts of cash are transferred into petty cash at intervals
3 Which of the following statements are TRUE of limited liability companies?
(1) The company’s exposure to debts and liability is limited

(2) Financial statements must be produced
(3) A company continues to exist regardless of the identity of its owners
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
4 Annie is a sole trader who does not keep full accounting records. The following details relate
to her transactions with credit customers and suppliers for the year ended 30 June 20X6:
$
Trade receivables, 1 July 20X5 130,000
Trade payables, 1 July 20X5 60,000
Discounts allowed 1,400
Contra between payables and receivables ledgers 2,000
Trade receivables, 30 June 20X6 181,000
Trade payables, 30 June 20X6 84,000
What figure should appear for purchases in Annie’s statement of profit or loss for the
A $325,840
B $330,200
C $331,760
D $327,760
5 Which TWO of the following errors would cause the total of the debit column and the
total of the credit column of a trial balance not to agree?
(1) A transposition error was made when entering a sales invoice into the sales day
book
(2) A cheque received from a customer was credited to cash and correctly recognised in
receivables
(3) A purchase of non-current assets was omitted from the accounting records
(4) Rent received was included in the trial balance as a debit balance
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4
6 At 31 December 20X5 the following require inclusion in a company’s financial statements:
(1) On 1 January 20X5 the company made a loan of $12,000 to an employee, repayable
on 1 January 20X6, charging interest at 2% per year. On the due date she repaid the
loan and paid the whole of the interest due on the loan to that date.
(2) The company paid an annual insurance premium of $9,000 in 20X5, covering the
year ending 31 August 20X6.
(3) In January 20X6 the company received rent from a tenant of $4,000 covering the six
months to 31 December 20X5.
For these items, what total figures should be included in the company’s statement of
financial position as at 31 December 20X5?
A Current assets $10,000 Current liabilities $12,240

B Current assets $22,240 Current liabilities $nil
C Current assets $10,240 Current liabilities $nil
D Current assets $16,240 Current liabilities $6,000
7 A company’s statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X5 showed a net
profit of $83,600. It was later found that $18,000 paid for the purchase of a motor van had
been debited to the motor expenses account. It is the company’s policy to depreciate motor
vans at 25% per year on the straight line basis, with a full year’s charge in the year of
acquisition.
What would the net profit be after adjusting for this error?
A $106,100
B $70,100
C $97,100
D $101,600
8 Xena has the following working capital ratios:

20X9 20X8
Current ratio 1·2:1 1·5:1
Receivables days 75 days 50 days
Payables days 30 days 45 days
Inventory turnover 42 days 35 days
Which of the following statements is correct?
A Xena’s liquidity and working capital has improved in 20X9

B Xena is receiving cash from customers more quickly in 20X9 than in 20X8
C Xena is suffering from a worsening liquidity position in 20X9
D Xena is taking longer to pay suppliers in 20X9 than in 20X8
9 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) A statement of cash flows prepared using the direct method produces a different
figure to net cash from operating activities from that produced if the indirect method
is used
(2) Rights issues of shares do not feature in a statement of cash flows
(3) A surplus on revaluation of a non-current asset will not appear as an item in a
statement of cash flows
(4) A profit on the sale of a non-current asset will appear as an item under cash flows
from investing activities in the statement of cash flows
A 1 and 3 only
B 3 and 4 only
C 2 and 4 only
D 3 only
10 A company receives rent from a large number of properties. The total received in the year
ended 30 April 20X6 was $481,200.
The following were the amounts of rent in advance and in arrears at 30 April 20X5 and 20X6:
30 April 20X5 30 April 20X6

$ $
Rent received in advance 28,700 31,200
Rent in arrears (all subsequently received) 21,200 18,400
What amount of rental income should appear in the company’s statement of profit or
loss for the year ended 30 April 20X6?
A $486,500
B $460,900
C $501,500
D $475,900
11 Which of the following are differences between sole traders and limited liability
companies?
(1) A sole trader’s financial statements are private and never made available to third
parties; a company’s financial statements are sent to shareholders and may be
publicly filed
(2) Only companies have share capital
(3) A sole trader is fully and personally liable for any losses that the business might
make
(4) Drawings would only appear in the financial statements of a sole trader
A 1 and 4 only
B 2, 3 and 4
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 3 and 4
12 Which of the following statements is true?
A The interpretation of an entity’s financial statements using ratios is only useful for
potential investors
B Ratios based on historical data can predict the future performance of an entity
C The analysis of financial statements using ratios provides useful information when
compared with previous performance or industry averages
D An entity’s management will not assess an entity’s performance using financial ratios
13 A company’s motor vehicles cost account at 30 June 20X6 is as follows:

Motor vehicles – cost
$ $
Balance b/f 35,800 Disposal 12,000
Additions 12,950 Balance c/f 36,750
–––––– ––––––
48,750 48,750
–––––– ––––––
What opening balance should be included in the following period’s trial balance for
Motor vehicles – cost at 1 July 20X6?
A $36,750 Dr
B $48,750 Dr
C $36,750 Cr
D $48,750 Cr
14 Which TWO of the following items must be disclosed in the note to the financial
statements for intangible assets?
(1) The useful lives of intangible assets capitalised in the financial statements
(2) A description of the development projects that have been undertaken during the period
(3) A list of all intangible assets purchased or developed in the period
(4) Impairment losses written off intangible assets during the period
A 1 and 4
B 2 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 1 and 2
15 Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Capitalised development expenditure must be amortised over a period not exceeding
five years
(2) Capitalised development costs are shown in the statement of financial position
under the heading of non-current assets
(3) If certain criteria are met, research expenditure must be recognised as an intangible
asset
A 2 only
B 2 and 3
C 1 only
D 1 and 3
16 The following transactions relate to Rashid’s electricity expense ledger account for the year
ended 30 June 20X9:
$
Prepayment brought forward 550
Cash paid 5,400
Accrual carried forward 650
What amount should be charged to the statement of profit or loss in the year ended 30
June 20X9 for electricity?
A $6,600
B $5,400
C $5,500
D $5,300
17 At 30 June 20X5 a company’s allowance for receivables was $39,000. At 30 June 20X6 trade
receivables totalled $517,000. It was decided to write off debts totalling $37,000 and to
adjust the allowance for receivables to the equivalent of 5% of the trade receivables based on
past events.
What figure should appear in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 June
20X6 for receivables expense?
A $61,000
B $52,000
C $22,000
D $37,000
18 The total of the list of balances in Valley’s payables ledger was $438,900 at 30 June 20X6.
This balance did not agree with Valley’s payables ledger control account balance. The
following errors were discovered:
(1) A contra entry of $980 was recorded in the payables ledger control account, but not
in the payables ledger
(2) The total of the purchase returns daybook was undercast by $1,000
(3) An invoice for $4,344 was posted to the supplier’s account as $4,434
What amount should Valley report in its statement of financial position for accounts
payable at 30 June 20X6?
A $436,830
B $438,010
C $439,790
D $437,830
19 According to IAS 2 Inventories, which TWO of the following costs should be included in
valuing the inventories of a manufacturing company?

(4) General administrative overheads
A 1 and 4
B 1 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 2 and 3
20 Prisha has not kept accurate accounting records during the financial year. She had opening
inventory of $6,700 and purchased goods costing $84,000 during the year. At the year end
she had $5,400 left in inventory. All sales are made at a mark up on cost of 20%.
What is Prisha’s gross profit for the year?
A $13,750
B $17,060
C $16,540
D $20,675
21 At 31 December 20X4 a company’s capital structure was as follows:
$
Ordinary share capital 125,000
(500,000 shares of 25c each)
In the year ended 31 December 20X5 the company made a rights issue of 1 share for every 2
held at $1 per share and this was taken up in full. Later in the year the company made a
bonus issue of 1 share for every 5 held, using the share premium account for the purpose.
What was the company’s capital structure at 31 December 20X5?
Ordinary share capital Share premium account

A $450,000 $25,000
B $225,000 $250,000
C $225,000 $325,000
D $212,500 $262,500
22 Which of the following should appear in a company’s statement of changes in equity?
(1) Total comprehensive income for the year

(2) Amortisation of capitalised development costs
(3) Surplus on revaluation of non-current assets
A 1, 2 and 3
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1 and 2 only
23 The plant and machinery account (at cost) of a business for the year ended 31 December
20X5 was as follows:
20X5 $ 20X5 $
1 Jan Balance b/f 240,000 31 Mar Transfer to disposal account 60,000
30 Jun Cash purchase of plant 160,000 31 Dec Balance c/f 340,000
––––––– –––––––
400,000 400,000
––––––– –––––––
The company’s policy is to charge depreciation at 20% per year on the straight line basis,
with proportionate depreciation in the years of purchase and disposal.
What should be the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December 20X5?
A $68,000
B $64,000
C $61,000
D $55,000
24 The following extracts are from Hassan’s financial statements:
$
Profit before interest and tax 10,200
Interest (1,600)
Tax (3,300)
–––––––
Profit after tax 5,300
–––––––
Reserves 15,600
–––––––
35,600
Loan liability 6,900
–––––––
42,500
–––––––
What is Hassan’s return on capital employed?
A 15%
B 29%
C 24%
D 12%
25 Which of the following statements about sales tax is/are true?
(1) Sales tax is an expense to the ultimate consumer of the goods purchased
(2) Sales tax is recorded as income in the accounts of the entity selling the goods
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
26 Q’s trial balance failed to agree and a suspense account was opened for the difference. Q
does not keep receivables and payables control accounts. The following errors were found in
Q’s accounting records:
(1) In recording an issue of shares at par, cash received of $333,000 was credited to the
ordinary share capital account as $330,000
(2) Cash of $2,800 paid for plant repairs was correctly accounted for in the cash book
but was credited to the plant asset account
(3) The petty cash book balance of $500 had been omitted from the trial balance
(4) A cheque for $78,400 paid for the purchase of a motor car was debited to the motor
vehicles account as $87,400.
Which of the errors will require an entry to the suspense account to correct them?
A 1, 2 and 4 only
B 1, 2, 3 and 4
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only
27 Prior to the financial year end of 31 July 20X9, Cannon Co has received a claim of $100,000
from a supplier for providing poor quality goods which have damaged the supplier’s plant and
equipment. Cannon Co’s lawyers have stated that there is a 20% chance that Cannon will
successfully defend the claim.
Which of the following is the correct accounting treatment for the claim in the financial
statements for the year ended 31 July 20X9?
A Cannon should neither provide for nor disclose the claim

B Cannon should disclose a contingent liability of $100,000
C Cannon should provide for the expected cost of the claim of $100,000
D Cannon should provide for an expected cost of $20,000
28 Gareth, a sales tax registered trader purchased a computer for use in his business. The invoice
for the computer showed the following costs related to the purchase:
$
Computer 890
Additional memory 95
Delivery 10
Installation 20
Maintenance (1 year) 25
––––––
1,040
Sales tax (17·5%) 182
––––––
Total 1,222
––––––
How much should Gareth capitalise as a non-current asset in relation to the purchase?
A $1,193
B $1,040
C $1,222
D $1,015
29 The following bank reconciliation statement has been prepared by a trainee accountant:
$
Overdraft per bank statement 3,860
Less: Unpresented cheques 9,160
–––––––
5,300
Add: Outstanding lodgements 16,690
–––––––
Cash at bank 21,990
–––––––
What should be the correct balance per the cash book?
A $21,990 balance at bank as stated

B $3,670 balance at bank
C $11,390 balance at bank
D $3,670 overdrawn
30 The IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting identifies characteristics which
make financial information faithfully represent what it purports to represent.
Which of the following are examples of those characteristics?
(1) Accruals
(2) Completeness
(3) Going concern
(4) Neutrality
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 1 and 4
31 The following control account has been prepared by a trainee accountant:

$ $
Opening balance 308,600 Cash 147,200
Credit sales 154,200 Discounts allowed 1,400
Cash sales 88,100 Interest charged on overdue accounts 2,400
Contras 4,600 Irrecoverable debts 4,900
Allowance for receivables 2,800
–––––––– –––––––
555,500 555,500
–––––––– –––––––
What should the closing balance be when all the errors made in preparing the
receivables ledger control account have been corrected?
A $395,200
B $304,300
C $309,500
D $307,100
32 Which of the following material events after the reporting date and before the financial
statements are approved are adjusting events?
(1) A valuation of property providing evidence of impairment in value at the reporting
date
(2) Sale of inventory held at the reporting date for less than cost
(3) Discovery of fraud or error affecting the financial statements
(4) The insolvency of a customer with a debt owing at the reporting date which is still
outstanding
A 1, 2 and 4 only
B 1, 2, 3 and 4
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only
33 A company values its inventory using the FIFO method. At 1 May 20X5 the company had
700 engines in inventory, valued at $190 each. During the year ended 30 April 20X6 the
following transactions took place:
20X5
1 July Purchased 500 engines at $220 each
1 November Sold 400 engines for $160,000
20X6
1 February Purchased 300 engines at $230 each
15 April Sold 250 engines for $125,000
What is the value of the company’s closing inventory of engines at 30 April 20X6?
A $188,500
B $195,500
C $166,000
D $106,000
34 Amy is a sole trader and had assets of $569,400 and liabilities of $412,840 on 1 January
20X8. During the year ended 31 December 20X8 she paid $65,000 capital into the business
and she paid herself wages of $800 per month.
At 31 December 20X8, Amy had assets of $614,130 and liabilities of $369,770.
What is Amy’s profit for the year ended 31 December 20X8?
A $32,400
B $23,600
C $22,800
D $87,800
35 Bumbly Co extracted the trial balance for the year ended 31 December 20X7. The total of the
debits exceeded the credits by $300.
Which of the following could explain the imbalance?
A Sales of $300 were omitted from the sales day book
B Returns inward of $150 were extracted to the debit column of the trial balance
C Discounts received of $150 were extracted to the debit column of the trial balance
D The bank ledger account did not agree with the bank statement by a debit of $300
(70 marks)
Section B – BOTH questions are compulsory and MUST be attempted
1 Keswick Co acquired 80% of the share capital of Derwent Co on 1 June 20X5. The
summarised draft statements of profit or loss for Keswick Co and Derwent Co for the year
ended 31 May 20X6 are shown below:
Keswick Co Derwent Co
$000 $000
Revenue 8,400 3,200
Cost of sales (4,600) (1,700)
–––––– ––––––
Operating expenses (2,200) (960)
–––––– ––––––
Profit before tax 1,600 540
Tax (600) (140)
–––––– ––––––
Profit for the year 1,000 400
–––––– ––––––
During the year Keswick Co sold goods costing $1,000,000 to Derwent Co for $1,500,000.
At 31 May 20X6, 30% of these goods remained in Derwent Co’s inventory.
Required:
(a) Prepare the Keswick group consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year
ended 31 May 20X6.
Note: The statement should stop once the consolidated profit for the year has been
determined. The amounts attributable to the non-controlling interest and equity
owners of Keswick are not required. Show all workings as credit will be awarded to
these as appropriate. (7 marks)
(b) Which of the following formulas describes the amount to be entered in the
consolidated statement of profit or loss as “Profit attributable to: Equity owners
of Keswick Co”?
A Group profit after tax – non-controlling interest

B Group profit after tax + non-controlling interest
C Keswick Co’s profit after tax
D Group profit after tax (2 marks)
(c) What amount should be shown in the consolidated statement of profit or loss
for the non-controlling interest? (2 marks)
(d) The following table shows factors to be considered when determining whether a
parent–subsidiary relationship exists.
Factor Description
A Significant influence
B Control
C Non-controlling interest
D Greater than 50% of the equity shares being held by an investor
E 100% of the equity shares being held by an investor
F Greater than 50% of the preference shares being held by an investor
G 50% of all shares and all debt being held by an investor
H Greater than 50% of preference shares and debt being held by an investor
Required:
Which of the above factors A to H illustrate the existence of a parent–subsidiary

(15 marks)
2 Malright, a limited liability company, has an accounting year end of 31 October. The
accountant is preparing the financial statements as at 31 October 20X7 and requires your
assistance. The following trial balance has been extracted from the general ledger
Account Dr Cr
$000 $000
Buildings at cost 740
Buildings accumulated depreciation, 1 November 20X6 60
Plant at cost 220
Plant accumulated depreciation, 1 November 20X6 110
Bank balance 70
Revenue 1,800
Net purchases 1,140
Inventory at 1 November 20X6 160
Cash 20
Trade payables 250
Trade receivables 320
Administrative expenses 325
Allowance for receivables at 1 November 20X6 10
Retained earnings at 1 November 20X6 130
Equity shares, $1 415
–––––– ––––––
2,925 2,925
–––––– ––––––
The following additional information is also available:
 The allowance for receivables is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables. The

allowance for receivables is treated as an administrative expense.
 Plant is depreciated at 20% per annum using the reducing balance method and
buildings are depreciated at 5% per annum on their original cost. Depreciation is
treated as a cost of sales expense.
 Closing inventory has been counted and is valued at $75,000.
 An invoice of $15,000 for energy costs relating to the quarter ended 30 November
20X7 was received on 2 December 20X7. Energy costs are included in
administrative expenses.
Required:
Prepare the statement of profit or loss and the statement of financial position of
Malright Co as at 31 October 20X7.
(15 marks)
Answer 1 MCQs ACCRUALS AND PREPAYMENTS
Item Answer Justification
1.1 B (7/12 × 8,400) + (5/12 × 12,000) = 9,900 income; 1,000 paid in advance in sundry
payables (a customer’s advance payment is a liability)
1.2 D (2 × 5,000) + (10 × 6,000) = $70,000
1.3 C Rent received account

$ $
Balance 16,900 Balance 24,600
Income (balancing figure) 316,200 Cash 318,600
Balance 28,400 Balance 18,300
––––––– –––––––
361,500 361,500
––––––– –––––––
1.4 C Insurance account

$ $
Prepayment 8,200 Expense 36,700
Paid 38,000 Prepayment (38,000 × 3/12) 9,500
––––––– –––––––
46,200 46,200
––––––– –––––––
1.5 C Rent receivable account

$ $
Arrears b/f 3,800 Prepaid b/f 2,400
Income for the year 84,000 Received 83,700
Prepaid c/f 3,000 Arrears c/f 4,700
––––––– –––––––
90,800 90,800
––––––– –––––––
5
1.6 D /12 × 24,000 + 7/12 × 30,000 = 27,500; 2/3 × 7,500 = $5,000
12
1.7 A Profit or loss: /18 × 60,000 = $40,000; Prepayment: 3/12 × 40,000 = $10,000
1.8 B Opening prepayment of rent increases (i.e. debit)office expenses and closing
prepayment decreases (i.e. credit). Total office expenses is $89,100 + $9,500 – (2/3
× $15,300) = $88,400
1.9 A Rent account

$ $
Advances 7,720 Receipts received 22,850
Profit or loss (balancing figure) 19,620 Arrears 4,490
–––––– ––––––
27,340 27,340
–––––– ––––––
1.10 C $1,800 × 9/12 + $2,000 × 3/12 = $1,850
1.11 C $2,400 × 7/12 = $1,400 charge to profit or loss

