Lie Detection Final
Lie Detection Final
What are the Types of Test questions and how they are constructed?
The polygraph test consists of asking the subject/person through a list of prepared questions in a
planned sequence comprising of not more than twelve (12). At least 3 test charts are taken, each lasting
not more than four (4) minutes with a rest interval of five (5) to ten (10) minutes between charts.
Two general types of questions to be constructed and may be supplemented by other types of
questions:
1. General Question Test (GQT) – the most commonly applied.
2. Peak –of-Tension Test (PTT) – which is usually used as supplementary test.
Set of tests that maybe applied during the polygraph examination process:
1. General Question Test – the purpose is to get the standard tracing of the subject and to establish a
true telling pattern for the initial part of the record. It consist of series of relevant, irrelevant control
questions in a planned order. Developed by John E. Reid
2. Relevant/Irrelevant Test - consists primarily of series of irrelevant questions and relevant question
pertaining to the crime under investigation. Developed by Keeler.
3. Number card Test (Psychological Test) – the purpose is to check the possible deliberate distortion
when the chosen number is asked and to obtain a chart wherein the subject is not under stress.
4. Card test / Acquaintance Test / Stimulation Test - the subject is presented with seven (7) previously
numbered cards face down. He will be instructed to take one, look at it and return it with the rest of
the cards. The examiner will shuffle the cards and each card will be shown to him, with the
instruction that he will answer “NO” to all cards , even if the one being shown to him is the one he
has seen earlier. This is performed to determine the subject’s responsiveness to the polygraph test. It
provides initial readings that would be of value in assessing machine accuracy and subject’s
suitability. This however, will not in any way be part of the interpretation or quantitative
determination of deception.
5. Spot Responder – the purpose is to determine the responsiveness of the subject to crucial question
on spot responses.
6. Mix Question – the purpose is to compare the degree of reaction between control and relevant
question.
7. Silence Answer Test (SAT) – it is a confirmatory test.
8. Comparison Question Test (CQT) - the reactions on the control and relevant questions are compared
via numerical scoring
The GQT consists of a series of Relevant and Irrelevant Questions asked in a planned order.
Questions are so arranged as to make a comparison of responses to relevant questions with subject’s norm
made during the answering of irrelevant questions.
THE RELEVANT QUESTIONS
Functionally, relevant questions are questions directly related to the offense under investigation. In
pre-employment and periodic screening, the area of interest may be the subject’s entire background. Color
coded red in computerized instruments. It is designed to generate reactions from deceptive subject.
a) Simple, direct, and short.
b) Do not include legal terminology (sexual assault, fondling, rape, incest, etc.). Legal terminology allows
for examinee rationalization and utilization of other defense mechanisms.
c) Each question's meaning must be clear, not allow for multiple interpretations, and should not be
accusatory.
d) Do not presuppose knowledge of the examiner.
e) Do not use language that "Crosses the Time Barrier";
f) Contains language easily understood by the examinee.
g) Must be clearly and easily answerable by yes or no.
However, it is recommended that relevant questions be phrased in a manner that is answerable by "NO."
This is because the examination is concerned with the subject's physiological reaction and not with the
answer.
h) Should avoid the use of any emotionally-laden terminology (i.e., molest).
Relevant questions are split up into four categories, which are considered as "the four legs of the crime."
a. Did you do it
b. Did you help
c. Do you know who did it
d. Did you get anything out of it
Relevant questions are further classified according to its stimulation effect when applied,
namely:
Strong Relevant or Primary Relevant Question – which has an intense relationship to the crime or
problem being considered. This is intended to produce strong emotional response in guilty subjects.
It addresses the primary issue or direct involvement of the subject on the matter under question. It is
use primarily with the single-issue examination.
o a direct question having an intense and specific relationship to the crime or problem being
considered
o designed and constructed to test for direct or primary involvement only
o specifically designed to produce an emotional response in the person attempting deception
Secondary or Weak relevant – are questions that concern with elements of the crime and deals mostly on
guilty knowledge and partial involvement. It deals with the physical acts that support the primary issue. This
is usually use in multi-issue examination.
