Prelims Pyq

IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)
TOPIC: Science & Technology
ANALYTICS SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

PYQS (2013-2022)
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10 11 11
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2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022
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Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 6 2. Tolerate extremes of PH

3. Resist disease infestation
Q.1 Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer
storage life because Select the correct Solution using the codes given
below:
a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
b) concentration dioxide in the is increased a) 1 only
of carbon environment b) 2 and 3 only
c) rate of respiration is decreased c) 1 and 3 only
d) there is an increase in humidity d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2 Many transplanted seedlings do not grow Q.5 Consider the following phenomena: (2013)
because
1. Size of the sun at dusk
a) the new soil does not contain favorable 2. Colour of the sun at dawn
minerals 3. Moon being visible at dawn
b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil 4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
too hard 5. Polestar being visible in the sky
c) most of the root hairs are lost during
Which of the above are optical illusions?
transplantation
d) leaves get damaged during a) 1, 2 and 3
transplantation b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
Q.3 Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic
d) 2, 3 and 5
Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
Q.6 Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on
1. Across different species of plants.
drops of rain. Which of the following physical
2. From animals to plants.
phenomena are responsible for this?
3. From microorganisms to higher
organisms. 1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
Select the correct Solution using the codes given
3. Internal reflection
below.
Select the correct Solution using the codes given
a) 1 only
below.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.4 Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in
d) 1, 2 and 3
rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza
enables the plants to (2013)
1. Resist drought and increase absorptive

area

Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 6 a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only
Q.1 Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly c) 1 and 3 only
matched? (2014) d) 1, 2 and 3
Spacecraft Purpose
Cassini- Orbiting the Venus and Q.4 Consider the following diseases (2014)
Huygens transmitting data to the Earth
1. Diphtheria
Messenger Mapping and investigating the
2. Chickenpox
Mercury
3. Smallpox
Voyager Exploring the outer solar
system Which of the above diseases has/have been
Select the correct answer using the code given eradicated in India?
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 only b) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only d) None
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5 Consider the following pairs
Q.2 Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of
the following statements is/are correct? (2014) Vitamin Deficiency Disease
1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. Vitamin C Scurvy

2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads Vitamin D Ricket
about 7500 km away.
Vitamin E Night Blindness
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
below.
matched?
a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Q.3 In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of
Q.6 Which of the following is/are the
the following can be used in the biometric
example/examples of chemical change? (2014)
identification of a person? (2014)
1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
1. Iris scanning
2. Melting of ice
2. Retinal scanning
3. Souring of milk
3. Voice recognition
below.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only Q.4 H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the

b) 3 only news with reference to which one of the
c) 1, 2 and 3 following diseases?
d) NonE
a) AIDS
Year – 2015 No. of Questions - 10 b) Bird flu
c) Dengue
Q.1 The Genetic Engineering Appraisal d) Swine flu
Committee is constituted under the
Q.5 With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which
a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to
b) Geographical Indications of Goods generate electricity, consider the following
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 statements:
c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel
cell emits heat and water as by-products.
Q.2 In which of the following activities are Indian 2. Fuel cells can be used for powering
Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? buildings and not for small devices like
laptop computers.
1. Assessment of crop productivity
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form
2. Locating ground water resources
of Alternating Current (AC).
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications Which of the statements given above is / are
5. Traffic studies correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given a) 1 only

below b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 4 and 5 only
c) 1 and 2 only Q.6 With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 power plants using the coal as fuel, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
Q.3 The term ‘IndARC’ sometimes seen in the
news, is the name of? 1. Fly ash can be used in the production of
bricks for building construction
a) an indigenously developed radar system
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for
inducted into Indian Defence
some of the Portland cement contents of
b) India’s satellite to provide services to the
concrete
countries of Indian Ocean Rim
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and
c) a scientific establishment set up by India
calcium oxide only, and does not contain
in Antarctic region
any toxic elements.
d) India’s underwater observatory to
scientifically study the Arctic region Select the correct answer using the code given
below
a) 1 and 2 1. It is a contactless communication

b) 2 only technology that uses electromagnetic
c) 1 and 3 radio fields
d) 3 only 2. NFC is designed for use by devices which
can be at a distance of even a metre from
Q.7 With reference to the use of nanotechnology each other
in the health sector, which of the following 3. NFC can use encryption when sending
statements is/are correct? sensitive information.
1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by Select the correct answer using the code given
nanotechnology below.
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to
gene therapy a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given c) 1 and 3 only
below. d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only Q.10 Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace,

b) 2 only Disarmament and Development for 2014 was
c) Both 1 and 2 given to which of the following?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
Q.8 In the context of modern scientific research, b) Indian Institute of Science
consider the following statements about c) Indian Space Research Organization
‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
Pole, which was recently in the news :
Year – 2016 No. of Questions - 7
1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector,
encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice. Q.1 Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for related to
dark matter
3. It is buried deep in the ice. a) waste management technology
b) wireless communication technology
Which of the statements given above is/are c) solar power production technology
correct? d) water conservation technology
a) 1 only Q.2 With reference to ‘Li-Fi’, recently in the news,

b) 2 and 3 only which of the following statements is/are correct?
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed
data transmission.
Q.9 With reference to ‘Near Field Communication 2. It is a wireless technology and is several
(NFC) Technology’, which of the following times faster than ‘WiFi’.
statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given 2. made India the second country to have a
below. spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
3. made India the only country to be
a) 1 only successful in making its spacecraft orbit
b) 2 only the Mars in its very first attempt
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.3 With reference to `Astrosat’, the
astronomical observatory launched by India, a) 1 only
which of the following statements is/are correct? b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
1. Other than the USA and Russia, India is d) 1, 2 and 3
the only country to have launched a
similar observatory into space. Q.6 In the context of the developments in
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’,
orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the sometimes seen in the news, refers to
Earth.
a) a range of enzymes used in genome
Select the correct answer using the code given editing
below. b) the full range of mRNA molecules
expressed by an organism
a) 1 only c) the description of the mechanism of gene
b) 2 only expression
c) Both 1 and 2 d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking
d) Neither 1 nor 2 place in cells
Q.4 India is an important member of Q.7 Which of the following statements is/are
the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental correct? Viruses can infect
Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the
immediate advantage for India? 1. bacteria
2. fungi
a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for 3. plants
power generation
b) It can attain a global role in satellite Select the correct answer using the code given
navigation below.
c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of
its fission reactors in power generation a) 1 and 2 only
d) It can build fusion reactors for power b) 3 only
generation c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5 Consider the following statements: The
Mangalyaan launched by ISRO
1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission

Year – 2017 No. of Questions - 9 b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics

c) Reproductive cloning of animals
Q.1 Consider the following pairs: d) Production of organisms free of diseases
Commonly Used / consumed materials
Unwanted or likely to be found in Q.4 In India, it is legally mandatory for which of
controversial them the following to report on cyber security
chemicals incidents?
1. Lipstick Lead
1. Service providers
2. Softdrinks Brominated
2. Data centres
Vegetable Oils
3. Body corporate
3. Chinese Fast Food Monosodium
Glutamate Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly below:
matched?
a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5 What is the purpose of the ‘evolved Laser
Q.2 Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?
used to create digital displays in many devices.
What are the advantages of OLED displays over a) To detect neutrinos
Liquid Crystal displays? b) To detect gravitational waves
c) To detect the effectiveness of missile
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on defence system
flexible plastic substrates. d) To study the effect of solar flares on our
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can communication systems
be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent displays are possible using Q.6 The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is
OLEDs. sometimes seen in the news with reference to
Select the correct answer using the code given a) Developing solar power production in our
below country
b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels
a) 1 and 3 only in our country
b) 2 only c) Exporting our food products to other
c) 1, 2 and 3 countries
d) None of the above statements is correct d) Permitting foreign educational institutions
to set up their campuses in our country
Q.3 What is the application of Somatic Cell
Nuclear Transfer Technology? Q.7 The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’,
`String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are
a) Production of biolarvicides
sometimes seen in the news in the context of

a) Observation and understanding of the Select the correct answer using the code given
Universe below:
b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth a) 1 and 3 only
d) Origin and evolution of living organisms b) 2 only
on the Earth c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.8 With reference to agriculture in India, how
can the technique of `genome sequencing’, often Year – 2018 No. of Questions - 13
seen in the news, be used in the immediate
Q.1 Consider the following phenomena
future?
1. Light is affected by gravity.
1. Genome sequencing can be used to
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
identify genetic markers for disease
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
resistance and drought tolerance in
various crop plants. Which of the above is/are the
2. This technique helps in reducing the time prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s
required to develop new varieties of crop General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in
plants. media?
3. It can be used to decipher the host-
pathogen relationships in crops. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
below: d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only Q.2 Consider the following pairs of Terms

b) 2 and 3 only sometimes seen in news vs Context /Topic:
c) 1 and 3 only (Pre18 Set-D)
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Belle II experiment: Artificial Intelligence
Q.9 Which of the following statements is/are 2. Blockchain technology: Digital/
correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR — Cas9: Particle Physics
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for
developing every city of our country into Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
Smart Cities in a decade. matched?
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital
technology innovations for solving the a) 1 and 3 only
many problems faced by our country. b) 2 only
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the c) 2 and 3 only
financial transactions in our country d) 1, 2 and 3
completely digital in a decade.
Q.3 Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed Which of the statements given above is/are
every few hundred thousand years. correct?
2. When the Earth was created more than
4000 million years ago, there was 54% a) 1 and 3 only
oxygen and no carbon dioxide. b) 2 only
3. When living organisms originated, they c) 2 and 3 only
modified the early atmosphere of the d) 1, 2 and 3
Earth.
Q.6 Which of the following leaf modifications
Which of the statements given above is/are occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
correct?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
a) 1 only 2. Tiny leaves
b) 2 and 3 only 3. Thorns instead of leaves
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
Q.4 Consider the following:
a) 2 and 3 only
1. Birds b) 2 only
2. Dust blowing c) 3 only
3. Rain d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Wind blowing.
Q.7 When the alarm of your smartphone rings in
Which of the above spread plant diseases? (Pre18 the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the
Set-D) alarm which causes your geyser to be switched
on automatically. The smart min-or in your
a) 1 and 3 only bathroom shows the day’s weather and also
b) 3 and 4 only indicates the level of water in your overhead
c) 1, 2 and 4 only tank. After you take some groceries from your
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises
the shortage of stock in it and places an order for
Q.5 With reference to the Genetically Modified the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step
mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, out of your house and lock the door, all lights,
consider the following statements: (Pre18 Set-D) fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off
automatically. On your way to office, your car
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil
warns you about traffic congestion ahead and
bacterium that give the plant the property
suggests an alternative route, and if you are late
of pest-resistance to a wide variety of
for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office
pests.
accordingly.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the
plant cross-pollination and hybridization. In the context of emerging communication
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly technologies, which one of the following terms
by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural best applies to the above scenario?
University.
(a) Border Gateway Protocol Q.11 The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides
(b) Internet of Things open “Application Programming Interfaces
(c) Internet Protocol (APIs)”. What does it imply?
(d) Virtual Private Network
1. It can be integrated into any electronic
Q.8 In which of the following areas can GPS device.
technology be used? 2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
1. Mobile phone operations Which of the statements given above is/are

2. Banking operations correct?
3. Controlling the power grids
a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only
below: c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.12 With reference to the Indian Regional
c) 1 and 3 only Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the
d) 1, 2 and 3 following statements: (Pre18 Set-D)
Q.9 The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal 1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary
Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently and four satellites in geosynchronous
are related to orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500
a) Exo-planets sq. km beyond its borders.
b) Crypto-currency 3. India will have its own satellite navigation
c) Cyber attacks system with full global coverage by the
d) Mini satellites middle of 2019.
Q.10 “3D printing” has applications in which of Which of the statements given above is/are
the following? correct?
1. Preparation of confectionery items a) 1 only

2. Manufacture of bionic ears b) 1 and 2 only
3. Automotive industry c) 2 and 3 only
4. Reconstructive surgeries d) None
5. Data processing technologies
Q.13 With reference to India’s satellite launch
Select the correct answer using the code given vehicles, consider the following statements:
below:
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth
a) 1, 3 and 4 only resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are
b) 2, 3 and 5 only designed mainly to launch communication
c) 1 and 4 only satellites.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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3. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to Q.3 ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has
remain permanently fixed in the same gained popularity in the last few years.why?
position in the sky, as viewed from a
particular location on Earth. 1. It is used in developing gene silencing
4. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle therapies.
with the first and third stages using solid 2. It can be used in developing therapies for
rocket motors; and the second and fourth the treatment of cancer.
stages using liquid rocket engines. 3. It can be used to develop hormone
replacement therapies.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that
correct.? are resistant to virtual pathogens.
a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given

b) 2 and 3 below.
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 only a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2 and 3
Year – 2019 No. of Questions - 11 c) 1 and 3
d) 1 and 4 only
Q.1 The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes
mentioned in media in reference to Q.4 Which of the following are the reasons for
the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in
a) fossil of a kind of dinosaurs microbial pathogens in India?
b) an early human species
c) a cave system found in North-East India 1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
d) a geological period in the history of Indian 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to
subcontinent cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
Q.2 With reference to the recent developments 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.
in science, which one of the following statements
is not correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
a) Functional chromosomes can be created
by joining segments of DNA taken from a) 1 and 2
cells of different species. b) 2 and 3 only
b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be c) 1,3 and 4
created in laboratories. d) 2,3 and 4
c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal
Q.5 What is cas9 protein that is often mentioned
cell can be made to replicate outside a
in the news ?
living cell in a laboratory.
d) Cells taken out from plants and animals a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene
can be made to undergo cell division in editing.
laboratory petri dishes. b) A biosensor used in the accurate
detection of pathogens in patients.

c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated
d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in from the computer are projected onto
generally modified crops real life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the
Q.6 Which of the following statements is not world and improves the experience using
correct? the camera of a smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an
a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like
individual, providing a complete
HIV.
immersion experience.
b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not
have a vaccine. Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Globally, the number of people infected correct?
with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several
times more than those infected with HIV. a) 1 and 2 only
d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B b) 3 and 4
and C viruses do not show the symptoms c) 1, 2 and 3
for many years. d) 4 only
Q.7 With reference to communication Q.9 Consider the following statements about a
technologies, what is/are the digital signature:
difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term
Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term 1. An electronic record that identifies the
Evolution)? certifying authority issuing it.
2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and individual to access information of server
VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced on the Internet.
3G. 3. an electronic method of signing an
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is electronic document and ensuring that
voice-only technology. the original content is unchanged.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below correct?
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 3 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1,2 and 3
Q.8 In The context of digital technologies for Q.10 In the context of wearable technology,
entertainment, consider the following which of the following tasks is/are accomplished
statements: by wearable devices?
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated 1. Location identification of a person

environment is created and the physical 2. Sleep monitoring of a person
world is completely shut out. 3. Assisting the hearing-impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given a) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor
below. sperm
b) Genetic modification of sperm producing
a) 1 only cells
b) 2 and 3 only c) Development of stem cells into functional
c) 3 only embryos
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in
offspring
Q.11 Recently, scientists observed the merger of
giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from Q.3 What is the importance of using
the earth. What is the significance of this Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?
observation?
1. These vaccines are effective against
a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. pneumonia as well as meningitis and
b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. sepsis.
c) Possibility of intergalactic space travel 2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not
through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. effective against drug-resistant bacteria
d) It enabled the scientists to understand can be reduced.
‘singularity’. 3. These vaccines have no side effects and
cause no allergic reactions.
Q.1 Which of the following statements are
below:
correct regarding the general difference between
plant and animal cells? a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst
c) 3 only
animal cells do not.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Plant cells do not have plasma
membranes unlike animal cells which do. Q.4 With reference to the carbon nanotubes,
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole consider the following statement:
whilst an animal cell has many small
vacuoles. 1. They can be used as the carriers of drugs
and antigens in the human body.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. They can be made into artificial blood
below: capillaries for an injured part of the
human body.
a) 1 and 2 only
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
b) 2 and 3 only
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q.2 In the context of recent advances in human a) 1 and 2 only

reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is b) 2, 3 and 4 only
used for c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. VLC is known as long-range optical

wireless communication
Q.5 Consider the following statements: 3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data
faster than Bluetooth
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference
cells that produce eggs or sperms of a
prospective parent. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. A person’s genome can be edited before below
birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can a) 1, 2 and 3 only
be injected into the embryo of a pig. b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are d) 2, 3 and 4 only
correct?
Q.9 In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure”
a) 1 only is used in the context of
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only a) Digital security infrastructure
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) Food security infrastructure
c) Health care and education infrastructure
Q.6 With the present state of development, d) Telecommunication and transportation
Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of infrastructure
the following?
Q.10 Consider the following activities :
1. Bring down electricity consumption in
industrial units 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
3. Disease diagnosis 3. Collecting breath samples from spouting
4. Text-to-speech conversion whales for DNA analysis
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
At the present level of technology, which of the
Select the correct answer using the code given above activities can be successfully carried out by
below: using drones ?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 3, and 4 only {?} b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 4, and 5 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.7 With reference to visible light communication Q.11 The experiment will employ a trio of
(VLC) technology, which of the following spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an
statements are correct? equilateral triangle that has sides one million
kilometres long, with lasers shining between the
1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum craft.” The experiment in question refers to
wavelengths 375 to 780nm

a) Voyager-2 Select the correct answer using the code given

b) New Horizons below.
c) LISA Pathfinder
d) Evolved LISA a) 3 only
b) 2 only
Q.12 With reference to solar water pumps, c) 1 and 3 only
consider the following statements: d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Solar power can be used for running Q.3 The term “ACE2” is talked about in the
surface pumps and not for submersible context of
pumps,
2. Solar power can be used for running a) genes introduced in the genetically
centrifugal pumps and not the ones with modified plants
piston. b) development of India’s own satellite
navigation system
Which of the statements given above is/are c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
correct? d) spread of viral diseases
a) 1 only Q.4 Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a

b) 2 only structural/key component in the manufacture of
c) Both 1 and 2 which of the following kinds of plastics?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Low-density polyethylene
Year – 2021 No. of Questions - 12 b) Polycarbonate
c) Polyethylene terephthalate
Q.1 Water can dissolve more substances than any d) Polyvinyl Chloride
other liquid because.
Q.5 “Triclosan” considered harmful when
a) It is dipolar in nature. exposed to high levels for a long time, is most
b) It is a good conductor of heat likely present in which of the following?
c) It has high value of specific heat
d) It is an oxide of hydrogen a) Food preservatives
b) Fruit ripening substances
Q.2 With reference to street lighting, how do c) reused plastic containers
sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? d) Toiletries
1. Sodium lamps produce light at 360 Q.6 Which one of the following is a reason why
degrees but it is not so in the case of LED astronomical distances are measured in light-
lamps. years?
2. As street lights, sodium lamps have a
longer life span than LED lamps. a) Distance among stellar bodies do not
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium change
lamps is almost monochromatic while LED b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change
lamps offer significant colour advantages c) Light always travels in straight line
in street lighting. d) Speed of light is always same

Q.7 With reference to recent developments Q.10 In a pressure cooker, the temperature at
regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, which the food is cooked depends mainly upon
consider the following statements: which of the following?
1. Genetic engineering is applied in the 1. Area of the hole in the lid

development of these vaccines. 2. Temperature of the flame
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. 3. Weight of the lid
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below.
a) 1 only a) 1 and 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1,2 and 3
Q.8 In the context of hereditary diseases, Q.11 Consider the following:

consider the following statements:
1. Bacteria
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from 2. Fungi
parent to child can be prevented by 3. Virus
mitochondrial replacement therapy either
before or after in vitro fertilization of the Which of the above can be cultured in an
egg. artificial/ synthetic medium?
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases
a) 1 and 2 only
entirely from the mother and not from the
b) 2 and 3 only
father.
c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is’/are d) 1,2 and 3
correct?
a) 1 only
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA
b) 2 only
genomes whereas retroviruses have
c) Both 1 and 2
double-stranded DNA genomes.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an
Q.9 Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a
mentioned in the context of retrovirus.
a) Clonal propagation of crop plants Which of the statements given above is/are
b) Developing genetically modified crop correct?
plants a) 1 only
c) Production of plant growth substances b) 2 only
d) Production of biofertilizers c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13 Which one of the following is used in 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user
preparing a natural mosquito repellent? interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through
a) Congress grass their mobile devices.
b) Elephant grass 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are
c) Lemon grass forms of SaaS.
d) Nut grass
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.1 Consider the following: b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
1. Aarogya Setu
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. COWIN
3. DigiLocker Q.4 Which one of the following statements best
4. DIKSHA reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital
Bombardment System” often talked about in
Which of the above are built on top of open-
media?
source digital platforms?
a) A hypersonic missile is launched into
a) 1 and 2 only
space to counter the asteroid approaching
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
the Earth and explode it in space.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
making several orbital motions.
Q.2 With reference to Web 3.0, consider the c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around
following statements: the Earth and deorbits over a target on
the Earth.
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with
control their own data. the same surface. speed and places a
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain probe on its
based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively Q.5 Which one of the following is the context in
rather than a corporation which the term “qubit” is mentioned?
Which of the following given above are correct? a) Cloud Services

b) Quantum Computing
a) 1 and 2 only c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
b) 2 and 3 only d) Wireless Communication Technologies
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.6 Consider the following communication
technologies:
Q.3 With reference to “Software as a Service
(SaaS)”, consider the following statements: 1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered of the Short- 1. The Serum Institute of India produced
Range devices/technologies? COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using
mRNA platform.
a) 1 and 2 only. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using
b) 2 and 3 only vector-based platform.
c) 1 and 3 only 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-
d) 1, 2 and 3 based vaccine.
Q.7 Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants a) 1 and 2 only

within human tissues. b) 2 and 3 only
2. Biofilms can form on food and food c) 1 and 3 only
processing surfaces. d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Q.10 If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches
Which of the statements given above are correct? the Earth, which of the following are the possible
effects on the Earth?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
c) 1 and 3 only 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial
d) 1, 2 and 3 regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
Q.8 Consider the following statements in respect
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of
of probiotics:
the Earth.
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and 5. Forest fires could take place over much of
yeast. the planet.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
foods we ingest but they do not naturally 7. Shortwave radio communication of the
occur in our gut. aircraft flying over polar regions could be
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk interrupted.
sugars.
Which of the statements given above is/are below:
correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
a) 1 only b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
b) 2 only c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
d) 2 and 3
Q.11 Which one of the following statements best
Q.9 In the context of vaccines manufactured to describes the role of B cells and T cells in the
prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the human body?
following statements:

a) They protect the environmental allergens. a) 1 only

body b) 3 only
b) They alleviate the body’s pain and c) 1 and 2
inflammation. d) 2 and 3
c) They act as immunosuppressants in the
body. Q.13 Consider the following statements: DNA
d) They protect the body from the diseases Barcoding can be a tool to:
caused by pathogens.
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
Q.12 Consider the following statements: 2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant
a) Other than those made by humans, materials in processed foods.
nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
b) Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are Which of the statements given above is/are
used in the manufacture of some correct?
cosmetics.
a) 1 only
c) Nanoparticles of some commercial
b) 3 only
products which enter the environment are
c) 1 and 2
unsafe for humans.
d) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
2013-2022 IAS Prelims Science & Tech Questions with Solutions
2013 1. C 2015 1. C 3. D 8. D
2. C 2. A 4. D 9. B
3. A 3. D 5. C 2018 1. D
4. D 4. D 6. B 2. B
5. C 5. D 7. D 3. C
6. A 6. A 2017 1. D 4. D
2014 1. B 7. C 2. C 5. B
2. A 8. D 3. C 6. D
3. D 9. C 4. D 7. B
4. B 10. C 5. B 8. D
5. A 2016 1. B 6. A 9. C
6. B 2. C 7. A 10. D