$2,400 × 5/12 = $1,000 prepayment in statement of financial position
1.12 C Charge to profit or loss = opening prepayment + (5/12 × 36,000). Closing

prepayment = 7/12 × 36,000 = $21,000
1.13 C Tutorial note: The adjustment for prepayment of an expense increases profit and
creates a current asset in the statement of financial position. Conversely, the
adjustment for deferred income (i.e. income received but not yet earned) will
decrease profit and create a current liability.
$
Prepaid insurance expense ($12,000 × 3/12) 3,000
Prepaid rental income ($6,000 × 2/3) (4,000)
–––––
(1,000)
–––––
The net effect is a reduction in profit and net assets (i.e. assets less liabilities).
Answer 2 MCQs DEPRECIATION AND DISPOSALS

2.1 A Difference between 20,000 and (20,000 – 4,000) × 20% × 6/12 = $18,400
2.2 B (160,000 × 20%) + (40,000 × 20% × ¾) + (50,000 × 20% × ½) = $43,000
2.3 D (240,000 × 20%) + (160,000 × 20% × 6/12) – (60,000 × 20% × 9/12) = $55,000
2.4 B 83,600 + 18,000 – 4,500 = $97,100
2.5 A (280,000 × 20%) + (48,000 × 20% × 9/12) + (36,000 × 20% × 4/12) –

– (14,000 × 20% × 6/12) = $64,200
2.6 B $
Draft net profit 83,600
Add: purchase price 18,000
Less: additional depreciation (18,000 × 25%) (4,500)
––––––
Adjusted profit 97,100
––––––
2.7 C The internal administration costs cannot be treated as part of the asset’s cost, so in
the first two years’ depreciation of 2 × 1/5($96,720 + $3,660) = $40,152 was
charged. This means that the whole of the remaining carrying amount of $60,228
must be expensed on the revision of the asset’s useful life.
2.8 B Disposal
$ $
Cost 23,500 Accumulated depreciation 11,985
23,500 – (23,500 × 70% × 70%)
Part-exchange (28,200 – 19,350) 8,850
Loss on disposal (balancing figure) 2,665
–––––– ––––––
23,500 23,500
–––––– ––––––
2.9 B The carrying amount is $626,000 – $368,165 = $257,835.
Cost
$ $
B/fwd 614,500
Additions 11,500 C/fwd 626,000
––––––– ––––––
626,000 626,000
––––––– ––––––
Accumulated depreciation
$ $
B/fwd (614,500 – 399,960) 214,540
C/fwd 368,165 Charge (614,500 × 25%) 153,625
––––––– –––––––
368,165 368,165
––––––– –––––––
Tutorial note: There is no depreciation charged in the year to 31 March 20X7 for
the asset acquired at the year end.
2.10 B $
Cost 12,000
Accumulated depreciation ($12,000 × 20% × 3 years) 7,200
–––––
Carrying amount 4,800
Trade-in value = disposal proceeds 5,000
–––––
Profit on disposal 200
–––––
Tutorial note: There is no depreciation in the year of sale according to the
company’s depreciation policy.
2.11 D Annual depreciation = ($52,000 – $4, 000) ÷ 8 = $6,000

Carrying amount after five years = $52,000 – (5 × $6,000) = $22,000
Gain on disposal = $35,000 – $22,000 = $13,000
2.12 C Fall in carrying amount of machine = $40,000 – $15,000 = $25,000
2.13 B 31 December
20X3 80,000 × 75% = 60,000
20X4 60,000 × 75% = 45,500
20X5 45,000 × 75% = 33,750
20X6 33,750 × 75% = 25,312
2.14 D Carrying amount after four years’ depreciation $

200,000 × (100% – 25%)4 63,281
Proceeds 90,000
––––––
Profit 26,719
––––––
Alternative (long-hand) calculation of carrying amount
Cost 200,000
Year 1 depreciation @ 25% (50,000)
––––––
––––––
––––––
––––––
––––––
2.15 B The depreciation charge in the first year on both the reducing balance and straight
line bases is $22,000. Using the reducing balance basis, the charge in the second
year is $16,500 (W). The accountant incorrectly charged $22,500 (i.e. $5,500 more
than it should have been). Correction of the error will therefore increase profit.
WORKING
$
Cost 88,000
––––––
––––––
––––––
2.16 B Depreciation for the year is $427,400 (W) × 25% = $106,850.
WORKING
$
Initial cost 680,500
Add: Cost of asset purchased in year 32,800
Less: Accumulated depreciation (285,900)
–––––––
–––––––
Answer 3 MCQs RECEIVABLES AND PAYABLES
3.1 A 28,500 + ((5% × (868,500 – 28,500) – 38,000) = $32,500
3.2 C 146,000 + 218,000 – 83,000 = $281,000
3.3 B Statement of financial position: (864,000 – 13,000) – 5% × 851,000 = $808,450

Profit or loss: 13,000 – (48,000 – 42,550) = $7,550
3.4 B Receivables ledger control account

$ $
Opening balance 138,400 Cash received from credit
customers 78,420
Credit sales 80,660 Contras against credit
balances in payables ledger 1,000
Dishonoured cheques 850 Discounts allowed 1,950
––––––– –––––––
219,910 219,910
––––––– –––––––
Tutorial note: The debit for discounts allowed is to the revenue account.
3.5 D The supplier (Beta) is owed $500 less than Alpha’s books show, in respect of the
credit note.
3.6 A Allowance account

$ $
Profit or loss 15,000 B/f 39,000
C/f (5% × (517,000 – 37,000) 24,000
––––––– –––––––
39,000 39,000
––––––– –––––––
Charge for year: Write-off $37,000 less reduction in allowance $15,000 = $22,000
3.7 A 3,980 – 270 – 180 – 320 = 3,210 Therefore, difference is 100.
3.8 A (430,000 × 5%) – 18,000 + 28,000 = $31,500
3.9 A Payables ledger control account

$ $
Cash paid to suppliers 988,400 Opening balance 384,600
Discounts received 12,600 Purchases 963,200
Contras with amounts
receivable in receivables ledger 4,200
–––––––– ––––––––
1,347,800 1,347,800
–––––––– ––––––––
3.10 A The allowance needs to be debited with $6,546 – $5,060 = $1,486 and $1,860 needs
to be credited to trade receivables. The net debit to the irrecoverable debts expense
account is therefore $1,860 – $1,486 = $374
Allowance for receivables
$ $
Irrecoverable debts expense 1,486 Balance b/fwd 6,546
Balance c/fwd ($12,650 × 0.4) 5,060
–––––– ––––––
6,546 6,546
–––––– ––––––
Irrecoverable debt expense

$ $
Write off 1,860 Allowance (decrease) 1,486
Profit or loss 374
–––––– ––––––
1,860 1,860
–––––– ––––––
3.11 A The expense is $2,251 (W2) and the figure for receivables is $578,645 – $250 =
$578,395.
WORKINGS
(1) Allowance for receivables

$ $
Irrecoverable debts expense 950 B/fwd (Cusack) 1,200
C/fwd (Dancer) 250
–––––– ––––––
1,200 1,200
–––––– ––––––
(2) Irrecoverable debts expense

$ $
Expense before adjustments 3,290 Allowance 950
Recovered debt 89
–––––– ––––––
3,290 3,290
–––––– ––––––
3.12 C Carrying amount of closing inventory ($572,904 – $27,485 + $15,000) = $560,419.
Tutorial note: This is debited and credited to the closing inventory account; the
debit is for the statement of financial position and the credit is for the statement of
profit or loss.
3.13 A The correcting journals in full are:

$ $
Dr Receivables 180
Cr Cash 180
Dr Sales (2 × 12) 24
Cr Receivables 24
So the net correcting journal is: $ $

Dr Receivables 156
Dr Sales 24
Cr Cash 180
3.14 B $
Opening balance 1,200
Goods received 1,700
Good returned (100)
Payment (1,615)
Discount received ($1,700 – $1,615 or 5% × $1,700) (85)
–––––
–––––
3.15 A Receivables = 4,000,000 × 7.5% = $300,000

Closing allowance for irrecoverable debts = 3% × $300,000 = $9,000
Opening allowance = 9,000 ÷ 125% = $7,200
Increase in allowance = $9,000 – $7,200 = $1,800 charge to profit or loss.
3.16 A
$
Increase in allowances (W1) 8,966
Irrecoverable debt recovered (2,000)
–––––
Receivables expense 6,966
–––––
WORKINGS
(1) Allowance a/c

$ $
Balance b/f 1,900
Balance c/f (W2) 10,866
–––––– ––––––
10,866 10,866
–––––– ––––––
Balance b/f 10,866
(2) Allowance at the year end

$
Specific 2,400
Further allowance (2% (425,700 – 2,400)) 8,466
––––––
10,866
––––––
Tutorial note: Remember that any “general” allowance must be calculated on total
receivables (as per the control a/c) LESS any account balances for which specific
allowance has been made.
3.17 A
$
Balance as per the receivables ledger 633,700
Error (1) correction (400)
–––––––
Corrected balance (per control a/c) 633,291
–––––––
Tutorial note: A control a/c summarises the totals of large numbers of transactions
in the general ledger. As part of the double entry bookkeeping system it is used to
prove the accuracy of the ledger accounting system. A receivables ledger is a
memorandum of individual transactions and amounts owed by each customer.
(This helps with credit control and cash flow management.)
To answer such questions, it is necessary to consider each error and decide if and
how it affects the receivables ledger, then make the correct adjustment. In this case
only errors (1) and (2) concern individual postings. Error (3) relates to a total
which does not concern the receivables ledger.
3.18 B Tutorial note: One way to approach this question is to consider each of the errors
and determine to what extent they affect the payables control ledger, if at all.
Remember that the balance on a control a/c is made up of postings of totals.
$
Balance as per the payables control a/c 147,000
Error (3) correction ($23,000 – $32,000) (9,000)
–––––––
Corrected balance (per list of payables ledger balances) 137,750
–––––––
(1) An omission from a day book means that the transaction will be missing
from the ledger (of individual a/c balances) and a total that is posted to the
control a/c.
(2) A duplicate posting of an invoice to the supplier’s (individual) a/c in the

payables ledger will require correction to the list of balances. The
payables control a/c is not affected.
(3) A transposition error in posting a total must be corrected in the control a/c.
Answer 4 MCQs INVENTORY
4.1 A 386,400 – 3,800 (loss on (1) = $382,600

4.2 B 836,200 – 8,600 + 700 + (14,000 × 70%) = $838,100
4.3 B Opening inventory is expensed in the period and closing inventory is the current
asset carried forward in the statement of financial position.
4.4 B Units Value

$ $
1 August b/f 2,400 10 24,000
14 November Sell (900) 10 (9,000)
–––––– ––––––
1,500 10 15,000
28 January Buy 1,200 16.75 20,100
–––––– ––––––
2,700 13 35,100
7 May Sell (1,800) 13 (23,400)
–––––– ––––––
31 July c/fwd 900 13 11,700
–––––– ––––––
Answer 5 MCQs BOOKS OF PRIME ENTRY AND CONTROL ACCOUNTS
5.1 C Receivables ledger control account

$ $
Opening 308,600 Cash received 147,200
Interest charged 2,400 Irrecoverable debts 4,900
Contras 4,600
Closing 307,100
––––––– –––––––
465,200 465,200
––––––– –––––––
Tutorial note: A receivables allowance is not recorded in the control account.
The corresponding debit entry for the discounts allowed is to the revenue account.
5.2 B C is also true of a non-imprest system.
5.3 A Receivables ledger control account

$ $
Balance 614,000 Cash 311,000
Sales 301,000 Discounts allowed 3,400
Interest 1,600 Contras 8,650
Balance 561,550
––––––– –––––––
916,600 916,600
––––––– –––––––
5.4 B Receivables ledger control account

$ $
Balance 318,650 Cash 181,140
Credit sales 161,770 Irrecoverable debts 1,390
Interest 280 Sales returns 3,990
Discounts allowed 1,240
Balance 292,940
––––––– –––––––
480,700 480,700
––––––– –––––––
5.5 A This describes the meaning of an imprest system.

Tutorial note: (2) is a disadvantage of a non-imprest system. (3) is not true
because the imprest balance should equal physical cash + petty cash vouchers at
any point in time. (4) is a non-imprest system.
5.6 D Receivables ledger control account

$ $
Opening receivables 148,200 Cash received from customers 819,300
Sales (balancing figure) 880,600 Discounts allowed 16,200
Returns from customers 38,700
Closing receivables 153,100
–––––––– ––––––––
1,028,800 1,028,800
–––––––– ––––––––
5.7 A When Marius buys goods on credit, Johan enters this in the sales day book. Contra
entries are then made between the sales ledger and purchase ledger accounts.
5.8 C The transposition error is $17,150 – $11,750 = $5,400. As the understatement is in

the purchase day book total it affects only the control account, which is understated
by $5,400 and so should be increased by that amount.
5.9 B An overcast of the total of invoices in the sales day book means that $782 will be
debited to the control account but not to the receivables ledger.
5.10 A $
1 July float 150
Cash received from staff 25
Cheque cashed for employee (90)
Cash received from company bank account 500
Expenses paid from petty cash (385)
––––
1st August float 200
––––
5.11 B Sales ledger control account
$ $
Sales 250,000 Bank 225,000
Dishonoured cheque 3,500 Returns inwards 2,500
Contra 4,000
––––––– ––––––
253,500 253,500
––––––– ––––––
5.12 B $
Opening float 300
Window cleaning (20)
Stationery (100)
Coffee and biscuits (145)
Photocopying receipts 20
Miscellaneous sales receipt 60
From bank 260
––––
Closing float 375
––––
5.13 D Sales tax received from customers is $30,000 (15% × $200,000). Purchases made
$161,000 inclusive of sales tax (i.e. gross)  $161,000 × 15/115 = $21,000 sales tax
charged by suppliers. $9,000 balance is a liability (i.e. credit).
5.14 B Sales tax a/c

$ $
Balance b/f (recoverable) 2,000 Sales (600,000 × 20/120) 100,000
Purchases (450,000 × 20%) 90,000
Balance c/f 8,000
––––––– –––––––
100,000 100,000
———— ————
Balance b/f 8,000
Tutorial note: A business that is registered for sales tax collects it on behalf of the
tax authorities. It will usually pay over the tax calculated on its sales less the tax it
can recover on its purchases. Care must be taken in the calculations to distinguish
between “gross” amounts (i.e. including tax) and “net” amounts (i.e. excluding
tax). As a collector of sales tax the business does not incur a sales tax expense nor
earn sales tax income. A recoverable amount is an asset (i.e. a debit balance).
5.15 D (1) is a transposition error in the individual ledger, therefore the adjustment must be
made in the receivables ledger. (2) is a cash sale, so should not have been posted to
individual receivables ledger and needs to be removed.
Answer 6 MCQs JOURNAL ENTRIES
6.1 C Debits and credits are the wrong way around in A and B, and discount received is a
credit entry.
6.2 B Debits and credits are the wrong way around in A, C and D.
6.3 B Debit and credit are the wrong way round in A and D. Shares are $0.50 so amount
should be $200,000.
6.4 A Goods take for own use are a reduction in purchases.
6.5 C As some goods have been taken by the owner the purchases figure should be
reduced (credited) which will increase profit. There is no effect on assets of
liabilities (the debit entry is to drawings which is a reduction in capital).
Tutorial note: Understand that closing inventory (an asset) is not affected because
this is based on measurement of goods held at the reporting date. If goods have
been taken they cannot be in closing inventory.
6.6 A In the absence mentioning a drawings account capital should be debited, since
drawings reduce the amount of the owner’s interest in the business. The amount of
the correcting entry would be $76,200 (i.e. 2 × $38,100).
Tutorial note: The error is an error of principle; the amount that should have been
debited against capital (a balance in the statement of financial position) was
debited as an expense (in the statement of profit or loss). Therefore there is no
possibility of balance arising on a suspense account.
6.7 D Expenses are recorded net (excluding the sales tax) but the gross amount (including
sales tax) is owed to the supplier and is shown in payables.
Tutorial note: The sales tax is not an expense as it will be recovered from the tax
authority (e.g. as a deduction against the amount of sales tax collected on sales).
Answer 7 ROOK
Dr Cr
$ $
(a) Salaries account 2,000
Correction of error – undercasting of debit side of salaries account.
(b) Motor vehicles 6,000

Wren accounts receivable ledger account 7,500
Acceptance of car in settlement for trade debt, and writing off of balance.
(c) Factory buildings 46,100

Purchases 27,600
Wages 18,500
Materials and labour used in constructing extension to factory.
(d) Motor vehicles 18,000

Plant and equipment 33,000
Purchases 20,000
Crow loan account 71,000
Purchase of sundry assets from Crow with delayed settlement.
Dr Cr
$ $
(e) (i) Motor vehicles cost 20,000
Car Dealer 20,000
Purchase of car on credit.
(ii) Disposal account 18,000

Motor vehicles cost 18,000
Transfer of cost of car given in part exchange.
(iii) Accumulated depreciation 6,000

Disposal account 6,000
Transfer of depreciation of car given in part exchange.
(iv) Car Dealer 12,000

Disposal account 12,000
Agreed part-exchange value of car.
Tutorial note: These entries could validly be combined into a single compound journal entry
as follows:
Dr Cr
$ $
Car Dealer – account payable 8,000
Purchase of new car with old car given up in part exchange.
Answer 8 ADDAX
(a) Plant and equipment – cost
Plant and equipment – cost
20X6 $ 20X6 $
1 April Balance 840,000 10 Dec Transfer disposal 100,000
20X7
1 Oct Cash 180,000 31 Mar Balance 920,000
________ ________
1,020,000 1,020,000
________ ________
Plant and equipment – depreciation
20X6 $ 20X6 $
10 Dec Transfer – disposal 60,000 1 April Balance 370,000
20X7 20X7
31 Mar Balance 393,000 31 Mar Profit or loss 83,000
(74,000 + 9,000)
_______ _______
453,000 453,000
_______ _______
Plant and equipment – disposal
20X6 $ 20X6 $
10 Dec Transfer – cost 100,000 10 Dec Transfer – depreciation 60,000
20X7
31 Mar Profit or loss 5,000 Cash 45,000
_______ _______
105,000 105,000
_______ _______
(b) Addax
Statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 March 20X7 (extracts)
$
Cash flow from operating activities
Profit before taxation
Adjustments for:
Depreciation 83,000
Profit on sale of plant (5,000)
Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant (180,000)
Proceeds of sale of plant 45,000
Answer 9 RIFFON
Tutorial note: The question only required that balances and events be recorded. It was not therefore
necessary to balance the accounts for full marks to be awarded. The ledger accounts are balanced
here for completeness.
(a) Ledger accounts – Office building
Cost/valuation
20X6 $ 20X6 $
1 July Balance 1,600,000
Revaluation 400,000 30 June Balance 2,000,000
–––––––– ––––––––
2,000,000 2,000,000
–––––––– ––––––––
Accumulated depreciation
20X6 $ 20X6 $
1 July Revaluation surplus 320,000 1 July Balance 320,000
20X7 20X7
30 June Balance 50,000 30 June Profit or loss (W1) 50,000
––––––– –––––––
370,000 370,000
––––––– –––––––
Revaluation surplus
20X6 $ 20X6 $
1 July Office building – cost 400,000
30 June Balance 720,000 Office building – depreciation 320,000
––––––– –––––––
720,000 720,000
––––––– –––––––
(b) Ledger accounts – Plant and equipment

