00 CCSA Test

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 276

Checkpoint.Premium.156-215.80.by.VCEplus.

536q

Number: 156-215.80 VCEplus


Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 17.2

Exam Code: 156-215.80


Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA R80)
Certification Provider: Checkpoint
Corresponding Certification: CCSA R80
Website: www.vceplus.com - www.vceplus.co - www.vceplus.io
Free Exam: https://vceplus.com/exam-156-215-80/
Questions & Answers Exam Engine is rigorously checked before being put up for sale. We make sure there is nothing irrelevant in 156-215.80 exam products and
you get latest questions. We strive to deliver the best 156-215.80 exam product for top grades in your first attempt.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Exam A

QUESTION 1
Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

A. AES-GCM-256
B. AES-CBC-256
C. AES-GCM-128
D. DES

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13847

QUESTION 2
What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsole’s tab, and the Install Policy button within a specific
policy?

A. The Global one also saves and publishes the session before installation.
B. The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.
C. The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.
D. The second one pre-selects the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

A. Matching a log against each event definition

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Create an event candidate
C. Matching a log against local exclusions
D. Matching a log against global exclusions

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartEvent_AdminGuide/17401.htm

QUESTION 4
Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

A. Threat Emulation
B. Access Control
C. QoS
D. Threat Prevention

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point's QoS Solution
QoS is a policy-based QoS management solution from Check Point Software Technologies Ltd., satisfies your needs for a bandwidth management solution. QoS
is a unique, software-only based application that manages traffic end-to-end across networks, by distributing enforcement throughout network hardware and
software. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_QoS_AdminGuide/index.html

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?

A. Threat Emulation
B. Access Control
C. Desktop Security
D. Threat Prevention

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/119225

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

A. Remote Access
B. UserCheck
C. AD Query
D. RADIUS

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control
over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.
B. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.
C. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.
D. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it
rather than in the next rule.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f850d1640792cf885336cc6ae8b2743/CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1517092603
_dd917544d92dccc060e5b25d28a46f79&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 8
What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

A. Check Point INSPECT Engine


B. Check Point Upgrade Service Engine
C. Check Point Update Engine
D. Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/129978

QUESTION 9
Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

A. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)


B. Accept all encrypted traffic
C. Specific VPN Communities
D. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

A. To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base
B. To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports
C. To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database
D. To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
These are basic access control rules we recommend for all Rule Bases:
Stealth rule that prevents direct access to the Security Gateway.
Cleanup rule that drops all traffic that is not allowed by the earlier rules.
There is also an implied rule that drops all traffic, but you can use the Cleanup rule to log the traffic.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92703.htm

QUESTION 11
When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

A. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email


B. Drop Packet, Alert, None
C. Log, Alert, None
D. Log, Allow Packets, Email

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Configure Spoof Tracking - select the tracking action that is done when spoofed packets are detected: Log - Create a log entry (default) Alert - Show an alert None
- Do not log or alert Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 12

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

A. 259, 900
B. 256, 257
C. 8080, 529
D. 80, 256

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://digitalcrunch.com/check-point-firewall/list-of-check-point-ports/

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A. Incoming
B. Internal
C. External
D. Outgoing

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

A. Publish database
B. Save changes
C. Install policy
D. Activate policy

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is NOT a license activation method?

A. SmartConsole Wizard
B. Online Activation
C. License Activation Wizard
D. Offline Activation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?

A. IP Appliance Voyager
B. snapshot
C. GAiA WebUI
D. cpinfo

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
B. SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway
C. Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface
D. WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Deployments
Basic deployments:
Standalone deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on the same machine.
Distributed deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on different machines.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Assume an environment with gateways on different sites. Each Security Gateway connects to the Internet on one side, and to a LAN on the other.
You can create a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two Security Gateways, to secure all communication between them.
The Security Management server is installed in the LAN, and is protected by a Security Gateway. The Security Management server manages the Security
Gateways and lets remote users connect securely to the corporate network. SmartDashboard can be installed on the Security Management server or another
computer.
There can be other OPSEC-partner modules (for example, an Anti-Virus Server) to complete the network security with the Security Management server and its
Security Gateways. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/118037

QUESTION 18
To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

A. a routing table

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. awareness of the network topology
C. a Demilitarized Zone
D. a Security Policy install

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The network topology represents the internal network (both the LAN and the DMZ) protected by the gateway. The gateway must be aware of the layout of the
network topology to: Correctly enforce the Security Policy.
Ensure the validity of IP addresses for inbound and outbound traffic. Configure a special domain for Virtual Private Networks.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/118037

QUESTION 19
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

A. URL Filtering and Network


B. Network and Threat Prevention
C. Application Control and URL Filtering
D. Network and Application Control

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

A. Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on networkperformance
B. Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks
C. Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance
D. Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/136486

QUESTION 21
What is Consolidation Policy?

A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
B. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.
C. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
D. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

A. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap
B. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap
C. Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap
D. Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartEvent_AdminGuide/17401.htm

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 23
____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

A. sysdown
B. exit
C. halt
D. shut-down

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
A new license should be generated and installed in all of the following situations EXCEPT when ________ .

A. The license is attached to the wrong Security Gateway


B. The existing license expires
C. The license is upgraded
D. The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is no need to generate new license in this situation, just need to detach license from wrong Security Gateway and attach it to the right one.

QUESTION 25
Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

A. Only when there is Multicast solution set up


B. There is Load Sharing solution set up
C. Only when there is Unicast solution set up

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. There is High Availability solution set up

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the
Internet?

A. Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration
B. CPUSE online upgrade
C. CPUSE offline upgrade
D. SmartUpdate upgrade

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What are the two types of NAT supported by the Security Gateway?

A. Destination and Hide


B. Hide and Static
C. Static and Source
D. Source and Destination

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A Security Gateway can use these procedures to translate IP addresses in your network:
Static NAT - Each internal IP address is translated to a different public IP address. The Firewall can allow external traffic to access internal resources.
Hide NAT - The Firewall uses port numbers to translate all specified internal IP addresses to a single public IP address and hides the internal IP structure.
Connections can only start from internal computers, external computers CANNOT access internal servers. The Firewall can translate up to 50,000 connections at
the same time from external computers and servers.
Hide NAT with Port Translation - Use one IP address and let external users access multiple application servers in a hidden network. The Firewall uses the
requested service (or destination port) to send the traffic to the correct server. A typical configuration can use these ports: FTP server (port 21), SMTP server (port
25) and an HTTP server (port 80). It is necessary to create manual NAT rules to use Port Translation. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm

QUESTION 28
To install a brand new Check Point Cluster, the MegaCorp IT department bought 1 Smart-1 and 2 Security Gateway Appliances to run a cluster. Which type of
cluster is it?

A. Full HA Cluster
B. High Availability
C. Standalone
D. Distributed

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
With which command can you view the running configuration of Gaia Operating system?

A. show conf-active
B. show configuration active
C. show configuration
D. show running-configuration

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 30
To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

A. a routing table
B. that each Security Gateway enforces at least one rule
C. a Demilitarized Zone
D. a Security Policy install

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Match the following commands to their correct function. Each command has one function only listed.

A. C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5


B. C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
C. C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D. C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F5

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
On R80.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

A. 18210
B. 18184
C. 257
D. 18191

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/120829

QUESTION 33
You have two rules, ten users, and two user groups in a Security Policy. You create database version 1 for this configuration.
You then delete two existing users and add a new user group. You modify one rule and add two new rules to the Rule Base.
You save the Security Policy and create database version 2. After a while, you decide to roll back to version 1 to use the Rule Base, but you want to keep your
user database. How can you do this?

A. Run fwm dbexport -1 filename. Restore the database. Then, run fwm dbimport -1 filename to import the users.
B. Run fwm_dbexport to export the user database. Select restore the entire database in the Database Revision screen.
Then, run fwm_dbimport.
C. Restore the entire database, except the user database, and then create the new user and user group.
D. Restore the entire database, except the user database.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
In Security Gateways, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

A. AES-128
B. AES-256
C. DES
D. 3DES

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/125443

QUESTION 35
John is the administrator of a Security Management server managing a Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and
amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must
John do?

A. Logout of the session


B. File > Save
C. Install database
D. Publish the session

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Installing and Publishing
It is important to understand the differences between publishing and installing.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


You must do this:
After you did this:
Publish
Opened a session in SmartConsole and made changes.
The Publish operation sends all SmartConsole modifications to other administrators, and makes the changes you made in a private session public.
Install the database
Modified network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base.
Updates are installed on management servers and log servers.
Install a policy
Changed the Rule Base.
The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways (even if you did not modify any network objects).
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/119225

QUESTION 36
What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?

A. Security Gateway API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API
C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Prevention API and Policy Editor API
D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1517088487_4c0acda205460a92f44c83d399826a7b&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 37
The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the
following should you remember?

A. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMPT, and rlogin services.
B. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security
Server.
C. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until logging out.
D. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security
Policy?

A. Access Role
B. User Group
C. SmartDirectory Group
D. Group Template

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
You are using SmartView Tracker to troubleshoot NAT entries Which column do you check to view the NAT’d source port if you are using Source NAT?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io
A. XlateDst
B. XlateSPort
C. XlateDPort
D. XlateSrc

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 40
Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct IP address and default port to access
the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

A. https://
B. http://
C. https://:10000
D. https://:4434

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Access to Web UI Gaia administration interface, initiate a connection from a browser to the default administration IP address:
Logging in to the WebUI
Logging in
To log in to the WebUI:
1. Enter this URL in your browser: https://
2. Enter your user name and password.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/75930

QUESTION 41
SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the
SandBlast component?

A. Threat Emulation
B. Mobile Access
C. Mail Transfer Agent
D. Threat Cloud

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products-solutions/zero-day-protection/

QUESTION 42
Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

A. cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.
B. Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.
C. In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings>Permissions
and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients.
D. WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients, via
cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
The R80 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot _____________

A. User data base corruption


B. LDAP conflicts
C. Traffic issues
D. Phase two key negotiation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point's FW Monitor is a powerful built-in tool for capturing network traffic at the packet level. The FW Monitor utility captures network packets at multiple
capture points along the FireWall inspection chains. These captured packets can be inspected later using the WireShark Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk30583

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 44
Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is
correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working? Choose the BEST answer.

A. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.


2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.
3. Publish and install the policy.
B. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Configure automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.
3. Publish the policy.
C. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Configure automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a private IP.
3. Publish and install the policy.
D. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.
2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.
3. Publish the policy.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain. Why does it not detect the
windows domain?

A. Security Gateways is not part of the Domain


B. SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain
C. Security Management Server is not part of the domain
D. Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
1. Log in to SmartDashboard.
2. From the Network Objects tree, expand the Check Point branch.
3. Double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
4. In the Software Blades section, select Identity Awareness on the Network Security tab.
The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
5. Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and unmanaged assets.
AD Query - Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identify Active Directory users and computers.
Browser-Based Authentication - Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified users. If Transparent Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD
users may be identified transparently.
Terminal Servers - Identify users in a Terminal Server environment (originating from one IP address). See Choosing Identity Sources.
Note - When you enable Browser-Based Authentication on a Security Gateway that is on an IP Series appliance, make sure to set the Voyager management
application port to a port other than 443 or 80.
6. Click Next.
The Integration With Active Directory window opens.
When SmartDashboard is part of the domain, SmartDashboard suggests this domain automatically. If you select this domain, the system creates an LDAP
Account Unit with all of the domain controllers in the organization's Active Directory.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm

QUESTION 46
What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

A. Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard


B. Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy
C. Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy
D. Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

A. Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command


B. Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+
D. Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/APIs/#introduction

QUESTION 48
What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

A. IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client


B. SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client
C. SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same
D. IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Mobile_Access_WebAdmin/83586.htm

QUESTION 49
Which one of the following is TRUE?

A. Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy


B. One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both
C. Inline layer can be defined as a rule action
D. Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?

A. Lock database override


B. Unlock database override
C. Unlock database lock
D. Lock database user

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Obtaining a Configuration Lock lock database override unlock database Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/
CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm#o73091

QUESTION 51
Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

A. Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways
B. Users can share identities with other users
C. Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways
D. Administrators can share identities with other administrators

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Identity Sharing
Best Practice - In environments that use many Security Gateways and AD Query, we recommend that you set only one Security Gateway to acquire identities
from a given Active Directory domain controller for each physical site. If more than one Security Gateway gets identities from the same AD server, the AD server
can become overloaded with WMI queries.
Set these options on the Identity Awareness > Identity Sharing page of the Security Gateway object:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


One Security Gateway to share identities with other Security Gateways. This is the Security Gateway that gets identities from a given domain controller. All other
Security Gateways to get identities from the Security Gateway that acquires identities from the given domain controller. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/63005

QUESTION 52
In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

A. Security Policies
B. Logs and Monitor
C. Manage and Settings
D. Gateway and Servers

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Which feature in R77 permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period?

A. Suspicious Activity Monitoring


B. HTTP Methods
C. Local Interface Spoofing
D. Block Port Overflow

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

A. Protections

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. IPS Protections
C. Profiles
D. ThreatWiki

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Which of the following is NOT an integral part of VPN communication within a network?

A. VPN key
B. VPN community
C. VPN trust entities
D. VPN domain

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VPN key (to not be confused with pre-shared key that is used for authentication).
VPN trust entities, such as a Check Point Internal Certificate Authority (ICA). The ICA is part of the Check Point suite used for creating SIC trusted connection
between Security Gateways, authenticating administrators and third party servers. The ICA provides certificates for internal Security Gateways and remote access
clients which negotiate the VPN link.
VPN Domain - A group of computers and networks connected to a VPN tunnel by one VPN gateway that handles encryption and protects the VPN Domain
members. VPN Community - A named collection of VPN domains, each protected by a VPN gateway.
Reference: http://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13868.htm

QUESTION 56
Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and
valid list.

A. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status


B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
RADIUS Accounting gets ______ data from requests generated by the accounting client

A. Destination
B. Identity
C. Payload
D. Location

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
How RADIUS Accounting Works with Identity Awareness
RADIUS Accounting gets identity data from RADIUS Accounting Requests generated by the RADIUS accounting client.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/62050

QUESTION 58
Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

A. Terminal
B. Light
C. Full
D. Custom

Correct Answer: A

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk107415

QUESTION 59
True or False: more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

A. False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.


B. True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.
C. True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.
D. False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
More than one administrator can connect to the Security Management Server at the same time. Every administrator has their own username, and works in a
session that is independent of the other administrators.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/124265

QUESTION 60
Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

A. User Directory
B. Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
C. Captive Portal
D. UserCheck

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
1. Log in to SmartDashboard.
2. From the Network Objects tree, expand the Check Point branch.
3. Double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
4. In the Software Blades section, select Identity Awareness on the Network Security tab.
The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
5. Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and unmanaged assets.
AD Query - Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identify Active Directory users and computers.
Browser-Based Authentication - Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified users. If Transparent Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD
users may be identified transparently.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm

QUESTION 61
The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method. How many times per day will CPUSE agent check for
hotfixes and automatically download them?

A. Six times per day


B. Seven times per day
C. Every two hours
D. Every three hours

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112109

QUESTION 62
Which of the following Automatically Generated Rules NAT rules have the lowest implementation priority?

A. Machine Hide NAT


B. Address Range Hide NAT
C. Network Hide NAT

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Machine Static NAT

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SmartDashboard organizes the automatic NAT rules in this order:
1. Static NAT rules for Firewall, or node (computer or server) objects 2. Hide NAT rules for Firewall, or node objects 3. Static NAT rules for network or address
range objects 4. Hide NAT rules for network or address range objects Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/
CP_R77_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm

QUESTION 63
The CDT utility supports which of the following?

A. Major version upgrades to R77.30


B. Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes
C. Only major version upgrades to R80.10
D. All upgrades

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk97443

QUESTION 64
Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A. Slow path
B. Firewall path
C. Medium path
D. Accelerated path

Correct Answer: C

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

A. WebUI
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartReporter

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

A. ifconfig -a
B. show interfaces all
C. show interfaces detail
D. show configuration interfaces

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67
Which Check Point Application Control feature enables application scanning and detection?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Application Dictionary
B. AppWiki
C. Application Library
D. CPApp

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
AppWiki Application Classification Library
AppWiki enables application scanning and detection of more than 5,000 distinct applications and over 300,000 Web 2.0 widgets including instant messaging,
social networking, video streaming, VoIP, games and more.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/application-control-software-blade/

QUESTION 68
You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen
on a Management Server?

A. fwd
B. fwm
C. cpd
D. cpwd

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 69
What happens when you run the command: fw sam -J src [Source IP Address]?

A. Connections from the specified source are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
B. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.
C. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked with the need to change the Security Policy.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 70
You are about to integrate RSA SecurID users into the Check Point infrastructure. What kind of users are to be defined via SmartDashboard?

A. A group with generic user


B. All users
C. LDAP Account Unit Group
D. Internal user Group

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 71
Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

A. Central
B. Corporate
C. Formal
D. Local

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 72
How do you manage Gaia?

A. Through CLI and WebUI


B. Through CLI only
C. Through SmartConsole only
D. Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 73
What is the default shell for the command line interface?