11. C 10. D 3. D 2. D
12. A 11. B 4. B 3. D
13. A 2020 1. C 5. D 4. C
2. D 5. B
2019 1. B 6. D
3. B
6. D
2. A 4. C* 7. C
5. D 7. D
3. A 8. A
6. D 8. C
4. D 7. C 9. B
9. B
8. A 10. C
5. A
9. D 10. C
6. B 10. D 11. A 11. D
7. D 11. D 12. B 12. D
8. B 2021 1. A 13. C 13. D
9. D 2. A 2022 1. D

TOPIC: Polity
ANALYTICS POLITY PYQS

2013-2022
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18
16
16
14
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12
10 11 11
10
8 9
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2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 18 c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer /

Mandai Revenue Officer
Q.1 With reference to National Legal Services d) Gram Sabha
Authority, consider the following statements:
Q.4 ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of
1. Its objective is to provide free and Constitution has been as one of the Indian
competent legal services to the weaker provided in
sections of the society on the basis of
equal opportunity. a) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles
Services Authorities to implement the of State Policy
legal programs and schemes throughout c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
the country. Principles of State Policy
d) None of the above
Which of the statements given above is / are
correct? Q.5 Consider the following statements
a) 1 only 1. An amendment to the Constitution of

b) 2 only India can be initiated by an introduction of
c) Both 1 and 2 a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. If such an amendment seeks to make
changes in the federal character of the
Q.2 With reference to Indian History, the Constitution, the amendment also
Members of the Constituent Assembly from the requires to be ratified by the legislature of
Provinces were all the States of India.
a) directly elected by the people of those Which of the statements given above is/are
Provinces correct?
b) nominated by the Indian National
Congress and the Muslim League a) 1 only
c) elected by the Provincial Legislative b) 2 only
Assemblies c) Both 1 and 2
d) selected by the Government for their d) Neither 1 nor 2
expertise in constitutional matters
Q.6 According to the Constitution of India, which
Q.3 Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other of the following are fundamental for the
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest governance of the country?
Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to
a) Fundamental Rights
initiate the process for determining the nature
b) Fundamental Duties
and extent of individual or community forest
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
rights or both?
d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental
a) State Forest Department Duties
b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

Q.7 Consider the following statements: b) The Judges of the High Court of the States
in India are appointed by the Governor of
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre the State just as the Judges of the
shall be collectively responsible to the Supreme Court are appointed by the
Parliament. President
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office c) No procedure has been laid down in the
during the pleasure of the President of Constitution of India for the removal of a
India. Governor from his/her post
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to d) In the case of a Union Territory having a
the President about the proposals for legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
Legislation. appointed by the Lt. Governor on the
basis of majority support
correct? Q.10 Consider the following statements:
a) only 1 Attorney General of India can

b) only 2 and 3
c) only 1 and 3 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok
d) 1, 2 and 3 Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok
Q.8 In the context of India, which of the following Sabha
principles is/are implied institutionally in the 3. speak in the Lok Sabha
parliamentary government? 4. vote in the Lok Sabha
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of Which of the statements given above is/are
the Parliament. correct?
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy
confidence in the Parliament. a) 1 only
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the b) 2 and 4
State. c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below. Q.11 Consider the following statements:
a) 1 and 2 only The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

b) 3 only (PAC)
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of
the Lok Sabha
Q.9 Which one of the following statements is 2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance
correct? accounts of Government
3. examines the report of CAG.
a) In India, the same person cannot be
appointed as Governor for two or more Which of the statements given above is / are
States at the same time correct? `
a) 1 only Q.15 Who among the following constitute the

b) 2 and 3 only National Development Council?
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
Q.12 The Parliament can make any law for whole 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
or any part of India for implementing 4. Chief Ministers of the States
international treaties
a) with the consent of all the States below:
b) with the consent of the majority of States
c) with the consent of the States concerned a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) without the consent of any State b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
Q.13 What will follow if a Money Bill is d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the
Bill, accepting or not accepting the 1. The National Development Council is an
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha organ of the Planning Commission.
b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept
further in the Concurrent List in the Constitution
c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the of India.
Rajya Sabha for reconsideration 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that
d) The President may call a joint sitting for Panchayats should be assigned the task of
passing the Bill preparation of plans for economic
development and social justice.
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman correct?
of the Rajya Sabha are not the members
of that House. a) 1 only
2. While the nominated members of the two b) 2 and 3 only
Houses of the Parliament have no voting c) 1 and 3 only
right in the presidential election, they d) 1,2 and 3
have the right to vote in the election of
Q.17 The Government enacted the Panchayat
the Vice President.
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which one of the following is not identified as its
correct? objective?
a) To provide self-governance
a) 1 only b) To recognize traditional rights
b) 2 only c) To create autonomous regions in tribal
c) Both 1 and 2 areas
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Q.18 Which of the following bodies does not/do Which of the statements given above is/are
not find mention in the Constitution? correct?
1. National Development Council a) 1 only

2. Planning Commission b) 2 only
3. Zonal Councils c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
below. Q.3 In the Constitution of India, promotion of
international peace and security is included in the
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only a) Preamble to the Constitution
c) 1 and 3 only b) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Fundamental Duties
d) Ninth Schedule
Q.4 Which of the following are the discretionary
Q.1 Consider the following statements: A powers given to the Governor of a State?
Constitutional Government is one which
1. Sending a report to the President of India
1. Places effective restrictions on individual for imposing the President’s rule
liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. Appointing the Ministers
2. Places effective restrictions on the 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
Authority of the State in the interest of Legislature for consideration of the
individual liberty President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business
of the State Government
correct?
a) 1 only
below.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The President shall make rules for the
more convenient transaction of the
function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
business of the Government of India, and
for the allocation among Ministers of the 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet
said business. Meetings
2. All executive actions of the Government 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet
of India shall be expressed to be taken in Committees
the name of the Prime Minister. 3. Allocation of financial resources to the
Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only

below. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.9 Which one of the following Schedules of the
c) 1 and 2 only Constitution of India contains provisions
d) 1, 2 and 3 regarding anti-defection?
Q.6 Which of the following are associated with a) Second Schedule

‘Planning’ in India? b) Fifth Schedule
c) Eighth Schedule
1. The Finance Commission d) Tenth Schedule
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development Q.10 The power to increase the number of judges
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
5. The Parliament
a) the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given b) the Parliament
below. c) the Chief Justice of India
d) the Law Commission
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only Q.11 The power of the Supreme Court of India to
c) 2 and 5 only decide disputes between the Centre and the
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 States falls under its
Q.7 Which one of the following is the largest a) advisory jurisdiction

Committee of the Parliament? b) appellate jurisdiction.
c) original jurisdiction
a) The Committee on Public Accounts d) writ jurisdiction
b) The Committee on Estimates
c) The Committee on Public Undertakings Year – 2015 No. of Questions - 13
d) The Committee on Petitions
Q.1 There is a Parliamentary System of
Q.8 Consider the following statements regarding Government in India because the
a No-Confidence Motion in India:
a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence b) Parliament can amend the constitution
Motion in the Constitution of India. c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the
introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.2 Consider the following Statements regarding
correct? the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
a) 1 only

1. The Principles spell out the socio- 4. Financial mobilization

economic democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Select the correct answer using the code given
Principles are not enforceable by any below
court.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given below is correct? b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a. 1 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 & 2 Q 6. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both
d. Neither 1 nor 2 the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by
Q.3 The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian a) a simple majority of member present and
Constitution is enshrined in its voting
b) three-fourths majority of member present
a. Preamble and voting
b. Directive Principles of State Policy c) two-thirds majority of the House
c. Fundamental Rights d) absolute majority of the House
d. Seventh Schedule
Q.7 “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity
Q.4 Consider the following statements: and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to a) Preamble of the Constitute

reject or to amend a Money Bill b) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the c) Fundamental Rights
Demands for Grants. d) Fundamental Duties
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the
Annual Financial Statement. Q.8 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India
correct? is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio
a. 1 only Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
d. 1, 2 and 3 correct?
Q 5. The fundamental object of the Panchayati a) 1 only

Raj system is to ensure which among the b) 2 only
following? c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability Q.9 Consider the following statements:
3. Democratic decentralization

1. The Legislative Council of a state in India 3. All the disbursements made from Public
can be larger in size than half of the Account also need the Authorization from
Legislative Assembly of that particular the Parliament of India
state.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Which of the following statements given above
Chairman of the Legislative Council of that is/are correct?
particular state.
a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.13 India is a member of which among the
c) Both 1 and 2 following?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
Q.10 The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and 2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are 3. East Asia Summit
made in order to
a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes below.
b) determine the boundaries between states
a) 1 and 2 only
c) determine the powers, authorities, and
b) 3 only
responsibilities of Panchayats
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) protect the interests of all the border
d) India is a member of none of them
States
Q.11 Who/Which of the following is the
Custodian of the Constitution of India? Q 1. Consider the following statements:
a) The President of India 1. The minimum age prescribed for any

b) The Prime Minister of India person to be a member of Panchayat is 25
c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat years.
d) The Supreme Court of India 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after
premature dissolution continues only for
Q.12 With reference to the Union Government
the remainder period.
consider the following statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible
correct?
for the preparation of Union Budget that
is presented to the parliament a) 1 only
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the b) 2 only
Consolidated Fund of India without the c) Both 1 and 2
authorization of Parliament of India. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 2. Which of the following statements is/are b) 2 only

correct? c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on
its prorogation. Q.5 Consider the following statements:
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which
has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed
shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok by the Governor of that State.
Sabha. 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed
tenure
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 3. The Parliament of India acquires the power
to legislate on any item in the State List in the Q 6. Which of the following is/are the
national interest if a resolution to that effect is indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the
passes by the Global Hunger Index Report?
a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total 1. Undernourishment

membership 2. Child stunting
b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than 3. Child mortality
two-thirds of its total membership
c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its
below.
total membership
d) RajyaSabha by a majority of not less than a) 1 only
two-thirds of its members present and b) 2 and 3 only
voting c) 1 , 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Q 4. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’,
which of the following statements is/are correct? Q.7 Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national
campaign to
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear
only civil cases and not criminal cases a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute
2. The Act allows local social activists as persons and provide them with suitable
mediators/reconciliators. sources of livelihood
b) release the sex workers from their
practice and provide them with
below:
alternative sources of livelihood
a) 1 only
c) eradicate the practice of manual Year – 2017 No. of Questions - 19

scavenging and rehabilitate the manual
scavengers Q 1. One of the implications of equality in society
d) release the bonded labourers from their is the absence of
bondage and rehabilitate them
a) Privileges
Q.8 With reference to ‘Organization for the b) Restraints
Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, c) Competition
consider the following statements: d) Ideology
1. It is an organization of European Union in Q 2. Consider the following statements:

working relation with NATO and WHO.
With reference to the Constitution of India, the
2. It monitors the chemical industry to
Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
prevent new weapons from emerging.
limitations upon
3. It provides assistance and protection to
States (Parties) against chemical weapons 1. legislative function.
threats. 2. executive function.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct?
a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 3. With reference to the Parliament of India,
Q.9 With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima consider the following statements:
Yojana’, consider the following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to by a Member of Parliament who is not
pay a uniform premium of two percent for elected but only nominated by the
any crop they cultivate in any season of President of India.
the year. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses passed in the Parliament of India for the
arising out of cyclones and unseasonal first time in its history.
rains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 4. The Parliament of India exercises control c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the
over the functions of the Council of Ministers advancement of the personality of the
through citizen.
d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the
1. Adjournment motion stability of the State.
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions Q.8 Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact
that it calls into activity
below: a) the intelligence and character of ordinary
men and women.
a) 1 only b) the methods for strengthening executive
b) 2 and 3 only leadership.
c) 1 and 3 only c) a superior individual with dynamism and
d) 1, 2 and 3 vision.
d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Q 5. The mind of the makers of the Constitution
of India is reflected in which of the following? Q.9 Which one of the following objectives is not
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
a) The Preamble
India?
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy a) Liberty of thought
d) The Fundamental Duties b) Economic liberty
c) Liberty of expression
Q 6. The main advantage of the parliamentary
d) Liberty of belief
form of government is that
Q.10 Which one of the following is not a feature
a) the executive and legislature work
of Indian federalism?
independently.
b) it provides continuity of policy and is more a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
efficient. b) Powers have been clearly divided
c) the executive remains responsible to the between the Centre and the States.
legislature. c) The federating units have been given
d) the head of the government cannot be unequal representation in the Rajya
changed without election. Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the
Q.7 In the context of India, which one of the
federating units.
following is the correct relationship between
Rights and Duties? Q.11 Out of the following statements, choose the
one that brings out the principle underlying the
a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
Cabinet form of Government:
b) Rights are personal and hence
independent of society and Duties. a) An arrangement for minimizing criticism
against the Government whose

responsibilities are complex and hard to d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

carry out to the satisfaction of all.
b) A mechanism for speeding up the Q.14 Which of the following are not necessarily
activities of the Government whose the consequences of the proclamation of the
responsibilities are increasing day by day. President’s rule in a State?
c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative
for ensuring collective responsibility of the
Assembly
Government to the people.
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the
d) A device for strengthening the hands of
State
the head of the Government whose hold
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
over the people is in a state of decline.
Q.12 Which of the following statements is/are
below:
true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian
citizen? a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
1. A legislative process has been provided to
c) 2 and 3 only
enforce these duties.
d) 1, 2and 3
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Q.15 Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
below: a) Fundamental Right
b) Natural Right
a) 1 only
c) Constitutional Right
b) 2 only
d) Legal Right
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.16 In India, Judicial Review implies
Q.13 Which of the following are envisaged by the a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce
Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of upon the constitutionality of laws and
India? executive orders.
b) the power of the Judiciary to question the
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
wisdom of the laws enacted by the
forced labour
Legislatures.
2. Abolition of untouchability
c) the power of the Judiciary to review all
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
the legislative enactments before they are
4. Prohibition of employment of children in
assented to by the President.
factories and mines
d) the power of the Judiciary to review its
Select the correct answer using the code given own judgements given earlier in similar or
below: different cases.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only

Q.17 Consider the following statements: b) a resident of the constituency from which
the election is to be contested.
1. The Election Commission of India is a five- c) any citizen of India whose name appears
member body. in the electoral roll of a constituency.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs d) any citizen of India.
decides the election schedule for the
conduct of both general elections and Year – 2018 No. of Questions - 12
bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes Q 1. Consider the following statements:
relating to splits/mergers of recognised 1. No criminal proceedings shall be
political parties. instituted against the Governor of a State
in any court during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The emoluments and allowances of the
correct? Governor of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of office.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 2 and 3 only correct?
d) 3 only
a) 1 only
Q.18 Consider the following statements: b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Assembly, the winning candidate must get
at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to Q 2. Which of the following are regarded as the
be declared elected. main features of the “Rule of Law”?
2. According to the provisions laid down in
the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the 1. Limitation of powers
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party 2. Equality before law
and the Deputy Speaker’s to the 3. People’s responsibility to the Government
Opposition. 4. Liberty and civil rights
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below:
a) 1 only a) 1 and 3 only

c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.19 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination 3. Consider the following statements:
paper can be filed by 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases
a) anyone residing in India. to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is a) 1 only

dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her b) 2 only
immediately. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 Or 2
correct? Q.7 Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic
part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Which of the following in the Constitution of India
c) Both 1 and 2 correctly and appropriately imply the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2 statement?
Q 4. Which one of the following reflects the a) Article 14 and the provisions under the
nicest, appropriate relationship between law and 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
liberty? b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of
State Policy in Part IV
a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty. c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in
b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty. Part. III
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by d) Article 24 and the provisions under the
the people. 44th Amendment to the Constitution
d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in
danger. Q.8 With reference to the Parliament of India,
which of the following Parliamentary Committees
Q 5. In the federation established by The scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the
Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-
Power was given to the laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or
delegated by the Parliament are being properly
a) Federal Legislature
exercised by the Executive within the scope of
b) Governor General
such delegation ?
c) Provincial Legislature
d) Provincial Governors a) Committee on Government Assurances
b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Q 6. With reference to the election of the
c) Rules Committee
President of India, consider the following
d) Business Advisory Committee
statements:
Q.9 Which of the following led to the introduction
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies
of English Education in India?
from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok 1. Charter Act of 1813
Sabha is more than the value of the vote 2. General Committee of Public Instruction,
of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Which of the following statements given above
is/are Correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
below
a) 1 and 2 only Q.12 If the President of India exercises his power

b) 2 only as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution
c) 1 and 3 only in respect of a particular State, then
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) the Assembly of the State is automatically
Q.10 Consider the following statements: dissolved.
b) the powers of the Legislature of that State
1. The Parliament of India can place a shall be exercisable by or under the
particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the authority of the Parliament.
Constitution of India. c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth d) the President can make laws relating to
Schedule cannot be examined by any that State.
court and no judgement can be made on
it. Year – 2019 No. of Questions - 11
Which of the statements given above is/are Q 1. Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. The Parliament (Prevention of
Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts
a) 1 only
several posts from disqualification on the
b) 2 only
grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
c) Both 1 and 2
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended
d) Neither 1 nor 2
five times.
Q.11 Consider the following statements: 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined
in the Constitution of India.
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest
party in the opposition was the Swatantra Which of the statements given above is/are
Party. correct?
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the
a) 1 and 2 only
Opposition” was recognised for the first
b) 3 only
time in 196Q.9
c) 2 and 3 only
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have
d) 1, 2 and 3
a minimum of 75 members, its leader
cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Q 2. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the
Opposition. Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
correct?
b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
a) 1 and 3 only c) Indira Gandhi
b) 2 only d) Morarji Desai
c) 2 and 3 only
Q 3. Consider the following statements:
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution
of India introduced an article placing the

election of the Prime Minister beyond d) 1, 3 and 4

judicial review
2. Supreme Court of India struck down the Q 5. Which Article of the Constitution of India
99th amendment to the Constitution of safeguards one’s right to marry the person of
India as being violative of the one’s choice?
independence of the judiciary
a) Article 19
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Article 21
correct? c) Article 25
d) Article 29
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q 6. With reference to the Constitution of India,
c) Both 1 and 2 prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained
d) Neither 1 nor 2 in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or
limitations on the constitutional powers under
Q 4. Consider the following statements: Article 142. It could mean which one of the
following?
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the
Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected a) The decisions taken by the Election
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Commission of India while discharging its
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 196Q.8 duties cannot be challenged in any court
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives of law.
details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and b) The Supreme Court of India is not
proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the constrained in the exercise of its powers
Supreme Court of India. by laws made by the Parliament.
3. The details of the process of impeachment c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in
of the Judges of the Supreme Court of the country, the President of India can
India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, declare a Financial Emergency without the
196Q.8 counsel from the Cabinet.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on
Judge is taken up for voting, the law certain matters without the concurrence
requires the motion to be backed by each of the Union Legislature.
House of the Parliament and supported by
a majority of total membership of that Q.7 With reference to the Legislative Assembly of
House and by not less than two-thirds of a State in India, consider the following
total members of that House present and statements:
voting.
1. The Governor makes a customary address
Which of the statements given above is/are to Members of the House at the
correct? commencement of the first session of the
year.
a) 1 and 2 2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a
b) 3 only rule on a particular matter, it follows the
c) 3 and 4 only Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are d) Neither 1 nor 2

correct?
Q.10 In the context of polity, which one of the
a) 1 only following would you accept as the most
b) 2 only appropriate definition of liberty?
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Protection against the tyranny of political
rulers
Q.8 Consider the following statements about b) Absence of restraint
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
India: d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Q.11 Which one of the following suggested that
Territory. the Governor should be an eminent person from
2. A stagnant or declining population is one outside the State and should be a detached figure
of the criteria for determining PVTG without intense political links or should not have
status. taken part in politics in the recent past?
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in
the country so far. a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included (1966)
in the list of PVTGs. b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Which of the statements given above are correct? d) National Commission to Review the
Working of the Constitution (2000)
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4 Year – 2020 No. of Questions - 17
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4 Q 1. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok
Sabha in
Q.9 With reference to the Constitution of India,
consider the following statements: a) the matter of creating new All India
Services
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction b) amending the Constitution
to declare any central law to be c) the removal of the government
constitutionally invalid. d) making cut motions
2. An amendment to the Constitution of
India cannot be called into question by the Q 2. With reference to the funds under Members
Supreme Court of India. of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
(MPLADS), which of the following statements are
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create
a) 1 only durable assets like physical infrastructure
b) 2 only for health, education, etc.
c) Both 1 and 2
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
must benefit SC/ST populations. Budget Management Act, 2003
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly
basis and the unused funds cannot be Q 6. A constitutional government by definition is
carried forward to the next year. a
4. The district authority must inspect at least a) government by legislature
10% of all works under implementation b) popular government
every year. c) multi-party government
d) limited government
below: Q.7 Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of
the following parts of the Constitution of India
a) 1 and 2 only reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of
b) 3 and 4 only the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
c) 1, 2 and 3 only (1948)?
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Preamble
Q 3. Which one of the following categories of 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
‘Fundamental Rights incorporated against 3. Fundamental Duties
untouchability as a form of discrimination?
a) Right against Exploitation below:
b) Right to Freedom
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies a) 1 and 2 only
d) Right to Equality b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q 4. In India, separation of judiciary from the d) 1, 2 and 3
executive is enjoined by
Q.8 In India, Legal Services Authorities provide
a) the Preamble of the Constitution free legal services to which of the following
b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
c) the Seventh Schedule type of citizens?
d) the conventional practice
1. Person with an annual income of less than
Q 5. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister Rs 1,00,000
also places other documents before the 2. Transgender with an annual income of
Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic less than Rs 2,00,000
Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC)
is presented because this is mandated by with an annual income of less than ₹
3,00,000
a) Long standing parliamentary convention 4. All Senior Citizens
b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the
Constitution of India Select the correct answer using the code given
c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India below:

a) 1 and 2 only Q.12 In the context of India, which one of the

b) 3 and 4 only following is the characteristic appropriate for
c) 2 and 3 only bureaucracy?
d) 1 and 4 only
a) An agency for widening the scope of
Q.9 A Parliamentary System of Government is parliamentary democracy
one in which b) An agency for strengthening the structure
of federalism
a) all political parties in the Parliament are c) An agency for facilitating political stability
represented in the Government and economic growth
b) the Government is responsible to the d) An agency for the implementation of
Parliament and can be removed by it public policy
c) the Government is elected by the people
and can be removed by them Q.13 The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
d) the Government is chosen by the
Parliament but cannot be removed by it a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal
before completion of a fixed term effect
b) not a part of the Constitution and has no
Q.10 Which part of the Constitution of India legal effect either
declares the ideal of a Welfare State? c) part of the Constitution and has the same
legal effect as any other part
a) Directive Principles of State Policy d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal
b) Fundamental Rights effect independently of other parts
c) Preamble
d) Seventh Schedule Q.14 With reference to the provisions contained
in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of
Q.11 Consider the following statements: the following statements is/are correct?
a) The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic 1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
structure’ in terms of federalism, 2. They shall not be enforceable by any
secularism, fundamental rights and court.
democracy. 3. The principles laid down in this part are to
b) The Constitution of India provides for influence the making of laws by the State.
‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’
liberties and to preserve the ideals on Select the correct answer using the code given
which the Constitution is based. below:
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only

correct? b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only d) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15 Consider the following statements: Q.17 In which one of the following groups are all
the four countries members of G20?
1. According to the Constitution of India, a
person who is eligible to vote can be a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and
made a minister in a State for six months Turkey
even if he/she is not a member of the b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New
Legislature of that State. Zealand
2. According to the Representation of People c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South
offence and sentenced to imprisonment Korea
for five years is permanently disqualified
from contesting an election even after his Year – 2021 No. of Questions - 18
release from prison.
Q 1. Under the Indian constitution concentration
Which of the statements given above is/are of wealth violates
correct?
a) The Right to Equality
a) 1 only b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
b) 2only c) The Right to Freedom
c) Both 1 and 2 d) The Concept of Welfare
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 2. What is the position of the Right to Property
Q.16 Consider the following statements: in India?
1. The President of India can summon a a) Legal right available to citizens only
session of the Parliament at such a place b) Legal right available to any person
as he/she thinks fit. c) Fundamental Right available to citizens
2. The Constitution of India provides for only
three sessions of the Parliament in a year, d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right
but it is not mandatory to conduct all
Q 3. What was the exact constitutional status of
three sessions.
India on 26th January, 1950?
3. There is no minimum number of days that
the Parliament is required to meet in a a) A Democratic Republic
year. b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) (C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic
Republic
correct?
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
a) 1 only Republic
b) 2 only
Q 4. Constitutional government means
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only a) a representative government of a nation
with a federal structure