Cost
20X6 $ $
1 July Balance 840,000 20X7
1 Oct Cash 200,000 1 April Transfer disposal 240,000
30 June Balance 800,000
–––––––– ––––––––
1,040,000 1,040,000
–––––––– ––––––––
20X7
1 July Balance 800,000
Plant and equipment – accumulated depreciation
$ 20X6 $
1 July Balance 306,000
20X7 20X7
1 April Transfer – disposal 180,000 30 June Profit or loss (W2) 200,000
30 June Balance 326,000
––––––– –––––––
506,000 506,000
––––––– –––––––
Plant and equipment – disposal
20X7 $ 20X7 $
1 April Transfer – cost 240,000 1 April Transfer – depreciation 180,000
30 June Profit or loss 10,000 Cash 70,000
––––––– –––––––
250,000 250,000
––––––– –––––––
WORKINGS
(1) Depreciation of office building
$2m ÷ 40 years (remaining useful life) = $50,000
(2) Depreciation of plant and equipment
25% × ($840,000 – $240,000 + $200,000) = $200,000
Answer 10 UNITED
Dr Cr
$000 $000
(1) Revenue 180
Receivables control 180
Memorandum individual receivables account 180
(2) Memorandum individual receivables account 800
(3) Revenue 70
(4) Revenue 198

(5) Payables (creditors) control 600

Memorandum individual payables account 600

(6) Memorandum individual receivables account 160
Answer 11 SCIMITAR
Accounts receivable ledger control account
$ $
1 Sept Balance brought down 188,360 1 Sept Balance brought down 2,140
30 Sept Revenue 30 Sept Sales returns 9,160
(101,260 + 1,360) 102,620 Cash from customers 92,700
Cash refunds 300 Irrecoverable debts w/off 460
Extra cash refund 20 Contras 980
Balance carried down
(2,680 + 680 – 40) 3,320 Balance carried down 189,180
_______ _______
294,620 294,620
_______ _______
Accounts payable ledger control account
$ $
1 Sept Balance brought down 120 1 Sept Balance brought down 89,410
30 Sept Purchases returns 4,280 30 Sept Purchases
Cash to suppliers 71,840 (68,420 - 1,360) 67,060
Cash discounts 880
Contras 980
Balance carried down 78,460 Balance carried down 90
_______ _______
156,560 156,560
_______ _______
Answer 12 OTTER
Accounts receivable ledger control account
$ $
Opening balances 386,430 Opening balances 190
Sales (163,194 + 1,386 ) 164,580 Cash received 160,448
Cash refund  350 Returns inwards 590
Contra  870
Irrecoverable debts written off  1,360
Closing balances (370 – 350 ) 20 Closing balances 387,922

_______ _______
551,380 551,380
_______ _______
Accounts payable ledger control account
$ $
Opening balances 520 Opening balances 184,740
Cash paid 103,040 Purchases
Discounts received 990 (98,192 + (1,395 – 1,359) ) 98,228
Returns out (1,370 + 2,000 ) 3,370 Cash refund correction  350
Contra  870 Irrecoverable debt written off 420
Closing balances 175,048 Closing balances 100
_______ _______
283,838 283,838
_______ _______
Answer 13 ATANGA
(a) Receivables ledger control account balance

+ –
$ $
Original balance 487,600
(1) Sales day book overcast 2,000 1
(2) Irrecoverable debt written off 8,550 1
(4) Contras incorrectly entered 32,200 1
(5) Credit note adjustment 1,100 1
––––––– –––––––
488,700 42,750
42,750
–––––– ———
Revised balance 445,950 4
–––––– ———
(b) Receivables ledger balances
+ –
$ $
Original balance 455,800
(2) Irrecoverable debt written off 8,550 1
(3) Credit note incorrectly entered 2,400 1
(5) Credit note adjustment 1,100 1
––––––– –––––––
456,900 10,950
10,950
–––––– ———
Revised balance 445,950 4
–––––– ———
Answer 14 MCQs BANK RECONCILIATIONS

14.1 D The cash book position needs only to be adjusted for items (3) and (5).
14.2 C Not (2) as timing differences do not require correction. Not (3) as it is the cash
book that must be adjusted. (1) is correct as a dishonoured cheque must be written
back, as worthless. (4) is correct as outstanding lodgements will increase cash in the
bank/decrease an overdraft.
14.3 A 39,800 + 44,200 – 64,100 = $19,900 overdrawn
14.4 C
Balance per bank statement (38,600)
(1) Bank charges omitted 200
(2) Outstanding lodgements 14,700
(3) Unpresented cheques (27,800)
(4) Payment recorded as receipt (2 × 4,200) 8,400
–––––––
Per cash book (43,100)
–––––––
14.5 B 38,640 + 14,260 – 19,270 = $33,630
14.6 D $
Uncorrected cash book balance 42,510
Dishonoured cheque (2,470)
–––––––
Corrected cash book balance 40,040
Outstanding lodgements (10,270)
–––––––
Bank statement balance 32,760
–––––––
14.7 B $
Per bank statement (825)
Unpresented cheques (475)
Incorrect direct debit 160
Deposits not credited 600
–––––
Per statement of financial position (540)
–––––
14.8 D (2) will require correction only by the bank. (3) and (4) are timing differences.
14.9 A
$
Adjusted cash book balance per bank reconciliation 1,060
Outstanding lodgements (5,000)
––––––
Balance overdrawn at the bank (1,140)
––––––
In the books of the bank and on the bank statement, an overdraft will appear as a
debit balance.
Tutorial note: To correctly answer this type of question, it is necessary to start with
the adjusted cash book balance and reconcile it to the bank statement.
Unfortunately, there are no shortcuts. It is therefore advisable to work an answer
without reference to the options available. The cash book balance per the bank
reconciliation ($1,060 debit) has already taken account of the bank charges ($125).
Answer 15 GEORGE
(a) Adjusted cash book

George – cash book
$ $
Balance 4,890 Bank charges (3) 320
Correction of error Plant (4) 10,000
– interest (8) 320 Cheque dishonored (5) 980
Correction of error in
entering cheque (6) 4,800
Balance 11,890 Error in addition (7) 1,000
–––––– ––––––
17,100 17,100
–––––– ––––––
Tutorial note: Although the dishonored cheque was returned by the bank after 31 March the
funds were never available to George, so it should be adjusted in the cash book.
(b) Bank reconciliation
$
Balance per bank statement (overdrawn) (12,800)
Less: Lodgements not credited (2) 2,890
______
(9,910)
Add: Dishonoured cheque (980)
Add: Outstanding cheque (1) (1,000)
______
Balance per cash book – overdrawn (11,890)
______
(c) Statement of effect on profit
+ –
$ $
Profit per draft accounts 81,208
Bank charges (3) 320
Depreciation (4) 1,000
Irrecoverable debt (5) 980
Motor expenses (6) 2,400
Additional depreciation (6) 600
Purchases understated (7) 1,000
Interest adjustment (8) 320
Repairs to premises (9) 870
______ _____
82,398 6,300
6,300
______
______
Answer 16 MCQs SUSPENSE ACCOUNTS
16.1 D The excess is $7,182 debits over credits. Goods returned outwards should have
been a $3,591 credit balance.
Tutorial note: Discounts allowed should be debited to revenue but as there is no

error in principle it does not give rise to a difference in the trial balance.
16.2 B (1) has been correctly debited but to the wrong account (should be debited to
revenue). (2) should have been credited. Omission on extraction (3) gives rise to a
difference. (4) debit and credit are the wrong way around but the double-entry has
been maintained.
16.3 A Suspense a/c (difference) = 398,580 – 384,030 = 14,550 excess credit

Would be cleared by:
Dr Cash 10,000
Dr Rent expense 4,550 (6,160 – 1,610)
16.4 D Although the amount in (1) is incorrect it does not create a difference on the
extraction of a trial balance. Since (2) is an omission it does not create a difference.
The arithmetic error in (4) results in a difference.
16.5 C 630,000 – 4,320 – 440 = $625,240
16.6 C (1) Discount received should have been credited to a profit or loss account and
debited to payables. Since both sides of the entry were debits, the debit side of the
trial balance would exceed the credit side and a suspense account with a credit
balance would be opened. (2) Goods returned by a customer should have been
debited to sales and credited to receivables. As they were debited to receivables the
same situation arises, and a suspense account with a credit balance would be
opened.
16.7 C A single journal to correct all these errors would be: $ $

Cr Receivables (90 + (2 × 33)) 156
Dr Sales 110
Dr Suspense (9,980 – 9,890) + (2 × 33) – 110 46
–––– ––––
156 156
–––– ––––
Tutorial note: This question is not asking for the balance on the suspense account,
but for the adjustment made to the suspense account by the correcting journal. The
discount taken should have been credited to the customer’s account (not debited
and debited to revenue.
16.8 C The difference in the amount at which the purchase of stamps was recorded is $120
– $12 = $108. As only $12 was recorded expenses have clearly been understated.
Petty cash should have been topped up with ($36 + $60 + $120) = $216, so the $108
top-up is $216 – $108 = $108 too little.
16.9 A If the debit side of the trial balance is undercast by $692 this shortfall is a debit in
the suspense account. When the payment of $905 was credited to cash it should
have been debited to an expense account; so this too is a debit in the suspense
account. Thus the suspense account has a debit balance of $692 + $905 = $1,597
16.10 C As a purchase ledger control account is maintained in the general ledger totals of
purchases and payments (also refunds and contra entries) will be posted to this
account. The individual items that make up the totals (e.g. all the different types of
expenses) will be posted to relevant revenue and capital expense accounts. A
transposition error in a total or the omission of a total will cause the trial balance not
to balance. However, an error of principle (i.e. recording an item as revenue
expense rather than capital expense, or vice versa) will affect only the individual
accounts and not give rise to a difference.
16.11 B To correct the error of commission:
Dr Suspense account $1,400

Cr Receivables control (2 × $700) $1,400
Suspense account
$ $
Balance b/f 560
Receivables control a/c 1,400 Balance c/f 840
–––––– ––––––
1,400 1,400
–––––– ––––––
Balance (remaining) b/f 840
Answer 17 ANDROMEDA
Suspense account
20X6 $ 20X6 $
31 Dec Jason loan account 40,000 31 Dec Difference 42,130
31 Dec Discounts received 2,130
______ ______
42,130 42,130
______ ______
$ $
(1) Suspense account 40,000
Jason loan account 40,000
Correction of error – entry on wrong side of loan account
(2) Motor expenses 28,600

Motor vehicles asset account 28,600
Supplier account 57,200
Correction of error in recording purchase of motor vehicle on credit.
(3) Irrecoverable debts recovered 800

A Smith accounts receivable ledger account 800
Correction of mis-posting of cheque from A Smith,
wrongly credited to irrecoverable debts recovered.
(4) Bank charges 380

Cash book 380
Recording of bank charges not entered in cash book.

Discount received 2,130
Correction for December discount total not posted
(6) Plant 16,000

Plant repairs 16,000
Depreciation expense 3,200
Allowance for depreciation 3,200
Correction of error in posting cash paid for purchase
of plant and insertion of necessary depreciation.
Tutorial note: The question states that control accounts are not maintained. You should
appreciate that if control accounts had been maintained the error in (2), for example, would
have been detected by the reconciliation of the payables ledger control account (and so
corrected before the extraction of the list of balances).
Answer 18 ARBADOS
Debit Credit
$ $
Repairs to premises 8,700
Premises asset 7,800
Suspense 900
Correction of error in posting cost of repairs to premises.

Motor vehicle disposal 1,000
Entry for un-posted item.

Depreciation expense 6,000
Reversal of depreciation charged in error for year of disposal.
Motor vehicle disposal (carrying amount) 24,000

Motor vehicles – cost 30,000
Transfer cost and depreciation of vehicle (i.e. carrying amount) to disposal account.

Loss on destruction of car transferred.
Answer 19 LORCA
(a) Journal entries

Dr Cr
$ $
(1) Sales 70,000
Share premium 20,000 1½
(2) Suspense 16,000

Interest payable 8,000
Interest receivable 8,000 1½
(3) Sales 16,000

Purchases 16,000
Suspense 32,000 3
OR
Suspense 48,000
Sales 48,000
Purchases 64,000
Suspense 64,000
Sales 64,000
Suspense 64,000
Suspense 48,000
Purchases 48,000
(4) Suspense 36,000

Rent 36,000 1
———
(b) Adjustment to profit 7
———
– +
$ $
Profit per draft accounts 830,000
Adjustments
(1) Sales 70,000 1
(2) Interest 16,000 1
(3) Sales/Purchases 32,000 1
(4) Rent 36,000 1
–––––– –––––– ———
102,000 882,000 4
102,000 ———
––––––
Revised profit 780,000 ————
–––––– 11
————
Answer 20 PRIDE
(a) Adjustment to profit statement

$000 $000 $000
– +
Profit per draft accounts 80
Profit on disposal (11 – 6) 5
Depreciation
– buildings (2% × 200) 4
– plant (20% × ((318 – 18) – (88 – 12)) 60
Accruals and prepayments 4 8
Increase in receivables allowance 2
__ __ __
70 13 57
__
Adjusted profit 23
__
(b) Statement of financial position as at 31 March 20X7
$000 $000 $000

Assets
Non-current assets
Land 210 210
Buildings (120 + 4 (per (a)) 200 124 76
Plant and equipment (318 – 18)/ 300 136 164
(88 – 12 + 60 (per (a)) ––– ––– –––
710 260 450
Current assets
Inventory 180
Receivables (146 – 12) 134
Prepayments 8
Cash 50 372
––– –––
Total assets 822
–––
Equity shares ($0.50) 350
Retained earnings (11 b/fwd + 23 per (a)) 34
––– 624
Non-current liabilities 10% Loan notes (20Y1) 100
Current liabilities
Payables 94
Accrued expenses 4 98
––– –––
Total equity and liabilities 822
–––
Answer 21 CHOCTAW
$ $
(1) Profit or loss 8,000
Accumulated depreciation of motor vehicles 8,000
Adjustment to depreciation from reducing balance basis
to straight-line basis
(2) Petty cash 1,200

Rent receivable 1,200
Rent received omitted from records
(3) Irrecoverable debts 8,400

Sundry receivables ledger accounts 8,400
Irrecoverable debts written off

Motor vehicle repairs 3,310
Correction of error – opening balance not brought forward
Profit adjustments
$
Profit per draft financial statements 86,400
(a) Depreciation adjustment (8,000)
(b) Rent receivable not recorded 1,200
(c) Irrecoverable debts written off (8,400)
(d) Motor repairs adjustment 3,310
––––––
––––––
Answer 22 RAMPION
(a) Adjustment to profit statement

$
Profit per draft financial statements 684,000
(1) Inventory movement
Adjustment for sales ($36,000 × 60%) 21,600 1
(2) Duplicated sale
Elimination of profit (4,000) 1
(3) Reduction in inventory:
($18,000 – ($13,500 – $500)) (5,000) 1
(4) Debts written off (8,000) 1
(5) Increase in allowance for receivables
($11,500 – $10,000) (1,500) 1
–––––––
Revised profit 687,100
–––––––
(b) Effect on inventory and receivables
(i) Inventory
$
Inventories per draft financial statements 116,800
(1) Inventory movement – as (a) above 21,600 1
(2) Duplicated sale
cost of inventory returned 6,000 1
(3) Reduction in inventory (a) above (5,000) 1
–––––––
Revised closing inventory 139,400
–––––––
(ii) Receivables
$
Per draft financial statements 248,000
(2) Deduction for duplicated sale (10,000) 1
(4) Debts written off (8,000) 1
–––––––
230,000
(5) Less: Loss allowance for receivables (11,500) 1
–––––––
218,500
–––––––
———
11
———
Answer 23 MCQs INCOMPLETE RECORDS
23.1 C
Receivables ledger total account
Opening 130,000 Cash received 687,800

Sales (Balancing figure) 744,960 Contra 2,000
Closing 181,000
––––––– –––––––
874,960 874,960
––––––– –––––––
23.2 D
Payables ledger total account
Cash paid 302,800 Opening 60,000

Contra 2,000 Purchases (Balancing figure) 331,760
Closing 84,000
––––––– –––––––
391,760 391,760
––––––– –––––––
50
23.3 A 281,250 × – 53,050 = $40,700
150
23.4 B 38,000 + 637,000 – 45,000 = 630,000 × 10/7 = $900,000
23.5 B Using the balance sheet equation: Profit = Change in net assets – capital introduced
+ drawings i.e. (400,000 – 210,000) – 100,000 + 48,000 = $138,000
23.6 B An overstatement in opening inventory will increase cost of goods sold (and reduce
gross profit).
23.7 D Using the balance sheet equation: Profit = Change in net assets – capital introduced
+ drawings i.e. (274,000 – 186,000) – 50,000 + (68,000 + 20,000) = $126,000
23.8 B The amount of the overstatement in closing inventory (A) will reduce cost of sales
in the current period, hence gross profit would increase. (B) will charge to profit
costs that relate to the next period. (Note that the goods are not in inventory at the
period end, hence cost of sales is overstated.) (C) would inflate sales and hence
increase profit. (D) would cause the gross profit percentage to increase, as costs
would be lower.
23.9 C Cost of sales: $ %

Add: Purchases 716,100
Less: Closing inventory (149,100)
––––––––
705,600 70
Sales 1,008,000 100
–––––––– ––––
Gross profit 302,400 30
–––––––– ––––
23.10 B 77,000 + 763,000 – 945,000 × 100/125 = $84,000
23.11 D $
Revenue (net of sales tax) 89,400
Purchases (69,600 × 100/120) (58,000)
–––––––
Gross profit 31,400
–––––––
23.12 A Cost of sales includes carriage inwards (a cost incurred in bringing inventories to
their present location) but excludes carriage outwards (a distribution cost). Closing
inventories should be deducted in arriving at cost of sales.
$
Purchases 455,000
Closing inventories (52,000)
–––––––
Cost of sales 427,000
–––––––
23.13 B Using the accounting equation: $

