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Social Science Class 9 FT 2022-23

The document provides instructions for a Social Science final term examination for Class IX students. It details that the exam will have 5 sections (A-E) containing a total of 37 questions ranging from multiple choice, very short answer, short answer, long answer, and case-based questions. The document gives guidance on the number of marks, time limits, and word counts for each question type.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
75 views14 pages

Social Science Class 9 FT 2022-23

The document provides instructions for a Social Science final term examination for Class IX students. It details that the exam will have 5 sections (A-E) containing a total of 37 questions ranging from multiple choice, very short answer, short answer, long answer, and case-based questions. The document gives guidance on the number of marks, time limits, and word counts for each question type.

Uploaded by

Shruti Parasher
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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N.K.

BAGRODIA PUBLIC SCHOOL, ROHINI


Final Term Examination
Social Science
Class IX (2022-23)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37
questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 is MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions,
carrying 2 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C contains Q. 25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3
marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v. Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5
marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-
questions and are of 4 marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37-I
from History (2 marks) and 37-II from Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such a question
has to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question,
wherever necessary.

Section A

Q 1. Arrange the following in chronological order: (1)


(i) Tripartite Pact between Germany, Italy, and Japan
(ii) Entry of the USA in the Second World War
(iii) Invasion of Poland by Germany
(iv) Attack on the Soviet Union by Germany

Options:
A. (iv) - (iii) - (i) - (ii)
B. (i) - (iii) - (ii) - (iv)
C. (ii) - (iv) - (iii) - (i)
D. (iii) - (i) - (iv) - (ii)

Q 2. Choose the correctly matched pair (1)

COLUMN A COLUMN B

A. Cheka Council

B. Mir Commune

C. Soviet Parliament

D. Duma Secret Police

Q 3. Identify the event with the help of given clues. (1)


● Intense conflict between the Provisional Government and Bolsheviks
grew.
● Fearing the setting up of dictatorship by the Provisional Government
Lenin thought of an uprising.
● The uprising began with both sides trying to consolidate power.
● It ended with the All-Russian Congress of Soviets in Petrograd
approving the Bolshevik action.
Options:
A. The February Revolution in Petrograd
B. The October Revolution in 1917
C. The 1905 Revolution
D. The Civil War in Russia

Q 4. Mexico cannot be considered a democratic country, despite


conducting regular elections in the country as - (1)

A. Mexican government amended the constitution.


B. All the citizens of the country did not enjoy the right to vote.
C. The ruling party of Mexico used to resort to corrupt activities to win
elections.
D. Only the nominated members of PRI were allowed to contest elections.

Q 5. Which of the following statements is not correct about rule of law


and respect for rights in a democracy? (1)
A. There should be sufficient room for normal political activity.
B. The state should respect some basic rights of the citizens.
C. The citizens should be free to form associations.
D. Everyone should not be equal in the eyes of the laws.

Q 6. Analyze the following statements regarding fair electoral practice


and select which one is a fair electoral practice. (1)
A. A minister flags off a new train in his constituency a week before polling
day.
B. A candidate promises that she will get a new train for her constituency if
she is elected.
C. Supporters of a candidate take the voters to a temple and make them
take an oath that they will vote for him.
D. The supporters of a candidate distribute blankets in slums in return for a
promise to vote.

Q 7. Consider the picture given below:


Which of the following fundamental rights is violated here? (1)
A. Right to life
B. Right to constitutional remedies
C. Right against exploitation
D. Right to freedom

Q 8. There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made


no provision for drinking water. These villagers met and considered
many methods of forcing the government to respond to their
needs.
Which of these is not a democratic method? (1)

A. Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of the right to life.
B. Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.
C. Organising public meetings against the government's policies.
D. Paying money to government officials to get water.

Q 9. Find the odd one out of the following rivers concerning their origin.
(1)
A. Ganga
B. Brahmaputra
C. Indus
D. Sutlej

Q 10.According to the regulations of the Indus Water Treaty (1960), India


can only use__________ water from the river Indus.: (1)
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 10%

Q 11.Which of the following statement is not correct regarding


population growth? (1)
A. Population growth can be expressed in two ways: in terms of absolute
numbers and terms of percentage change per year.
B. Growth of the population refers to the change in the number of
inhabitants of a country/territory during a specific period of time.
C. The absolute number added each year or decade is the magnitude of
the increase.
D. Absolute increase is obtained by simply adding the earlier population
from the later population.

Q 12.Study the pie chart of population distribution given below and


answer the following question: (1)

Which of the following statement/s is true according to the data


given in the pie chart: (1)

I. Andhra Pradesh has the highest-density of population


II. Population density of Bihar and Maharashtra combined is more than that
of Uttar Pradesh.
III. Almost half of India’s population lives in just five states.
IV. Majority of the population in India is settled in the North Eastern part of
the country.
Options are:
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and IV
D. II and III.

