05/04/2023 AITS - 2023 NEET (UG)

TEST-01
egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k Important Instructions
1. 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars carefully with
blue/black ball point pen only.
2. 3 20 200 2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test
Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question carries
4
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will
4 get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will
720 be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks
are 720.
3. 2 A 35 3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two
( ) B 15 sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all questions
are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions.
15 10 Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
10 10 these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more
than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking.
4. 4. If two examinee score equal marks priority will be given
on scoring more marks in Biology. If they are same
priority will be given on the bases of physics.

5. 5. In case of more than one option correct in any question,

the best correct option will be considered as answer.
6. 6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
particulars on this page/marking responses.
7. 7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8. 8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the
Answer Sheet.

SUBJECT SECTION_A ATTEMPT SECTION_B ATTEMPT NO. OF QUE. TOTAL ATTEMPT

PHYSICS 1-35 [35] 35 36-50 [15] 10 50 45
CHEMISTRY 51-85 [35] 35 86-100 [15] 10 50 45
BOTANY 101-135 [35] 35 136-150 [15] 10 50 45
ZOOLOGY 151-185 [35] 35 186-200 [15] 10 50 45

iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr esa] vaxzsth laLdj.k dks gh vafre ekuk tk,xkA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.

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AITS-2023
PHYSICS
UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

Topics: UNIT & DIMENSION, KINEMATICS

SECTION-A -A
(Attempt All 35 questions) ( 35 )
1. Light year is the unit of 1.
(1) speed (2) mass (1) (2)
(3) distance (4) time (3) (4)
2. The M.K.S. units of coefficient of viscosity is- 2. M.K.S.
(1) kg m-1s-1 (2) kg m s-2 (1) kg m-1s-1 (2) kg m s-2
(3) kg m2 s-1 (4) kg-1 m-1 s2 (3) kg m2 s-1 (4) kg-1 m-1 s2
3. Which of the following statement is wrong ? 3. ?
(1) Unit of K.E. is Newton-metre (1) K.E.
(2) Unit of viscosity is poise (2)
(3) Work and energy have same dimensions (3)
(4) Unit of surface tension is Newton metre (4)
4. The dimensional formula for angular momentum is- 4.
(1) ML2T -2 (2) ML2T-1 (1) ML2T -2 (2) ML2T-1
(3) MLT-1 (4) M0L2T-2 (3) MLT-1 (4) M0L2T-2
5. Which one of the following has the dimensions of 5. ML–1T–2 ?
ML–1T–2 ? (1) (2)
(1) torque (2) surface tension (3) (4)
(3) viscosity (4) stress
L
L 6.
6. The dimensions of the quantity are - RCV
RCV
(1) M0 L0 T1A1 (2) M0 L0 T-1A-1
(1) M0 L0 T1A1 (2) M0 L0 T-1A-1

(3) M0 L0 T0A1 (4) M0 L0 T0A-1

(3) M0 L0 T0A1 (4) M0 L0 T0A-1
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

7. Given that v is the speed, r is radius and g is 7. v ,r g

acceleration due to gravity. Which of the following is
dimension less

v 2g
(1) (2) v2rg v 2g
r (1) (2) v2rg
r
v2 v2
(3) vr2g (4) (3) vr2g (4)
rg rg

8. Which of the following is not the unit of time 8.

(1) solar day (2) parallactic second (1) (2)

(3) leap year (4) lunar month (3) (4)

9. A dimensionless quantity : 9. :

(1) never has a unit (2) always has a unit (1) (2)
(3) may have a unit (4) does not exit (3) (4)
10. Two physical quantities whose dimensions are not 10.
same, cannot be :
(1) multiplied with each other (1)
(2) divided (2)
(3) added or substracted in the same expression (3)
(4) added together (4)
11. The time dependence of a physical quantity ? 11.
P = P0exp(– t )2
P = P0exp(– t2)
where  is a constant and t is time. The constant   t 
(1) will be dimensionless
(1)
(2) will have dimensions of T–2
(2) T–2
(3) will have dimensions as that of P
(3) P
(4) will have dimensions equal to the dimension of P
multiplied by T–2 (4) P T–2

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
12. Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by 12. F, t x
F = A sin C t + B cos D x F = A sin C t + B cos D x

A C A C
Then the dimensions of and are given by B D
B D
(1) MLT–2, M0L0T–1 (2) MLT–2, M0L–1T0
(1) MLT–2, M0L0T–1 (2) MLT–2, M0L–1T0
(3) M0L0T0, M0L1T–1 (4) M0L1T–1, M0L0T0 (3) M0L0T0, M0L1T–1 (4) M0L1T–1, M0L0T0

13. If force (F) is given by F = Pt–1 +  t, where t is time. 13. (F) F = Pt–1 +  t t
The unit of P is same as that of P
(1) velocity (2) displacement (1) (2)
(3) acceleration (4) momentum (3) (4)

F F
14. = sin(t) (here V = velocity, F = force, t = time) 14. = sin(t) ( V= ,F= ,t= ):
V2 V2
: Find the dimension of  and  - 
(1)  = [M1L1T0],  = [T–1] (1)  = [M1L1T0],  = [T–1]

(2)  = [M1L1T–1],  = [T1] (2)  = [M1L1T–1],  = [T1]

(3)  = [M1L1T–1],  = [T–1] (3)  = [M1L1T–1],  = [T–1]

(4)  = [M1L–1T0],  = [T–1] (4)  = [M1L–1T0],  = [T–1]

15. If E, M, J and G denote energy, mass, angular 15. E, M, J G

momentum and gravitational constant respectively, EJ2

EJ2 M5 G2
then has the dimensions of
M5 G 2 (1) (2)

(1) length (2) angle (3) (4)

(3) mass (4) time

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
16. At an instant t , the co-ordinates of a particle are 16. t x = at2, y = bt2
x = at2, y = bt2 and z = 0 , then its velocity at the instant
t will be z=0 t

(1) t a2  b2 (2) 2t a2  b2 (1) t a2  b2 (2) 2t a2  b2

(3) (4) 2t2 (3) a2  b2 (4) 2t2 a2  b2

a2  b2 a2  b2
17. A particle is moving so that its displacement s is given 17. s = t3-
as s = t3- 6t2 + 3t + 4 meter. Its velocity at the instant 6t2 + 3t + 4 m
when its acceleration is zero will be -
(1) 3 m/s (2) -12 m/s (1) 3 m/s (2) -12 m/s

(3) 42 m/s (4) -9 m/s (3) 42 m/s (4) -9 m/s

18. A body starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated for 18. 30 sec
30 s. The distance travelled in the first 10s is x1, next 10 Sec. x1
10 s is x2 and the last 10 s is x3. Then x1 : x2 : x3 is the 10 sec x2 10 sec. x3 x1
same as : x2 : x 3

(1) 1 : 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 : 5 (1) 1 : 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 : 5

(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 3 : 9 (3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 3 : 9

19. The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is 19.

shown below. The instantaneous velocity of the particle
is negative at the point
x x

D D

E F E F
C C
t t
(1) C (2) D (1) C (2) D
(3) E (4) F (3) E (4) F

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
20. If position time graph of a particle is sine curve as shown, 20.
what will be its velocity-time graph

x x

t t

v v v v

(1) (2) (1) (2)

t t t t

v v v v

(3) (4) (3) (4)

t t t t

21. A body sliding on a smooth inclined plane requires 4sec 21.

to reach the bottom after starting from rest at the top. 4sec
How much time does it take to cover one fourth the
1/4
distance starting from the top
(1) 1sec (2) 2 sec
(1) 1sec (2) 2 sec

(3) 0.4sec (4) 1.6 sec (3) 0.4sec (4) 1.6 sec

22. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are dropped 22. ma mb

from two different heights, viz a and b. The ratio of times a b
taken by the two to drop through these distances is

ma b
(1) a : b (2) m : a ma b
b (1) a : b (2) m : a
b

(3) a: b (4) a2 : b2
(3) a: b (4) a2 : b2

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
23. A body is thrown upward and reaches its maximum 23.
height. At that position-
(1) its velocity is zero and its acceleration is also zero
(1)
(2) its velocity is zero but its acceleration is maximum
(2)
(3) its acceleration is minimum
(3)
(4) its velocity is zero and its acceleration is the
acceleration due to gravity (4)
24. A car A is going north-east at 80 km/hr and another car 24. car A 80 km/hr
B is going south-east at 60 km/hr. Then the direction of B 60 km/hr
the velocity of A relative to B makes with the north an B A  tan
anglesuch that tan  is -  -
(1) 1/7 (2) 3/4 (1) 1/7 (2) 3/4
(3) 4/3 (4) 3/5 (3) 4/3 (4) 3/5
25. A ball is thrown upwards. It returns to ground describing 25.
a parabolic path. Which of the following remains constant
?
(1) speed of the ball
(2) kinetic energy of the ball
(1) (2)
(3) vertical component of velocity
(4) horizontal component of velocity. (3) (4)

26. The maximum range of a projectile is 22 m. When 26. 22 m

it is thrown at an angle of 15º with the horizontal, its
15º
range will be-

(1) 22 m (2) 6 m (1) 22 m (2) 6 m

(3) 15 m (4) 11 m
(3) 15 m (4) 11 m

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
2
5x
5x 2 27. y = 16x –
27. The equation of projectile is y = 16x – . The 4
4
horizontal range is-
(1) 16 m (2) 8 m
(1) 16 m (2) 8 m
(3) 3.2 m (4) 12.8 m (3) 3.2 m (4) 12.8 m
28. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is 28. u
half of its initial velocity u. Its range on the horizontal (range)
plane is

2u2 3 u2 2u2 3 u2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3g 2g 3g 2g
u2 u2 u2 u2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3g 2g 3g 2g
29. A marble A is dropped vertically, another identical 29. A
marble B is projected horizontally from the same
point at the same instant B

(1) A will reach the ground earlier than B

(1) A B
(2) B will reach the ground earlier than A
(2) B A
(3) both A and B will reach the ground at the same
instant (3) A B
(4) none of the above (4)
30. A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37º as shown in 30. 37°
figure. The man standing at P should run at what P
minimum velocity so that he catches the ball before it
strikes the ground. Assume that height of man is
negligible in comparison to maximum height of projectile.

