Quiz PMI

CAPM/PMP Exam Certification Preparation Part
Knowledge Area Quiz

Quiz Introduction
Quiz: Introduction
Total Questions: 10
Time: 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. Which of the following is not a PMBOK Knowledge Area?
A. Procurement management
B. Integration management
C. Execution management
D. Communications management
2. A project manager is managing a research project. Typically, research projects are not clearly defined and
involve a lot of uncertainty. The project has four phases in which a phase can only start when its previous
phase is complete. What project lifecycle and phase-to-phase relationship should the project manager use for
this project?
A. Predictive lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship
B. Iterative lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship
C. Predictive lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship
D. Iterative lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship
3. The transition from one phase to another within a project's lifecycle (e.g., from design to manufacturing) is
typically marked by:
A. Kill point
B. Monte Carlo
C. Constraint
D. Decision tree
4. Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor?
A. Configuration management knowledge base
B. Change control procedures
C. Historical information
D. Commercial databases
5. Projects operating in agile environments where a high degree of uncertainty exists and where the scope is
not yet fully defined, may not benefit from detailed cost calculations due to frequent changes. Instead,
lightweight estimation methods can be used to generate a fast, high-level forecast of project labor costs,
which can then be easily adjusted as changes arise. Detailed estimates are:
A. Reserved for short-term planning horizons in a just-in-time fashion.
B. Never developed in an agile project.
C. Only developed if the project stakeholders allow the project manager to do so.
D. Developed early during the project but are never updated due to frequent changes.
6. Fill in the blank. indicates that planning and documentation are iterative or ongoing
activities.
A. Progressive management
B. Iterative elaboration
C. Waterfall development
D. Progressive elaboration
7. Which of the following is not a project competing constraint?
A. Budget
B. Procurement
C. Risk
D. Resource
8. Your friend has been hired as a project manager at a new company. She has very little project experience but has
been assigned a new project. The organization she will be working in is a matrix organization. She can expect
communications to be:
A. Complex
B. Non-automated
C. Open
D. Easy
9. You have been assigned a project with a very tight timeline and limited resources. When assigned the project
and the team, you are concerned about delivering on-time. What is the first thing you do?
A. Document your concerns and submit those concerns to your manager and the sponsor
B. Evaluate the potential schedule implications and concerns with your project team
C. Refuse the project as the defined timeline makes the project impossible
D. Escalate to the sponsor immediately to identify flexibility with the schedule
10. Janelle Wright has approached you with a project opportunity. She explains that you will be responsible for
delivering one component of the organization’s new product. The other components will be developed by
other project managers within the group. What is your primary concern?
A. You are concerned that you may not have enough knowledge of the particular component
B. You are concerned that you are friends with Janelle and it may not be appropriate to work with her
C. You are concerned that you will not have enough resources given that there are other project managers involved
D. You are concerned that there are dependencies between the projects, rolling up to Janelle’s program
Quiz: Introduction
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - Execution management is not a PMBOK knowledge area. Note that execution is a process group. [PMBOK
6th Edition, Pages 23, 24] []
2. B - The project manager should use the Iterative life cycle since project phases and activities will most probably be
repeated as the project team's understanding of the project and requirements increases. Further,
since any project phase can only start once its previous phase has been completed, the phase-to-phase relationship
should be sequential. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 19]
3. A - The transition from one phase to another within a project's lifecycle typically involves, and is usually defined
by, some form of technical transfer or handoff. This is also called a kill point. [PMBOK 6th edition,
Page 21] []
4. D - Commercial databases are considered enterprise environmental factors. The other choices are organizational
process assets. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 39-41] []
5. A - In agile/adaptive environments, detailed estimates are reserved for short-term planning horizons in a just-in-
time fashion. The rest of the choices are incorrect. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 234] [
6. D - Progressive elaboration is a characteristic of projects. It allows a project management team to manage

the project to a greater level as the project evolves. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 565] []
7. B - Six competing project constraints are scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources and risk. Procurement
is not a project competing constraint. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 28] []
8. A - Communications in a matrix environment can be very complex as the communication must flow
horizontally
(from the PM to their dotted-line reports) and vertically (from the PM to the administrative managers
of the team members.) []
9. B - The first thing you will do as a project manager is to evaluate those schedule implications with your
team. It is possible that your team has the knowledge, experience, and availability to get the project done
within the constraints. There is no mention of cost, so there may be the potential to outsource work, etc. so
refusing the project is not appropriate. Escalation should only be made once a problem gets to a point where
no solution can be identified or if there is a legal or ethical issue. []
10. D - As there are other projects that will all be contributing components to the overall product, Janelle is
managing a program. As the project manager of a project within a program, you are concerned that there are
dependencies between the projects that roll up to the program. If you do not have enough knowledge of the
component, you can disclose that to Janelle and seek out expertise for your team. Although you and Janelle
have a friendship, you can still manage a project within her component if you have the appropriate
authority and skills. There is no mention of resource constraints within the context of the question.[]
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Integration Management
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Integration Management
Total Questions: 10
Time 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. What is a recommended method for controlling change within a project?
A. Have only the project manager able to initiate change.
B. Have each change approved or rejected through a formal change control process.
C. Allow each project member ultimate control of changes within their realm of the project without
process.
D. Freeze scope and allow absolutely no changes.
2. A project manager calls you in as a consultant to provide input on developing the Project Charter. According
to the PMBOK, your contribution to the project could best be termed as:
A. Professional Consultant
B. Expert Judgment
C. Charter Consultant
D. Expert Consultancy
3. Which process is concerned with providing forecasts to update current cost information?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Project Management Information System
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
4. Which of the following would not be considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor during the Develop
Project Charter process?
A. Scope Statement
B. Organizational infrastructure
C. Governmental standards
D. Marketplace conditions
5. The Close Project or Phase process is not performed when:
A. Cancelling projects
B. Closing projects
C. Closing project phases
D. Reactivating projects
6. Which of these tools and techniques is common to all seven Project Integration Management processes?
A. Meetings
B. Data analysis
C. Data gathering
D. Expert Judgment
7. You are beginning a new project. When should you use the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Throughout the entire project
B. Only when closing out the project
C. Only after the project is completely funded
D. Only after the project scope is clearly defined
8. The project management team has determined that there are some changes to the scope of the project.
According to the PMBOK, who is responsible for reviewing, evaluating, and approving documented
changes to the project?
A. Change Control Board (CCB)
B. Change Configuration Board (CCB)
C. Scope Control Board (SCB)
D. Configuration Control Board (CCB)
9. What is the difference between the Monitor and Control Project Work process and the Direct and Manage
Project Work process?
A. The Monitor and Control Project Work and the Direct and Manage Project Work processes are the same
B. The Monitor and Control Project Work process monitors the project performance while the Direct and Manage Project
Work process is concerned with performing the activities to accomplish requirements.
C. The Monitor and Control Project Work process is a sub-process of the Direct and Manage Project process.
D. There is no such thing as the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
10. You are a consulting project manager and an investment bank has a contract with you to run a large
information technology project that is expected to last 15 months. During the Direct and Manage Project
Work process, you discover that several regulatory requirements were addressed in the project
management plan but missed from the scope statement. Failure to meet these requirements could result in
legal action against the company. However, implementing the technology to comply with these
regulations could exceed the budget and scope of the project and result in the cancellation of the project.
What should you do?
A. Do not do anything as these requirements are not a part of the scope baseline.
B. Request additional funds to implement these requirements.
C. Submit a change request to incorporate the missed requirements in the project's scope.
D. This is a classic example of scope creep and such requirements must be ignored.
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Integration Management
1. B - The change control procedure varies from project to project. However, every change request must be processed through
a formal change control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 113] []
2. B - Expert Judgment is judgment provided, based on expertise in an application area, a knowledge area, a discipline, an
industry, etc. Expert Judgment is available from many sources including consultants. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 79]
]
3. A - During the Monitor and Control Project Work process, work performance data is gathered and passed to the
controlling processes. The Monitor and Control Project Work process is responsible for keeping track of the all
project's measures, including cost. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 109] []
4. A - The scope statement is clearly not an enterprise environmental factor, whereas the other three choices— governmental
standards, organizational infrastructure, and marketplace conditions—are enterprise environmental factors. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 78]]
5. D - The Close Project or Phase process allows the project manager to close or finish a specific phase of the project.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Page 121] []
6. D - All seven processes of Project Integration Management use Expert Judgment as a tool and technique. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Page 71] []
7. A - Changes can occur in the project at any time. The Perform Integrated Change Control process is valuable for
managing and tracking those changes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] []
8. A - The Change Control Board is a group of formally constituted stakeholders responsible for reviewing,
evaluating, approving, delaying or rejecting changes to the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 115] [
]
9. B - The Monitor and Control Project Work process monitors the other project processes including the Direct and
Manage Project Work process, while the Direct and Manage Project Work Process completes the project scope.
[PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 70]]
10. C - All regulatory requirements must be met. Doing nothing or considering this a scope creep are not valid options. You
would have to request additional funds, but first you need to submit a change request for approval. A change request
can be submitted as a part of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 96] []
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Scope Management
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Scope Management
Total Questions: 10
Time : 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. As part of tracking a project, a project manager is validating the completion of project scope. He or she
would measure this against:
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. The Project Management Plan
C. The Project Charter
D. The Requirements Management Plan
2. Which of the following processes is not a part of the Project Scope Management?
A. Create WBS
B. Control Quality
C. Control Scope
D. Collect Requirements
3. Establishing control accounts for the work packages and a unique identifier from a code of accounts
finalizes the WBS. This provides a structure for hierarchical summation of:
A. Schedule and requirements information
B. Cost and requirements information
C. Cost and resource information
D. Scope, budget and schedule information