Q 13.Japan is considered a rich/developed country despite not having


any natural resources. Why? (1)
A. They have invested in people, especially in the field of education and
health.
B. These people have made efficient use of other resources, like land and
capital.
C. Efficiency and technology evolved by people.
D. All of the above

Q 14.Shastri lives in a rural area. He has 6 family members. If his family


is __________, then it will be considered as below poverty-line
family in India. (1)
A. earning about Rs 4,896 per week.
B. earning about Rs 5,000 per week
C. earning less than about Rs 4,896 per month
D. earning more than Rs 5,000 per month

Q 15.Study the data given below and answer the following question: (1)

What was the poverty ratio in Urban areas when the number of poor was 278
million in rural areas?
A. 26
B. 30
C. 21
D. 26

Q 16.Which of the following statement regarding the term subsidy is


correct: (1)
A. Subsidy is a payment that the government makes to a producer to
supplement the market price of a commodity.
B. Subsidy is a payment that the producer makes to a government to
supplement the market price of a commodity.
C. Subsidy is a payment that the government makes to a producer to
increase the market price of a commodity.
D. Subsidy is a payment that the government makes to a producer to
supplement the cost price of a commodity.

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

Q 17- Q 20 are Assertion and Reason Type questions. Answer them


by choosing the following options:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true and (R) is false.
D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

Q 17.Assertion (A): In Nazi Germany girls were expected to maintain the


purity of race.
Reason (R): Females had to give birth to pure-blooded Aryan children.
(1)

Q 18.Assertion (A): India has become self-sufficient in food grains during the
last thirty years.
Reason (R): The availability of food grains (even in adverse weather
conditions or otherwise) at the country level has further been ensured
with a carefully designed food security system by the government. (1)
Q 19.Assertion(A): In most democratic countries, people rule through their
hereditary rulers.
Reason(R): It is not possible for everyone to have time and knowledge
to take decisions on all matters. (1)

Q 20.Assertion (A): Women generally look after domestic chores and men
work in the fields.
Reason (R): Women are seen as equal to men in recent times. (1)

Section B
Q 21.How can you say that the 'liberals' were not 'democrats'? (2)
Q 22.The Peninsular plateau of India has two major divisions. Identify them
and give one point of difference between them. (1+1=2)
Q 23.Explain the role of the Election Commission in the election. (2)
Q 24.Explain the two types of unemployment which are prevailing in rural
areas. (2)

Section C
Q 25.How did philosophers influence the thinking of the people of France? (3)
Q 26.Define the following terms: (1+1+1=3)
a) Loo
b) Kaal Baisakhi
c) Mango showers
Q 27.What is Population Density? Describe with examples why there is an
uneven distribution of population in India. (1+2 = 3)
Q 28.How is the Right to Equality exercised in India? (3)
Q 29. Critically evaluate the system of Public Food Distribution system in
India. (3)

Section D
Q 30.Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
In the nineteenth century, African pastoralists could move over vast
areas in search of pastures. When the pastures were exhausted in one
place they moved to a different area to graze their cattle. From the late
nineteenth century, the colonial government began imposing various
restrictions on their mobility. Drought affects the life of pastoralists
everywhere. When rains fail and pastures are dry, cattle are likely to
starve unless they can be moved to areas where forage is available.
That is why, traditionally, pastoralists are nomadic; they move from place
to place. This nomadism allows them to survive bad times and avoid
crises.
When grazing lands were taken over and turned into cultivated fields, the
available area of pastureland declined. Similarly, the reservation of
forests meant that shepherds and cattle herders could no longer freely
pasture their cattle in the forests. As the area of grazing lands shrank,
the adverse effect of the droughts increased in intensity. The frequent
bad years led to a steady decline of the animal stock of the pastoralists.

30.1 Why did the pastoralists in Africa move from one place to another
before colonization? (1)
30.2 "Rains affected the movements of pastoralist communities in
Africa." Comment. (1)
30.3 The new territorial boundaries and restrictions imposed on them
suddenly changed the lives of pastoralists. How? (2)

Q 31.Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: (4)
Like South Africa, India's Constitution was also drawn up under very
difficult circumstances. The making of the constitution for a huge and
diverse country like India was not an easy affair. At that time the people
of India were emerging from the status of subjects to that of citizens. The
country was born through a partition on the basis of religious differences.
This was a traumatic experience for the people of India and Pakistan.

31.1 Why was the making of the Indian constitution, not an easy affair?
(1)
31.2 How was the independence of India a traumatic experience for the
people? (1)
31.3 List any two sources that guided the constituent assembly to frame
the constitution of India (2)

Q 32.Observe the source given below and answer the following


question: (4)

32.1 Give one point of difference between modern farming method and
traditional farming method. (1)
32.2 Write any one advantage of the modern farming method. (1)
32.3 Write any two disadvantages of the given method. (2)
Section E

Q 33.Describe the causes and effects of the rebellion by the people of Bastar
against the colonial rule. (3+2)
Or
"Dietrich Brandis was invited and made the first Inspector General
Forests in India." What were his suggestions and how were they
implemented? (5)

Q 34.Describe the powers and functions of the Indian Parliament. (5)


Or
How can you say that the judiciary in India is the most powerful? (5)

Q 35.With the change in altitude, the types of vegetation in montane forests


changes. Explain with examples. (5)
Or
Explain the factors which influence flora and fauna diversity in India. (5)
Q 36. Write the full form of MNREGA. Elucidate it’s any four key features.
(1+4=5)
Or
“There are several causes for the widespread poverty in India.” Explain.
(5)

Section F
Q 37.I. On the political map of the world locate and label the following
places:(1X2)
A. Germany (1)
B. England (1)

II. On the political map of India locate and label the following
places: (1X3)
A. Bihar (1)
B. K2 (1)
C. Identify the wildlife sanctuary marked as “A” on the map of India given
below. (1)

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