A. Expert
B. Clish
C. Admin
D. Normal

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The default shell of the CLI is called clish
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm

QUESTION 74
Which Threat Tool within SmartConsole provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do
not need to be scanned or analyzed?

A. ThreatWiki
B. Whitelist Files
C. AppWiki

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. IPS Protections

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ThreatPrevention_WebAdmin/82209.htm

QUESTION 75
The Administrator wishes to update IPS protections from SmartConsole by clicking on the option “Update Now” under the Updates tab in Threat Tools. Which
device requires internet access for the update to work?

A. Security Gateway only


B. Only the device where SmartConsole is installed
C. Only the Security Management Server
D. Either the Security Management Server or device where SmartConsole is installed

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Updating IPS Manually
You can immediately update IPS with real-time information on attacks and all the latest protections from the IPS website.
You can only manually update IPS if a proxy is defined in Internet Explorer settings.
To obtain updates of all the latest protections from the IPS website:
1. Configure the settings for the proxy server in Internet Explorer.
1.In Microsoft Internet Explorer, open Tools > Internet Options > Connections tab > LAN Settings. The LAN Settings window opens.
2.Select Use a proxy server for your LAN.
3.Configure the IP address and port number for the proxy server.
4.Click OK.
The settings for the Internet Explorer proxy server are configured.
2. In the IPS tab, select Download Updates and click Update Now.
If you chose to automatically mark new protections for Follow Up, you have the option to open the Follow Up page directly to see the new protections. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IPS_AdminGuide/12850.htm

QUESTION 76

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Provide very wide coverage for all products and protocols, with noticeable performance impact.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level?

A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.


B. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.
C. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.
D. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which
SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your suspicious?

A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartView Status
D. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 78
When should you generate new licenses?

A. Before installing contract files.


B. After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.
C. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded, or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.
D. Only when the license is upgraded.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk84802

QUESTION 79
How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

A. Infinite
B. One
C. Three

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Two

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80
Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

A. User groups
B. Users using UserCheck
C. Individual users
D. All users in the database

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SGW_WebAdmin/6721.htm

QUESTION 81
What command would show the API server status?

A. cpm status
B. api restart
C. api status
D. show api status

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 82
Why would an administrator see the message below?

A. A new Policy Package created on both the Management and Gateway will be deleted and must be backed up first before proceeding.
B. A new Policy Package created on the Management is going to be installed to the existing Gateway.
C. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway is going to be installed on the existing Management.
D. A new Policy Package created on the Gateway and transferred to the Management will be overwritten by the Policy Package currently on the Gateway but can
be restored from a periodic backup on the Gateway.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 83

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

A. True, CLI is the preferred method for Licensing


B. False, Central Licenses are handled via Security Management Server
C. False, Central Licenses are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways
D. True, Central Licenses can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

A. Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote


B. Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone
C. Remote, Standalone, and Distributed
D. Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 85
Jack works for a Managed Service Provider and he has been tasked to create 17 new policies for several new customers.
He does not have much time. What is the BEST way to do this with R80 security management?

A. Create a text-file with mgmt_cli script that creates all objects and policies. Open the file in SmartConsole Command Line to run it.
B. Create a text-file with Gaia CLI -commands in order to create all objects and policies. Run the file in CLISH with command load configuration.
C. Create a text-file with DBEDIT script that creates all objects and policies. Run the file in the command line of the management server using command dbedit -f.
D. Use Object Explorer in SmartConsole to create the objects and Manage Policies from the menu to create the policies.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Did you know: mgmt_cli can accept csv files as inputs using the --batch option.
The first row should contain the argument names and the rows below it should hold the values for these parameters.
So an equivalent solution to the powershell script could look like this:
data.csv:

mgmt_cli add host --batch data.csv -u -p -m This can work with any type of command not just "add host" : simply replace the column names with the ones
relevant to the command you need.
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/1342
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/APIs/#gui-cli/add-access-rule

QUESTION 86
You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

A. show unsaved
B. show save-state
C. show configuration diff
D. show config-state

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 87

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

A. Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.
B. Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.
C. Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.
D. Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_AppControl_WebAdmin/60902.htm

QUESTION 88
What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global Properties?

A. A host route to route to the destination server


B. Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work
C. Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary
D. Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89
Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company; her company is using Check Point firewalls on central and remote locations, which are managed centrally by
R80 Security Management Server. One central location has an installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote location is using Check Point UTM-1 570
series appliance with R71. Which encryption is used in Secure Internal Communication (SIC) between central management and firewall on each location?

A. On central firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall 3DES encryption is used for SIC.
B. On both firewalls, the same encryption is used for SIC. This is AES-GCM-256.
C. The Firewall Administrator can choose which encryption suite will be used by SIC.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. On central firewall AES256 encryption is used for SIC, on Remote firewall AES128 encryption is used for SIC.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Gateways above R71 use AES128 for SIC. If one of the gateways is R71 or below, the gateways use 3DES.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/74/74d596decb6071a4ee642fbdaae7238f/CP_R80_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide.pdf?H
ashKey=1479584563_6f823c8ea1514609148aa4fec5425db2&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 90
Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

A. cpmq set
B. Cpmqueue set
C. Cpmq config
D. Set cpmq enable

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/93689.htm

QUESTION 91
When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

A. Security policy
B. Inbound chain
C. Outbound chain
D. Decryption is not supported

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 92
There are ________ types of software containers ________.

A. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security


B. Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management
C. Two; security management and endpoint security
D. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are three types of Software Containers: Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security. Reference: http://downloads.checkpoint.com/dc/
download.htm?ID=11608

QUESTION 93
What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

A. A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.


B. A rule that allows administrators to access SmartConsole from any device.
C. To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.
D. A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=387728&seqNum=3

QUESTION 94
If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Publish or discard the session.


B. Revert the session.
C. Save and install the Policy.
D. Delete older versions of database.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To make changes available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must publish the session.
To make your changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, you must publish the session. When you publish a
session, a new database version is created. When you select Install Policy, you are prompted to publish all unpublished changes. You cannot install a policy if the
included changes are not published.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 95
You are going to upgrade from R77 to R80. Before the upgrade, you want to back up the system so that, if there are any problems, you can easily restore to the
old version with all configuration and management files intact. What is the BEST backup method in this scenario?

A. backup
B. Database Revision
C. snapshot
D. migrate export

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Snapshot Management
The snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point products, configuration, and operating system.
Starting in R77.10, exporting an image from one machine and importing that image on another machine of the same type is supported.
The log partition is not included in the snapshot. Therefore, any locally stored FireWall logs will not be saved.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk108902

QUESTION 96
Two administrators Dave and Jon both manage R80 Management as administrators for ABC Corp. Jon logged into the R80 Management and then shortly after,
Dave logged in to the same server. They are both in the Security Policies view. From the screenshots below, why does Dave not have the rule no.6 in his
SmartConsole view even though Jon has it his in his SmartConsole view?

A. Jon is currently editing rule no.6 but has Published part of his changes.
B. Dave is currently editing rule no.6 and has marked this rule for deletion.
C. Dave is currently editing rule no.6 and has deleted it from his Rule Base.
D. Jon is currently editing rule no.6 but has not yet Published his changes.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When an administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a new editing session starts. The changes that the administrator makes

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


during the session are only available to that administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited. To make changes
available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must publish the session.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/
R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/162331

QUESTION 97
How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

A. Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications
B. Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application
C. Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation
D. Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 98
After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

A. Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust


B. The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust
C. The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust
D. The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99
SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. SmartMonitor
B. SmartView Web Application
C. SmartReporter
D. SmartTracker

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Event Analysis with SmartEvent
The SmartEvent Software Blade is a unified security event management and analysis solution that delivers real-time, graphical threat management information.
SmartConsole, SmartView Web Application, and the SmartEvent GUI client consolidate billions of logs and show them as prioritized security events so you can
immediately respond to security incidents, and do the necessary actions to prevent more attacks. You can customize the views to monitor the events that are
most important to you. You can move from a high level view to detailed forensic analysis in a few clicks. With the free-text search and suggestions, you can
quickly run data analysis and identify critical security events.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131915

QUESTION 100
What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

A. Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete
B. Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete
C. Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete
D. Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 101
An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

A. Shared secret

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Token
C. Username/password or Kerberos Ticket
D. Certificate

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm

QUESTION 102
Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

A. fwd
B. fwm
C. cpm
D. cpd

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

A. show cluster state


B. show active cluster
C. show clusters
D. show running cluster

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/Topics-CXLG/Viewing-Cluster-State.htm

QUESTION 104
What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

A. High Performance
B. Good Security
C. No Screening above Network layer
D. Transparency

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105
What statement is true regarding Visitor Mode?

A. VPN authentication and encrypted traffic are tunneled through port TCP 443.
B. Only ESP traffic is tunneled through port TCP 443.
C. Only Main mode and Quick mode traffic are tunneled on TCP port 443.
D. All VPN traffic is tunneled through UDP port 4500.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106
R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Gaia only
B. Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server only
C. Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server and IPSO only
D. Gaia and SPLAT only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
R80 can be installed only on GAIA OS.
Supported Check Point Installations All R80 servers are supported on the Gaia Operating System:
• Security Management Server
• Multi-Domain Security Management Server
• Log Server
• Multi-Domain Log Server
• SmartEvent Server
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f7e21da67aa992954aa12a0a84e53a8/CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=147983808
5_d6ffcb36c6a3128708b3f6d7bcc4f94e&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 107
DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

A. Standard Policies
B. Shared Policies
C. Inspection Policies
D. Unified Policies

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Shared policies are installed with the Access Control Policy.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 108
What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

A. Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect


B. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect
C. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect
D. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products-solutions/mobile-security/check-point-capsule/

QUESTION 109
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components.
These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

A. Limit
B. IP Address
C. Custom Application / Site
D. Network Object

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/
R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/162005
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?%20topic=documents/
R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/162005

QUESTION 110
When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

A. Any size
B. Less than 20GB
C. More than 10GB and less than 20 GB
D. At least 20GB

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/120829

QUESTION 111
You have discovered suspicious activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

A. Create a new policy rule to block the traffic.


B. Create a Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rule to block that traffic.
C. Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.
D. Contact your ISP to request them to block the traffic.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/
R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/118300

QUESTION 112
Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

A. You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites
B. Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers
C. You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers
D. You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 113
Your bank's distributed R77 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have
licenses that will expire within the next 30 days?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartPortal
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114
When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error 'no proposal chosen' is seen numerous times. No other VPNrelated log entries are present. Which
phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

A. IKE Phase 1
B. IPSEC Phase 2
C. IPSEC Phase 1
D. IKE Phase 2

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 115
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

A. Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks.
B. Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring.
C. Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.
D. All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.

Correct Answer: D

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 116
Message digests use which of the following?

A. DES and RC4


B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. SHA-1 and MD5

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 117
A _________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet
browser.

A. Clientless remote access


B. Clientless direct access
C. Client-based remote access
D. Direct access

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Clientless - Users connect through a web browser and use HTTPS connections. Clientless solutions usually supply accessto web-based corporate resources.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/92704

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 118
You are unable to login to SmartConsole. You login to the management server and run #cpwd_admin list with the following output:

What reason could possibly BEST explain why you are unable to connect to SmartConsole?

A. CPD is down
B. SVR is down
C. CPM and FWM are down
D. CPSM is down

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The correct answer would be FWM (is the process making available communication between SmartConsole applications and Security Management Server.).
STATE is T (Terminate = Down) Symptoms SmartDashboard fails to connect to the Security Management server.
1. Verify if the FWM process is running. To do this, run the command: [Expert@HostName:0]# ps -aux | grep fwm 2. If the FWM process is not running, then try
force-starting the process with the following command:
[Expert@HostName:0]# cpwd_admin start -name FWM -path "$FWDIR/bin/fwm" -command "fwm" Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk97638
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk12120

QUESTION 119
What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

A. To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. To reduce the number of rules in the database.
C. To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.
D. To hide the gateway from the Internet.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=387728&seqNum=3

QUESTION 120
How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

A. fw ver
B. fw stat
C. fw monitor
D. cpinfo

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 121
Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses
connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

A. Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of this work.
B. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.
C. Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.
D. Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 122
SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day
Protection?

A. Smart Cloud Services


B. Load Sharing Mode Services
C. Threat Agent Solution
D. Public Cloud Services

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 123
You work as a security administrator for a large company. The CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learned how hackers
constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right
protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point product protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks
while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

A. IPS and Application Control


B. IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot
C. IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security
D. SandBlast

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SandBlast Zero-Day Protection
Hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. Zero-day exploit protection from Check Point

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


provides a deeper level of inspection so you can prevent more malware and zero-day attacks, while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/productssolutions/ zero-day-protection/

QUESTION 124
Which of the following is NOT a set of Regulatory Requirements related to Information Security?

A. ISO 37001
B. Sarbanes Oxley (SOX)
C. HIPAA
D. PCI

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ISO 37001 - Anti-bribery management systems
Reference: http://www.iso.org/iso/home/standards/management-standards/iso37001.htm

QUESTION 125
What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A. Monitoring the status of processes


B. Sending and receiving logs
C. Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server
D. Generating and modifying certificates

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk97638

QUESTION 126
There are two Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B.
FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B
became active. After an hour, FW_A’s interface issues were resolved and it became operational. When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

A. No, since “maintain current active cluster member” option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default
B. No, since “maintain current active cluster member” option is enabled by default on the Global Properties
C. Yes, since “Switch to higher priority cluster member” option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default
D. Yes, since “Switch to higher priority cluster member” option is enabled by default on the Global Properties

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
What Happens When a Security Gateway Recovers?
In a Load Sharing configuration, when the failed Security Gateway in a cluster recovers, all connections are redistributed among all active members. High
Availability and Load Sharing in ClusterXL ClusterXL Administration Guide R77 Versions | 31 In a High Availability configuration, when the failed Security
Gateway in a cluster recovers, the recovery method depends on the configured cluster setting.
The options are:
• Maintain Current Active Security Gateway means that if one member passes on control to a lower priority member, control will be returned to the higher priority
member only if the lower priority memberfails. This mode is recommended if all members are equally capable of processing traffic, in order to minimize the
number of failover events.
• Switch to Higher Priority Security Gateway means that if the lower priority member has control and the higher priority member is restored, then control will be
returned to the higher priority member. Thismode is recommended if one member is better equipped for handling connections, so it will be the default Security
Gateway.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/7e/7ef174cf00762ceaf228384ea20ea64a/CP_R77_ClusterXL_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=14
79822138_31410b1f8360074be87fd8f1ab682464&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 127
Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen of an Access Role Object?

A. Users
B. Networks
C. Time
D. Machines

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm

QUESTION 128
When a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom, and enforces the first rule
that matches a packet. Which of the following statements about the order of rule enforcement is true?

A. If the Action is Accept, the gateway allows the packet to pass through the gateway.
B. If the Action is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.
C. If the Action is Accept, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down.
D. If the Action is Drop, the gateway applies the Implicit Clean-up Rule for that Policy Layer.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 129
Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

A. Monitor
B. Altuser
C. Administrator
D. Superuser

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 130
Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Gateway Object > General Properties
B. Security Management Server > Identity Awareness
C. Policy > Global Properties > Identity Awareness
D. LDAP Server Object > General Properties

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 131
Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

A. a combination of computer groups and networks


B. users and user groups
C. all of the above
D. remote access clients

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To create an access role:
1. Select Users and Administrators in the Objects Tree.
2. Right-click Access Roles > New Access Role. The Access Role window opens.
3. Enter a Name and Comment (optional) for the access role.
4. In the Networks tab, select one of these: Any network
Specific networks - Click the plus sign and select a network.
Your selection is shown in the Networks node in the Role Preview pane.
5. In the Users tab, select one of these: Any user
All identified users - Includes users identified by a supported authentication method (internal users, AD users or LDAP users). Specific users - Click the plus sign.
A window opens. You can search for Active Directory entries or select them from the list.
6. In the Machines tab, select one of these: Any machine
All identified machines - Includes machines identified by a supported authentication method (AD). Specific machines - Click the plus sign.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


You can search for AD entries or select them from the list.
7. Optional: For computers that use Full Identity Agents, from the Machines tab select Enforce IP spoofing protection.
8. Click OK.
The access role is added to the Users and Administrators tree.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92705.htm

QUESTION 132
Which of the following statements is TRUE about R80 management plug-ins?

A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.


B. Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.
C. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.
D. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 133
The Captive Portal tool:

A. Acquires identities from unidentified users.


B. Is only used for guest user authentication.
C. Allows access to users already identified.
D. Is deployed from the Identity Awareness page in the Global Properties settings.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 134
In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. User Center
B. Package repository
C. Download Center Web site
D. License and Contract repository

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Non_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/13128.htm

QUESTION 135
Security Gateway software must be attached to a ______________.

A. Security Gateway
B. Management container
C. Management server
D. Security Gateway container

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk80840

QUESTION 136
Your manager requires you to setup a VPN to a new business partner site. The administrator from the partner site gives you his VPN settings and you notice that
he setup AES 128 for IKE phase 1 and AES 256 for IKE phase 2. Why is this a problematic setup?