(1) 3 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1 (1) 3 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1

(3) 9 ms–1 (4) 12 ms–1 (3) 9 ms–1 (4) 12 ms–1

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
31. From the top of a tower of height h a body 31. h m
of mass m is projected in the horizontal direction
with a velocity v, it falls on the ground at a v x
distance x from the tower. If a body of mass
2m 2h
2m is projected from the top of another tower
of height 2h in the horizontal direction so that
it falls on the ground at a distance 2x from
the tower, the horizontal velocity of the second 2x
body is-

(1) 2v (2) 2v
(1) 2v (2) 2 v
v v
(3) (4) v v
2 2 (3) (4)
2 2
32. A helicopter is flying south with a speed of 50 kmh . –1
32. 50 kmh –1

A train is moving with the same speed towards east.

The relative velocity of the helicopter as seen by the
passengers in the train will be towards.
(1) north east (2) south east (1) (2)
(3) north west (4) south west (3) (4)
33. Two particles are moving with velocities v1 and v2. Their
33. v1 v2
relative velocity is the maximum, when the angle between
their velocities is
(1) zero (2) /4 (1) (2) /4

(3) /2 (4)  (3) /2 (4) 

34. A man is walking on a road with a velocity 3 km/hr. 34. 3 km/hr

Suddenly rain starts falling. The velocity of rain is
10 km/hr in vertically downward direction. The relative 10
velocity of the rain is -
km hr
(1) 13 km/hr (2) 7 km/hr
(1) 13 km/hr (2) 7 km/hr
(3) 109 km/hr (4) 13 km/hr
(3) 109 km/hr (4) 13 km/hr

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
35. A body covers first 1/3 part of its journey with a velocity 35. 1/3 2 m/sec.
of 2 m/s, next 1/3 part with a velocity of 3 m/s and rest of
1/3 3 m/sec. 6 m/sec
the journey with a velocity 6m/s. The average velocity of
the body will be

11 11
(1) 3 m/s (2) m/s (1) 3 m/s (2) m/s
3 3

8 4 8 4
(3) m/s (4) m/s (3) m/s (4) m/s
3 3 3 3

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
SECTION-B SECTION-B
(Attempt any 10 questions) ( 10 )
36. A particle has a velocity u towards east at t = 0. Its 36. t = 0 u
acceleration is towards west and is constant, Let
xA and xB be the magnitude of displacements in the first 10sec
10 seconds and the next 10 seconds. 10 sec xA xB
(1) xA < xB (2) xA = xB (1) xA < xB (2) xA = xB
(3) xA > xB
(3) xA > xB
(4) The information is insufficient to decide the relation
of xA with xB. (4) xA xB
37. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water 37.
is h below the top of the well. If v is velocity of sound, h v T
the time T after which the splash is heard is given by T

2h h 2h h
(1) T = 2h/v (2) T   (1) T = 2h/v (2) T  g

v
g v

2h h h 2h 2h h h 2h
(3) T  
g 2v (4) T  
2g v (3) T   (4) T  
g 2v 2g v
38. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at a time t, are
38. t x = 5 sin 10t, y =
given by, x = 5 sin 10 t, y = 5 cos 10 t. The speed of the
particle is - 5 cos 10 t
(1) 25 (2) 50 (1) 25 (2) 50
(3) 10 (4) None (3) 10 (4)
39. 1 kg
39. A body of mass 1 kg is acted upon by a force 
 F  2 sin 3 t î  3 cos 3 t ĵ t = 1 sec
F  2 sin 3 t i + 3 cos 3 t j find its position at t=1 sec
t=0
if at t = 0 it is at rest at origin.

 3 3   2 2   3 3   2 2 
(1)  2 , (2)  2 , (1)  2 ,  (2)  2 , 
   3 9 2   3 3 2 
 3 9 2   3 3 2 

 2 2   2 2 
(3)  ,  (4) none of these (3)  ,  (4)
 3 3 2   3 3 2 
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
40. A ball is thrown vertically down with velocity of 5m/s. 40. 5 m/s
With what velocity should another ball be thrown down 2 sec
after 2 seconds so that it can hit the 1 ball in 2 seconds
st 2 sec
(1) 40 m/s (2) 55 m/s (1) 40 m/s (2) 55 m/s
(3) 15 m/s (4) 25 m/s (3) 15 m/s (4) 25 m/s
41. A particle is projected vertically upwards from a point A 41. A
on the ground. It takes t1 time to reach a point B but it B t1
B
still continues to move up. If it takes further t2 time to
t2 B
reach the ground from point B then height of point B
from the ground is
1
1 2
(1) g( t1  t 2 ) 2 (2) g t1 t2
(1) g( t1  t 2 ) (2) g t1 t2 2
2
1 1
1 1 (3) g( t1  t 2 )2 (4) gt 1 t 2
(3) g( t1  t 2 )2 (4) gt 1 t 2 8 2
8 2
42. Acceleration versus velocity graph of a particle 42.
moving in a straight line starting form rest is as
shown in figure. The corresponding velocity-time graph
would be - a
a

v
v
v v v v

(1) (2) (1) (2)

t t t t

v v v v

(3) (4) (3) (4)

t t t t
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
43. The acceleration of a particle which moves along the 43. x-
positive x-axis varies with its position as shown. If the
velocity of the particle is 0.8 m/s at x = 0, the velocity of
x=0 0.8 m/s x = 1.4 m
the particle at x = 1.4 is (in m/s)
2
(m/s )
a (in m/s )
2
a (in m/s )
0.4
0.4

0.2 0.2

O 0.4 0.8 1.4 x (in m) O 0.4 0.8 1.4 x (in m)

(1) 1.6 (2) 1.2 (1) 1.6 (2) 1.2

(3) 1.4 (4) none (3) 1.4 (4)
44. If a body losses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm 44. 3 cm
in a wooden block, then how much will it penetrate more
before coming to rest ?
(1) 1 cm (2) 2cm (1) 1 cm (2) 2cm
(3) 3cm (4) 4cm (3) 3cm (4) 4cm
45. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building throws 45. 10 m 300
a ball with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle 30° with the 10 m/s
horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball 10 m
be at the height of 10 m from the ground ? [g = 10 m/s2, [g = 10 m/s , sin 30° = 1/2, cos 30° =
2
3/2]
sin 30° = 1/2, cos 30° = 3/2]
(1) 5.20 m (2) 4.33 m
(1) 5.20 m (2) 4.33 m
(3) 2.60 m (4) 8.66 m
(3) 2.60 m (4) 8.66 m
46. A car moving with a speed of 50 km/h, can be stopped 46. 50 km/h 6m
by brakes after at least 6m. If the same car is moving at 100 km/h
a speed of 100 km/h, the minimum stopping distance is
(1) 12 m (2) 18 m (1) 12 m (2) 18 m

(3) 24 m (4) 6 m (3) 24 m (4) 6 m

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
47. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h, can 47. 60 km/h
brake to stop within a distance of 20 m. If the car is 20 m
going twice as fast, i.e. 120 km/h, the stopping distance 120 km/h
will be
(1) 20 m (2) 40 m (1) 20 m (2) 40 m
(3) 60m (4) 80 m (3) 60m (4) 80 m
48. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h 48. h
metre. It takes T second to reach the ground. What is
T
T T s
the position of the ball in s? 3
3
?
(1) h/9 m from the ground
(1) h/9 m
(2) 7h/9 m from the ground
(2) 7h/9 m
(3) 8h/9 m from the ground (3) 8h/9 m
(4) 17h/18 m from the ground (4) 17h/18 m
49. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 ms–1. 49. 5 ms–1 10 s
In 10 s the velocity changes to 5ms northwards. The
–1 5 ms–1

average acceleration in this time is

1 1 2
ms 2 (1) ms
(1) towards north-east 2
2
1 2 1 2
(2) ms towards north (2) ms
2 2
(3) zero (3)
1 1
(4) ms 2 towards north-west ms 2
2 (4)
2
50. The relation between time t and distance x is
50. t x t = ax2 + bx
t = ax 2 + bx, where a and b are constants. The
acceleration is a b
(1) –2abv2 (2) 2bv3 (1) –2abv2 (2) 2bv3
(3) –2av3 (4) 2av2 (3) –2av3 (4) 2av2

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AITS-2023
CHEMISTRY
UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

Topics: PERIODIC TABLE, CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE, MOLE CONCEPT, ATOMIC STRUCTURE

SECTION-A -A
(Attempt All 35 questions) ( 35 )
51. Assertion (A) : Increasing order of acidity of hydrogen 51. (A) :
halides is HF < HCl < HBr < HI
Reason (R) : While comparing acids formed by the
HF < HCl < HBr < HI
elements belonging to the same group of periodic table.
(R) :
H-A bond strength is a more important factor in de-
termining acidity of an acid than the polar nature of
H-A
the bond.
(1) A R R, A
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expla-
nation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (2) A R R, A
explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) A R
(4) Both A and R are false. (4) A R
52. The statement that is not correct for periodic 52.
classification of elements is:
(1)
(1) The properties of elements are periodic function
of their atomic numbers.
(2) Non metallic elements are less in number than (2)
metallic elements.
(3) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled
(3) 3d- 3p-
with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-orbitals.
4s-
(4) The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally
increase with increase in atomic number as we go (4)
along a period.

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

53. The formation of the oxide ion, O2- (g), from oxygen 53. O2- (g)
atom requires first an exothermic and then an
endothermic step as shown below:

Thus process of formation of O2- in gas phase is O2

unfavourable even though O2- is isoelectronic with O2
neaon. It is due to the fact that. (1)
(1) oxygen is more electronegative. (2)
(2) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size
of the ion.
(3)
(3) electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained
by achieving noble gas configuration.
(4) O- ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen (4) O-

atom.

54. Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C 54. A, B, C D

and D are given below : (A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct order of increas-
ing tendency to gain electron :
(1) A < C < B < D (2) A < B < C < D
(1) A < C < B < D (2) A < B < C < D
(3) D < B < C < A (4) D < A < B < C
(3) D < B < C < A (4) D < A < B < C

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
55. Match the correct ionisation enthalpies and electron 55.
gain enthalpies of the following elements.
Elements H1 H2 eg H H1 H2 eg H
(i) Most reactive A. 419 3051 – 48 (i) A. 419 3051 – 48
non metal
(ii) Most reactive B.1681 3374 – 328 (ii) B.1681 3374 – 328
metal
(iii) Least reactive C. 738 1451 – 40 (iii) C. 738 1451 – 40
element
(iv) Metal forming D. 2372 5251 + 48 (iv) D. 2372 5251 + 48
binary halide
(1) (i) (B); (ii) (A) (iii) (D) (iv) (C) (1) (i) (B); (ii) (A) (iii) (D) (iv) (C)
(2) (i) (A); (ii) (B) (iii) (C) (iv) (D) (2) (i) (A); (ii) (B) (iii) (C) (iv) (D)
(3) (i) (D); (ii) (C) (iii) (B) (iv) (A) (3) (i) (D); (ii) (C) (iii) (B) (iv) (A)
(4) (i) (C); (ii) (D) (iii) (A) (iv) (B) (4) (i) (C); (ii) (D) (iii) (A) (iv) (B)
56. Electronic configuration of some elements is given in 56. I
Coloumn I and their electron gain enthalpies are given II
in Column II. Match the electronic configuration with
electron gain enthalpy. I II
Column (I) Column (II) /kJmol–1
Electronic configuration Electron gain enthalpy/kJmol –1
(i) 1s2 2s2 sp6 (A) – 53
(i) 1s 2s sp
2 2 6
(A) – 53
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (B) – 328
(ii) 1s 2s 2p 3s
2 2 6 1
(B) – 328
(iii) 1s 2s 2p
2 2 5
(C) – 141
(iii) 1s 2s 2p
2 2 5
(C) – 141
(iv) 1s 2s 2p
2 2 4
(D) + 48 (iv) 1s 2s 2p
2 2 4
(D) + 48
(1) (i) (D); (ii) (A); (iii) (B) (iv) (C) (1) (i) (D); (ii) (A); (iii) (B) (iv) (C)

(2) (i) (A); (ii) (D); (iii) (C); (iv) (B) (2) (i) (A); (ii) (D); (iii) (C); (iv) (B)
(3) (i) (B); (ii) (C); (iii) (A); (iv) (D) (3) (i) (B); (ii) (C); (iii) (A); (iv) (D)
(4) (i) (D); (ii) (B); (iii) (C); (iv) (A) (4) (i) (D); (ii) (B); (iii) (C); (iv) (A)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
57. Assertion (A) : Generally, ionisation enthalpy 57. (A)-
increases from left to right in a period.
Reason (R): When successive electrons are added
to the orbitals in the same principal quantum level, (A)-
the shielding effect of inner core of electrons does
not increase very much to compensate for the in-
creased attraction of the electron to the nucleus.
(1) Assertion is correct statement and reason is wrong
statement.
(1)
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct explanation of (2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(3)
(4) Assertion is wrong statement and reason ts correct
statement. (4)
58. Which of the following is added to soap to impart 58.
antiseptic properties?
(1) Bithional (2) Luminal (1) (2)
(3) Veronal (4) Chloral (3) (4)

59. Among the following which one is a bacteriostatic 59.

antibiotic (inhibits the growth of bacteria)?
(1) Penicillin (2) Erythromycin (1) (2)
(3) Ofloxacin (4) Chloramphenicol (3) (4)

60. Bithional is an example of 60.

(1) disinfectant (2) antiseptic (1) (2)

(3) analgesic (4) antibiotic (3) (4)

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
61. Tincture iodine is 61.
(1) an aqueous solution of I2 (1) I2
(2) a solution of I2 in aqueous KI (2) KI I2
(3) an alcoholic solution I2 (3) I2
(4) an aqueous solution of KI (4) KI

62. Asprin is used as an 62.

(1) (2)
(1) antipyretic (2) narotic
(3) (4)
(3) tranquilliser (4) anaesthetic
63. Which of the following is a bacteriostatic? 63.
(1) Penicillin (2) Erythromycin (1) (2)
(3) Bithionol (4) Ofloxacin (3) (4)
64. The pair whose both species are used in anti-acid 64.
medicinal preparation is.
(1) NaHCO3 and Mg(OH)2 (1) NaHCO3 Mg(OH)2
(2) Na2CO3 and Ca(HCO3)2 (2) Na2CO3 Ca(HCO3)2
(3) Ca(HCO3)2 Mg(OH)2
(3) Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(OH)2
(4) Ca(OH)2 NaHCO3
(4) Ca(OH)2 and NaHCO3
65. Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic? 65.
(1) Tetracycline (2) Chloromycetin (1) (2)
(3) Penicillin (4) None of these (3) (4)
66. If n and l are respectively the principal and azimuthal 66. n l
quantum numbers then the expression for calculat-
ing the total number of electrons in any energy level
is
l=(n -1 )
l=n
l=n
l=(n -1 )
(1) 2(2l 1) (2) 2(2l 1)
(1) 2(2l 1) (2) 2(2l 1) l =1
l =1
l =1
l =1
l=(n +1 ) l=(n -1 )
l=(n +1 ) l=(n -1 )
(3) 2(2l 1) (4) 2(2l 1)
(3) 2(2l 1) (4) 2(2l 1) l =0 l =0
l =0 l =0

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
67. If there were the possibilities of electron spin as 1 1
67. , 0,
1 1 2 2
,0, , then K(19) would be placed in
2 2 K(19)
(1) s-block (2) p-block (1) s-block (2) p-block
(3) d-block (4) f-block (3) d-block (4) f-block

68. Consider following statements about Ni4+, Fe2+, 68. Ni4+, Fe2+, Mn+ Co3+
Mn+ and Co3+.
I. They are isoelectronic. I

II. All are paramagnetic. II.

III. All have same electronic configuration except Mn+. III. Mn+

IV. All from coloured ions. IV.

Select correct statements.
(1) I, II (2) I, II, III (1) I, II (2) I, II, III
(3) II, III, IV (4) I, II, III, IV (3) II, III, IV (4) I, II, III, IV
69. A photon is associated with a wavelength 663 pm. 69. 663 pm
Linear momentum of the photon (in kg ms–1) is (in kg ms–1)
24 19 24
(1) 1 10 (2) 1 10 (1) 1 10 (2) 1 10 19

22 26
(3) 1 10 (4) 1 10 (3) 1 10 22
(4) 1 10 26

70. A 2 p3-configuration in N-atom can be written as 7 0 .

70. 2p3
a many as 2 p3
(1) Two ways (2) Nine ways (1) (2)
(3) Twelve ways (4) Twenty ways (3) (4)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
71. In the following electronic configuration some rules 71.
have been violated :

I. Hund's rule I. (Hund's rule)

II. Pauli's exclusion rule II. (Pauli's exclusion rule)

III. Aufbau rule III. (Aufbau rule)

Select the rules which have been violated

(1) I, II (2) I, III

(1) I, II (2) I, III
(3) II, III (4) I, II, III (3) II, III (4) I, II, III
72. In some regions of space around the nucleus 72. 2
0
2
0 , thus region is called

(1) nucleus (2) spherical nodes (1) (2)

(3) orbital (4) orbit (3) (4)
73. The wavelength of the electrons that have been 73. 1.00 kV
accelerated through a potential difference of 1.00
kV is
(1) 3.88 pm (2) 38.8 pm (1) 3.88 pm (2) 38.8 pm
(3) 388 pm (4) 0.388 pm (3) 388 pm (4) 0.388 pm

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
74. When an electron falls from a level of energy 4E
74. (E)
4E 3
to level of energy (E), radiation of wave-
3 3
length 3 is observed. If electron falls from a level 2E E
of energy 2E to a level of energy E, wavelength of
radiation is
4
4 (1) 3 (2)
(1) 3 (2) 3
3
3
3 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 4
4
75.
75. Which has maximum frequency?
(1) –line in Lyman series in H-atom (1) H-

(2) –line in Balmer series in He+ion (2) He+

(3) –line in Paschen series in Li2+ion (3) Li2+

(4) All have equal frequency (4)
76. Equal masses of ethanol (d = 0.75 g mL–1) and 76. (d = 0.75 g mL–1) (d = 1.00 g mL–
water (d = 1.00 g mL–1) are mixed at 298 K. Thus, )
1
298 K
volume percent of ethanol in the mixture is
(1) 25.00% (2) 42.86% (1) 25.00% (2) 42.86%
(3) 50.00% (4) 57.14% (3) 50.00% (4) 57.14%
77. 50 mL of concentrated H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g mL–1) is 77. 50 mL H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g mL–1) 100 mL
mixed with 100 mL H2O (d = 1.0 g mL–1) at 298 H2O (d = 1.0 g mL–1) 298 K
K. Thus, mass percentage of H2SO4 in the mix- H2SO4
ture is
(1) 33.33% (2) 66.66%
(1) 33.33% (2) 66.66%
(3) 53.64% (4) 47.36%
(3) 53.64% (4) 47.36%

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
78. Consider the following pairs : 78.
I. CH4, C2H6 II. NO, NO2 I. CH4, C2H6 II. NO, NO2
III. CO, CO2 IV. H2O, H2O2 III. CO, CO2 IV. H2O, H2O2
In which cases, law of multiple proportions is fol-
lowed
(1) I and III (2) I, II and III (1) I III (2) I, II III
(3) I, II, and IV (4) I, II III and IV (3) I, II IV (4) I, II III IV
79. Consider the following experiments: 79.
I. 3 g of the metal when heated with steam gave I. 3 g 5.0 g
5.0 g metal oxide.
II. 0.9 g of the same metal on heating with oxygen II. 0.9 g
gave 1.5 g of metal oxide. 1.5 g
Above observations verify the
(1) law of multiple proportions (1)
(2) law of reciprocal proportion (2)
(3) law of definite proportion by mass (3)
(4) law of definite proportion by volume (4)
80. Consider following species :
80.
I. Atoms of an element having different number of
electrons. I.
II. Atoms of an element having different number
of neutrons. II.
40 40
III. 19 K
40
20 Ca
40
III. 19 K and 20 Ca

90
IV. 90
38 Sr and 88
38 Sr
IV. 38 Sr
88
38 Sr

Which of the above represent isotopes?

