DATE : 07/05/2023 Test Booklet Code

E5
ADI

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. 20 Min. for M.M. : 720

NEET (UG)-2023
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
50 questions in each subject are divided into two sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85,
101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100,
136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of
15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting
the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions
answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, 1 mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses on Answer
Sheet.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy)
to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is E5.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)

PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R is given by

(1) 200  (2) 50 

(3) 100  (4) 400 

Answer (3)
Sol. Since galvanometer does not show any deflection
 ig = 0

10 − 2 2 2  400
= R= = 100 
400 R 8

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity.
Statement II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer (1)
Sol. Both Statements are correct.
I: Photovoltaic devices convert optical radiation into electricity.
II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region.
e.g., Zener diode as a voltage regulator.

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
3. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a
load resistance. Which of these components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
(1) A centre-tapped transformer (2) p-n junction diodes
(3) Capacitor (4) Load resistance
Answer (3)
Sol. Capacitor removes the ac ripple from rectified output.
4. The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in temperature and voltage
supply are
(1) Instrumental errors (2) Personal errors
(3) Least count errors (4) Random errors
Answer (4)
Sol. The errors which cannot be associated with any systematic or constant cause are called random errors.
These errors can arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in experimental conditions. e.g., random change
in pressure, temperature, voltage supply etc.
5. Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W attached at its free end.
The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is
(1) 2W/A (2) W/A
(3) W/2A (4) Zero
Answer (2)
Sol.

Internal restoring force F

Longitudinal stress = = ext
Area Area
W
Stress =
A
6. The temperature of a gas is –50°C. To what temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms speed is
increased by 3 times?
(1) 669°C (2) 3295°C
(3) 3097 K (4) 223 K

Answer (2)

3RT
Sol. vrms = T1 = 273 − 50
m

vrms  T = 223 K
vrms is increased by 3 times T2 = ?

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
So, final rms speed = v + 3v = 4v

v1 T
= 1
v2 T2

v 223 1 223
=  =
4v T2 16 T2

T2 = 3568 K
T2 = 3568 – 273 = 3295°C
7. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 H carrying a current of 2 A is
(1) 4 J (2) 4 mJ

(3) 8 mJ (4) 8 J

Answer (4)
Sol. Magnetic energy stored in an inductor
1 2
U= Li
2
1
 4  10−6  ( 2 )
2
=
2
= 8 × 10–6 J
U = 8 J

8. The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is

(1) 2 F (2) 3 F

(3) 6 F (4) 9 F

Answer (1)
Sol. For parallel grouping
C1 = 3 + 3 = 6 F
For series grouping
C1C2 3  6 18
Ceq = = =
C1 + C2 3 + 6 9

Ceq = 2 F

9. The venturi-meter works on

(1) Huygen’s principle (2) Bernoulli’s principle

(3) The principle of parallel axes (4) The principle of perpendicular axes

Answer (2)
Sol. Venturi-meter works on the Bernoulli’s principle.

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
10. The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of closed pipe having the
same length is
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:1

(3) 1:3 (4) 3:1

Answer (2)

v
Sol. f0 = fopen pipe =
2l
v
fc = fclosed pipe =
4l
f0 v 4l
= 
fc 2l v

f0 : fc = 2 : 1

11. Light travels a distance x in time t1 in air and 10x in time t2 in another denser medium. What is the critical angle

for this medium?

t   10t 2 
(1) sin−1  2  (2) sin−1  
 t1   t1 

 t   10 t1 
(3) sin−1  1  (4) sin−1  
 10 t2   t2 

Answer (4)

Sol.

2 sinic = 1

1
sinic =
2

c
=
V
1 V2
So sin ic = =
2 V1

10 xt1
sin ic =
t2 x

 10t1 
ic = sin−1  
 t2 

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
12. If  E  dS = 0 over a surface, then
s

(1) The number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it
(2) The magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant
(3) All the charges must necessarily be inside the surface

(4) The electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform

Answer (1)

Sol. net =  E  dS = 0
s

 Net flux through surface is zero.