b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal Q.7 With reference to India, consider the
powers following statements:
c) a government whose Head enjoys nominal
powers 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient
d) a government limited by the terms of the case, parole cannot be denied to such
Constitution prisoner because it becomes a matter of
his/her right.
Q 5. Consider the following statements in respect 2. State Governments have their own
of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles Which of the statements given above is/are
under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution correct?
of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in a) 1 only
the year 1954, were suspended only once. b) 2 only
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is c) Both 1 and 2
restricted to a maximum of five in a d) Neither 1 nor 2
particular year.
Q.8 At the national level, which ministry is the
Which of the above statements are not correct? nodal agency to ensure effective implementation
of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
a) 1 and 2 only Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
b) 2 and 3 only Act, 2006?
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climatic change.
Q 6. With reference to India, consider the b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
following statements: c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in
the custody of the concerned magistrate Q.9 A legislation which confers on the executive
and such accused is locked up in police or administrative authority an unguided and
station, not in jail. uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of
2. During judicial custody, the police officer the application of law violates which one of the
in charge of the case is not allowed to following Articles of the Constitution of India?
interrogate the suspect without the
approval of the court. a) Article 14
b) Article 28
Which of the statements given above is/are c) Article 32
correct? d) Article 44
a) 1 only Q.10 Which one of the following in Indian polity is

b) 2 only an essential feature that indicates that it is
c) Both 1 and 2 federal in character?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) The independence of the judiciary is a) 1 only

safeguarded b) 2 only
b) The Union Legislature has elected c) Both 1 and 2
representatives from constituent units d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) the Union cabinet can have elected
representatives from regional parties Q.13 With reference to India, consider the
d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable following statements:
by Courts of Law
1. There is only one citizenship and one
Q.11 Which one of the following best defines the domicile.
term “State”? 2. A citizen by birth only can become the
Head of State.
a) A community of persons permanently 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship
occupying a definite territory independent cannot be deprived of it under any
of external control and possessing an circumstances.
organized government.
b) A politically organized people of a definite Which of the statements given above is/are
territory and possessing an authority to correct?
govern them, maintain law and order,
a) 1 only
protect their natural rights and safeguard
b) 2 only
their means of sustenance.
c) 1 and 3
c) A number of persons who have been living
d) 2 and 3
in a definite territory for a very long time
with their own culture, tradition and Q.14 Which of the following factors constitutes
government. the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
d) A society permanently living in a definite democracy?
with a central authority, an executive
responsible to the central authority and a) A committed judiciary
an independent judiciary. b) Centralization of powers
c) Elected government
Q.12 With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider d) Separation of powers
the following statements.
Q.15 We adopted parliamentary democracy
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of based on the British model, but how does our
India can be called back to sit by the Chief model differ from that model?
Justice of India with prior permission of
the President of India. 1. As regards legislation, the British
2. A High court in India has the power to Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in
review its own judgement as the Supreme India, the power of the parliament to
Court does. legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the
Which of the statements given above is/are constitutionality of the Amendment of an
correct? Act of the Parliament are referred to the
Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal
below. contested from three Lok Sabha
constituencies.
a) 1 only 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate
b) 2 only contests in one Lok Sabha election from
c) Both 1 and 2 many constituencies, his/her party should
d) Neither 1 nor 2 bear the cost of bye-elections to the
constituencies vacated by him/her in the
Q.16 With reference to the Union Government,
event of him/her winning in all the
constituencies.
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee
suggested that a minister and a secretary
correct?
be designated solely for pursuing the
subject of administrative reform and a) 1 only
promoting it. b) 2 only
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was c) 1 and 3
constituted on the recommendation of d) 2 and 3
the Administrative Reforms Commission,
1966, and this was placed under the Prime Year – 2022 No. of Questions - 17
Minister’s charge.
correct? 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal
Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act,
a) 1 only 1971 was passed.
b) 2 only 2. The Constitution of India empowers the
c) Both 1 and 2 Supreme Court and the High Courts to
d) Neither 1 nor 2 punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil
Q.17 ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which
Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
Article of the constitution of India?
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the
a) Article 15 powers to make laws on Contempt of
b) Article 19 Court.
c) Article 21
d) Article 29
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
1. In India, there is no law restricting the b) 1, 2 and 4 only
candidates from contesting in one Lok c) 3 and 4 only
Sabha election from three constituencies. d) 3 only

Q 2. With reference to India, consider the Minister, Minister of State with

following statements: Independent Charge, Minister of State
and Deputy Minister.
1. Government law officers and legal firms 2. The total number of ministers in the
are recognized as advocates, but Union Government, including the Prime
corporate lawyers and patent attorneys Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of
are excluded from recognition as the total number of members in the Lok
advocates. Sabha.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down
the rules relating to legal education and Which of the statements given above is/are
recognition of law colleges. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only

correct? b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 5. Which of the following is/are the exclusive
d) Neither 1 nor 2 power(s) of Lok Sabha?
Q 3. Consider the following statements: 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires the Council of Ministers
a prior recommendation of the President 3. To impeach the President of India
of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is Select the correct answer using the code given
presented to the President of India, it is below:
obligatory for the President of India to
give his/her assent. a) 1 and 2
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be b) 2 only
passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya c) 1 and 3
Sabha by a special majority and there is no d) 3 only
provision for joint sitting.
Q 6. With reference to anti-defection law in India,
Which of the statements given above are correct? consider the following statements:
a) 1 and 2 only 1. The law specifies that a nominated

b) 2 and 3 only legislator cannot join any political party
c) 1 and 3 only within six months of being appointed to
d) 1, 2 and 3 the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame
Q 4. Consider the following statements: within which the presiding officer has to
decide a defection case.
1. The Constitution of India classifies the
ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet
Which of the statements given above is/are c) 1 and 3 only

correct? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only Q.9 With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok

b) 2 only Sabha, consider the following statements:
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the
Q.7 Consider the following statements: election of Deputy Speaker shall be held
on such date as the Speaker may fix.
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor 2. There is a mandatory provision that the
General of India are the only officers of election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker
the Government who are allowed to of Lok Sabha shall be from either the
participate in the meetings of the principal opposition party or the ruling
Parliament of India. party.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power
Attorney General of India submits his as of the Speaker when presiding over the
resignation when the Government which sitting of the House and no appeal lies
appointed him resigns. against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary
practice regarding the appointment of
correct?
Deputy Speaker is that the motion is
a) 1 only moved by the Speaker and duly seconded
b) 2 only by the Prime Minister.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above are correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 3 only
Q.8 With reference to the writs issued by the b) 1, 2 and 3
Courts in India, consider the following c) 3 and 4 only
statements: d) 2 and 4 only
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private
Q.10 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
organization unless it is entrusted with a
Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one
public duty.
of the following statements best reflects the
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company
consequence of it?
even though it may be a Government
Company. a) This would prevent the transfer of land of
3. Any public minded person can be a tribal people to non-tribal people.
petitioner to move the Court to obtain the b) This would create a local self-governing
writ of Quo Warranto. body in that area.
Which of the statements given above are correct? c) This would convert that area into a Union
Territory.
a) 1 and 2 only
d) The State having such areas would be
b) 2 and 3 only
declared a Special Category State.
2013-2022 IAS Prelims Polity Questions with Solutions
2013 1. C 2016 1. B 2019 1. A 12. C

2. C 2. B 2. A 13. A
3. D 3. D 3. B 14. D
4. B 4. B
4. C 15. C
5. D 5. D
6. C 6. C 5. B 16. B
7. B 7. C 6. B 17. C
8. A 8. B 7. C 18. B
9. C 9. B 8. C
10. C 9. D 2022 1. B
11. B 2017 1. A 2. B
10. B
12. D 2. D 3. B
3. D 11. C
13. A 4. B
14. B 4. D 2020 1. B
5. A 2. D 5. B
15. B
16. B 6. C 3. D 6. B
17. C 7. A 4. B 7. D
18. D 8. A 8. C
5. D
2014 1. B 9. B 9. A
6. D
2. A 10. D 10. A
11. C 7. D
3. B 8. A
12. D
4. B 13. C 9. B
5. C 14. B 10. A
6. C 15. C 11. B
7. B 16. A
12. D
8. C 17. C
18. D 13. D
9. D 14. D
19. C
10. B 15. D
2018 1. C
11. C 16. C
2. C
2015 1. D 17. A
3. A
2. C
4. B 2021 1. B
3. B
4. B 5. B 2. B
5. C 6. C 3. B
6. A 7. C 4. D
7. D 8. B 5. D
8. D 9. A 6. B
9. D
10. A 7. B
10. A
11. D 11. B 8. D
12. C 12. B 9. A
13. B 10. A
11. A

TOPIC: Geography
ANALYTICS GEOGRAPHY PYQS (2013-2022)

25
23
20
18
17
15
14 14 14
13
12
10
8
7
5
0
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 23 b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3
Q.1 Consider the following pairs- d) None
Tribe State Q.4 Consider the following pairs:
1. Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills
2. Karbi Himachal Pradesh
2. Logtak (Loktak)Lake : Barail Range
3. Dongaria Odisha
3. NamdaphaNationalPark : Dafla Hills
4. Bonda Tamil Nadu
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only a) 1 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Q.2 In which of the following States is lion-tailed
macaque found in its natural habitat? Q.5 Consider the following
1. Tamil Nadu 1. Star tortoise

2. Kerala 2. Monitor lizard
3. Karnataka 3. Pygmy hog
4. Andhra Pradesh 4. Spider monkey
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the above is found in India?
below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only c) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.6 Which of the following statements regarding
Q.3 Consider the following pairs- laterite soils of India are correct?
National Parks River Flowing Through 1. They are generally red in colour.
Parks 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
1. Corbett National Ganga 3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and
park UP.
2. Kaziranga National Manas 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on
Park these soils.
3. Silent Valley Kaveri Select the correct answer using the codes given
National Park below.
a) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly b) 2, 3 and 4
matched? c) 1 and 4
a) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3 only

Q.7 Contour bunding is a method of soil Which of the statements given above is/are
conservation used in – correct?
a) desert margins, liable to strong wind a) 1 and 2

action b) 2 only
b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, c) 2 and 3
liable to flooding d) None
c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed
growth
characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?
d) None of the above
1. High ash content
Q.8 Consider the following crops
2. Low sulphur content
1. Cotton 3. Low ash fusion temperature
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
below.
4. Wheat
a) 1 and 2 only
Which of these are Kharif crops?
b) 2 only
a) 1 and 4 c) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
Q.12 On the planet earth, most of the freshwater
d) 2, 3 and 4
exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the
Q.9 During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
skies is produced by the:
a) is found in the atmosphere as moisture
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the and clouds
sky b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds c) exists as groundwater
3. violent upward movement of air and d) exists as soil moisture
water particles
Q.13 The Narmada River flows to the west, while
Select the correct answer using the codes given most other large peninsular rivers flow to the
below. east. Why?
a) 1 only 1. It occupies a linear rift valley.

b) 2 and 3 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
c) 1 and 3 Satpuras.
d) None 3. The land slopes to the west from Central
India.
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
below.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum. a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3 d) continental shelf is undulating

d) None
Q.18 Which of the following is/are unique
Q.14 The annual range of temperature in the characteristics/characteristics of equatorial
interior of the continents is high as compared to forests?
coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with
1. Thermal difference between land and crowns forming a continuous canopy
water 2. Coexistence of a large number of species
2. Variation in altitude between continents 3. Presence of numerous varieties of
and oceans epiphytes
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to
below:
coasts
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
below.
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
Q.19 “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and
c) 2 and 3 only
the people used to be nomadic herders.” (2013)
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The above statement best describes which of the
Q.15 Variations in the length of daytime and night
following regions?
time from season to season are due to
a) African Savannah
a) the earth’s rotation on its axis
b) Central Asian Steppe
b) the earth’s revolution around the sun in
c) North American Prairie
an elliptical manner
d) Siberian Tundra
c) latitudinal position of the place
d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis Q.20 With reference to the usefulness of the by-
products of the sugar industry, which of the
Q.16 Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched?
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for
Geographical Feature Region
the generation of energy.
(a) Abyssinian Plateau Arabia
2. Molasses can be used as one of the
(b) Atlas Mountains North-Western Africa
feedstocks for the production of synthetic
(c) Guiana Highlands South-Western Africa chemical fertilizers.
(d) Okavango Basin Patagonia 3. Molasses can be used for the production
Q.17 The most important fishing grounds of the of ethanol.
world are found in the regions where:
a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet below.
b) rivers drain out large amounts of
freshwater into the sea a) 1 only
c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 18

d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.1 With reference to ‘Changpa Community of
India, consider the following statement:
1. Electromagnetic radiation
1. They live mainly in the State of
2. Geothermal energy
Uttarakhand.
3. Gravitational force
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield
4. Plate movements
fine wool.
5. Rotation of the earth
3. They are kept in the category of
6. Revolution of the earth
Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the above are responsible for bringing
dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
correct?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.22 Which one among the following industries is
the maximum consumer of water in India?
correct regarding the vegetative propagation of
a) Engineering plants?
b) Paper and pulp
1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal
c) Textiles
populations.
d) Thermal power
2. Vegetative propagation helps in
Q.23 Which of the following leaf modifications eliminating the virus.
occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss? 3. Vegetative propagation can be practised
most of the year.
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Thorns instead of leaves below.
Select the correct answer using the codes given a) 1 only

below. b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.3 The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical
d) 1, 2 and 3 characteristic of
a) Equatorial climate
b) (b)Mediterranean climate
c) Monsoon climate
d) All of the above climates

Q.4 Consider these pairs Q.8 Turkey is located between
1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea

2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
3. Mahadeo Hills Central India c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
4. Mikir Hills North-East India d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Q.9 What is the correct sequence of occurrence
a) 1 and 2 of the following cities in South-East Asia as one
b) 2 and 3 proceeds from south to north?
c) 3 and 4 1. Bangkok
d) 2 and 4 2. Hanoi
Q.5 Consider the following rivers: 3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
1. Barak
2. Lohit Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Subansiri below.
Which of the above flows / flow through a) 4-2-1-3

Arunachal Pradesh? b) 3-2-4-1
c) 3-4-1-2
a) 1 only
d) 4-3-2-1
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.10 Consider the following pairs
d) 1, 2 and 3 Region often in news Country
Q.6 Which one of the following pairs of islands is 1. Chechnya Russian Federation
separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree 2. Darfur Mali
Channel’? 3. Swat Valley Iraq
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
a) Andaman and Nicobar
matched?
b) Nicobar and Sumatra
c) Maldives and Lakshadweep a) 1 only
d) Sumatra and Java b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.7 Which of the following phenomena might
d) 1, 2 and 3
have influenced the evolution of organisms?
Q.11 Consider the following pairs :
1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles Programme Project Ministry
1. Drought-Prone Area Ministry of
Programme Agriculture
below.
2. Desert Development Ministry of
a) 1 only
Programme Environment and
b) 2 only
Forests
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2.
3. National Watershed Ministry of Rural 4. Carbon dioxide

Development Project for Development
Rainfed Areas
below.
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) (e) 1 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) None
Q.15 Recently, a series of uprisings of people
Q.12 Which of the following adds/add carbon
referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from
dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?
a) Egypt
1. Volcanic action
b) Lebanon
2. Respiration
c) Syria
3. Photosynthesis
d) Tunisia
4. Decay of organic matter
Q.16 With reference to two non-conventional
energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and
below.
‘shale gas’, consider the following ‘statements:
a) 1 and 3 only
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas
b) 2 only
extracted from coal seams, while shale
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
gas is a mixture of propane and butane
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
only that can be extracted from fine-
Q.13 If you travel through the Himalayas, you are grained sedimentary rocks.
likely to see which of the following plants 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane
naturally grow there? sources exist, but so far no shale gas
sources have been found.
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Sandalwood correct?

below b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.17 Consider the following pairs :
d) 1, 2 and 3
Region Well-known for the production
Q.14 Which of the following are some important of
pollutants released by the steel industry in India? 1. Kinnaur Areca nut
2. Mewat Mango
1. Oxides of sulphur
3. Soya bean
2. Oxides of nitrogen
Coromandel
3. Carbon monoxide

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly b) Convergence of the two equatorial
matched? currents
c) Difference in salinity of water
a) 1 and 2 only
d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the
b) 3 only
equator
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None Q.4 Consider the following pairs:
Q.18 Consider the following pairs : Place of Pilgrimage Location

Srisailam Nallamala Hills
National highways Cities Connected
Omkareshwar Satmala Hills
1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad
Pushkar Mahadeo Hills
2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
matched?
matched? a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) None Q.5 Consider the following rivers:
Year – 2015 No. of Questions - 14 1. Vamsadhara

2. Indravati
Q.1 In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern 3. Pranahita
Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do 4. Pennar
not originate. What is the reason?
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
a) Sea surface temperatures are low
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom
b) 2, 3 and 4
occurs
c) 1, 2 and 4
c) Coriolis force is too weak
d) 2 and 3 only
d) Absence of land in those regions
Q.6 In India, the steel production industry
Q.2 Which one of the following pairs of States of
requires the import of
India indicates the easternmost and westernmost
State? a) saltpetre
b) rock phosphate
a) Assam and Rajasthan
c) coking coal
b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
d) All of the above
c) Assam and Gujarat
d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat Q.7 Consider the following statements:
Q.3 What explains the eastward flow of the 1. The winds which blow between 30 N and
equatorial countercurrent? 60 S latitudes throughout the year are
known as westerlies.
a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis

2. The moist air masses that cause winter Select the correct answer using the code given
rains in the NorthWestern region of India below.
are part of westerlies. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 4 and 5 only
c) 1 and 2 only
correct?
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
a) 1 only
Q.11 Consider the following States:
b) 2 only
1. Arunachal Pradesh
c) Both 1 and 2
2. Himachal Pradesh
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Mizoram
Q.8 In a particular region in India, the local people In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet
train the roots of living trees into robust bridges Evergreen Forests’ occur?
across the streams. As the time passes, these a) 1 only
bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living b) 2 and 3 only
root bridges’ are found in c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Meghalaya
b) Himachal Pradesh Q.12 Which one of the following countries of
c) Jharkhand South-West Asia does not open out to the
d) Tamil Nadu Mediterranean Sea?
a) Syria
Q.9 Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to
b) Jordan
which among the following?
c) Lebanon
1. Gravitational force of the Sun d) Israel
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
Q.13 In India, in which one of the following types
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
Select the correct answer using the code given a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
below. b) Tropical rainforest
c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
a) 1 only
d) Temperate forest with grasslands
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.14 “Each day is more or less the same, the
d) 1, 2 and 3 morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as
the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up,
Q.10 In which of the following activities are
dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
and lightning. But the rain is soon over.”
1. Assessment of crop productivity Which of the following regions is described in the
2. Locating groundwater resources above passage?
3. Mineral exploration a) Savannah
4. Telecommunications b) Equatorial
5. Traffic studies c) Monsoon
d) Mediterranean

Year – 2016 No. of Questions - 7 Q.4 With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional
Security through intensive Millets Promotion’,
Q.1 Consider the following pairs: which of the following statements is/are correct?
Famous Place Region 1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the
Bodhgaya Baghelkhand improved production and post-harvest
Khajuraho Bundelkhand technologies, and to demonstrate value
Shirdi Vidarbha addition techniques, in an integrated
Nasik (Nashik) Malwa manner, with a cluster approach.
tirupati Rayalaseema 2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers
Which of the pairs given above are correctly have a larger stake in this scheme.
matched? 3. An important objective of the scheme is to
encourage farmers of commercial crops to
a) 1, 2 and 4
shift to millet cultivation by offering them
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and
c) 2 and 5 only
micro-irrigation equipment.
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Q.2 Which of the following is/are tributary/
below.
tributaries of Brahmaputra?
a) 1 only
1. Dibang
b) 2 and 3 only
2. Kameng
c) 1 and 2 only
3. Lohit
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5 Recently, which of the following States has
below.
explored the possibility of constructing an
a) 1 only artificial inland port to be connected to sea by a
b) 2 and 3 only long navigational channel?
c) 1 and 3 only
a) Andhra Pradesh
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Chhattisgarh
Q.3 In which of the following regions of India are c) Karnataka
shale gas resources found? d) Rajasthan
1. Cambay Basin Q.6 Recently, linking of which of the following

2. Cauvery Basin rivers was undertaken?
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
Select the correct answer using the code given b) Godavari and Krishna
below. c) Mahanadi and Son
d) Narmada and Tapti
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only Q.7 Consider the following pairs:
c) 2 and 3 only
Community sometimes in the affairs of
d) 1, 2 and 3
mentioned in the news

1. Kurd : Bangladesh Q.3 With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’

2. Madhesi : Nepal sometimes mentioned in the news while
3. Rohingya : Myanmar forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the
matched? 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a
difference in sea surface temperature
a) 1 and 2
between the tropical Western Indian
b) 2 only
Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific
c) 2 and 3
Ocean.
d) 3 only
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El
Year – 2017 No. of Questions - 8 Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Q.1 Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of Select the correct answer using the code given
the following countries? below:
1. Jordan a) 1 only
2. Iraq b) 2 only
3. Lebanon c) Both 1 and 2
4. Syria d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer Q.4 Which of the following is geographically

closest to Great Nicobar?
using the code given below:
a) Sumatra
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) Borneo
b) 2 and 3 only c) Java
c) 3 and 4 only d) Sri Lanka
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.5 With reference to river Teesta, consider the
Q.2 Consider the following statements: following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as
five states only. that of Brahmaputra but it flows through
2. Western Ghats are spread over five states Sikkim.
only. 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is a
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States tributary of river Teesta.
only. 3. River Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal
Which of the statements given above is/are on the border of India and Bangladesh.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 2 only correct?
b) 3 only a) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.6 If you travel by road from Kohima to c) 3 only

Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States d) 1, 2 and 3
within India through which you can travel,
Q.2 Consider the following pairs:
including the origin and the destination?
Town sometime mentioned in Country
a) 6
news
b) 7
Aleppo Syria
c) 8
Kirkuk Yemen
d) 9
Mosul Palestine
Q.7 From the ecological point of view, which one Mazar-i-Sharif Afghanistan
of the following assumes importance in being a Which of the pairs given above are correctly
good link between the Eastern Ghats and the matched?
Western Ghats?
a) 1 and 2
a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve b) 1 and 4
b) Nallamala Forest c) 2 and 3
c) Nagarhole National Park d) 3 and 4
d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Q.3 With reference to the Genetically Modified
Q.8 At one of the place in India, if you stand on mustard (GM mustard) developed in India,
the seashore and watch the sea, ‘you will find consider the following statements :
that the sea water recedes from the shore line a
few kilometres and comes back to the shore, 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil
twice a day, and you can actually walk on the bacterium that give the plant the property
seafloor when the water recedes. This unique of pest-resistance to a wide variety of
phenomenon is seen at pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the
a) Bhavnagar plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
b) Bheemunipatnam 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly
c) Chandipur by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural
d) Nagapattinam University.
Year – 2018 No. of Questions - 14 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
Q.1 Which of the following leaf modifications
occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? a) (a)1 and 3 only
b) (b)2 only
1. Hard and waxy leaves c) (c)2 and 3 only
2. Tiny leaves d) (d)1, 2 and 3
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Q.4 In which one of the following States is Pakhui
Select the correct answer using the code given Wildlife Sanctuary located?
below a) Arunachal Pradesh
a) 2 and 3 only b) Manipur
b) 2 only c) Meghalaya

d) Nagaland Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the

following fall under Conservation Agriculture?
Q.5 Which of the following has/have shrunk
immensely/dried up in the recent past due to 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
human activities ? 2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation
1. Aral Sea
crops
2. Black Sea
4. Using crop residues to cover the soil
3. Lake Baikal
surface
Select the correct answer using the code given 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop
below : sequencing/crop rotations
a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given

b) 2 and 3 below:
c) 2 only
a) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.6 Among the following cities, which one lies on c) 2, 4 and 5
a longitude closest to that of Delhi? d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
a) Bengaluru Q.9 Consider the following pairs :

b) Hyderabad
Regions sometimes mentioned in Country
c) Nagpur
news
d) Pune
Catalonia Spain
Q.7
Crimea Hungary
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed
every few hundred thousand years. Mindanao philippines
2. When the Earth was created more than
Oromia Nigeria
4000 million years ago, there was 54%
oxygen and no carbon dioxide. Which of the pairs given above are correctly
3. When living organisms originated, they matched ?
modified the early atmosphere of the
a) 1, 2 and 3
Earth.
b) (b)) 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are c) 1 and 3 only
correct? d) 2 and 4 only
a) 1 only Q.10 Which one of the following is an artificial
b) 2 and 3 only lake?
c) 1 and 3 only
a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
Q.8 With reference to the circumstances in Indian c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
agriculture, the concept of “Conservation d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Q.11 Consider the following statements b) 2 and 3

c) 3 only
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in
d) 1 and 3
tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral Q.14 With reference to agricultural soils, consider
reefs are located in the territories of the following statements :
Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines.
1. High content of organic matter in soil
3. Coral reefs host far more animal phyla
drastically reduces its water holding
than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur
correct? cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can
a) 1 and 2 only
contribute to the salinization of some
b) 3 only
agricultural lands.
c) 1and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.12 Which of the following is/are the possible
consequence/s of heavy sand mining in a) 1 and 2 only
riverbeds? b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
1. Decreased salinity in the river
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table Year – 2019 No. of Questions - 14

Q.1 With reference to the management of minor
below :
minerals in India, consider the following
a) 1 only statements:
b) 2 and 3 only
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the
c) 1 and 3 only
prevailing law in the country.
d) 1,2 and 3
2. State Governments have the power to
Q.13 Consider the following statements: grant mining leases of minor minerals, but
the powers regarding the formation of
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active
rules related to the grant of minor
volcano located in the Indian territory.
minerals lie with the Central Government.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of
3. State Governments have the power to
Great Nicobar.
frame rules to prevent illegal mining of
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano
minor minerals.
erupted was in 1991 and it has remained
inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is / are
correct?
correct? a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.5 The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes

mentioned in media in reference to-
a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
Glacier River
b) an early human species
Bandarpunch Yamuna
c) a cave system found in North-East India.
Bara Shigri Chenab
d) a geological period in the history of the
Milam Mandakini
Indian subcontinent
Siachen Nubra
Zemu Manas Q.6 Consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above are correctly Sea Bordering country
matched? Adriatic Sea Albania
a) 1, 2 and 4 Black Sea Croatia
b) 1, 3 and 4 Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
c) 2 and 5 Mediterranean Sea Morocco
d) 3 and 5 Red Sea Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
Q.3 With reference to the cultivation of Kharif
matched?
crops in India in the last five years, consider the
following statements: a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
c) 2 and 5 only
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than Q.7 Consider the following statements:
that of sugarcane.
1. Asiatic lions are naturally found in India
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has
only.
steadily decreased.
2. A double-humped camel is naturally found
Which of the statements given above are correct? in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found
a) 1 and 3 only
in India only.
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 correct?
Q.4 Among the following, which one is the largest a) 1 only

exporter of rice in the world in the last five years? b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a) China
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) India
c) Myanmar Q.8 Consider the following States:
d) Vietnam
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only
With reference to the States mentioned above, in
d) 1, 2 and 3
terms of percentage of forest cover to the total
area of the State, which one of the following is Q.12 What is common to the places known as
the correct ascending order? Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
a) 2-3-1-4 a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

b) 2-3-4-1 b) Tropical rain forests
c) 3-2-4-1 c) Underground cave systems
d) 3-2-1-4 d) Water reservoirs
Q.9 Consider the following pairs Q.13 On 21st June, the Sun
Famous place River a) does not set below the horizon at the
Pandharpur Chandrabhaga Arctic Circle
Tiruchirappalli Cauvery b) does not set below the horizon at
Hampi Malaprabha Antarctic Circle
Which of the pairs given above are correctly c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the
matched? Equator
d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of
a) 1 and 2 only
Capricorn
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.14 Which one of the following National Parks
d) 1, 2 and 3 lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
Q.10 Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy a) Manas National Park
night? b) Namdapha National Park
c) Neora Valley National Park
a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from
d) Valley of Flowers National Park
the Earth’s surface.
b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation. Year – 2020 No. of Questions - 17
c) The Earth’s surface would have a low
temperature on cloudy nights. Q.1 Consider the following pairs:
d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground Rivers Flows into
level. 1. Mekong Andaman Sea
Q.11 Consider the following pairs: 2. Thames Irish Sea
3. Volga Caspian Sea
Wildlife Naturally found in 4. Zambezi Indian Ocean
Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River matched?
Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly a) 1 and 2 only
matched? b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q.2 Steel slag can be the material for which of the b. 2 only
following? c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil Q.5 What is/are the advantages/advantages of
3. Production of cement zero tillage in agriculture?
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without
below: burning the residue of the previous crop.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice
a) 1 and 2 only
saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in
b) 2 and 3 only
the wet soil is possible.
c) 1 and 3 only
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is
d) 1, 2 and 3
possible.
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and below:
mercury.
a) 1 and 2 only
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur
b) 2 and 3 only
dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the
c) 3 only
environment.
d) 1, 2 and 3
3. High ash content is observed in Indian
coal. Q.6 According to India’s National Policy on
Biofuels, which of the following can be used as
raw materials for the production of biofuels?
correct?
1. Cassava
a) 1 only
2. Damaged wheat grains
b) 2 and 3 only
3. Groundnut seeds
c) 3 only
4. Horse gram
d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Rotten potatoes
Q.4 What is the use of biochar in farming? 6. Sugar beet
1. ‘Biochar can be used as a part of the Select the correct answer using the code given
growing medium in vertical farming. below:
2. When biochar is a part of the growing
a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
medium, it promotes the growth of
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
nitrogen fixing microorganisms.
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. When biochar is a part of the growing-
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
medium, it enables the growing medium
to retain water for a longer time. Q.7 With reference to pulse production in India,
correct? 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both
kharif and rabi crops.
a. 1 and 2 only

2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settings
of pulse production. prepared from tissue culture.
3. In the last three decades, while the
production of kharif pulses has increased,
correct?
the production of rabi pulses has
decreased. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
correct?
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 only
Q.10 With reference to solar water pumps,
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Solar power can be used for running
surface pumps and not for submersible
Q.8 “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard
Pumps.
frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost
2. Solar power can be used for running
free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for
centrifugal pumps and not the ones with
its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of
piston.
retaining moisture is ideally suited for the
cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the Which of the statements given above is/are
following is that crop? correct?
a) Cotton a) 1 only
b) Jute b) 2 only
c) Sugarcane c) Both 1 and 2
d) Tea d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.9 With reference to the current trends in the Q.11 In the context of India, which of the
cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of
following statements: eco-friendly agriculture?
1. A substantial saving in seed material is 1. Crop diversification

made when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised 2. Legume intensification
in a nursery and transplanted in the main 3. Tensiometer use
field. 4. Vertical farming
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the
germination percentage is better with
below:
single budded setts as compared to setts
with many buds. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when b) 3 only
sets are directly planted, single-budded c) 4 only
setts have better survival as compared to d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
large setts.
Q.12 What are the advantages of fertigation in
agriculture?

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation Select the correct answer using the code given
water is possible. below:
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate
1. 1 only
and all other phosphatic fertilizers is
2. 2 only
possible.
3. Both 1 and 2
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants
4. Neither 1 nor 2
is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical Q.15 With reference to chemical fertilizers in
nutrients is possible. India, consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. At present, the retail price of chemical
below: fertilizers is market-driven and not
administered by the Government.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
produced from natural gas.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product
Q.13 Consider the following minerals: of oil refineries.
1. Bentonite Which of the statements given above is/are

2. Chromite correct?
3. Kyanite
a) 1 only
4. Sillimanite
b) 2 and 3 only
In India, which of the above is/are officially c) 2 only
designated as major minerals? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 and 2 only Q.16 Siachen Glacier is situated to the

b) 4 only
a) East of Aksai Chin
c) 1 and 3 only
b) East of Leh
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) North of Gilgit
Q.14 With reference to Ocean Mean d) North of Nubra Valley
Temperature (OMT), which of the following
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C
Hemisphere only.
isotherm which is 129 meters in the
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
southwestern Indian Ocean during
3. The temperature inside the eye of a
January — March.
cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of
2. OMT collected during January — March
the surroundings.
can be used in assessing whether the
amount of rainfall in the monsoon will be Which of the statements given above is/are
less or more than a certain long-term correct?
mean.
a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous

c) 2 only evergreen tree.
d) 1 and 3 only 2. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia.\
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected
as minor forest produce.
Q.1 The vegetation of savannah consists of 4. India exports tamarind and seeds of
grassland with scattered small trees. The forest moringa.
development in such areas is generally kept in 5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be
check by one or more or a combination of some used in the production of biofuels.
conditions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the following are such conditions?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
1. Burrowing animals and termites. b) 3, 4 and 5
2. Fire c) 1, 3 and 4
3. Grazing herbivores d) 1,2, 3 and 5
4. Seasonal rainfall
Q.4 The black cotton soil of India has been
5. Soil properties
formed due to the weathering of
a) Brown forest soil
below.
b) Fissure volcanic rock
a) 1 and2 c) Granite and schist
b) 4 and 5 d) Shale and limestone
c) 2, 3 and 4
Q.5 How is permaculture farming different from
d) 1, 3 and 5
conventional chemical farming?\
Q.2 With reference to the water on the planet
1. Permaculture farming discourages
Earth, consider the following statements:
monocultural practices but in
1. The amount of water in the rivers and conventional chemical farming,
lakes is more than the amount of monoculture practices are predominant.
groundwater. 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause
2. The amount of water I n polar ice caps and increase in soil salinity but the occurrence
glaciers is more than the amount of of such phenomenon is not observed in
groundwater. permaculture farming.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily
correct? possible in such regions.
a) 1 only 4. Practice of mulching is very important in
b) 2 only permaculture farming but not necessarily
c) Both 1 and 2 so in conventional chemical farming.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.3 Consider the following statements: below.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 4 only a) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3 b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
Q.6 With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the
d) 1 and 3
Q.10 Among the following, which one is the least
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast
water-efficient crop?
Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some a) Sugarcane
industries producing lipstick and b) Sunflower
perfumes. c) Pearl millet
3. The palm oil can be used to produce d) Red gram
biodiesel.
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections
a) 1 and 2 only of the oceans are warmer than the
b) 2 and 3 only eastern sections owing to the influence of
c) 1 and 3 only trade winds.
d) 1, 2 and 3 2. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make
the eastern sections of oceans warmer
Q.7 With reference to the Indus River system, of
than the western sections
the following four rivers, three of them pour into
one of the which joins the Indus direct. Among Which of the statements given above is/are
the following, which one is such river that joins correct?
the Indus direct?
a) 1 only
a) Chenab b) 2 only
b) Jhelum c) Both 1 and 2
c) Ravi d) Neither 1 and 2
d) Sutlej
Q.12 “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any
Q.8 With references to India, Didwana, other biome and as a result, the soil surface is
Kuchaman, Sargol and khatu are the names of often almost bare. Apart from trees, the
vegetation is largely composed of plant forms
a) Glaciers
that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by
b) Mangrove areas
climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes,
c) Ramsar sites
rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is
d) Saline lakes
the most likely description of
Q.9 Consider the following Rivers:
a) Coniferous forest
1. Brahmani b) Dry deciduous forest
2. Nagavali c) Mangrove forest
3. Subarnarekha d) Tropical rain forest
4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?

Year – 2022 No. of Questions - 13 a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only
Q.1 Consider the following pairs: c) 1 and 3
Region often mentioned in the news: Country d) 3 only
1. Anatolia Turkey Q.5 The term “Levant” often heard in the news
2. Amhara Ethiopia roughly corresponds to which of the following
3. Cabo Delgado Spain regions?
4. Catalonia Italy a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean
How many pairs given above are correctly shores
matched? b) Region along North African shores
stretching from Egypt to Morocco
a) Only one pair c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of
b) Only two pairs Africa
c) Only three pairs d) The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of
d) All four pairs areas
Q.2 Which one of the lakes of West Africa has Q.6 Consider the following countries:
become dry and turned into a desert?
1. Azerbaijan
a) Lake Victoria 2. Kyrgyzstan
b) Lake Faguibine 3. Tajikistan
c) Lake Oguta 4. Uzbekistan
d) Lake Volta 5. Turkmenistan
Q.3 Gandikota canyon of South India was created Which of the above have borders with
by which one of the following rivers ? Afghanistan?
a) Cauvery a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) Manjira b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) Pennar c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) Tungabhadra d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.4 Consider the following pairs: Q.7 With reference to India, consider the
Peak Mountains following statements:
1. Namcha Barwa Garhwal 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.

Himalaya 2. Monazite contains thorium.
2. Nanda Devi Kumaon 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire
Himalaya Indian coastal sands in India.
3. Nokrek Sikkim 4. In India, Government bodies only can
Himalaya process or export monazite.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly Which of the statements given above are correct?
matched? a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
Welfare.
Q.8 In the northern hemisphere, the longest day
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in
of the year normally occurs in the:
Bengaluru.
a) First half of the month of June 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai
b) Second half of the month of June and Moscow.
c) First half of the month of July
d) Second half of the month of July
a) 1 and 3
Q.9 Consider the following States:
b) 2 and 4
1. Andhra Pradesh c) 3 and 4
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar
radiation and cool the surface of the
How many of the above are generally known as
Earth.
tea-producing States?
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of
a) Only one State infrared radiation emanating from the
b) Only two States Earth’s surface and thus cause warming
c) (C) Only three States effect.
d) All four States
Q.10 Consider the following pairs: correct?
Reservoirs : States a) 1 only

b) 2 only
1. Ghataprabha : Telangana
c) Both 1 and 2
2. Gandhi Sagar : Madhya Pradesh
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Indira Sagar : Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon : Chhattisgarh Q.13 “System of Rice Intensification” of
cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying
How many pairs given above are not correctly
of rice fields is practiced, results in:
matched?
1. Reduced seed requirement
a) Only one pair
2. Reduced methane production
b) Only two pairs PAY
3. Reduced electricity consumption
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q.11 With reference to the “Tea Board” in India,
consider the following statements: a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

2013-2022 IAS Prelims Geography Questions with Solutions
2013 1. A 13. D 2018 1. D 8. A

2. A 14. D 2. B 9. C
3. D 15. D 3. B 10. D
4. A 16. D 4. A 11. D
5. A 17. D 5. D 12. C
6. C 18. D 6. A 13. D
7. D 2015 1. A 7. C 14. B
8. C 2. D 8. D 15. B
9. D 3. D 9. C 16. D
10. B 4. A 10. A 17. C
11. A 5. D 1. D 2021 1. C
12. C 6. C 2. B 2. B
13. A 7. B 3. D 3. B
14. A 8. A 4. B 4. B
15. D 9. D 2019 1. A 5. B
16. B 10. A 2. A 6. B
17. C 11. C 3. A 7. A
18. D 12. B 4. B 8. D
19. B 13. A 5. B 9. B
20. C 14. B 6. B 10. A
21. D 2016 1. C 7. A 11. C
22. D 2. D 8. C 12. D
23. D 3. D 9. A 2022 1. B
2014 1. B 4. C 10. B 2. B
2. C 5. D 11. D 3. C
3. C 6. B 12. D 4. B
4. C 7. C 13. A 5. A
5. B 2017 1. C 14. D 6. C
6. A 2. B 2020 1. C 7. B
7. C 3. B 2. D 8. B
8. B 4. A 3. D 9. C
9. C 5. B 4. D 10. C
10. A 6. B 5. D 11. D
11. D 7. A 6. A 12. D
12. C 8. C 7. A 13. D

TOPIC: Economy
ANALYTICS ECONOMY PYQS
(2013-2022)
25
20
20
18 18
15
14 14 14
13 13
10
10
5 6
0
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 18 c) adjusting the balance of payments

d) reducing the foreign debt
Q.1 The balance of payments of a country is a
Q.5 Which of the following constitute Capital
systematic record of
Account?
a) all import and transactions of a during a
1. Foreign Loans
given period normally a year
2. Foreign Direct Investment
b) goods exported from a country during a
3. Private Remittances
year
4. Portfolio Investment
c) economic transaction between the
government of one country to another Select the correct answer using the codes given
d) capital movements from one country to below.
another
a) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2 The Reserve Bank of India regulates the b) 1, 2 and 4
commercial banks in matters of c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion Q.6 Consider the following statements:
3. merger of banks
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
4. winding-up of banks
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
below.
correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
a) 1 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.3 An increase in the Bank Rate generally
Q.7 Disguised unemployment generally means
indicates that the
a) large number of people remain
a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
unemployed
b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to
b) alternative employment is not available
commercial banks
c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
c) Central Bank is following an easy money
d) productivity of workers is low
policy
d) Central Bank is following a tight money Q.8 Consider the following liquid assets:
policy
1. Demand deposits with the banks
2. Time deposits with the banks
Q.4 In India, deficit financing is used for raising 3. Savings deposits with the banks
resources for 4. Currency
a) economic development The correct sequence of these decreasing order

b) redemption of public debt of Liquidity is

a) 1-4-3-2 Q.13 Which one of the following groups of items

b) 4-3-2-1 is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?
c) 2-3-1-4
a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing
d) 4-1-3-2
Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign
Q.9 In the context of Indian economy, Open countries
Market Operations refers to b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of
the RBI and SDRs
a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the
c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the
RBI
World Bank and SDRs
b) lending by commercial banks to industry
d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of
and trade
the RBI and loans from the World Bank
c) purchase and sale of government
securities by the RBI Q.14 Which one of the following is likely to be the
d) None of the above most inflationary in its effect?
Q.10 Priority Sector Lending by banks in India a) Repayment of public debt

constitutes the lending to b) Borrowing from the public to finance a
budget deficit
a) agriculture
c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget
b) micro and small enterprises
deficit
c) weaker sections
d) Creating new money to finance a budget
d) All of the above
deficit
Q.11 To obtain full benefits of demographic
Q.15 Supply of money remaining the same when
dividend, what should India do?
there is an increase in demand for money, there
a) Promoting skill development will be
b) Introducing more social security schemes
a) a fall in the level of prices
c) Reducing infant mortality rate
b) an increase in the rate of interest
d) Privatization of higher education
c) a decrease in the rate of interest
Q.12 A rise in general level of prices may be d) an increase in the level of income and
caused by employment
1. an increase in the money supply Q.16 Economic growth in country X will

2. a decrease in the aggregate level of necessarily have to occur if
output
a) there is technical progress in the world
3. an increase in the effective demand
economy
Select the correct answer using the codes given b) there is population growth in X
below. c) there is capital formation in X
d) the volume of trade grows in the world
a) 1 only
economy
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only Q.17 The national income of a country for a given
d) 1, 2 and 3 period is equal to the

a) total value of goods and services Q.3 The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan
produced by the nationals is
b) sum of total consumption and investment
a) inclusive growth and poverty reductions
expenditure
b) inclusive and sustainable growth
c) sum of personal income of all individuals
c) sustainable and inclusive growth to
d) money value of final goods and services
reduce unemployment
produced
d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive
Q.18 Which of the following grants/ grant direct growth.
credit assistance to rural households?
Q.4 With reference to Balance of Payments,
1. Regional Rural Banks which of the following constitutes/constitute the
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Current Account?
Development
1. Balance of trade
3. Land Development Banks
2. Foreign assets
Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. Balance of invisibles
below: 4. Special Drawing Rights
a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
b) 2 only below.
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3
Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 10 c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.1 The sales tax you pay while purchasing a
Q.5 The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’
toothpaste is a
and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’,
a) tax imposed by the Central Government sometimes appearing in news, are used in
b) tax imposed by the Central Government relation to
but collected by the State Government
a) banking operations
c) tax imposed by the State Government but
b) communication networking
collected by the Central Government
c) (e) military strategies
d) tax imposed and collected by the State
d) supply and demand of agricultural
Government
products
Q.2 What does venture capital mean?
Q.6 What is/are the facility/facilities the
a) A short-term capital provided to industries beneficiaries can get from the services of
b) A long-term start-up capital provided to Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in
new entrepreneurs branchless areas?
c) Funds provided to industries at times of
1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their
incurring losses
subsidies and social security benefits in
d) Funds provided for replacement and
their villages.
renovation of industries

2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural a) The International Monetary Fund

areas to make deposits and withdrawals. b) The United Nations Development
Programme
c) The World Economic Forum
below.
d) The World Bank
a) 1 only
Q.10 With reference to Union Budget, which of
b) 2 only
the following is/are covered under Non-Plan
c) Both 1 and 2
Expenditure?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Defence expenditure
Q.7 In the context of Indian economy; which of
2. Interest payments
the following is/are the purpose/purposes of
3. Salaries and pensions
‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?
4. Subsidies,
1. To enable the Central Bank to control the
amount of advances the banks can create
below.
2. To make the people’s deposits with banks
safe and liquid a) 1 only
3. To prevent the commercial banks from b) 2 and 3 only
making excessive profits c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault d) None
cash to meet their day-to-day
requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.1 ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often
below. seen in the news, seeks to
a) 1 only a) develop national strategies for the

b) 1 and 2 only conservation and sustainable use of
c) 2 and 3 only biological diversity
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) improve banking sector’s ability to deal
with financial and economic stress and
Q.8 If the interest rate is decreased in an
improve risk management
economy, it will
c) reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but
a) decrease the consumption expenditure in places a heavier burden on developed
the economy countries
b) increase the tax collection of the d) transfer technology from developed
Government countries to poor countries to enable
c) increase the investment expenditure in them to replace the use of
the economy chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with
d) increase the total savings in the economy harmless chemicals
Q.9 Which of the following organizations brings Q.2 With reference to the Indian economy,
out the publication known as ‘World Economic consider the following statements:
Outlook’?