(1) I, IV (2) II, III (1) I, IV (2) II, III
(3) I, III (4) II, IV (3) I, III (4) II, IV
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
81. Ions A , B and C are isoelectronic of peroxide 81.
– + 3+
A–, B+ C3+ (O 22 )
ion (O 22 ) and number of neutrons are Z, (Z+1) Z,
and (Z+2), respectively where Z is the atomic num- (Z+1) (Z+2) Z B
ber of the element B. Thus, number of neutrons in A–, B+ C3+
A–, B+ and C3+ in the increasing order is
(1) A < B < C (2) B < A < C (1) A < B < C (2) B < A < C
(3) C < A < B (4) C < B < A (3) C < A < B (4) C < B < A
82. Silver may be removed from a solution of its salt 82.
by reaction with metallic zinc
Zn 2Ag Zn 2 2Ag Zn 2Ag Zn 2 2Ag
A50 g piece of Zn was treated with a 100 L of A50 g Zn 100 L 3.0 g Ag+/L
Ag+ containing 3.0 g Ag+/L (Ag = 108, Zn = 65.4)
in this case, (Ag = 108, Zn = 65.4)
(1) Ag+ Zn
(1) Ag+ is in excess and Zn is completely used
(2) 1.52 mol of Ag+ is used (2) 1.52 mol Ag+
(3) 0.76 mol of Zn is used (3) 0.76 mol Zn
(4) All of the above are correct (4)
83. A compound of nitrogen is found to contain 0.35g 83. 0.35g
of nitrogen per gram of oxygen. Oxide is
(1) NO (2) NO2 (1) NO (2) NO2
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
84. In which case percentage yield of O2 is maximum 84.
from 1 mol of the reactant ? O2
(1) 2KClO3 2KCl 3O 2 (22.4 L O2 at STP)
(1) 2KClO3 2KCl 3O 2 (22.4 L O2 at STP)
(2) 2Pb(NO3 )2 2PbO 4NO 2 O2 (10 L at
STP) (2) 2Pb(NO3 )2 2PbO 4NO 2 O2 (10 L at

(3) 2NaNO3 2NaNO 2 O2 (11.2 L at STP) STP)

(3) 2NaNO3 2NaNO 2 O2 (11.2 L at STP)
(4) 2H 2 O2 2H 2 O O2 (5.6 L at STP)
(4) 2H 2 O2
Space for rough work 2H 2 O O2 (5.6 L at STP)
85. 1 mol SO2 reacts with 1 mol of H2S, then S formed 85. 1 SO2 1 H2S
is S
SO2 2H 2S 2H 2 O 3S SO2 2H 2S 2H 2 O 3S
(1) 96 g (2) 48 g (1) 96 g (2) 48 g
(3) 24 g (4) 64 g (3) 24 g (4) 64 g
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
SECTION-B SECTION-B
(Attempt any 10 questions) ( 10 )
86. Electron in H-atom is excited to 2s level where 86. 2s
wave function is given by
32
32
1 1 r r 2a 0 1 1 r
2s 2 e 2 e r 2a 0
4 2 a0 a0 2s
4 2 a0 a0
Radius r in terms of a0 where radial node in 2s r
occurs is
(1) a0 (2) 1/a0 (1) a0 (2) 1/a0
1 1
(3) 2a0 (4) 2a (3) 2a0 (4) 2a
0
0

87. In schrodinger wave equation given below 87.

2 8 m 8 m
(E U) 0 2
(E U) 0
h2 h2
2 and U are 2 U
2 U 2 U

d2 d2 d2 d2 d2 d2
(1) Ze/r (1) Ze/r
dx 2 dy 2 dz 2 dx 2 dy 2 dz 2

d2 d2 d2 d2 d2 d2
(2) –Ze2/r (2) 2 –Ze2/r
dx 2 dy 2 dz 2 dx dy 2 dz 2

d d d d d d
(3) dx dy dz
–Ze2/r (3) dx –Ze2/r
dy dz
(4) None of the above (4)

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
88. Following represents a graph between v (wave- 88. (v) ( V)
number) and V (V is the potential applied to two A B
sub-atomic particles A and B)

A B
Thus, relative masses of A and B can be
mA
mA (1) m 1
(1) m 1 B
B
mA
mA (2) m 1
(2) m 1 B
B
mA
mA (3) m 1
(3) m 1 B
B
(4)
(4) cannot be predicted

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
89. Following are plots of probability density (r) 2
89. 2
(r) (r)
as a function of distance r of the electron from the
nucleus

(I)
(I)

(II)
(II)

(III)
(III)

(IV)
(IV)

For 1s and 2s orbital, correct plot are 1s 2s

(1) I, II (2) I, III (1) I, II (2) I, III
(3) III, IV (4) I, IV (3) III, IV (4) I, IV
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
90. Potential energy of the electron is 90.

rn kZe 2
(1) dr rn kZe 2
rn2 (1) dr
rn2
(2) –2 (KE)
(2) –2 (KE)
1 1
(3) (total energy of the electron) (3) (total energy of the electron)
2 2
(4) All of these (4)
91. 10 g each of Li2CO3, BeCO3, CaCO3, BaCO3 91. 10 g Li2CO3, BeCO3, CaCO3, BaCO3
and K2CO3 are heated separately, Centimoles of K2CO3
carbonates are plotted against volume of CO2 (in CO2 (in L at STP)
L at STP) as shown below. Which of the following
is not placed at correct place?

(1) BeCO3 (2) K2CO3

(1) BeCO3 (2) K2CO3
(3) Li2CO3 (4) BaCO3
(3) Li2CO3 (4) BaCO3

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
92. Alkaline earth metals X, Y, Z on reaction with Cl2 92. X, Y, Z Cl2
From chloride. Graph between amount of metal
taken (along X-axis) and amount of chloride
formed (along Y-axis) is of the type.
Mass of chloride formed

Mass of chloride formed

Z
Z
(in gram)

(in gram)
X
Y
Y

Mass of metal taken (in gram)

Mass of metal taken (in gram)

Thus, atomic masses of metals X, Y and Z are in

order
(1) X < Y < Z (2) Y < X < Z (1) X < Y < Z (2) Y < X < Z
(3) Z < X < Y (4) Z < Y < X (3) Z < X < Y (4) Z < Y < X
93. In the following sequence of reaction : percentage 93.
yields are shown : 50%
2KClO3 2KCl 3O2
50%
2KClO3 2KCl 3O2 40%
4Na O 2 2Na 2 O
40%
4Na O 2 2Na 2 O 100%
2Na 2 O 2H 2 O 4NaOH
100%
2Na 2 O 2H 2 O 4NaOH
KClO3 2
Starting with 2 moles of KClO3, moles of NaOH NaOH
in the final stage would be
(1) 2.4 mol (2) 1.2 mol
(1) 2.4 mol (2) 1.2 mol
(3) 0.6 mol (4) 0.3 mol (3) 0.6 mol (4) 0.3 mol
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
94. A sample of H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g mL–1) with 98% by 94. 98% H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g mL–1)
mass of solution is to be used to prepare 1 L of 0.18 MH2SO4 1
0.18 MH2SO4.
Thus, volume of concentrated H2SO4 required is H2SO4
(1) 10 mL (2) 20 mL (1) 10 mL (2) 20 mL
(3) 40 mL (4) 100 mL (3) 40 mL (4) 100 mL
95. In the graph, number of protons are plotted vs 95.
number of neutrons for the element A to G and H A G
(hydrogen). Maximum number of neutrons are
present in one formula unit of H

(1) DH4E (2) A2E (1) DH4E (2) A2E

(3) GE (4) DE2 (3) GE (4) DE2

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

96. Assertion (A) : Boron has a smaller first ionisation 96 (A)-

enthalpy than beryllium.
Reason (R) : The penetration of a 2s electron to (R)- 2s- 2s-
the nucleus is more than the 2p electrons hence 2p
2s-
electron is more shielded by the inner core of electrons
than the 2s electrons.
(1) Assertion and reason both are correct statement (1)
but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct statement but reason but
(2)
reason is wrong statement.
(3)
(3) Assertion and reason both are correction state-
ments and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements. (4)
97. Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy becomes less 97. (A)-
negative as we go down a group.
Reason (R): Size of the atom increases on going (R)-
down the group and the added electron would be
farther from the nucleus.
(1) Assertion and reason both are correet statements
(1)
but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct statements
and reason is correct explanation for assertion. (2)
(3) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements
(4) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct (3)
statement. (4)
98. The first ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si 98. Na, Mg, Al Si
are in the order:
(1) Na < Mg > Al < Si (1) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(2) Na > Mg > Al > Si (2) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(3) Na < Mg < Al < Si (3) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(4) Na > Mg > Al < Si Space for rough work
(4) Na > Mg > Al < Si
99. When one among the following is not an antibiotic? 99.
(1) Erythromycin (2) Tetracyclin (1) (2)
(3) Ofloxacin (4) Oxytocin (3) (4)
100. Salvarsan is used in the treatment of 100.
(1) typhoid (2) dysentery (1) (2)
(3) syphilis (4) jaundice (3) (4)

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AITS-2023
BOTANY
UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

Topics: THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION & PLANT KINGDOM

SECTION-A -A
(Attempt All 35 questions) ( 35 )
101. How many Statement given below are correct. 101. uhps fn;s x;s fdrus dFku lgh gSaA
A. The descending arrangment of taxonomic A. ofXkZdh Js.kh dk vojksgh Øe hierarchy dgykrk gSA
categeriess is called hierarchy
B. ofxZdh dk izFke pj.k ukedj.k gSA
B. First step of taxnomy is Nomenclature
C. Family oxhZdj.k dh vk/kkjh; bZdkbZ ;k lw{ere
C. Family is smallest taxon of classification Taxon gSA
D. Related genera belong to the same family D. vkil esa lEcfU/kr oa'k 'dqy Family' esa j[ks tkrs gSA
E. Solanaceae is a taxonmic categery E. Solanaceae ofxZdh Js.kh gSA
(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
102. Which one is correct statements 102. dkSulk dFku lgh gSA
(1) Primata is a class of animals (1) izkbesVk tUrqvksa dk ,d oxZ gSA
(2) Genus comes in between order and phylum (2) oa'k Js.kh x.k rFkk la?k ds e/; vkrh gSA
(3) Systeme naturae deals with animal classification (3) flLVsek uspqjh tUrqvksa ds oxhZdj.k ls lEcfU/kr gSA
(4) Diptera is family of insects (4) Deptera dhVks dk dqy gSA
103. Which of the following statements is incorrect. 103. vlR; dFkuksa dk pu djsA
A. Bluegreen algae were kept in kingdom plantae of A. B.G.A izkjfEHkd oxhZdj.k ds ikni txr esa j[ks x;s
earlier system of classification FksA
B. In slime moulds cell wall is present only in B. Slime mould ¼vaoid½ dh dkf;d voLFkk esa dksf'kdk
vegetative phase of life fHkfÙk ik;h tkrh gSA

