A midwife in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn Infant.

After the delivery, she

prepares to prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by:

A. Warming the crib pad

B. Drying the infant in a warm blanket

C. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer

D. Closing the doors to the room

A midwife in a newborn nursery is performing an assessment of a newborn infant. She is preparing to

measure the head circumference of the infant. She would most appropriately:

A. Wrap the tape measure around the infant's head and measure just above the eyebrows.

B. Place the tape measure under the infant's head at the base of the skull and wrap around to the front
just above the eyes

C. Place the tape measure at the back of the infant's head, wrap around across the ears, and measure
across the infant's mouth.

D. Place the tape measure under the infant's head, wrap around the occiput, and measure just above
the eyes

A midwife prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to a newborn Infant. The mother asks the nurse
why her newborn infant needs the injection. The best response by the midwife would be:

A. "Your infant needs vitamin K to develop immunity."

B. "Vitamin K will protect your infant from having jaundice."

C. "Newborn infants are deficient in vitamin K, and this injection prevents your infant from abnormal
bleeding." D. "Newborn infants have sterile bowels, and vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria in
the bowel."

Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A midwife prepares to administer the medication in which muscle
site?

A. Deltoid

B. Triceps
C. Vastus lateralis

D. Biceps

An instructor asks a midwifery student to describe the procedure for administering erythromycin
ointment into the eyes of a neonate. The instructor determines that the student needs to research this
procedure further if the student states.

A. “I will cleanse the neonate's eyes before instilling ointment."

B. "I will flush the eyes after instilling the ointment."

C. "I will instill the eye ointment into each of the neonate's conjunctival sacs within one hour after
birth."

D. "Administration of the eye ointment may be delayed until an hour or so after birth so that eye contact
and parent-infant attachment and bonding can occur."

The primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the:

A. Heart rate

B. Respiratory rate

C. Presence of meconium

D. Evaluation of the Moro reflex

When performing a newbom assessment, the health care provider should measure the vital signs in the
following sequence:

A. Pulse, respirations, temperature

B. Temperature, pulse, respirations

C. Respirations, temperature, pulse

D. Respirations, pulse, temperature

Within three (3) minutes after birth the normal heart

may range between:

A. 100 and 180

B. 130 and 170

C. 120 and 160

D. 100 and 130

9. The expected respiratory rate of a neonate within three (3) minutes of birth may be as high as: ENTER
PA

A. 50

B. 60

C. 80

D. 100

The midwife is aware that a healthy newborn's respiration's are:

A. Regular, abdominal, 40-50 per minute, deep

B. Irregular, abdominal, 30-60 per minute, shallow

C. Irregular, initiated by chest wall, 30-60 per minute, deep

D. Regular, initiated by the chest wall, 40-60 per minute, shallow

A newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spots over the nose, which the midwife knows are caused by
retained sebaceous secretions. When charting this observation, the midwife identifies it as:

A. Milia

B. Lanugo

C. Whiteheads

D. Mongolian spots
When newborns have been on formula for 36-48 hours, they should have a:

A. Screening for PKU

B. Vitamin K injection

C. Test for necrotizing enterocolitis

D. Heel stick for blood glucose level

Which action best explains the main role of surfactant in the neonate?

A. Assists with ciliary body maturation in the upper airways

B. Helps maintain a rhythmic breathing pattern

C. Promotes clearing mucus from the respiratory tract

D. Helps the lungs remain expanded after the initiation of breathing.

A client has just given birth at 42 weeks' gestation. When assessing the neonate, which physical finding
is expected?

A. A sleepy, lethargic baby

B. Lanugo covering the body

C. Desquamation of the epidermis

D. Vernix caseosa covering the body

By keeping the nursery temperature warm and wrapping the neonate in blankets, the midwife is
preventing which type of heat loss?

A. Conduction

B. Convection

C. Evaporation

D. Radiation
A neonate has been diagnosed with caput succedaneum. Which statement is correct about this
condition?,

A. It usually resolves in 3-6 weeks 4 days

B. It doesn't cross the cranial suture line

C. It's a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum.

D. it involves swelling of tissue over the presenting part of the presenting head

When teaching umbilical cord care to a new mother, the midwife would include which information?

A. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change B. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after
bathing

C. Keep the cord dry and open to air

D. Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath

A mother of a term neonate asks what the thick, white, cheesy coating is on his skin. Which correctly
describes this finding?

A. Lanugo

B. Milia

C. Nevus flammeus

D. Vernix

When performing a care for a neonate after birth, which intervention has the highest priority?

A. Obtain a dextrostix

B. Give the initial bath

C. Give the vitamin K injection

D. Cover the neonates head with a cap

Which of the following behaviors would indicate that a client was bonding with her baby?

A. The client asks her husband to give the baby a bottle of water.

B. The client talks to the baby and picks him up when he cries.

C. The client feeds the baby every three hours.

D. The client asks the nurse to recommend a good child care manual.

A mother came in at the health facility and asked midwife Maringu "What is the standard dose of
Tetanus Toxoid before giving birth?" Your best response is:

A. 5 doses

B. 4 doses

C. 3 doses

D. 2 doses

Maria is scheduled to receive her 4th dose of TTd. How many years is She protected if she will receive
TT3:

A. 3 years

B. 10 years

C. 5 years

D. Lifetime

23.If a mother asks you "Ilang porsyento po akong protektado pag bibigyan ng TT3?" Your response is:

A. 99%

B. 80%

C. 95%

D. Lifetime
What is a fully-immunized mother for Tetanus Toxoid:

A. A mother who received 3 standard doses and 2 booster doses at a regular interval

B. A mother who received 2 standard doses and 3 booster doses less than 4weeks interval

C. A mother who received 5 doses of tetanus toxoid

D. A mother who received 2 standard doses and 3 booster doses

TTd 4 will provide how many years and percent of protection:

A. 80% and 3 years

B. 95% and 10 years

C. 99% and lifetime protection

D. 99% and 10 years

The standard dosage required for BCG:

A. 0.1ml

B. 0.05ml

C. 0.5ml

D. 0.01ml

Route for 5 in 1 or Pentavalent:

A. IM, Right Detoid

B. IM, Right Upper Thigh

C. SQ, Right Upper Thigh

D. ID, Right Upper Arm

What is the proper management if right after administration of BCG There was no scar develop:

A. Wait until 12 weeks

B. Re-administer if no scar was develop within 1 week

C. Refer to the RHU Physician

D. Do nothing since the scar will appear anytime soon

Pentavalent vaccine is composed of which antigens:

I. Diptheria

II. Pertussi

III. Tetanus V

IV. Hepatitis-B

V. Pneumonia

VI. Haemophilus Influenzae type-B

A. All except V

B. All except VI

C. All of the above

D. All except IV

Immunization schedule in the RHU/BHS:

A. Monday

B. Friday

C. Thursday

D. Wednesday
BCG is administered at what route:

A. IM

B. IV

C. SQ

D. ID

What vaccine is to be given to Baby Anita within 1 hours

after herbirth:

A. Hepatitis-B vaccine

B. Vitamin-K

C. BCG

D. Pentavalent vaccine

33. Which vaccine is considered to be light sensitive:

A. AMV and OPV

B. AMV and BCG

C. BCG and DPT

D. OPV and IPV

What is the wastage factor for BCG:

A. 1.10

B. 2.00

C. 1.67

D. 2.50
Which vaccine produces a scar

A. DPT

B. HepaB

C. BCG

D. Pentavalent

The midwife follows the recommended storage temperature of all EPI vaccines. All but one vaccine is
most sensitive to heat:

A. Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG)

B. Hepatitis-B vaccine

C. Oral Polio Vaccines

D. Tetanus toxoid

36. After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient complains of tendemess, burning, and
swelling. Assessment of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and erythematous. This usually indicates:

A. Infection

B. Infiltration

C. Phlebitis

D. Bleeding

The goals of IV therapy include all of the following except;

A. Restore acid-base balance

B. Maintain or replace body stores of water, electrolytes, vitamins, protiens, fats and calories in patients
who can not maintain adequate intake by mouth

C. Restore volumes of blood components

D. Administer safe and effective infusions of medicines by using the appropriate arterial access
What are solutions that have fewer dissolved particles than the blood are called

A. Isotonic solution

B. Hypertonic solution

C. Osmotic solution

D. Hypotonic solution

What are the three types of fluids?