A. The two algorithms do not have the same key length and so don't work together. You will get the error … No proposal chosen…
B. All is fine as the longest key length has been chosen for encrypting the data and a shorter key length for higher performance for setting up the tunnel.
C. Only 128 bit keys are used for phase 1 keys which are protecting phase 2, so the longer key length in phase 2 only costs performance and does not add
security due to a shorter key in phase 1.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. All is fine and can be used as is.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 137
Which of the following is NOT a valid backup command for a Security Management Server?

A. save backup
B. add backup
C. add snapshot
D. migrate export

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.networksecurityplus.net/2015/02/check-point-backup-and-restore-command-reference.html

QUESTION 138
Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

A. Capsule Docs
B. Capsule Cloud
C. Capsule Enterprise
D. Capsule Workspace

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/download/products/sg-capsule-solution.pdf

QUESTION 139
Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

A. The firewall topologies


B. NAT Rules
C. The Rule Base
D. The VPN Domains

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 140
Choose the SmartLog property that is TRUE.

A. SmartLog has been an option since release R71.10.


B. SmartLog is not a Check Point product.
C. SmartLog and SmartView Tracker are mutually exclusive.
D. SmartLog is a client of SmartConsole that enables enterprises to centrally track log records and security activity with Google-like search.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 141
Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

A. Firewall
B. Threat Emulation
C. Application Control

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Threat Extraction

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 142
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAIA from the command line?

A. ifconfig
B. dhcp_cfg
C. sysconfig
D. cpconfig

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sysconfig Configuration Options

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Refrence: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Splat_AdminGuide/51548.htm
NOTE:Question must be wrong because no answer is possible for GAIA system, this must be SPLAT version.
DHCP CLI configuration for GAIA reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73181.htm#o80096

QUESTION 143
Which of the following is a hash algorithm?

A. 3DES
B. IDEA
C. DES
D. MD5

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 144
Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates
B. fwaccel stat
C. fwaccel stats
D. fw ctl templates –d

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk71200

QUESTION 145
Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

A. Application Control
B. Threat Emulation
C. Anti-Virus
D. Advanced Networking Blade

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 146
Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

A. Pencil
B. Padlock
C. Book
D. Eyeglasses

Correct Answer: A

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 147
The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?

A. BGP, OSPF, RIP


B. BGP, OSPF, EIGRP, PIM, IGMP
C. BGP, OSPF, RIP, IGRP
D. BGP, OSPF, RIP, EIGRP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Advanced Routing Suite
The Advanced Routing Suite CLI is available as part of the Advanced Networking Software Blade.
For organizations looking to implement scalable, fault-tolerant, secure networks, the Advanced Networking blade enables them to run industry-standard dynamic
routing protocols including BGP, OSPF, RIPv1, and RIPv2 on security gateways.
OSPF, RIPv1, and RIPv2 enable dynamic routing over a single autonomous system – like a single department, company, or service provider – to avoid network
failures. BGP provides dynamic routing support across more complex networks involving multiple autonomous systems – such as when a company uses two
service providers or divides a network into multiple areas with different administrators responsible for the performance of each.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecurePlatform_AdvancedRouting_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm

QUESTION 148
A Cleanup rule:

A. logs connections that would otherwise be dropped without logging by default.


B. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be dropped and logged by default.
C. logs connections that would otherwise be accepted without logging by default.
D. drops packets without logging connections that would otherwise be accepted and logged by default.

Correct Answer: A

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 149
By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

A. 80
B. 4434
C. 443
D. 8080

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure Security Management Server on Gaia:
Open a browser to the WebUI: https://
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_Gaia_IUG/132120

QUESTION 150
What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

A. Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.
B. Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.
C. Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.
D. The public IP-address is different from the gateway’s external IP

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 151
What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

A. Use Office Mode


B. Use identity agents
C. Share user identities between gateways
D. Use captive portal

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using Endpoint Identity Agents give you: User and machine identity
Minimal user intervention – all necessary configuration is done by administrators and does not require user input.
Seamless connectivity – transparent authentication using Kerberos Single Sign-On (SSO) when users are logged in to the domain. If you do not want to use SSO,
users enter their credentials manually.
You can let them save these credentials.
Connectivity through roaming – users stay automatically identified when they move between networks, as the client detects the movement and reconnects.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/

QUESTION 152
Can a Check Point gateway translate both source IP address and destination IP address in a given packet?

A. Yes.
B. No.
C. Yes, but only when using Automatic NAT.
D. Yes, but only when using Manual NAT.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 153

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Which is the correct order of a log flow processed by SmartEvent components:

A. Firewall > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client
B. Firewall > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > Log Server > SmartEvent Client
C. Firewall > Log Server > SmartEvent Server Database > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Client
D. Firewall > Log Server > Correlation Unit > SmartEvent Server Database > SmartEvent Client

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 154
How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

A. Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode


B. Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA
C. You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario
D. It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/f2/f2faf02dba06acad8cc4c57833593df6/CP_TE100X_TE250X_Appliance_GettingStartedGuid e.pdf?
HashKey=1517091196_a292abdde351bbdb4b3d28e82654b240&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 155
The Security Gateway is installed on GAiA R80. The default port for the WEB User Interface is _______ .

A. TCP 18211
B. TCP 257
C. TCP 4433
D. TCP 443

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 156
What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

Choose the BEST answer.

A. SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway


B. There is a blade reporting a problem
C. VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction
D. Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/sc/SolutionsStatics/NEW_SK_NOID1493612962436/active1704302237.fw.png

QUESTION 157
Choose what BEST describes a Session.

A. Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole.


B. Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.
C. Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.
D. Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Administrator Collaboration
More than one administrator can connect to the Security Management Server at the same time. Every administrator has their own username, and works in a
session that is independent of the other administrators.
When an administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a new editing session starts. The changes that the administrator makes
during the session are only available to that administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited.
To make changes available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must publish the session. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/117948

QUESTION 158
View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? Select the BEST answer

A. The current administrator has read-only permissions to Threat Prevention Policy.


B. Another user has locked the rule for editing.
C. Configuration lock is present. Click the lock symbol to gain read-write access.
D. The current administrator is logged in as read-only because someone else is editing the policy.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Administrator Collaboration
More than one administrator can connect to the Security Management Server at the same time. Every administrator has their own username, and works in a
session that is independent of the other administrators.
When an administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a new editing session starts. The changes that the administrator makes
during the session are only available to that administrator. Other administrators see a lock icon on object and rules that are being edited.
To make changes available to all administrators, and to unlock the objects and rules that are being edited, the administrator must publish the session. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/124265

QUESTION 159
Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

A. $FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server


B. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. $FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway
D. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76SP.10/CP_R76SP.10_Security_System_AdministrationGuide/105233.htm

QUESTION 160
Which remote Access Solution is clientless?

A. Checkpoint Mobile
B. Endpoint Security Suite
C. SecuRemote
D. Mobile Access Portal

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Firewall_WebAdmin/92708.htm

QUESTION 161
Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?

A. Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed.
B. When you upgrade earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to gateway objects.
C. Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism.
D. Check Point Host can act as a firewall.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A Check Point host is a host with only one interface, on which Check Point software has been installed, and which is managed by the Security Management
server. It is not a routing mechanism and is not capable of IP forwarding.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/13139

QUESTION 162
Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

A. The Security Gateway is upgraded.


B. The existing license expires.
C. The license is upgraded.
D. The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 163
Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?

A. “Encrypt” action in the Rule Base


B. Permanent Tunnels
C. “VPN” column in the Rule Base
D. Configuration checkbox “Accept all encrypted traffic”

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Migrating from Traditional Mode to Simplified Mode
To migrate from Traditional Mode VPN to Simplified Mode:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


1. On the Global Properties > VPN page, select one of these options:
• Simplified mode to all new Firewall Policies • Traditional or Simplified per new Firewall Policy 2. Click OK.
3. From the R80 SmartConsole Menu, select Manage policies.
The Manage Policies window opens.
4. Click New.
The New Policy window opens.
5. Give a name to the new policy and select Access Control.
In the Security Policy Rule Base, a new column marked VPN shows and the Encrypt option is no longer available in the Action column. You are now working in
Simplified Mode.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/05/05e695b2012b4fd1d2bdfeccecd29290/CP_R80BC_VPN_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=1479
823792_55fbc10656c87db4fcf742f4899ba90d&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 164
What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.
B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.
C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.
D. If the user credentials match an Access Role, the rule is applied and traffic is accepted or dropped based on the defined action.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 165
Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

A. 675, 389
B. 389, 636
C. 636, 290
D. 290, 675

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A client starts an LDAP session by connecting to an LDAP server, called a Directory System Agent (DSA), by default on TCP and UDP port 389, or on port 636 for
LDAPS. Global Catalog is available by default on ports 3268, and 3269 for LDAPS.

QUESTION 166
Which the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

A. Dynamic ID
B. RADIUS
C. Username and Password
D. Certificate

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Mobile_Access_WebAdmin/41587.htm

QUESTION 167
How do you configure the Security Policy to provide uses access to the Captive Portal through an external (Internet) interface?

A. Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.
B. No action is necessary. This access is available by default.
C. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Policy access on all interfaces.
D. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Policy access for an external interface.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 168
Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. cpconfig
B. Management Command Line
C. SmartConsole
D. SmartDistributor

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SmartUpdate GUI is the recommended way of managing licenses.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/79993

QUESTION 169
Office mode means that:

A. SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.
B. Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.
C. Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.
D. Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to
the remote client.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Office Mode enables a Security Gateway to assign internal IP addresses to SecureClient users. This IP address will not be exposed to the public network, but is
encapsulated inside the VPN tunnel between the client and the Gateway. The IP to be used externally should be assigned to the client in the usual way by the
Internet Service provider used for the Internet connection. This mode allows a Security Administrator to control which addresses are used by remote clients inside
the local network and makes them part of the local network. The mechanism is based on an IKE protocol extension through which the Security Gateway can send
an internal IP address to the client.
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk30545

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 170
Jennifer McHanry is CEO of ACME. She recently bought her own personal iPad. She wants use her iPad to access the internal Finance Web server. Because the
iPad is not a member of the Active Directory domain, she cannot identify seamlessly with AD Query. However, she can enter her AD credentials in the Captive
Portal and then get the same access as on her office computer. Her access to resources is based on rules in the R77 Firewall Rule Base.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator must:
1) Enable Identity Awareness on a gateway and select Captive Portal as one of the Identity Sources.
2) In the Portal Settings window in the User Access section, make sure that Name and password login is selected.
3) Create a new rule in the Firewall Rule Base to let Jennifer McHanry access network destinations. Select accept as the Action.4) Install policy.
Ms McHanry tries to access the resource but is unable. What should she do?

A. Have the security administrator select the Action field of the Firewall Rule “Redirect HTTP connections to anauthentication (captive) portal”.
B. Have the security administrator reboot the firewall.
C. Have the security administrator select Any for the Machines tab in the appropriate Access Role.
D. Install the Identity Awareness agent on her iPad.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 171
What is the default method for destination NAT?

A. Destination side
B. Source side
C. Server side
D. Client side

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Client Side NAT - destination is NAT`d by the inbound kernel

QUESTION 172

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Tina is a new administrator who is currently reviewing the new Check Point R80 Management console interface. In the Gateways view, she is reviewing the
Summary screen as in the screenshot below. What as an 'Open Server'?

A. Check Point software deployed on a non-Check Point appliance.


B. The Open Server Consortium approved Server Hardware used for the purpose of Security and Availability.
C. A Check Point Management Server deployed using the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Server and Security deployment model.
D. A Check Point Management Server software using the Open SSL.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 173
What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A. Monitor
B. clish
C. Read-only
D. Bash

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This chapter gives an introduction to the Gaia command line interface (CLI).
The default shell of the CLI is called clish.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm

QUESTION 174
When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

A. Weight
B. Authenticated timeout
C. Schedule
D. Rate

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_QoS_AdminGuide/14871.htm

QUESTION 175
Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all of the
following except:

A. Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions
C. Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks
D. Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1517081623_70199443034f806cf2dd0a7ba15f201c&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 176
You are the administrator for ALPHA Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that
rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

A. The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.
B. The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.
C. The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.
D. The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 177
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

A. Manage and Command Line


B. Logs and Monitor
C. Security Policies
D. Gateway and Servers

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/SmartConsole_OLH/EN/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/SmartConsole_OLH/
EN/4x3HIUbSkxYhtcFgIKlg0w2

QUESTION 178
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

A. INSPECT Engine
B. Stateful Inspection
C. Packet Filtering
D. Application Layer Firewall

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/smb/help/utm1/8.2/7080.htm

QUESTION 179
Where can I find the file for a Gaia backup named backup_fw on a Check Point Appliance?

A. /var/log/CPbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
B. /var/CPbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz
C. /var/log/backups/backup_fw.tgz
D. $CPDIR/backups/backup_fw.tgz

Correct Answer: A

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 180
The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartEventWeb
C. There is no Web application for SmartEvent
D. SmartView

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 181
Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

A. Microsoft Publisher
B. JSON
C. Microsoft Word
D. RC4 Encryption

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 182
Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Antivirus
B. Data Loss Prevention
C. NAT
D. Application Control

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SGW_WebAdmin/96332.htm

QUESTION 183
In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

A. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.
B. A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.
C. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.
D. A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 184
Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

A. Pre-shared secret
B. Diffie-Hellman Public Key
C. Symmetrical IPSec key
D. Diffie-Hellman Private Key

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_VPN_AdminGuide/13847.htm

QUESTION 185
Mesh and Star are two types of VPN topologies. Which statement below is TRUE about these types of communities?

A. A star community requires Check Point gateways, as it is a Check Point proprietary technology.
B. In a star community, satellite gateways cannot communicate with each other.
C. In a mesh community, member gateways cannot communicate directly with each other.
D. In a mesh community, all members can create a tunnel with any other member.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 186
Choose the Best place to find a Security Management Server backup file named backup_fw, on a Check Point Appliance.

A. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tgs
B. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tar
C. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backups/backup_fw.tar
D. /var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Gaia's Backup feature allows backing up the configuration of the Gaia OS and of the Security Management server database, or restoring a
previously saved configuration.
The configuration is saved to a .tgz file in the following directory:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?action=portlets.SearchResultMainAction&eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk
91400

QUESTION 187
What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?

A. CPMI 200
B. TCP 8080
C. HTTP 80
D. HTTPS 443

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 188
You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security
Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC
certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
1. Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.
2. Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.
3. Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.
4. Click the Communication button in the Gateway object's General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize and OK.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


5. Install the Security Policy.

A. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 189
What happens if the identity of a user is known?

A. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the traffic is automatically dropped.
B. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays a sandbox.
C. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the gateway moves onto the next rule.
D. If the user credentials do not match an Access Role, the system displays the Captive Portal.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 190
What is the Manual Client Authentication TELNET port?

A. 23
B. 264
C. 900
D. 259

Correct Answer: D

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 191
In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

A. SmartConsole
B. Security Management Server and Security Gateway
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 192
Which of the following is NOT an option for internal network definition of Anti-spoofing?

A. Specific – derived from a selected object


B. Route-based – derived from gateway routing table
C. Network defined by the interface IP and Net Mask
D. Not-defined

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 193
Which application should you use to install a contract file?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. SmartView Monitor
B. WebUI
C. SmartDistributor
D. SmartProvisioning

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using SmartUpdate: If you already use an NGX R65 (or higher) Security Management / Provider-1 / Multi-Domain Management Server,
SmartUpdate allows you to import the service contract file that you have downloaded in Step #3.
Open SmartUpdate and from the Launch Menu select 'Licenses & Contracts' -> 'Update Contracts' -> 'From File...' and provide the path to the file you have
downloaded in Step #3:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Note: If SmartUpdate is connected to the Internet, you can download the service contract file directly from the UserCenter without going through the download and
import steps.
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk33089

QUESTION 194
An identity server uses a ___________ to trust a Terminal Server Identity Agent.

A. Shared secret
B. Certificate
C. One-time password
D. Token

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62050.htm

QUESTION 195
Assuming you have a Distributed Deployment, what will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

A. Remove the installed Security Policy.


B. Remove the local ACL lists.
C. No effect.
D. Reset SIC on all gateways.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This command uninstall actual security policy (already installed)
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityGatewayTech_WebAdmin/6751.htm

QUESTION 196
AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole. What does it mean if AdminB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Rule is locked by AdminA, because the save button has not been pressed.
B. Rule is locked by AdminA, because the rule is currently being edited.
C. Rule is locked by AdminA, and will be made it available if the session is published.
D. Rule is locked by AdminA, and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 197
A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______________ types of Software
Containers: ______________.

A. Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security


B. Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management
C. Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security
D. Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/a8/a81bd8771f3d7bf40a269f64f5b536e7/QuickLicenseGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1591197932_63e138c47656005c0a28456090361659&xtn=.pdf page 11

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 198
There are 4 ways to use the Management API for creating host object with R80 Management API. Which one is NOT correct?