 Therefore, the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving
it.
13. A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step-down transformer, whose primary is connected to
ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?
(1) 0.27 A (2) 2.7 A
(3) 3.7 A (4) 0.37 A

Answer (1)

Sol.

For ideal transformer

Pinput = Poutput
(VI)in = 60
220 × I = 60
I = 0.27 A
14. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a potential difference of
V volts is proportional to
(1) V
1
(2)
V

(3)
1
V

(4) V2
Answer (2)
hc
Sol. eV =
min

hc
min =
eV
1
min 
V

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
15. The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly (surface
tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m–1)
(1) 30.16 × 10–4 J (2) 5.06 × 10–4 J
(3) 3.01 × 10–4 J (4) 50.1 × 10–4 J
Answer (3)
Sol. Amount of energy required = [S × A] × 2
 Energy required = [0.03 × 4 ×  × 4 × 10–4] × 2
= 3.015 × 10–4 J
16. The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is

(1) 0.2 A from B to A through E (2) 0.5 A from A to B through E

5
(3) A from A to B through E (4) 1.5 A from B to A through E
9
Answer (2)
Sol. Using Kirchhoff's law
10 − 5 5
i= =
10 10
i = 0.5 A
In clock-wise direction (from A to B)
17. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV
respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these
photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
(1) Cs only (2) Both Na and K
(3) K only (4) Na only
Answer (1)
Sol. Energy of incident radiation = 2.80 eV
Work function of Cs → 2.14 eV
Work function of K → 2.30 eV
Work function of Na → 2.75 eV
Since the work function of potassium and sodium are more than energy of incident radiation hence
photons may be emitted from caesium.
18. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is
(1) Zero (2) Positive
(3) Infinity (4) Negative
Answer (1)
Sol.  B  ds = zero
Magnetic monopole doesn't exist.
Hence net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
19. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at
a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m–1. Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is
(Speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m s–1)
(1) 1.6 × 10–9 T (2) 1.6 × 10–8 T
(3) 1.6 × 10–7 T (4) 1.6 × 10–6 T
Answer (3)
Sol. From the properties of electromagnetic wave
E0
we know that, C =
B0
E0  Amplitude of oscillating electric field
B0  Amplitude of oscillating magnetic field
48
 B0 = = 1.6  10 −7 T
3  108

20. A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280 m s –1 in the direction 30° above the horizontal. The maximum
height attained by the bullet is (g = 9.8 m s–2, sin30° = 0.5)
(1) 2800 m (2) 2000 m
(3) 1000 m (4) 3000 m
Answer (3)

u 2 sin2 
Sol. H =
2g

(280)2 (sin2 30)

H=
2  9.8
280  280  0.5  0.5
=
2  9.8
H = 1000 m
21. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2 × 10 5 N C–1. It experiences a
torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
(1) 8 mC (2) 6 mC
(3) 4 mC (4) 2 mC
Answer (4)
Sol. E = 2 × 105 N/C
l = 2 cm
 = 4 Nm
 = pE

4 = pEsin
4 = p × 2 × 105 × sin30°
p = 4 × 10–5 cm
p 4  10−5
q= = = 2 mC
l 0.02

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
22. For Young’s double slit experiment, two statements are given below:
Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains
constant.
Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger
wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Answer (3)


Sol. For YDSE, angular fringe width is given by  =
d
It does not depend on the distance of screen from the slit, so statement I is correct.
Angular fringe width  
If   → angular separation of fringes increases
So, statement I is true and statement II is false.

23. A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an opponent.
The force that acts on the player while turning is
(1) Along eastward (2) Along northward

(3) Along north-east (4) Along south-west

Answer (3)
Sol.