C. The group which does not have R.B.C was called C. vfjLVksVy us R.B.C fofgu tUrqvksa dks Anaima
leqg esa j[kk
Anima by Aristote
(1) dsoy B (2) A rFkk B
(1) Only B (2) A and B
(3) B rFkk C (4) A rFkk C
(3) B and C (4) A and C

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
104. Which of the following is a class? 104. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d oxZ gS&
(1) Mammalia (2) Sapindales (1) eSesfy;k (2) lSfiuMsYl
(3) Primata (4) Poales (3) izkbesVk (4) iks,Yl
105. No names are recognised prior to those used by 105. yhfu;l }kjk 1758 esa fuEu esa ls fdlds 10th laLdj.k esa
Linnaeus in 1758 in the 10th edition of– iz;qDr ukeksa ls igys fdlh Hkh uke dh igpku ugh dh
(1) Systema Naturae (2) Species Plantarum x;h Fkh\
(3) Genera Plantarum (4) Philosophia Botanica (1) Systema Naturae (2) Species Plantarum
106. Carnivora includes– (3) Genera Plantarum (4) Philosophia Botanica
(1) Group of organisms belonging to related genera 106. dkuhZoksjk ds varxZr lfEefyr gksrk gS&
(2) Group of organisms belonging to related species (1) lacaf/kr oa'kksa esa ik;s tkus okys thoksa dk lewg
(3) Group of organisms belonging to related families (2) lacaf/kr tkfr;ksa esa ik;s tkus okys thoksa dk lewg
(4) Group of organisms which are similar in all features (3) lacaf/kr dqyksa esa ik;s tkus okys thoksa dk lewg
107. The common characteristics between tomato and (4) lHkh y{k.kksa esa leku thoksa dk lewg
potato will be maximum at the level of their– 107. VekVj rFkk vkYkw esa leku y{k.k fdl Lrj ij lokZf/kd
(1) Family (2) Genus gksxs&
(3) Order (4) Division (1) dqy (2) oa'k
108. Mycoplasma is not inhibited by penicillin because it (3) x.k (4) izHkkx
does not have– 108. Mycoplasma, isfuflyhu ls lanfer ugha gksrk] D;ksafd &
(1) Cell wall (2) Nucleus (1) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk ugha gksrh (2) dsUnzd ugha gksrk
(3) Ribosomes (4) Sexual reproduction (3) jkbZckslkse ugha gksrk (4) ySafxd tuu ugha gksrk
109. Cyanobacteria are– 109. Cyanobacteria gSa&
(1) Oxygenic with nitrogenase (1) Oxygenic rFkk nitrogenase ;qDr
(2) Oxygenic without nitrogenase (2) Oxygenic rFkk nitrogenase jfgr
(3) Nonoxygenic with nitrogenase (3) Nonoxygenic rFkk nitrogenase ;qDr
(4) Nonoxygenic without nitrogenase (4) Nonoxygenic rFkk nitrogenase jfgr
110. The walking fern is so named because– 110. okfdax QuZ uke j[kk x;k gS] D;ksafd&
(1) It propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips (1) ;g i.kZ 'kh"kZ }kjk dkf;d iztuu djrk gS
(2) It knows how to walk by itself (2) ;g tkurk gS fd fdl izdkj Lo;a pyk tkrk gS
(3) Its spores are able to walk (3) blds chtk.kq pyus esa l{ke gksrs gSa
(4) It is dispersed through the agency of walking (4) bldk izdh.kZu pyu'khy tarqvksa dh ;qfDr;ksa }kjk
animals gksrk gSA
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
111. Which statement is wrong for viruses? 111. fo"kk.kq ds fy, dkSulk dFku vlR; gS&
(1) All are parasites (1) lHkh ijthoh gksrs gSa
(2) All of them have helical symmetry (2) lHkh dq.Mfyuh lefer n'kkZrs gSa
(3) Antibiotics have no effect on them (3) bu ij izfrtSfodksa dk izHkko ugha gksrk gS
(4) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and (4) ;s nucleic vEy vkSj izksVhu la'ys"k.k djus esa l{ke
proteins gksrs gSa
112. Which of the following is correct? 112. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi lgh gS&
(1) All slime moulds are haploid (1) lHkh voiad QQwanh vxqf.kr gksrs gSa
(2) Protozoans lack cell wall (2) izksVkstksvk esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dk vHkko gksrk gS
(3) Dinoflagellates are non-motile (3) Mkbuks¶ySthysV vpy gksrs gSa
(4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena (4) ;qXyhuk esa isfydy vuqifLFkr jgrh gS
113. Which of the following option for diatoms is correct– 113. Mk;VEl ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi lgh gS&
(1) lignin-cellulosic cell wall (1) Pecto-cellulosic dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
(2) Silicified cell wall (2) Silicified dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
(3) Multicellular eukaryotes (3) cgqdksf'kdh; ;wdsfj;ksV~l
(4) Produce saxitoxin (4) Saxitoxin mRiUu djrs gSa
114. Mark the correct match– 114. lgh feyku dhft,&
(1) Amoeboid protozoan – All endoparasite (1) vehch; izksVkstksvk – lHkh var%ijthoh
(2) Flagellated protozoan – Paramoecium (2) d'kkHkh izksVkstksvk – iSjkehf'k;e
(3) Sporozoan – Absence of locomotory structure (3) Liksjkstksvk – xeu lajpuk dh vuqifLFkfr
(4) Ciliated protozoan – Entamoeba (4) i{ekHkh izksVkstksvk – ,UVkehck
115. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct 115. dodksa ds ySfxd pØ ds laca/k esa ?kVukvksa ds lgh Øe dk
sequence of events– p;u dhft;s&
(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis (1) dsUnzdlay;u] dks'kknzO;&lay;u rFkk v/kZl=w kh&foHkktu
(2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy (2) v/kZl=w kh&foHkktu] dks'kknzO;&lay;u rFkk dsUnzdlay;u
(3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis (3) dks'kknzO;&lay;u] dsUnzdlay;u] rFkk v/kZl=w kh&foHkktu
(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy (4) v/kZl=w kh&foHkktu] dsUnzdlay;u rFkk dks'kknzO;&lay;u
116. Black rust of wheat is caused by & 116. xsgwa ds dkyk fdV~V dk dkj.k gS&
(1) Rhizopus (2) Yeast (1) Rhizopus (2) Yeast
(3) Penicillium (4) Puccinia (3) Penicillium (4) Puccinia
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
117. Severe famine of West Bengal 1942-43 was due to 117. if'peh caxky esa 1942-43 dk Hk;adj vdky pkoy dh
the destruction of rice crop by a fungus called– Qly ds fdl dod }kjk fouk'k ds dkj.k gqvk&
(1) Helminthosporium (2) Penicillium (1) Helminthosporium (2) Penicillium
(3) Rhizopus (4) Puccinia (3) Rhizopus (4) Puccinia
118. Which group of organisms is represented by the given 118. fn;s x;s fp=k esa fdl lewg dk fp=k n'kkZ;k x;k gS &
figure?

(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates (1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates

(3) Bacteria (4) Euglenoids (3) Bacteria (4) Euglenoids
119. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct 119. Column-I rFkk column-II dk feyku djsa &
option from the codes given below–
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
A. Chief producers in (i) Euglenoids A. Chief producers in (i) Euglenoids
oceans oceans
B. Red tides (ii) Diatoms B. Red tides (ii) Diatoms
C. Mixotrophic nutrition (iii) Slime moulds C. Mixotrophic nutrition (iii) Slime moulds
D. Plasmodium (iv) Dinoflagellates D. Plasmodium (iv) Dinoflagellates
(1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) (3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) (4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
120. Identify the given figure of a protozoan protist and select 120. fn;s x;s Protozoan protist ds fp=k esa lgh mÙkj dk p;u
the correct option– djsa &

(1) Entamoeba histolytica (1) Entamoeba histolytica

(2) Plasmodium vivax (2) Plasmodium vivax
(3) Giardia intestinalis (3) Giardia intestinalis
(4) Trypanosoma gambiense (4) Trypanosoma gambiense
121. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following group 121. ofxZdh inkuqØe esa VSDlk (oxZdksa) ds fuEu esa ls dkSu ls
of taxa will have less number of similarities as lewg esa nwljs dh rqyuk esa lekUkrkvksa dh la[;k de gksxh&
compared to other?
(1) lksysuslh, dksUoksYoqyslh rFkk iks,lh
(1) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae and Poaceae
(2) ikWyhekWuh,Yl] iks,Yl rFkk lSfiuMsYl
(2) Polymoniales, Poales and Sapindales
(3) Solanum, Petunia and Atropa (3) lksysue] fiVqfu;k rFkk ,Vªksik

(4) Leopard, tiger and lion (4) rsanqvk] ck?k rFkk 'ksj
122. Sexual reproduction in fungi occurs by all of the 122. dodks a esa yS af xd tuu fuEufyf[kr lHkh izd kj ds
following except– chtk.kqvksa ls gksrk gS &
(1) Oospores (1) Oospores ds vfrfjDr
(2) Ascopores (2) Ascopores ds vfrfjDr
(3) Zoospores (3) Zoospores ds vfrfjDr