A. Using Web Services


B. Using Mgmt_cli tool
C. Using CLISH
D. Using SmartConsole GUI console

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?
HashKey=1517088487_4c0acda205460a92f44c83d399826a7b&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 199
Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

A. Always delivers a file to user


B. Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files
C. Can take up to 3 minutes to complete
D. Delivers file only if no threats found

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 200
Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. TCP Acknowledgment Number

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Source Port

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Firewall_WebAdmin/92711.htm

QUESTION 201
The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

A. Secure Internal Communication (SIC)


B. Restart Daemons if they fail
C. Transfer messages between Firewall processes
D. Pulls application monitoring status

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk97638

QUESTION 202
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

A. HTTPS Inspection
B. Data Loss Prevention
C. URL Filtering
D. Application Control

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point Application Control provides the industry’s strongest application security and identity control to organizations of all sizes. Reference:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/application-control-software-blade/

QUESTION 203
What is UserCheck?

A. Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials


B. Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access
C. Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network
D. Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 204
Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartEvent
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SmartEvent correlates logs from all Check Point enforcement points, including end-points, to identify suspicious activity from the clutter. Rapid data analysis and
custom event logs immediately alert administrators to anomalous behavior such as someone attempting to use the same credential in multiple geographies
simultaneously. Reference:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/smartevent/

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 205
What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

A. SmartUpdate installation
B. DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic
C. USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic
D. Cloud based installation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 206
Review the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Data Center Layer is an inline layer in the Access Control Policy.
B. By default all layers are shared with all policies.
C. If a connection is dropped in Network Layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.
D. If a connection is accepted in Network-layer, it will not be matched against the rules in Data Center Layer.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 207
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.


B. SmartConsole
C. SecureClient
D. SmartEvent

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/158318

QUESTION 208
The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

A. The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated
B. The Firewall can run different policies per core
C. The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out
D. The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 209
Licenses can be added to the License and Contract repository ________ .

A. From the User Center, from a file, or manually


B. From a file, manually, or from SmartView Monitor
C. Manually, from SmartView Monitor, or from the User Center
D. From SmartView Monitor, from the User Center, or from a file

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

QUESTION 210
With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.

A. NT domain
B. SMTP
C. LDAP
D. SecurID

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 211
In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

A. Upgrade the software version


B. Open WebUI
C. Open SSH
D. Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 212
What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

A. Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer


B. Application Independence
C. High Performance
D. Scalability

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Packet Filter Advantages and Disadvantages
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/smb/help/utm1/8.2/7078.htm

QUESTION 213
Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

A. SmartUpdate
B. cpconfig

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. SmartConsole
D. sysconfig

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/161105

QUESTION 214
Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

A. SNMP
B. High alert
C. Mail
D. User defined alert

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In Action, select: none - No alert. log - Sends a log entry to the database. alert - Opens a pop-up window to your desktop. mail - Sends a mail alert to your Inbox.
snmptrap - Sends an SNMP alert. useralert - Runs a script. Make sure a user-defined action is available. Go to SmartDashboard > Global Properties > Log and
Alert > Alert Commands.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SmartViewMonitor_AdminGuide/101104.htm

QUESTION 215
Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?

A. From the Internet


B. Through internal interfaces
C. Through all interfaces
D. According to the Firewall Policy

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 216
How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

A. Saved as *.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups


B. Saved as *.tgz under /var/CPbackup
C. Saved as *.tar under /var/CPbackup
D. Saved as *.tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Backup configurations are stored in: /var/CPbackup/backups/ Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_Gaia_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide/107104

QUESTION 217
Which directory holds the SmartLog index files by default?

A. $SMARTLOGDIR/data
B. $SMARTLOG/dir
C. $FWDIR/smartlog
D. $FWDIR/log

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 218
Consider the Global Properties following settings:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io
The selected option "Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)" means:

A. UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule
written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
B. All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security
Policy.
C. No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security
Policy.
D. All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 219
The _________ software blade enables Application Security policies to allow, block, or limit website access based on user, group, and machine identities.

A. Application Control
B. Data Awareness
C. URL Filtering
D. Threat Emulation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 220
Which of the following actions do NOT take place in IKE Phase 1?

A. Peers agree on encryption method.


B. Diffie-Hellman key is combined with the key material to produce the symmetrical IPsec key.
C. Peers agree on integrity method.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Each side generates a session key from its private key and peer's public key.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 221
Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

A. Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine
B. Identity of the machine, username, and certificate
C. Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine
D. Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://ccsawannabe.blogspot.com/2016/04/check-point-identity-awareness.html

QUESTION 222
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
B. Log server
C. SmartEvent
D. Multi-domain management server

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 223
John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection
and unauthorized access risks. Thus, gateway policy permits access only from Join's desktop which is assigned an IP address 10.0.0.19 via DHCP.
John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but the
limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop. He wants to
move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources.
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.
John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to connect. How does he solve this problem?

A. John should install the identity Awareness Agent


B. The firewall admin should install the Security Policy
C. John should lock and unlock the computer
D. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 224
Which of the following is NOT a SecureXL traffic flow?

A. Medium Path
B. Accelerated Path
C. High Priority Path
D. Slow Path

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SecureXL is an acceleration solution that maximizes performance of the Firewall and does not compromise security. When SecureXL is enabled on a Security

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Gateway, some CPU intensive operations are processed by virtualized software instead of the Firewall kernel. The Firewall can inspect and process connections
more efficiently and accelerate throughput and connection rates. These are the SecureXL traffic flows:
Slow path - Packets and connections that are inspected by the Firewall and are not processed by SecureXL.
Accelerated path - Packets and connections that are offloaded to SecureXL and are not processed by the Firewall.
Medium path - Packets that require deeper inspection cannot use the accelerated path. It is not necessary for the Firewall to inspect these packets, they can be
offloaded and do not use the slow path. For example, packets that are inspected by IPS cannot use the accelerated path and can be offloaded to the IPS PSL
(Passive Streaming Library). SecureXL processes these packets more quickly than packets on the slow path.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92711.htm

QUESTION 225
Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

A. Firewall
B. Identity Awareness
C. Application Control
D. URL Filtering

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point Identity Awareness Software Blade provides granular visibility of users, groups and machines, providing unmatched application and access control
through the creation of accurate, identitybased policies. Centralized management and monitoring allows for policies to be managed from a single, unified console.
Reference:
https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/

QUESTION 226
An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway
managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find
a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

A. The Gateway is an SMB device


B. The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked
C. Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS
D. Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

Correct Answer: C

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 227
What are the two types of address translation rules?

A. Translated packet and untranslated packet


B. Untranslated packet and manipulated packet
C. Manipulated packet and original packet
D. Original packet and translated packet

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NAT Rule Base
The NAT Rule Base has two sections that specify how the IP addresses are translated:
Original Packet
Translated Packet
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm

QUESTION 228
Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

A. host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90


B. mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90
C. add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
D. mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 229
Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled?

A. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked
B. Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.
C. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.
D. Verify that Global Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 230
Look at the following screenshot and select the BEST answer.

A. Clients external to the Security Gateway can download archive files from FTP_Ext server using FTP.
B. Internal clients can upload and download any-files to FTP_Ext-server using FTP.
C. Internal clients can upload and download archive-files to FTP_Ext server using FTP.
D. Clients external to the Security Gateway can upload any files to the FTP_Ext-server using FTP.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 231
Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Quick Mode Complete
B. Aggressive Mode Complete
C. Main Mode Complete
D. IKE Mode Complete

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 232
MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks try to reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server. What can
you do in this case?

A. Use manual NAT rule to make an exception


B. Use the NAT settings in the Global Properties
C. Disable NAT inside the VPN community
D. Use network exception in the Alpha-internal network object

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 233
Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?

A. In Smart Log Rules View


B. In SmartDashboard on each rule
C. In Global Properties under Firewall
D. In Global Properties under log and alert

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 234
Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

A. cplic print
B. print cplic
C. fwlic print
D. show licenses

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 235
Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the
Rule Base.

What is the possible explanation for this?

A. DNS Rule is using one of the new features of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.
B. Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.
D. This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 236
What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

A. When a box is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta


B. When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta
C. When an Interface fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta
D. When a box fails, Effective Priority = Priority - Priority Delta

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/87911.htm

QUESTION 237
The IPS policy for pre-R80 gateways is installed during the _______ .

A. Firewall policy install


B. Threat Prevention policy install
C. Anti-bot policy install
D. Access Control policy install

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_ThreatPrevention/136486

QUESTION 238
What component of R80 Management is used for indexing?

A. DBSync
B. API Server
C. fwm
D. SOLR

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/r80.10-mgmt-architecture-overview.pdf

QUESTION 239
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Anti-Malware
B. IPS
C. Anti-Virus
D. Content Awareness

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Anti-Bot
The Need for Anti-Bot
There are two emerging trends in today's threat landscape:
A profit-driven cybercrime industry that uses different tools to meet its goals. This industry includes cyber-criminals, malware operators, tool providers, coders,
and affiliate programs. Their "products" can be easily ordered online from numerous sites (for example, do-it-yourself malware kits, spam sending, data theft, and
denial of service attacks) and organizations are finding it difficult to fight off these attacks.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Ideological and state driven attacks that target people or organizations to promote a political cause or carry out a cyberwarfare campaign. Both of these trends are
driven by bot attacks.
A bot is malicious software that can invade your computer. There are many infection methods. These include opening attachments that exploit a vulnerability and
accessing a web site that results in a malicious download.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ThreatPrevention_WebAdmin/102176.htm

QUESTION 240
Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

A. Support for IPv6


B. Granular access control
C. Strong user authentication
D. Secure connectivity

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Types of Solutions
All of Check Point's Remote Access solutions provide:
Enterprise-grade, secure connectivity to corporate resources.
Strong user authentication. Granular access control.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/83586.htm

QUESTION 241
You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level
of each Enterprise class Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most cost-effective way to upgrade your
Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to create this report and outline?

A. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor


B. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
C. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
D. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 242
The IT Management team is interested in the new features of the Check Point R80.x Management and wants to upgrade but they are concerned that the existing
R77.30 Gaia Gateways cannot be managed by R80.x because it is so different. As the administrator responsible for the Firewalls, how can you answer or confirm
these concerns?

A. R80.x Management contains compatibility packages for managing earlier versions of Check Point Gateways prior to R80.
Consult the R80 Release Notes for more information.
B. R80.x Management requires the separate installation of compatibility hotfix packages for managing the earlier versions of Check Point Gateways prior to R80.
Consult the R80 Release Notes for more information.
C. R80.x Management was designed as a completely different Management system and so can only monitor Check Point Gateways prior to R80.
D. R80.x Management cannot manage earlier versions of Check Point Gateways prior to R80. Only R80 and above Gateways can be managed. Consult the R80
Release Notes for more information.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f7e21da67aa992954aa12a0a84e53a8/CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=147983808
5_d6ffcb36c6a3128708b3f6d7bcc4f94e&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 243
ALPHA Corp has a new administrator who logs into the Gaia Portal to make some changes. He realizes that even though he has logged in as an administrator, he
is unable to make any changes because all configuration options are greyed out as shown in the screenshot image below. What is the likely cause for this?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. The Gaia /bin/confd is locked by another administrator from a SmartConsole session.
B. The database is locked by another administrator SSH session.
C. The Network address of his computer is in the blocked hosts.
D. The IP address of his computer is not in the allowed hosts.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is a lock on top left side of the screen. B is the logical answer.

QUESTION 244
Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomalybased protections from ThreatCloud?

A. Firewall
B. Application Control
C. Anti-spam and Email Security
D. Antivirus

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The enhanced Check Point Antivirus Software Blade uses real-time virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud™, the first collaborative
network to fight cybercrime, to detect and block malware at the gateway before users are affected.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/antivirus-software-blade/

QUESTION 245
John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

A. secondary Smartcenter
B. active Smartcenter
C. connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA
D. primary Smartcenter

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 246
In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

A. Pentagon
B. Combined
C. Meshed
D. Star

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation:
VPN communities are based on Star and Mesh topologies. In a Mesh community, there are VPN connections between each Security Gateway. In a Star
community, satellites have a VPN connection with the center Security Gateway, but not to each other.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92709.htm

QUESTION 247
How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a Super User administrator?

A. By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option


B. They cannot be seen
C. From the SmartView Tracker audit log
D. From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 248
Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

A. Source Network
B. Source Machine
C. Source User
D. Source Server

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 249
During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

A. Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment
C. Dropped with negative acknowledgment
D. Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 250
You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

A. backup
B. logswitch
C. Database Revision
D. snapshot

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point products, configuration, and operating system.
Starting in R77.10, exporting an image from one machine and importing that image on another machine of the same type is supported.
The log partition is not included in the snapshot. Therefore, any locally stored FireWall logs will not be saved. Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk108902

QUESTION 251
Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

A. On the Policy Package


B. On each Security Gateway
C. On the Policy layer
D. In Global Properties

Correct Answer: B

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 252
The following graphic shows:

A. View from SmartLog for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
B. View from SmartView Tracker for logs of destination address 10.1.1.202
C. View from SmartView Tracker for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202
D. View from SmartView Monitor for logs initiated from source address 10.1.1.202

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 253
What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

A. Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.


B. Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.
C. To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.
D. Used to better optimize a policy.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
These are basic access control rules we recommend for all Rule Bases:
Stealth rule that prevents direct access to the Security Gateway.
Cleanup rule that drops all traffic that is not allowed by the earlier rules.
There is also an implied rule that drops all traffic, but you can use the Cleanup rule to log the traffic.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92703.htm

QUESTION 254
Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?

A. There is no traffic queue to be handled


B. Several NICs can use one traffic queue by one CPU
C. Each NIC has several traffic queues that are handled by multiple CPU cores
D. Each NIC has one traffic queue that is handled by one CPU

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/93689.htm

QUESTION 255
Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?

A. SmartDashboard > Edit Gateway Object > General Properties > Communication
B. SmartUpdate > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC
C. SmartUpdate > Edit Gateway Object > Communication
D. SmartDashboard > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 256
What licensing feature automatically verifies current licenses and activates new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

A. Verification tool
B. Verification licensing
C. Automatic licensing
D. Automatic licensing and Verification tool

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 257
At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

A. Upon creation of a certificate


B. During the primary Security Management Server installation process.
C. When an administrator decides to create one.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Introduction to the ICA
The ICA is a Certificate Authority which is an integral part of the Check Point product suite. It is fully compliant with X.509 standards for both certificates and
CRLs. See the relevant X.509 and PKI documentation, as well as RFC 2459 standards for more information. You can read more about Check Point and PKI in the
R76 VPN Administration Guide.
The ICA is located on the Security Management server. It is created during the installation process, when the Security Management server is configured.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/13118

QUESTION 258
You have enabled “Extended Log” as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely
reason?

A. Logging has disk space issues.


B. Content Awareness is not enabled.
C. Identity Awareness is not enabled.
D. Log Trimming is enabled.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most likely reason for the logs data to stop is the low disk space on the logging device, which can be the Management Server or the Gateway Server.

QUESTION 259
In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?

A. Rule 0
B. Blank field under Rule Number
C. Rule 1

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Cleanup Rule

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 260
In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of

A. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and endpoint policy.
B. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
C. Firewall policy, address Translation and application and URL filtering, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
D. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and VPN policy.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
D is the best answer given the choices.
Unified Policy
In R80 the Access Control policy unifies the policies of these pre-R80 Software Blades:
Firewall and VPN
Application Control and URL Filtering
Identity Awareness
Data Awareness
Mobile Access
Security Zones
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197&anchor=o129934

QUESTION 261
Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server
vulnerabilities?

A. Anti-Virus

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. IPS
C. Anti-Spam
D. Anti-bot

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The IPS Software Blade provides a complete Intrusion Prevention System security solution, providing comprehensive network protection against malicious and
unwanted network traffic, including: Malware attacks Dos and DDoS attacks Application and server vulnerabilities Insider threats Unwanted application traffic,
including IM and P2P Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/ips-software-blade/

QUESTION 262
Which of the following ClusterXL modes uses a non-unicast MAC address for the cluster IP address.

A. High Availability
B. Load Sharing Multicast
C. Load Sharing Pivot
D. Master/Backup

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ClusterXL uses the Multicast mechanism to associate the virtual cluster IP addresses with all cluster members. By binding these IP addresses to a Multicast MAC
address, it ensures that all packets sent to the cluster, acting as a gateway, will reach all members in the cluster.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm

QUESTION 263
What is also referred to as Dynamic NAT?

A. Automatic NAT
B. Static NAT
C. Manual NAT
D. Hide NAT

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 264
How many packets does the IKE exchange use for Phase 1 Main Mode?

A. 12
B. 1
C. 3
D. 6

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 265
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

A. There is one default user that cannot be deleted.


B. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
C. There is one default user that can be deleted.
D. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
These users are created by default and cannot be deleted: admin – Has full read/write capabilities for all Gaia features, from the WebUI and the CLI. This user
has a User ID of 0, and therefore has all of the privileges of a root user. monitor – Has read-only capabilities for all features in the WebUI and the CLI, and can

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


change its own password. You must give a password for this user before the account can be used.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm

QUESTION 266
A digital signature:

A. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.