4. Uncontrolled project scope changes are often referred to as .
• Scope creep
B. Scope verification
C. Value Added Scope
D. Scope control
5. While managing a project, you have included the product acceptance criteria in the Quality Management
Plan. While reviewing your plan, a senior manager asks you to reconsider this. You then realize that what
you did is incorrect. Where should you place the product acceptance criteria?
A. Project Charter
B. Change control process
C. Project Scope Statement
D. Scope Verification Plan
6. The Project Scope Management Knowledge Area is primarily concerned with:
A. Defining the scope of work that included in the project
B. Ensuring that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project
C. The scope of work required during the initiation phase
D. Defining the specifications and functionality of the work product
7. A project manager approaches you to understand the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in better detail.
You tell her that:
A. The WBS is a detailed project plan and includes the effort, resources, and dates on which the tasks for the project
are complete.
B. The WBS is a task-oriented decomposition of work that identifies each task and the resource required to
accomplish the task.
C. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work the project team must
accomplish to meet project objectives.
D. The WBS is a Gantt chart that contains details about the project deliverables the project team must do
8. Why must the Validate Scope process be completed in a project?
A. To obtain scope documents from recent similar projects for benchmarking
B. To determine whether the scope is at the correct complexity level
C. To obtain formal acceptance of deliverables by the customer or sponsor
D. To ensure the project team is all aware of the scope

9. A project manager wants to use a group decision-making technique to generate, classify and prioritize
requirements. Which of these is not a valid group decision-making technique?
A. Plurality
B. Singularity
C. Majority
D. Unanimity
10. For projects where a business analyst collaborates with the project managers in managing the project scope,
which of the following task is most likely to be performed by the business analyst?
A. Acquire project resources
B. Monitor the change control process
C. Elicit, document, and manage stakeholder requirements
D. Control project costs

Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Scope Management
1. B - Completion of project scope is measured against the scope baseline which is a part of the project management plan. In
contrast, the product scope is measured against the product requirements. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 161]]
2. B - Control Quality is not a part of the Project Scope management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 129] [
3. D - The WBS is finalized by establishing control accounts for the work packages and a unique identifier from a
code of accounts. This provides a management control point for integrated scope, schedule and cost information.[PMBOK 6th
4. A - Uncontrolled project scope changes are often referred to as scope creep. Scope creep is often viewed negatively, but can
be managed using a change control process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 168]
5. C - The project scope statement documents and addresses the characteristics and boundaries of the project and its
associated products and services, as well as product acceptance criteria and scope control. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page
154]]
6. B - Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required
and only the work required to complete the project successfully. It is primarily concerned with defining and
controlling what is included and what is not included in the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 129] []
7. C - The WBS is a deliverable oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be accomplished by the project
team to accomplish project objectives. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 157]]
8. C - Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables by the customer or
sponsor of the project. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 163] []
9. B - Singularity is not a valid method to reach a group decision. The other choices are valid methods to reach a
group decision. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 144]
10. C - Eliciting, documenting and managing stakeholder requirements is a responsibility of a business analyst in projects
where business analysts collaborate with project managers to manage the project scope. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page
132]]
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Schedule Management
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Schedule Management
Total Questions: 10
Time: 15 mins
Test Questions
1. While planning the schedule for your project, you frequently refer to the project calendar. The project
calendar is:
A. A calendar containing the days on which various meetings are scheduled with the project team.
B. A calendar of working days or shifts that establishes those dates on which schedule activities are wo
C. A calendar containing the list of days on which the project team members will be on leave or take ai
D. A calendar that establishes the dates on which project deliverables go to the customer.
2. As a project manager, you are in the process of preparing the project schedule for the project. Which of the
following accurately depicts the sequence of your activities before you began to prepare the project
schedule?
A. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule
D. Define Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities
3. After one year of construction, an office building is scheduled for completion on 30 January. The
landscaping work needs to start 15 days prior to the building’s completion. Which of the following
relationships most likely represents the relationship of the start of landscaping work to the completion of the
office building?
A. Finish-to-start with a 15-day lead
B. Start-to-finish with a 15-day lead
C. Finish-to-start with a 15-day lag
D. Start-to-finish with a 15-day lag