Closing net assets (1,726 + 2,387) 4,113
Drawings 15,000
Opening net assets (5,000)
––––––
Profit 14,113
––––––
23.14 B $
Opening net assets 40,000
Profit 117,000
Capital injection 30,000
Drawings ($3,200 × 12) (38,400)
Inventory withdrawn ($7,200 × 100/160) (4,500)
–––––––
Closing net assets 144,100
–––––––
23.15 C $
Banked 50,000
Wages paid from cash 12,000
Drawings 24,000
Increase in cash balance 100
Cash proceeds on disposal of car (5,000)
––––––
Sales 81,100
––––––
23.16 B In accordance with the accounting equation
23.17 D Using the accounting equation: Opening capital* + Profit (or – Loss) – Drawings* =
Closing capital = Opening capital for next period
$12,500 – $7,900 (W) – $4,100 = $500
* Are given in the list of balances so it is profit/(loss) needs to be calculated.
WORKING
$
Revenue 22,000
Cost of sales ** (19,200)
Rent (5,400)
Bank interest (825)
Heat and light (4,475)
–––––
Loss for the year (7,900)
–––––
** Since the business does not hold inventory cost of sales = purchases.
23.18 B As all the transactions are cash, one approach is to produce a petty cash book “T”
account to derive the cash takings (sales) as the balancing amount:
Petty cash book
$ $
Float b/f 50 Payment to suppliers 340
Cash takings (sales) 1,160 Wages 150
Rent 70
Paid into bank 600
Float c/f 50
–––––– ––––––
1,210 1,210
–––––– ––––––
Float b/f 50
Answer 24 LAMORGAN
(a) Sales revenue total account
$ $
Opening receivables 41,600 Cash received from customers 218,500
Refunds to customers 800 Irrecoverable debts written off 1,500
Sales 225,100 Contra purchases 700
Closing receivables 44,200
_______ _______
267,500 267,500
_______ _______
$
Credit sales as above 225,100
Cash sales $114,700 + $9,600 124,300
_______
349,400
_______
(b) Purchases total account
$ $
Payments to suppliers 114,400 Opening payables 22,900
Contra sales 700 Lamorgan – goods taken 400
Closing payables 24,800 Purchases 116,600
_______ _______
139,900 139,900
_______ _______
(c) Inventory
$
Per inventory count 77,700
Damaged item: ($1,700 – $300 – $100) 1,300
Goods on approval 3,000
______
82,000
______
Answer 25 ALTESE, SENJI & ALUKI
(a) Altese
$
Opening capital 128,000
Capital introduced 50,000
———
178,000
Less: Drawings 48,000
———
130,000
Closing capital 184,000
———
Profit is therefore 54,000
———
(b) Senji
Purchases total account
$ $
Balance brought forward 130,400
Payments to suppliers 888,400 Goods taken by Senji 1,000
Discounts received 11,200 Refunds from suppliers 2,400
Purchases 937,050
Balance carried forward 171,250
–––––––– ––––––––
1,070,850 1,070,850
–––––––– ––––––––
(c) Aluki
$ $
Cost of sales:
Purchases 595,400
Less: Returns 41,200 554,200
———— ————
797,200
Less: Closing inventory 261,700
————
535,500
————
Sales figure is therefore $535,500 × 3/2 = $803,250
Answer 26 HASTA
(a) Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X6
$ $
Sales ($191,400 – $4,800 + $6,400) 193,000 1
Less: Cost of sales
Opening inventory 85,000 ½
Purchases (balancing figure) 104,500 method 1
–––––––
189,500
Less: Closing inventory 88,500 ½
––––––– 101,000
––––––
Gross profit (W) 92,000 2
Less: Expenses
Wages 15,600 ½
Sundry expenses (8,300 – 1,100 + 1,400) 8,600 1½
Loss on sale of equipment (1,200 – 700) 500 1
Depreciation (2,000 × 20%) 400 1
––––– 25,100
–––––– ———
Profit for the year 66,900 9
———
––––––
WORKING
$ $
Sales 193,000
Gross profit
½(193,000 – $21,000) 86,000 1
$21,000 – (½ × $30,000) 6,000 1
–––––– 92,000
––––––
Cost of goods sold is therefore 101,000
––––––
Alternative calculation of gross profit:
$
Sales 193,000
Add: Trade discount 9,000
–––––––
202,000 ½
–––––––
Gross profit if all sales at full price 101,000 1

Less: Trade discount 9,000 ½
––––––
92,000
––––––
(b) Drawings
Cash not accounted for:

($192,200 – $15,600 – $8,300 – $2,000 – $150) 166,150 1
Less: Purchases 104,500 as per (a) 1
–––––– ———
Drawings 61,650 2
–––––– ———
Answer 27 MCQs REGULATORY FRAMEWORK
27.1 C By definition. Shareholders and government are users of the financial statements
but they are not the only ones (e.g. directors, employees, banks will also use them).
The general public encompasses users, but a substantial majority of the general
public will not be users of financial statements.
27.2 A The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) is the sole body having
responsibility and authority to issue IFRS and is overseen by the IFRS Foundation.
IFRS IC and the IFRS Advisory Board are separate bodies within the IFRS
Foundation framework.
27.3 B This is stated in the IASB’s objectives (“to develop, in the public interest, ...”).
Whilst only certain elements of the public may be users of the financial statements,
the members of the public as a whole are affected by the activities of companies and
users of financial statements. Financial information that is relevant and faithfully
represents what it purports to represent underpins the economies of all jurisdictions.
27.4 D The IFRS Advisory Council is supervised by the IFRS Foundation. (The IASB and
the IFRS IC are also supervised by the Foundation.)
27.5 D IFRSs are not issued to clarify users’ issues concerning application of an IFRS.
(This is the purpose of an IFRIC.)
27.6 B This is the function of the IFRS Interpretations Committee.
27.7 D Financial accounts are audited externally whereas management accounts are
unaudited.
27.8 B It is the IASB that is committed to developing, in the public interest, a single set of
high-quality, understandable and enforceable global accounting standards (IFRSs)
that require transparent and comparable information in general purpose financial
statements.
Tutorial note: The IFRS Foundation is the independent body that oversees the
IASB.
Answer 28 IASB
(a) Objectives
 To formulate and publish in the public interest accounting standards to be observed

in the presentation of financial statements and to promote their world-wide
acceptance and observance.
 To promote the use and rigorous application of those standards.
 To work actively with national standard-setters to achieve convergence of national

accounting standards and IFRS to provide high quality solutions.
(b) Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting
The primary purposes of the Framework are to assist the IASB:
 in developing IFRSs and reviewing existing ones; and

 in harmonising regulations and accounting standards by providing a basis for
reducing alternative treatments.
Other purposes are:
 To assist national standard setting bodies in developing national standards.

 To assist prepares of financial statements in applying IFRSs and in dealing with
topics not yet covered by IFRSs.
 To assist auditors in forming an opinion as to whether financial statements comply
with IFRSs.
 To assist users of financial statements in interpreting financial statements.
 To give those interested in the work of the IASB information about its approach to
the formulation of IFRSs.
Answer 29 MCQs QUALITATIVE CHARACTERISTICS AND ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS
29.1 C Relevant financial information is capable of making a difference in decisions and

has a predictive value, confirmatory value or both. A describes qualitative
characteristics (which include not only relevance). B describes neutrality which is
an aspect of faithful representation. D is also an aspect of faithful representation.
29.2 B (1) is incorrect as concept is economic substance over legal form. Information
should not be excluded merely on the grounds of difficulty (3).
29.3 B Under prudence a liability is measured at a best estimate, not the highest possible
amount.
29.4 C Historical cost is not the only convention that requires money measurement (e.g. a
revaluation model requires money measurement also). The exercise of prudence
concept does not permit overstatement of liabilities/understatement of liabilities.
29.5 A The overdraft liability will decrease and receivables will decrease by an equal
amount.
29.6 B Inventory should be recognised as an asset on the date it is delivered into the
warehouse and the invoice accrued.
29.7 C Management, as agents of the company, have a duty to safeguard all the company’s
assets entrusted to them (not only cash). (Accountability encompasses recording,
controlling and safeguarding them).
29.8 A The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting
29.9 D Information must possess all three characteristics (neutrality, completeness and
accurate) to faithfully represent what it is held out to represent (Conceptual
Framework for Financial Reporting).
29.10 D Recognition means incorporating in the financial statements items that meet
definitions and satisfy criteria. Disclosure means inclusion notes, etc, not in the
financial statements – so not A. Faithful presentation is a qualitative characteristic,
not a process – so not B. Measurement is determining the monetary amount only,
not its depiction – so not C.
29.11 D This is based on the Conceptual Frameworks definition of asset, liabilities, income
and expenses.
29.12 A Depreciation matches the cost of a non-current asset over its useful life against the
profits that it generates.
29.13 B A profit on sale has been made and therefore assets will increase; the profit will also
increase reserves. The sale has no effect on liabilities.
29.14 D The accrued expense will increase liabilities and therefore decrease net assets.
29.15 D Overstatement of depreciation will require assets to be increased with a

corresponding increase in equity (as profit is increased by the reduction in
depreciation expense). Liabilities are not affected.
29.16 D Statement (1) describes the going concern concept. Statement (2) is false as many
non-current assets can be valued at fair value.
29.17 D The quote relates to the definition of equity according to the Conceptual
Framework.
29.18 B The IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting was amended in 2010
and the IASB is looking to update it again in the future. It is not a standard.
29.19 D This is the definition of an asset according to the Conceptual Framework.
Answer 30 FOUR CONCEPTS
(a) Business entity concept
In accounting, it is necessary to define the boundaries of the entity concerned. In the case of a
limited liability company, only transactions of that company must be included. There must be
no confusion between the transactions of the company and the transactions of its owners and
managers.
If the entity concept is not followed, the profit, financial position and cash flow may all be
distorted to the point where they become meaningless.
A limited liability company is therefore a separate entity which can sue and be sued in its own
name.
(b) Going concern concept
The going concern is that financial statements are prepared on the basis that the entity will
continue for the foreseeable future – that there is no intention or necessity to liquidate or
curtail the scale of operations.
If the going concern concept is followed when it is not appropriate, assets may be overstated,
liabilities may continue to be shown as non-current when the collapse of the going concern
status of the entity renders them current liabilities, and the profit is likely to be overstated.
(c) Materiality
Information is material if its omission from, or misstatement in, the financial statements could
influence the economic decisions of users. Materiality cannot always be measured in
monetary or percentage terms, but a commonly used measure is 5% of normal pre-tax profit.
Above that level, for example, an exceptional item would need to be disclosed by note or in
the statement of profit or loss.
Materiality is not solely related to the size of a transaction; it would also be necessary to
consider the nature of the transaction and the fact that the nature would give rise to an item
being treated as material and require disclosure.
If the materiality concept is not followed, financial statements could become confused by the
inclusion of unnecessary detail of trivial matters, or could be rendered misleading by the
exclusion of reference to important matters.
(d) Fair presentation
Fair presentation really means that all figures in financial statements have been arrived at
accurately when accuracy is possible (true) and that when judgement or estimation is needed
it has been exercised without bias (fair). Compliance with generally accepted concepts and
principles will normally result in fair presentation.
Failure to present information fairly will obviously mean that users may be misled by the
financial statements.
Answer 31 MATERIALITY
(a) Materiality
Information is material if its omission or misstatement could influence the economic

decisions of users taken on the basis of the financial statements.
Factors affecting materiality are:

 The size of the item;
 The nature of the item.
(b) What makes information relevant to users?
To be useful, information must be relevant to the decision-making needs of users.

Information is relevant when it influences the economic decisions of users by helping them
evaluate past, present or future events or confirming, or correcting their past evaluations.
(c) Neutrality and completeness
(i) Meaning of terms
 Neutrality means that the information in financial statements should be free from
deliberate or systematic bias.
 Completeness means that, within bounds of materiality and cost, nothing has been
omitted that could cause information to be false or misleading (and therefore
unreliable).
Possible conflict
 Information will not be relevant if there is undue delay in preparing it. There is
therefore a trade-off between the need for timely reporting and providing relevant
information.
 Timely information may be less accurate or complete. So there is a trade-off between
the need for timely reporting and providing complete and accurate information.
Tutorial note: Only one example is required. Cost/benefit could also be mentioned.
(d) Safeguards to ensure that a company’s financial statements are free from material error
 The audit of financial statements by an independent professional.

 The existence of sound internal controls in the company.
 The existence of an internal audit function in the company.
Answer 32 COMPARABILITY
(a) Meaning and types
Comparability means that users are able to draw conclusions about the performance or
financial position of a business by relating figures for a particular period to other relevant
figures.
Possible types of comparison are with:
 figures for the same business for earlier periods;

 figures for other businesses for the same period;
 budgets or forecasts.
Tutorial note: Two types only required for full marks.
(b) Aid to comparability
The IASB’s Conceptual Framework and the requirements of accounting standards aid
comparability by:
 requiring the disclosure of accounting policies (IAS 1 Presentation of Financial

Statements);
 reducing or eliminating the number of possible alternative treatments for similar

items available to businesses;
 requiring businesses to treat similar items in the same way within each period and
from one period to the next (unless a change is required to comply with accounting
standards or to ensure that a more appropriate presentation of events or transactions
is provided).
Answer 33 MCQs IAS 1
33.1 A (2) would be in profit or loss (an expense) and (4) may only be disclosed. A transfer
to retained earnings (e.g. for excess depreciation on a revalued asset) will be shown
as a movement in the statement of changes in equity. Only dividends paid during
the year and declared before the year end (i.e. a liability) are movements in equity.
33.2 D
33.3 C Dividends merely proposed are not an appropriation and merely disclosed (not
accounted for).
33.4 D Dividends paid are recognised in the statement of changes in equity.
33.5 D Declaration of the dividend after the end of the reporting period but before the
financial statements are approved (a non-adjusting event) is disclosed in the notes.
As distributions, dividends are presented in the statement of changes in equity.
Tutorial note: The dividend is not a liability at either year end (so (1) and (3) are
incorrect. A dividend is not an expense (so (2) is also incorrect).
33.6 A According to IAS 1 going concern relates to whether the entity will continue in
operational existence without liquidating or ceasing trading.
33.7 D Tutorial note: A is clearly incorrect since inventory will only be valued at net
realisable value if this is lower than cost (IAS 2). B is clearly incorrect since such a
valuation basis will only be appropriate when an entity is not a going concern.
When the going concern basis is not appropriate financial statements must be
prepared on an alternative basis to comply with IFRS; so C is also incorrect.
33.8 B
Income tax account
$ $
Cash 1,762 Balance b/fwd 2,091
Balance c/fwd 2,584 Profit or loss (balancing figure) 2,255
–––––– ––––––
4,346 4,346
–––––– ––––––
33.9 D As the loan is being repaid in six-monthly instalments some of the liability will be
current and some will be non-current.
33.10 B Dividends paid is a movement in retained earnings (in the statement of changes in
equity). Interest (a finance cost), depreciation and income tax are items of expense.
33.11 D The accruals principle requires the company to recognise the cost in the period in
which it was incurred. Therefore, expenses increases (reducing profits) and the
liability to pay the fees will be included in the statement of financial position
(reducing net assets).
33.12 C Under the terms of the loan, two repayments (total $16,000) fall due within the next
12 months (i.e. current liability), with the balance ($64,000) being due for
repayment after more than one year.
33.13 A The increase in value of a non-current asset is not included in profit or loss but in
other comprehensive as it is unrealised (until the asset is sold). All other items are
recognised in profit or loss.
33.14 B As the error has been corrected (closing inventory is correct), both retained profit
and net assets are correct as stated in the draft statement of financial position.
Tutorial note: Correction of the error would reduce the retained profit brought
forward at the beginning of the current year (and therefore the prior year net
assets) and increase the profit for the current year. These adjustments cancel each
other out.
33.15 C The interest charge is an expense in profit or loss and the revaluation gain is a gain
recognised in other comprehensive income. Profit or loss and other comprehensive
income make up total comprehensive income.
33.16 D
$
Profit from the statement of profit or loss 575,000
Unrealised gain on the land revaluation 40,000
–––––––
Total comprehensive income 615,000
–––––––
Tutorial note: This question tests understanding of the difference between (1) the
statement of profit or loss and (2) the statement of comprehensive income. (1)
summarises the revenues earned and expenses incurred during the financial period.
(2) is an extension of (1); “other comprehensive income” includes unrealised gains
(e.g. on the revaluation of tangible assets). As a distribution of profit, equity
dividends are recognised in the statement of changes in equity.
Answer 34 ARBALEST
(a) Statement of changes in equity
Share Share Revaluation Retained Total

capital premium surplus earnings
$000 $000 $000 $000 $000
At 1 October 20X5 1,500 400 4,060 5,960
Rights issue 500 1,000 1,500
Bonus issue 2,000 (1,400) (600) –
Total comprehensive
income for the year 500 370 870
_____ _____ _____ _____ _____
At 30 September 20X6 4,000 Nil 500 3,830 8,330
_____ _____ _____ _____ _____
(b) Movements on non-current assets

Land Building Plant and Total
equipment
$000 $000 $000 $000
Cost
At 1 October 20X5 2,000 1,500 2,800 6,300
Additions 600 2,400 1,600 4,600
Disposals (1,000) (1,000)
Revaluation 500 500
_____ _____ _____ _____
At 30 September 20X6 3,100 3,900 3,400 10,400
_____ _____ _____ _____
Depreciation
At 1 October 20X5 Nil 450 1,000 1,450
Charge for the year Nil 46 220 266
Disposals (800) (800)
_____ _____ _____ _____
At September 20X6 Nil 496 420 916
_____ _____ _____ _____
Carrying amount
At 30 September 20X6 3,100 3,404 2,980 9,484
_____ _____ _____ _____
Calculation of depreciation charges

$000
Buildings 2% × $1,500,000 30
2% × $2,400,000 × 4/12 16
___
46
___
Plant and equipment 10% × $1,800,000 180
10% × $1,600,000 × 3/12 40
___
220
___
Answer 35 PERSEUS
Current assets in the statement of financial position

$
Inventory (W1) 4,249,800
Trade receivables (W2) 2,674,300
Prepayments 773,400
Cash at bank (Bank A only) 940,000
WORKINGS
(1) Inventory
$ $
As originally stated 4,190,000
(i) Reduction to net realisable value

Original cost 16,000
Net realisable value (10,400 – 600) 9,800
_____
(6,200)
(ii) Goods returned at cost 66,000