Example. Did you participate in the theft of that missing money?
• A question concerning some secondary element of the crime of problem being considered
• Guilty knowledge, partial involvement- type question
i.e., Theft of car
Did you help anybody to steal the car?
Example. Regarding the stolen Ipod, do you intend truthfully to answer each question about that?
Knowledge questions (Guilty Knowledge) – this type of question is propounded to the subject to detect
information about a crime that only a guilty subject would have. Such information might include details
about the site of the crime or the means of committing it, such as the type of weapon used. It is hypothesized
that guilty subjects will exhibit a different physiological response to the correct (relevant) detail than to the
incorrect details, but that innocent subjects will respond the same to all the items. It is designed to probe
whether the subject possesses information regarding the identity of the offender or the facts of the case
under question.
At this instance, the phrase “for sure” is included to eliminate further suspicion just in case the
subject knew the offender and the location of the evidence but is only hesitant to answer “yes”.
Evidence-connecting Question – this has to do with inviting subject’s attention on the probability of
incriminating proof that would tend to establish his guilt, by linking him and his predicaments to the
fingerprints, footprints, tool marks, etc. collected at the crime scene. A test question in which the examinee
is asked about a particular piece of physical evidence that would incriminate the guilty person. It could be
items left at the crime scene by the perpetrator or stolen property.
Example. Do you know where any of that missing money is right now?
Control questions, are used for purposes of comparison. Essentially, truthful subjects are believed by
polygraph examiners to be more concerned (and, thus, more physiologically aroused) about control than
relevant questions. The responses to both control and relevant questions are compared. A question which is
the same in nature with that of the relevant question but broad in scope. It is used for comparative purposes
with the relevant question. It is designed to generate reactions from truthful subject.
example:
Before you were 21 years of age, did you ever steal anything?
Do you remember stealing anything before you were 21 years of age?
Besides what you have told me about, did you ever steal anything else before you were 21?
Besides what you have told me about, have you ever stolen any money from a former employer?
1. Primary Control Question – recalls the offense done from the time of childhood up to three to five
years before the occurrence of the present offense being investigated.
Example: Before reaching the age of 28, have you ever stolen anything?
2. Secondary control question – more specific in nature, it is based upon another sort of wrongdoing
which will enhance the subject’s opportunity for responsiveness. Its scope includes up to the present
period of examination.
Example: Have you ever stolen anything from this locality?
The formulation of both types of control questions necessitates reasonable certainty that the subject’s
answer is a lie. It is theorized that although guilty subjects will also be concerned about control questions,
they will be more concerned about and thus exhibit more physiological reactions to relevant questions.
Types of questions which have no importance to the case under investigation, these are questions
which are believed to have no, or very little emotional impact on a subject. Thus, such questions can be used
as an indicator of a particular subject’s normal baseline level of arousal. These must precede the relevant
ones.
A question that has no connection with the matter under investigation and deals with known facts
that the subject cannot be denied. It is designed to be emotionally neutral to examinees and usually
answerable by “yes’. Also called Neutral Question.
Characteristics of Irrelevant
1. It has no connection to the matter under investigation.
2. No threat to subject (usually).
3. Neither innocent nor guilty suspects have reason to lie.
4. Usually about the suspect’s background.
5. Questions that give a truthful answer.
6. Generally used at the beginning of polygraph technique to establish a ‘norm’ for examinee, or
throughout the examination as needed to reestablish norm pattern.
• Acts as a safeguard against mistaking the relevant response of the guilt complex reactor for
deception responses; that is, it acts as a specialized control question
• Rules to follow:
a. Based on a fictitious crime situation constructed by the examiner
b. The fictitious crime should be specific rather than general
c. The fictitious crime situation should be closely parallel with the actual crime under investigation
and should be equal in weight
d. The examiner, before approaching the subject concerning the crime situation, must be certain the
fictitious crime was never actually committed
e. The situation must be constructed so that the subject could be considered a logical suspect; that is,
it must cover a time which the subject does not have an alibi
f. Details of the fictitious crime must be specific enough that the guilty subject can be sure he did not
commit this particular offense
example:
"Did you steal the money from the house at Palma Street?"