(4) Basidiospores (4) Basidiospores ds vfrfjDr

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
123. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct 123. Column-I rFkk column-II dks lqesfyr djrs gq, lgh dFku
option from the codes given below– dk p;u djsa &
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
A. Phycomycetes (i) Sac fungi A. Phycomycetes (i) Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes (ii) Algal fungi B. Ascomycetes (ii) Algal fungi
C. Basidiomycetes (iii) Fungi imperfecti C. Basidiomycetes (iii) Fungi imperfecti
D. Deuteromycetes (iv) Club fungi D. Deuteromycetes (iv) Club fungi
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
124. Which of the following statements is not correct 124. Ascomycetes ds laEcU/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk
regarding the class Ascomycetes? dFku lgh ugha gS &
(1) Conidia are the asexual spores produced (1) dksusfM;k vySafxd chtk.kq gksrs gSa tks dksusfM;kWQkWlZ
endogenously on conidiophores ij vUrZtkr mRifÙk esa fodflr gksrs gSa
(2) Ascospores are the sexual spores produced (2) Ascospores chktk.kq ftudh mRifÙk asci ds vUnj
endogenously in asci vUrZtkr izdkj dh gksrh gS
(3) Aspergillus, Neurospora and Claviceps are (3) Aspergillus, Neurospora rFkk Claviceps,
ascomycetes fungi ascomycetes ds dod gSa
(4) Mycelium is generally branched and septate in (4) ,LdksekbflVht esa dod tky lkekU;rk 'kkf[kr
ascomycetes iV~;qDr gksrk gS
125. Fungi lacking crosswalls in the mycelium belong to 125. ,sls dod ftuds dod tky esa vuqizLFk iV~ ugha gksrs
class– fdl oxZ esa vkrs gSa &
(1) Phycomycetes (1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
126. There is no alternation of generation in Escherichia 126. ,sLdsfjfd;k dksykbZ esa ih<+h ,dkarj.k ugha ik;k tkrk gS
coli because of the absence of– D;ksafd blesa ugha gksrk gS&
(1) Syngamy (3) Conjugation (1) ;qXed lay;u (3) U;wudkjh foHkktu
(2) Reduction division (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) la;qXeu (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
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127. Which one of the following matches is correct? 127. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;qXe lgh gS&
(1) Agaricus-Parasitic-Basidiomycetes-fungus (1) Agaricus-Parasitic-Basidiomycetes-fungus
(2) Phytophthora-Aseptate mycelium-Basidiomycetes (2) Phytophthora-Aseptate mycelium-Basidiomycetes
(3) Alteraaria-Sexual reproduction absent- (3) Alteraaria-Sexual reproduction absent-
Deuteromycetes Deuteromycetes
(4) Mucor-Reproduction by Conjugation-Ascomycetes
(4) Mucor-Reproduction by Conjugation-Ascomycetes
128. xyr dFku dks pqfu,&
128. Select the wrong statement–
(1) dodksa vkSj ikni txr ds lnL;ksa esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
(1) Cell wall is present in members of fungi and mifLFkr gksrh gSA
plantae. (2) N=kdksa dk laca/k cSflfM;ksekbflVht ls gSA
(2) Mushrooms belong to basidiomycetes. (3) Liksjkstksvuksa esa iknkHk pyus vkSj [kk| xzg.k djus
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures dh lajpuk,a gSaA
in sporozoans. (4) eksusjk dks NksM+dj lHkh tho txrksa dh dksf'kdk esa
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all lw=kdf.kdk,a ,d 'kfDr x`g gSaA
kingdoms except monera. 129. Ectocarpus gS&
129. Ectocarpus is– (1) ,dksf'kdh; gjk 'kSoky
(1) Unicellular green algae (2) rarqe; Hkwjh 'kSoky
(2) Filamentous brown algae (3) 'kkf[kr yky 'kSoky
(3) Branched red algae (4) e.Myh; gjk 'kSoky
(4) Colonial green algae 130. fuEu esa ls fdlesa thoksa dks lewgksa esa j[kus dk vk/kkj DNA
130. DNA sequence is the basis of grouping organisms in– dk vuqØe gksrk gS&
(1) Karyotaxonomy (2) Cytotaxonomy (1) dsUnzdofxZdh (2) dksf'kdkofxZdh
(3) Phenetics (4) Chemotaxonomy (3) QsusfVDl (4) j;k;uofxZdh
131. Which of the following occurs in marine water ? 131. fuEufyf[kr esa ls leqnzh 'kSoky gS&
(1) Volvox (2) Chlorella (1) Volvox (2) Chlorella
(3) Dictyota (4) None of these (3) Dictyota (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
132. Phylogenetic classification is one which is based on– 132. tkfro`Ùkh; oxhZdj.k fuEu ij vk/kkfjr gS&
(1) Overall similarities (1) yxHkx lHkh lekurkvksa ij
(2) Utilitarian system (2) mi;ksfxrk iz.kkyh ij
(3) Habits of plants (3) ikniksa ds LoHkko ij
(4) Common evolutionary descent (4) lkekU; fodklh; oa'k ij
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133. Bryophyt which provides peat is– 133. ihV iznku djus okyk czk;ksQkbV gS&
(1) Sphagnum (2) Marchantia (1) Sphagnum (2) Marchantia
(3) Funnaria (4) Polytrichum (3) Funnaria (4) Polytrichum
134. Bryphytes are– 134. czk;ksQkbV~l gksrs gSa&
(1) Always homosporous (1) lnSo lechtk.kqd
(2) Always heterosporous (2) lnSo fo"kechtk.kqd
(3) Sometimes heterosporous (3) dHkh dHkh fo"kechtk.kqd
(4) Seldom homosporous (4) dHkh dHkkj lechtk.kqd
135. In Funaria, 20 chromosomes are present in rhizoids, 135. ¶;wusfj;k esa] ewykHkkl esa 20 xq.klw=k mifLFkr gSa rks iq/kkauh]
then the number of chromosome in antheridum, spore chtk.kq ekr`dksf'kdk ,oa chtk.kq esa xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k
mother cell and spore will be– gksxh&
(1) 20, 40, 40 respectively (1) Øe'k% 20, 40, 40
(2) 40, 20, 20 respectively (2) Øe'k% 40, 20, 20
(3) 20, 40, 20 respectively (3) Øe'k%20, 40, 20
(4) 40, 10, 20 respectively (4) Øe'k% 40, 10, 20

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
SECTION-B SECTION-B
(Attempt any 10 questions) ( 10 )
136. Sex organs are found on specialized stalked sexual 136. ySafxd tuukax fof'k"V o`Ur;qDr xqfgdkvksa esa ik;s tkrs gSa
receptacles called antheridiophore and ftudks iqa/kkuh/kj rFkk L=kh/kkuh/kj dgrs gSa] ik;s tkrs gSa &
archegoniophore in– (1) Riccia esa (2) Marchantia esa
(1) Riccia (2) Marchantia (3) Funaria esa (4) Dryopteris esa
(3) Funaria (4) Dryopteris 137. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft;s&
137. Select the incorrect statement– (1) uksLVkWd rFkk ,sukchuk esa ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k ds
(1) Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for fy, gsVsjksflLV gksrh gSA
nitrogen fixation (2) lk;uksthok.kq iznwf"kr tyk'k;ksa esa izk;% izLQqVu dk
(2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water fuekZ.k djrs gSaA
bodies (3) ijiks"kh thok.kq izd`fr esa vf/kd izpqjrk esa ik;s tkrs gSaA
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in nature (4) ekbdksIykTek dh dksf'kdk fHkfÙk dkbfVu dh cuh
(4) The cell wall of Mycoplasma are made up of chitin gksrh gSA
138. The embryonic development in bryophytes takes place 138. Bryophytes esa Hkwz.kh; fodkl fuEu esa laiUu gksrk gS &
in the–
(1) Protonema (2) Sporangium
(1) Protonema (2) Sporangium
(3) Antheridium (4) Archegonium
(3) Antheridium (4) Archegonium
139. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk okLrfod ekWl ugha gS &
139. Which one of the following is a true moss–
(1) Irish moss (2) Club moss (1) Irish moss (2) Club moss

(3) Bog moss (4) Reindeer moss (3) Bog moss (4) Reindeer moss
140. Select the mismatched pair– 140. xyr feyku dk p;u djksa&
(1) Amhibians of plant kingdom – Bryophytes (1) ikni txr ds mHk;pj– Bryophytes
(2) First terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues (2) igys LFkyh; ikS/ ks tks la o gu ÅÙkd j[krs gS a –
– Gymnosperms Gymnosperms
(3) Water required for fertilization – Pteridophytes (3) fu"kspu ds fy, ty dh vko';rk– Pteridophytes
(4) Seeds enclosed in fruits – Angiosperms (4) Qyksa esa vkc) cht– Angiosperms