_________
4,249,800
_________
(2) Trade receivables
As originally stated
Accounts receivable ledger 2,980,000
Less: Goods returned 88,000
_________
2,892,000
Less: Debts written off 92,000
_________
2,800,000
Less: Allowance (5% × $2,800,000) 140,000
_________
2,660,000
Accounts payable ledger balances 14,300
_________
2,674,300
_________
Tutorial notes: The delivery of goods to the wrong customer is not a sale in the current year.
Revenue (and profit) can only be recognised in the following year, when the goods are
transferred to the correct customer.
Strictly speaking, where debit balances on accounts payable represent an asset (e.g. advance
payments) they should be reclassified as trade receivables (as above) or prepayments.
However, in practice (especially when such balances are immaterial) they would most likely
be “netted off” against the credit balances. The same is true of credit balances on accounts
receivable. Note that an overdraft, even with the same bank, can only be offset against cash
at bank if there is a legal right to offset the liability against the asset.
(3) Prepayments
$ $
As originally stated 770,000
Payments on account 25,000
Less: Commission due (2/102 × $1,101,600) 21,600
______
3,400
_______
773,400
_______
Answer 36 CRONOS
(a) Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 20X6
$
Sales 3,210,000
Cost of sales (W) (1,823,100)
–––––––––
Gross profit 1,386,900
Distribution costs (W) (188,500)
Administrative expenses (W) (944,680)
Interest payable (30,000 + 30,000) (60,000)
–––––––
–––––––
WORKING
Cost of Distribution Administrative
sales costs expenses
$ $ $
Purchases 1,748,200
Carriage outwards (47,250 + 1,250) 48,500
Wages and salaries 694,200
5,800
–––––––
700,000 70,000 140,000 490,000
–––––––
Sundry administrative expenses
(381,000 + 13,600 – 4,900) 389,700
Irrecoverable debts
(14,680 + 8,000 – 2,700) 19,980
Depreciation of office equipment
20% × (214,000 – 40,000 + 48,000) 44,400
Loss on sale 600
Closing inventory (219,600)
––––––––– ––––––– –––––––
1,823,100 188,500 944,680
––––––––– ––––––– –––––––
(b) Items appearing in profit or loss
B, C and F. Revenue, finance costs and income from associate must be presented in the
statement of profit or loss.
Tutorial note: Cost of sales and gross profit may be presented in the statement of profit or
loss or disclosed in the notes. Dividends paid are a distribution of profit and therefore shown
in the statement of changes in equity (not in the statement of profit or loss).
Answer 37 ABRADOR
(a) Statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X6

Assets $000 $000
Non-current assets
Property, plant and equipment (W1) 3,000
Development costs 570 3,570
–––––
Current assets
Inventory 3,900
Receivables (W2) 2,910 6,810
–––––– ––––––
10,380
––––––
Share capital 1,500
Retained earnings (W3) 5,780
–––––
7,980
Current liabilities
Bank overdraft 100
6% Loan notes 400 2,400
––––– ––––––
10,380
––––––
WORKINGS
(1) Property, plant and equipment $000

Cost per list of balances 5,000
Less: Depreciation at 31 December 20X5 1,000
–––––
4,000
Less: 25% × 4,000,000 1,000
–––––
3,000
–––––
(2) Receivables
Per list of balances 3,400
Less: Written off 400
–––––
3,000
Less: Allowance 90
–––––
2,910
–––––
Per list of balances 7,170
Less: Depreciation 1,000
Irrecoverable debts 400
Allowance for trade receivables (10) 1,390
–––– –––––
5,780
–––––
(b) IAS 38 disclosure
Movements on deferred development expenditure during year

$000
Balance at 31 December 20X5 550
Expenditure in 20X6 120
––––
670
Amortisation for year (100)
––––
Balance at 31 December 20X6 570
––––
Total expenditure on research and development charged to profit or loss
$000
Current expenditure 85
Amortisation 100
––––
185
––––
Answer 38 MINICA
(a) Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X6
$ $
Revenue (3,845,000 – 15,000) 3,830,000
less: Cost of sales
Purchases (2,184,000 – 60,000) 2,124,000
––––––––
2,603,000
Less: Closing inventory 450,000 2,153,000
–––––––– ––––––––
Gross profit 1,677,000
Less: Expenses
Sundry administrative expenses (W1) 430,300
Irrecoverable debts (W2) 26,000
Depreciation (W3) 94,000
Profit on sale of office equipment
(15,000 – 6,000) (9,000)
–––––––– 768,300
––––––––
––––––––
WORKINGS
(1) Sundry administrative expenses
416,000 + 28,700 – 14,400 430,300
(2) Irrecoverable debts
Written off 15,000
Allowance (31,000 – 20,000) 11,000 26,000
––––––
(3) Depreciation
((460,000 – 20,000) × 20%) 88,000
(60,000 × 20% × 6/12) 6,000 94,000
––––––
(b) Proposed dividend
The proposed dividend of $240,000 should be disclosed in a note in Minica’s published

financial statements, it is not included as a current liability or as a deduction from retained
earnings in the current period’s financial statements.
Answer 39 SHUSWAP
(a) Statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X6
Cost or Accumulated Carrying

valuation depreciation amount
Assets $000 $000 $000
Non-current assets
Land and buildings 12,000 – 12,000
–––––– ––––– ––––––
31,600 7,950 23,650
–––––– –––––
Current assets
Inventories (3,000 – 140) 2,860
Receivables (2,600 – 200 – 106) 2,294
Cash at bank 1,900 7,054
––––– ––––––
30,704
––––––
Share capital (6,000 + 2,000) 8,000
Retained earnings (W) 12,310
––––– 26,710
Loan notes 2,000
Current liabilities
Trade payables (2,100 – 106) 1,994
––––––
30,704
––––––
WORKING
Retained earnings balance
$000
Per question 12,400
Irrecoverable debts written off (200)
Loss on sale of plant (100)
Depreciation adjustment 350
Inventory adjustment (140)
––––––
12,310
––––––
(b) Gearing ratio
Debt ÷ (Debt + Equity): $2,000 ÷ $28,710 6.96%

Or
Debt ÷ Equity: $2,000 ÷ 2$6,710 7.49%
Gearing is perceived to be a guide to the financial risk faced by a business. The higher the
gearing then the higher the risk (although high risk could lead to high returns). The gearing of
Shuswap is very low.
Answer 40 MCQs CAPITAL STRUCTURE AND FINANCE COSTS
40.1 B $0.50 × 50,000 = $25,000 (premium) credited to share capital account that should
have been credited to share premium,
40.2 C The increase in share capital does not involve cash.
40.3 B A bonus issue converts reserves to shares so does not raise funds for investment. All
gains and losses are shown in a statement of comprehensive income (e.g. realised
gains/losses in profit and loss and unrealised gains in other comprehensive income).
40.4 B
40.5 A Of the $1,100,000 received 1,000,000 × $0.25 = 250,000 share capital and
1,000,000 × ($1.1 – $0.25) = 850,000 share premium
40.6 C
No. of shares Capital Premium
000 $000 $000
1 January 1,000 500 400
1 April (1:4 Bonus) 250 125 (125)
1 October (1:10 Rights) 125 62.5 125
______ ______ ______
1,375 687.5 400

______ ______ ______
40.7 A A rights issue: increases equity capital, may increase share premium and is to
existing shareholders (so does not increase number).
40.8 C Dividends on equity shares are an appropriation of profit to shareholders.
40.9 C $
July – September (1,000,000 × 8% × 3/12) 20,000
October – March (750,000 × 8% × 6/12) 30,000
April – June (750,000 × 8% × 3/12) 15,000
April – June (500,000 × 7% × 3/12) 8,750
––––––
73,750
––––––
40.10 C Cash raised is 250,000 × $3.55 = $887,500, which is debited to cash at bank. The
credit to share capital is 250,000 × $2 = $500,000, while the credit to share
premium is 250,000 × $1.55 = $387,500
40.11 A $
Retained earnings at 1 January 4,695,600
Operating profit 520,000
Loan notes interest ($1.3m × 10%) (130,000)
Income tax (156,000)
–––––––––
Retained earnings at 31December 4,929,600
–––––––––
40.12 A Bank is debited with the actual amount received. Share capital is credited with the
nominal value ($1 per share) and the surplus above nominal value is credited to the
share premium account.
40.13 D Dividends paid are never recognised in profit or loss. At the end of the reporting
period the interim dividend has been paid (so no liability) and the final dividend is
not declared (so no liability).
40.14 A On issue of redeemable preference shares, the two items affected would be cash (as
money is coming in from the issue of shares) and long-term debt. This is because,
although legally equity, redeemable preference shares are, in substance, debt (i.e.
they have a fixed return and are repayable/redeemable in future).
40.15 D Both statements are incorrect.
(1) is describing a bonus issue and is therefore incorrect. A rights issue does not
“capitalise company reserves”; it contributes cash resources, but just at a discounted
amount.
(2) is correct in so far as a rights issue is offered to existing shareholders at a

discount. However, it is a discount on the market value of a share. Shares cannot
be issued at less than their nominal (par) value.
40.16 C $
10% Loan note interest ($800,000 × 10% × 9/12) 60,000
Dividend paid on redeemable preference shares 5,000
––––––
65,000
––––––
The substance of redeemable preference shares under IFRS is that of a loan.
Therefore, the dividend on such shares is treated as a finance charge.
Tutorial note: The treatment of dividends on irredeemable preference shares is the
same as for dividends on equity shares (i.e. a distribution of retained earnings that is
recognised in the statement of changes in equity not the statement of profit or loss).
40.17 C $
30,000 2% $1 Irredeemable preference shares 30,000
100,000 $0.50 Equity shares 50,000
––––––
80,000
––––––
Tutorial note: Irredeemable preference shares do not have to be repaid and are
therefore treated as equity. Redeemable preference shares have to be repaid and so
are regarded as debt (i.e. a liability on the statement of financial position).
40.18 D The steps to answering this question are as follows:
(1) Calculate the nominal value of the bonus issue:
1 for 5 bonus issue ($100,000 ÷ 5) $20,000
This is a credit to the share capital a/c.
(2) Use the share premium to the extent possible:
Debit share premium a/c $15,000.
(3) Balance of $5,000 is therefore debited to retained earnings.
Retained earnings balance is now $455,000 ($460,000 – $5,000).
Tutorial note: A bonus issue is where new shares are issued to existing
shareholders in proportion to their existing shareholding. The company receives no
cash. Usually the share premium a/c and/or retained earnings are used to record
the debit side of the transaction.
Answer 41 RESERVES AND ISSUES
(a) Reserves
(i) Meaning
Reserves are balances in a company’s statement of financial position forming part of the
equity interest and representing surpluses or gains, whether realised or not.
(ii) Examples
 Share premium account: The surplus arising when shares are issued at a price in
excess of their par value.
 Revaluation surplus: The unrealised gain when the amount at which non-current
assets are carried is increased above cost.
Tutorial note: Other examples would be given credit on their merits.
(b) Issues
A “bonus issue” is the conversion of reserves into share capital, with shares being issued to
existing members in proportion to their shareholdings, without any consideration being given
by the shareholders.
A “rights issue” is again an issue of shares to existing members in proportion to their

shareholdings, but with payment being made by the shareholders for the shares allotted to
them.
The fundamental difference between them is that the rights issue raises funds for the company
whereas the bonus issue does not.
Answer 42 ARMANI
(a) Bonus issue
 A bonus issue is a capitalisation of reserves. There is no consideration (cash) so it 1

would not raise any capital for the company. 1
 To raise capital a rights issue (or an issue at full market price) would be necessary. 1
 For either a bonus issue or a rights issue to be possible, the authorised capital 1
would have to be increased.
 There are insufficient reserves to make a bonus issue of $750,000 worth of shares. 1
The maximum amount available, assuming no dividends are paid from retained 1
earnings, is $525,000. ———
max 4
———
(b) $0.05 dividend per share
3,000,000 × $0.05 = $150,000. This is twice the retained earnings available for distribution. ½+½
Retained earnings are insufficient to pay a dividend of more than $0.025 per share. +1
———
(c) Increasing revaluation surplus max 1
———
 Although purchased goodwill may be written down subsequently (for impairment) 1
it can never be revalued (upwards). ———
(d) Combining reserves
 Reserves cannot be combined into a single figure as suggested without any 1

additional disclosure.
 IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements requires that contributed equity and 1

reserves are disaggregated into various classes (e.g. paid-in capital, share premium
and reserves), either in the statement of financial position or in the notes. 1
———
max 2
———
8
———

43.1 A (2) is a distribution cost and (4) an administration cost; neither are manufacturing
costs
43.2 C (1) is a cost of materials purchase and (3) and (4) are production overheads.
43.3 B When prices are rising (which is usual) profit would be understated if overheads are
excluded altogether. Factory management costs are a production overhead to be
included.
43.4 C Inventory is only carried at net realisable value where it is less than cost.
43.5 A Selecting the lower of cost and NRV applied to each item: 100 + 170 + 150 + 120 +
170 = $710.
43.6 A Inventory is valued at lower of cost and net realisable value. Net realisable value is
expected sale proceeds (17,500) less selling costs (3,000).
43.7 C FIFO means that the 430 kg inventory includes:

$
All of the delivery on 28 Nov 300 kg at $60 18,000
Part of the delivery on 19 Nov 130 kg at $52 6,760
––––––
Inventory value 24,760
––––––
43.8 D Inventory should be valued at the lower of cost or net realisable value. This means
that the painting should be valued at $1,200 (selling price is lower than cost), the
necklace at $900 (cost) and the ear-rings at $800 (cost).
43.9 B Necklace Bracelet Pendant

$ $ $
Purchase cost 12,000 31,000 45,000
Restoration costs to date 6,000 5,000 2,000
––––––– ––––––– –––––––
Cost at 31 May 20X7 18,000 36,000 47,000
––––––– ––––––– –––––––
Expected selling price 25,000 38,000 53,000
Further costs before sale 2,000 3,000 1,000
––––––– ––––––– –––––––
Net realisable value 31 May 20X7 23,000 35,000 52,000
––––––– ––––––– –––––––
Lower of cost and NRV 18,000 35,000 47,000
––––––– ––––––– –––––––
Total inventory value = $100,000
43.10 D Inventory is included in the statement of financial position at the lower of cost and
net realisable value (NRV). Comparison must be made on an item-by-item; not on
the total inventory value.
The NRV of a unit of product A is $17 selling price less $5 modifications costs i.e.
$12.
$
Product A 2,000 units × $12 (NRV) = 24,000
Product B 5,000 units × $16 (Cost) = 80,000
–––––––
Total inventory 104,000
–––––––
Answer 44 SAMPI
Inventory valuation
Continuous weighted average cost

Number Weighted Total value
of units average of closing
cost inventory
$ $
Opening inventory 4,000 13.00
8 March 3,800 15.00
_____
Balance 7,800 13.97
12 March (5,000)
_____
2,800 13.97
18 March (2,000)
_____
800 13.97
22 March 6,000 18.00
_____
6,800 17.53
24 March (3,000)
_____
3,800 17.53
28 March (2,000)
_____
1,800 17.53 31,554
_____ _____
Tutorial note: Or 31,558 without rounding differences.
Answer 45 P, Q & R
(a) Value of closing inventory
Model P
Cost 100 + 20 + 15 = 1351

Net realisable value 150 – 22 = 1282
Lower of cost and net realisable value $128
____
Model Q
Cost (200 + 30 + 18) 2481

Net realisable value (300 – 40) 2602
Lower of cost and net realisable value $248
____
1
purchase cost + delivery costs from supplier + packaging costs
2
selling price – delivery costs to customers
(b) FIFO values
Year 1 Purchases Cost of sales Inventory Sales

Buy 10 at 300 3,000 3,000
Buy 12 at 250 3,000 6,000
Sell 8 at 400 2,4003 3,600 3,200
Buy 6 at 200 1,200 4,800
Sell 12 at 400 3,1004 1,700 4,800
_____ _____ _____ _____
7,200 5,500 1,700 8,000
_____ _____ _____ _____
Year 2
Opening inventory (8) 1,700
Buy 10 at 200 2,000 3,700
Sell 5 at 400 1,1005 2,600 2,000
Buy 12 at 150 1,800 4,400
Sell 25 at 400 4,4006 0 10,000
_____ _____ _____ _____
3,800 5,500 0 12,000
_____ _____ _____ _____
3
8 at 300
4
2 at 300 + 10 at 250
5
2 at 250 + 3 at 240
6
3 at 200 + 10 at 200 + 12 at 150
FIFO
$ $
Year 1
Sales revenue 8,000
Opening inventory 0
Purchases 7,200
_____
7,200
_____
Cost of sales 5,500
_____
Gross profit 2,500
_____
Year 2
Sales revenue 12,000
Purchases 3,800
_____
5,500
Closing inventory 0
_____
Cost of sales 5,500
_____
Gross profit 6,500
_____
Answer 46 MCQs Revenue
46.1 A The accruals basis concerns the timing of recording of transactions. A transaction
(e.g. a sale) is recognised when it occurs (i.e. recorded in the period to which it
relates) and not when cash is received. So (1) and (3) are correct. (2) is incorrect as
the accruals basis applies to both income and expenses.
The “matching concept” concerns the measurement of profit. When revenue is
recorded (under the accruals basis) a cost must be matched with it (even if this is
only an estimate). However, revenue cannot be anticipated on costs having been
incurred. So (4) is incorrect.
46.2 B A contract for the sale of goods is a performance obligation that will be satisfied at
the point in time when the customer obtains control of the goods. Payment for
goods is not an indicator of the transfer of control.
Tutorial note: That the customer has an obligation to pay (e.g. because they have
accepted the goods) is an indicator. If the customer pays in advance of the seller
dispatching the goods the performance obligation is not yet satisfied.
46.3 C $500 revenue per month for 6 months = $3,000
46.4 B Only revenue for three months should be recognised; the advance payment for the
second three months is presented in current liabilities.
46.5 D The criteria for revenue recognition have not yet been met so the advanced payment
should be recognised as a current liability.
47.1 C 48,000 + 400 + 2,200 = $50,600
47.2 B Depreciation: 1/40 × 1,000,000 = $25,000

Revaluation: 1,000,000 – (800,000 – 2% × 10 × 800,000) = $360,000
47.3 D Assets with indefinite lives (e.g. land) are not depreciated. Goodwill cannot be
revalued.
47.4 D A, B & C are examples of revenue expenditure. Only capital expenditure can be
recognised as an asset under IAS 16 (i.e. to acquire physical assets).
47.5 C Total cost of machine is $15,000 + $1,500 + $750 = $17,250

10% deprecation for the year $1,725
Carrying amount at the end of year = $15,525
Tutorial note: Repairs of $400 is an expense and not capitalised (IAS 16).
47.6 C Purchase cost (124,760) + delivery (1,250) + installation (3,750) = $129,760.