1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic b) gold and silver

Product has steadily increased in the last c) dollars and other hard currencies
decade. d) exportable surplus
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market
Q.6 There has been a persistent deficit budget
prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in
year after year. Which of the following actions
the last decade.
can be taken by the government to reduce the
Which of the statements given above is/are deficit?
correct?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
a) 1 only 2. Introducing new welfare schemes
b) 2 only 3. Rationalizing subsidies
c) Both 1 and 2 4. Expanding industries
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.3 With reference to the Indian economy, below.
consider the following
a) 1 and 3 only
1. Bank rate b) 2 and 3 only
2. Open market operations c) 1 only
3. Public debt d) 1,2,3 and 4
4. Public revenue
Q.7 A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country
Which of the above is/are component/ indicates which of the following?
components of Monetary Policy?
1. Slowing economic growth rate
a) 1 only 2. Less equitable distribution of national
b) 2, 3 and 4 income
c) 1 and 2
d) 1, 3 and 4
below.
Q.4 With reference to inflation in India, which of
a) 1 only
the following statements is correct?
b) 2 only
a) Controlling the inflation in India is the c) Both 1 and 2
responsibility of the Government of India d) Neither 1 nor 2
only
Q.8 In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which
b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in
one of the following is given the highest weight?
controlling the inflation
c) Decreased money circulation helps in a) Coal production
controlling the inflation b) Electricity generation
d) Increased money circulation helps in c) Fertilizer production
controlling the inflation d) Steel production
Q.5 The problem of international liquidity is Q.9 The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of
related to the non-availability of sugarcane is approved by the
a) goods and services a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Q.14 Convertibility of rupee implies

Prices
a) being able to convert rupee notes into
c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection,
gold
Ministry of Agriculture
b) allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed
d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee
by market forces
Q.10 Which one of the following issues the c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee
‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically? to other currencies and vice versa
d) developing an international market for
a) The Asian Development Bank
currencies in India
b) The European Bank for Reconstruction
and Development Year – 2016 No. of Questions - 20
c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
d) The World Bank Q.1 The term ‘Core Banking Solutions’ is
sometimes seen in the news. Which of the
Q.11 When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the
following statements best describes/describe this
Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which
term?
of the following is likely to happen?
1. It is a networking of a bank’s branches
a) India’s GDP growth rate increases
that enables customers to operate their
drastically
accounts from any branch of the bank on
b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring
its network regardless of where they open
more capital into our country
their accounts.
c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut
2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over
their lending rates
commercial banks through
d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to
computerization.
the banking system
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank
Q.12 In India, markets in agricultural products are with huge non-performing assets is taken
regulated under the over by another bank.
a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955 Select the correct answer using the code given
b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee below.
Act enacted by States a) 1 only
c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and b) 2 and 3 only
Marking) Act, 1937 c) 1 and 3 only
d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and d) 1, 2 and 3
Food Products Order, 1973
Q.2 With reference to pre-packaged items in
Q.13 Which of the following brings out the India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put
‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial which of the following information on the main
Workers’? label, as per the Food Safety and Standards
a) The Reserve Bank of India (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011?
b) The Department of Economic Affairs
1. List of ingredients including additives
c) The Labour Bureau
2. Nutrition information
d) The Department of Personnel and Training

3. Recommendations, if any, made by the 2. It is headed by the Union Finance

medical profession about the possibility of Minister.
any allergic reactions 3. It monitors macroprudential supervision
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian of the economy.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below. correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.3 India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Q.6 The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is
Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of sometimes seen in the news in the context of
the following has declared that ranking?
a) mining operation by multinational
a) Organization for Economic Cooperation companies in resource-rich but backward
and Development (OECD) areas
b) World Economic Forum b) curbing of the tax evasion by
c) World Bank multinational companies
d) World Trade Organization (WTO) c) exploitation of genetic resources of a
country by multinational companies
Q.4 What is/are the purpose/purposes of the
d) lack of consideration of environmental
`Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate
costs in the planning and implementation
(MCLR)’ announced by RBI?
of developmental projects
1. These guidelines help improve the
Q.7 Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment
transparency in the methodology followed
and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set
by banks for determining the interest
up in [From Current Affairs of 2015-16]
rates on advances.
2. These guidelines help ensure availability a) Andhra Pradesh
of bank credit at interest rates which are b) Gujarat
fair to the borrowers as well as the banks. c) Maharashtra
d) Uttar Pradesh
below. Q.8 With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen
in the news, which of the following statements
a) 1 only
is/are correct?
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks
d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the countries.
2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send
Q.5 With reference to ‘Financial Stability and
and receive Bitcoins from anyone else
Development Council’, consider the following
with a Bitcoin address.
statements:
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.

3. Online payments can be sent without c) SCO

either side knowing the identity of the d) SAARC
other.
Q.12 On which of the following can you find the
Select the correct answer using the code given Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?
below.
1. Ceiling fans
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Electric geysers
b) 2 and 3 only 3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
below.
Q.9 What is/are the purpose/purposes of the
a) 1 and 2 only
Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and
b) 3 only
‘Gold Monetization Scheme’?
c) 2 and 3 only
1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian d) 1, 2 and 3
households into the economy
Q.13 ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes
2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery
seen in the news, is an
sector
3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold a) agency created by EU to deal with the
imports impact of millions of refugees arriving
from Middle East
b) agency of EU that provides financial
below.
assistance to eurozone countries
a) 1 only c) agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral
b) 2 and 3 only and multilateral agreements on trade
c) 1 and 3 only d) agency of EU to deal with the conflicts
d) 1, 2 and 3 arising among the member countries
Q.10 ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is Q.14 There has been a persistent deficit budget
prepared by the year after year. Which action/actions of the
following can be taken by the Government to
a) European Central Bank
reduce the deficit?
b) International Monetary Fund
c) International Bank for Reconstruction and 1. Reducing revenue expenditure
Development 2. Introducing new welfare schemes
d) Organization for Economic Cooperation 3. Rationalizing subsidies
and Development 4. Reducing import duty
Q.11 The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Select the correct answer using the code given
Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news below.
in the context of the affairs of a group of a) 1 only
countries known as b) 2 and 3 only
a) G20 c) 1 and 3 only
b) ASEAN d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.15 The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is 3. Loans and advances granted to the States
being allowed in India to promote financial and Union Territories
inclusion. Which of the following statements
is/are correct in this context?
below.
1. Mobile telephone companies and
a) 1 only
supermarket chains that are owned and
b) 2 and 3 only
controlled by residents are eligible to be
c) 1 and 3 only
promoters of Payment Banks.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards
and debit cards. Q.18 Recently, which one of the following
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending currencies has been proposed to be added to the
activities. basket of the IMF’s SDR? [From Current Affairs
2015-16]
below. a) Rouble
b) Rand
a) 1 and 2 only
c) Indian Rupee
b) 1 and 3 only
d) Renminbi
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.19 With reference to the International
Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC),
Q.16 With reference to `IFC Masala Bonds’,
sometimes seen in the news, which of the
statements given below is/are correct? 1. IMFC discusses matters of concern
affecting the global economy and advises
1. The International Finance Corporation,
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on
which offers these bonds, is an arm of the
the direction of its work.
World Bank.
2. The World Bank participates as an
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds
observer in IMFC’s meetings.
and are a source of debt financing for the
public and private sector. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
below. a) 1 only
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q 20. Which of the following best describes the
term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the
Q.17 Which of the following is/are included in the
news?
capital budget of the Government of India?
a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the
1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like Gross Domestic Product of a country
roads, buildings, machinery, etc. b) It is the total value of imports of a country
2. Loans received from foreign governments in a year

c) It is the ratio between the value of exports Q.3 Consider the following statements:
and that of imports between two
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India
countries
has steadily increased in the last decade.
d) It is the number of months of imports that
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India
could be paid for by a country’s
has steadily increased in the last decade.
international reserves
correct?
Q.1 With reference to ‘National Investment and a) 1 only
Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following b) 2 only
statements is/are correct? c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at Q.4 What is the purpose of setting up Small
present. Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. To supply credit to small business units
below: 2. To supply credit to small and marginal
farmers
a) 1 only
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set
b) 2 only
up business particularly in rural areas.
c) Both 1 and 2
below:
Q.2 What is/are the most likely advantages of
implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by
c) 1 and 3 only
multiple authorities and will thus create a
d) 1, 2 and 3
single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Q.5 Which of the following is the most likely
Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it consequence of implementing the ‘Unified
to increase its foreign exchange reserves. Payments Interface (UPI)’?
3. It will enormously increase the growth
a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for
and size of the economy of India and will
online payments.
enable it to overtake China in the near
b) Digital currency will totally replace the
future.
physical currency in about two decades.
Select the correct answer using the code given c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
below: d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people
will become very effective.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.6 Which of the following statements is/are
c) 1 and 3 only correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee
d) 1, 2 and 3 (MPC)?

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest the Central Government and 20% for the
rates. State Governments.
2. It is a 12-member body including the 2. The Central Government has domestic
Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to
year. that of war of GDP of the State 2
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Governments.
Union Finance Minister. 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is
mandatory for a State to take the Central
Government’s consent for raising any loan
below:
if the former owes any outstanding
a) 1 only liabilities to the latter.
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
correct?
d) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
Q.1 Which one of the following best describes the c) 1 and 3 only
term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen d) 1, 2 and 3
in the news? Q.3 Consider the following statements
a) The incentive given by a bank to a 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is
merchant for accepting payments through more than the domestic production of
debit cards pertaining to that bank. 2. edible oils in the last five years.
b) The amount paid back by banks to their 3. The Government does not impose any
customers when they use debit cards for customs duty on all the imported edible
financial transactions for purchasing 4. oils a special case.
goods or services.
Which of two statements given above is/are
c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for
correct
accepting payments from his customers
through the bank’s debit cards. a) 1 only
d) The incentive given by the Government, b) 2 only
to merchants for promoting digital c) Both 1 and 2
payments by their customers through d) Neither 1 nor 2
Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit
Q.4 Which one of the following links all the ATMs
cards.
in India?
Q.2 Consider the following statements
a) Indian banks’ Association
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget b) National Securities Depository Limited
Management (FRBM) Review Committee c) National Payments Corporation of India
Report has recommended a debt to GDP d) Reserve Bank of India
ratio of 60% for the general (combined)
government by 2023, comprising 40% for

Q.5 Which one of the following statements 4. accumulation of intangible wealth.

correctly describes the meaning of legal tender
money?
correct?
a) The money which is tendered in courts of
a) 1 and 2
law to defray the fee of legal cases
b) 2 only
b) The money which a creditor is under
c) 2 and 4
compulsion to accept in settlement of his
d) 1, 3 and 4
claims
c) The bank money in the form of cheques, Q.9 Despite being a high saving economy, capital
drafts, bills of exchange, etc. formation may not result in significant increase in
d) The metallic money in circulation in a output due to
country
a) weak administrative machinery
Q.6 If a commodity is provided free to the public b) illiteracy
by the Government, then c) high population density
d) high capital-output ratio
a) the opportunity cost is zero.
b) the opportunity cost is ignored. Q.10 Consider the following statements:
c) the opportunity cost is transferred from
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and
the consumers of the product to the tax-
services Government of India Securities
paying public.
but not any State Government Securities.
d) the opportunity cost is transferred from
2. Treasury bills are issued by the
the consumers of the product to the
Government of India and there are no
Government.
treasury bills issued by the State
Q.7 Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP Governments.
do not connote a higher level of economic 3. Treasury bills offered are issued at a
development, if discount from the par value.
a) industrial output fails to keep pace with Which of the statements given above is/are
agricultural output. correct?
b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with
a) 1 and 2 only
industrial output.
b) 3 Only
c) poverty and unemployment increase.
c) 2 and 3 only
d) imports grow faster than exports.
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.8 Consider the following statements: Human
capital formation as a concept is better explained
in terms of a process, which enables 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the
amount that banks have to maintain in
1. individuals of a country to accumulate
the form of their own funds to offset any
more capital.
loss that banks incur if the account-
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and
holders fail to repay dues.
capacities of the people of the country.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are Year – 2019 No. of Questions - 13
correct?
Q.1 In a given year in India, official poverty lines
a) 1 only
are higher in some states than in others because
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 a) poverty rates vary from State to State
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) price levels vary from State to State
c) Gross State Product varies from State to
Q.12 With reference to digital payments, consider
State
the following statements:
d) quality of public distribution varies from
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer State to State
money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank
Q.2 The money multiplier in an economy
account.
increases with which one of the following?
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four
factors of authentication, BHIM app has a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
only two factors of authentication. b) Increase in the banking habit of the
population
c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
correct?
d) Increase in the population of the country
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives
d) Neither 1 nor 2 relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’,
popularly known as data diktat, command the
Q.13 With reference to the governance of public
payment system providers that
sector banking in India, consider the following
statements 1. they shall ensure that entire data relating
to payment systems operated by them are
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks
stored in a system only in India
by the Government of India has steadily
2. they shall ensure that the systems are
increased in the last decade.
owned and operated by public sector
2. To put the public sector banks in order,
enterprises
the merger of associate banks with the
3. they shall submit the consolidated system
parent State Bank of India has been
audit report to the Comptroller and
affected.
Auditor General of India by the end of the
Which of the statements given above is/are calendar year
correct?
a) 1 only correct?
b) b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.4 Which one of the following is not the most a) 1 and 2 only
likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop b) 2 only
the slide of Indian rupee? c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods
and promoting exports Q.7 Which of the following is issued by registered
b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors
rupee-denominated Masala Bonds who want to be part of the Indian stock market
c) Easing conditions relating to external without registering themselves directly?
commercial borrowing
a) Certificate of Deposit
d) Following an expansionary monetary
b) Commercial Paper
policy
c) Promissory Note
Q.5 Consider the following statements d) Participatory Note
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange Q.8 In the context of India, which of the following
rates are calculated by comparing the factors is/are contributors to reducing the risk of
prices of the same basket of goods and a currency crisis?
services in different countries.
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth-
sector
largest economy in the world.
2. Increasing the government expenditure
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Remittances from Indians abroad
correct?
a) 1 only below.
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) 2 only
Q.6 With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, d) 1, 2 and 3
which of the following statements is/are correct?
Q.9 Which of the following is not included in the
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there assets of a commercial bank in India?
was a determined thrust towards
a) Advances
substitution of basic and capital good
b) Deposits
industries.
c) Investments
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the
d) (d). Money at call and short notice
objective of correcting the earlier trend of
increased concentration of wealth and Q.10 Consider the following statements:
economic power.
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first
governmental entities.
time, the financial sector was included as
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated
an integral part of the Plan.
in US dollars.
below.

correct?
Q.1 What is the importance of the term “Interest
a) 1 only
Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India?
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. (1)It helps in understanding the present
d) Neither 1 nor 2 risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a
loan to.
Q.11 The economic cost of food grains to the
2. (2) It helps in evaluating the emerging risk
Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support
of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan
Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
to.
a) transportation cost only 3. (3) The higher a borrowing firm’s level of
b) interest cost only Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its
c) procurement incidentals and distribution ability to service its debt.
cost
d) procurement incidentals and charges for
below:
godowns
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.12 The Chairman of public sector banks are
b) 2 only
selected by the
c) 1 and 3 only
a) Banks Board Bureau d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Reserve Bank of India
Q.2Which of the following factors/policies were
c) Union Ministry of Finance
affecting the price of rice in India in the recent
d) Management of concerned bank
past?
Q.13 What was the purpose of the Inter Creditor
1. Minimum Support Price
Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial
2. Government’s trading
institutions recently?
3. Government’s stockpiling
a) To lessen the Government of India’s 4. Consumer subsidies
perennial burden of fiscal deficit and
current account deficit
below:
b) To support the infrastructure projects of
Central and State Governments a) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) To act as independent regulator in case of b) 1, 3 and 4 only
applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or c) 2 and 3 only
more d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed Q.3Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-
assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are- term credit support is given to farmers for which
under consortium lending of the following purposes ?
1. Working capital for maintenance of farm

assets harvesters,

2. Purchase of combine tractors and mini 6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the
trucks requirements of farm governments.
3. Consumption households
4. Post-harvest expenses
below:
5. Construction of family house and setting
up of village cold storage facility a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 3 and 6 only
below:
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
Q.6 With reference to the Indian economy,
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
consider the following statements :
c) 2,3,4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 1. Commercial Paper is a short-term
unsecured promissory note.
Q.4 Consider the following statements :
2. Certificate of Deposit is a long-term
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Instrument issued by RBI to a corporation.
Index (CPI) is higher than that in 3. ‘Call Money’ is short-term finance used for
Wholesale Price Index (WPI). interbank transactions.
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the 4. “Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest-
prices of services, which CPI does. bearing short-term bonds issued by the
3. The Reserve Bank of India has now Scheduled Commercial Banks to
adopted WPI as its key measure of corporations.
inflation and to decide on changing the
key policy rates.
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
b) 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 only
Q.7 With reference to the international trade of
d) 1, 2 and 3
India at present, which of the following
Q.5 In India, which of the following can be statements is/are correct?
considered as public investment in agriculture?
1. India’s merchandise exports are less than
1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for its merchandise imports.
agricultural produce of all crops 2. India’s imports of iron and steel,
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have
Credit Societies decreased in recent years.
3. Social Capital development 3. India’s exports of services are more than
4. Free electricity supply to farmers its imports of services.
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the 4. India suffers from an overall trade/current
banking system account deficit.

Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity
below: Ratio
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility
a) 1 and 2 only
Rate
b) 2 and 4 only
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
c) 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q.8 In the context of the Indian economy, non-
financial debt includes which of the following? a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
1. Housing loans owed by households
c) 1 and 3 only
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Treasury bills
Q.11 With reference to the Indian economy after
the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the
below:
a) 1 only
1. Worker productivity (Rs per worker at
b) 1 and 2 only
2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas
c) 3 only
while it decreased in rural areas.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the
Q.9 With reference to Trade-Related Investment workforce steadily increased.
Measures (TRIMS), which of the following 3. In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm
statements is/are correct? economy increased.
4. The growth rate in rural employment
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by
decreased.
foreign investors are prohibited.
2. They apply to investment measures Which of the statements given above is/are
related to trade in both goods and correct?
services.
a) 1 and 2 only
3. They are not concerned with the
b) 3 and 4 only
regulation of foreign investment.
c) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given d) 1, 2 and 4 only
below:
a) 1 and 2 only
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to
b) 2 only
the agriculture sector, District Central
c) 1 and 3 only
Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more
d) 1, 2 and 3
credit in comparison to Scheduled
Q.10 If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist Commercial Banks and Regional Rural
monetary policy, which of the following would it Banks.
not do? 2. One of the most important functions of
DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary
Agricultural Credit Societies.
correct?
Q.1 The money multiplier in an economy
a) 1 only
increases with which one of the following?
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 banks.
b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in
Q.13 If another global financial crisis happens in
the banks
the near future, which of the following
c) Increase in the banking habit of the
actions/policies are most likely to give some
people
immunity to India?
d) Increase in the population of the country
1. Not depending on short-term foreign
borrowings
demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by
2. Opening up to more foreign banks
which of the following?
3. Maintaining full capital account
convertibility 1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
below:
4. Higher purchasing power
a) 1 only 5. Rising interest rates
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
below.
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.14 If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
immediate effect on aggregate money supply in
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
the economy will be
Q.3 With reference to India, consider the
a) to reduce it by 1,00,000
b) to increase it by 1,00,000
c) to increase it by more than 1,00,000 1. Retail investors through Demat account
d) to leave it unchanged can invest in Treasury Bills and
Government of India Debt Bonds in the
primary market
2. The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering
Matching” is a government securities
trading platform of the Reserve Bank of
India.
3. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is
jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of
India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are Q.6 With reference to the casual workers
correct? employed in India, consider the following
statements:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 1. All casual workers are entitled to
c) 3 only employees Provident Fund Coverage
d) 2 and 3 2. All casual workers are entitled to regular
working hours and overtime payment
Q.4 In India, the Central Bank’s function as the
3. The government can by notification
“lender of last resort” usually refers to which of
specify that an establishment or industry
the following?
shall pay wages only through its bank
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies account.
when they fail to borrow from other
Which of the above statements are correct?
sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a a) 1 and 2 only
temporary crisis b) 2 and 3 only
3. Lending to governments to finance c) 1 and 3 only
budgetary deficits d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.7 Which among the following steps is most
below likely to be taken at the time of an economic
recession?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase
c) 2 and 3 in interest rate
d) 3 only b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by
reduction of interest rate
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India d) Reduction of expenditure on public
(RBI) is appointed by the Central projects
Government.
Q.8 Consider the following statements other
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of
things remaining unchanged, market demand for
India give the Central Government the
a good might increase if
right to issue directions to the RBI in the
public interest. 1. Price of its substitute increases
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power 2. Price of its complement increases
from the RBI Act. 3. The good is an inferior good and income
of the consumers increases
4. Its price falls
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only
Q.9 With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks
c) 2 and 4
in India, consider the following statements:
d) 1 and 4
1. They are supervised and regulated by
Q.12 Consider the following statements: The
local boards set up by the State
effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it
Governments.
necessarily
2. They can issue equity shares and
preference shares. 1. Improves the competitiveness of the
3. They were brought under the purview of domestic exports in the foreign markets
the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through 2. Increase the foreign value of the domestic
an Amendment in 1996 currency
3. Improves the trade balance
correct? Which of the above statements is/are
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 only c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 and 3
Q.10 Indian Government Bond yields are Q.13 Which one of the following effects of
influenced by which of the following? creation of black money in India has been the
main cause of worry to the Government of India?
1. Actions of the United States Federal
Reserve a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India real estate and investment in luxury
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates. housing
b) Investment in unproductive activities and
purchase of precious stones, jewellery,
below
gold etc.
a) 1 and 2 only c) Large donations to political parties and
b) 2 only growth of regionalism
c) 3 only d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer
d) 1, 2 and 3 due to tax evasion
Q.11 Consider the following: Q.14 Which one of the following is likely to be
one of the most inflationary in its effects?
1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
a) Repayment of public debt
2. Foreign institutional investment with
b) Borrowing from the public to finance a
certain conditions
budget deficit
3. Global depository receipts
c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a
4. Non-resident external deposits
budget deficit
Which of the above can be included in Foreign
d) Creation of new money to finance a
Direct Investments?
budget deficit

Year – 2022 No. of Questions - 18 a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only
Q.1 “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid c) 1 and 3 only
Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of d) 1, 2 and 3
lending by which of the following:
Q.4With reference to the “G20 Common
a) Asian Development Bank Framework”, consider the following statements:
b) International Monetary Fund
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20
c) United Nations Environment Programme
together with the Paris Club.
Finance Initiative
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income
d) World Bank
Countries with unsustainable debt.
correct?
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange
a) 1 only
Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of
b) 2 only
rupee.
c) Both 1 and 2
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in
trade competitiveness. Q.5 With reference to the India economy, what
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds
relative to inflation in other countries is (IIBs)”?
likely to cause an increasing divergence
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates
between NEER and REER.
on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. IIGs provide protection to the investors
from uncertainty regarding inflation.
a) 1 and 2 only
3. The interest received as well as capital
b) 2 and 3 only
gains on IIBs are not taxable.
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q.3 With reference to the Indian economy, a) 1 and 2 only
consider the following statements: b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of
d) 1, 2 and 3
India (RBI) is likely to buy government
securities. Q .6 With reference to foreign-owned e-
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is commerce firms operating in India, which of the
likely to sell dollars in the market. following statements is/are correct?
3. If interest rates in the USA or European
1. They can sell their own goods in addition
Union were to fall, that is likely to induce
to offering their platforms as market-
RBI to buy dollars.
places.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. The degree to which they can own big
sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. Acquiring new technology is capital
below: expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital
a) 1 only
expenditure, while equity financing is
b) 2 only
considered revenue expenditure.
c) Both 1 and 2
below:
Q.7 Which of the following activities constitute
real sector in the economy? a) 1 only
b) 2 only
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
c) Both 1 and 2
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into
d) Neither 1 nor 2
fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a Q.10 With reference to the Indian economy,
trading company consider the following statements:
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee
1. A share of the household financial savings
Denominated Bonds overseas
goes towards government borrowings.
a) 1 and 2 only
2. Dated securities issued at market-related
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
rates in auctions form a large component
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
of internal debt.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q.8 Which one of the following situations best
reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in a) 1 only
media recently with reference to India? b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) An Indian company investing in a foreign
d) Neither 1 nor 2
enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign
country on the profits arising out of its Q.11 With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital
investment Mission, consider the following statements:
b) A foreign company investing in India and
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
paying taxes to the country of its base on
2. As it aims to achieve universal health
the profits arising out of its investment
coverage, every citizen of India should be
c) An Indian company purchases tangible
part of it ultimately.
assets in a foreign country and sells such
3. It has seamless portability across the
assets after their value increases and
country.
transfers the proceeds to India
d) A foreign company transfers shares and Which of the statements given above is/are
such shares derive their substantial value correct?
from assets located in India
a) 1 and 2 only
Q .9 With reference to the expenditure made by b) 3 only
an organisation or a company, which of the c) 1 and 3 only
following statements is/are correct? d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.12 Consider the following statements: a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal
c) 1 and 3 only
Reserve could lead to capital flight.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Capital flight may increase the interest
cost of firms with existing External Q.15 Convertible Bonds, consider the following
Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). statements:
3. Devaluation of domestic currency
1. As there is an option to exchange the
decreases the currency risk associated
bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a
with ECBS.
lower rate of interest.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. The option to convert to equity affords
the bondholder a degree of indexation to
a) 1 and 2 only
rising consumer prices.
b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
Q.13 Consider the following statements: a) 1 only

b) 2 only
1. In India, credit rating agencies are
c) Both 1 and 2
regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The rating agency popularly known as
ICRA is a public limited company. Q.16 In India, which one of the following is
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating responsible for maintaining price stability by
agency. controlling inflation?
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) Department of Consumer Affairs
b) Expenditure Management Commission
a) 1 and 2 only
c) Financial Stability and Development
b) 2 and 3 only
Council
c) 1 and 3 only
d) Reserve Bank of India
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.17 With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens
Q.14 With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau
(NFTs), consider the following statements:
(BBB)’, which of the following statements are
correct? 1. They enable the digital representation of
physical assets.
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that
BBB.
exist on a blockchain.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of
3. They can be traded or exchanged at
heads for Public Sector Banks.
equivalency and therefore can be used as
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in
a medium transaction. of commercial
developing strategies and capital raising
plans. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given a) 1 and 2 only
below: b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only a) Central Statistics Office

d) 1, 2 and 3 b) Department for Promotion of Industry and
Internal Trade
Q.18 In India, which one of the following compiles
c) Labour Bureau
information on industrial disputes, closures,
d) National Technical Manpower Information
retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing
System
workers?
2013-2022 IAS Prelims Economy Questions with Solutions
2013 1. A 2015 1. B 15. B 5. A 7. B