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141. Bryophytes include– 141. Bryophytes esa lfEefyr gSa&
(1) Liverworts and ferns (2) Mosses and ferns (1) Liverworts rFkk ferns (2) Mosses rFkk ferns
(3) Mosses and liverworts (4) All of these (3) Mosses rFkk liverworts (4) mijksDr lHkh
142. Select the correct match– 142. lgh feyku dk p;u dhft;s&
(1) Psilopsida - Dryopteris (1) Psilopsida - Dryopteris
(2) Lycopsida - Selaginella (2) Lycopsida - Selaginella
(3) Sphenopsida - Pteris (3) Sphenopsida - Pteris
(4) Pteropsida - Equisetum (4) Pteropsida - Equisetum
143. Pteriodphytes are also called– 143. VsfjMksQkbV~l ;s Hkh dgykrs gSa&
(1) Vascular amphibians of plant kingdom (1) ikni txr ds laoguh; mHk;pj
(2) First tracheophytes (2) izFke VªSfd;ksQkbV~l
(3) Botanical snakes (3) okUkLifrd liZ
(4) All of these (4) buesa ls LkHkh
144. In Selaginella the embryo develops into– 144. Selaginella esa Hkzw.k fodflr gksrk gS&
(1) Gametophyte (1) ;qXedksn~fHkn esa
(2) Sporophyte (2) chtk.kqn~fHkn esa
(3) Archegonium (3) L=kh/kkuh esa
(4) Antheridium (4) iqa/kkuh esa
145. Consider the following four statements whether they 145. fuEu dFkuksa dks /;ku ls if<+;s&
are correct or incorrect? (A) fyojoVZ esa chtk.kqn~fHkn ekWlst dh vis{kk vf/kd
(A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate foLr`r gksrk gSA
than that in mosses (B) Salvinia fo"kechtk.kqd gS
(B) Salvinia is heterosporous (C) cht mRiUu djus okys lHkh ikniksa esa thou pØ
(C) The life-cycle in all seed bearing plants is diplontic fMIykWfUVd gksrk gSA
(D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on (D) ikbul esa uj rFkk eknk 'kadq fHkUu fHkUu o`{kksa ij mRiUu
different trees. gksrs gSaA
The two wrong statements together are– nks xyr dFku ,d lkFk gS&
(1) Statements (B) and (C) (1) dFku (B) rFkk (C)
(2) Statements (A) and (B) (2) dFku (A) rFkk (B)
(3) Statements (A) and (C) (3) dFku (A) rFkk (C)
(4) Statements (A) and (D) (4) dFku (A) rFkk (D)
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146. Which is the predominant phase in the life-cycle of a 146. fuEu esa ls dkSulh izkoLFkk czk;ksQkbVk ds thoupØ esa
bryophyte? igys izHkkoh gksrh gS&
(1) Gametophyte (2) Capsule (1) Gametophyte (2) Capsule
(3) Seta (4) Sporophyte (3) Seta (4) Sporophyte
147. Which one of the following classes is included under 147. vuko`Ùkchth;ksa esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls oxZ vkrs gSa &
gymnosperms?
(1) Lycopsida (2) Bryopsida
(1) Lycopsida (2) Bryopsida
(3) Cycadopsida (4) Pteropsida
(3) Cycadopsida (4) Pteropsida
148. Pteridophytes esa ugha gksrk &
148. Pteridophytes do not exhibit–
(1) uky;qXeu (2) okLrfod cht fuekZ.k
(1) Siphonogamy (2) True seed formation
(3) Ovule formation (4) All of these (3) chtk.M fuekZ.k (4) mijksDr lHkh

149. Which of the following represents the correct sequence 149. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fofHkUu oxhZdh dh Jsf.k;ksa dk lgh Øe
of various taxonomic categories? gS &
(1) Class-phylum-tribe-order-family-genus-species (1) Class-phylum-tribe-order-family-genus-species
(2) Division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species (2) Division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species
(3) Division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species (3) Division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species

(4) Phylum-order-class-tribe-family-genus-species (4) Phylum-order-class-tribe-family-genus-species

150. Which of the following pairs in correctly matched? 150. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;qXe lqesfyr gS&
(i) Fungi – Regeneration (i) dod – iqu:n~Hkou
(ii) Mosses – Fragmentation (ii) ekWlst – [k.Mu
(iii) Planaria – Budding (iii) Iysusfj;k – eqdwyu
(1) Only (ii) (2) Both (i) & (iii) (1) dsoy (ii) (2) (i) rFkk (iii) nksuksa
(3) Only (i) (4) Only (iii) (3) dsoy (i) (4) dsoy (iii)

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AITS-2023
ZOOLOGY
UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

Topics: STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS & ANIMAL KINGDOM

SECTION-A -A
(Attempt All 35 questions) ( 35 )
151. What is incorrect regarding periplaneta americana - 151.
(1) Exceretion by malpighian tubules (1)
(2) Hemolymph delivering oxygen to tissues (2)
(3) Paurometabolous development (3)
(4) Mosaic vision (4)
152. Which among the following are not sense organs in
152.
cockroach-
(1) Labial palps (2) Mandible (1) (2)
(3) Maxillary palps (4) Anal cerci (3) (4)
153. Identify the following epithelial tissues and select 153.
the correct option -

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
154. In origin of connective tissues is - 154.
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm (1) (2)
(3) Mesoderm (4) All of the above (3) (4)
155. The mouth part of cockroach shown in th egiven
155.
diagram acts as a/an -

(1) Upper lip (2) Tongue (1) (2)

(3) Lower lip (4) Uvula (3) (4)
156. A. Three types of cell junctions are found in the 156. -
epithelium and other tissues.
R. Tight junction help to stop substances form leak-
ing across a tissue. -

(1) Both A and R are true and the R is thhe correct

explanation of the A (1)

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct ex-

planation of A (2)
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False (3)
157. The body cells in cockroach discharge their (4)
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly 157.
in the form of -
(1) ammonia (2) potassium urate (1) (2)
(3) urea (4) calcium carbonate (3) (4)
158. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in whcih 158.
part of the reproductive system -
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Mushroom glands (1) (2)
(3) Testes (4) Vas deferenns (3) (4)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
159. Stomach and intestine are lined by - 159.
(1) Stratified squamous epithelium (1)
(2) Simple squamous epithelium (2)
(3) Columnar epithelium having goblet cells (3)
(4) Columnar epithelium having cilia (4)
160. Choose the corectly matched pair. 160.
(1) Tendon-Specialised connective tissue (1)
(2) Adipose tissue-Dense connective tissue (2)
(3) Areolar tissue-Loose connective tissue (3)
(4) Cartilage-Loose connective tissue (4)
161. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of 161.
bronchioles and fallopian tubes is -
(1) Cuboidal (2) Glandular (1) (2)
(3) Ciliated (4) Squamous (3) (4)
162. Which of the following is false about columnar 162.
epithelium - (i)
(i) It is made of tall and slender cells
(ii)
(ii) Free surface may have microvilli
(iii) They are found in stomach and intestine and (iii)
help in secretion and absorption
(iv) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow (iv)
structure like bronchioles and fallopian tubes/ovi-
ducts
(v)
(v) They have apical nuclei -
(1) (i) (2) (v)
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (v)
(3) Only (ii) and (iv) (4) Only (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii) (iv) (4) (ii) (iii)
163. Which of the following contains the largest quantity 163.
of extracellular materials -
(1) Striated muscles (1)
(2) Areolar connective tissue (2)
(3) Striated epithelium (3)
(4) Myelinated nerve fibres (4)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
164. Which of the following statement is false about the 164.
compound epithelium -
(i)
(i) It consists of three layers
(ii) It covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist (ii)
surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of
ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic ducts
(iii) It provides protection against chemical and (iii)
mechanical stresses (iv)
(iv) Being multilayered it has a great role in secre-
tion and absorption
(1) Only (ii) (2) Only (iv) (1) (ii) (2) (iv)
(3) Only (i) and (iv) (4) Only (ii) (3) (i) (iv) (4) (ii)
165. Read the following four statements (A-D) - 165. (A-D)
A. Heart of cockroach is funnel shaped with ostia A.
on either side.
B. The respiratory system of cockroach consists
of a network of Capillary that open through 10 pairs B.
of small holes called spiracles. 10
C. Male cockroach have paired Spermatheca in 6th
abdominal segments. C. 6th
D. In Mosaic vision, with the help of several om-
matidia a cockroach can receive more than one im- D.
age of an object.
How many of the above statements are right -
(1) Four (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)
166. Select the incorrect match pair with regarding cock- 166.
roach - (1) 100-150
(1) Malphigian tubules – 100-150 Yellow coloured (2)
(2) Alary muscles – Attach with dorsal ter
gum and dorsal diaphragm
(3) Ootheca – Formed around the (3)
unfertilised egg
(4) Metamorphosis – Paurometabolous (4)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
167. In female cockroach, genital pouch is formed by - 167.
(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum (1) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum
(2) 7th sternum , 8th and 9th terga (2) 7th sternum , 8th and 9th terga
(3) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum (3) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum (4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum
168. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding 168.
cockroach (Periplaneta americana) -
(1) Cockroaches belong to the phylum–Arthropoda (1)
(2) Cockroaches are nocturnal animals (2)
(3) Cockroaches are carnivorous animals (3)
(4) Cockroaches have long antenna and legs (4)
169. Which of the following feature are not releted with 169.
Periplaneta– (A)
(A) The next to last nymphal stage of Periplaneta
has wing pads, but only adult female cockroaches (B) 9-10
have wings (C)
(B) Female cockroach produce 9-10 oothecae
(C) At the junction of foregut and hindgut 6-8 blind
(D) 34-53 cm
tubules called gastric caecae is present
(D) Periplaneta americana are about 34-53 cm long
with wings (E)
(E) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened
plates called sclerites (F)
(F) Antennae have sensory receptors that help in
monitoring the environment
(1) A, C D
(1) Only A, C and D
(2) C D
(2) Only C and D
(3) Only A, B and D (3) A, B D
(4) Only A, B, E and F (4) A, B, E F
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
170. Consider the diagram and read the following state- 170.
ments and choose correct option –

(i) Both A and B represent dense connective tissue. (i) A B

(ii) Both A and B represent loose connective tissue. (ii) A B
(iii) A–Irregular connective tissue , B–Regular
(iii) A B
connective tissue
(iv) B
(iv) B–Found in skin
(v) A–Found in tendon (v) A
Options :
(1) Only i, iv and v (2) Only i (1) i, iv v (2) i
(3) Only i and iii (4) Only i, iii, iv and v (3) i, iii (4) i, iii, iv v
171. The figure given below shows a diagramatic sectional 171.
view of animal. Select the correct option in which
given correct identification together with what it
represent and their example ?

(1)
(1) Coelomate : Body cavity is lined by the
mesoderm.
Example - Neries (2)
(2) Acoelomate : Body cavity is absent,
solid mesoderm
Example - Ancylostoma
Space for rough work
(3) Triploblastic : Three germinal layer (3)
Example : Planeria
(4) Pseudocoelomate : Body cavity is not lined (4)
by mesoderm.
Example - Ascaris
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
172. Match the following list of animals with their level 172.
of organisation.
Animal Division of Labour
i. Nereis A. Organ level i. A.
ii. Liver fluke B. Cellular agregate level ii. B.
iii. Spongilla C. Tissue level iii. C.
iv. Brain coral D. Organ system level iv. D.
Choose the correct match showing division of labour
with animal example.
(1) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, and iv-A (1) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, and iv-A
(2) i-B, ii-D, iii-C, and iv-A (2) i-B, ii-D, iii-C, and iv-A
(3) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, and iv-C (3) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, and iv-C
(4) i-A, ii-D, iii-C, and iv-B (4) i-A, ii-D, iii-C, and iv-B
173. Which of the following statement is correct regard-
ing Flat worms - 173.
(1) Body of the platyhelminthes are triploblastic with
true coelome. (1)
(2) Body of the platyhelminthes are diploblastic with
no coelome. (2)
(3) Body of the platyhelminthes are triploblastic with (3)
no coelome.
(4) Body of the platyhelminthes are triploblastic with (4)
pseudocoelome.
174. Which of the following characteristics is not 174.
associated with arthropoda -
(a) Over two-thirds of all named species on earth (a)
are arthropods (b)
(b) The body of arthropods is covered by chitinous (c)
exoskeleton
(c) Sensory organs like antennae, eyes (compound
and simple), statocysts or balance organs are present (d)
(d) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic,
unsegmented and pseudo coelomate animals (e)
(e) They are mostly Diocious (f)
(f) They are mostly oviparous and fertilisation is
ususally External
Option -
(1) only d and e (2) Only d, e and f (1) d e (2) d, e f
(3) Only d and f (4) None of these (3) d f (4)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

175. digestion in ctenoplana is – 175.