Tutorial note: Maintenance costs are a revenue expense which will be charged to
profit or loss on a time-apportioned basis (e.g. if the reporting date is 31 December
$1,600 (2,500 × 8/12) will be expensed in the current year and the remainder in the
following year).
47.7 C The carrying amount of the factory is $100,000 less than its market value. $40,000
of this loss must be recognised against the previously recognised revaluation surplus
of $40,000 (i.e. the amount relating to the factory). The balance of $60,000 must be
expensed to profit or loss.
The correct balance on the revaluation surplus (in the statement of changes in
equity) will be:
$000 Head office Warehouse Factory Total

Balance b/f 186 68 40 294
Increase in year 40 5 – 45
Loss recognised (40) (40)
––– ––– ––– –––
Balance c/f 226 73 – 299
––– ––– ––– –––
47.8 A The profit on the sale is a realised gain recognised in the statement of profit or loss.
The revaluation surplus is an unrealised gain that is recognised in other
comprehensive income.
47.9 D The fall in value of the factory cannot be offset against the surplus for the head
office; therefore the value of the revaluation surplus is $1,339,000 (1,257 + 82).
47.10 D The loss of $45,000 on the second property must be expensed entirely to profit or
loss; it cannot be offset against the surplus on another asset.
47.11 D The increase is recognised in other comprehensive income (the gain in the period)
and the statement of financial position (in the carrying amount of the asset and
revaluation surplus). The statement of changes in equity shows the movement on
the surplus in the reporting period.
47.12 D When a property has been revalued, the charge for depreciation should be based on
the revalued amount and the remaining useful life of the asset. The increase of the
new depreciation charge over the old depreciation charge may be transferred from
the revaluation surplus to retained earnings:
Dr Revaluation surplus $20,000

Cr Retained earnings $20,000
Therefore: Retained earnings = $895,000 (875,000 + 20,000)

Revaluation surplus = $180,000 (200,000 – 20,000)
47.13 B The consequence of the revaluation to $432,000 is a higher annual depreciation

expense. The difference between the new expense based on the revalued carrying
amount and the old expense based on £400,000 original cost is “excess depreciation”.
IAS 16 permits a transfer of the amount of the excess depreciation from the
revaluation surplus to retained earnings within equity.
Old depreciation ($400,000 ÷ 40 years) $10,000
New depreciation ($432,000 ÷ 36 years) $12,000
An amount of $2,000 can therefore be transferred each year from the revaluation
surplus to retained earnings. The correct accounting entries would be:
Dr Revaluation surplus $2,000

Cr Retained earnings $2,000
Answer 48 NON-CURRENT ASSETS
(a) Accounting terms
(i) Asset
An asset is a resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events and from which future
economic benefits are expected to flow to the entity.
(ii) Current asset

A current asset is defined in IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements as one which is:
 expected to be realised in, or is held for sale or consumption in, the normal course
of the entity’s trading cycle; or
 held primarily for trading purposes or for the short-term and expected to be realised
within 12 months after the reporting period; or
 cash or a cash equivalent asset which is not restricted in its use.
(iii) Non-current asset

A non-current asset is defined in IAS 1 as any asset not within the definition of current asset
in (ii) above. A non-current asset is thus an asset held for the long term to be used in carrying
on the activities of the entity and not held for resale.
(iv) Depreciation
Depreciation is defined in IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment as the systematic allocation
of the depreciable amount of an asset over its useful life. The depreciable amount is the cost of
an asset, or other amount substituted for cost in the financial statements, less its residual value.
(b) Assets
(i) A screwdriver
This is strictly within the definition of a non-current asset, however, on application of the
concept of materiality such items would usually be written off to profit or loss as an expense.
(ii) A machine hired by the business

As the asset has not been acquired and is not controlled by the business on a permanent basis
the machine cannot be regarded as an asset. If the hire were on a long-term basis then there
could be an argument that in fact the machine was controlled by the business and therefore the
right to use the machine is an asset.
(iii) The good reputation of the business with its customers

This is usually one component of the asset of goodwill. However as goodwill is usually
created and not purchased, it is common for goodwill not to be valued as an asset in the
accounts (as it is difficult to meet the recognition criteria of an asset).
(c) Meaning of $4.5
The non-current assets have a value of $4.5 million, made up of $3 million of land, $1 million
of buildings and $0.5 million of plant and equipment. The land is stated at valuation, which
means that it is stated at a value such as market value rather than original cost.
The buildings are stated at their original cost, which may have been incurred some time ago
and which may be out of line with the current value of the building.
The plant and equipment figure is made up of the original cost of the plant after deduction of
an amount of $1.5 million for depreciation to come to the carrying amount of $0.5 million.
The depreciation is an attempt to spread the cost of the plant, as an expense to profit or loss,
over its useful economic life. Thus the $0.5 million is the remaining cost yet to be expensed
to profit or loss in future years.
The total of $4.5 million therefore consists of three figures calculated on entirely different
bases. It is therefore questionable whether this figure gives any meaningful information to the
shareholders.
Item Ans9er Justification
49.1 D IAS 38 does not specify a maximum period for amortisation, therefore not (1). If
the conditions exist, asset recognition is not an option, therefore not (2).
Amortisation is an expense in profit or loss, therefore not (4).
49.2 C Goodwill can never be revalued upwards. Internally-generated goodwill cannot be

capitalised. Purchased goodwill is not amortised (but tested annually for impairment).
49.3 A Development expenditure must be capitalised if certain conditions are met.
49.4 C Research expenditure can never be capitalised.
49.5 C Expenditure on both Projects 175 and 393 is research expenditure which must be
expensed as incurred.
Expenditure on Project 254 is development expenditure that must be capitalised.
Amortisation commences with production, not sale. Therefore the amount to be
amortised is $1.6m ÷ 4 years × 3/12 = $100,000.
Therefore expensed to profit or loss is:
Project 175 $2.5m
Project 254 $0.1m
Project 393 $4.8m Total $7.4m
49.6 A (1) Is incorrect as many internally-generated intangibles are not recognised

(e.g. development costs that do not meet all the asset recognition criteria).
(2) Is incorrect as some internally-generated assets (e.g. development costs
that meet the asset recognition criteria) may be recognised.
(3) Is incorrect. Goodwill (like any other asset) must be carried at an amount
that is less than cost if its realisable amount is less than cost.
49.7 D All research expenditure must be expensed to profit or loss as incurred. If relevant
criteria are met development expenditure must be capitalised.
49.8 C Only the $600,000 qualifies for capitalisation as it is development expenditure.

(The $300,000 is research expenditure and must be written off as incurred.) Thus
the expense for the current year is amortisation: $600,000 ÷ 8 = $75,000.
Answer 50 LION
(a) Research and development
Carrying amount New Profit or loss Carrying amount

at 1 April 20X6 expenditure Amortisation Research at 31 March 20X7
$000 $000 $000 $000 $000
Project Q 1,000
(200) (100) 700
R 400 250 650
S (140)
––––– –––– –––– ––––– –––––
1,200 250 (100) (140) 1,350
––––– –––– –––– ––––– –––––
Equipment
Carrying amount New Depreciation Carrying amount
at 1 April 20X6 expenditure at 31 March 20X7
$000 $000 $000 $000
Cost 500 180 680
Depreciation (200) (136) (336)
–––– –––– –––– ––––
Carrying amount 300 180 (136) 344
–––– –––– –––– ––––
Headings
The amortisation of deferred development expenditure ($100,000) and the research
expenditure ($140,000) and the depreciation of the research equipment ($136,000) will be
included in the statement of profit or loss as part of cost of sales.
The total deferred development expenditure ($1,350,000) will be shown in the statement of
financial position under intangible non-current assets.
(b) Disclosure notes
Statement of profit or loss

The aggregate amount of research and development expenditure recognised as an expense
during the period was $376,000, all charged in cost of sales.

Movements on deferred development expenditure during the year were:
Cost Amortisation Carrying amount
$000 $000 $000
Balance at 1 April 20X6 1,400 (200) 1,200
Year ended 31 March 20X7
Amortisation (100) (100)
New expenditure 250 250
––––– –––– –––––
1,650 (300) 1,350
––––– –––– –––––
Answer 51 AIRCRAFT
(a) Statement of profit or loss

Project $000
A17 (1/8 × $16 million) 2,000 1
A20 3,000 1
–––––
5,000
–––––
Cost Amortisation Carrying amount
$000 $000 $000
A17 16,000 4,000 12,000 1
J9 5,500 5,500 1
–––––– ––––– –––––
21,500 4,000 17,500 ———
–––––– ––––– ––––– 4
———
(b) Accounting concepts applicable to development expenditure
The main applicable accounting concepts are accruals, prudence and going concern. ½ each
The accruals concept favours capitalisation of development expenditure. The cost is then 1
matched by charging annual amortisation against the future income generated. 1
The prudence concept however argues for the exercise of a degree of caution, having regard 1
to the lack of certainty about the successful outcome of the development project. Prudence
therefore suggests that development expenditure should be expensed when incurred. 1
However, the exercise of prudence does not allow the deliberate overstatement of expenses
1
(understatement of assets) where an asset should be recognised (as meeting the asset
recognition criteria).
The going concern concept is relevant if it is in doubt. If the asset recognition criteria are no
longer met development expenditure, including that which has been previously capitalised, max 2
must be expensed. ———
max 6
Answer 52 MCQs IAS 37 ———
52.1 D No provision can be made for future operating losses. Non-adjusting events are
disclosed. Contingents assets are not recognised until virtually certain.
52.2 A
52.3 C A contingent asset cannot be recognised as an asset when it is merely probable, so

not (1). Adjusting events do not all need to be detailed as they have been adjusted,
so not (3).
52.4 A (1) A provision must be made for the best estimate of the liability (in the light of
past experience). A provision cannot be made for (2) because it is not probable; nor
can it be ignored (because it is not remote), therefore disclose.
52.5 C IAS 37 requires a provision to be recognised if, at the reporting date, an event has
taken place which means that it is probable that a transfer of economic benefits will
be required, and the amount of the transfer can be reliably measured.
In this case, as the company has accepted liability, it is clear that compensation is
highly likely to be paid at some point in the future. Although the customer has
claimed $250,000 and the company has offered $100,000, the best estimate is the
amount estimated by the legal representatives ($150,000).
52.6 B The legal claim gives rise to a possible liability; the offer of a relatively small
settlement is not an admission of liability. A provision is not required as liability is
not probable (based on legal advice).
Tutorial note: A provision of $5,000 would be appropriate if the customer had

accepted the offer but this amount had not been paid at the reporting date.
52.7 D Legal advice indicates that a liability of the full amount, $85,000, should be
recognised. As the case will not be going to court until July 20X7, more than one
year after the reporting date, the liability should be classified as non-current.
52.8 A Liabilities and provisions are recognised in the statement of financial position,
contingent liabilities may be disclosed (e.g. if only possible).
Answer 53 RESERVES
(a) Reserves; cash in hand
Reserves are the ownership interest in the business other than the share capital itself which for
limited companies must always be shown separately as such. Reserves represent claims by
the owners on business resources. Reserves include Share premium account, Revaluation
surplus and Retained earnings. The bigger the reserves then, other things equal, the bigger the
resources in the business attributable to the owners. Cash in hand, on the other hand, means
the amount of actual money - coin or note - which is owned by a business at the relevant date.
Cash in hand is an asset, indeed the most liquid asset of all. Reserves are one of the claims on
the assets. Reserves are not cash.
(b) Ownership interest; capital employed
Ownership interest is the total of share capital and reserves. It is the total ownership claim on
a business. It indicates the total resources held in a business at a point of time which “belong”
to the owners, both put in by the owners and gained by successful business activity, according
to the measurement bases used in the accounts.
Capital employed is the total of ownership interest plus long-term (i.e. non-current) liabilities.
It represents the “permanent” sources of finance being used by the business. Capital
employed therefore considers funds put into the business by the shareholders (owners) and
those that have merely loaned money to the business.
(c) Liability; expense
A liability is an existing obligation of a business, arising from past events, the settlement of
which is expected to involve the outflow of future economic benefits. Liabilities are claims
on the business assets other than claims from the owners.
An expense arises through the use or consumption of an asset or resource. When a resource
has been used for its beneficial purpose then the recorded figure for the resource becomes an
expense and the resource is no longer regarded as an asset. If the expense is recognised
before the resource is acquired then a liability will also arise. In this situation the expense
and the liability form the two parts of the double entry for the transaction.
(d) Contingent liability; provision
A contingent liability is a possible or potential liability which may or may not actually occur.
It relates to a past event but there may very well be no crystallisation of a liability, and
therefore there may be no outflow of economic resources. An example would be a court case
where no actual liability exists unless or until the judgement goes against the business.
A provision is an estimated liability. The existence of the liability is known (unlike with a
contingent liability), but the precise amount of the liability or the timing is not.
54.1 A (2) and (3) are non-adjusting events (as conditions did not exist at the end of the
reporting period).
54.2 A Non-adjusting events (3) and (4) will be disclosed.
54.3 D The “conditions” of (1) and (3) do not exist at the end of the reporting period.
54.4 D
54.5 B
54.6 B As the fire occurred after the reporting date, it concerns conditions which did not
exist at the reporting date. As 30% of inventory would be considered material (but
not affect the going concern basis of preparation of the financial statements) this is a
non-adjusting event. The uninsured portion of the loss ($90,000) should be
disclosed in a note. It cannot be recognised in profit or loss.
54.7 D Both events occurred after the reporting date and are therefore classified as non-
adjusting. The reported profit for 20X7 will therefore not be affected by the two
events.
54.8 C The accident occurred before the reporting date. The correct treatment would have
included expensing the uninsured loss ($30,000). The letter provides further
evidence relating to a condition that existed at the reporting date. It informs the
accountant that there is an additional loss ($245,000) that must be recognised.
54.9 D Information received from the insurance company relates to conditions at the
reporting date, the information is therefore an adjusting event. As only $12,500 is
now receivable there is an expense of $112,500 to be recognised in profit or loss
and a receivable of $12,500.
Answer 55 ALUKI
(a) Closing inventory
Inventory should be measured at the lower of cost and net realisable value (IAS 2
Inventories). The 3,000 skirts should therefore be included at cost $40,000 as this is less than
$62,000 net realisable value.
The jackets should be measured at net realisable value:

$
$25,000 less $1,800 23,200
$20,000 less $2,000 18,000
––––––
41,200
––––––
(b) Employee dismissal
IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets requires contingent liabilities
of this kind and degree of probability be disclosed in a note, detailing the nature of the
contingent liability and an estimate of the financial effect.
The $100,000 should therefore be reversed and the note disclosure given. However, provision
should be made for legal expenses to be incurred.
(c) Warehouse fire
According to IAS 10 Events after the Reporting Period the fire is a non-adjusting event.
Disclosure in a note is required, giving details of the event and its financial effect (a loss of
$180,000 plus $228,000 = $408,000) as the matter is material enough to influence a user of
the financial statements.
Answer 56 QUAPAW
(a) One-year warranty
The correct treatment is to provide for the best estimate of the costs likely to be incurred
under the warranty, as required by IAS 37 Provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent
assets. A best estimate might be calculated as the expected percentage of product returns
multiplied by the average cost of rectifying a defect (which should not exceed the cost of
replacing the product returned).
(b) Damaged goods
The inventories should be valued at the lower of cost and net realisable value (IAS 2
Inventories). Cost is $80,000, net realisable value is $85,000 less 10% (i.e. $76,500). The net
realisable value of $76,500 should therefore be the carrying amount of these inventories at the
end of the reporting period.
Answer 57 UMBRIA
(1) Fire at factory
 The factory was in working condition at 30 June 20X7 and the fire does not provide
evidence of a condition existing at that date. Therefore the fire is a non-adjusting
event according to IAS 10 Events after the Reporting Period.
 The fact of the fire occurring should be disclosed in a note to the financial
statements together with an estimate of the loss suffered showing separately the
estimated cost of the fire and the estimated insurance recovery.
Tutorial note: It would be insufficient information for users of financial statements to
disclose only a net loss. Any reimbursement of costs through insurance is a completely
separate transaction/event.
(2) Overdraft guarantee
 According to IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets, such

contingent liabilities must be provided for as soon as it becomes probable that a
liability will arise.
 A provision should therefore be made for the best estimate of the cost that will arise
in respect of the guarantee.
Tutorial note: An estimate can always be made for such a provision. For example, the cost
would not be expected to exceed the balance on the overdraft or the amount guaranteed
(whichever is the lower).
(3) Director’s dismissal
 The assessment of a future aware of damages as “probable” makes it a contingent

asset under IAS 37.
 This pending litigation should be disclosed in a note to the financial statements,
explaining its nature and, if possible, an estimate of the financial effect.
Tutorial note: The action by the company is not an event after the reporting period as it
would appear to have commenced before 30 June 20X7. The event under consideration here
is the probable subsequent award of damages.
(4) Revaluation gain
 It is incorrect to include it in the statement or profit or loss, because the gain is

unrealised. It should be included separately in other comprehensive income.
 It will then be included in a revaluation surplus in the statement of changes in equity
and shown in the statement of financial position as a reserve. (IAS 16 Property,
Plant and Equipment and IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements).
58.1 B
58.2 D Proposing dividends and issuing bonus shares are not cash flow transactions.
58.3 D
58.4 B Acquisitions and disposals of non-current assets are investing activities. A profit on
disposal is not a cash flow and therefore deducted.
58.5 A Additions = $15,000 cash outflow

Cash inflow from disposal = $3,000 (gain) + $2,000 (carrying amount) = $5,000
Net cash out flow = $15,000 - $5,000 = $10,000
58.6 B Increase in inventory = $20,000 outflow

Increase in receivables = $35,000 outflow
Increase in payables = $40,000 inflow
Net effect = $15,000 outflow
58.7 A Cash flows from financing: $000

Issue of share capital (120 + 60) – (80 + 40) 60
Repayment of bank loan (100 – 150) (50)
–––––
Net cash inflow from financing 10
–––––
Tutorial note: Movement in retained earnings is not a cash flow.
58.8 D An increase in trade receivables means that some of the sales in the year were not
realised as cash during the year. The other three changes would have caused the
opposite effect.
58.9 B The full cost of purchase of non-current assets is $687,000 (regardless of how it is
financed) and proceeds from the sale of non-current assets is $60,000 (75 – 15).
58.10 C Sold Carrying amount $273,790 Purchases $568,900 outflow

Loss $15,850
––––––––
Cash received $257,940 inflow Net cash outflow $310,960
58.11 B Increase in assets and decrease in liabilities both affect cash flows in the same
manner. Both will be cash outflows.
58.12 B 2,110 – (1,945 – 270) = $435. Movements in equity and non-current loans are
financing activities.
Answer 59 CRASH
(a) Statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 March 20X7
$000 $000
Profit 405
Adjustments for:
Depreciation 1,500
Profit on sale of non-current asset (75)
Interest expense 150
––––––
1,980
Operating profit before working capital changes
Increase in inventories (135)
Increase in payables 90
––––––
1,995
Cash generated from operations
Interest paid (150)
––––––
Net cash from operating activities 1,845
Purchase of property, plant and equipment (W1) (2,700)
Proceeds from sale of non-current asset 375
––––––
Net cash used in investing activities (2,325)
Cash flows from financing activities
Proceeds from issuance of share capital 1,200
Repayment of loan notes (750) 450
–––––– ––––––
Decrease in cash (30)
Overdraft at beginning of period (135)
––––––
Overdraft at end of period (165)
––––––
WORKING
(1) Movement in non-current assets
Non-current assets – cost
$000 $000
Opening balance 9,000 Transfer disposal 1,500
Revaluation 750
Net assets purchased 2,700
–––––– ––––––
12,450 12,450
–––––– ––––––
(b) Ratios
20X7 20X6
(i) Gearing
Debt ÷ (Debt + Equity):
$750 ÷ $8,745 8.6%