2. D 16. C 6. A 8. A
3. D 2. C 17. D 7. D 9. B
4. A 3. C 18. D 8. B 10. D
5. D 4. C 19. C 9. B 11. A
6. A 5. C 20. D 10. D 12. A
7. C 6. A 2017 1. D 11. C 13. D
8. D 7. B 2. A 12. A 14. D
9. C 8. B 3. D 13. D 2022 1. B
10. D 9. A 4. A 2020 1. C 2. C
11. A 10. D 5. A 2. D 3. B
12. D 11. C 6. A 3. B 4. C
13. B 12. B 2018 1. C 4. A 5. A
14. D 13. C 2. C 5. C 6. B
15. B 14. C 3. A 6. C 7. A
16. C 2016 1. A 4. C 7. D 8. D
17. A 2. C 5. B 8. D 9. A
18. C 3. C 6. D 9. C 10. C
2014 1. D 4. C 7. C 10. B 11. D
2. B 5. C 8. B 11. B 12. A
3. D 6. B 9. D 12. B 13. B
4. C 7. A 10. C 13. A 14. B
5. A 8. B 11. A 14. C 15. C
6. C 9. C 12. A 2021 1. C 16. D
7. A 10. B 13. C 2. A 17. A
8. C 11. B 2019 1. B 3. B 18. C
9. A 12. D 2. B 4. B
10. C 13. B 3. A 5. C
14. C 4. D 6. C

TOPIC: Ancient Indian History
ANALYTICS ANCIENT HISTORY PYQS (2013-2022)

10
5
4
4
3
3
2 2 2
2
1 1 1 1 1
1
0
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 1 a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2 a nd 3 only
Q.1 Which of the following c) 1, 3 and 4
characterizes/characterize the people of the d) 3 and 4 only
Indus Valley Civilization?
1. They possessed great palaces and temples
2. They worshipped both male and female Q.1 Which one of the following books of Ancient
deities India has the love story of the son of the founder
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots of the Sunga Dynasty?
a) Swapnavasavadatta
Select the correct statement/statements using b) Malavikagnimitra
the codes given below: c) Meghadoota
a) 1 and 2 only d) Ratnavali
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 Q.2 In the context of the history of India, consider
d) None of the statements given above is the following pairs:
correct Term Description
Land, revenue from which was
Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 1 Eripatti set apart for the maintenance
of the village tank
Q.1 Which of the following kingdoms were
Villages donated to a single
associated with the life of the Buddha? Taniyurs
Brahmin or a group of Brahmins
1. Avanti
Colleges generally attached to
2. Gandhara Ghatikas
the temples
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
matched?
a) 1 and 2
below:
b) 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 3
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4
Year – 2015 No. of Question - 1

Q.1 With reference to the difference between the
culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley
Q.1 Which of the following kingdoms were
people, which of the following statements is/are
associated with the life of the Buddha?
correct?
1. Avanti
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and
2. Gandhara
helmet in warfare whereas the people of
3. Kosala
Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any
4. Magadha
evidence of using them.
below:
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and d. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as
copper whereas Indus Valley people knew the forced labourer.
only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the Year – 2020 No. of Questions - 3
horse whereas there is no evidence of
Q.1 Which of the following phrases defines the
Indus Valley people having been aware of
nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the
this animal.
sources of the post-Harsha period?
a. An advisory issued by the king to his
below:
subordinates
a. 1 only
b. A diary to be maintained for daily
b. 2 and 3 only
accounts
c. 1 and 3 only
c. A bill of exchange
d. 1, 2 and 3
d. An order from the feudal lord to his
Year – 2018 No. of Questions - 1 subordinates
Q.1 With reference to Indian history, who among Q.2 Who among the following rulers advised his
the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to subjects through this inscription?
save the world?
“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames
a. Avalokiteshvara
other sects out of excessive devotion to his own
b. Lokesvara
sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he
c. Maitreya
rather injures his own sect very severely.”
d. Padmapani
a. Ashoka
b. Samudragupta
c. Harshavardhana
Q.1 Which one of the following is not a Harappan d. Krishnadeva Raya
site?
Q.3 With reference to the period of the Gupta
a. Chanhudaro
dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala,
b. Kot Diji
Kadura and Chaul were well known as
c. Sohgaura
a. ports handling foreign trade
d. Desalpur
b. capitals of powerful kingdoms
Q.2 With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in c. places of exquisite stone art and
India during the Gupta period, which one of the architecture
following statements is correct? d. important Buddhist pilgrimage centres
a. It was considered a source of income for
the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
b. It was totally absent in the Madhya
Q.1 Which one of the following ancient towns is
Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the
well known for its elaborate system of water
Gupta Empire.
harvesting and management by building a series
c. The forced labourer was entitled to
of dams and channelising water into connected
weekly wages.
reservoirs?
b. Dholavira c. 1 and 3
c. Kalibangan d. 3 only
d. Rakhigarhi
e. Ropar Q.4 With reference to the history of ancient India,
Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were
Q.2 From the decline of Guptas until the rise of famous
Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, a. Jain monks
which of the following kingdoms were holding b. playwrights
power in Northern India? c. temple architects
1. The Guptas of Magadha d. philosophers
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar Year – 2022 No. of Questions - 2
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
Q.1 According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
the following are correct?
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a
judicial punishment.
below: 2. If a female slave bore her master a son,
a. 1, 2 and 5 she was legally free.
b. 1, 3, 4 and 6 3. If a son born to a female slave was
c. 2, 3 and 4 fathered by her master, the son was
d. 5 and 6 entitled to the legal status of the master’s
son.
Q.3 With reference to the history of ancient India, Which of the statements given above are correct?
which of the following statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only
1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper b. 2 and 3 only
castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for c. 1 and 3 only
lower castes. d. 1, 2 and 3
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can
Q.2 With reference to Indian history, consider the
claim the right to the property during the
following pairs:
lifetime of the father, whereas in the
Historical person Known as
Dayabhaga system, it is only after the
1. Aryadeva Jaina scholar
death of the father that the sons can claim 2. Dignaga Buddhist scholar
the right to the property. 3. Nathamuni Vaishnava scholar
3. The Mitakshara system deals with matters How many pairs given above are correctly
related to the property held by male matched?
members only of a family, whereas the a. None of the pairs
Dayabhaga system deals with the matters b. Only one pair
related to the property held by both male c. Only two pairs
and female members of a family. d. All three pairs
below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
2013-2022 IAS Prelims Ancient History Questions with Solutions
2022 1. D 2. A 2. D
2. C 3. A 2015 1. D
2021 1. A 2019 1. C 2014 1. C
2. B 2. A 2013 1. B
3. B 2018 1. C
4. B 2017 1. C
2020 1. C 2016 1. B

TOPIC: Medieval History
ANALYTICS MEDIEVAL HISTORY PYQS

(2013-2022)
7
6
6
4
4 4
2
2 2 2 2
1
1 1 1
0
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 1 Year – 2015 No. of Questions - 3
Q.1 Consider the following Bhakti Saints: Q.1 Consider the following pairs:
1. Dadu Dayal Medieval Indian State Present Region

2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja 1. Champaka Central India
2. Durgura Jammu
Who among the above was/were preaching when 3. Kuluta Malabar
the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
Which of the above pairs is / are correctly
(a) 1 and 3 matched?
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 2 (d) 1 and 3 Only
Q.1 In medieval India, the designations Q.2 Consider the following:

‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for
The arrival of Babur into India led to the
a) military officers
1. introduction of gunpowder in the
b) village headmen
subcontinent
c) specialists in Vedic rituals
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the
d) chiefs of craft guilds
region’s architecture
Q.2 Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was 3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the
region
a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family
b) Akbar’s private chamber prayer Select the correct answer using the code given
c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions below.
with scholars of various religions.
a) 1 and 2 only
d) the room in which the nobles belonging to
b) 3 only
different religions gathered to discuss
c) 1 and 3 only
religious affairs
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.3 With reference to Indian history, which of the

following is/are the essential elements of the
feudal system?
1. A very strong centralized political

authority and a very weak provincial or
local political authority
2. Emergence of administrative structure
based on control and possession of land
3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship Year – 2017 No. of Questions - 1

between the feudal lord and his overlord
Q 1. Which one of the following was a very
Select the correct answer using the code given important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?
below.
a) Kakinada
a) 1 and 2 only b) Motupalli
b) 2 and 3 only c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
c) 3 only d) Nelluru
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 1. With reference to the cultural history of
Q 1. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna India, consider the following statements :
Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the
following statements : 1. White marble was used in making Buland
Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending 2. Red sandstone and marble were used in
on the quality of the land. making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza
2. Private owners of workshops paid an at Lucknow.
industry tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 2. Banjaras during the medieval period of
Indian history were generally Q 1. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are
the difference/differences between Jagirdar and
a) agriculturists Zamindar?
b) warriors 1. Jagirdars were holders of land
c) weavers assignments in lieu of judicial and police
d) traders duties, whereas Zamindars were holders
of revenue rights without obligation to
perform any duty other than revenue
collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were
hereditary and revenue rights of
Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given Year – 2020 No. of Questions - 2
below.
a) 1 only Q 1. Consider the following events in the history
b) 2 only of India:
c) Both 1 and 2
1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Establishment of Pallava power under
Q 2. Consider the following statements: Mahendravarman – I
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi 3. Establishment of Chola power by
Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue Parantaka – I
collection was known as ‘Amil’. 4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an
What is the correct chronological order of the
ancient indigenous institution.
above events, starting from the earliest time?
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into
existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans a) 2-1-4-3
of Delhi. b) 3-1-4-2
Which of the statements given above is/are c) 2-4-1-3
correct? d) 3-4-1-2
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only Q 2. With reference to the history of India, the
c) 3 only terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) measurement of land
Q 3. Consider the following statements: b) coins of different monetary value
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of c) classification of urban land
Akbar. d) religious rituals
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by
Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Year – 2021 No. of Questions - 4
Q 1. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the
correct?
women in the Vijayanagara empire were expert
a) 1 only in which of the following areas?
b) 2 only
1. Wrestling
c) Both 1 and 2
2. Astrology
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Accounting
Q 4. Who among the following Mughal Emperors 4. Soothsaying
shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to
the album and individual portrait?
below:
a) Humayun
b) Akbar a) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) Jahangir b) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) Shah Jahan c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Year – 2022 No. of Questions - 6
Q 2. Consider the following statements: Q 1. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred
1. It was during the reign of Iltumish that to:
Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit
of the fugitive Khwarezm prince. a) Clothing
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin b) (b)Coins
Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and
c) Ornaments
crossed the Indus.
d) Weapons
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of
Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama
Q 2. With reference to Indian history, consider
reached the coast of Kerala.
correct? 1. The first Mongol invasion of India
a) 1 only happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din
b) 1 and 2 Khalji.
c) 3 only 2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one
d) 2 and 3 Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and
besieged the city.
Q 3. With reference to medieval India, which one 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost
of the following is the correct sequence in portions of north-west of his kingdom to
ascending order in terms of size? Mongols.
a) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba Which of the statements given above is/are

b) Sarkar – Paragana – Suba correct?
c) Suba – Sarkar – Paragana
d) Paragana – Suba – Sarkar a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
Q 4. With reference to Indian history, which of c) 1 and 3
the following statements is/are correct? d) 3 only
1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of
Hyderabad state. Q 3. With reference to Indian history, who of the
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran” ?
Vijayanagara empire.
a) Arab merchants
3. Rohilkhand kingdom was formed out of
b) Qalandars
the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah
c) Persian calligraphists
Durrani.
d) Sayyids
Q 4. Consider the following pairs:
below:
King Dynasty
a) 1 and 2
1. Nannuka Chandela
b) 2 only
2. Jayashakti Paramara
c) 2 and 3
3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara
d) 3 only
4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly Q 6. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting
matched? pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime
Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which
a) Only one pair one of the following statements correctly
b) Only two pairs represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly
Q 5. “Yogavãsistha” was translated into Persian authoritative.
by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of: c) Logical arguments were meant for the
highest bliss.
a) Akbar
d) Salvation was to be obtained through
b) Humayun
meditation.
c) Shahjahan
d) Aurangzeb
2013-2022 IAS Prelims Medieval History Questions with Solutions
2013 1. B 2016 1. C 2020 1. C 2022 1. B

2014 1. B 2. D 2. A 2. C
2. C 2017 1. B 2021 1. D 3. D
2015 1. B 2018 1. A 2. A 4. B
2. C 2019 1. D 3. A 5. A
2. A 4. A 6. A
3. A
4. D

TOPIC: Modern History

ANALYTICS MODERN HISTORY PYQS
(2013-2022)
14
13
12
10
8
8 8
7
6
6 6 6
4
4 4 4
0
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 6 Q.4 Quit India Movement was launched in
response to
Q.1 With reference to Indian History, the
Members of the Constituent Assembly a) Cabinet Mission Plan
from the Provinces were b) Cripps Proposals
c) Simon Commission Report
a) directly elected by the people of those d) Wavell Plan
Provinces
b) nominated by the Indian National Q.5 Annie Besant was
Congress and the Muslim League
1. responsible for starting the Home Rule
c) elected by the Provincial Legislative
Movement
Assemblies
2. the founder of the Theosophical Society
d) selected by the Government for their
3. once the President of the Indian National
expertise in constitutional matters
Congress
Q.2 The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant
Select the correct statement/statements using
Movement in Bengal was for
the codes given below.
a) the reduction of the share of the landlords
a) 1 only
from one-half of the crop to one-third
b) 2 and 3 only
b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants
c) 1 and 3 only
as they were the actual cultivators of the
d) 1, 2 and 3
land
c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and Q.6 The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
the end of serfdom
d) writing off all peasant debts a) imposition restrictions the Indians of
certain to carry arms by Indians
Q.3 The people of India agitated against the b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers
arrival of Simon Commission because and magazines published in Indian
languages
a) Indians never wanted the review of the
c) removal of disqualifications imposed on
working of the Act of 1919
the Indian magistrates with regard to the
b) Simon Commission recommended the
trial of the Europeans
abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the
d) removal of a duty on imported cotton
c) Provinces
cloth
d) there was no Indian member in the Simon
Commission the Simon Commission Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 5
suggested the partition of the country
Q.1 The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon
in 1905 lasted until
a) the First World War when Indian troops
were needed by the British and the
partition was ended.

b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at b) 2 only

the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911 c) 1 and 3 only
c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience d) 1, 2 and 3
Movement
d) the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Q.5 The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
Bengal became East Pakistan
a) Solve the problems of minorities in India
Q.2 The 1929 Session of the Indian National b) Give effect to Independence Bill
Congress is of significance in the history of the c) Delimit boundaries between India and
Freedom Movement because the Pakistan
d) Enquire into riots in East Bengal
a) attainment of Self-Government was
declared as the objective of the Congress Year – 2015 No. of Questions - 8
b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted
Q.1 Consider the following statements
as the goal of the Congress
c) Non-Cooperation Movement was 1. The first woman President of the Indian
launched National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
d) decision to participate in the Round Table 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian
Conference in London was taken National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
Q.3 The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) revolutionary association of Indians with
headquarters at San Francisco. a) 1 only
b) nationalist organization operating from b) 2 only
Singapore c) Both 1 and 2
c) militant organization with headquarters at d) Neither 1 nor 2
Berlin
d) communist movement for India’s freedom Q.2 Who of the following organized a march on
with headquarters at Tashkent the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April
1930?
Q.4 What was/were the object/objects of Queen
Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)? a) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai
b) C. Rajagopalachari
1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian c) K. Kamaraj
States d) Annie Besant
2. To place the Indian administration under
the British Crown Q.3 The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade defined
with India
a) the separation of power between the
Select the correct answer using the code given judiciary and the legislature
below. b) the jurisdiction of the central and
a) 1 and 2 only provincial governments

c) the powers of the Secretary of State for 3. Demonstrations against the arrival of the
India and the Viceroy Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt
d) None of the above Satyagraha.
Q.4 With reference to Congress Socialist Party, Select the correct answer using the code given
consider the following statements: below.
1. It advocated the boycott of British goods a) 1 only

and evasion of taxes b) 1 and 2 only
2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of c) 2 and 3 only
the proletariat. d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It advocated a separate electorate for
minorities and oppressed classes. Q.7 Which one of the following movements has
contributed to a split in the Indian National
Which of the statements given above is/are Congress resulting in the emergence of
correct? ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
a) 1 and 2 only a) Swadeshi Movement

b) 3 only b) Quit India Movement
c) 1, 2 and 3 c) Non-Cooperation Movement
d) None d) Civil Disobedience Movement
Q.5 Who of the following was/were economic Q.8 With reference to Indian history, which of the
critic/ critics of colonialism in India? following is/are the essential elements of the
feudal system?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G. Subramania Iyer 1. A very strong centralized political
3. R. C. Dutt authority and a very weak provincial or
local political authority
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The emergence of administrative
below. structure based on control and possession
of the land
a) 1 only
3. Creation of the lord-vassal relationship
b) 1 and 2 only
between the feudal lord and his overlord
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
Q.6 With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which
of the following statements is/ are correct? a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the
c) 3 only
recommendations of the ‘Sedition
d) 1, 2 and 3
Committee’.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to
utilize the Home Rule League.

Year – 2016 No. of Questions - 6 b) educational reforms

c) reforms in police administration
Q.1 The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that d) constitutional reforms
after the Second World War
Q.5 Satya Shodhak Samaj organized
a) India should be granted complete
independence a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in
b) India should be partitioned into two Bihar
before granting independence b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
c) India should be made a republic with the c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
condition that she will join the d) a peasant movement in Punjab
Commonwealth
Q.6 The `Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted
d) India should be given Dominion status
as methods of struggle for the first time during
Q.2 What was the main reason for the split in the the
Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?
a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal
a) Introduction of communalism into Indian b) Home Rule Movement
politics by Lord Minto c) Non-Cooperation Movement
b) Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of d) visit of the Simon Commission to India
the moderates to negotiate with the
British Government
c) Foundation of Muslim League
Q.1 Who among the following was/were
d) Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected
associated with the introduction of the Ryotwari
as the President of the Indian National
Settlement in India during the British rule?
Congress
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee 3. Thomas Munro
2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
3. Indian Reform Association
below:
Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the
a) 1 only
establishment of which of the above?
b) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the
Q.4 The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were
British Indian Association
related to
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder
a) social reforms of the Madras Mahajana Sabha

3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the 2. Establishment of universities was

Indian Association recommended
3. English as a medium of instruction at all
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly levels of education was recommended.
matched?
a) 1 only below :
b) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.3 The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 d) 1, 2 and 3
was to?
Q.2 With reference to educational institutes
a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and during colonial rule in India, consider the
Provincial Governments. following pairs:
b) Define the powers of the Secretary of
State for India. Institution Founder
c) Impose censorship on national press. 1. Sanskrit College at William Jones
d) Improve the relationship between the Benaras
Government of India and the Indian 2. Calcutta Madrasa Warren
States. Hastings
3. Fort William College Arthur
Q.4 With reference to Indian freedom struggle,
Wellesley
consider the following events:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
a) 1 and 2
2. Quit India Movement launched
b) 2 only
3. Second Round Table Conference
c) 1 and 3
What is the correct chronological sequence of the d) 3 only
above events?
Q.3 Which among the following events happened
a) 1-2-3 earliest?
b) 2-1-3
a) Swami Dayanand established AryaSamaj.
c) 3-2-1
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
d) 3-1-2
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote
Anandmath.
d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first
Q.1 Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil
following statements are true? Services Examination.
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced Q.4 In 1920, which of the following changed its
name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

a) All India Home Rule League c) Both 1 and 2

b) Hindu Mahasabha d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) South Indian Liberal Federation
d) The Servants of India Society Q.8 He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi,
Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for
Q.5 Which of the following led to the introduction some time; and was also elected to the Central
of English Education in India? Assembly. He was
1. Charter Act of 1813 a) Aurobindo Ghosh

2. General Committee of Public Instruction, b) Bipin Chandra Pal
1823 c) Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy d) Motilal Nehru
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.9 Which one of the following statements does
below not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance
introduced by Lord Wellesley?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only a) To maintain a large standing army at
c) 1 and 3 only others expense
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic
danger
Q.6 Economically, one of the results of the British c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
rule in India in the 19th century was the d) To establish British paramountcy over the
Indian States
a) increase in the export of Indian
handicrafts Q.10 Who among the following were the
b) growth in the number of Indian owned founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha”
factories established in 1948 ?
c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
d) rapid increase in the urban population a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad
and K.C. George
Q.7 After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Day al
was/were the measure/measures taken by the Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
colonial government? c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and
Veeresalingam Pantulu
1. The territories called `Santhal Parganas’
d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G.
were created.
Mehta
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer
land to a non-Santhal. Q.11 Which one of the following is a very
significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
below: a) Active all-India participation of lawyers,
students and women in the National
a) 1 only
Movement
b) 2 only

c) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal 3. The revenues of India were now
communities of India in the National controlled by the British Parliament.
Movement
d) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s Which of the statements given above are correct?
National Movement
a) 1 and 2 only
e) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of
b) 2 and 3 only
plantation crops and commercial crops
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.12 The staple commodities of export by the d) 1, 2 and 3
English East India Company from Bengal in the
Q.3 With reference to the Swadeshi Movement,
middle of the 18th century were
a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds, and opium
1. It contributed to the revival of the
b) Sugar, salt, zinc, and lead
indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
c) Copper, silver, gold, spices, and tea
2. The National Council of Education was
d) Cotton, silk, saltpeter, and opium
established as a part of the Swadeshi
Movement.