P = Pf – Pi

Pf = muiˆ

Pi = mu(– jˆ)

P = muiˆ – mu(– jˆ)

P = mu(iˆ + jˆ)

P
F=
t
Direction of change of momentum and direction of force acting on the player will be same, so correct
answer is North east direction

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
24. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum
possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be
(1) 1.2% (2) 1.3%

(3) 1.6% (4) 1.4%

Answer (3)
Mass M
Sol. We know,  = =
Volume r 2

Using the concept of errors we know,

 M 2r 
= + +
 M r

 0.002 2  0.001 0.02 

= + +
 0.4 0.3 5 


= 0.0156



% = 1.56%  1.6%


25. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency

(1) Capacitive reactance decreases (2) Displacement current increases

(3) Displacement current decreases (4) Capacitive reactance remains constant

Answer (3)
1
Sol. XC =
C

Since  decreasing XC will increases hence current will decreases also

conduction current = displacement current
Therefore displacement current will decrease.

26. Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is (22000 ± 5%) . The colour of third band
must be
(1) Red (2) Green

(3) Orange (4) Yellow

Answer (3)
Sol. Resistance = (22 × 103)  ± 5%
Third band corresponds to decimal multiplier.
Decimal multiplier = 103
 Colour → Orange

27. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327°C. The temperature of the
sink is
(1) 27°C (2) 15°C

(3) 100°C (4) 200°C

Answer (1)

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
50 1
Sol. Efficiency  = =
100 2
Efficiency of Carnot engine
T2
 = 1−
T1

T2
 = 1−
600
1 T
= 1− 2
2 600
T2 1
=  T2 = 300 K
600 2
T2 = 300 – 273 = 27°C

28. The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is
(1) Along the radius, away from centre (2) Along the radius towards the centre
(3) Along the tangent to its position (4) Along the axis of rotation
Answer (4)
Sol. Angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle is along the axis of rotation.
29. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1 F and resistance R is 100 . The
frequency at which resonance occurs is
(1) 15.9 rad/s (2) 15.9 kHz
(3) 1.59 rad/s (4) 1.59 kHz
Answer (4)
1
Sol. For resonance frequency =
2 LC
1 10 4
 f = =
2    10  10 −3  1 10 −6 2
= 1.591 × 103
= 1.591 kHz
30. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining distance with speed 2v. Its average speed
is
v 2v
(1) (2)
3 3
4v 3v
(3) (4)
3 4
Answer (3)
2v1v 2
Sol. v avg =
v1 + v 2
2  v  2v
=
v + 2v
4v
=
3
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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
31. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is . The shortest wavelength in the
Bracket series is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 9 (4) 16
Answer (2)
1  1 1
Sol. =R 2 – 2
  n2 n1 
For Balmer [n2 = 2, n1 = ]
1 1 1
=R – 
 4 
4
= …(1)
R
For Bracket, (n2 = 4, n1 = )
1  1 1
= R – 
 16  
16
 = …(2)
R
Eqn (1)
Eqn (2)

 = 4
32. The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of
gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is
(1) 3:5 (2) 5:3
(3) 2:5 (4) 5:2
Answer (1*)

2
Sol. Radius of gyration of solid sphere about its own axis = R
5

2
Radius of gyration of hollow sphere about its own axis = R
3

2 3 3
 Required ratio =  =
5 2 5

3
* None of the option is correct (correct answer is )
5

33. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. In how much time, the activity of substance drops to
th
 1
  of its initial value?
 16 
(1) 20 minutes (2) 40 minutes
(3) 60 minutes (4) 80 minutes

Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
A0
Sol. A =
2n
A 1
= n
A0 2

1 1
= n
16 2
1 1
4
=
2 2n
n=4
t
n= , t = 4  T1 = 4  20
T1 2
2

= 80 minutes
34. Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the line joining the
bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational constant)
8 Gm 12 Gm
(1) − (2) −
R R
16 Gm 20 Gm
(3) − (4) −
R R
Answer (3)

Sol.