A. Isotonic solution

B. Hypertonic solution

D. Hypotonic solution

C. All of these choices

The Administration of medication from a syringe directly in to the engoing IV infusion is called a what?

A. IV push

B. Intermittent Infusion

C. Plasma expander

D. Done of these choices

Name the first step in preparing for a venipuncture. A. Clear all IV tubing of air with fluid

B. Explain to the patient

C. Select your site for insertion

D. Don gloves

The rationale for having the patient open and close their fist times is?

A. To give the patient something to do while you prepare

B. To increase blood supply to the area

C. Because slapping the patients arm is no longer accepted technique

D. Helps alleviate anxiety

What is the standard dwell time for a catheter?

A. 3 days

B. 4days

C. 1week

D. 2weeks

What is the best choice of cannula size?

A. The largest one you feel you can successfully insert in the patient.

B. The smallest one you can find.

C..The smallest gauge to accommodate therapy

D. The largest gauge your facility has.

After applying the tourniquet, if the vein feels hard or rope-like, you should:

A. Use it, it's the best choice for an IV

B. Select another site

C. Stretch it to prevent rolling

D. Have the patient relax his/her fist

Which of the following veins should be avoided when initiating an IV?

A. Lower extremities of a diabetic patient

B. Veins in the affected arm of a woman with a mastectomy

C. Veins in the arm of a dialysis AV fistula

D. All of the choices

When preparing to insert the needle into the skin, the bevel should be

A. Down

B. Up

C. Side ward

D. It's either of the three choices.

How can you verify that you have entered the vein with the IV catheter?

A. You will be able to see the catheter through the skin B. You learn through experience where the vein
should be located

C. You observe a flashback of blood

D. You palpate with your non-dominant hand for the "pop" of the vein when the needle enters it

What would be an indication that your IV insertion attempt was not Successful?

A. The insertion site begins to bruise

B. The site swells when fluids are flushed through

C. The insertion site does not flush easily

D. All of the choices

After 2 unsuccessful attempts at insertion of an IV, the best thing for a health care professional to do
would be:

A. Call the doctor to tell him you can't get the IV

B. Keep trying until you get the IV

D. Consult another professional to initiate therapy

D. Hydrate the patient with oral fluids and try again in a few hours

Subcutaneous injections are used for:

A. Asystemic delivery of medications

B. local delivery of medications

C. large, quick-action doses

D. none of the above

After injection, it may be appropriate to:

A. wait a few seconds, to ensure that the medication has had time to travel from the needle into the
patient

B. aspirate

C. leave the syringe by the bedside

D. remove the air bubbles from the needle

Needles must be disposed of in:

A. general clinical waste bins

B. clinical sharps disposal containers

C. domestic waste bins

D. confidential waste bins

Intradermal means:

A. Beneath the skin

B. Within the skin

C. Within the vein

D. Through the skin

The proper way to dispose of a used syringe and needle is to:

A. Recap it with both hands and send to central processing for sterilization for reuse.

B. Throw into biohazardous trash bag

C. Throw into regular trash

D. Throw into biohazardous sharps waste container

Intramuscular injections should be administered at a

degree angle

A. 10-20

B. 45

C.90

D.25

Intradermal injections should be administered at a

A. 10-15

B.45

C.90

D. 25

The layer of skin beneath the area an intradermal should be injected into is the:

A. Dermis

B. Sebaceous
C. Epidermis

D. Subcutaneous

Once the site for intramuscular injection as been determined, the area Cleansed with alcohol and
allowed to dry, the needle is uncapped and syringe held like a dart. Immediately after insertion step is
to:

A. Inject the medication rapidly

B. Massage the site

C. Place a band-aid over the site

D. Aspirate

What does an oil retention enema do?