Q.1 With reference to land reforms in
correct?
independent India, which one of the following
statements is correct? a) 1 only
b) 2 only
a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family
c) Both 1 and 2
holdings and not individual holdings.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) The major aim of land reforms was to
provide agricultural land to all the Q.4 Consider the following pairs:
landless.
c) It resulted in the cultivation of cash crops Movement/Organization Leader
as a predominant form of cultivation.
d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to 1. All India Anti- Mahatma
the ceiling limits. Untouchability League Gandhi
Q.2 Consider the following statements about ‘the 2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami
Charter Act of 1813’: Sahajanand
Saraswati
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East
India Company in India except for trade in 3. Self-Respect Movement E. V.
tea and trade with China. Ramaswami
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Naicker
Crown over the Indian territories held by
the Company.
matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only Year – 2020 No. of Questions - 7

c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.1 In the context of Indian history, the
Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around
Q.5 With reference to the British colonial rule in
India, consider the following statements: 1. Women’s right to gain education
2. Age of consent
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the 3. Restitution of conjugal rights
abolition of the system of ‘indentured
labour’ Select the correct answer using the code given
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, below:
Mahatma Gandhi did not support the
a) 1 and 2 only
resolution on recruiting Indians for World
b) 2 and 3 only
War.
c) 1 and 3 only
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law
d) 1, 2 and 3
by Indian people, the Indian National
Congress was declared illegal by the Q.2 Indigo cultivation in India declined by the
colonial rulers. beginning of the 20th century because of
a) peasant resistance to the oppressive
a) 1 and 2 only conduct of planters
b) 1 and 3 only b) its unprofitability in the world market
c) 2 and 3 only because of new inventions
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) national leaders’ opposition to the
cultivation of indigo
Q.6 With reference to Indian National Movement,
d) Government control over the planters
consider the following pairs:
Q.3 Wellesley established the Fort William
Person Position Held
College at Calcutta because
1. Sir Tej President, All India Liberal
a) he was asked by the Board of Directors at
Bahadur Sapru Federation
London to do so
2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent
b) he wanted to revive interest in oriental
Assembly
learning in India
3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary,
c) he wanted to provide William Carey and
Communist Party of India
his associates with employment
d) he wanted to train British civilians for
matched?
administrative purpose in India
a) 1 only
Q.4 With reference to the history of India,
b) 1 and 2 only
“Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description
c) 3 only
of which of the following events?
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) The Revolt of 1857
b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921

c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859 – 60 4. Release of only those prisoners who were
d) Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900 not charged with violence
Q.5 Which of the following statements correctly Select the correct answer using the code given
explains the impact of the Industrial Revolution below:
on India during the first half of the nineteenth
century? a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
a) Indian handicrafts were ruined. c) 3 only
b) Machines were introduced in the Indian d) 2, 3 and 4 only
textile industry in large numbers.
c) Railway lines were laid in many parts of Year – 2021 No. of Questions - 8
the country.
Q.1 In the first quarter of the seventeenth
d) Heavy duties were imposed on the
century, in which of the following was/were the
imports of British manufacturers.
factory/factories of the English East India
Q.6 With reference to the book “Desher Katha” Company located?
written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the
1. Broach
freedom struggle, consider the following
2. Chicacole
statements:
3. Trichinopoly
a) It warned against the Colonial State’s
hypnotic conquest of the mind.
below:
b) It inspired the performance of swadeshi
street plays and folk songs. a) 1 only
c) The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the b) 1 and 2
specific context of the region of Bengal. c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3
Q.2 With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra
a) 1 and 2 only
Pradesh, which one of the following statements is
b) 2 and 3 only
correct?
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour
Indian National Flag here.
Q.7 The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the
b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India
following?
Movement of Andhra region from here.
1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the
Round Table Conference National Anthem from Bengali to English
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in here.
connection with the Civil Disobedience d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set
Movement up headquarters of Theosophical Society
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for first here.
enquiry into police excesses
Q.3 Consider the following statements: Q.6 Who among the following is associated with
‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient
1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding Indian religious lyrics in English?
members of the Jesuit Order.
2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
is dedicated to him there. b) Jawaharlal Nehru
3. The feast of St. Francis Xavier is c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
celebrated in Goa each year. d) Sarojini Naidu
Which of the statements given above are correct? Q.7 Who among the following was associated as
Secretary with Hindu Female School which later
a) 1 and 2 only came to be known as Bethune Female School?
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only a) Annie Besant
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) Debandranath Tagore
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Q.4 Consider the following statements: d) Sarojini Naidu
1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of Q.8 In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz
1919 recommended granting voting rights Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh
to all women above the age of 21. Dhillon are remembered as
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave
women reserved seats in the legislature. a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott
Movement
Which of the statements given above is/are b) members of the Interim Government in
correct? 1946
c) members of the Drafting Committee in
a) 1 only
the Constituent Assembly
b) 2 only
d) officers of the Indian National Army
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Year – 2022 No. of Questions - 4
Q.5 With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian
Q.1 In the Government of India Act 1919, the
history, which one of the following statements is
functions of Provincial Government were divided
correct?
into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects.
a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by Which of the following were treated as
the AICC. “Reserved” subjects?
b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was
1. Administration of Justice
expanded to include more Indians.
2. Local Self-Government
c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven
3. Land Revenue
provinces.
4. Police
d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full
Dominion status once the Second World
below:
War was over.
a) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are

b) 2, 3 and 4 correct?
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4 a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.2 Consider the following freedom fighters: c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Q.4 With reference to Indian history, consider the
3. Rash Behari Bose following statements:
Who of the above was/were actively associated 1. The Dutch established their
with the Ghadar Party? factories/warehouses on the east coast on
lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
a) 1 and 2 2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa
b) 2 only from the Bijapur Sultanate.
c) 1 and 3 3. The English East India. Company
d) 3 only established a factory at Madras on a plot
of land leased from a representative of
Q.3 With reference to the proposals of Cripps
the Vijayanagara empire.
Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have
members nominated by the Provincial a) 1 and 2 only
Assemblies as well as the Princely States. b) 2 and 3 only
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to c) 1 and 3 only
accept the new Constitution would have d) 1, 2 and 3
the right to sign a separate agreement
with Britain regarding its future status.

2013-2022 IAS Prelims Modern History Questions with Solutions
2013 1. c 7. a 6. c 5. a
2. a 8. b 7. c 6. a
3. c 2016 1. d 8. c 7. b
4. b 2. b 9. c 2021 1. a
5. c 3. b 10. d 2. c
6. c 4. d 11. c 3. c
2014 1. b 5. c 12. d 4. b
2. b 6. a 2019 1. b 5. a
3. a 2017 1. c 2. a 6. c
4. a 2. b 3. c 7. c
5. c 3. d 4. d 8. d
2015 1. b 4. c 5. b 2022 1. c
2. b 2018 1. a 6. d 2. b
3. b 2. b 2020 1. b 3. d
4. d 3. b 2. b 4. b
5. d 4. a 3. d
6. b 5. c 4. d

TOPIC: Environment and Ecology

ANALYTICS ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY PYQS
(2013-2022)
30
25
25
20
20 20
19
15 16 16
15
13
10 12
11
0
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 16 Q.4 On the planet earth, most of the freshwater
exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the
Q.1 Consider the following remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
1. Star tortoise a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and
2. Monitor lizard clouds
3. Pygmy hog b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
4. Spider monkey c) exists as groundwater
Which of the above is found in India? d) exists as soil moisture
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q.5 In the grasslands, trees do not replace the

b) 2 and 3 only grasses as a part of an ecological succession
c) 1 and 4 only because of
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a) insects and fungi
Q.2 Which of the following can be found as b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of c) water limits and fire
India? d) None of the above
1. Arsenic Q.6 Which one of the following is the correct

2. Sorbitol sequence of ecosystems in the order of
3. Fluoride decreasing productivity?
4. Formaldehyde a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
5. Uranium b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
Select the correct answer using the codes given c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
below. d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
a) 1 and 3 only Q.7 Acid rain is caused by the pollution of

b) 2, 4 and 5 only environment by
c) 1, 3 and 5 only a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
Q.3 Consider the following animals: c) ozone and carbon dioxide
d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse Q.8 With reference to food chains in ecosystems,
3. Sea lion consider the following statements:
Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals? 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which
a chain of organisms feed upon each other
a) 1 only 2. Food chains are found within the
b) 1 and 3 only populations of a species
c) 2 and 3 only 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of
d) 1, 2 and 3 each organism which are eaten by others
correct?

a) 1 only Q.12 Which one of the following terms describes

b) 1 and 2 only not only the physical space occupied by an
c) 1, 2 and 3 organism but also its functional role in the
d) None community of organisms?
Q.9 Consider the following organisms a) Ecotone

b) Ecological niche
1. Agaricus
c) Habitat
2. Nostoc
d) Home range
3. Spirogyra
Q.13 With reference to the food chains in
Which of the above is/are used as
ecosystems, which of the following kinds of
biofertilizer/biofertilizers
organisms is/are known as decomposer
a) 1 and 2 organism/organisms?
b) 2 only
1. Virus
c) (e) 2 and 3
2. Fungi
d) 3 only
3. Bacteria
Q.10 Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to
the soil?
below.
1. Excretion of urea by animals
a) 1 only
2. Burning of coal by man
b) 2 and 3 only
3. Death of vegetation
c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given d) 1, 2 and 3
below.
Q.14 During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the
a) 1 only skies is produced by the
b) 2 and 3 only
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the
c) (e) 1 and 3 only
sky
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
Q.11 In which of the following States is lion-tailed 3. violent upward movement of air and
macaque found in its natural habitat? water particles
1. Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Kerala below.
3. Karnataka
a) 1 only
4. Andhra Pradesh
b) 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes given c) 1 and 3
below. d) None of the above produces the thunder
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.15 Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit
b) 2 only
longer storage life because
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) concentration dioxide in the is increased d) Neither 1 nor 2

of carbon environment
Q.3 Other than poaching, what are the possible
c) rate of respiration is decreased
reasons for the decline in the population of
d) there is an increase in humidity
Ganges River Dolphins?
Q.16 Consider the following fauna of India:
1. Construction of dams and barrages on
1. Gharial rivers
2. Leatherback turtle 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in
3. Swamp deer rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets
Which of the above is/are endangered?
accidentally
a) 1 and 2 only 4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other
b) 3 only agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the
c) 1, 2 and 3 vicinity of rivers
d) None
Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 20 below.
Q.1 With reference to ‘Global Environment a) 1 and 2 only

Facility’, which of the following statements is/are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) It serves as financial mechanism for
‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and Q.4 Brominated flame retardants are used in
‘United Nations Framework Convention many household products like mattresses and
on Climate Change’ upholstery. Why is there some concern about
b) It undertakes scientific research on their use?
environmental issues at global level 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in
c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the environment
the transfer of technology and funds to 2. They are able to accumulate in humans
underdeveloped countries with specific and animals
aim to protect their environment
d) Both (a) and (b)
below.
Q.2 Which of the following phenomena might
a) 1 only
have influenced the evolution of organisms?
b) 2 only
1. Continental drift c) Both 1 and 2
2. Glacial cycles d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.5 Consider the following:
below. 1. Bats
a) 1 only 2. Bears
b) 2 only 3. Rodents
c) Both 1 and 2

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed b) algae and fungi

in which of the above kinds of animals? c) bacteria and fungi
d) fungi and mosses
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only Q.9 Which of the following are some important
c) 1, 2 and 3 pollutants released by steel industry in India ?
d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of
1. Oxides of sulphur
the above
2. Oxides of nitrogen
Q.6 Which of the following adds/add carbon 3. Carbon monoxide
dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? 4. Carbon dioxide
1. Volcanic action Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Respiration below:
3. Photosynthesis
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. Decay of organic matter
b) 2 and 3 only
below. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 3 only Q.10 Every year, a month long ecologically

b) 2 only important campaign/festival is held during which
c) 1, 2 and 4 only certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-
d) 1, 2,3 and 4 bearing trees.
Q.7 If you walk through the countryside, you are Which of the following are such
likely to see some birds stalking alongside the communities/tribes?
cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their
a) Bhutia and Lepcha
movement through grasses. Which of the
b) Gond and Korku
following is /are such bird/birds?
c) Irula and Toda
1. Painted Stork d) Sahariya and Agariya
2. Common Myna
Q.11 With reference to two nonconventional
3. Black-necked Crane
energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and
Select the correct answer using the code given ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements:
below.
1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas
a) 1 and 2 extracted from coal seams, while shale
b) 2 only gas is a mixture of propane and butane
c) 2 and 3 only that can be extracted from fine-
d) 3 only grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India abundant coalbed methane
Q.8 Lichens, which are capable of initiating
sources exist, but so far no shale gas
ecological succession even on a bare rock, are
sources have been found.
actually a symbiotic association of
a) algae and bacteria correct?

a) 1 only Q.15 The scientific view is that the increase in

b) 2 only global temperature should not exceed 2 C above
c) Both 1 and 2 pre-industrial level. If the global temperature
d) Neither 1 nor 2 increases beyond 3 C above the pre industrial
level, what can be its possible impact/ impacts on
Q.12 In India, the problem of soil erosion is
the world?
associated with which of the following?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net
1. Terrace cultivation
carbon source
2. Deforestation
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur
3. Tropical climate
3. All the global wetlands will permanently
Select the correct answer using the code given disappear
below. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible
anywhere in the world
a) (a)1 and 2 only
b) (b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
c) (c) 1 and 3 only below.
d) (d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
Q.13 The most important strategy for the b) 1 and 2 only
conservation of biodiversity together with c) 2, 3, and 4 only
traditional human life is the establishment of d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) biosphere reserves Q.16 With reference to Neem tree, consider the

b) botanical gardens following statements:
c) national parks
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to
d) wildlife sanctuaries
control the proliferation of some species
Q.14 Consider the following statements : of insects and mites
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is
of biofuels and hospital detergents
established under the Environments
3. Neem oil has applications in the
(Protection) Act, 1986
pharmaceutical industry
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a
statutory body Which of the statements given above is/are
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is correct?
chaired by the Prime Minister
a) 1 and 2 only
Which if the statements given above is/are b) 3 only
correct? c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.17 Which one of the following is the process
c) 2 only involved in photosynthesis?
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) Potential energy is released to form free
energy

b) Free energy is converted into potential 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are
energy and stored declared under the Wildlife (Protection)
c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide Act, 1972
and water. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-
d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of
water vapour are given out human activities in those zones except
agriculture
Q.18 Consider the following international
agreements: Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
Resources for Food and Agriculture a) 1 only
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat b) 2 only
Desertification c) Both 1 and 2
3. The world Heritage Convention d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above has/have a bearing on Year – 2015 No. of Questions - 13

biodiversity?
Q.1 Which one of the following National Parks
a) 1 and 2 only
has a climate that varies from tropical to
b) 3 only
subtropical, temperate and arctic?
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) Khangchendzonga National park
b) Nandadevi National Park
Q.19 Consider the following statements regarding
c) Neora Valley National Park
‘Earth Hour’
d) Namdapha National park
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO
Q.2 ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable
2. It is a movement in which the participants
Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
switch off the lights for one hour on a
certain day every year a) Asian Development Bank
3. It is a movement to raise awareness about b) International Monetary Fund
climate change and the need to save the c) United Nations Environment Programme
planet d) World Bank
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.3 Consider the following statements
correct? 1. The winds which blow between 30
a) 1 and 3 only degrees N and 60 degrees S latitudes
b) 2 only throughout the year are known as
c) 2 and 3 only westerlies
d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The moist air masses that cause winter
rams in North-Western region of India are
Q.20 With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’,
part of westerlies
which of the following statements is/are correct?
correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only

b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) 1, 2 and 3
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.6 Which one of the following is the best
Q.4 With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership description of the term “ecosystem”?
Facility’, which of the following statements is/are
a) A community of organisms interacting
correct?
with one another
1. It is global partnership of governments, b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited
businesses, civil society and indigenous by living organisms
peoples c) A community of organisms together with
2. It provides financial aid to universities, the environment in which they live
individual scientists and institutions d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
involved in scientific forestry research to
Q.7 Which of the following National Parks is
develop eco-friendly and climate
unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation
adaptation technologies for sustainable
that supports a rich biodiversity?
forest management
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(Reducing Emission from Deforestation b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
and Forest Degradation)’ efforts by c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
providing them with financial and d) Sultanpur National Park
technical assistance 1. Q.8 With reference to the International
Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources (IUCN) and the
below
Convention on International Trade in
a) 1 only Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
b) 2 and 3 only Flora (CITES), which of the following
c) 1 and 3 only statements is/are correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3 2. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations
and CITES is an international agreement
Q.5 With reference to an organization known as
between governments
‘Birdlife International’ which of the following
3. IUCN runs thousands of field projects
around the world to better manage
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation natural environments
Organizations 4. CITES is legally binding on the States that
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ have joined it, but this Convention does
originated from this organization not take the place of national laws
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as
‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’
below.
a) 1 only
below
b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only

c) 1 and 3 only c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer

d) 1, 2 and 3 space
d) search for meteorites containing precious
Q.9 With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found
metals
in India, which of the following statements is/are
correct? Q.13 Which of the following statements regarding
‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal
2. It is found along the entire coast of India 1. It is intended to assist the developing
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule countries in adaptation and mitigation
1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 practices to counter climate change
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP,
OECD, Asian Development Bank and
below.
World Bank
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
below.
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.10 Which one of the following is the national
c) Both 1 and 2
aquatic animal of India?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) (a)Saltwater crocodile
b) (b) Olive ridley turtle
c) (c) Gangetic dolphin
Q.1 Which of the following best describes/
d) (d) Gharial
describe the aim of the ‘Green India Mission’ of
Q.11 What is Rio+20 Conference, often the Government of India?
mentioned in the news?
1. Incorporating environmental benefits and
a) It is the United Nations Conference on costs into the Union and State Budgets
Sustainable Development thereby implementing the `green
b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World accounting’
Trade Organization 2. Launching the second green revolution to
c) (c)It is a Conference of the Inter- enhance agricultural output so as to
governmental Panel on Climate Change ensure food security to one and all in the
d) It is a Conference of the Member future
Countries of the Convention on Biological 3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
Diversity responding to climate change by a
combination of adaptation and mitigation
Q.12 The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in
measures
the news in the context of
a) the limits of habitable zone above the Select the correct answer using the code given
surface of the Earth below.
b) regions inside the Earth-like planets in a) 1 only
outer space b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given

d) 1, 2 and 3 below.
Q.2 What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a a) 1 and 2 only

breed found in India? b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
1. It is capable of swimming up to three
d) 1, 2 and 3
kilometres in seawater
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves Q.5 With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be seen in the news, consider the following
domesticated statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. It is a tree species found in a part of South
below. India
2. It is one of the most important trees in the
a) 1 and 2 only
tropical rainforest areas of South India
b) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
Q.3 Recently, our scientists have discovered a a) 1 only

new and distinct species of banana plant which b) 2 only
attains a height of about 11 metres and has c) Both 1 and 2
orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India d) Neither 1 nor 2
has it been discovered?
a) Andaman Islands correct?
b) Anaimalai Forests
1. Proper design and effective
c) Maikal Hills
implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme
d) Tropical rain forests of northeast
can significantly contribute to
Q.4 With reference to an initiative called ‘The 2. protection of biodiversity
Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity 3. resilience of forest ecosystems
(TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are 4. poverty reduction
correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and below.
World Economic Forum
a) 1 and 2 only
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on
b) 3 only
drawing attention to the economic
c) 2 and 3 only
benefits of biodiversity
d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It presents an approach that can help
decision-makers recognize, demonstrate Q.7 With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes
and capture the value of ecosystems and seen in the news, consider the following
biodiversity statements:

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

development
2. It originated in the World Summit on
Sustainable Development held in 1. The Sustainable Development Goals were
Johannesburg in 2002 first proposed in 1972 by a global think
tank called the ‘Club of Rome’
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have
correct?
to be achieved by 2030
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
correct?
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Viruses can infect
Q.11 In which of the following regions of India are
1. bacteria you most likely to come across the `Great Indian
2. fungi Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
3. plants
a) Sand deserts of northwest India
Select the correct answer using the code given b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
below. c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
d) Western Ghats
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only Q.12 Recently, for the first time in our country,
c) 1 and 3 only which of the following States has declared a
d) 1, 2 and 3 particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? [Based on
Current Affairs 2015-16]
Q.9 In the cities of our country, which among the
following atmospheric gases are normally a) Arunachal Pradesh
considered in calculating the value of Air Quality b) Himachal Pradesh
Index? c) Karnataka
d) Maharashtra
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide Year – 2017 No. of Questions - 15
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide Q.1 Consider the following statements in respect
5. Methane of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in
Commerce (TRAFFIC):
below. 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP)
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
trade in wild animals is not a threat to the
c) 1, 4 and 5 only
conservation of nature
Which of the given statements is/are correct? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only Q.4 Is it possible to produce algae based biofuels,

b) 2 only but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of
c) Both 1 and 2 developing countries in promoting this industry?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Production of algae based biofuels is
Q.2 In the context of solving pollution problems, possible in seas only and not on
which is/are the advantage/advantages of continents
bioremediation techniques? 2. Setting up and engineering the algae
based biofuel production requires high
1. It is a technique of cleaning up pollution
level of expertise/ technology until the
by enhancing the same biodegradation
construction is completed
process that occurs in nature
3. Economically viable production
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such
necessitates the setting up of a large scale
as cadmium and lead can be readily and
facilities which may raise ecological and
completely treated by bioremediation
social concerns
using microorganisms
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create Select the correct answer using the codes given
microorganisms specifically designed for below:
bioremediation
a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given b) 2 and 3 only
below: c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.5 In the context of mitigating the impending
c) 1 and 3 only global warming due to anthropogenic emissions
d) 1, 2, and 3 of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be
the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
Q.3 Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in
the population of a species of butterflies, what 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
could be its likely consequence/consequences? 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formalities
1. Pollination of some plants could be
adversely affected Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. There could be a drastic increase in the below:
fungal infection of some cultivated plants
a) 1 and 2 only
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of
b) 3 only
some species of wasps, spiders and birds
c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
a) 1 only 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is
b) 2 and 3 only transmitted by the same mosquito that
c) 1 and 3 only transmits dengue

2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is Q.9 With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in
possible the United Nations programme working towards
a better urban future, which of the following
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the
b) 2 only
United Nations General Assembly to
c) Both 1 and 2
promote socially and environmentally
d) Neither 1 nor 2
sustainable towns and cities to provide
Q.7 According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, adequate shelter for all
1972, which of the following animals cannot be 2. Its partners are either governments or
hunted by any person except under some local urban authorities only
provisions provided by law? 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall
objective of the United Nations system to
1. Gharial
reduce poverty and to promote access to
2. Indian wild ass
safe drinking water and basic sanitation
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.10 Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
Q.8 With reference to ‘Global Climate Change
standard criterion for
Alliance’, which of the following statements
is/are correct? a) Measuring oxygen level in blood
b) Computing oxygen levels in forest
1. It is an initiative of the European Union
ecosystems
2. It provides technical and financial support
c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem
to targeted developing countries to
d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude
integrate climate change into their
regions
development budgets
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Q.11 Consider the following statements:
Institute (WRI) and World Business
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to
Council for Sustainable Development
reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a
(WBCSD)
unique initiative of G20 group of countries
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The CCAC focusses on methane, black
below: carbon and hydrochlorofluorocarbons
a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the given statements given above is/are
b) 3 only
correct?
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 only

b) 2 only Year – 2018 No. of Questions - 11

c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.1 Which one of the following is an artificial
lake?
Q.12 If you want to see gharials in their natural
best habitat, which one of the following is the a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
best place to visit? b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
b) Chambal River
c) Pulicat Lake Q.2 Which of the following is/are the possible
d) Deepor Beel consequences of heavy and mining in riverbeds?
Q.13 The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in 1. Decreased salinity in the river
news in the context of 2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table
a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
b) Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Select the correct answer using the code given
c) Indegenous Satellite Navigation System below:
d) Security of National Highways a) 1 only
Q.14 In India, if a species of tortoise is declared b) 2 and 3 only
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife c) 1 and 3 only
(Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) It enjoys the same level of protection as Q.3 The Partnership for Action on Green
tiger Economy (PAGE) a UN mechanism to assist
b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few countries transition towards greener and more
individuals are under captive protection; inclusive economies, emerged at
and now it is impossible to prevent its a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable
extinction Development 2002, Johannesburg
c) It is endemic to a particular region of India b) The United Nations Conference on
d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de
in this context Janeiro
Q.15 Recently, there was a proposal to c) The United Nations Framework
translocate some of the lions from their natural Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following d) The World Sustainable Development
sites? [Based on Current Affairs 2016-2017] Summit 2016, New Delhi
a) Corbett National Park Q.4 Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often
b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary mentioned in the news?
c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics
d) Sariska National Park b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the
area in which it grow

c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of b) 2 and 3 only

pesticides c) 3 only
d) None of the above d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5 Consider the following statements: Q.8 Consider the following
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed 1. Birds

every few hundred thousand years 2. Dust blowing
2. When the Earth was created more than 3. Rain
4000 million years ago, there was 54% 4. Wind blowing
oxygen and no carbon dioxide
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
3. When living organisms originated, they
modified the early atmosphere of the a) 1 and 3 only
Earth b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct?
Q.9 How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT)
a) 1 only
different from the Central Pollution Control Board
b) 2 and 3 only
(CPCB)?
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The NGT has been established by an Act
whereas the CPCB has been created by an
Q.6 In which one of the following states is Pakhui
executive order of the government
wildlife sanctuary located?
2. The NGT provides environmental justice
a) Arunachal Pradesh and helps reduce the burden of litigation
b) Manipur in the higher courts whereas the CPCB
c) Meghalaya promotes cleanliness of streams and
d) Nagaland wells, and aims to improve the quality of
air in the country
Q.7 Consider the following statements?
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat”
correct?
is incorporated in the forest rights act
2006 a) 1 only
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have b) 2 only
been given habitat rights c) Both 1 and 2
3. Union Ministry of Environment Forest and d) Neither 1 nor 2
Climate Change officially decides and
Q.10 With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for
declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and
Climate-Smart Agriculture’ (GACSA) which of the
Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of
India
1. GACSA is an outcome of the climate
summit held in Paris in 2015
correct?
2. Membership of GACSA does not create
a) 1 and 2 only any binding obligations
3. India was instrumental in the creation of Which of the statements given above is/are
GACSA correct?