Let electric field at point Q be zero

So,
Gm G(9m)
2
=
x (R – x )2

(R − x )2
=9
x2
R
x=
4
−Gm G(9m)
VP = −
x R−x
−Gm G(9m )
VP = −
R 3R
4 4
−4 Gm 12Gm
= −
R R
−16 Gm
=
R

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
35. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential

energy stored in it will be

(1) 2U (2) 4U

(3) 8U (4) 16 U

Answer (4)

1 2
Sol. Potential energy stored in spring U = Kx
2

1
U= K (2)2 where x = 2 cm
2

1
U= (K ) ·(4)
2
U=2K ….(i)

1
U = K (8)2
2

1
U = K  64 = 32K ….(ii)
2
On dividing (i) by (ii)

U 2K 1
= =
U  32K 16

U = 16 U

SECTION-B
36. For the following logic circuit, the truth table is

A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 0
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1

A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 0
(3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1

Answer (2)

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)

Sol.

Y = A ·B = A+B
It is OR gate.

A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

37. Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains
stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15 (g = 10 m s–2).
(1) 1.2 m s–2 (2) 150 m s–2

(3) 1.5 m s–2 (4) 50 m s–2

Answer (3)
Sol.

w.r.t. car

ab = 0

mamax = s mg
amax = s g = 0.15 × 10 = 1.5 m/s2

38. The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10 –11 m. What is the radius of third allowed orbit of
hydrogen atom?
(1) 0.53 Å (2) 1.06 Å

(3) 1.59 Å (4) 4.77 Å

Answer (4)

n2
Sol. rn =
Z
2
r1  1 
=
r2  3 

r2 = 9r1 = 5.3  10−11  9

= 47.7 × 10–11
= 4.77 Å

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
39. A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm through
u
the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes . Then it further penetrates into the block
3
in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block
is
(1) 27 cm (2) 24 cm

(3) 28 cm (4) 30 cm

Answer (1)
Sol.

between 1 to 2
2
u 
 3  = u − 2a  24
2
 

8u 2
 2a ( 24 ) = ... (I)
9
between 2 to 3
2
u 
0 =   − 2as ... (II)
3
From equation (I) and (II)
2a ( 24 )
2as =
8

s = 3 cm

Length of wooden block is 24 + 3 = 27 cm

40. The net impedance of circuit (as shown in figure) will be

(1) 10 2 
(2) 15 

(3) 5 5

(4) 25 
Answer (3)

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
50
Sol. L = mH

50
X L = 2  50   10−3 = 5 


103
C=  10−6


1  103
XC = = = 10 
2  50  103  10 −6 100

Z = ( XC − XL )2 + R 2

Z = (10 − 5)2 + 102 = 125 = 5 5 

41. A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period T. If d is the density of the earth and G is
3
the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity represents
Gd
(1) T (2) T2
(3) T3 (4) T
Answer (2)
Sol. Time period of satellite above earth surface

R3 R3
T = 2 = 2
GM 4
Gd R 3
3
3
T = 2
4Gd

3 3
T = T2 =
Gd Gd

42. A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from A to B as shown in figure. The magnetic field
at point P for steady current configuration is given by

0 i 0 i
(1) pointed into the page (2) pointed away from the page
4R 4R
0 i  2 0 i  2
(3) 1 −   pointed away from page (4) 1 −   pointed into the page
4R   4R  
Answer (3)

Sol.

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
0 i
BP due to wire 1 = 
4R
0 i
BP due to wire 3 = 
4R
 i
BP due to wire 2 = 0
4R
0 i 0 i 0 i  2  0 i  2
Bnet = − + =  −  + 1 = 4R 1 −  
2R 4R 4R    
Pointed away from page.
43. The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is 2  and 6.8  at 80°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance of
the wire is
(1) 3 × 10–4 °C–1 (2) 3 × 10–3 °C–1
(3) 3 × 10–2 °C–1 (4) 3 × 10–1 °C–1
Answer (3)
Sol. Using R = R0(1 + T)
where  is the thermal coefficient of resistance
6.8 = 2{1 + (80 – 0)}
6.8
− 1 =   80
2
3.4 − 1 2.4
= = = 0.03
80 80

  = 3 × 10–2 °C–1
44. 10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series to a battery of emf E and negligible internal
resistance. Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery, the current is increased n times. The
value of n is
(1) 10 (2) 100
(3) 1 (4) 1000
Answer (2)
Sol. In series combination
Req = 10R
E
i=
10R
In parallel combination
R
Req =
10
E 10 E
i' = =
R R
10
i = 10 × 10 i = 100 i
n = 100