A. softens feces

B. irritates colon, causing reflux evacuation

C. softens feces, stimulates evacuation, and expands volume

D. All of the choices

What does a soapsuds enema do?

A. softens feces

B. Irritates colon, causing reflux evacuation

C. softens feces, stimulates evacuation, and expands volume

D. All of the choices

What does a tap water enema do?

A. softens feces

B. Irritates colon, causing reflux evacuation

C. softens feces, stimulates evacuation, and expands volume

D. All of the above

Which position should a pt be in when receiving an enema?

A. Prone

B. Semi-fowlers

C. Sims with Right knee flexed

D. Supine with both legs flexed

If a blood pressure cuff is too small for a client, blood pressure readings taken with such a cuff may do
which of the following?

A. Fail to show changes in blood pressure.

B. Produce a false-high measurement.

C. Cause sciatic nerve damage.

D. Produce a false-low measurement.

The nurse is assessing vital signs for a patient just admitted to the hospital. Ideally, and if there are no
contraindications, how should the purse position the patient for this portion of the admission
assessment?

A Sitting upright

B. Lying flat on the back with knees flexed.

C. Lying flat on the back with arms and legs fully extended.

D. Side-lying with the knees flexed.

The midwife is preparing to take vital signs in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration
secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the client's temperature?

A. Oral
B. Axillary

C. Rectal

D. Heat sensitive tape

A midwife obtained a client's pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse document these
findings as;

A Tachypnea

B. Hyperpyrexia

C. Arrhythmia

D. Tachycardia

A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The midwife is assessing the client finds the
skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best method to take the client's body
temperature? A. Oral

B. Axillary

C. Arterial line

D. Rectal

69 What is the normal range of temperature?

A. 36.6-37,5 c

B. 34.6-36 c

C. 34-36 c

D. 35.6-38 c

What is the normal pulse rate?

A. 50-100 bpm

B. 40-90 bpm
C. 60-100 bpm

D. 70-90 bpm

What is the normal respiratory rate of an adult?

A. 12-20cpm

B. 16-20cpm

C. 14-18cpm

D. 14-22cpm

What is the term for slow breathing

A. Bradypnea

B.Tachypnea

C.Bradycardia

D.Tachycardia

What is the normal diastolic blood pressure?

A.100-130

B. 60-90

C. 70-110

D. 50-100

What are the four main vital signs?

A. BP, 02 Sat, Temp, Pulse

B. BP, Respiration, Temp, 02 Sat

C. BP, Respiration, Temp, Pulse

D. BP, Respiration, Pulse, Pain

Pyrexia is

A. A body temp that is normal

B. A body temp that is below normal

C. body temp that is above normal

D. None of these is true.

A midwife in a community wellness center is conducting health education regarding the various
relaxation strategies as part of stress management The nurse would be correct if she identified that
which of the following is erroneous regarding relaxation:

A. Relaxation response is a state of psychologic and physiologic deep rest.

B. Relaxation response is the opposite of stress response.

C. The relaxation response is characterized by decreased SNS activity characterized by decreased HR, BP
and skin temperature.

D. Relaxation response has been proven to treat a very wide range of stress disorders including chronic
pain, insomnia and hypertension.

Mr. Cruz is preparing the things that he will be needing for performing bed bath to his patient. He checks
the water temperature. The rationale for this is:

A. Warm water stimulates circulation

B. Warm water is not indicated

C. Cold water promotes comfort

D. Cold water facilitates proper circulation of the client's body

It is the ability to successfully handle life's stresses and adapt to change and difficult times
A. Emotional wellness

B. Physical wellness

C. Social wellness

D. Occupational wellness

This dimension of wellness that encompasses all areas of health that relate to physical aspects of the
body including, nutrition, exercise, weight management, ergonomics, tobacco use, disease, disease
prevention, and more.

A. Occupational Wellness

B. Physical Wellness

C. Social Wellness

D. Financial Wellness

It is the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease or
infirmity.

A. Health

B. Wellness

C. Illness

D. Disease

It is oriented toward maximizing the health potential of an individual.