below b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only Q.4 In the context of which of the following do
d) 1, 2 and 3 some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud
thinning technique and the injection of sulphate
Q.11 “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral
aerosol into the stratosphere?
Now” is an initiative launched by [Based on
Current Affairs 2017-18] a) Creating artificial rains in some regions
b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of
a) The Intergovernmental Panel on climate
tropical cyclones
change
c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind
b) The UNEP Secretariat
on the Earth
c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) Reducing the global warming
d) The World Meteorological Organization
Q.5 Which of the following are in Agasthyamala
Year –2019 No. of Questions - 20
Biosphere Reserve?
Q.1 Which one of the following groups of plants a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
were domesticated in the ‘New World’ and sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai
introduced into the ‘Old World’? Tiger Reserve
a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and
b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent
c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane Valley National Park
d) Rubber, coffee and wheat c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and
Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Q.2 Which one of the following National Parks lies Mukurthi National Park
completely in the temperate alpine zone? d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
a) Manas National Park Sanctuaries; and NagarjunasagarSrisailam
b) Namdapha National Park Tiger Reserve
c) Neora Valley National Park Q.6 Consider the following statements:
d) Valley of Flowers National Park
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores
Q.3 Consider the following statements: 2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only 3. Some species of marine mammals are
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found herbivores
in India only 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found Which of the statements given above are correct?
in India only
a) 1 and 3 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code given
d) 2 and 4 only below.
e) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.7 Why is there a great concern about the b) 2 and 3 only
‘microbeads’ that are released into the c) (c)1 and 3 only
environment? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) They are considered harmful to marine Q.10 Consider the following:

ecosystems
1. Carbon monoxide
b) They are considered to cause skin cancer
2. Methane
in children.
3. Ozone
c) They are small enough to be absorbed by
4. Sulphur dioxide
crop plants in irrigated fields.
d) They are often found to be used as food Which of the above are released into the
adulterants. atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass
residue?
Q.8 For the measurement/estimation of which of
the following are satellite images/remote sensing a) 1 and 2 only
data used? b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice Q.11 In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl
paddies of a specific location parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific apprehension. These chemicals are used as
location
a) pesticides in agriculture
Select the correct answer using the code given b) preservatives in processed foods
below. c) fruit-ripening agents
d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.12 Consider the following statements:
c) 3 only
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory
d) 1, 2 and 3
on the part of the Government of India to
Q.9 Which of the following statements are protect and conserve all the wetlands in
correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? the territory of India
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and
1. Global warming might trigger the release
Management) Rules, 2010 were framed
of methane gas from these deposits
by the Government of India based on the
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are
recommendations of Ramsar Convention
found in Arctic Tundra and under the
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and
seafloor
Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to
the drainage area or catchment regions of
carbon dioxide after a decade or two

the wetlands as determined by the 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be

authority patented in India
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.13 Consider the following statements: Q.16 The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes
mentioned in media in reference to
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides
into the environment a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
2. Cattle release ammonia into the b) an early human species
environment c) a cave system found in North-East India
3. The poultry industry releases reactive d) a geological period in the history of the
nitrogen compounds into the Indian subcontinent
environment
Which of the statements given above is/ are
1. The Environment Protection Act, 1986
correct?
empowers the Government of India to
a) 1 and 3 only 2. state the requirement of public
b) 2 and 3 only participation in the process of
c) 2 only environmental protection, and the
d) 1, 2 and 3 procedure and manner in which it is
sought
Q.14 Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy
3. lay down the standards for emission or
night?
discharge of environmental pollutants
a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from from various sources
the Earth’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation
correct?
c) The Earth’s surface would have a low
temperature on cloudy nights a) 1 only
d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground b) 2 only
level c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a
biological process to create a seed can be 1. As per the recent amendment to the
patented in India Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property have the right to fell the bamboos grown
Appellate Board on forest areas

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other b) 2 and 3 only

Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition c) 4 only
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
minor forest produce
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Q.1 In the context of recent advances in human
Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership reproductive technology, “Pronuclear
of minor forest produce to forest dwellers
Transfer” is used for
correct? a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor
sperm
a) 1 and 2 only b) genetic modification of sperm-producing
b) 2 and 3 only cells
c) 3 only c) development of stem cells into functional
d) 1, 2 and 3 embryos
Q.19 Recently, there was a growing awareness in d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in
our country about the importance of Himalayan offspring
nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found Q.2 With reference to carbon nanotubes,
to be a sustainable source of [Based on Current consider the following statements:
Affairs 2018-19]
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and
a) anti-malarial drug antigens in the human body.
b) biodiesel 2. They can be made into artificial blood
c) pulp for the paper industry capillaries for an injured part of human
d) textile fibre body.
Q.20 In the context of proposals to the use of 3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel buses in 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
public transport, consider the following Which of the statements given above are correct?
statements:
a) 1 and 2 only
1. The main advantage of the use of HCNG is b) 2, 3 and 4 only
the elimination of carbon monoxide c) 1, 3 and 4 only
emissions d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and
hydrocarbon emissions Q.3 Consider the following activities:
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
be blended with CNG as fuel for buses 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than 3. Collecting breath samples from spouting
CNG whales for DNA analysis
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. At the present level of technology, which
correct? of the above activities can be successfully
a) 1 only carried out by using drones?

a) 1 and 2 only 2. Tobacco smoke

b) 2 and 3 only 3. Wood burning
c) 1 and 3 only 4. Using varnished wooden furniture
d) 1, 2 and 3 5. Using products made of polyurethane
Q.4 Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the
cells that produce eggs or sperms of a a) 1, 2 and 3 only
prospective parent. b) 2 and 4 only
2. A person’s genome can be edited before c) 1, 3 and 4 only
birth at the early embryonic stage. d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can
Q.7 With reference to Indian elephants, consider
be injected into the embryo of a pig.
1. The leader of an elephant group is a
correct?
female
a) 1 only 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22
b) 2 and 3 only months
c) 2 only 3. An elephant can normally go on calving till
d) 1, 2 and 3 the age of 40 years only
4. Among the States in India, the highest
Q.5 Which of the following statements are
elephant population is in Kerala
correct regarding the general difference between
plant and animal cells?
correct?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst
a) 1 and 2 only
animal cells do not
b) 2 and 4 only
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane
c) 3 only
unlike animal cells which do
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole
vacuoles Q.8 Which of the following Protected Areas are
located in Cauvery basin?
below: 1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
a) 1 and 2 only
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
b) 2 and 3 only
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Q.6 Which of the following are the
a) 1 and 2 only
reasons/factors for exposure to benzene
b) 3 and 4 only
pollution?
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Automobile exhaust d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.9 With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Select the correct answer using the code given
Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned below:
Minivet and White-throated Redstart are
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) Birds b) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) Primates c) 4 and 5 only
c) Reptiles d) 1 and 5 only
d) Amphibians
Q.13 Steel slag can be the material for which of
Q.10 Which one of the following protected areas the following?
is well-known for the conservation of a sub-
1. Construction of base road
species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha)
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively
3. Production of cement
graminivorous?
a) Kanha National Park
below:
b) Manas National Park
c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary a) 1 and 2 only
d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.11 Which of the following are the most likely
d) 1, 2 and 3
places to find the musk deer in its natural
habitat? Q.14 Consider the following statements:
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and

2. Gangotri National Park mercury.
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur
4. Manas National Park dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the
environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian
below:
coal.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
correct?
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
Q.12 In rural road construction, the use of which
c) 3 only
of the following is preferred for ensuring
d) 1, 2 and 3
environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon
footprint? Q.15 What is the use of biochar in farming?
1. Copper slag 1. ‘Biochar can be used as a part of the

2. Cold mix asphalt technology growing medium in vertical farming.
3. Geotextiles 2. When biochar is a part of the growing
4. Hot mix asphalt technology medium, it promotes the growth of
5. Portland cement nitrogen fixing microorganisms.

3. When biochar is a part of the growing- 2. Damaged wheat grains

medium, it enables the growing medium 3. Groundnut seeds
to retain water for longer time. 4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
below:
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Q.16 If a particular plant species is placed under
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act,
Q.19 Which one of the following statements best
1972, what is the implication?
describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a
a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant measure, in monetary value, of the
b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under
a) long-term damage done by a tonne of
any circumstances
CO2, emissions in a given year
c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant
b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to
d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the
provide goods and services to its citizens,
ecosystem
based on the burning of those fuels
Q.17 What is/are the advantage/advantages of c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to
zero tillage in agriculture? adapt to live in a new place
d) contribution of an individual person to the
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without
carbon footprint on the planet Earth
burning the residue of the previous crop
2. Without the need for the nursery of rice Q.20 In the context of India, which of the
saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of
the wet soil is possible. eco-friendly agriculture?
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is
1. Crop diversification
possible.
2. Legume intensification
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Tensiometer use
below: 4. Vertical farming
a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
b) 2 and 3 only below:
c) 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only
Q.18 According to India’s National Policy on c) 4 only
Biofuels, which of the following can be used as d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
raw materials for the production of biofuels? Q.21 Consider the following minerals:
1. Cassava 1. Bentonite

2. Chromite b) 2 and 3 only

3. Kyanite c) 1 and 3 only
4. Sillimanite d) 1, 2 and 3
In India, which of the above is/are officially Q.24 Consider the following statements :
designated as major minerals?
1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as
a) 1 and 2 only “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central
b) 4 only Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
c) 1 and 3 only 2. CGWA was formed under the
d) 2, 3 and 4 only Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under
Q.22 With reference to Ocean Mean
groundwater irrigation in the world.
Temperature (OMT), which of the following
statements is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C
isotherm which is 129 meters in the a) 1 only
southwestern Indian Ocean during b) 2 and 3 only
January — March. c) 2 only
2. OMT collected during January — March d) 1 and 3 only
can be used in assessing whether the
Q.25 Among the following Tiger Reserves, which
amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less
one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger
or more than a certain long-term mean.
Habitat”?
a) Corbett
below:
b) Ranthambore
a) 1 only c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
b) 2 only d) Sunderbans
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.23 With reference to India’s Desert National Q.1 Statement 1: The United Nations Capital
Park, which of the following statements are Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day
Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad
correct?
as 2020 Tree City of the World
1. It is spread over two districts.
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for
2. There is no human habitation inside the
recognition for a year following its commitment
Park.
to grow and maintain the Urban forests.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of the
Great Indian Bustard. Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?
below: a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct and Statement 2 is the correct
a) 1 and 2 only
explanation for Statement
b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are Q.4 Consider the following animals
correct but Statement 2 is not the correct
1. Hedgehog
explanation for Statement 1.
2. Marmot
c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
3. Pangolin
not correct.
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement To reduce the chance of being captured by
2 is correct. predators, which of the above organisms rolls
up/roll up and protects/protect its/their
Q.2 In the context of India’s preparation for
vulnerable parts?
Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following
statements: a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in
c) 3 only
India is a part of a project led by climate
d) 1 and 3
change, Agriculture and food security
(CCAFS), an international research Q.5 With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration
programme. on Forests’’, which of the following statements
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under are correct?
Consultative Group on International
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations
Agricultural Research (CGIAR)
Climate Summit in 2014
headquartered in France.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the
3. The International Crops Research Institute
loss of forests
for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India
3. It is a legally binding international
is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.
declaration
Which of the statements given above are correct? 4. It is endorsed by governments, big
companies and indigenous communities.
a) 1 and 2 only
5. India was one of the signatories at its
b) 2 and 3 only
inception
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given
below
Q.3 Consider the following kinds of organisms:
a) 1, 2 and 4
1. Copepods
b) 1, 3 and 5
2. Cyanobacteria
c) 3 and 4
3. Diatoms
d) 2 and 5
4. Foraminifera
Q.6 Magnetite particles, suspected to cause
Which of the above are primary producers in the
neurodegenerative problems are generated as
food chains of oceans?
environmental pollutants from which of the
a) 1 and 2 following?
b) 2 and 3
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
c) 3 and 4
2. Engines of motor vehicles
d) 1 and 4
3. Microwave stoves within homes

4. Power plants b) Enabling commercial farming entities

5. Telephone lines around the world to enter carbon
emission trading
c) Enabling governments to assess the
below
overall carbon footprint caused by their
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5only countries
b) 1, 2 and 4 only d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print
c) 3, 4 and 5 only caused by the use of fossil fuels by the
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 world in a unit time
Q.7 Which one of the following is a filter feeder? Q.11 Which of the following have species that can
establish a symbiotic relationship with other
a) Catfish
organisms?
b) Octopus
c) Oyster 1. Cnidarians
d) Pelican 2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Q.8 In the case of which of the following
biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is Select the correct answer using the code given
the main source of release of nutrients to enter below:
the cycle?
a) 1 and 2 only
a) Carbon cycle b) 2 and 3 only
b) Nitrogen cycle c) 1 and 3 only
c) Phosphorus cycle d) 1, 2 and 3
d) Sulphur cycle
Q.12 “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool
Q.9 Which of the following are detritivores? available for promoting the adoption of
1. Earthworms a) Environmentally responsible practices in

2. Jellyfish the electronics recycling industry
3. Seahorse b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of
4. Woodlice International Importance” under the
Ramsar Convention
c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of
below
agricultural crops in degraded lands
a) 1, 2 and 4 only d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in
b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only the exploitation of natural resources
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
Q.13 Why is there a concern about copper
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
smelting plants?
Q.10 The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by
1. They may release lethal quantities of
UNEP, has been developed for
carbon monoxide into the environment
a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of
operations around the world some heavy metals into the environment

3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a b) 2 only

pollutant c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
below Year –2022 No. of Questions - 19
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.1 Among the following crops, which one is the
b) 2 and 3 only
most important anthropogenic source of both
c) 1 and 3 only
methane and nitrous oxide?
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Cotton
Q.14 With reference to furnace oil, consider the
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
1. It is a product of oil refineries d) Wheat
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the
environment Q.2 Consider the following pairs:
Which of the statements given above are correct? Wetland/Lake: Location
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Hokera Wetland Punjab

b) 2 and 3 only 2. Renuka Wetland Himachal
c) 1 and 3 only Pradesh
d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Tamil Nadu
Q.15 What is blue carbon?
How many pairs given above are correctly
a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal
matched?
ecosystems
b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and a) Only one pair
agricultural soils b) Only two pairs
c) Carbon contained in petroleum and c) Only three pairs
natural gas d) All four pairs
d) Carbon present in the atmosphere Q.3“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the
Q.16 In nature, which of the following is/are most emission reduction pledges of different countries
likely to be found surviving on a surface without is a:
soil? a) Database created by coalition of research
1. Fern organisations
2. Lichen b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate
3. Moss Change”
4. Mushroom c) Committee under “United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate
Change”
below
a) 1 and 4 only

d) Agency promoted and financed by United c) 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in

Nations Environment Programme and maintaining sedimentation balance and
World Bank soil stabilization.
d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and
excess nutrients.
1. The Climate Group is an international non-
Q.6 In the Guidelines, statements: context of
profit organisation that drives climate
WHO consider the Air Quality following
action by building large networks and runs
them. 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not
2. The International Energy Agency in exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM
partnership with the Climate Group 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
launched a global initiative “EP100”. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone
3. EP100 brings together leading companies pollution occur during the periods of
committed to driving innovation in energy inclement weather.
efficiency and increasing competitiveness 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and
while delivering on emission reduction enter the bloodstream.
goals. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger
4. Some Indian companies are members of asthma.
EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the
Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are
c) 2, 3 and 4
correct?
d) 1 and 2 only
a) 1,2, 4 and 5
Q.7 With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes
b) 1,3 and 4 only
mentioned in the news, consider the following
c) 2,3 and 5 only
statements:
d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5
1. It is a fungus.
Q.5 “If rainforests and tropical forests are the
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function
3. It is commercially cultivated in the
as its kidneys.” Which one of the following
Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
functions of wetlands best reflects the above
statement? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) The water cycle in wetlands involves
surface runoff, subsoil percolation and a) 1 only
evaporation. b) 3 only
b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which c) 1 and 2
fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles d) 2 and 3
and mammals thrive.
Q.8 With reference to polyethylene
terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread

in our daily lives, consider the following a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
statements: b) Development of building materials using
plant residues
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and
c) Identification of areas for
cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
exploration/extraction of shale gas
2. Containers made of it can be used to store
d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in
any alcoholic beverage.
forests/protected areas
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into
other products. Q.12 The “Miyawaki method” is well known for
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed the:
of by incineration without causing
a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid
greenhouse gas emissions.
and semi-arid areas
Which of the statements given above are correct? b) (d). Harvesting wind energy on coastal
areas and on sea surfaces
a) 1 and 3
c) Development of gardens genetically
b) 2 and 4
modified flora using
c) 1 and 4
d) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
d) 2 and 3
Q.9 Which of the following is not a bird?
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform
a) Golden Mahseer
to promote sustainable sanitation and is
b) Indian Nightjar
funded by the Government of India and
c) Spoonbill
the World Health Organisation.
d) White Ibis
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is
Q.10 Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing an apex body of the Ministry of Housing
plants? and Urban Affairs in Government of India
and provides innovative solutions to
1. Alfalfa
address the challenges of Urban India.
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Clover correct?
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
a) 1 only
6. Spinach
b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given c) Both 1 and 2
below: d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1, 3 and 4 only Q.14 Which one of the following has been

b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only constituted under the Environment (Protection)
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only Act, 1986?
d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 a) Central Water Commission
b) Central Ground Water Board
Q.11 “Biorock technology” is talked about in
c) Central Ground Water Authority
which one of the following situations?
d) National Water Development Agency

Q.15 Which one of the following statements best Which of the statements given above is/are
describes the ‘Polar Code’? correct?
a) It is the international code of safety for a) 1 and 2

ships operating in polar waters. b) 2 only
b) It is the agreement of the countries c) 1 and 3
around the North Pole regarding the d) 3 only
demarcation of their territories in the
Q.18 Certain species of which one of the
polar region.
following organisms are well known as cultivators
c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the
of
countries whose scientists undertake
research studies in the North Pole and fungi?
South Pole.
a) Ant
d) It is a trade and security agreement of the
b) Cockroach
member countries of the Arctic Council.
c) Crab
Q.16 Which one of the following best describes d) Spider
the term “greenwashing”?
a) Conveying a false impression that a
1. Carbon monoxide
company’s products are eco-friendly and
2. Nitrogen oxide
environmentally sound
3. Ozone
b) Non-inclusion of ecological/
4. Sulphur dioxide
environmental costs in the Annual
Financial Statements of a country Excess of which of the above in the environment
c) Ignoring the consequences disastrous is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
ecological while infrastructure
a) 1, 2 and 3
development undertaking
b) 2 and 4 only
d) Making mandatory provisions for
c) 4 only
environmental costs in a government
d) 1, 3 and 4
project/programme
Q.17 With reference to Indian laws about wildlife

protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the

government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected,
such animal is entitled for equal
protection whether it is found in
protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal
becoming a danger to human life is
sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

2013-2022 IAS Prelims Environment Questions with Solutions
2013 1. A 9. C 2019 1. A 25. C

2. C 10. C 2. D
3. B 11. A 3. A 2021 1. D
4. C 12. C 4. D 2. D
5. C 13. A 5. A 3. B
6. C 6. D 4. D
7. D 2016 1. C 7. A 5. D
8. A 2. A 8. D 6. B
9. B 3. A 9. D 7. C
10. C 4. C 10. D 8. C
11. A 5. A 11. A 9. C
12. B 6. D 12. B 10. A
13. B 7. A 13. D 11. D
14. D 8. D 14. B 12. A
15. C 9. B 15. C 13. D
16. C 10. B 16. B 14. D
2014 1. A 11. D 17. C 15. A
2. C 12. D 18. B 16. C
3. C 2017 1. B 19. D 2022 1. B
4. C 2. C 20. B 2. B
5. C 3. C 2020 1. D 3. A
6. C 4. B 2. D 4. B
7. B 5. D 3. D 5. D
8. B 6. C 4. D 6. B
9. D 7. D 5. C 7. C
10. B 8. A 6. D 8. A
11. D 9. B 7. A 9. A
12. B 10. C 8. C 10. A
13. A 11. B 9. A 11. A
14. B 12. B 10. A 12. C
15. B 13. B 11. A 13. B
16. C 14. A 12. A 14. C
17. B 15. B 13. D 15. A
18. D 2018 1. A 14. D 16. A
19. C 2. B 15. D 17. A
20. D 3. B 16. A 18. A
2015 1. D 4. B 17. D 19. B
2. D 5. C 18. A
3. B 6. A 19. A
4. C 7. A 20. D
5. C 8. D 21. D
6. C 9. B 22. B
7. B 10. B 23. C
8. B 11. C 24. B

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IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

TOPIC: Science & Technology

ANALYTICS SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

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Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 6 2. Tolerate extremes of PH

1. Resist drought and increase absorptive

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Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 6 a) 1 only

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile. Vitamin C Scurvy

a) 1 and 2 only Q.4 H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the

Select the correct answer using the code given a) 1 only

a) 1 and 2 1. It is a contactless communication

a) 1 only Q.10 Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace,

a) 1 only Q.2 With reference to ‘Li-Fi’, recently in the news,

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1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission

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Year – 2017 No. of Questions - 9 b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics

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a) 1 only Q.2 Consider the following pairs of Terms

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1. Mobile phone operations Which of the statements given above is/are

1. Preparation of confectionery items a) 1 only

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a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given

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1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated 1. Location identification of a person

Q.2 In the context of recent advances in human a) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. VLC is known as long-range optical

a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only a) 1 and 2 only

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a) Voyager-2 Select the correct answer using the code given

a) 1 only Q.4 Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a

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1. Genetic engineering is applied in the 1. Area of the hole in the lid

a) 1 only a) 1 and 2 only

Q.8 In the context of hereditary diseases, Q.11 Consider the following:

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Which of the following given above are correct? a) Cloud Services

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants a) 1 and 2 only

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a) They protect the environmental allergens. a) 1 only

2013-2022 IAS Prelims Science & Tech Questions with Solutions

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ANALYTICS POLITY PYQS

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Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 18 c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer /

a) 1 only 1. An amendment to the Constitution of

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a) only 1 Attorney General of India can

a) 1 and 2 only The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

a) 1 only Q.15 Who among the following constitute the

1. National Development Council a) 1 only

Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only

Q.6 Which of the following are associated with a) Second Schedule

Q.7 Which one of the following is the largest a) advisory jurisdiction

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1. The Principles spell out the socio- 4. Financial mobilization

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to a) Preamble of the Constitute