4. You are the project manager of a project. As part of the planning process, you use a planning technique to
subdivide the project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. What is this
technique called?
A. Unit task analysis
B. Decomposition
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Arrow Diagramming Method
5. The accuracy of Activity Duration estimates can be improved by considering the amount of risk in the
original estimate. The three types of estimates on which three-point estimates are based are:
A. Budgetary, ballpark, and Order of Magnitude
B. Best case scenario, expected scenario, and current scenario
C. Most likely, likely, and unlikely
D. Most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic
6. You have decided to apply Resource Leveling to a project because of a critically required resource being
available only at certain times. Which of the following will likely be true?
A. Resource Leveling can often cause the original critical path to change.
B. Resource Leveling will over-allocate resources to schedule the project before the deadline.
C. Resource Leveling will require additional resources to complete the project.
D. Resource Leveling will never alter the original critical path.
7. A technique that iterates the project schedule many times to calculate a distribution of possible project
completion dates is:
A. Monte Carlo Analysis
B. Montford analysis
C. Pareto Cost chart
D. Deming Analysi
8. The critical path method (CPM) calculates the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish
dates. The difference between the late and early start of a task is a:
A. Free float
B. Feeding buffer
C. Danger zone
D. Total float
9. You are managing a project that involves work on a film shoot. The editing activity can happen only
after the film is shot. The best description of the logical relationship between the editing and shooting
of the film is:
A. Finish-to-Finish (FF)
B. Start-to-Start (SS)
C. Start-to-Finish (SF)
D. Finish-to-Start (FS)
10. George is managing a construction project and currently sequencing the project activities and defining their
logical relationships. Two activities have both the SS and FF relationships. How should George schedule
these activities?
A. Apply both the relationships.
B. Select the relationship with the highest impact.
C. Select the SS relationship as this is more logical than the FF relationship.
D. Select the FF relationship as this can help meet the project deadlines.
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Schedule Management
1. B - A project calendar is a calendar of working days or shifts that establishes those dates on which schedule activities
are worked. It also establishes non-working days that determine dates on which schedule activities are idle, such as
holidays, weekends and non-shift hours. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 220] []
2. A - The correct sequence of processes in the Schedule Management Knowledge Area is: Plan Schedule Management,
Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule. [PMBOK
6th edition, Page 173]
3. A - The landscaping work needs to start before completion of the office building, so it is a finish-to-start relationship.
Since it needs to start 15 days before completion of the building, it requires a lead of 15 days. Hence, the answer is finish-to-
start with a 15-day lead. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 192] []
4. B - Decomposition is the process of subdividing the project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable
components. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 158] []
5. D - The accuracy of Activity Duration estimates can be improved by considering the amount of risk in the original
estimate. The three types of estimates on which three-point estimates are based are: Most likely, Optimistic, and
Pessimistic. An Activity Duration can be estimated using values derived from these three estimated durations. [PMBOK
6th edition, Page 201] []
6. A - Resource levelling can often cause the original critical path to change. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 211] []
7. A - Monte Carlo Analysis is a technique that computes or iterates the project cost or the project schedule many
times, using input values selected at random from probability distributions of possible costs or durations. In this way,
one can calculate a distribution of possible total project costs or completion dates. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 213] []
8. D - The difference between the early and late finish of a task is called the total float for that task. Total float is the
amount of time that a scheduled activity can be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date.
9. D - This is a situation where the editing activity can happen only after the film shooting has been completed. Hence,
the logical relationship between the two tasks is Finish-to-Start (FS). [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] []
10. B - Multiple relationships between the same activities are not recommended, so a decision has to be made to select the
relationship with the highest impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 190] []
CAPM/PMP Exam Certification Preparation Part 2
Knowledge Area Quiz

Knowledge Area Quiz Project Cost Management
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Cost Management
Total Questions: 10
Time: 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. The Cost Performance Baseline is a time-phased budget and is used as a basis to measure, monitor, and
control overall cost performance of the project. It is usually displayed in the form of:
A. An S-curve
B. An inverted S-curve.
C. Pie-chart
D. A Z-curve
2. Contingency Reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with:
A. Scope creep
B. Anticipated but not certain events
C. Unanticipated events
D. Anticipated and certain events
3. A project is estimated to cost $50,000 with a timeline of 50 days. After 25 days, the project manager finds
that 50 percent of the project is complete and actual costs are $50,000. What is the Cost Performance Index
(CPI)?
A. The CPI is 1
B. The CPI is 1.5
C. The CPI is 2
D. The CPI is 0.5

4. Your project is midway through a delivery schedule. As the project manager, you want to determine how
much work remains. Which is the most accurate way to determine the remaining work the project team must
carry out?
A. Rolling wave method
B. Earned Value Technique
C. A Manual forecast
D. Future analysis
5. An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables (such
as square footage in construction or lines of code in software development) is known as:
A. Parametric Estimating
B. Analogous Estimating
C. Bottom-up Estimating
D. Historical Analysis
6. Lucy is currently preparing a high-level cost estimate for her project in the initiation phase. With the limited
detail available to her, what would you expect the range of her estimate to be, and what would you call such
an estimate?
A. -25 to +25%, Absolute Cost
B. -5 to +10%, Narrow
C. -1 to +1%, Definitive
D. -25 to +75%, Rough Order of Magnitude
7. Funding requirements for a project are usually in incremental amounts that are not continuous. These
increments appear as a step function in the graph depicting Cash flow, Cost baseline and Funding. Any gap
at the end of the project between the funds allocated and the cost baseline represents:
A. Management reserves
B. Contingency reserves
C. Cost variance
D. Charting error
8. You are aware that cost and schedule risks are prevalent in your project. You want to compare the planned
project performance with its actual performance during the Monitor Risks process. What should you
perform to provide this information?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Risk audit
C. Risk reassessment
D. Technical Performance Analysis
9. You are a senior project manager working for RETAMART, a retail shopping network that sells various
consumer products. As part of the expansion plan approved by the board of directors, you are a project
manager for a new plant. Due to transportation problems, the project has experienced delays; the Schedule
Performance Index (SPI) is at 0.6 and the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is at 0.7. However, you expect some
improvements over the next few weeks, which may increase the SPI to 1.1 and the CPI to 0.9. Which
of the following statements is true if your anticipated changes materialize?
A. The project is overspent and behind schedule
B. The project is overspent but ahead of schedule
C. The project is on schedule and under budget
D. The project is under budget but behind schedule
10. Which of these are not inputs to the Determine Budget process?
A. Cost baseline, requirements traceability matrix
B. Scope baseline, agreements
C. Basis of estimates, cost estimates
D. Risk register, resource management plan

Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Cost Management
1. A - The correct response is an S-curve (or S curve). The Cost Performance Baseline is a time-phased budget and is used as a
basis to measure, monitor, and control overall cost performance of the project. It is usually displayed in the form of an S-
curve and is developed by summing estimated costs by period. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 254] []
2. B - Contingency Reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with anticipated but
not certain events. These events are also called "Known unknowns." [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 245 []
3. D - The correct answer is 0.5. The Cost performance Index (CPI) is given by the formula CPI = EV/AC where EV is
the Earned Value and AC is the Actual Cost. Since 50% of the project is complete, Earned Value = 50% of $50,000
= $25,000. Hence CPI = 25,000/50,000 = 0.5. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 263] []
4. C - Although the Earned Value technique of determining the balance work in the project is quick and straightforward, it is not
as valuable or accurate as the manual forecasting of the remaining work by the project team. However, manual
forecasting is more time-consuming. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 264] []
5. A - This technique is known as Parametric Estimating. It can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending on the
sophistication as well as on the underlying resource quantity and cost data built into the model. [PMBOK 6th edition,
Page 200] []
6. D - During the initial stages of the project, the amount of information available will be limited. Therefore, a Rough
Order of Magnitude (ROM) estimate is usually prepared, and it should have an accuracy range of
-25% to +75%. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 241] []
7. A - Management reserves are included in the project's total funds, but they are not included in the project's cost
performance baseline. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 252] []
8. D - Technical performance analysis, a tool and technique of the Monitor Risks process, is used to evaluate the
differentials between planned and actual costs, schedules, and performance criteria. Several statistical techniques, such as
Earned Value (EV) technique, are used to analyze these variances. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 456] []
9. B - The cost performance index below 1 indicates that the project is over budget, and the schedule performance index
above 1 indicates that the project is ahead of schedule. If all of your anticipated changes happen to be true, the
project will be overspent but ahead of schedule because the schedule performance index will be greater than 1.
10. A - The cost baseline and the requirements traceability matrix are not inputs to the Determine Budget process.
The other choices are valid inputs. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 248] []
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Quality Management
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Quality Management
Total Questions: 10
Time: 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. A software team tracing the root cause of an application failure can use this to help determine the cause(s) of
the failure:
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Rummler-Brache swim lane diagram
C. Threading analysis
D. Deming chart
2. What is a control chart?
A. A type of RACI chart
B. A chart that shows the root cause of a problem
C. A type of fishbone diagram
D. A chart that shows the stability of a process
3. The technique of comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to generate ideas
for improvement and to provide a basis by which to measure performance is known as:
A. Workbench
B. Benchmarking
C. Quality control
D. Dependency
4. There is a serious defect in the finished product of a project that was completed a few months ago,
resulting in a recall campaign to recall the defective products. What would be the best classification for
these types of costs?
A. To complete performance index (TCP)
B. Cost variance
C. Cost of conformance
D. Cost of nonconformance
5. Projects with adaptive life cycles use product backlogs to define a project’s scope. The product backlog is a
set of:
A. Voice of the customer
B. User stories
C. Client lullabies
D. Non-functional requirements
6. What is the process of random selection and inspection of a work product?
A. Control Charting
B. Flow Charting
C. Statistical Sampling
D. Benchmarking
7. You have a contract to build a manufacturing plant in Kuala Lumpur. However, you are not familiar with
the building codes in Kuala Lumpur or Malaysia, so you are reviewing all their building codes prior to
“turning a shovelful of earth.” This is an example of:
A. Project initiation
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality planning
D. Quality control
8. An automotive designer uses a certain technique to determine which combination of suspension and tires
will produce the most desirable ride characteristics at a reasonable cost. To do this, the designer employs a
statistical framework and systematically changes all the important parameters instead of changing the
factors one at a time. This method is known as:
A. Design of Experiments
B. Nominal Group Technique
C. Statistical Sampling
D. Force Field Analysis
9. Your development team is producing switch mechanisms for the new product. After each batch is produced it
is checked through quality control to validate that the mechanisms function appropriately. This would be
considered an example of:
A. Variable sampling
B. Random sampling
C. Attribute sampling
D. Common sampling
10. Precision and accuracy can best be described as:
A. Precision means the values of repeated measurements are consistent while accuracy means the values are very close
to the true value.
B. Precision means the values are very close to the true value while accuracy means the values of repeated
measurements are consistent.
C. Precision and accuracy both mean that the values of repeated measurements are consistent.
D. Precision is the degree to which characteristics fulfill requirements and accuracy is a category assigned to products
having the same functional use but different technical characteristics.
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Quality Management
1. A - Cause-and-effect diagrams, also called Ishikawa diagrams, illustrate how various factors might be linked to
potential problems or effects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 293] [
2. D - A control chart shows the stability of a process over time. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 304] [
3. B - Benchmarking is the technique of comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to
generate ideas for improvement and to provide a basis by which to measure performance. [PMBOK 6th
4. D - The correct response is Cost of Non-Conformance. This includes all costs incurred due to internal and external
failures. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 282] [
5. B - In projects with adaptive life cycles, the overall scope of the project will be decomposed into a set of
requirements and work to be performed, referred to as product backlog. Backlogs include product requirements
and user stories. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 131] []
6. C - Statistical sampling is the process of random selection and inspection of a work product. [PMBOK 6th edition,
Page 303] []
7. C - All types of quality plans, such as building codes, OSHA guidelines, ISO 9000, or company quality
plans are examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors and Organizational Process Assets which are input to the Plan Quality Management
process. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Pages 280, 281] []
8. A - The correct response is Design of Experiments; this method plays a key role in optimization of products
or processes. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 290] []
9. C - Because they are testing for one feature or function, and it is pass/fail, this would be considered attribute sampling.
10. A - Precision means the value of repeated measurements are consistent (getting the same result each time). Accuracy means the value is
close to the true or desired value (like getting a bulls-eye in archery). Results can be precise without being accurate.
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Resource Management
Knowledge Area Quiz - Project Resource Management
Total Questions: 10
Time Allowed: 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Plan Resource Management process?
A. Organizational theory
B. Meetings
C. Hierarchical charts
D. Rewards and recognition
2. Which of these is not an Enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Plan Resource Management
process?
A. Organizational culture
B. Lessons learned on organizational structures
C. Marketplace conditions
D. Facilities and resources
3. A project involved team members situated in Arizona, Nebraska, New York, and Ireland. Which of the
following activities becomes crucial in such a team environment?
A. Team-building
B. Status reporting
C. Conflict resolution
D. Communication planning
4. You are managing a project. An audit team wants to know where they can find information on training plans
for the project team members and certification requirements. This are in the:
A. Resource Breakdown Structure
B. Staff Release Plan
C. Resource Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
5. You are managing a project and find you need to apply resource leveling. Which of the following tools can
help you identify resources that are over-allocated?
A. Resource Assignment Matrix
B. Network diagram
C. Resource Histogram
D. Resource Breakdown Structure
6. Clear criteria for rewards and a planned system for their use promote and reinforce desired behaviors in
the project. Creating a recognition plan with established times for rewards, ensures that recognition takes
place and is not forgotten. This is usually part of the:
A. Project Dashboard
B. Resource Management Plan
C. Company HR plan
D. Communications Management Plan
7. Ground rules are established to set clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by the project team
members. Whose responsibility is it to enforce ground rules?
A. The project manager
B. All project team members share the responsibility for enforcing the rules once they are established in the Team Charter
C. The HR team
D. The project manager and senior team members

8. The project has been underway for a short period of time and two of your team members are having difficulty
working together. When you approach them regarding the situation, one team member starts crying and the other
team member is escalating and is now shouting. What is the best way to handle this situation?
A. Allow the team members to work the issue out themselves with a problem-solving approach
B. Using a compromising approach, ask each team member to come to a resolution they can both agree upon
C. Using a forcing approach, directly resolve the conflict
D. Using a smoothing approach, try to diffuse the emotion in the situation
9. The five stages of team development are:
A. Forming, storming, norming, conforming, and adjourning
B. Forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning
C. Meeting, assignments, work progression, reporting, and disbanding
D. Acquisition, assignment, status reporting, results, and re-assignment
10.To ensure the best outcome for your project with the small team, you will be relocating the team members to a war
room set-up so that they are co-located. This is also known as:
A. Risk avoidance
B. A tight matrix
C. Peer-to-peer work
D. Agile project management

Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Resource Management Answer Key
and Explanations
1. D - Rewards and Recognition is a tool and technique used in the Develop Team process, not in the Plan Resource
Management process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 312] []
2. B - Lessons learned are important inputs to the Plan Resource Management process. However, these are organizational process
assets and not enterprise environmental factors. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 315] []
3. D - Communication planning is critical when virtual teams are involved. Lack of face-to-face interaction can cause
misunderstandings and conflict. These risks need to be addressed by proper communication planning. [PMBOK 6th edition,
Page 333] []
4. C - The correct response is the Resource Management Plan. This documents information such as training plans,
certification requirements and compliance issues. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 318, 319] []
5. C - The Resource Histogram is a tool for charting human resources. It illustrates the number of hours that a person,
department or entire project team will be needed each week or month over the course of the project. The chart can
include a horizontal line that represents the maximum number of hours from a particular resource. This can be used for a
resource leveling strategy. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages 211, 719] []
6. B - The plan for rewards and recognition is part of the Resource Management plan. The recognition and rewards are
developed as part of the Plan Resource Management process. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Pages 318, 319] []
7. B - All project team members share responsibility for enforcing the rules once they are established in the Team
Charter. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 319, 320] []
8. D - Because the team members are in a state of heightened emotion, it is unlikely they will respond well to any type of
collaborative approach. The first thing to do would be to try and diffuse the emotion of the situation.
9. B - The stages of team development (also known as Tuckman’s ladder) are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
10. B - This is describing a tight matrix