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
45. The x-t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the
particle at t = 2 s is

2 2
(1) m s–2 (2) – m s–2
8 8
2 2
(3) m s–2 (4) – m s–2
16 16
Answer (4)
Sol. Position of particle as function of time
x = Asint

From figure,
A = 1
2
=
8

x = sin t
4
dx
v=
dt
 
v = cos t
4 4
dv
a=
dt
2 
a=− sin t
16 4
at t = 2 s
2
a=− m/s2
16
46. A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field
B = (2iˆ + 3 jˆ – 4kˆ ) T . The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is
(1) 3 lL (2) 5 lL
(3) 5 lL (4) 3 lL
Answer (3)
Sol. Magnetic force acting on a current carrying wire is
F = I B

( )
= ILi  2i + 3 j − 4kˆ = 3ILkˆ + 4IL j

Magnitude of force
F = (3IL)2 + (4IL)2

= 5IL
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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
47. In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all
layers are thin)?

(1) 40 cm (2) –40 cm

(3) –100 cm (4) –50 cm
Answer (3)
Sol. Effective focal length  feff
1 1 1 1
= + +
feff f1 f2 f3

1  1 1 
Also, = ( − 1)  − 
f  1
R R2 

1  1 1  −0.6
= (1.6 − 1)  −  = 20
f1   20 
1  1 1  0.5
= (1.5 − 1)  − =
f2  20 −20  10
1  1 1  −0.6
= (1.6 − 1)  − =
f3  −20   20
1 −0.6 0.5 0.6
= + −
feff 20 10 20
1 −0.6 0.5 −0.1 −1
= + = =
feff 10 10 10 100
 feff = –100 cm
48. A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A student standing on the bridge throws a small ball vertically
upwards with a velocity 4 m s–1. The ball strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of bridge above water
surface is (Take g = 10 m s–2)
(1) 56 m (2) 60 m
(3) 64 m (4) 68 m
Answer (3)

Sol.

1
s = ut − gt 2
2
1
= 16 −  10  16
2
= – 64 m
Height of bridge above water surface = 64 m
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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
49. Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths (f), but one is convex and the other one is concave. When they are
placed in contact with each other, the equivalent focal length of the combination will be
(1) Zero

f
(2)
4

f
(3)
2

(4) Infinite
Answer (4)
Sol. Convex lens f1 > 0, concave lens f2 < 0

1 1 1 1 1
= + = − =0
feq f1 f2 f f

feq = 

50. An electric dipole is placed as shown in the figure.

1
The electric potential (in 102 V) at point P due to the dipole is (0 = permittivity of free space and =K)
4 0

3
(1)   qK
8

5
(2)   qK
8

8
(3)   qK
5

8
(4)   qK
3
Answer (1)

Kq
Sol. Electrostatic potential due to a point charge is given by
r
Kq Kq
Vnet at point P = −2
−
2  10 8  10−2

Kq  102  1
= 1 − 4 
2  

3  3
=  Kq   102 V = qK
 8  8

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
51. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
A. Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal oxides to metals.
B. Heavy water is used to study reaction mechanism.
C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats from oils.
D. The H–H bond dissociation enthalpy is lowest as compared to a single bond between two atoms of
any elements.
E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of metals that are more active than iron.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, D, E only (2) B, D only
(3) D, E only (4) A, B, C only
Answer (3)
Sol. Statement A, B, C are correct
(D) H – H bond dissociation energy is maximum as compared to single bond between two atom of any
element.
(E) Hydrogen reduces oxides of metal that are less active than iron.