B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Decrypts data to its original form.
D. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 267
The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

A. Next Generation Threat Prevention


B. Next Generation Threat Emulation
C. Next Generation Threat Extraction
D. Next Generation Firewall

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 268
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

A. cphaprob stat
B. cphaprob status
C. cphaprob

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. cluster state

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

QUESTION 269
After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you
use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

A. set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24 set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 on save config
B. add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0 add static-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 on save config
C. set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0 add static-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 on save config
D. add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24 add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 on save config

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 270
What are the two high availability modes?

A. Load Sharing and Legacy


B. Traditional and New
C. Active and Standby
D. New and Legacy

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ClusterXL has four working modes. This section briefly describes each mode and its relative advantages and disadvantages.
Load Sharing Multicast Mode
Load Sharing Unicast Mode
New High Availability Mode
High Availability Legacy Mode
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm#o7363

QUESTION 271
What is the appropriate default Gaia Portal address?

A. HTTP://[IPADDRESS]
B. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:8080
C. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]:4434
D. HTTPS://[IPADDRESS]

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 272
Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

A. Network Bandwidth Saturation


B. Buffer Overflow
C. SYN Flood
D. SQL Injection

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 273
NAT can NOT be configured on which of the following objects?

A. HTTP Logical Server


B. Gateway
C. Address Range
D. Host

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 274
To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.

A. Cleanup; stealth
B. Stealth; implicit
C. Cleanup; default
D. Implicit; explicit

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 275
In a Network policy with Inline layers, the default action for the Implied last rule is ________ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default
action is ________ all traffic.

A. Accept; redirect
B. Accept; drop
C. Redirect; drop
D. Drop; accept

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 276
When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R77?

A. User Name, Management Server IP, certificate fingerprint file


B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C. Password, Management Server IP
D. Password, Management Server IP, LDAP Server IP

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 277
A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and is located before the first and before last rules in the Rule Base.

A. Firewall drop
B. Explicit
C. Implicit accept
D. Implicit drop
E. Implied

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is the order that rules are enforced:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


1. First Implied Rule: You cannot edit or delete this rule and no explicit rules can be placed before it.
2. Explicit Rules: These are rules that you create.
3. Before Last Implied Rules: These implied rules are applied before the last explicit rule.
4. Last Explicit Rule: We recommend that you use the Cleanup rule as the last explicit rule.
5. Last Implied Rules: Implied rules that are configured as Last in Global Properties.
6. Implied Drop Rule: Drops all packets without logging.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92703.htm

QUESTION 278
Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by _____ ?

A. ELA and CPD


B. FWD and LEA
C. FWD and CPLOG
D. ELA and CPLOG

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 279
Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

A. file attributes
B. application information
C. destination port
D. data type information

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 280

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

A. Pentagon, star, and combination


B. Star, octagon, and combination
C. Combined and star
D. Meshed, star, and combination

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13894

QUESTION 281
What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

A. Source
B. Static
C. Hide
D. Destination

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 282
The fw monitor utility is used to troubleshoot which of the following problems?

A. Phase two key negotiation


B. Address translation
C. Log Consolidation Engine
D. User data base corruption

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 283
Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?

A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Dynamic encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Symmetric encryption

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 284
If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to “First”, what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

A. Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties.


B. Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base.
C. Track log column is set to none.
D. Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Implied Rules are configured only on Global Properties.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 285
Look at the screenshot below. What CLISH command provides this output?

A. show configuration all


B. show confd configuration
C. show confd configuration all
D. show configuration

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/0c/0caa9c0daa67e0c1f2af3dd06790bc81/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminGuide.pdf?HashKey=147983
5768_76058f0fc4209e38bc801cd58a85d7c5&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 286
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

A. Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats


B. Proactively detects threats
C. Delivers file with original content
D. Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 287
You want to define a selected administrator's permission to edit a layer. However, when you click the + sign in the “Select additional profile that will be able edit
this layer” you do not see anything. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Choose the BEST answer.

A. “Edit layers by Software Blades” is unselected in the Administrator Permission Profile

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. There are no Administrator Permission Profiles available and you need to create one first.
C. All Administrator Permission Profiles are in use.
D. There are no Administrator Permission Profiles defined with limited access privileges.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 288
Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.

A. Main
B. Authentication
C. Quick
D. High Alert

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Phase I modes
Between Security Gateways, there are two modes for IKE phase I. These modes only apply to IKEv1: Main Mode Aggressive Mode Reference: https://
sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_VPN_AdminGuide/13847.htm

QUESTION 289
Which set of objects have an Authentication tab?

A. Templates, Users
B. Users, Networks
C. Users, User Group
D. Networks, Hosts

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 290
To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

A. run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then reboot


B. Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu
C. Edit /proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot
D. run fw ctl multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk105261#Configuration%20R80.10

QUESTION 291
Packages and licenses are loaded from all of these sources EXCEPT ________.

A. Download Center Web site


B. UserUpdate
C. User Center
D. Check Point DVD

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Packages and licenses are loaded into these repositories from several sources: the Download Center web site (packages) the Check Point DVD (packages) the
User Center (licenses) by importing a file (packages and licenses) by running the cplic command line Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/
CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 292
Once a license is activated, a ________ should be installed.

A. License Management file


B. Security Gateway Contract file
C. Service Contract file
D. License Contract file

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Service Contract File
Following the activation of the license, a Service Contract File should be installed. This file contains important information about all subscriptions purchased for a
specific device and is installed via SmartUpdate. A detailed explanation of the Service Contract File can be found in sk33089.
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk11054

QUESTION 293
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R77?

A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 294
The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ________ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ________ layer.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Lower; Application
B. First two; Internet
C. First two; Transport
D. Upper; Application

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 295
Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA, but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She
can SSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been able to SCP files to it.
What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?

A. She needs to edit /etc/SSHd/SSHd_config and add the Standard Mode account.
B. She needs to run sysconfig and restart the SSH process.
C. She needs to edit /etc/scpusers and add the Standard Mode account.
D. She needs to run cpconfig to enable the ability to SCP files.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 296
Which type of the Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

A. Local
B. Central
C. Corporate
D. Formal

Correct Answer: B

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 297
On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:

A. Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration


B. Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is
completely transparent to the user
C. Obligatory usage of Captive Portal
D. The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication

Correct Answer: B

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To enable Identity Awareness:
1. Log in to R80 SmartConsole.
2. From the Gateways & Servers view, double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
3. On the Network Security tab, select Identity Awareness. The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
4. Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and unmanaged assets.
AD Query - Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identify Active Directory users and computers.
Browser-Based Authentication - Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified users. If Transparent Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD
users may be identified transparently.
Terminal Servers - Identify users in a Terminal Server environment (originating from one IP address).
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/62050

QUESTION 298
MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a central license for one remote Security Gateway. How do you
apply the license?

A. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
B. Using your Security Management Server's IP address, and attaching the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
C. Using the remote Gateway's IP address, and applying the license locally with command cplic put.
D. Using each of the Gateway's IP addresses, and applying the licenses on the Security Management Server with the command cprlic put.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 299
Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

A. SSL
B. Captive Portal
C. PKI

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. RSA

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 300
The __________ is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

A. User Directory
B. User server
C. UserCheck
D. User index

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DS_UserDirectorySWB.pdf

QUESTION 301
From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

A. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path


B. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
C. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92711.htm

QUESTION 302
You want to reset SIC between smberlin and sgosaka.

In SmartDashboard, you choose sgosaka, Communication, Reset. On sgosaka, you start cpconfig, choose Secure Internal Communication and enter the new SIC
Activation Key. The screen reads The SIC was successfully initialized and jumps back to the menu. When trying to establish a connection, instead of a working
connection, you receive this error message:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


What is the reason for this behavior?

A. The Gateway was not rebooted, which is necessary to change the SIC key.
B. You must first initialize the Gateway object in SmartDashboard (i.e., right-click on the object, choose Basic Setup > Initialize).
C. The check Point services on the Gateway were not restarted because you are still in the cpconfig utility.
D. The activation key contains letters that are on different keys on localized keyboards. Therefore, the activation can not be typed in a matching fashion.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 303
Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the
following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

A. When Joe logs in, Bob will be logged out automatically.


B. Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they both will be able to make changes.
C. The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.
D. Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 304
Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

A. On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels


B. On specific tunnels for specific gateways
C. On specific tunnels in the community
D. On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each VPN tunnel in the community may be set to be a Permanent Tunnel. Since Permanent Tunnels are constantly monitored, if the VPN tunnel is down, then a
log, alert, or user defined action, can be issued. A VPN tunnel is monitored by periodically sending "tunnel test" packets. As long as responses to the packets are
received the VPN tunnel is considered "up." If no response is received within a given time period, the VPN tunnel is considered "down." Permanent Tunnels can
only be established between Check Point Security Gateways. The configuration of Permanent Tunnels takes place on the community level and:
Can be specified for an entire community. This option sets every VPN tunnel in the community as permanent.
Can be specified for a specific Security Gateway. Use this option to configure specific Security Gateways to have permanent tunnels.
Can be specified for a single VPN tunnel. This feature allows configuring specific tunnels between specific Security Gateways as permanent. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/14018

QUESTION 305
Choose what BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection.

A. If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the matching continues to the next Layer.
B. If a packet matches an inline layer, it will continue matching the next layer.
C. If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the packet will be matched against the Implicit Clean-up Rule.
D. If a packet does not match a Network Policy Layer, the matching continues to its inline layer.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/1092

QUESTION 306
What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

A. Use 1 cluster + 1st sync


B. Use 1 dedicated sync interface
C. Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync
D. Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 307
What port is used for delivering logs from the gateway to the management server?

A. Port 258
B. Port 18209
C. Port 257
D. Port 981

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 308
The command __________ provides the most complete restoration of an R80 configuration.

A. upgrade_import
B. cpconfig

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. fwm dbimport -p
D. cpinfo -recover

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(Should be "migrate import")
"migrate import" Restores backed up configuration for R80 version, in previous versions the command was " upgrade_import
".

QUESTION 309
A security Policy is created in _________ , stored in the _________ , and Distributed to the various __________ .

A. Rule base, Security Management Server, Security Gateways


B. SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers
C. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways
D. The Check Point database, SmartConsole, Security Gateways

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 310
What does it mean if Bob gets this result on an object search? Refer to the image below. Choose the BEST answer.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Search detailed is missing the subnet mask.
B. There is no object on the database with that name or that IP address.
C. There is no object on the database with that IP address.
D. Object does not have a NAT IP address.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 311
When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

A. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email


B. Drop Packet, Alert, None
C. Log, Alert, None
D. Log, Allow Packets, Email

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_Firewall/136417

QUESTION 312
You want to establish a VPN, using certificates. Your VPN will exchange certificates with an external partner. Which of the following activities sh you do first?

A. Create a new logical-server object to represent your partner's CA


B. Exchange exported CA keys and use them to create a new server object to represent your partner's Certificate Authority (CA)
C. Manually import your partner's Certificate Revocation List.
D. Manually import your partner's Access Control List.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 313
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

A. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point production information, and configuration settings of a GAiA Security
Gateway.
B. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS
C. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway
D. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 314
Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. the user connects and authenticates
B. office mode is initiated
C. the user requests a connection
D. the user connects

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Office Mode enables a Security Gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. The assignment takes place once the user connects and authenticates. The
assignment lease is renewed as long as the user is connected. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_VPN_AdminGuide/13857.htm

QUESTION 315
An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R77 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule
for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/ LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for
GRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).
Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.
If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute. Which of the following is the
BEST explanation for this behavior?

A. The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GRE. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.
B. The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrupt. Because it is encrypted, the R77 Security
Gateway cannot distinguish between GRE sessions. This is a known issue with GRE. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.
C. The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartView
Tracker. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of the
day.
D. The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffic. Disable all VPN configuration to the partner site to enable proper logging.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 316

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

A. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161


B. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116
C. Quicker than Full sync
D. Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7288.htm

QUESTION 317
Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but
gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login
into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

A. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80
SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.
B. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


using the correct details.
C. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.
D. Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with
Gaia.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 318
Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

A. RADIUS
B. Active Directory Query
C. Remote Access
D. Certificates

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/

QUESTION 319
By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

A. SHA-256
B. SHA-200
C. MD5
D. SHA-128

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 320
The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .

A. Log server; security management server


B. Log server; Security Gateway
C. Security management server; Security Gateway
D. Security Gateways; log server

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 321
What SmartEvent component creates events?

A. Consolidation Policy
B. Correlation Unit
C. SmartEvent Policy
D. SmartEvent GUI

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 322
What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

A. If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy
B. There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules
D. On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a Stateful manner

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 323
One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and
AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A. AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.
B. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.
C. AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.
D. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In SmartConsole, administrators work with sessions. A session is created each time an administrator logs into SmartConsole. Changes made in the session are
saved automatically. These changes are private and available only to the administrator. To avoid configuration conflicts, other administrators see a lock icon on
objects and rules that are being edited in other sessions. Reference: http://downloads.checkpoint.com/dc/download.htm?ID=65846

QUESTION 324
To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which Access Tool in SmartConsole would an administrator use?

A. Revision History
B. Gateway installations
C. Installation history
D. Gateway history

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/119225

QUESTION 325
As you review this Security Policy, what changes could you make to accommodate Rule 4?

A. Remove the service HTTP from the column Service in Rule 4.


B. Modify the column VPN in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic.
C. Nothing at all
D. Modify the columns Source or Destination in Rule 4

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 326
If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

A. Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
B. Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
C. Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
D. Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 327
Examine the following Rule Base.

What can we infer about the recent changes made to the Rule Base?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Rule 7 was created by the 'admin' administrator in the current session
B. 8 changes have been made by administrators since the last policy installation
C. Te rules 1, 5 and 6 cannot be edited by the 'admin' administrator
D. Rule 1 and object webserver are locked by another administrator

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Explantation:
On top of the print screen there is a number "8" which consists for the number of changes made and not saved.
Session Management Toolbar (top of SmartConsole)

Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/117948

QUESTION 328
On the following graphic, you will find layers of policies.

What is a precedence of traffic inspection for the defined polices?

A. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if Implicit Drop Rule drops the packet, it comes next to IPS
layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.
B. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next
to IPS layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer
C. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in the networks policy layer and then if there is any rule which accepts the packet, it comes next
to Threat Prevention layer and then after accepting the packet it passes to IPS layer.
D. A packet arrives at the gateway, it is checked against the rules in IPS policy layer and then if it is accepted then it comes next to the Network policy layer and

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


then after accepting the packet it passes to Threat Prevention layer.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To simplify Policy management, R80 organizes the policy into Policy Layers. A layer is a set of rules, or a Rule Base. For example, when you upgrade to R80
from earlier versions:
Gateways that have the Firewall and the Application Control Software Blades enabled will have their Access Control Policy split into two ordered layers: Network
and Applications.
When the gateway matches a rule in a layer, it starts to evaluate the rules in the next layer.
Gateways that have the IPS and Threat Emulation Software Blades enabled will have their Threat Prevention policies split into two parallel layers: IPS and Threat
Prevention. All layers are evaluated in parallel Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 329
From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

A. Verify a Security Policy


B. Open a terminal shell
C. Add a static route
D. View Security Management GUI Clients

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 330
Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

A. Cplic verify license


B. Cplic print
C. Cplic show
D. Cplic license

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 331
You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

A. Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Shared secret properties of John’s password.
C. VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.
D. Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 332
Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

A. I have changed this rule


B. Someone else has changed this rule
C. This rule is managed by check point’s SOC
D. This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 333
Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

A. Five
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm

QUESTION 334
You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have created an HTTP rule via User
Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.

A. You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.


B. Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
C. You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
D. Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 335
An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

A. Server Units
B. Administrator Units
C. Account Units
D. Account Servers

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/94041

QUESTION 336

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


When connected to the Check Point Management Server using the SmartConsole, the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

A. Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they
all connect from the same LAN network.
B. The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.
C. The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.
D. Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 337
Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

A. License and Update


B. Package Repository and Licenses
C. Update and License & Contract
D. License & Contract and Package Repository

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

QUESTION 338
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?

A. RADIUS
B. Remote Access and RADIUS
C. AD Query
D. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Identity Awareness gets identities from these acquisition sources:
AD Query
Browser-Based Authentication
Endpoint Identity Agent
Terminal Servers Identity Agent
Remote Access Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62007.htm

QUESTION 339
What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

A. Server, Username, Password, Path, Version


B. Username, Password, Path, Version
C. Protocol, Username, Password
D. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/
ud_B7RJG2xrUQywsBK5buA2

QUESTION 340
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

A. INSPECT Engine
B. Next-Generation Firewall
C. Packet Filtering

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Application Layer Firewall

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 341
When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as _______

A. UserCheck
B. User Directory
C. User Administration
D. User Center

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point User Directory integrates LDAP, and other external user management technologies, with the Check Point solution. If you have a large user count, we
recommend that you use an external user management database such as LDAP for enhanced Security Management Server performance.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/118981

QUESTION 342
________information is included in the “Full Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

A. File attributes
B. Application
C. Destination port
D. Data type

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Tracking Options
Network Log - Generates a log with only basic Firewall information: Source, Destination, Source Port, Destination Port, and Protocol.
Log - Equivalent to the Network Log option, but also includes the application name (for example, Dropbox), and application information (for example, the URL of
the Website). This is the default Tracking option.
Full Log - Equivalent to the log option, but also records data for each URL request made.
- If suppression is not selected, it generates a complete log (as defined in pre-R80 management). - If suppression is selected, it generates an extended log (as
defined in pre-R80 management). None - Do not generate a log.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131914

QUESTION 343
What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

A. It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.


B. It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.
C. It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.
D. It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 344
VPN gateways authenticate using ___________ and ___________ .