Knowledge Area Quiz Project Communications Management
Knowledge Area Quiz - Project Communications Management
Total Questions: 10
Test Questions
1. Communications management plans should include all of the following except:
A. Stakeholder communication requirements
B. Reasons for information distribution
C. Escalation process
D. Risk Register
2. You are the Project Manager and are responsible for the development of a mall. As with any construction
project, there will be multiple iterations of blueprints and engineering drawings. Therefore, you have
decided to create an online database that can be used to query the documents by name, type, date, etc. This
is an example of what type of communication tool?
A. Project Management Information System
B. Lessons Learned
C. Project Records
D. Configuration Management System
3. You are working on a project with all the team members located in geographically different areas, and all
communication is by email and chat. It is sometimes hard to infer the true meaning of these messages
because you cannot see facial expressions or hear tones of voice. This is an example of:
A. Encoding
B. Medium
C. Decoding
D. Noise
4. Your project calls for communication with an extremely large audience. What communication method
would be appropriate under such circumstances?
A. Pull communication
B. Interactive communication
C. Two-way communication
D. Verbal communication
5. If you are writing a proposal for additional funding, which communication style should you choose?
A. Formal and horizontal
B. Formal and upward
C. Informal and downward
D. Informal and horizontal
6. The project manager is providing information to the stakeholders based on the communication management plan. At
a recent meeting, he overheard two key stakeholders discussing the fact that they felt they were not accurately
informed or up-to-date on the project status. What is the best thing for the project manager to do?
A. Provide all of the stakeholders with a copy of the communications management plan
B. Nothing, because he is following the communications management plan
C. Discuss project communication and the communications management plan at the next stakeholder meeting
D. Increase the frequency and detail of the project communications
7. The components of the communication model include all of the following, except:
A. Sender and receiver
B. Encode and recode
C. Noise
D. Message and medium

8. A fundamental attribute of effective communication activities and artifacts:
A. Creating a centralized website
B. Defining the purpose of the communication
C. Ensuring that everyone in the organization receives identical communications
D. Validating all communications with the sponsor
9. An understanding of the differences between individuals, groups and organizations and adapting the
communication strategy in the context of these differences is known as:
A. Political awareness
B. Horizontal communication
C. Environmental factor influences
D. Cultural awareness
10. Although your project has been progressing very well and has been relatively stable against the project
baselines, there have recently been some unexpected costs that are causing the project to trend over budget.
Upon review with your sponsor, she advises you to not send out the monthly performance report or discuss
the situation with the other key stakeholders as she fears it will cause unnecessary concern. What is the best
thing for you to do?
A. Document that the sponsor requested the performance report not be distributed
B. Meet with the key stakeholders off-line to advise them of the situation
C. Distribute the performance report per the terms of the communication plan
D. Wait to distribute the performance report until the next reporting cycle
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Communications Management
1. D - The Risk Register is part of Risk Management and is not included in the Communications Management Plan.
2. A - The online database is an example of a Project Management Information System. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 95] []
3. D - Anything that interferes with the meaning of a message is considered noise. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 372] []
4. A - The situation in the project would call for pull communication. This is suitable for a large audience, and it allows
them to access information at their own discretion. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 374] []
5. B - Since this will be an official project document, it should be formal. Additionally, since you are requesting money
from someone higher up in the organization, you are creating an upward communication. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 361] []
6. C - Because there is the potential that the communications are not effective, it will be appropriate to discuss the project communications
and the communications management plan at the next meeting. Providing the stakeholders with a copy of the plan will not change the
situation if something is wrong – theoretically they have all received a copy of the plan. It would not be acceptable to do nothing, as any
communication issue must be addressed. Increasing the frequency and detail of the communications would be scope creep – outside
of the initial scope definition. Do not let the fact that it states the “next stakeholder meeting” discourage you from the correct
answer. The next meeting may be in a few hours.
7. B - Recode is not a component of the communication model. It should encode and decode.
8. B - One of the fundamental attributes of effective communication activities and communication artifacts is that there needs to
be a purpose for the communication.
9. D - Cultural awareness is an understanding of the differences between individuals, groups and organizations and adapting the
communication strategy in the context of these differences.
10.C - As part of your professional responsibility, you are still bound to provide transparent and timely information and follow the
approved communication plan. Therefore, the performance report should still be distributed based on the communication plan.
CAPM/PMP Exam Certification Preparation Part
Knowledge Area Quiz

Knowledge Area Quiz Project Risk Management
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Risk Management
Total Questions: 10
Time: 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. Which of these is a valid negative risk response?
A.Exploit
B.Mitigate
C.Enhance
D.Share
2. Which of these is accurate regarding risk management?
A. Organizations are not likely to perceive risk as a threat to project success. B.It
has its origins in the uncertainty present in all projects.

C.The attitudes of individuals and organizations must not be a factor affecting risk management.
D.It is a passive activity in project management.
3. Anne is the project manager of a project. She has evaluated certain responses from
prospective sellers and wants to select a contract model that will transfer risk to the
sellser. Which of the following should she select in order to achieve this?
A.Time and Material contract

B.Fixed price contract
C.Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract
D.Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee contract
4. Your project sponsor has asked you to present your project’s high-level risk register to
him in the next project update meeting. To create your high-level risk register, which of
the following processes must be performed?
A. Plan Risk Management

B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Identify Risks
D. Monitor Risks
5. Which of these is an input to the Monitor Risks process?
A.Risk audits
B.Change requests
C.Work performance information
D.Work Performance Reports
6. Which of the following is true about risks?
A. The risk register documents all the identified risks in detail.
B.Risk impact should be considered, but probability of occurrence is not important. C.Risks
always have negative impact and not positive.
D.Risk Response Plan is another name for Risk Management Plan.
7. During which stage of risk planning are risks prioritized based on their relative probability
and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses

8. If a project has a 60 percent chance of a $100,000 profit and a 40 percent chance of a
$100,000 loss, the expected monetary value of the project is:
A. $20,000 profit
B.$40,000 loss
C.$100,000 profit
D.$60,000 loss
9. With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced and highly

competitive global marketplace, where long-term scope is difficult to define, it is
becoming even more important to have a for effective adoption and tailoring
of development practices to respond to the changing needs of the environment.
A.Rigid management approach