A. Health-Illness Continuum

B. Agent-Host environment model

C. Health-belief model

D. High-level wellness model

The level of health of an individual or group depends on the dynamic relationship of the agent, host and
environment

A. Health-Illness Continuum

b. Agent-Host environment model

C. Health-belief model

D. High-level wellness model

It provides a way of understanding and predicting how clients will behave in relation to their health and
how they will comply with health care therapies.

A. Health-Illness Continuum

B. Agent-Host environment model

C. Health-belief model

D. High-level wellness model

It is a condition characterized by a deviation from a normal, healthy state

A. Health

B. Illness

C. Wellness

D. Disease

Determinants of health that plays a part in determining lifespan, healthiness and the likelihood of
developing certain illnesses.

A. Education

B. Physical environment

C. Income and social status

D. Genetics
It means safe water and clean air, healthy workplaces, safe houses, communities and roads all
contribute to good health.

A. Physical

B. Physical Environment

C. Surroundings

D. Health services

The greater the gap between the richest and poorest people, the greater the differences in health.

A. Income and Social status

B. Social support

C. Gender

D. Economy

If symptom persist and become severe, clients assume the sick role.

A. Symptoms experience

B. Assumption of the sick role

C. Medical care contract

D. Rehabilitation

It is typically characterized by severe symptoms of relatively short duration

A. Acute Illness

B. Chronic Illness

C. Disease

D. Death
It is the intervening before health effects occur, through measures such as vaccinations, altering risky
behaviors (poor eating habits, tobacco use), and banning substances known to be associated with a
disease or health condition.

A. Primary Prevention

B. Secondary Prevention

C. Tertiary Prevention

D. Health

Managing disease post diagnosis to slow or stop disease progression through measures such as
chemotherapy, rehabilitation, and screening for complications.

A. Primary Prevention

B. Secondary Prevention

C. Tertiary Prevention

D. Health

The patient has a right to a clear, truthful and substantial explanation in a manner and language
understandable to the patient.

A. Right to appropriate Medical Care and Humane

B. Treatment Right to Informed consent

C. Right to privacy and confidentiality

D. Right to information

The patient has the right to demand that all information, communication and records pertaining to his
care be treated as confidential.

A. Right to appropriate Medical Care and Humane Treatment

B. Right to Informed consent

C. Right to privacy and confidentiality

D. Right to information

The patient has the right to avail himself/herself of any recommended diagnostic and treatment
procedures.

A. Right to Religious belief

B. Right to self-determination

C. Right to Information

D. Right to Informed consent

The patient has the right to be advised if the health care provider plans to involve him in medical
research, including but not limited to human experimentation which may be performed only with the
written informed consent of the patient

A. Right to informed consent

B. Right to Leave

C. Right to Refuse Participation in Medical Research

D. Right to Confidentiality

This refers to the information that the sender is relaying to the receiver.

A. Fake news

B. Message

C. Channel

D. Feedback

It is putting the targeted message into appropriate medium which may be verbal or non-verbal
depending upon the situation, time, space and nature of the message to be sent.

A. Decoding

B. Information
C. Encoding

D. Sender

It is when we use the spoken word to communicate with others.

A. Verbal communication

B. Non-verbal communication

C. Written communication

D. Visual communication

A type of communication helps you get a sense of how others are feeling and what they may be
thinking.

A. Verbal communication

B. Non-verbal communication

C. Written communication

D. Visual communication

The receiver interprets the sender's message and tries to understand it in the best possible manner.

A. Feedback

B. Encoding

C. Decoding

D. Receiver

It is the first hand data coming from the patient

A. Primary data

B. Secondary data

C. Tertiary data
D. Informatics

A form of data collection in which the midwife asks questions to the patient.

A. Interview

B. Questionnaire

C. Presscon

D. Focus group discussion

The midwife interacting with the patients, checking on the patients non-verbal cues

A. Observation

B. Interview

C. Questionnaire

D. Survey

Which of the following is not included as part of physical examination?