A. Passwords; tokens
B. Certificates; pre-shared secrets
C. Certificates; passwords
D. Tokens; pre-shared secrets

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VPN gateways authenticate using Digital Certificates and Pre-shared secrets.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/85469.htm

QUESTION 345
Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications


B. Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category
C. Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits
D. A worldwide collaborative security network

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/support-services/threatcloud-managed-security-service/

QUESTION 346
Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

A. Application Control
B. Data Awareness
C. Identity Awareness
D. Threat Emulation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 347
The most important part of a site-to-site VPN deployment is the ________ .

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Internet
B. Remote users
C. Encrypted VPN tunnel
D. VPN gateways

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Site to Site VPN
The basis of Site to Site VPN is the encrypted VPN tunnel. Two Security Gateways negotiate a link and create a VPN tunnel and each tunnel can contain more
than one VPN connection. One Security Gateway can maintain more than one VPN tunnel at the same time.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92709.htm

QUESTION 348
Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

A. SmartManager
B. SmartConsole
C. Security Gateway
D. Security Management Server

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 349
Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect
installed a WinSCP client in order to use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?

A. Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a
separate log file for documentation.
B. Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


alert action or customized messaging.
C. Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.
D. Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his wrongdoings.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 350
Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

A. Anti-virus
B. IPS
C. Threat Emulation
D. Application Control and URL Filtering

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92707.htm

QUESTION 351
A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

A. Formal; corporate
B. Local; formal
C. Local; central
D. Central; local

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/13128.htm

QUESTION 352
What CLI utility allows an administrator to capture traffic along the firewall inspection chain?

A. show interface (interface) –chain


B. tcpdump
C. tcpdump /snoop
D. fw monitor

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 353
Which R77 GUI would you use to see number of packets accepted since the last policy install?

A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 354
Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

A. Security Management Server

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Check Point Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 355
You are about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an R77 news group. Which backup solution should you use to ensure the easiest restoration of
your Security Policy to its previous configuration after testing the changes?

A. Manual copies of the directory $FWDIR/conf


B. upgrade_export command
C. Database Revision Control
D. GAiA backup utilities

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 356
Fill in the blanks. A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster.

A. Standby/standby
B. Active/active
C. Active standby/active
D. Active/standby

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 357
What is the difference between an event and a log?

A. Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy


B. A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy
C. Events are collected with SmartWorkflow from Trouble Ticket systems
D. Logs and Events are synonyms

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 358
Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

A. SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI


B. WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate
C. CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup
D. SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Backup and Restore
These options let you:
Back up the Gaia OS configuration and the firewall database to a compressed file Restore the Gaia OS configuration and the firewall database from a
compressed file To back up a configuration:
1. Right-click the Security Gateway.
2. Select Backup and Restore > Backup. The Backup window opens.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


3. Select the backup location.
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/thread/5375-checkpoint-gateway-firewall-backup-through-smart-console

QUESTION 359
Review the rules. Assume domain UDP is enabled in the implied rules.

What happens when a user from the internal network tries to browse to the internet using HTTP? The user:

A. can connect to the Internet successfully after being authenticated.


B. is prompted three times before connecting to the Internet successfully.
C. can go to the Internet after Telnetting to the client authentication daemon port 259.
D. can go to the Internet, without being prompted for authentication.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 360
What is the SOLR database for?

A. Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities
B. Writes data to the database and full text search
C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server
D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apache_Solr

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 361
The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track
the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

A. No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert
B. Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway
C. No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged
D. Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 362
Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU.
After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

A. Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart


B. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway
C. Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores
D. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 363
When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

A. Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.
C. There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.
D. SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/118037

QUESTION 364
Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

A. Password
B. Certificate
C. MD5
D. Pre-shared secret

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_VPN_AdminGuide/13894.htm

QUESTION 365
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?

A. RADIUS
B. Remote Access and RADIUS
C. All of the above
D. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Identity Awareness gets identities from these acquisition sources:
AD Query
Browser-Based Authentication
Endpoint Identity Agent
Terminal Servers Identity Agent
Remote Access Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62007.htm

QUESTION 366
Which utility shows the security gateway general system information statistics like operating system information and resource usage, and individual software blade
statistics of VPN, Identity Awareness and DLP?

A. cpconfig
B. fw ctl pstat
C. cpview
D. fw ctl multik stat

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CPView Utility is a text based built-in utility that can be run ('cpview' command) on Security Gateway / Security Management Server / Multi-Domain Security
Management Server. CPView Utility shows statistical data that contain both general system information (CPU, Memory, Disk space) and information for different
Software Blades (only on Security Gateway). The data is continuously updated in easy to access views.
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk101878

QUESTION 367
Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

A. Password
B. Certificate
C. Token

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Pre-shared secret

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 368
To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members?

A. fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled


B. fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1
C. cphaprob –a if
D. fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm

QUESTION 369
The default method for destination NAT is _____________, where NAT occurs on the Inbound interface closest to the client.

A. Destination side
B. Source side
C. Server side
D. Client side

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


As of VPN-1 NGX, the default method for Destination NAT is "client side", where NAT occurs on the inbound interface closest to the client.

QUESTION 370
Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

A. To satellites through center only


B. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets
C. To center and to other satellites through center
D. To center only

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SmartConsole
For simple hubs and spokes (or if there is only one Hub), the easiest way is to configure a VPN star community in R80 SmartConsole:
1. On the Star Community window, in the: a. Center Gateways section, select the Security Gateway that functions as the "Hub". b. Satellite Gateways section,
select Security Gateways as the "spokes", or satellites.
2. On the VPN Routing page, Enable VPN routing for satellites section, select one of these options: a. To center and to other Satellites through center - This
allows connectivity between the Security Gateways, for example if the spoke Security Gateways are DAIP Security Gateways, and the Hub is a Security Gateway
with a static IP address. b. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets - This allows connectivity between the Security
Gateways as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the Hub to the Internet.
3. Create an appropriate Access Control Policy rule.
4. NAT the satellite Security Gateways on the Hub if the Hub is used to route connections from Satellites to the Internet.
The two Dynamic Objects (DAIP Security Gateways) can securely route communication through the Security Gateway with the static IP address.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_VPN/html_frameset.htm

QUESTION 371
You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware
upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on


B. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9
C. fw ctl multik set_mode 9
D. fw ctl miltik pq enable

Correct Answer: A

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 372
You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host. You decide that you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the problematic host.
You want to block this for an hour while you investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?

A. Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
B. Select Block intruder from the Tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
C. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in Smart Monitor.
D. Add a temporary rule using SmartDashboard and select hide rule.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 373
What is true about the IPS-Blade?

A. in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy


B. in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict
C. in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”
D. in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 374
Web Control Layer has been set up using the settings in the following dialogue:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Consider the following policy and select the BEST answer.

A. Traffic that does not match any rule in the subpolicy is dropped.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. All employees can access only Youtube and Vimeo.
C. Access to Youtube and Vimeo is allowed only once a day.
D. Anyone from internal network can access the internet, expect the traffic defined in drop rules 5.2, 5.5 and 5.6.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Policy Layers and Sub-Policies
R80 introduces the concept of layers and sub-policies, allowing you to segment your policy according to your network segments or business units/functions. In
addition, you can also assign granular privileges by layer or sub-policy to distribute workload and tasks to the most qualified administrators With layers, the rule
base is organized into a set of security rules. These set of rules or layers, are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base
flow and the security functionalities that take precedence. If an “accept” action is performed across a layer, the inspection will continue to the next layer. For
example, a compliance layer can be created to overlay across a cross-section of rules.
Sub-policies are sets of rules that are created for a specific network segment, branch office or business unit, so if a rule is matched, inspection will continue
through this subset of rules before it moves on to the next rule.
Sub-policies and layers can be managed by specific administrators, according to their permissions profiles. This facilitates task delegation and workload
distribution. Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/docs/DOC-1065

QUESTION 375
Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

A. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules


B. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT
C. Automatic Hide NAT
D. Automatic Static NAT

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 376
Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Kerberos Ticket Renewed
B. Kerberos Ticket Requested
C. Account Logon
D. Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 377
Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R80 Security Management Server Operating System.
He can do this via WebUI or via CLI. Which command should he use in CLI?

A. remove database lock


B. The database feature has one command: lock database override.
C. override database lock
D. The database feature has two commands: lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the database feature to obtain the configuration lock. The database feature has two commands: lock database [override]. unlock database The commands do
the same thing: obtain the configuration lock from another administrator.

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm#o73091

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 378
Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?

A. Read/Write, Read Only


B. Read/Write, Read Only, None
C. Read/Write, None
D. Read Only, None

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Roles
Role-based administration (RBA) lets you create administrative roles for users. With RBA, an administrator can allow Gaia users to access specified features by
including those features in a role and assigning that role to users. Each role can include a combination of administrative (read/write) access to some features,
monitoring (read-only) access to other features, and no access to other features. You can also specify which access mechanisms (WebUI or the CLI) are available
to the user.

Note - When users log in to the WebUI, they see only those features that they have read-only or read/write access to. If they have read-only access to a feature,
they can see the settings pages, but cannot change the settings.
Gaia includes these predefined roles: adminRole - Gives the user read/write access to all features. monitorRole- Gives the user read-only access to all features.
You cannot delete or change the predefined roles.

Note - Do not define a new user for external users. An external user is one that is defined on an authentication server (such as RADIUS or TACACS) and not on
the local Gaia system.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/75930

QUESTION 379
What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

A. Endpoint Security Client


B. Full Agent
C. Light Agent

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. System Agent

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_IdentityAwareness_WebAdminGuide/62838

QUESTION 380
Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

A. SmartUpdate
B. cpconfig
C. SmartConsole
D. sysconfig

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/161105

QUESTION 381
Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

A. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities


B. Accept all encrypted traffic
C. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)
D. Specific VPN Communities

Correct Answer: B

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 382
You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet,
they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

A. Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”
B. On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”
C. In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”
D. On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 383
In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

A. Bridge Mode
B. Remote
C. Standalone
D. Distributed

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Installing Standalone
Standalone Deployment - The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are installed on the same computer or appliance.

Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/89230.htm#o98246

QUESTION 384
What is the order of NAT priorities?

A. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT


B. IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
C. Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
D. Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
1. Static NAT
2. IP Pool NAT
3. Hide NAT
Since Static NAT has all of the advantages of IP Pool NAT and more, it has a higher priority than the other NAT methods.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Firewall_WebAdmin/6724.htm#o6919

QUESTION 385

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

A. Cluster Protocol
B. Synchronized Cluster Protocol
C. Control Cluster Protocol
D. Cluster Control Protocol

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://downloads.checkpoint.com/fileserver/SOURCE/direct/ID/5990/FILE/sk31085_Cluster_Control_Protocol_Functionality.pdf

QUESTION 386
When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

A. Both User and Objects databases


B. Network databases only
C. Objects databases only
D. User databases only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A policy package is a collection of different types of policies. After installation, the Security Gateway enforces all the policies in the package. A policy package can
have one or more of these policy types: Access Control - consists of these types of rules:
- Firewall
- NAT
- Application Control and URL Filtering
- Data Awareness
QoS
Desktop Security - the Firewall policy for endpoint computers that have the Endpoint Security VPN remote access client installed as a standalone client. Threat
Prevention - consists of:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


- IPS - IPS protections continually updated by IPS Services
- Anti-Bot - Detects bot-infected machines, prevents bot damage by blocking bot commands and Control (C&C) communications - Anti-Virus - Includes heuristic
analysis, stops viruses, worms, and other malware at the gateway - Threat Emulation - detects zero-day and advanced polymorphic attacks by opening suspicious
files in a sandbox The installation process:
Runs a heuristic verification on rules to make sure they are consistent and that there are no redundant rules.
If there are verification errors, the policy is not installed. If there are verification warnings (for example, if anti-spoofing is not enabled for a Security Gateway with
multiple interfaces), the policy package is installed with a warning.
Makes sure that each of the Security Gateways enforces at least one of the rules. If none of the rules are enforced, the default drop rule is enforced. Distributes
the user database and object database to the selected installation targets.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/119225

QUESTION 387
Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

A. Security questions
B. Check Point password
C. SecurID
D. RADIUS

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Authentication Schemes:
- Check Point Password
- Operating System Password
- RADIUS
- SecurID
- TACAS
- Undefined If a user with an undefined authentication scheme is matched to a Security Rule with some form of authentication, access is always denied.

QUESTION 388
In ____________ NAT, only the ____________ is translated.

A. Hide; source
B. Static; source
C. Simple; source

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Hide; destination

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 389
Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

A. Internal Certificate Authority


B. Token
C. One-time Password
D. Certificate

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To establish the initial trust, a gateway and a Security Management Server use a one-time password. After the initial trust is established, further communication is
based on security certificates.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/125443

QUESTION 390
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A. write mem
B. show config -f
C. save config -o
D. save configuration

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk102234

QUESTION 391
When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A. Distributed
B. Standalone
C. Bridge Mode
D. Targeted

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/86429.htm

QUESTION 392
What must a Security Administrator do to comply with a management requirement to log all traffic accepted through the perimeter Security Gateway?

A. In Global Properties > Reporting Tools check the box Enable tracking all rules (including rules marked as None in the Track column). Send these logs to a
secondary log server for a complete logging history. Use your normal log server for standard logging for troubleshooting.
B. Install the View Implicit Rules package using SmartUpdate.
C. Define two log servers on the R77 Gateway object. Lof Implied Rules on the first log server. Enable Log Rule Base on the second log server. Use
SmartReporter to merge the two log server records into the same database for HIPPA log audits.
D. Check the Log Implied Rules Globally box on the R77 Gateway object.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 393
Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A. No, only one can be connected


B. Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time
C. Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators
D. Yes, but only one has the right to write

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/124265

QUESTION 394
VPN gateways must authenticate to each other prior to exchanging information. What are the two types of credentials used for authentication?

A. 3DES and MD5


B. Certificates and IPsec
C. Certificates and pre-shared secret
D. IPsec and VPN Domains

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 395
Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and:

A. assign privileges to users.


B. edit the home directory of the user.
C. add users to your Gaia system.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Users
Use the WebUI and CLI to manage user accounts. You can:
Add users to your Gaia system.
Edit the home directory of the user.
Edit the default shell for a user.
Give a password to a user. Give privileges to users.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm

QUESTION 396
The tool _______ generates an R80 Security Gateway configuration report.

A. infoCP
B. infoview
C. cpinfo
D. fw cpinfo

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CPInfo is an auto-updatable utility that collects diagnostics data on a customer's machine at the time of execution and uploads it to Check Point servers (it
replaces the standalone cp_uploader utility for uploading files to Check Point servers).
The CPinfo output file allows analyzing customer setups from a remote location. Check Point support engineers can open the CPinfo file in a demo mode, while
viewing actual customer Security Policies and Objects. This allows the in-depth analysis of customer's configuration and environment settings.
When contacting Check Point Support, collect the cpinfo files from the Security Management server and Security Gateways involved in your case. Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk92739

QUESTION 397
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log
and Extended Log?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Accounting
B. Suppression
C. Accounting/Suppression
D. Accounting/Extended

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131914

QUESTION 398
What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

A. Access Role
B. User Group
C. SmartDirectory Group
D. Group Template

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 399
When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or license stored?

A. Security Gateway
B. Check Point user center
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartConsole installed device

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SmartUpdate installs two repositories on the Security Management server:
License & Contract Repository, which is stored on all platforms in the directory $FWDIR\conf\.
Package Repository, which is stored:
- on Windows machines in C:\SUroot.
- on UNIX machines in /var/suroot.
The Package Repository requires a separate license, in addition to the license for the Security Management server. This license should stipulate the number of
nodes that can be managed in the Package Repository.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/13128.htm#o13527

QUESTION 400
If the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a security policy, what does the firewall send to the client?

A. Nothing
B. TCP FIN
C. TCP RST
D. ICMP unreachable

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 401
Joey is using the computer with IP address 192.168.20.13. He wants to access web page “www.CheckPoint.com”, which is hosted on Web server with IP address
203.0.113.111. How many rules on Check Point Firewall are required for this connection?

A. Two rules – first one for the HTTP traffic and second one for DNS traffic.
B. Only one rule, because Check Point firewall is a Packet Filtering firewall
C. Two rules – one for outgoing request and second one for incoming replay.
D. Only one rule, because Check Point firewall is using Stateful Inspection technology.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 402
Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?