B.Predefined detailed scope
C.Contextual framework
D.Blackbox approach
10. At the beginning of the project, a project manager realized the technical expertise of the
team was limited, a risk to the project. Midway through the project, the project manager
decided that this was no longer a risk and considered it outdated. As part of which
process would he do the risk reassessment?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Risk Assessment
D. Monitor Risks
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Risk Management
1.B - Risk mitigation is a valid response to negative risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 443] []
2.B - Risk management does indeed have its origins in the uncertainty present in all projects. [PMBOK 6th
edition, Pages 397-400] []
3.B - A fixed-price contract enables the buyer to transfer risk to the seller. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page 445,
471] []
4.C - A high-level risk register contains the identified risks only. The risk register is created during the
Identify Risks process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 409] []
5.D - Work Performance Reports are inputs to the Monitor Risks process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page
453] []
6.A - The risk register contains details of the identified risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 417] []
7.A - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assesses the impact and likelihood of identified risks. During this
process, the risks are prioritized based on their relative probability and impact. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page
419] []
8.A - EMV = Probability * Impact. 0.6 * $100,000 = $60,000. 0.4 * ($100,000) = ($40,000).
$60,000 - $40,000 = $20,000 profit. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 435] []
9.C - With high levels of uncertainty and unpredictability in a fast-paced, highly competitive global
marketplace where long term scope is difficult to define, it is becoming even more important to have a
contextual framework for effective adoption and tailoring of development practices to respond to the
changing needs of the environment. Traditional, predictive and rigid methods are not suitable for projects
operating in an environment with a high degree of uncertainty. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 177] []
10.D - Risk reassessment is performed as part of the Monitor Risks process. Such project risk reassessments
should be regularly scheduled and may result in the closure of outdated risks. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page
453] []
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Procurement Management
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Procurement Management
Total Questions: 10
Test Questions
1. Which of these is not an input to the Control Procurements process?
A. Agreements
B.Change requests
C.Work performance data
D.Project management plan
2. Which of the following is not a tool or technique of the Control Procurements process?
A.Expert judgment
B.Advertising
C.Claims administration
D.Inspection
3. You have received a proposal for an RFP that was sent to vendors. One of the vendors
has proposed doing the project for $12,500. The cost for the project is $10,000, and their
profit will be $2,500. Which type of contract is most suitable if the type of work is
predictable and the requirements are well-defined and not likely to change?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
C.Fixed price
D.Cost Plus Incentive Fee
4. Your company requires that before you purchase any routers or switches for the data
center you are building, you need to solicit quotes from three separate suppliers prior to
submitting the purchase request to the finance department. This policy belongs to:
A. Organizational Process Assets B.Enterprise
Environmental Factors C.Procurement

Management Knowledge Area
D.Make-or-Buy Decision
5. If you are working on a project with constantly changing scope, which type of contract
would work best when hiring an outside vendor to complete a portion of the work?
A. Lump sum
B. Cost-reimbursable
C.Time and material
D.Fixed price
6. Which of the following is accurate regarding agreements in Project Procurement

Management?
A. Agreements can never be terminated.
B. Terms and conditions never include the seller’s proposal.
C.Agreements are informal documents.

D.Agreements are legal documents between a buyer and a seller.
7. What is the purpose of a bidder conference?
A. Awarding a contract to the most suitable vendor
B.Pre-qualifying the potential sellers

C.Ensuring all vendors have a clear understanding of the procurement D.Developing a
comprehensive seller's list
8. Apart from the difference in the overall governance approach used for the projects
performed under the predictive and adaptive lifecycles, the project manager should also
be familiar with:
A. The difference in the cost/benefit analysis techniques in both approaches.
B. The tools and techniques used in both approaches.
C. The difference in the quality standards in both approaches.
D. The risk management processes used in both approaches.

9. Different types of contracts are appropriate for different types of purchases. Which of
these is not one of the three broad categories of contracts?
A. Cost-reimbursable B.Time
and Material C.Fixed-price

or lump sum D.Fixed
assessment
10. You are building a mansion that will have copper roofs. The duration of the project will
be approximately three years. You have built into the contract that, as the price of copper
increases, your price increases as a percentage of the cost of the copper. However, all
other costs are fixed. This is an example of what type of contract?
A.Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment B.Fixed

Price Incentive Fee
C.Unit Price
D.Time and Materials
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Procurement Management Answer Key
and Explanations
1.B - Change requests are not inputs to the Control Procurements process. The other choices are valid inputs to this
process. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 492] []
2.B - Advertising is a tool and technique of the Conduct Procurements process. The other choices are valid tools or
techniques of the Control Procurements process. [PMBOK 6th edition, pages 482, 492] []
3.C - Fixed-price contracts are most suitable if the type of work is predictable and the requirements are well defined and
not likely to change. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 476] []
4.A - Any type of corporate policy or formal procurement procedure is an organizational process asset.
5.B - Cost plus contracts are suitable when the work is evolving, likely to change, or not well defined..
6.D - Agreements are legal and formal documents between buyers and sellers. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 489] []
7.C - Bidder conferences are also called contractor conferences or vendor conferences. Their purpose is to provide all
vendors with an understanding of the project requirements and to give all vendors equal time to get their
questions answered. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 487] []
8.B - The role of the project manager does not change bases on managing project using a predictive development life
cycle or managing project in adaptive environments. However, to be successful in used adaptive approaches, the
project manager will need to be familiar with the tools and techniques to understand and how to apply them
effectively. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 178] []
9.D - Fixed-assessment is not a category of contracts. Other choices are valid contract types. [PMBOK 6th edition, Pages
471, 472] []
10.A - Since the price increases are tied only to the rising costs of the copper, this is a fixed-price with economic price
adjustment (FP-EPA) contract. This is common with multi-year contracts. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 471] []
Knowledge Area Quiz Project Stakeholder Management
Knowledge Area Quiz: Project Stakeholder Management
Total Questions: 10
Test Questions
1. Anthony is currently managing a bridge construction project. The project is in the execution
phase. During the planning phase of the project, Anthony developed a comprehensive stakeholder
engagement plan for the project. However, the frequency of plan review has not yet been defined.
How often should Anthony review the stakeholder engagement plan?
A. On a monthly basis
B. The stakeholder engagement plan cannot be reviewed during the execution of the project.
C. On a weekly basis
D. On a regular basis; Anthony needs to decide the frequency.
2. Jim is managing a road network design project for a government agency. He is currently
performing the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process for the project. Which of the following
documents will provide the list of project stakeholders to Jim for this process?
A. Organizational process assets
B.Enterprise environmental factors

C.Stakeholder register
D.Project management plan
3. Gordon is currently developing his project’s stakeholder engagement strategy. All enterprise
environmental factors should be considered during this process. Which of the following
enterprise environmental factors should receive particular attention during this process?
A. Project templates
B. Lessons learned from past similar projects
C.Commercial databases
D.The organization’s culture and political climate
4. Daniel is the project manager for a factory construction project. Daniel has recently joined this
organization and is not fully aware of the organization’s culture and structure. In order to
manage his project stakeholders, Daniel has to understand them better. Which of the
following can provide Daniel some historical information regarding stakeholder engagement on
previous projects?
A. Project management plan