A. Inspection

B. Percussion

C. Palpation

D. Vibration

The midwife uses critical thinking skills throughout the process to provide effective care. Before
undertaking any action the midwife plans the action by deciding the best approach for each patient.
What role is possessed by the midwife?

A. Client advocate

B. Clinical nurse specialist

C. Clinical decision maker

D. Caregiver

Often referred to as the "mothering role" of the midwife in that it involves sensitivity to what matters
and what is important to clients, this role is termed as:

A. Care Provider

B. Teacher or educator

C. Communicator

D. Counselor

In the caring role of the midwife, the chief goal is to:

A. convey understanding for client's concerns or on what is important to them

B. acquire new knowledge or technical skills

C. provide emotional or psychological support

D. provide concern and action in behalf of the patient to a desired change

The midwife recognizes that the best source of information client's responses to actual or potential
health problems is the:

A. Client himself

B. yaya" or household helpers

C. Parents, husbands or wives

D. midwives, nurses and doctors care

It includes all the body systems, and the findings will inform professional on the patient's overall
condition.

A. Head-to-toe assessment

B. Vital signs

C. Interviews
D. Observation

It is used to detect and manage a wide range of disorders, such as urinary tract infections, kidney
disease and diabetes.

A. Unnalysis

B. Fecalysis

C. Sputumn

D. Fasting Blood Sugar

The midwife further realizes that in assessing the client's compliance to fluid restriction, the best index
is:

A. Urine specific gravity

B. Weight

C. Blood pressure

D. Intake and Output

In assessing the abdomen of a client, the nurse will use which sequence for physical assessment?

A. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion

B. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion

C. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation

D. Auscultation, Inspection, Percussion, Palpation

It refers to any number of practices that are designed to prevent the spread of infection.

A. Surgical technique

B. Cleanliness

C. Medical Asepsis
D. Pathogenesis

It involves the coordinated effort of muscles, bones, and the nervous system to maintain balance,
posture, and alignment during moving.

A. Coordination

B. Resistance

C. Body Mechanics

D. Homeostasis

Nutrient that serves as the "building blocks of life" and necessary for good health.

A. Protein

B. Vitamin D3

C.Niacin

D. Iron

It is the basic dietary carbohydrate and has six carbons. Examples are glucose, fructose, and galactose.

A. Monosaccharide

B. Polysaccharide

C. Disaccharides

D. B-complex

is considered a diarrhea if you pass atleast how many watery stools in a day?

A. None

B. Once

C. Twice

D. Thrice
To utilize the health care process, the midwife must first:

A. Identify goals of health care process

B. State the client's needs

C. Obtain information about the client

D. Evaluate the effectiveness of the actions

The effectiveness of the midwife-client communication is best validated by:

A. Client's feedback

B. Client's ability to physically recover

C. Staffs who work with the midwife

D. Health team conferences

When performing an assessment during adult basic life support, what will be the initial action?

A. Assess the scene safety

B. Assess responsiveness of the patient

C. Take standard precautions

D. Check vital signs

It is a hand-held device used to inflate the lungs. It is consist of a bag attached to a face mask

A. Oxygen

B. Spirometer

C. Bag valve mask

D. Suction machine
The doctor ordered take home meds to the patient. The doctor wrote in the prescription that the
medication should be taken a.c. The patient asked you what does a.c. means?

A. As much as desired

B. Before meals

C. After meals

D. Drink

As a midwife you are checking the order if it's oral, IV, SQ, IM, etc. What right to medication are you
observing?

A. Right Dose

B. Right Route

C. Right Time and Frequency

D. Right Documentation

49. Route of medication in which it is Delivered through the skin by a patch for a systemic effect

A. Topical

B. Transdermal

C. Ocular

D. Rectal

Midwife must serve as consistent role models in physical hygiene to his/her clients. Which of the
following personal hygienic practices of the midwife is inappropriate?

A. Brushing teeth q2h, flossing q4h, and goes to dentist for check- up at least once a month.

B. Follows principles of aseptic technique and frequent handwashing to prevent transmission of

microorganisms.

C. Hair is clean and neatly styled, with nails neatly manicured.

D. Skin is clean and clear