(1) Extracellular (1)
(2) Intracellular (2)
(3) Both Extracellular & intracellular
(3)
(4) None of these
(4)
176. In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom,
176.
which of the following features have evolved for

the first time in phylum related to planeria -

A. Metameric segmentation
A.
B. organ level of organisation
B.
C. Closed circulatory system
C.
D. True coelom
D.
E. Bilateral symmetry
E.
F. False coelom
F.
G. Cephalisation
G.
Select the correct answer -

(1) B, D and E (2) B, E and G

(1) B, D E (2) B, E G
(3) B, C, F and G (4) A, B, E and G
(3) B, C, F G (4) A, B, E G

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

177. Bilaterally symmetrical animals can be acoelomate, 177.

pseudocoelomate or coelomate. Study the diagram- A D
matic representation of body cavity of given animal
diagram from A to D.

How many of the above illustrations are correct -

(1) Four (2) Three (1) (2)

(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
178. Identify the animal Aschelminthes phylom in the 178.
photograph below. Which of the following is a cor-
rect reason for its identification -

Reasons:
(1)
(1) It is a female Ascaris anal tail is straight
(2)
(2) It is bilaterally symmetrical and without
metameric segmentation (3)
(3) It is a male Ascaris, anal tail is curved
(4) The body is circular, hence it is a round worm, (4)
Alimentary canal is complete with muscular pharynx

179. Which of the following character is commonly found 179.

in Locust, Loligo and Echinus -
(1) Metameric segmentation (1)
(2) Chitinous exoskeleton (2)
(3) Aquatic habitat (3)

(4) None of these (4)

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023

180. 180.

Select the correct characters relevent with given

diagram- (a)
(a) They have four pairs of gills without covered by
an operculum.
(b)
(b) Their jaws are very powerful and mouth is
located ventrally.
(c) This is a marine animal. (c)
(d) They are mostly viviparous and have internal (d)
fertilisation.
(1) b and d (2) a and c (1) b d (2) a c
(3) b, c and d (4) b and c (3) b, c d (4) b c
181. Which of the following is not a matching set of a 181.
class and its three examples ?
(1) Mammalia – Delphinus, Canis, Felis (1)
(2) Aves – Aptenodytes, Calotes, Columba (2)
(3) Reptilla – Chelone, Krait, Viper (3)
(4) Osteichthyes– Catla, Clarias, Pterophyllum (4)
182. The correct statements about notochord is/are - 182.
(i) It is derived from endoderm (i)
(ii) It is formed on the ventral side (ii)
(iii) Pristis have both notochord and vertebral column (iii)
(iv) Amphioxus have notochord only in their (iv)
embryonic stage
(v) In vertebrates notochord replaced by vertebral (v)
column
(1) i, iii (2) ii, iv (1) i, iii (2) ii, iv
(3) i, v (4) iii, v (3) i, v (4) iii, v
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
183. Read the following statements and choose correct 183.
options-
(i)
(i) Aurelia is Polyp and free living.
(ii) Angle fish has air bladder which regulates buoy- (ii)
ancy
(iii) In Struthio internal fertilisation is present. (iii)
(iv)In mollusca at anterior head region tentacles are (iv)
present.
(1) One statement is correct (1)
(2) Two statement are correct (2)
(3) Three statements are correct (3)
(4) All four statements are correct (4)
184. Cartilagionous fishes do not have - 184.
(1) Operculum (2) Scales (1) Operculum (2) Scales
(3) Gill-slits (4) Pelvic fins (3) Gill-slits (4) Pelvic fins
185. Which of the following animal(s) is/are shown 185.
external fertilization and tympanum represent ear -

(A) (A)

(B) (B)

(C) (C)

Space for rough work

(D) (D)

(1) Only (A), (B) and (D)

(1) (A), (B) (D)
(2) Only (C)
(2) (C)
(3) Only (C) and (D)
(4) Only (D) (3) (C) (D)
(4) (D)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
SECTION-B SECTION-B
(Attempt any 10 questions) ( 10 )
186. In chondrichthyes, claspers are seen on - 186.
(1) Pelvic fins of male (1)
(2) Pelvic fins of female (2)
(3) Operculum of both sexes (3)
(4) Pectoral fin of male (4)
187. Which of the following is incorrect statement– 187.
(A) Petromyzon have a sucking and circular mouth (A)
with jaws
(B) Larva of cyclostomate return back into marine (B)
water after metamorphosis
(C) In Saw fish teeth are modified placoid scales (C)
which are backwardly directed
(D) In Dogfish air bladder is present which regu- (D)
lates buoyancy
(E) In Trygon, Pristis, Dog fish Cartilagenous (E)
endoskeleton is present
(F) In male Clarias fish pelvic fins bear claspers. (F)
Options
(1) Only A and F (2) Only A and B (1) A F (2) A B
(3) Only A, D and F (4) Only A, B, D and F (3) A, D F (4) A, B, D F
188. Echinodermata animals are also known as first 188.
deuterostomic, which type of common characters
are containing by these animals - (1)
(1) Adult echinoderms is radial, but larva contains
bilateral symmetry.
(2)
(2) Lack of excretory system.
(3)
(3) Indirect and free floating larva type develop-
ment present in it.
(4) All of these (4)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
189. Mark the set that include animals with blind sac 189.
type of body plan only -
(1) Leucosolenia, Hydra, Eupongia (1)
(2) Sycon, Taenia, Fasciola (2)
(3) Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Sycon (3)
(4) Adamsia, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola (4)
190. How many phyla of animal kingdom given below 190.
have radial symmetry -
Platyhelminthes, Cnidaria, Ctenophora, Nematoda,
Mollusca, Echinodermata
(1) (2)
(1) Two (2) Five
(3) Four (4) Three (3) (4)
191.
191. Find the incorrect statement
(1) /tough
(1) In trygon skin in tough containing placoid scales
(2) Bioluminescence in well marked in cniderians. (2)
(3) All the members of ctenophora are marine
(3)
(4) Ctenophores have only sexual reproduction
(4)
192. Given below are four matching of an animals and 192.
its kind of excretory organ
A. -
A. Fasciola - Flame cells
B. Eartworm - Nephridia B. -
C. Octopus - Tube feet C. -
D. Bombyx - Malpighian body D. -
The correct matching is

(1) A and B (2) A and C

(1) A B (2) A C
(3) A, B and D (4) A,B and C (3) A, B D (4) A,B C

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
193. Select the correct combination of statement (A-D) 193. (A-D)
regarding the characteristics of echinodermate.

A. They are dioecious reproduce sexuelly and A.

fertilization in internal

B. Excretory system is absents B.

C. Mouth is on vertral surface and Anus is on darsal C.

surface.

D. Indirect development with free swimming larva. D.

(1) A,B,C and D (2) B,C and D (1) A,B,C D (2) B,C D

(3) A, B and D (4) A,B and C (3) A, B D (4) A,B C

194. Which of the following statement is not correct. 194.

(1) urochordates and cephlochordates are (1)

protochordates
(2)
(2) All protochordatis are marine

(3) Doliolum is a protochardate (3)

(4) In branchiostoma notochord is present only during

(4)
larval stage

195. Which of the following is fresh water fish. 195.

(1) Clarias (2) Hippocampus (1) (2)

(3) Trygon (4) Scolidom (3) (4)

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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
196. Which of the following phyla is not correctly 196.
matched to its general characters.
(1) Porifera A. Primitive multicullar
(1) A.
animals
B. Internal fertilization
with indirect development B.
(2) Ctenophora A. Exclusively merine.
B. Bisexual, external (2) A.
Fertilization B.
(3) Platyhelminthes A. Pseudocoelomate (3) A.
B. Bisexual, external B.
fertilization (4) A.
(4) Mollusca A. usually dioecious
B.
B. Oviparous and indirect
development
197. How many following statements are correct. 197.
A. Cyclostomates are devoid of scales and A.
have paired fins.
B. Cyclostomates begains their life in fresh B.
water and also ends life in fresh water
C. In bony fishes mouth is mostly ventrolly
situated C.
D. Cartilagenous fishes have very powerful
jaws D.
E. In bony fishes sexes are separate and fer E.
tilization in usually external
(1) Two (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Four (4) Five (3) (4)
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AITS-2023 UNIT TEST-01 05/04/2023
198. ctenophora are commonly known as 198.
a. Sea walnuts A.
b. Jelly fish B.
c. Comb jelly C.
d. Sponges D.
(1) a and b (2) a and c (1) a b (2) a c
(3) b and c (4) b and d (3) b c (4) b d
199. Statement I- The adult of the comman species of 199. -I
cockroach periplanata americana are about 0.6 -
0.6-7.6 mm
7.6 mm long.
Statement II- Cockroaches are brown or black bod- -II
ied animals that are included in class insecta of
phyglum Arthropoda.
(1) -I II
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct
(2)
(2) Both Statements are incorrect
(3) -I
(3) Only Statements I is correct
(4) Only Statements II is correct (4) -II

200. Statement I-Only columnar cells are specialised for 200. -I

secretion
Statement II- All columnar cells are glandular
-II
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct
(1) -I II
(2) Both Statements are incorrect
(2)
(3) Only Statements I is correct
(3) -I
(4) Only Statements II is correct
(4) -II

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