Note7 8
Note7 8
Note7 8
Application
PN dk y
Example: L[y] = k=0 ak (x)y (k) (x) where y (k) = dxk
for k ∈ N and y (0) = y. More
generally, if f : Rn → R is differentiable, we can consider the linear partial differential
operator of order 1
n
X ∂f
L[f ] = ai (x)∂i f (x), where ∂i f = (7)
i=1 ∂xi
Examples of higher order partial differential operator can be much more complicated and
I will just mention one simple one that we will use: the Laplacian
n
X ∂ 2f
∆f = 2
.
i=1 ∂xi
Please note that in your textbook ∆f is written as ∇2 f (as ∆ has been used for other
purpose in the textbook).
We could say linear operators act on C ∞ (Ω), infinitely differentiable functions on the
domain Ω (a special open set, to be exact, an open connected set, you do not have to
worry about this term if you have no idea about being ’connected’) in Rn . Clearly, a linear
combination of linear operators is again a linear operator. In particular, the collection
of linear operators on C ∞ (Ω) is a vector space (defined in linear algebra). For example,
if L1 , L2 are linear operators, then so is αL1 + βL2 , α, β ∈ R. In particular, αL + β∆,
α, β ∈ R is a linear operator where L is defined in equation (7).
68
Mar 9, 23 69
Remark Depending on the order of the differential operators, we could replace C ∞ (Ω)
by C k (Ω), the space of functions with continuous differentials up to order k.
Let us quickly recall how we did it. First we start by guessing u(x, t) = T (t)X(x), then
70 Mar 9, 23
and hence
T 0 (t) X 00 (x)
= .
α2 T (t) X(x)
However, notice that LHS depends only on t and RHS depends only on x. For that to
happen, they must both equal to a constant. Thus, there exists λ such that
T 0 (t)
=λ (3)
α2 T (t)
X 00 (x)
= λ. (4)
X(x)
Recall from (1) that we must have X(0) = X(1) = 0.
We then consider three cases.
Case (1) λ > 0: (4) has no nontrivial solution. This is because its general solution is of
the form
√ √
X(x) = C1 e λx
+ C2 e− λx
k=1
Mar 9, 23 71
satisfies (1) (provided the series converges and we can do term by term differentiations).
We now make use of (2) and we have
∞
X
f (x) = u(x, 0) = ck sin kπx.
k=1
Next, we will show that the solution make sense. We will need a fact from MA3110
which is about term by term differentiation.
It follows from that fact that whenever f is piecewise continuous function on [0, 1], then
the function
∞
2
ck e−(kαπ) t sin kπx
X
u(x, t) =
k=1
satisfies both (1) and (2).
We will provide a sketch of the proof
First, clearly the series converges for any t > 0. Thus, u(x, t) is well defined for any
t > 0.
Step (1): for any t0 > 0, the series (of term by term derivation w.r.t t)
∞
2
−(kαπ)2 ck e−(kαπ) t sin kπx
X
k=1
2
converges uniformly on [t0 /2, 2t0 ] and each of the term ck e−(kαπ) t sin kπx has a continuous
derivative on [t0 /2, 2t0 ]. It then follows that
∞
2
−(kαπ)2 ck e−(kαπ) t sin kπx.
X
ut (x, t0 ) =
k=1
Step (2): By similar argument (we now need to apply the theorem twice), we conclude
that
∞
2
−(kπ)2 ck e−(kαπ) t sin kπx.
X
uxx (x, t0 ) =
k=1
Step (3): It follows from Parseval’s identity that
Z 1 N ∞
ck sin kπx|2 = lim |ck |2 → 0.
X X
lim |f (x) −
N →∞ 0 N →∞
k=1 k=N +1
Thus,
N
X
ck sin kπx converges to f in the means on [0,1]
k=1
or converges to f in L2 [0, 1].
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[Exercise]
ux (0, t) = ux (2, t) = 0, t > 0
utt = uxx , .
u(x, 0) = f (x), ut (x, 0) = g(x), 0 < x < 2
Mar 9, 23 73
[Exercise]
[Exercise]
[Exercise]
[Exercise]
[Exercise]
[Exercise]
1, if 0 < x < 1
y 00 − y =
−1, if 1 < x < 2
y 0 (0) = y 0 (2) = 0.
Nonhomogeneous boundary conditions
8. Sturm-Liouville Problems
(§ 67)
Self-adjoint differential equation:
Solving such a problem means finding values of λ (eigenvalues) and the corresponding
nontrivial solutions φλ (eigenfunctions). The set of all eigenvalues of a regular problem is
called its spectrum.
Mar 9, 23 79
Example 2
y 00 + λy = 0, y(1) = y 0 (2) = 0.
First of all, note that it is easier to look at the problem
y 00 + λy = 0, y(0) = y 0 (1) = 0.
[Exercise] Find the eigenvalues and their corresponding eigenfunctions of the following
Sturm-Liouville problem:
y 00 + λy = 0, y 0 (0) = y 0 (π) = 0.
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(2) If φ1 (x) and φ2 (x) are eigenfunctions correspond to eigenvalues λ1 and λ2 respec-
tively, λ1 6= λ2 , then
Z π Z π
φ1 (x)φ2 (x)dx = 0 or φ1 (x)φ2 (x)r(x)dx = 0.
0 0
It turns out that all the above observations are true for any regular Sturm-Liouville
problem.
Proof.
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Next, let us note that the idea of eigenvalues and eigenfunctions can be used for other
linear BVP: L[y] + λr(x)y = 0, l1 (y) = l2 (y) = 0. For example,
y 00 + 2y 0 + λy = 0, y(0) = y(1) = 0.
√
Note that any λ ∈ (0, ∞) is an eigenvalue with eigenfunction sin λx. Note that it is
now impossible to arrange all the eigenvalues as {λ1 , λ2 , · · · }, such that λ1 < λ2 < · · · .
The eigenvalues of this problem are λn = n(n − 1); n = 1, 2, · · · , and the corresponding
eigenfunctions are the Legendre’s polynomials Pn−1 .
Fourier (Legendre) series
{Pn (x) : n ∈ N} is a family of orthogonal functions on [−1, 1]. Hence if we write
P∞
f (x) = k=0 cn Pn (x), then
2n + 1 Z 1
cn = f (x)Pn (x)dx,
2 −1
since Z 1
2
< Pn , Pn >= Pn (x)2 dx = .
−1 2n + 1
1 dn 2
Note that P0 = 1, P1 = x, P2 = 12 (3x2 −1), P3 = 12 (5x3 −3x), Pn = (x − 1)n , · · ·
2n n! dxn
Theorem
Let {φn (x) : n ∈ N} be the set of all eigenfunctions of the regular Sturm-Liouville
problem. Then it is complete in P C[a, b] and the (general) Fourier series of f (x) converges
1
to (f (x+ ) + f (x− )) at each point in (a, b) if f is piecewise smooth on [a, b].
2