52. The given compound

is an example of ______.
(1) Benzylic halide (2) Aryl halide
(3) Allylic halide (4) Vinylic halide
Answer (3)
Sol. -carbon is sp3 carbon which is right next to

This -position is known as allylic position

Hence,

is allylic halide

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
53. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Coke I. Carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised
B. Diamond II. Used as a dry lubricant
C. Fullerene III. Used as a reducing agent
D. Graphite IV. Cage like molecules
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer (3)
Sol. • Coke is largely used as a reducing agent in metallurgy.
• In diamond, each carbon atom undergoes sp3 hybridisation and linked to four other carbon atoms
by using hybridised orbitals in tetrahedral fashion.
• Buckminsterfullerene contains six membered and five membered rings and hence is a cage like
molecule.
• Graphite is very soft and slippery. Hence, it is used as a dry lubricant in machines running at high
temperature.
54. In Lassaigne’s extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood
red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation of
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3xH2O (2) NaSCN
(3) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– (4) [Fe(SCN)]2+
Answer (4)
Sol. In case, nitrogen and sulphur both are present in organic compound, sodium thiocyanate is formed. It
gives blood red colour and no Prussian blue since there are no free cyanide ions.

Na + C + N + S ⎯⎯→ NaSCN

Fe3+ + SCN− ⎯⎯→ [Fe(SCN)]2+

Blood red

55. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation energy.
Reasons R : The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant molecules so that their energy
becomes equal to threshold value, is called activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Answer (2)
Sol. • Few reactions can have zero activation energy for example radical reactions.
• Activation energy is defined as the minimum amount of extra energy absorbed by reactants to
achieve threshold energy.

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
56. Consider the following reaction and identify the product (P).

Product (P)

(1) (2) CH3CH = CH – CH3

(3) (4)

Answer (1)

Sol.

57. Taking stability as the factor, which one of the following represents correct relationship?
(1) TCI3 > TCI (2) InI3 > InI

(3) AlCl > AlCl3 (4) TI > TI3

Answer (4)
Sol. As we move down the group, due to poor shielding effect of intervening d and f orbitals, the increased
effective nuclear charge holds ns electrons tightly and therefore restricting their participation in
bonding.
So, the relative stability of +1 O.S increases for heavier elements.
E° for In3 + |In+ = − 0.16 V

E° for T3+|T+ = +1.6 V

Hence, TI is more stable than TI3

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
58. The relation between nm, (nm = the number of permissible values of magnetic quantum number (m)) for a
given value of azimuthal quantum number (l), is

nm – 1
(1) l= (2) l = 2nm + 1
2

(3) nm = 2l2 + 1 (4) nm = l + 2

Answer (1)

Sol. Values of nm(magnetic quantum number) for given azimuthal quantum number can be calculated as
following

nm = 2l + 1

nm – 1
l=
2

59. Complete the following reaction

[C] is ________

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Answer (4)

Sol.

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
60. The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of

Ca = 40) CaCO 3 ⎯⎯⎯

1200 K
⎯→ CaO + CO2 

(1) 1.12 g (2) 1.76 g

(3) 2.64 g (4) 1.32 g

Answer (2)

Sol. CaCO3 ⎯⎯⎯

1200 K
⎯→ CaO + CO2

From 100 g CaCO3 → 44 g CO2 produced

As CaCO3 is 20% pure

20
So, mass of pure CaCO3 = 20  = 4g
100

So, 100 g CaCO3 → 44 g CO2

44
4 g CaCO3 →  4g CO2
100

= 1.76 g CO2

61. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R

Assertion A : In equation rG = –nFEcell’ value of rG depends on n.

Reasons R : Ecell is an intensive property and rG is an extensive property.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

Answer (2)

Sol. The value of rG depends on n value as per the equation rG = –nFEcell

Where E is the emf of the cell and nF is the amount of charge passed.

So, assertion statement is correct

Ecell is an intensive property while rG is an extensive thermodynamic property

So, reason is correct but not explaining the assertion

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
62. Amongst the given options which of the following molecules/ ion acts as a Lewis acid?

(1) NH3 (2) H2O

(3) BF3 (4) OH–

Answer (3)

Sol. Lewis acids are the one which accepts lone pair of electron due to presence of vacant orbital in
outermost shell.

63. Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is

(1) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III) (2) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II)

(3) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride (4) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride

Answer (1)

Sol. • Complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups are called as homoleptic
complexes

• Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)

K3[Al(ox)3]

It is a homoleptic complex

64. The number of  bonds,  bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are:

(1) 11, 2, 0 (2) 12, 3, 0

(3) 11, 3, 1 (4) 12, 2, 1

Answer (3)

Sol.

No. of  bonds = 11

No. of  bonds = 3

No. of lone pair of e– = 1

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
65. Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting particles that will include :

A. dipole - dipole forces

B. dipole - induced dipole forces

C. hydrogen bonding

D. covalent bonding

E. dispersion forces

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) B, C, D, E are correct (2) A, B, C, D are correct

(3) A, B, C, E are correct (4) A, C, D, E are correct

Answer (3)

Sol. Intermolecular forces are the forces of attraction and repulsion between interacting molecules. This
term does not include covalent bonds as covalent bond holds atoms of a molecule together.

Hence, dipole - dipole forces, dipole - induced dipole forces, hydrogen bonding and dispersion forces
are intermolecular forces.

66. Select the correct statements from the following

A. Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.

B. The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10–31 kg.

C. All the isotopes of a given element show same chemical properties:

D. Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.

E. Dalton’s atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particles of matter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A, B and C only (2) C, D and E only

(3) A and E only (4) B, C and E only

Answer (4)

Sol. • Atoms consist of three fundamental particles :

Electrons, protons and neutrons

• The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10–31 kg

• All the isotopes of a given element show same chemical properties.

• Protons and neutrons present in the nucleus are collectively called as nucleons.

• Dalton’s atomic theory, regarded the atom as the ultimate particle of matter

So, the correct statements are B, C, E only

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NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
67. Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following belongs to barbiturates?
(1) Chlordiazepoxide (2) Meprobamate
(3) Valium (4) Veronal
Answer (4)
Sol. Veronal is the derivative of Barbituric acid and considered as barbiturate.
Meprobamate, valium and chlordiazepoxide are other tranquilizers.

68. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A : Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus.

Reason R : Helium has high solubility in O2.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

Answer (2)

Sol. • Helium is used as diluent for oxygen in modern diving apparatus because of its very low solubility
in blood.

• Gases diffuses easily with each other.

69. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : Metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia giving a deep blue solution, which is
paramagnetic.
Reason R : The deep blue solution is due to the formation of amide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Answer (3)
Sol. On dissolving alkali metal (sodium) in liquid ammonia, a deep blue solution is developed due to
ammoniated electron which absorbs energy in visible region of light and imparts blue colour. Due to
unpaired electron, solution is paramagnetic.

M + (x + y)NH3 → [M(NH3)x]+ + [e(NH3)y]–

So, assertion statement is correct but reason is incorrect.

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 NEET (UG)-2023 (Code-E5)
70. Weight (g) of two moles of the organic compound, which is obtained by heating sodium ethanoate with
sodium hydroxide in presence of calcium oxide is :
(1) 16 (2) 32
(3) 30 (4) 18
Answer (2)
Sol. This reaction is called soda lime decarboxylation

Molar mass of CH4 = 16 g/mol

Weight of 2 moles of CH4 = 16 × 2 = 32 g
71. The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals of N2 molecule, is
(1) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < (2px = 2py) < 2pz < (*2px = *2py) < *2pz
(2) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < 2pz < (2px = 2py) < (*2px = *2py) < *2pz
(3) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < 2pz < *2pz < (2px = 2py) < (*2px = *2py)
(4) 1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < (2px = 2py) < (*2px = *2py) < 2pz < *2pz
Answer (1)
Sol. For molecules like B2, C2, N2 etc. the increasing order of energies of various molecular orbitals is
1s < *1s < 2s < *2s < (2px = 2py) < 2pz < (*2px = *2py) < *2pz
72. Amongst the following, the total number of species NOT having eight electrons around central atom in its
outermost shell, is
NH3, AlCl3, BeCl2, CCl4, PCl5 :
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 1
Answer (1)
Sol.

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