$1,500 ÷ $7,140 21%
Or
Debt ÷ Equity:
$750 ÷ $7,995 9.4%

$1,500 ÷ $5,640 26.6%
(ii) Current ratio
$2,745 ÷ $1,350 2:1

$2,625÷ $1,185 2.2:1
Non-current assets – depreciation
$000 $000
Transfer disposal 1,200 Opening balance 3,300
Closing balance 3,600 Profit or loss 1,500
––––– –––––
4,800 4,800
––––– –––––
Non-current assets – disposal
$000 $000
Transfer cost 1,500 Transfer depreciation 1,200
Profit or loss 75 Proceeds of sale 375
––––– –––––
1,575 1,575
––––– –––––
Answer 60 MARMOT
(a) Net cash flow from operating activities – direct method
$000 $000
Cash receipts from customers 12,800
Cash paid to employees 2,820
Cash paid for expenses 2,270
_____
10,030
______
Net cash flow from operating activities 2,770
______
(b) Net cash flow from operating activities – indirect method

Profit before taxation 2,370
Adjustment for: Depreciation 880
_____
Operating profit before working capital changes 3,250
Increase in inventories (370)
Decrease in payables (390)
_____
Net cash from operating activities 2,770
_____
Answer 61 RENADA
(a) Statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 October 20X6
Cash flows from operating activities $000 $000

Profit before taxation 200
Adjustments for:
Depreciation 120
Loss on sale of office equipment 50
––––
Operating profit before working capital changes 370
Increase in inventory (1,000)
Increase in payables 1,050
––––
Cash used in operations (110)
Income taxes paid (120)
––––
Net cash used in operating activities (230)
Purchase of non-current assets (W) (700)
Proceeds from sale of non-current assets 30
––––
Net cash used in investing activities (670)
Proceeds from issuance of share capital 500
––––
Net cash from financing activities 500
––––
Net decrease in cash and cash equivalents (400)
Cash and cash equivalents at 31 October 20X5 140
––––
Cash and cash equivalents at 31 October 20X6 (260)
––––
WORKING
Non-current assets – carrying amount
$000 $000
Balance 1,000 Transfer disposal 80
Revaluation surplus 300 Depreciation 120
Assets purchased (balancing figure) 700 Balance 1,800
––––– –––––
2,000 2,000
––––– –––––
(b) Ratios
20X6 20X5
(i) ROCE
$200 ÷ $2,800 7.1%
$600 ÷ $1,840 32.6%
(ii) Quick ratio

$1,800 ÷ $2,400 0.75:1
$1,410 ÷ $1,170 1.2:1
Answer 62 SIOUX
(a) Statement of cash flows for the year ended 31 December 20X6
$000 $000
Cash flows from operating activities
Profit before taxation 2,350
Adjustments for:
Depreciation (W2) 1,250
Profit on sale of plant (W3) (150)
Interest expense 300
––––––
Operating profit before working capital changes 3,750
Decrease in inventories 400
Increase in payables 500
––––––
Cash generated from operations 3,750
Interest paid (300)
Income taxes paid (600)
–––––– 2,850
Purchase of non-current assets (W1) (3,300)
Proceeds of sale of non-current assets 500
Net cash used in investing activities –––––– (2,800)
Proceeds of issue of loan notes 1,000
Dividends paid (750)
Net cash from financing activities –––––– 250
––––––
Net increase in cash 300
Cash at 1 January 20X6 100
––––––
Cash at 31 December 20X6 400
––––––
WORKINGS
(1) Non-current assets – cost

$000 $000
Opening balance 8,000 Disposal 800
Cash (balancing figure) 3,300
–––––– ––––––
11,800 11,800
–––––– ––––––
(2) Non-current assets – accumulated depreciation

$000 $000
Disposal (800 – 350) 450 Opening balance 4,800
Closing balance 5,600 Profit or loss 1,250
––––– –––––
6,050 6,050
––––– –––––
(3) Non-current assets – disposal

$000 $000
Cost 800 Accumulated depreciation 450
Profit on sale 150 Cash 500
––– –––
950 950
––– –––
(b) Ratios
Tutorial notes:
(i) The receipt of cash from customers does not change total of current assets.
(ii) An increase in loan notes will increase non-current liabilities and cash.
(iii) A payment to suppliers will decrease current assets and current liabilities.
(i) Current ratio

6,600 ÷ 2,400 2.75:1
(ii) Quick ratio

3,200 ÷ 2,400 1.33:1
(iii) ROCE
4,000 ÷ 9,600 41.7%
Or
4,000 ÷ 5,600 71.4%
Answer 63 JOYCE
Statement of cash flows for the year ended 30 June 20X7
$000 $000
Cash flows from operating activities
Profit before taxation (W1) 22,200 2½†
Adjustments for
Depreciation 13,000 ½
Interest expense (8% × ½ (8,000 + 10.000)) 720 1
––––––
35,920
Increase in inventories (4,900) ½
Increase in receivables (8,900) ½
Decrease in payables (2,100) ½
––––––
Cash generated from operations 20,020
Interest paid (720) ½*
Income taxes paid (6,200) ½
––––––
Net cash from operating activities 13,100 ½
Purchase of property plant and equipment (W3) (19,000) 2½†
––––––
Net cash used in investing activities (19,000)
Proceeds of issue of share capital 2,000 ½
Proceeds of issue of loan notes 2,000 ½
Dividends paid (4,000) ½
–––––
Net cash from financing activities –
–––––
Net decrease in cash and cash equivalents (5,900) ½
Cash and cash equivalents at 1 July 20X6 4,600
–––––
Cash and cash equivalents at 30 June 20X7 (1,300) ½
––––– ———
12
———
* Award for the same amount as is included in the adjustment.

† Includes 2 for amount (W) and ½ for inclusion in statement.
WORKINGS
(1) Calculation of profit for year
$000 $000
Dividends 4,000 Opening balance 18,000
Tax expense (W2) 8,200 Profit for year
Closing balance 28,000 (balancing figure) 22,200
______ ______
40,200 40,200
–––––– ––––––
(2) Income taxes

$000 $000
Cash 6,200 Opening balance 6,000
Closing balance 8,000 Expense (balancing figure) 8,200
______ ______
14,200 14,200
–––––– ––––––
(3) Non-current assets

$000 $000
Opening balance 130,000 Depreciation 13,000
Revaluation gain 12,000
Purchases (balancing figure) 19,000 Closing balance 148,000
_______ _______
161,000 161,000
––––––– –––––––
Answer 64 MCQs CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Tutorial note: Consolidation will not be examined using objective test questions in the F3 examination.
These questions are provided for revision only.
64.1 C $000
Cost of investment (assumed fair value) 1,400
Fair value of net assets acquired ((600 × 0.5) + 50 + 20)) (370)
–––––
Goodwill on acquisition 1,030
–––––
64.2 D $000
Fair value of non-controlling interest on acquisition
(200,000 × 20% × $3.10) 124
Post-acquisition profits (50,000 × 20%) 10
–––––
134
–––––
64.3 B (1) is incorrect –The only exception to consolidation of a subsidiary is if control is
known to be temporary at the date of acquisition (IFRS 3). (2) is correct (IAS 1).
64.4 D
$000 %
Sales value 1,044 100
Cost of sales 783 75
—— ——
Profit 261 25
—— ——
Tutorial note: Margin is “on sales” therefore sales value is 100%. If margin is
25%, cost is 75%.
Unrealised profit in inventory is $261,000 × 60% = $156,600
Alternatively: (60% × $1,044,000) × 25/100 = $156,600
64.5 D (576,000 + 140,000) – (180,000 + 108,000) = 428,000
64.6 C 140,000 + (20% × 144,000) = 168,800
64.7 B $
Parent as per question 1,224,000
Post-acquisition share of Malta
(80% × ((680,000 – 3,000) – 476,000)) 160,800
——–––––
1,384,800
————–
Unrealised profit is 20% on cost price, $18,000 is selling price so profit element is
20
/120 = 3,000
64.8 B 60% × (25/125 × $200,000) = $24,000
64.9 C An investment in an associate is only carried at cost initially. (Thereafter the

carrying amount is increased or decreased to recognise the investor’s share in profit
or loss post-acquisition.)
64.10 D More than half of the voting power constitutes control. Significant influence is a
power that does not amount to control.
64.11 B Since an investment in an associate is shown as a single line item in the

consolidated statement of financial position under the equity method the carrying
amount includes any goodwill (i.e. excess of the cost of the investment over the net
fair value of the investor’s share of the associate’s identifiable assets and liabilities).
64.12 B There is no requirement to value assets at fair value.
64.13 C Under the equity method an investment in an associate is calculated as original cost
plus the parent’s share of post-acquisition profits.
$
Cost of investment 960,000
Share of post-acquisition profits (25% × (1,710 – 1,080)) 157,500
––––––––
1,117,500
––––––––
64.14 A Bram’s payables 244,000 + Stoker’s payables 40,000 – owed to Bram 6,000 = 278,000
Bram’s receivables 360,000 + Stoker’s receivables 150,000 – owed by Bram 6,000
= 504,000
64.15 D Only the “full goodwill” (also called “fair value”) method of valuing non-
controlling interest is examinable. So all that is required is to complete the
proforma calculation:
Fair value of consideration: $
Cash paid (75% × 100,000 × $2) 150,000
Shares issued (75% × 100,000 × $1.75) 131,250
Fair value of non-controlling interest 82,000
_______
363,250
Less: Fair value of net assets at acquisition (215,500)
_______
Goodwill at acquisition 147,750
_______
Tutorial note: The examiner reported that only 20% of candidates answered this
question correctly with the most popular incorrect answer being C (i.e. failing to
include shares issued at fair value rather than nominal value).
64.16 D $000
At acquisition 450
% Post-acquisition (4,000 – 3,200) × 10% 80
––––
530
––––
64.17 C 9,000 + (9,000 × 3%) + (12,000 × 7/12) + 6,000 = 22,270
Tutorial note: Any “elimination” of inter-group transactions is irrelevant because

the question concerns the separate financial statements of the parent.
64.18 C Jamee has 1 million ($500,000 × $0.50) shares in issue.

Harvert holds 400,000 shares or 40% of the share capital.
With a holding of 40% and one nominated director, it is virtually certain that
Harvert can exercise significant influence over the operating and financial policies
of Jamee, but cannot exercise control.
64.19 B The group recognises 100% of every asset (and liability) of any subsidiary in the
consolidated statement of financial position. Only the share capital of the parent is
included in the consolidated statement of financial position.
64.20 D As Orius has not acquired sufficient shares to control the voting at any meeting of
members, but has a representative on the board of directors, it is in a position to
exercise significant influence over, but not to control, Eerus. This means that Eerus
is an associate of Orius.
The correct accounting treatment of an associate is equity accounting (acquisition

accounting is applied to subsidiaries).
64.21 D $100,000 + (4/12 × $62,000) – $6,000 = $114,667
When answering questions on the preparation of consolidated financial statements,

there are two important facts to establish quickly:
(1) What is the size of the holding acquired?

(2) What is the date of acquisition?
Panther acquired 80% of Seal’s equity shares and therefore has a controlling interest
(> 50%). Thus Seal will be consolidated as a subsidiary, on a 100% line-by-line
basis to reflect control.
However, as the interest was acquired on 31 August, Seal was only a subsidiary for
4 months of the year. Therefore, only the post-acquisition results of the subsidiary
are consolidated.
As intra-group sales were all made in October, in the post-acquisition period, they
must be eliminated in full.
64.22 D Goodwill is calculated as:

$
Consideration transferred (W1) 1,500
Fair value of non-controlling interest 300
–––––
1,800
Less Fair value of net assets acquired (W2) (1,585)
–––––
Goodwill 215
–––––
When calculating goodwill on acquisition, it is important to determine:
(i) The date of the acquisition (i.e. when control was gained). This was 1
April, not the year end date of 30September;
(ii) Consideration transferred to gain control;
(iii) The fair value of the non-controlling interest (given as $300);
(iv) The fair value of the net assets on acquisition (1 April).
WORKINGS
(1) Consideration transferred: (75% × 1,000 shares) × $2 a share = $1,500
(2) Fair value of net assets acquired:

$
Retained earnings ($710 – (6/12 × $250)) 585
–––––
1,585
–––––
Tutorial note: The tricky part is determining the fair value of Bee’s net assets at
acquisition. Although there are no fair value adjustments, the financial statement
extracts are as at the year-end date (30 September). Therefore, net assets at 1 April
must be calculated by deducting the amount of retained earnings earned in the six
months after the acquisition.
Answer 65 HAYDN & STRAUSS
(a) Consolidated statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X6
Non-current assets $
Goodwill (W2) 41,000
Tangible (131,500 + 144,000) 275,500
_______
316,500
Current assets (57,000 + 110,400 – 3,000) 164,400
_______
480,900
_______

Revaluation surplus (W4) 59,000
_______
331,000
Non-controlling interest (W3) 58,500
_______
Total equity 389,500
Current liabilities (32,000 + 62,400 – 3,000) 91,400
_______
480,900
_______
WORKINGS
(1) S net assets
Reporting Acquisition Post-
date acquisition
$ $ $
Share capital 36,000 36,000 –
Share premium 24,000 24,000 –
Revaluation surplus 12,000 – 12,000
Retained earnings 120,000 24,000 96,000
——— ——— ———
192,000 84,000 108,000
——— ——— ———
(2) Goodwill
$
Fair value of consideration 93,500
Non-controlling interest on acquisition (25% × 36,000 × $3.50) 31,500
Less: Net assets acquired (100%) (84,000)
———
41,000
———
(3) Non-controlling interest
Fair value (W2) 31,500

Share of Strauss post-acquisition (25% × 108,000) 27,000
_______
58,500
_______

$
Haydn as per question 50,000
———
59,000
———
$
Haydn as per question 150,000
_______
222,000
_______
(b) C All of the subsidiary’s revenue is included in consolidated revenue and all intra-
group sales are cancelled on consolidation.
(c) C (1) and (4) are both indicators of control and in these instances Bach would be a
subsidiary. (2) and (3) are possible indicators of significant influence (IAS 28
Investments in Associates and Joint Ventures).
Answer 66 DUBLIN & BELFAST
Consolidated statement of financial position as at 31 December 20X6
Non-current assets $
Goodwill (W2) 6,250
Tangible (157,000 + 82,000) 239,000
Other investments 12,000
_______
257,250
Current assets
Inventory (73,200 + 35,200 – 3,000(W5)) 105,400
Trade receivables (96,800 + 46,900 – 28,000) 115,700
Cash and bank (8,000 + 25,150) 33,150
_______
254,250
_______
511,500
_______

Revaluation surplus (W4) 12,000
_______
315,000
Non-controlling interest (W3) 23,500
_______
Total equity 338,500
Non-current liabilities: 6% Loan 20,000
Current liabilities (123,000 + 58,000 – 28,000) 153,000
_______
511,500
_______
WORKINGS
(1) Belfast net assets

Reporting date Acquisition Post-acquisition
$ $ $
Share capital 50,000 50,000 –
Share premium 6,250 6,250 –
Revaluation surplus 15,000 – 15,000
Retained earnings 40,000 10,000 30,000
_______ _______ _______
111,250 66,250 45,000
_______ _______ _______
(2) Goodwill
$
Non-controlling interest on acquisition 14,500
Less: Net assets acquired (100% × 66,250) (66,250)
———
6,250
———
(3) Non-controlling interest
$
Fair value on acquisition 14,500
Share of Belfast post-acquisition (20% × 45,000) 9,000
———
23,500
———
$

$
Dublin as per question 32,000
Unrealised profit on inventory (25% × $12,000) (3,000)
———
53,000
———
Answer 67 HELIOS & LUNA
(a) Consolidated statement of financial position as at 30 June 20X7

Non-current assets $000
Goodwill (W2) 199
Tangible assets (280 + 490 + 20) 790
–––––
989
Net current assets 390
–––––
1,379
–––––
Share capital 600
Retained earnings (W4) 232
–––––
1,182
Non-controlling interest (W3) 197
–––––
1,379
–––––
(b) Parent-subsidiary factors
A, B, F and H are all indicators of a parent-subsidiary relationship; the other factors are
indicators of significant influence and would lead to a parent-associate relationship.
WORKINGS
(1) Luna’s net assets Reporting date Acquisition Post-acquisition
$000 $000 $000
Share capital 400 400 –
Share premium 200 200 –
Fair value adjustment (land) 20 20 –
Retained earnings 150 60 90
—— —— ——
770 680 90
—— —— ——
(2) Goodwill $000
Fair value of consideration 700
Non-controlling interest on acquisition 179
Less: Net assets acquired (100% × 680) (680)
——
199
——
(3) Non-controlling interest $000
Fair value on acquisition (W2) 179
Share of Luna’s post-acquisition (20% × 90) 18
____
197
____
(4) Retained earnings $000

Helios as per question 160
Share of Luna’s post-acquisition (80% × 90) 72
____
232
____
Answer 68 BRADSHAW & MARTIN
(a) Goodwill on acquisition of Martin
$000 $000
Fair value of non-controlling interest 7,408
Less: Net assets at acquisition
Retained earnings 5,338 (28,488)
–––––– ––––––
12,920
––––––
(b) Financial statements
Consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 October 20X6
$000
Revenue (125,000 + 77,900 – 15,000) 187,900
Cost of sales (65,000 + 38,500 – 15,000 + 2,500 unrealised profit) (91,000)
––––––
Gross profit 96,900
Distribution costs (6,750 + 8,050) (14,800)
Administrative expenses (17,500 + 9,780) (27,280)
Finance costs (20 – 15) (5)
––––––
Profit before tax 54,815
Income tax expense (19,250 + 10,850) (30,100)
––––––
––––––
Profit attributable to:
Owners of the parent 22,575
Non-controlling interest (20% (W) × 10,700) 2,140
––––––
24,715
––––––
WORKING
Group share is 80%, therefore non-controlling interest is 20%.
(c) Parent-associate factors
C, D, E and G are all indicators of a parent-associate relationship; the other factors are
indicators of control and would lead to a parent-subsidiary relationship.
Answer 69 MCQs INTERPRETATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
69.1 B Future trends cannot be predicted accurately.
69.2 A A company may not have a known share price. All the other matters will affect the
company’s ability to pay interest (and capital) and therefore be of concern.
69.3 A Trend analysis concerns the pattern of results over time.
69.4 B These are the key accounting ratios for the assessment of short-term liquidity.
69.5 D Cost of sales has been overstated by $48,000 ($24,000 of opening inventory
valuation was not an expense + carry forward of $24,000 expense in closing
inventory valuation). If inventory days is calculated using average inventory there
is no error in average inventory but cost of sales in the denominator is overstated so
turnover days are lower than they should be. (If closing inventory was used
turnover days will have been even lower.) Current assets in the current ratio were
understated so this was also lower.
69.6 D Cost of sales will be increased (as higher cost purchases will be expensed first) so
gross profit will be lower. Current ratio will also be lower as inventory valued at
average cost will be lower than FIFO basis when prices are increasing.
69.7 C
69.8 A Increase in inventory  increase in working capital

Decrease in bank  decrease in working capital
Increase in payables  decrease in working capital
$500 – $600 – $1400 = total decrease of $1,500
69.9 A Current assets (124,800) less current liabilities (64,290).
69.10 A FIFO uses the most recent prices to value inventory.