B.Enterprise environmental factors
C.Organizational process assets
D.Project charter
5. Project Stakeholder Management is focused on engaging project stakeholders with the project.
What is the objective of keeping the project stakeholders engaged with the project?
A. To manage their expectations so that the project objectives are achieved
B. Using consistent project management methodology across organizational projects
C. To motivate the project team members
D. To demotivate the negative stakeholders
6. Christine is managing a healthcare software development project. At a PMI conference, she met
George, who is the project manager at a competing organization. George, a PMP, has managed
many successful healthcare-related software development projects. If George shares his
stakeholder management experience with Christine, will that be considered expert judgment?
A. No! George is a project manager at a competitor organization.
B. Yes! All participants at a PMI conference are experts.
C. Yes! George is an expert in managing such projects.
D. No! This would be an example of expert opinion and not expert judgment.
7. Sandra is managing a new supersonic aircraft design project. This is a massive project, and its
success is hugely important for her organization. For such mission-critical projects, which of the
following is the most desirable engagement level for all major stakeholders?
A. Resistant stakeholders
B.Leading stakeholders
C.Neutral stakeholders
D.Supportive stakeholders
8. Jennifer has recently been asked to manage an office refurbishment project. She finds out that
the chief financial officer of the company is resisting the project. The chief financial officer
is a key project stakeholder. What must Jennifer do first?
A. Seek expert judgment from the project initiator
B. Seek support from the project sponsor to force project decisions
C. Conduct a team meeting to discuss this issue
D. Analyze options that might change or influence the chief financial officer‘s perception
9. Greg’s project is in the initiating stage. The sponsor of the project has asked Greg to
present a list of the identified project stakeholders at the next project update meeting.
The sponsor has also asked Greg to present the project stakeholders’ current and desired
engagement levels so they can brainstorm on the stakeholder engagement strategy.
Which of the following is a presentation tool that can help Greg summarize all this
information in a tabular format?
A. Communications management plan
B.Stakeholder register
C.Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
D.Stakeholder engagement plan
10. Diana is managing the development of a mobile phone application. Half the project
work has been completed. Diana is currently reviewing her stakeholder engagement
plan. She finds that some of the resisting stakeholders have now become
supportive. How should Diana update her stakeholder engagement plan?
A. Do not update the stakeholder engagement plan at this stage since things are getting better.
B. Transfer these stakeholders to the project supporters group, and for these stakeholders, adopt the stakeholder
engagement strategy defined for the project supporters.
C. For these stakeholders, continue with the defined resisting stakeholder engagement strategy since this
strategy has produced positive results so far.
D. Transfer these stakeholders to the project supporters group but continue with the defined resisting
stakeholder engagement strategy with these stakeholders.
1.D - As projects progress, project stakeholders and their interests, needs, expectations and engagement levels may
change. The project manager should review the stakeholder engagement plan regularly. The frequency of review
should be defined by the project manager if it was not imposed by top management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 516]
[]
2.C - The stakeholder register, an output of the Identify Stakeholders process, documents all of the identified project
stakeholders and related information. The stakeholder register is an input to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement
process, and it will provide the necessary information to Jim. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 519] []
3.D - The lessons learned and the project templates are not enterprise environmental factors, but
organizational process assets. The commercial databases can provide only very limited information to develop
the stakeholder engagement plan. During the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process, the organization's culture
and political climate are of particular importance. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 519] []
4.C - The project charter and the project management plan do not document lessons learned from previous similar
projects. Lessons learned are stored in the organization's process assets library. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 520] []
5.A - The core objective for stakeholder engagement management is to ensure that the project stakeholders are kept
satisfied and that their expectations are being met throughout the course of the project. Keeping the project team
members motivated and using a consistent project management methodology are generic objectives of project
management. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 504] []
6.C - George is giving an expert opinion; this is analogous to expert judgment. A PMP-certified project manager from a
competitor would not normally give false information. This can be considered expert judgment since George
has managed many similar projects. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 79] []
7.D - In fact, for any project it would be ideal if all of the key stakeholders were supportive. This would help ensure
smooth project progress and timely resolution of issues. In practice, this is often unachievable; nevertheless, it
is the most desirable state for all major stakeholders. On the other hand, if all key stakeholders assume a leading
role, this could lead to serious and substantial conflicts. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 521] []
8.D - In this scenario, the chief financial officer is a resistant key stakeholder. The chief financial officer must be turned
into a project supporter in order to ensure success. Any of the given choices could be the solution to this problem.
However, Jennifer should first identify all of the available options and analyze them before selecting the best option.
9.C - Both the communications and stakeholder management plans are detailed textual documents. They are not
presentation tools. On the other hand, both the stakeholder register and the stakeholder’s engagement assessment
matrix contain the required information. However, the stakeholder’s engagement assessment is the best tool to be
selected in this situation since it presents the information required by the project sponsor in a tabular format.
10.B - The stakeholder engagement plan should be reviewed regularly. Since some of the resistant project stakeholders
have now become project supporters, this implies that the current stakeholder classification in the stakeholder
engagement plan is no longer accurate. These stakeholders should now be transferred to the project supporters
group, and going forward the stakeholder engagement strategy defined for project supporters should be adopted for
these stakeholders. Although the stakeholder engagement strategy for the resisting stakeholders has delivered
impressive results, it should only be applied to the current resistant stakeholders. [PMBOK 6th edition, Page 521]
[]
Knowledge Area Quiz Professional and Social Responsibility
Total Questions: 10
Time: 15 Minutes
Test Questions
1. You just initiated a project to establish windmills in a developing country. To celebrate the
initiation of the project, the customers arranged a party in which a key customer offered
valuables to you and all your project team members with a request to complete the project sooner
than the actual finish date. What should you do?
A. Accept the offer and agree to finish the project early
B. Reject the offer because it violates the code of ethics and professional conduct
C. Accept the offer but refuse to complete the project early
D. Reject the offer and do not communicate with that customer
2. You overlooked a high-level risk in an insurance project and failed to document it in the project
charter. If the risk shows up during the planning phase, what should be your response as a
project manager?
A. Take the responsibility and evaluate the impact
B. Call a customer meeting to inform them that risk has occurred
C. Refer to the sponsor for advice
D. Develop the risk response plan and communicate to the team

3. You have recently started working as a project manager for a public school construction
project. Your analysis shows that the cost estimate for the project seems to be unreasonable,
and it could take at least 25 percent more funding to complete the project. What should you do if
your sponsor wants to undertake the project with another project manager in case you refuse to
accept it?
A. Conduct a customer focus meeting to explain the facts
B. Resign from the project and let the sponsor assign a new project manager
C. Submit detailed facts to the supervisor supporting your argument
D. Continue with the project and document the limited budget as a constraint
4. You have recently started working as a project manager for a health insurance portal development
project. The project sponsor tells you that due to the critical nature of the project, the work must
start immediately and complete in two weeks. Based on the instructions, you have started
documenting significant constraints and assumptions to perform the project feasibility study.
What should you do if you can prepare only the high-level feasibility study in the given time frame?
A. Conduct the stakeholder meeting to evaluate other options
B. Refer this issue to the sponsor and explain the need for more detailed study
C. Submit the high-level study and start making plans to prepare the charter
D. Submit the high-level study and schedule a detailed study in the planning phase
5. Danny is working as a project manager for a company that provides outsourcing services to
banks. Recently, he sent a proposal to a local bank in response to a bid for a data warehouse
project for which his company lacks expertise. Although his company lacks expertise, it has had a
good working relationship with the bank in all its other projects. Which of the following
statements is correct considering the proposal Danny submitted?
A. Danny has not violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.
B. Danny has violated the company policy but not the PMI code
C. Danny has violated the procurement code but not the PMI code
D. Danny has violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.
6. In a software development project, Debby, the project manager, completed development of a
charter and identification of stakeholders. Debby has collected proprietary information from
vendors during the planning process. What should Debby do when a functional manager from
the same organization wants to see this information?
A. Deny the request as the manager is not part of the project
B. Accept the request as the manager belongs to the same organization
C. Deny the request to protect the confidentiality of the information
D. Accept the request but caution the manager to maintain confidentiality
7. You are responsible for developing high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints for your
project. You meet with experts in your organization and document various risks in the
project. However, in reviewing historical data from a previous project, you notice a significant
additional risk to your project, one that no one else is aware of. What should you do to continue
the project?
A. Do not document the risk since it is based on past data
B. Document it but make it a low-level risk
C. Document it and make it a high-level risk
D. Do not document the risk since nobody knows about it
8. You are using the one-on-one interview technique to gather high-level risks, assumptions,
and constraints in an infrastructure development project to set up a bank. During the
interview process, a key stakeholder tells you that the project might fail due to lack of
support from local people. What should you do in this situation?
A. Escalate the stakeholder's comments to the sponsor for his advice
B.Investigate the reasons behind the stakeholder's comments C.Document the
stakeholder's comments and continue with the project
D.Ignore the stakeholder's comments and continue with the project