A. TACACS
B. SecurID
C. Check Point password
D. RADIUS

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SecurID
SecurID requires users to both possess a token authenticator and to supply a PIN or password Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/
CP_R77_SecurityGatewayTech_WebAdmin/6721.htm

QUESTION 403
Gaia can be configured using the _______ or ______ .

A. GaiaUI; command line interface


B. WebUI; Gaia Interface
C. Command line interface; WebUI
D. Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Configuring Gaia for the First Time In This
Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in WebUI Running the First Time Configuration Wizard in CLI After you install Gaia for the first time, use the First
Time Configuration Wizard to configure the system and the Check Point products on it.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_Gaia_AdminWebAdminGuide/112568

QUESTION 404
Which of these attributes would be critical for a site-to-site VPN?

A. Scalability to accommodate user groups


B. Centralized management
C. Strong authentication
D. Strong data encryption

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 405
A(n) __________ rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

A. Inline
B. Explicit
C. Implicit accept
D. Implicit drop

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/
NFHf4E9NLQBJlVkHRpc16w2

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 406
What is the default time length that Hit Count Data is kept?

A. 3 month
B. 4 weeks
C. 12 months
D. 1 week

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/General-Topics/What-is-the-default-time-that-HIT-count-data-is-kept-in-R80/td-p/33636

QUESTION 407
When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

A. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.


B. SmartConsole
C. SecureClient
D. Security Gateway

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are different deployment scenarios for Check Point software products.
Standalone Deployment - The Security Management Server and the Security Gateway are installed on the same computer or appliance.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/86429.htm

QUESTION 408
What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

A. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server
C. Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package
D. Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 409
Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

A. Application Control
B. Threat Emulation
C. Logging and Status
D. Monitoring

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DS_Monitoring.pdf

QUESTION 410
A Check Point software license consists of a _______ and _______ .

A. Software container; software package


B. Software blade; software container
C. Software package; signature
D. Signature; software blade

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point's licensing is designed to be scalable and modular. To this end, Check Point offers both predefined packages as well as the ability to custom build a
solution tailored to the needs of the Network Administrator. This is accomplished by the use of the following license components: Software Blades Container
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk11054

QUESTION 411
Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security
Management Server?

A. Save Policy
B. Install Database
C. Save session
D. Install Policy

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 412
RADIUS protocol uses ______ to communicate with the gateway.

A. UDP
B. TDP
C. CCP
D. HTTP

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Parameters:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76SP/CP_R76SP_Security_System_WebAdminGuide/105209.htm

QUESTION 413
Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

A. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities


B. Accept all encrypted traffic
C. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)
D. Specific VPN Communities

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 414
You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Unfortunately, you get the message:
“There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor”.
What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.
B. Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.
C. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.
D. Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 415
While in SmartView Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be an intrusion. He decides to block the traffic for 60 minutes,
but cannot remember all the steps. What is the correct order of steps needed to set up the block?
1) Select Active Mode tab in SmartView Tracker. 2) Select Tools > Block Intruder.
3) Select Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker.
4) Set Blocking Timeout value to 60 minutes.
5) Highlight connection that should be blocked.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. 1, 2, 5, 4
B. 3, 2, 5, 4
C. 1, 5, 2, 4
D. 3, 5, 2, 4

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 416
To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

A. Protections
B. IPS Protections
C. Profiles
D. ThreatWiki

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 417
How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? Choose the BEST answer.

A. By using IPSEC
B. By using SIC
C. By using ICA
D. By using 3DES

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/125443

QUESTION 418
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. In order to see how efficient your firewall Rule Base is, you would like to see how many often the particular rules
match. Where can you see it? Give the BEST answer.

A. In the SmartView Tracker, if you activate the column Matching Rate.


B. In SmartReporter, in the section Firewall Blade – Activity > Network Activity with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.
C. SmartReporter provides this information in the section Firewall Blade – Security > Rule Base Analysis with information concerning Top Matched Logged Rules.
D. It is not possible to see it directly. You can open SmartDashboard and select UserDefined in the Track column.
Afterwards, you need to create your own program with an external counter.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 419
One of major features in R80 SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC
are editing the same Security Policy?

A. A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.
B. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.
C. A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.
D. AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


In SmartConsole, administrators work with sessions. A session is created each time an administrator logs into SmartConsole. Changes made in the session are
saved automatically. These changes are private and available only to the administrator. To avoid configuration conflicts, other administrators see a lock icon on
objects and rules that are being edited in other sessions Reference: http://downloads.checkpoint.com/dc/download.htm?ID=65846

QUESTION 420
SmartConsole is supported by which of the following operating systems:

A. Windows only
B. Gaia only
C. Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows
D. SecurePlatform only

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/t5/General-Management-Topics/R80-x-FAQ/td-p/39994

QUESTION 421
When a Security Gateways sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

A. Distributed
B. Standalone
C. Bridge

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 422
The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her
access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

A. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Create a new access role.
Add tcpdump to the role.
Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.
B. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.
Create a new access role.
Add tcpdump to the role.
Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.
C. Create a new access role.
Add expert-mode access to the role.
Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.
D. Create a new access role.
Add expert-mode access to the role.
Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 423
In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.
B. SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.
C. mgmt_cli or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.
D. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 424
What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. fw ctl stat
B. clusterXL stat
C. clusterXL status
D. cphaprob stat

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 425
Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

A. Distributed
B. Bridge Mode
C. Remote
D. Standalone

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide-webAdmin/86429.htm

QUESTION 426
Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

A. Organizational Unit
B. Country
C. Common Name
D. User container

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Distinguished Name Components
CN=common name, OU=organizational unit, O=organization, L=locality, ST=state or province, C=country name Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/71950

QUESTION 427
In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

A. From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server


B. From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server
C. From an 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance
D. From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 428
When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

A. Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.
B. Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.
C. Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.
D. Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The users and user groups are arranged on the Account Unit in the tree structure of the LDAP server. User management in User Directory is external, not local.
You can change the User Directory templates. Users associated with this template get the changes immediately. You can change user definitions manually in

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


SmartDashboard, and the changes are immediate on the server.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/
CP_R77_SecurityManagement_WebAdminGuide/94041

QUESTION 429
Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

A. Status monitoring
B. Policy configuration
C. Certificate authority
D. Address translation

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: www.checkfirewalls.com/datasheets/smartcenter_datasheet.pdf

QUESTION 430
Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

A. X-chkp-sid
B. Accept-Charset
C. Proxy-Authorization
D. Application

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 431
Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. All of the above options stop Check Point processes
B. backup
C. migrate export
D. snapshot

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk106127

QUESTION 432
What is a role of Publishing?

A. The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public
B. The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways
C. The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways
D. Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/119225

QUESTION 433
A _______ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it was a physical interface.

A. VPN Tunnel Interface


B. VPN community
C. VPN router
D. VPN interface

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Route Based VPN
VPN traffic is routed according to the routing settings (static or dynamic) of the Security Gateway operating system. The Security Gateway uses a VTI (VPN
Tunnel Interface) to send the VPN traffic as if it was a physical interface. The VTIs of Security Gateways in a VPN community connect and can support dynamic
routing protocols. Reference: http://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/13868.htm

QUESTION 434
Which rule is responsible for the user authentication failure?

A. Rule 4
B. Rule 6
C. Rule 3
D. Rule 5

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 435
An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since
the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

A. AD Query
B. Browser-Based Authentication
C. Identity Agents
D. Terminal Servers Agent

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62007.htm

QUESTION 436
How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

A. 2
B. 7
C. 6
D. 4

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 437
You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is
connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

A. Open SmartMonitor and connect remotely to the wireless controller

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked
C. Open SmartDistributor and review the logs tab
D. From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 438
In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:

A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.
B. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins
D. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
IP spoofing replaces the untrusted source IP address with a fake, trusted one, to hijack connections to your network.
Attackers use IP spoofing to send malware and bots to your protected network, to execute DoS attacks, or to gain unauthorized access.
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/74/74d596decb6071a4ee642fbdaae7238f/CP_R80_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide.pdf?H
ashKey=1479584563_6f823c8ea1514609148aa4fec5425db2&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 439
A client has created a new Gateway object that will be managed at a remote location. When the client attempts to install the Security Policy to the new Gateway
object, the object does not appear in the Install On check box. What should you look for?

A. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) not configured for the object.


B. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway option from the Network Objects dialog box.
C. Anti-spoofing not configured on the interfaces on the Gateway object.
D. A Gateway object created using the Check Point > Secure Gateway option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the
Security Gateway object.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 440
Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

A. UDP port 265


B. TCP port 265
C. UDP port 256
D. TCP port 256

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 441
Administrator Kofi has just made some changes on his Management Server and then clicks on the Publish button in SmartConsole but then gets the error
message shown in the screenshot below. Where can the administrator check for more information on these errors?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. The Log and Monitor section in SmartConsole
B. The Validations section in SmartConsole
C. The Objects section in SmartConsole
D. The Policies section in SmartConsole

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation Errors
The validations pane in SmartConsole shows configuration error messages. Examples of errors are object names that are not unique, and the use of objects that
are not valid in the Rule Base.
To publish, you must fix the errors.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 442
Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

A. UserCheck
B. Active Directory Query
C. Account Unit Query
D. User Directory Query

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
AD Query extracts user and computer identity information from the Active Directory Security Event Logs. The system generates a Security Event log entry when a
user or computer accesses a network resource. For example, this occurs when a user logs in, unlocks a screen, or accesses a network drive. Reference :
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/62402.htm

QUESTION 443
Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site. What happens when theuser tries to FTP to another site using
the command line? The:

A. user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateways again.


B. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.
C. user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication
D. FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 444
The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties
B. True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration
C. True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server
D. False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 445
Your users are defined in a Windows 2008 R2 Active Directory server. You must add LDAP users to a Client Authentication rule. Which kind of user group do you
need in the Client Authentication rule in R77?

A. External-user group
B. LDAP group
C. A group with a genetic user
D. All Users

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 446
What is the potential downside or drawback to choosing the Standalone deployment option instead of the Distributed deployment option?

A. degrades performance as the Security Policy grows in size


B. requires additional Check Point appliances
C. requires additional software subscription
D. increases cost

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 447
When using GAiA, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56.
After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?

A. As expert user, issue these commands:


# IP link set eth0 down
# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56
# IP link set eth0 up
B. Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field (conf :(conns :(conn :hwaddr (“00:0C:29:12:34:56”)
C. As expert user, issue the command:
# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56
D. Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 448
How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?

A. An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.


B. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.
C. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.
D. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 449
According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a non-managed Check Point Gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A
(n):

A. Gateway
B. Interoperable Device
C. Externally managed gateway
D. Network Node

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 450
When using LDAP as an authentication method for Identity Awareness, the query:

A. Requires client and server side software.


B. Prompts the user to enter credentials.
C. Requires administrators to specifically allow LDAP traffic to and from the LDAP Server and the Security Gateway.
D. Is transparent, requiring no client or server side software, or client intervention.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 451
Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

A. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)


B. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)
C. Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/66477.htm

QUESTION 452
R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

A. Versions R77 and higher


B. Versions R76 and higher
C. Versions R75.20 and higher
D. Version R75 and higher

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk113113

QUESTION 453
When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

A. When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta


B. When an interface fails the delta claims the priority
C. When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority
D. When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/87911.htm

QUESTION 454
View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

A. Those rules have been published in the current session.


B. Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.
C. Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.
D. The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 455
Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

A. Add rba user roles


B. Add rba user
C. Add user roles
D. Add user

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Configuring Roles - CLI (rba)
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73101.htm

QUESTION 456
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?

A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.


B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig on the gateway and type a new activation key.
C. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.
D. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 457
Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

A. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.


B. Sent to the Security Administrator.
C. Stored on the Security Management Server.
D. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 458
Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Security Gateway
B. Host
C. Security Management object
D. Network

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 459
What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

A. This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender
B. This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient
C. This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).
D. Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which
makes this solution very fast

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 460
Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A. Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations


B. All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot
C. Is configured using cpconfig
D. Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Correct Answer: A

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 461
When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, Tunnel and User Monitoring displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

A. Down
B. No Response
C. Inactive
D. Failed

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R77/CP_R77_VPN_AdminGuide/14018

QUESTION 462
Each cluster has __________ interfaces.

A. Five
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each cluster member has three interfaces: one external interface, one internal interface, and one for synchronization. Cluster member interfaces facing in each
direction are connected via a switch, router, or VLAN switch.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7292.htm

QUESTION 463
Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

A. New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install


B. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results
C. SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway
D. The amount of logs being stored is less than the usual in older versions

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 464
Katie has been asked to do a backup on the Blue Security Gateway. Which command would accomplish this in the Gaia CLI?

A. Blue > add local backup


B. Expert&Blue#add local backing
C. Blue > set backup local
D. Blue > add backup local

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 465
Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

A. Log
B. Full Log
C. Detailed Log

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Extended Log

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 466
When should you generate new licenses?

A. Before installing contract files.


B. After a device upgrade.
C. When the existing license expires, the license is upgraded, or the IP address associated with the license changes.
D. Only when the license is upgraded.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 467
Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

A. R80 Management APIB.


Identity Awareness Web Services API
B. Open REST API
C. OPSEC SDK

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/29/29532b9eec50d0a947719ae631f640d0/CP_R80_CheckPoint_API_ReferenceGuide.pdf?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


HashKey=1517091458_be29bd4732d8d22283df32ccaaffc482&xtn=.pdf

QUESTION 468
What does the “unknown” SIC status shown on SmartConsole mean?

A. The SMS can contact the Security Gateway but cannot establish Secure Internal Communication.
B. SIC activation key requires a reset.
C. The SIC activation key is not known by any administrator.
D. There is no connection between the Security Gateway and SMS.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most typical status is Communicating. Any other status indicates that the SIC communication is problematic. For example, if the SIC status is Unknown then
there is no connection between the Gateway and the Security Management server. If the SIC status is Not Communicating, the Security Management server is
able to contact the gateway, but SIC communication cannot be established.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/118037

QUESTION 469
What does ExternalZone represent in the presented rule?

A. The Internet.
B. Interfaces that administrator has defined to be part of External Security Zone.
C. External interfaces on all security gateways.
D. External interfaces of specific gateways.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Configuring Interfaces
Configure the Security Gateway 80 interfaces in the Interfaces tab in the Security Gateway window.
To configure the interfaces:
1. From the Devices window, double-click the Security Gateway 80.
The Security Gateway window opens.
2. Select the Interfaces tab.
3. Select Use the following settings. The interface settings open.
4. Select the interface and click Edit.
The Edit window opens.
5. From the IP Assignment section, configure the IP address of the interface:
1. Select Static IP.
2. Enter the IP address and subnet mask for the interface.
6. In Security Zone, select Wireless, DMS, External, or Internal. Security zone is a type of zone, created by a bridge to easily create segments, while maintaining
IP addresses and router configurations. Security zones let you choose if to enable or not the firewall between segments.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SmartProvisioning_WebAdmin/16741.htm

QUESTION 470
Kofi, the administrator of the ALPHA Corp network wishes to change the default Gaia WebUI Portal port number currently set on the default HTTPS port. Which
CLISH commands are required to be able to change this TCP port?

A. set web ssl-port


Connect to command line on Security Gateway / each Cluster member.
B. set Gaia-portal port

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Log in to Clish.
C. set Gaia-portal https-port
Set the desired port (e.g., port 4434):HostName> set web ssl-port
D. set web https-port
Save the changes:
HostName> save config
E. Verify that the configuration was saved:
[Expert@HostName]# grep 'httpd:ssl_port' /config/db/initial
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk83482

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In Clish
A. Connect to command line on Security Gateway / each Cluster member.
B. Log in to Clish.
C. Set the desired port (e.g., port 4434):HostName> set web ssl-port
D. Save the changes:
HostName> save config
E. Verify that the configuration was saved:
[Expert@HostName]# grep 'httpd:ssl_port' /config/db/initial
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk83482

QUESTION 471
In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

A. SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections


B. SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets
C. SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances
D. SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm

QUESTION 472
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

A. Manage & Settings


B. Security Policies
C. Gateway & Servers
D. Logs & Monitor

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 473
Examine the sample Rule Base.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

A. No errors or Warnings
B. Verification Error: Empty Source-List and Service-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. Verification Error: Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)
D. Verification Error: Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 474
Your company enforces a strict change control policy. Which of the following would be MOST effective for quickly dropping an attacker's specific active
connection?

A. Change the Rule Base and install the Policy to all Security Gateways
B. Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker
C. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Policy install
D. SAM – Suspicious Activity Rules feature of SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 475
It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

A. Explicit Drop
B. Implied Drop
C. Explicit CleanUp
D. Implicit Drop

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/
NFHf4E9NLQBJlVkHRpc16w2

QUESTION 476
What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?

A. Conflict on action, conflict on exception, and conflict on settings


B. Conflict on scope, conflict on settings, and conflict on exception
C. Conflict on settings, conflict on address, and conflict on exception
D. Conflict on action, conflict on destination, and conflict on settings

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 477
Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?