"Did you forcibly have sexual intercourse with the nurse wearing a white uniform at the Kalinga
Provincial Hospital?"
On this case the stealing of Ferrari toy collection was not actually committed because the alleged
crime investigated was the loss of the Ipod.
SYMPTOMATIC QUESTION
Its function is to detect and evaluate the presence of outside issues which may suppress response to
relevant questions. This is often true that the subject is fear that they might be asked about another cases in
which they are involved but are not the subject matter under investigation.
It is designed to ensure that the examiner will not ask un-reviewed questions or that the examinee is
not afraid that the examiner will ask un-reviewed questions.
• Designed to detect and evaluate the presence of outside issues, which may suppress responses to
relevant questions
Example:
"Are you completely convinced that I will not ask you a question on this test that has not already been
reviewed?
"Is there something else you are afraid I will ask you a question about, even though I have told you I
would not?"
Examples:
Do you believe me when I promised not to ask a question in this test I have not gone over word for
word?
Even though I promised I would not, are you afraid I will ask a question in this test I have not gone
over word for word?
Are you completely convinced that I will not ask any question on this test that has not already been
reviewed?
S.K.Y QUESTIONS
SKY QUESTIONS
A series of 3 questions used only on the third chart of BZCT and designed to conform to the previous
two charts and detect indirect involvement or guilty knowledge
These three questions are based on the Backster Technique grouped together to confirm the previous
charts and may detect indirect involvement on guilty knowledge.
ZONE – a twenty to thirty five seconds block of polygraph chart time initiated by a question having
a unique psychological focusing appeal to a predictable group of examinees.
3. The Department of Defense Polygraph Institute (DoDPI) Bi-Spot Zone Comparison Technique
– the first zone contains the relevant questions concerning, Primary, Secondary and S-K-Y
(Suspicion Knowledge You questions). The second Zone, is used when there is only one question or
issue that must be addressed in the examination.
4. Integrated Zone Comparison Technique – developed in 1987 by Nathan J. Gordon, William M.
Waid and Philip M. Cocheti. This technique has the most significant departure from the original zone
comparison technique developed by Cleve Backster.
5. The Utah Zone Comparison Technique – the structure of this technique is basically the same for
single issue test as it is for multiple issue tests. However, instead of using relevant question that
embraces several facts of a crime or matter under investigation, the single issue test uses relevant
question that addressed a single issue only.
Specific Tests for Specific Events or Scenario used in the Polygraph Technique:
1. Known Solution Peak of Tension – this is administered when a fact relating to the event is known
only to the perpetrator of the offense and the victim, police and client.
2. Proving Peak of Tension – this is administered to obtain information that might prove valuable to
an investigation. It is designed to determine the location, disposition, modus operandi and amounts
on the list of possibilities.
3. Pre-employment Test – this test seeks to verify information contained in a job application and
develop relevant information deliberately committed by the subject.
4. Periodic Testing – this is conducted for the purpose of determining the honesty of employees
assigned to sensitive position. It also acts as a constant deterrent to employee’s dishonesty.
CHART MARKING
Is one of the most important things in the conduct of polygraph examination because it assists the
examiner in interpreting and evaluating the test result, without these markings the examiner will find it
difficult to interpret the tracings which will be the basis in drawing out conclusions and recommendations.
Are annotations of the physiologic tracings to denote stimulus (question) onset and offset, examinee’s
answer, question number, question label, artifacts, and other details important to the interpretation of the
physiological data.
To facilitate evaluation and interpretation of the test result, chart markings are made using signs and
symbols to enable the examiner determine the following:
1. Exact time the test commenced and terminated.
2. Initial and final blood pressure and galvanograph readings.
3. Particular point where each question asked started and ended.
4. Corresponding identification of the question, and the type and time of answer given by the subject.
5. Duration and amplitude of reaction patterns.
6. Any instruction given or repetition of question made.
7. Any movement, cough tracing by the suspect or outside distractions that occurred.
8. Mechanical adjustment or readjustment made.
9. Extraneous factors affecting test chart such as paper jams.
10. Time interval between questions.
11. Chart number, name of subject, time, date, and place taken.
GLOBAL ANALYSIS
In global analysis, the examiner looks for significant reactions that occur repeatedly which is referred
to as “Conspecnificance”. Conspecnificance is the consistency of reaction to a specific question with
significant magnitude
NUMERICAL SCORING
The numerical scoring is a method of rendering polygraph decisions that are based exclusively on
numeric values that have been assigned to physiological responses recorded during a structured polygraph
examination
Types of Validity
Face Validity = opinion or consensus of experts
Content Validity = selection of pertinent issues of inquiry
Predictive Validity = ability to predict a future outcome
Concurrent Validity = ability to identify what is already known
Convergent Validity – new info coincide with extant info
Divergent Validity – new info separates extant ideas
Construct Validity – meaningful defined and understandable relationships (correlations) between
various phenomena
Criterion Validity – accuracy of category decisions
Incremental Validity – professional decision accuracy improves with the use of additional
information
Note: Reliability is not the same as validity, which means accuracy. A technique cannot be more valid than
it is reliable. A technique can have high agreement without high accuracy, though the reverse is not true.
Result Errors
False Negative = refers to the failure to detect the presence of a particular event or item. In
polygraphy refers to the incorrect decision that deception was not practiced by the examinee.
False Positive = is the false detection of something that is not actually present. In polygraphy. It is
the incorrect decision that deception was practiced by the examinee.
Polygraph chart – is the composite record of the pneumograph, cardiograph and galvanograph tracing from
one series of questions.
Pneumograph Tracing
It is normally found at the top of the chart. The pneumograph pattern consists of inhalation and
exhalation strikes with a normal amplitude of form ½ to ¾ inches. The normal cyclic rate is from 13 to 18
breaths per minute and may vary in reasons of exceptional physical build condition or respiratory defect.
Respiratory tract – which comprises the nose and mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs.
Bony cage – which includes the thoracic vertebrae, the ribs, and the breast bone or the sternum.
The pneumograph changes from the individual norm which may be indicative of deception:
a. Change in rhythm or regularity.
b. Change in amplitude or volume.
c. Change in the inhalation or exhalation ratio.
d. Notched or serrated inhalation or exhalation strokes.
e. Change of base line; loss of base line
f. Hyperventilation
g. Suppression
h. Respiratory block
Skin – the external covering of the body consisting essentially of the epidermis, dermis, and the corium. The
anatomical compositions of the epidermis have four layers of stratified epithelium, while the corium is
composed of connective tissue containing lymphatic nerves and nerve ending, blood vessels, sebaceous and
sweat glands and elastic fibers.
Cardiosphygmograph Tracing:
It is normally found at the bottom of the chart showing the three physiological phenomena, a systolic
stroke, a diastolic strokes and a dichotic notch. Normal pulse rate of the average individual is 72 to 80
beats per minute and may vary due to emotional tone of the subject.
The cardiograph tracing taking the form of specific responses indicative of deception:
a. Increase or decrease in blood pressure.
b. Increase or decrease in pulse rate.
c. Increase or decrease in amplitude.
d. Change in position or disappearance of dichotic notch.
e. Extra systoles (premature contradiction of an auricle or ventricle while fundamental rhythm of the
heart is maintained).
Frye Standard – is a legal precedent regarding the admissibility of scientific examinations or experiments in
legal proceedings. This standard comes from the case of Frye vs. United States. In the Frye standard,
scientific evidence presented to the court must be interpreted by the court as “generally accepted” by a
meaningful segment of the associated scientific community.
The Daubert Standard – was derived from the Daubert v. Merrel Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. “Cross-
examination, presentation of contrary evidence, and careful instruction on the burden of proof, rather than
wholesale exclusion under an uncompromising “general acceptance” standard, is the appropriate means by
which evidence based on valid principles may be challenged
Pre-employment – it provides a safe method in verifying statements of a job applicant, prevent false
evaluation and false judgement as reported by previous employer who carry a persona grudge against him.
Periodic Screening – conducted to organic employees only and use as constant deterrent to employee’s
dishonesty and create a bond of mutual strength among employees.