9. You have started a project to establish a railroad between two neighboring cities. The state
agency that sponsors this project is heavily committed to completing this project on time and
within budget. In support f the agency's commitment, you have completed the charter and started
identifying stakeholders who would support the project. You would like to gather as many
stakeholders as possible and move on to the planning phase. What should a project manager do
while identifying stakeholders in a project?
A. Notify the negative stakeholders to talk to the sponsor
B. Identify positive stakeholders and eliminate negative stakeholders to gather maximum support for the
project
C. Identify positive stakeholders and ask negative stakeholders to leave the project
D. Identify both the positive and negative stakeholders and address their concerns
10. During a three-year construction project, due to a shortage of resources, a project manager
has decided to develop a partial work breakdown structure (WBS) in the beginning of the
planning phase. The WBS will be expanded as more information becomes known in the near
term. What should the project manager do if a key resource criticizes his or her decision to
develop the partial WBS?
A. Ignore the resource's comments
B. Remove the resource from the project
C. Redevelop the complete work breakdown structure for all three years
D.Explain to the resource about the Rolling Wave planning

PMP Focus Area Test: Professional and Social Responsibility
1.B - Since the stakeholder made a request by offering gifts, you should refuse the offer. The PMI's Code of
Ethics and Professional Conduct suggests that a project manager should never engage in unfairness.
Favoring one or more customers by taking gifts is not allowed. Thus, you should reject the offer because it
violates the Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Not communicating with one customer could impair
relationships with other customers. If it is customary in that country to offer gifts, you might accept them
without agreeing to the customer's request. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] []
2.A - According to the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, project managers must take ownership of
the decisions they make or fail to make. Thus, you should take responsibility and evaluate the impact first. A
risk response plan should be developed only after evaluating the impact. Calling a customer meeting cannot
deal with the risk. You should escalate it to the sponsor only if the risk is beyond your control. [PMI Code
of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] []
3.C - Project managers have the responsibility to present truthful and accurate information regarding costs,
schedules, and resources. Submit the facts that substantiate your argument. If your argument is valid, then
the sponsor might agree with you. Talking to customers is not appropriate. Continuing the project might
cause it to fail. It is inappropriate to resign from the project without presenting the facts. [PMI Code of
Ethics and Professional Responsibility] []
4.B - Developing a detailed feasibility study is essential to initiate a project. If efforts are not made initially to
determine whether the project is worth the required investment, it could result in project failure. It is also the
responsibility of the project manager to provide accurate and complete information about the feasibility of
any project. Thus, you must escalate the issue to the sponsor and explain the need for a more detailed study.
Since the project initiation depends on the feasibility of the project, the report cannot be prepared in the
project planning phase. Conducting stakeholder meeting is an invalid choice because the stakeholders have
not yet been selected to conduct a meeting. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] []
5.D - One of the mandatory standards for a project manager is to behave responsibly and bid on only those
projects for which the project manager’s employer has expertise and skills. Since Danny bid on a project for
which his company lacks expertise, he violated the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. There is
no procurement code in project management. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] []
6.C - It is the responsibility of the project manager to maintain confidentiality of protected or proprietary
information. A project manager should provide such confidential information only to the sponsor and to
the vendor evaluation committee or whoever is involved in the evaluation. He or she must not provide
this information to any other employees within the organization or within the project. [PMI Code of Ethics
and Professional Responsibility] []
7.C - As a project manager, you have a responsibility to disclose accurate information to all
project stakeholders honestly. Project managers must not disseminate false or misleading information. Thus,
you must document it as a high-level risk. Even though the risk is based on past data, it must be
documented because the risks could also be identified from the past data. Documenting it as a low-level risk
would be a misleading act, and a project manager must not do that. [PMI Code of Ethics and
Professional Responsibility] []
8.B. You must document the comments from the stakeholder. However, you should not continue the project
until you also understand his or her rationale. The sponsor might ask you to look into it, so escalating the
stakeholder's comments to the sponsor may not yield anything. Ignoring the stakeholder's comments is not
advisable. Thus, the correct step is to investigate the reasons behind the stakeholder's comments. [PMI Code
of Ethics and Professional Responsibility]
9.D - Project stakeholders are people, organizations, or groups whose interests are positively or negatively
impacted by the project. A project manager must identify both the positive and negative stakeholders for
successful completion of the project. Eliminating the negative stakeholders or keeping them away from the
project will jeopardize the objectives of the project and may cause the project to fail. One of the mandatory
standards for a project manager is to show fairness and disclose potential conflicts of interest to
stakeholders. He or she should escalate issues to the sponsor only when he or she fails in influencing
negative stakeholders. Thus, the correct answer is to identify both the positive and negative stakeholders and
address their concerns. [PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] []
10.D - One of the mandatory standards for a project manager is to show respect to others by holding them in
high regard. A project manager must respect others’viewpoints. A project manager need not develop a
complete WBS during the initial stages of planning. In long projects, the WBS can be developed partially
and can be extended as more details become known later; this approach is known as rolling wave
planning. The project manager should explain rolling wave planning to the resource. Ignoring the
resource’s comments or removing the resource are not appropriate responses. [PMBOK 6th Edition, Page
185 and PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Responsibility] []

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What are the different project lifecycles and phase relationships?

What are the different project lifecycles and phase relationships?

What are some examples of enterprise environmental factors?

What are some examples of enterprise environmental factors?

CAPM/PMP Exam Certification Preparation Part

Knowledge Area Quiz

A. Predictive lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship

B. Iterative lifecycle with sequential phase to phase relationship

C. Predictive lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship

D. Iterative lifecycle with overlapping phase to phase relationship

A. Configuration management knowledge base

B. Change control procedures

A. Reserved for short-term planning horizons in a just-in-time fashion.

B. Never developed in an agile project.

7. Which of the following is not a project competing constraint?

D. Escalate to the sponsor immediately to identify flexibility with the schedule

Answer Key and Explanations

6. D - Progressive elaboration is a characteristic of projects. It allows a project management team to manage

A. Have only the project manager able to initiate change.

D. Freeze scope and allow absolutely no changes.

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Project Management Information System

C. Close Project or Phase

D. Direct and Manage Project Work

C. Closing project phases

A. Throughout the entire project

B. Only when closing out the project

C. Only after the project is completely funded

D. Only after the project scope is clearly defined

A. Change Control Board (CCB)

B. Change Configuration Board (CCB)

C. Scope Control Board (SCB)

D. Configuration Control Board (CCB)

B. Request additional funds to implement these requirements.

Answer Key and Explanations

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. The Project Management Plan

C. The Project Charter

D. The Requirements Management Plan

A. Schedule and requirements information

B. Cost and requirements information

C. Cost and resource information

D. Scope, budget and schedule information

C. Value Added Scope

B. Change control process

C. Project Scope Statement

D. Scope Verification Plan

6. The Project Scope Management Knowledge Area is primarily concerned with:

A. Defining the scope of work that included in the project

C. The scope of work required during the initiation phase

D. Defining the specifications and functionality of the work product

8. Why must the Validate Scope process be completed in a project?

A. To obtain scope documents from recent similar projects for benchmarking

B. To determine whether the scope is at the correct complexity level

C. To obtain formal acceptance of deliverables by the customer or sponsor

D. To ensure the project team is all aware of the scope

A. Acquire project resources

B. Monitor the change control process

C. Elicit, document, and manage stakeholder requirements

D. Control project costs