A. Check Point Password


B. TACACS
C. LDAP
D. Windows password

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 478
What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

A. It provides remote access to SmartConsole

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. It manages user permission in SmartConsole
C. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources
D. It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Captive Portal – a simple method that authenticates users through a web interface before granting them access to Intranet resources. When users try to access a
protected resource, they get a web page that must be filled out to continue.
Reference : https://www.checkpoint.com/products/identity-awareness-software-blade/

QUESTION 479
Harriet wants to protect sensitive information from intentional loss when users browse to a specific URL:
https://personal.mymail.com, which blade will she enable to achieve her goal?

A. DLP
B. SSL Inspection
C. Application Control
D. URL Filtering

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point revolutionizes DLP by combining technology and processes to move businesses from passive detection to active Data Loss Prevention. Innovative
MultiSpect™ data classification combines user, content and process information to make accurate decisions, while UserCheck™ technology empowers users to
remediate incidents in real time. Check Point’s self-educating network-based DLP solution frees IT/security personnel from incident handling and educates users
on proper data handling policies – protecting sensitive corporate information from both intentional and unintentional loss.
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/product-related/datasheets/DLP-software-blade-datasheet.pdf

QUESTION 480
Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

A. fw conn all

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


B. fw ctl pst pstat
C. show all connections
D. show connections

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk103496

QUESTION 481
You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A. restore_backup
B. import backup
C. cp_merge
D. migrate import

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk54100#1.1.
1

QUESTION 482
Which of the following firewall modes DOES NOT allow for Identity Awareness to be deployed?

A. Bridge
B. Load Sharing
C. High Availability
D. Fail Open

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 483
Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.
B. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.
C. Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server
dependency.
D. Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server’s Mgmtinterface and has no dependency on the
gateway.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Central License
A Central License is a license attached to the Security Management server IP address, rather than the gateway IP address.
The benefits of a Central License are: Only one IP address is needed for all licenses.
A license can be taken from one gateway and given to another.
The new license remains valid when changing the gateway IP address. There is no need to create and install a new license.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_GuidewebAdmin/13128.htm#o13527

QUESTION 484
CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.
The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level?

A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.


B. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.
C. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.
D. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 485
The R80 feature ________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Block Port Overflow
B. Local Interface Spoofing
C. Suspicious Activity Monitoring
D. Adaptive Threat Prevention

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Suspicious Activity Rules Solution
Suspicious Activity Rules is a utility integrated into SmartView Monitor that is used to modify access privileges upon detection of any suspicious network activity
(for example, several attempts to gain unauthorized access).
The detection of suspicious activity is based on the creation of Suspicious Activity rules. Suspicious Activity rules are Firewall rules that enable the system
administrator to instantly block suspicious connections that are not restricted by the currently enforced security policy. These rules, once set (usually with an
expiration date), can be applied immediately without the need to perform an Install Policy operation Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/
CP_R76_SmartViewMonitor_AdminGuide/17670.htm

QUESTION 486
Which policy type has its own Exceptions section?

A. Thread Prevention
B. Access Control
C. Threat Emulation
D. Desktop Security

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Exceptions Groups pane lets you define exception groups. When necessary, you can create exception groups to use in the Rule Base. An exception group
contains one or more defined exceptions. This option facilitates ease-of-use so you do not have to manually define exceptions in multiple rules for commonly
required exceptions. You can choose to which rules you want to add exception groups. This means they can be added to some rules and not to others, depending
on necessity.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ThreatPrevention_WebAdmin/82209.htm#o97030

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 487
As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorized time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this?
Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

A. in the user object's Authentication screen.


B. in the Gateway object's Authentication screen.
C. in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.
D. in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 488
Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?

A. Users
B. Networks
C. Time
D. Machines

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92705.htm

QUESTION 489
Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

A. mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format txt


B. mgmt_cli add host name “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format json
C. mgmt_cli add object-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format json

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. mgmt_cli add object “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format json

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/latest/APIs/index.html#cli/add-host~v1.1

QUESTION 490
After the initial installation the First Time Configuration Wizard should be run.

A. First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the Unified SmartConsole.
B. First Time Configuration Wizard can be run from the command line or from the WebUI.
C. First time Configuration Wizard can only be run from the WebUI.
D. Connection to the internet is required before running the First Time Configuration wizard.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Check Point Security Gateway and Check Point Security Management require running the First Time Configuration Wizard in order to be configured correctly. The
First Time Configuration Wizard is available in Gaia Portal and also through CLI.
To invoke the First Time Configuration Wizard through CLI, run the config_system command from the Expert shell.
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk111119

QUESTION 491
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

A. Symmetric routing
B. Failovers
C. Asymmetric routing
D. Anti-Spoofing

Correct Answer: B

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 492
Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

A. To satellites through center only


B. To center only
C. To center and to other satellites through center
D. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the VPN Routing page, enable the VPN routing for satellites section, by selecting one of these options:
To center and to other Satellites through center; this allows connectivity between Gateways; for example, if the spoke Gateways are DAIP Gateways, and the hub
is a Gateway with a static IP address To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets; this allows connectivity between the
Gateways, as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the hub to the Internet.
Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk31021

QUESTION 493
Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

A. backup
B. snapshot
C. Database Revision
D. migrate export

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://solvingcenter.wordpress.com/2016/07/07/checkpoint-backup-and-snapshot/

QUESTION 494
Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Choose three.)

A. Partial log
B. Log
C. Network log
D. Full log

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/
R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGuide/131914

QUESTION 495
Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

A. Perpetual and Trial


B. Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation
C. Subscription and Perpetual
D. Evaluation and Subscription

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Should be Trial or Evaluation, even Plug-and-play (all are synonyms ). Answer B is the best choice.

QUESTION 496

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

A. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.
B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
C. Create network objects that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
D. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 497
In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

A. Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.


B. Verify and compile Security Policies.
C. Processing and sending alerts such as SNMP traps and email notifications.
D. Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 498
Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

A. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)


B. Accept all encrypted traffic
C. Specific VPN Communities
D. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Correct Answer: B

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The first rule is the automatic rule for the Accept All Encrypted Traffic feature. The Firewalls for the Security Gateways in the BranchOffices and LondonOffices
VPN communities allow all VPN traffic from hosts in clients in these communities. Traffic to the Security Gateways is dropped. This rule is installed on all Security
Gateways in these communities.
2. Site to site VPN - Connections between hosts in the VPN domains of all Site to Site VPN communities are allowed. These are the only protocols that are
allowed: FTP, HTTP, HTTPS and SMTP.
3. Remote access - Connections between hosts in the VPN domains of RemoteAccess VPN community are allowed. These are the only protocols that are
allowed: HTTP, HTTPS, and IMAP.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92709.htm

QUESTION 499
Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPSEC Security Associations (SA)?

A. vpn tu
B. vpn ipsec remove -l
C. vpn debug ipsec
D. fw ipsec tu

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: vpn tu Description Launch the TunnelUtil tool which is used to control VPN tunnels.
Usage vpn tu vpn tunnelutil
Example vpn tu
Output

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_CLI_WebAdmin/12467.htm#o12627

QUESTION 500
Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An email with Security_report.pdf file was
delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing
some graphs, tables and links. Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

A. SandBlast Threat Emulation


B. SandBlast Agent
C. Check Point Protect
D. SandBlast Threat Extraction

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 501
What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

A. Application Control, DLP


B. Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.
C. ACL, SandBlast, MPT
D. IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 502
The ________ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

A. Global Policies
B. Shared policies
C. Concurrent policy packages
D. Concurrent policies

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 503
You are the senior Firewall administrator for Alpha Corp, and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced management
platform. You are presenting an in-house overview of the new features of Check Point Management to the other administrators in Alpha Corp.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


How will you describe the new “Publish” button in Management Console?

A. The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud, and then saves it
to the database.
B. The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud but does not
save it to the database.
C. The Publish button saves any changes an administrator has made in their management session. After saving to the database, any changes are now visible to
all other administrator sessions.
D. The Publish button saves any changes an administrator has made in their management session. After saving to the database, any changes are now visible to
any new Unified Policy sessions.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To make your changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, you must publish the session. When you publish a
session, a new database version is created.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197

QUESTION 504
Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is
enable which path is handling the traffic?

A. Slow Path
B. Medium Path

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. Fast Path
D. Accelerated Path

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 505
A High Availability deployment is referred to as a ______ cluster and a Load Sharing deployment is referred to as a ________ cluster.

A. Standby/standby; active/active
B. Active/active; standby/standby
C. Active/active; active/standby
D. Active/standby; active/active

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In a High Availability cluster, only one member is active (Active/Standby operation).
ClusterXL Load Sharing distributes traffic within a cluster so that the total throughput of multiple members is increased. In Load Sharing configurations, all
functioning members in the cluster are active, and handle network traffic (Active/Active operation).
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R77/CP_R77_ClusterXL_WebAdminGuide/7292.htm

QUESTION 506
An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway
managed by the same Security Management Server. While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator found that the
check box to enable pre-shared secret is shared and cannot be enabled. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

A. IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.


B. Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security Gateway.
C. Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS.
D. The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 507
What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

A. inform, ask, and block


B. block, action, and warn
C. action, inform, and ask
D. ask, block, and notify

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_DataLossPrevention_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/
R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_DataLossPrevention_AdminGuide/94711

QUESTION 508
The organization's security manager wishes to back up just the Gaia operating system parameters such as interface details, Static routes and Proxy ARP entries.
Which command would be BEST suited to accomplish this task?

A. save configuration
B. backup
C. migrate export
D. upgrade export

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation:
System Backup (and System Restore)
System Backup can be used to backup current system configuration. A backup creates a compressed file that contains the Check Point configuration including the
networking and operating system parameters, such as routing and interface configuration etc., but unlike a snapshot, it does not include the operating system,
product binaries, and hotfixes. Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk108902

QUESTION 509
Choose the correct statement regarding Implicit Rules.

A. To edit the Implicit rules you go to: Launch Button > Policy > Global Properties > Firewall.
B. Implied rules are fixed rules that you cannot change.
C. You can directly edit the Implicit rules by double-clicking on a specific Implicit rule.
D. You can edit the Implicit rules but only if requested by Check Point support personnel.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 510
The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

A. NAT
B. Firewall
C. Global Properties
D. Object Explorer

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92703.htm

QUESTION 511

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


The SIC Status “Unknown” means

A. There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.
B. The secure communication is established.
C. There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.
D. The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SIC Status
After the gateway receives the certificate issued by the ICA, the SIC status shows if the Security Management Server can communicate securely with this
gateway: Communicating - The secure communication is established.
Unknown - There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.
Not Communicating - The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SIC. A message shows more information.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/125443

QUESTION 512
The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and
checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

A. There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated


B. The connection required a Security server
C. Acceleration is not enabled
D. The traffic is originating from the gateway itself

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 513
According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a 3rd party gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. Interoperable Device
B. Network Node
C. Externally managed gateway
D. Gateway

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 514
In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

A. SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless
B. SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not
C. IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this
D. IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter, SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 515
What are the three tabs available in SmartView Tracker?

A. Network & Endpoint, Management, and Active


B. Network, Endpoint, and Active
C. Predefined, All Records, Custom Queries
D. Endpoint, Active, and Custom Queries

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 516
Where can you trigger a failover of the cluster members?
1. Log in to Security Gateway CLI and run command clusterXL_admin down.
2. In SmartView Monitor right-click the Security Gateway member and select Cluster member stop.
3. Log into Security Gateway CLI and run command cphaprob down.

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
How to Initiate Failover

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

QUESTION 517
Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

A. Full
B. Light
C. Custom
D. Complete

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Endpoint Identity Agents – dedicated client agents installed on users’ computers that acquire and report identities to the Security Gateway.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 518
What are the three authentication methods for SIC?

A. Passwords, Users, and standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels
B. Certificates, standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
C. Packet Filtering, certificates, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
D. Certificates, Passwords, and Tokens

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Secure Internal Communication (SIC)
Secure Internal Communication (SIC) lets Check Point platforms and products authenticate with each other. The SIC procedure creates a trusted status between
gateways, management servers and other Check Point components. SIC is required to install polices on gateways and to send logs between gateways and
management servers. These security measures make sure of the safety of SIC:
Certificates for authentication
Standards-based SSL for the creation of the secure channel
3DES for encryption
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R76/CP_R76_SecMan_WebAdmin/71950

QUESTION 519
You are conducting a security audit. While reviewing configuration files and logs, you notice logs accepting POP3 traffic, but you do not see a rule allowing POP3
traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The POP3 rule is disabled.


B. POP3 is accepted in Global Properties.
C. The POP3 rule is hidden.
D. POP3 is one of 3 services (POP3, IMAP, and SMTP) accepted by the default mail object in R77.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


QUESTION 520
What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R77?

A. upgrade_export
B. fw stat -1
C. cpinfo
D. remote_uninstall_verifier

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 521
To optimize Rule Base efficiency the most hit rules should be where?

A. Removed from the Rule Base.


B. Towards the middle of the Rule Base.
C. Towards the top of the Rule Base.
D. Towards the bottom of the Rule Base.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is logical that if lesser rules are checked for the matched rule to be found the lesser CPU cycles the device is using.
Checkpoint match a session from the first rule on top till the last on the bottom.

QUESTION 522
Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packer acceleration?

A. Source address
B. Protocol
C. Destination port

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


D. Application Awareness

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92711.htm

QUESTION 523
You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credentials. What must
happen after authentication that allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway's VPN domain?

A. SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway.
B. An office mode address must be obtained by the client.
C. The SNX client application must be installed on the client.
D. Active-X must be allowed on the client.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 524
Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW.
She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment. Which
details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

A. Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member


B. Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members
C. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members
D. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 525
Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

A. Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled


B. It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually
C. It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table
D. With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing change

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 526
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
B. CloudGuard
C. Distributed
D. Bridge Mode

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 527
What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_“cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

A. H
B. Esc

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


C. C
D. Space bar

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/
R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/204685

QUESTION 528
Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

A. System backup
B. Save Configuration
C. Migrate
D. snapshot

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 529
Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

A. AD Query
B. Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent
C. Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication
D. RADIUS and Account Logon

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Endpoint Identity Agents and Browser-Based Authentication - When a high level of security is necessary. The Captive Portal is used for distributing the Endpoint
Identity Agent. IP Spoofing protection can be set to prevent packets from being IP spoofed. Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/101858

QUESTION 530
All R77 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one. Which of the Security Servers can NOT perform authentication?

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. RLOGIN

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 531
Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

A. Gateway and Servers


B. Logs and Monitor
C. Manage and Settings
D. Security Policies

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 532

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Which of the following is NOT a back up method?

A. Save backup
B. System backup
C. snapshot
D. Migrate

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The built-in Gaia backup procedures:
Snapshot Management
System Backup (and System Restore)
Save/Show Configuration (and Load Configuration)
Check Point provides three different procedures for backing up (and restoring) the operating system and networking parameters on your appliances. Snapshot
(Revert) Backup (Restore) upgrade_export (Migrate) Reference:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk108902
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk54100

QUESTION 533
To create a policy for traffic to or from a specific geographical location, use the _____________.

A. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) shared policy


B. Geo policy shared policy
C. Mobile Access software blade
D. HTTPS Inspection

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Shared Policies
The Shared Policies section in the Security Policies shows the policies that are not in a Policy package. They are shared between all Policy packages. Shared
policies are installed with the Access Control Policy.

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


Software Blade
Description
Mobile Access
Launch Mobile Access policy in a SmartConsole. Configure how your remote users access internal resources, such as their email accounts, when they are mobile.
DLP
Launch Data Loss Prevention policy in a SmartConsole. Configure advanced tools to automatically identify data that must not go outside the network, to block the
leak, and to educate users.
Geo Policy
Create a policy for traffic to or from specific geographical or political locations.
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.10/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_NexGenSecurityGateway_Guide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.10/
WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.10_NexGenSecurityGateway_Guide/137006

QUESTION 534
John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection
and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.
John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but
that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his desktop with a
static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.3) Changes
from static IP address to DHCP for the client PC.
What should John request when he cannot access the web server from his laptop?

A. John should lock and unlock his computer


B. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue
C. The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC
D. John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 535
Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he
does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io


A. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.
B. One machine
C. Two machines
D. Three machines

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One for Security Management Server and the other one for the Security Gateway.

QUESTION 536
Using the SmartConsole, which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without
modifying them?

A. Editor
B. Read Only All
C. Super User
D. Full Access

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To create a new permission profile:
1. In SmartConsole, go to Manage & Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Permission Profiles.
2. Click New Profile.
The New Profile window opens.
3. Enter a unique name for the profile.
4. Select a profile type:
Read/Write All - Administrators can make changes
Auditor (Read Only All) - Administrators can see information but cannot make changes Customized - Configure custom settings 5. Click OK.
Reference:

Free Questions & Answers - Online Courses - VCEplus.com - VCEplus.io

You might also like

pFad - Phonifier reborn

Pfad - The Proxy pFad of © 2024 Garber Painting. All rights reserved.

Note: This service is not intended for secure transactions such as banking, social media, email, or purchasing. Use at your own risk. We assume no liability whatsoever for broken pages.


Alternative Proxies:

Alternative Proxy

pFad Proxy

pFad v3 Proxy

pFad v4 Proxy