As prices are falling, this will lead to a lower inventory value.
A lower inventory value will lead to a shorter inventory turnover period (i.e. fewer
days).
69.11 B The reduction in inventory means that the net assets will be reduced, leading to a
reduction in the current ratio. The new loan will increase the level of debt, leading
to an increase in the gearing ratio.
69.12 C ROCE = Net profit margin × Asset turnover = 14.7% × 2.3 = 33.81%
69.13 B As both companies have the same profit before interest and tax it is obvious that
Light’s interest cover is higher that Murky’s because Light pays less interest:
Light Murky
5% × $375,000 (W) $18,750
5% × $525,000 (W) $26,250
WORKING
Long - term debt Long - term debt
Gearing = = 25% 35%
Equity $1,500,000
Therefore, long-term debt $375,000 $525,000
Tutorial note: This question calls for an understanding of two key ratios: gearing
and interest cover. Gearing is the ratio of external debt (e.g. outstanding loans) to
equity. This can be used to calculate the long-term debt of each company. The
following calculations of interest cover are shown for completeness:
Light Murky
PBIT $100,000 $100,000
Interest cover = = 5.3 = 3.8
Interest payable $18,750 $26,250
Answer 70 BETA
(a) Ratios
(i) Profitability Zeta Omega
Gross profit as % of revenue 1,000 ÷ 4,000 25%

1,200 ÷ 6,000 20%
Net profit as % of revenue 500 ÷ 4,000 12.5%
(400 + 400) ÷ 6,000 13.3%
Return on capital employed (ROCE) 500 ÷ 1,950 25.6%

800 ÷ 6,890 11.6%
Return on equity (ROE) 500 ÷ 1,950 25.6%
400 ÷ 2,890 13.8%
Tutorial note: Only two measures were required.
(ii) Liquidity
Current assets/current liabilities 1,350 ÷ 1,200 1.13:1

1,880 ÷ 990 1.90:1
Quick assets/current liabilities 950 ÷ 1,200 0.79:1
1,080 ÷ 990 1.09:1
(iii) Efficiency
No. of days’ cost of sales in inventory 400 ÷ 3,000 × 365 49 days

800 ÷ 4,800 × 365 61 days
No. of days’ revenue in receivables 800 ÷ 4,000 × 365 73 days

900 ÷ 6,000 × 365 55 days
No. of days’ purchases in payables 800 ÷ 3,200 × 365 91 days

800 ÷ 4,800 × 365 61 days
(b) Comparison of companies
(i) Profitability
Zeta’s gross profit percentage is higher than that of Omega, possibly indicating different
pricing policy, with Omega offering lower prices to raise market share and therefore revenue.
Zeta’s ROCE and ROE are both much higher than those of Omega. This may be partly due to
the fact that Zeta’s buildings do not appear to have been revalued as Omega’s have. A
revaluation would increase the carrying amount of Zeta’s assets and hence reduce its ROCE.
This difference in accounting policy is a problem when trying to compare accounts of two
companies.
(ii) Liquidity
Omega’s liquidity ratios are comfortable, while Zeta’s are much lower, almost dangerously so.
However, Zeta should be continuing to make profits in the current year, and the cash generated
from those profits should increase both liquidity ratios within a few months. If Zeta has been
managing with these levels for a number of years then there may not be a major problem.
(iii) Efficiency
Zeta succeeds in controlling inventory levels better than Omega, but is less successful in
keeping receivables down.
Zeta’s shortage of working capital as evidenced by the low liquidity ratios has led to slowness
in settling accounts payable. A delay of 91 days is enough for the company to start losing the
goodwill of suppliers. If receivables collection could be improved to Omega’s level,
receivables would be reduced to about $600,000 (55 ÷ 73 × $800,000), liberating about
$200,000 to improve the payables’ payment position or indeed to eliminate the overdraft. As
indicated under (ii) above, future cash flows should enable Zeta to reduce the time taken to
settle payables in any case.
(c) Implication of gearing
High gearing implies a high financial risk. As long as Omega has a ROCE in excess of the
10% interest payable on the loan, all is well. A downturn in trade could, however mean that
Omega’s ROCE drops from 11.6% to below 10%, leading to a negative return on the loan
capital with adverse effects for shareholders. Zeta, with negligible loan capital, could survive
a greater downturn without moving into a loss.
An upturn in profitability would benefit Omega more than Zeta, because the loan interest
would continue at 10% while the profit earned from the employment of the loan capital rose.
Answer 71 WEDEN
(a) Ratios Year ended 31 March

20X7 20X6
(i) Return on capital employed (ROCE)
550 ÷ 3,900 14.1%
500 ÷ 2,550 19.6%
(ii) Return on equity (ROE)

350 ÷ 1,900 18.4%
400 ÷ 1,550 25.8%
(iii) Current ratio

1,380 ÷ 1,480 0.93:1
1,010 ÷ 430 2.35:1
(iv) Inventory turnover

3,000 ÷ 500 6.0 times
2,300 ÷ 300 7.67 times
(full credit given for correct answer in days 61 days 48 days)
(v) Payables’ days

1,400 ÷ 3,200 × 365 160 days
380 ÷ 1,800 × 365 77 days
(b) Comment
All ratios show a marked deterioration in 20X7 compared with 20X6.

ROCE and ROE are at reasonable levels in 20X7, but considerably below the levels in 20X6.
A possible cause is the decline in the gross profit percentage caused by reducing prices to
increase sales.
ROE shows a return in excess of ROCE in both years, and well in excess of the interest
payable on the loan, showing that the shareholders are continuing to benefit from the gearing
effect of the loan.
The current ratio is seriously reduced to a potentially dangerous level. The consequence is the
slowness in paying suppliers, which must be eroding suppliers’ goodwill, evidenced by the
increase in payable days from 77 days to 160. In effect, suppliers’ money is being used to
finance the very heavy purchasing of non-current assets.
The inventory turnover ratio has declined, indicating a possible slowing of activity. The decline
could be caused simply by a large purchase of goods just before the end of the reporting period.
Answer 72 APILLON
(a) Year ended 31 March

20X7 20X6
(i) Current ratio
1,420 ÷ 860 1·65:1
990 ÷ 430 2.3:1
(ii) Quick ratio

700 ÷ 860 0·8:1
450 ÷ 430 1·05:1
(iii) Inventory turnover

720 ÷ 2,400 × 365 109 days
540 ÷ 1,900 × 365 104 days
(iv) Average period of credit allowed to customers

700 ÷ 3,700 × 365 69 days
450 ÷ 2,800 × 365 59 days
(v) Average period of credit allowed by suppliers

690 ÷ 2,580 × 365 98 days
410 ÷ 2,080 × 365 72 days
Tutorial note: All amounts are $000.
(b) Comments
 The current ratio and quick ratio are both down by over 20%.
The drop in the quick ratio to below 1:1 could indicate liquidity problems.
 The increase in sales, and hence in receivables, purchases and payables, is placing
strain on the working capital, evidenced by the increase in the receivables and
payables payment periods.
 The business is one requiring large holdings of inventory, but inventory control
appears to have deteriorated slightly between the two years.
 Cash sales have decreased considerably in 20X7. Making more sales for cash could
contribute to an improvement in the current and quick ratios because this would
reduce the overdraft.
Tutorial note: Other comments would be considered on their merits.
SPECIMEN EXAM ANSWERS
Section A
1 A Opening net assets (capital) + Profit for the period – Drawings + Capital introduced
= closing net assets. Therefore Profit = Closing net assets + Drawings – Capital
introduced – Opening net assets.
2 B An imprest system has a pre-determined “float” of petty cash. Expenditure

reimbursements out of the float are replaced with a voucher stating the amount and
nature of the expense. The float is replenished periodically by replacing vouchers
with cash.
3 C In a limited liability company the shareholders’ exposure is limited (to the extent of
any unpaid share capital) but the company’s liabilities are not limited.
4 C Payables: $
Balance b/f 60,000
Cash paid to suppliers (302,800)
Discounts received (2,960)
Contra (2,000)
Purchases (balancing figure) 331,760
––––––––
Balance c/f 84,000
––––––––
5 D If a cheque from a customer was credited to cash (incorrectly) and credited to
receivables (correctly) the trial balance will have more credits than debits. Rent
received is an income account in the general ledger and therefore should be
extracted to the trial balance as a credit; if extracted as a debit the totals on the trial
balance will not agree.
6 B $
Loan asset 12,000
Interest (12,000 × 12%) 240
Prepayment (8/12 × 9,000) 6,000
Accrued rent 4,000
–––––––
–––––––
7 C $
Draft profit 83,600
Purchase of van 18,000
Depreciation 18,000 × 25% (4,500)
–––––––
–––––––
8 C Liquidity has deteriorated as evidenced by (i) falling current ratio; and (ii)
lengthening of the cash conversion cycle from 50 – 45 + 35 = 40 days to 75 – 30 +
42 = 87 days
9 D The direct and indirect methods give the same figure for net cash from operating
activities. Cash raised from a rights issue is a financing activity. A revaluation
surplus does not involve any cash. Cash received from a non-current asset disposal
is an investing activity; any profit on disposal is an adjustment in deriving cash from
operating activities.
10 D $
Balance b/f (advance) 28,700
Balance b/f (arrears) (21,200)
Cash received 481,200
Balance c/f (advance) (31,200)
Balance c/f (arrears) 18,400
––––––––
Rental income 475,900
––––––––
11 B A sole trader’s financial statements may be required by third parties such as banks
(providing loans) and the tax authorities.
12 C Ratio analysis is particularly valuable to identify trends and benchmark against

industry average (sector) data.
13 A The balance c/f at the end of the current period will be b/f as the opening balance at
the start of the following period. As the balance represents the cost of an asset it
will be a debit balance.
14 A As per the disclosure requirements of IAS 38 Intangible Assets.
15 A IAS 38 Intangible Assets does not specify a maximum permitted amortisation

period. Research expenditure must be written off as an expense but, if certain
criteria are met, development expenditure must be recognised as an intangible non-
current asset,
16 A $
Balance b/f 550
Expense incurred (cash) 5,400
Accrual c/f 650
––––––
Electricity expense for the year 6,600
––––––
17 C $ $
Debts written off 37,000
Movement in allowance (517 – 37) × 5% 24,000
Less opening allowance 39,000
––––––– (15,000)
–––––––
–––––––
18 D $
Balance per ledger 438,900
Less contra (980)
Posting error (90)
––––––––
Corrected balance 437,830
––––––––
19 B Inventory valuation must include all costs incurred to bring the inventory to its
current location and condition (IAS 2 Inventories). Therefore carriage inwards
(delivery costs charged by suppliers) should be included but carriage outwards (cost
of delivering goods to customers) should be excluded (as, by definition, inventory
has not yet been sold),
Production overheads (e.g. depreciation of factory plant) should be included but
non-production overheads (e.g. administration costs) excluded.
20 B Cost of sales = 6,700 + 84,000 – 5,400 = 85,300. Revenue = 85,300 + 20% =

102,360. Gross profit = 102,360 – 85,300 = $17,060
21 B Share capital Share premium

$ $
Balance b/f 125,000 100,000
Rights issue 62,500 187,500
Bonus issue 37,500 (37,500)
–––––––– ––––––––
Balance c/f 225,000 250,000
–––––––– ––––––––
22 C Per IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements.
23 D $
Jan–Mar: 240,000 × 20% × 3/12 12,000
Apr–Jun: (240,000 – 60,000) × 20% × 3/12 9,000
Jul–Dec: (180,000 + 160,000) × 20% × 6/12 34,000
–––––––
Depreciation charge for the year 55,000
–––––––
24 C Return on capital employed = Profit before interest and tax ÷ (Equity + Non-current
liabilities) = 10,200 ÷ 42,500 = 24%
25 A Sales tax is collected by the seller and suffered by the consumer. It is income for
the government, not the seller who records revenue net of sales tax.
26 B Any error that causes an imbalance between debits and credits will require an entry
to the suspense account to correct it.
Tutorial note: (1) has $3.000 excess debit. (2) has excess $2,800 credit; entry in
asset a/c should have been debit. (3) is omission of a debit balance. (4) a
transposition error.
27 C If there is only a 20% chance of defeating the claim then there is an 80% chance
that the claim will be successful – therefore it is “probable” that Cannon will have
to pay compensation and a provision must be made (for the full amount).
28 D 1,040 – 25 = $1,015.
Tutorial note: Maintenance costs must be expensed, not capitalised. The purchase is
recorded net of sales tax which will be reclaimed (offset against sales tax payable).
29 B $
Overdraft per bank statement (3,860)
Less: Unpresented cheques (9,160)
Add: Outstanding lodgements 16,690
–––––––
Cash at bank 3,670
–––––––
30 B Per the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting faithful representation
requires neutrality, accuracy and completeness.
31 D
$ $
Opening balance 308,600 Cash 147,200
Interest charged on overdue Contras 4,600
accounts 2,400 Irrecoverable debts 4,900
––––––– –––––––
465,200 465,200
––––––– –––––––
32 B Adjustment is required if the event provides evidence of conditions which existed as

at the reporting date.
33 A $
50 × $190 9,500
500 × $220 110,000
300 × $230 69,000
––––––––
––––––––
34 A $
Opening assets 569,400
Opening liabilities (412,840)
Capital introduced 65,000
Drawings (800 × 12) (9,600)
––––––––
211,960
Profit (balancing figure) 32,400
––––––––
Closing net assets (614,130 – 369,770) 244,360
––––––––
35 C Discounts received represent a reduction in cost and should be extracted as a credit
balance (like income).
Answer 1 KESWICK
(a) Consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 May 20X6
$000
Revenue (W1) 10,100
Cost of sales (W1) (4,950)
–––––––
Gross profit 5,150
Operating expenses (W1) (3,160)
–––––––
Profit before tax 1,990
Tax (W1) (740)
–––––––
–––––––
(b) A
(c) Non-controlling interest = $80,000 ($400,000 (W1) × 20%)
(d) The factors that illustrate the existence of a parent–subsidiary relationship are B, C, D, E.
WORKINGS
(1)
Keswick Co Derwent Co Adjustments Consolidated
$000 $000 $000 $000
Revenue 8,400 3,200 (1,500) 10,100
Cost of sales (4,600) (1,700) 1,500 (4,950)
Unrealised profit (150)
Operating expenses (2,200) (960) (3,160)
Tax (600) (140) (740)
–––––– ––––––
850 400
–––––– ––––––
Answer 2 MALRIGHT
Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 October 20X7
$000
Revenue 1,800
Cost of sales (W1) (1,284)
––––––
Gross profit 516
Administrative expenses (325 + 10 (W4) + (16 (W3) – 10)) (341)
––––––
Profit for the year 175
––––––
Statement of financial position as at 31 October 20X7

$000 $000
Assets
Non-current assets (W2) 731
Current assets
Inventories 75
Trade receivables (W3) 304
Cash 20
–––– 399
––––––
Total assets 1,130
––––––
Equity
Share capital 415
Retained earnings (130 + 175) 305
Share premium 80
–––– 800
Current liabilities
Trade and other payables (250 + 10 (W4)) 260
Bank overdraft 70
–––– 330
––––––
Total equity and liabilities 1,130
––––––
WORKINGS
(1) $000
Cost of sales
Opening inventory 160
Purchases 1,140
Closing inventory (75)
––––––
1,225
Depreciation (W2) 59
––––––
1,284
––––––
(2)
Property Plant Total
$000 $000 $000
Cost 740 220 960
Depreciation b/f (60) (110) (170)
Depreciation for year
740 × 5% (37)
(220 – 110) × 20% (22) (59)
–––– –––– ––––
Net book value 31 October 20X7 643 88 731
–––– –––– ––––
(3) Trade receivables
Allowance = 320,000 × 5% = $16,000
320,000 – 16,000 = $304,000
(4) Energy cost accrual

15,000 × 2/3 = $10,000
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ACCA

For examinations from September 2017 to August 2018

Becker Professional Education's ACCA Study Materials

F3/FFA FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

REVISION QUESTION BANK

For Examinations from September 2017 to August 2018

Copyright ©2017 DeVry/Becker Educational Development Corp. All rights reserved.

Question Page Answer Marks Date worked

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – BOOKKEEPING

1 Accruals and prepayments 1 1001 26

DOUBLE-ENTRY AND RECORDING TRANSACTIONS

*7 Rook (ACCA J00) 23 1012 16

CONTROL ACCOUNT RECONCILIATIONS

*10 United (ACCA J95) 25 1015 9

14 MCQs Bank reconciliations 28 1017 18

16 MCQs Suspense accounts 32 1019 22

ADJUSTMENT TO PROFIT STATEMENTS

*20 Pride (ACCA Pilot Paper 2001) 38 1023 14

Question Page Answer Marks Date worked

23 MCQs Incomplete records 40 1026 36

27 MCQs Regulatory Framework 48 1031 16

29 MCQs Qualitative characteristics 50 1032 38

IAS 1 PRESENTATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

33 MCQs IAS 1 55 1036 32

CAPITAL STRUCTURE AND FINANCE COSTS

40 MCQs Capital structure and finance costs 67 1044 36

43 MCQs IAS 2 73 1047 20

IFRS 15 REVENUE FROM CONTRACTS WITH CUSTOMERS

46 MCQs Revenue 77 1051 10

IAS 16 PROPERTY PLANT AND EQUIPMENT

47 MCQs IAS 16 79 1051 26

Question Page Answer Marks Date worked

IAS 38 INTANGIBLE ASSETS

49 MCQs IAS 38 83 1054 16

IAS 37 PROVISIONS, CONTINGENT LIABILITIES AND CONTINGENT ASSETS

52 MCQs IAS 37 86 1056 16

IAS 10 EVENTS AFTER THE REPORTING PERIOD

54 MCQs IAS 10 89 1058 18

IAS 7 STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS

58 MCQs IAS 7 93 1061 24

CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

*64 MCQs Consolidated financial statements 102 1068 44

INTERPRETATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

69 MCQs Interpretation of financial statements 113 1076 26

ACCA SPECIMEN EXAM (2 hours)

Question 1 MCQs ACCRUALS AND PREPAYMENTS

Until 30 June 20X6 $8,400 per year

All rent owing was subsequently received.

All arrears of rent were subsequently received.

Profit or loss Statement of financial position

On 31 May 20X7 Jared paid three months’ rent in advance of $15,300.

Profit Net assets

Question 2 MCQs DEPRECIATION AND DISPOSALS

Plant and machinery – cost

What was Herepath’s profit or loss on the disposal of the Foxy?

What is the gain or loss on disposal of the machine?

Question 3 MCQs RECEIVABLES AND PAYABLES

Which of the following could account fully for the difference?

What figure should appear in profit or loss for these items?