MODULE 9

1.A nurse with a latex allergy needs to perform a sterile procedure and finds that the
only sterile gloves available are latex. Which action by the nurse would be most
effective in solving the problem?
A. Rubbing petroleum jelly on the hands to provide a barrier between the hands and the gloves

B. Putting a pair of synthetic gloves on before donning the latex sterile gloves

C. Using a larger pair of sterile gloves so they’re not as tight

D. Rinsing the hands with cold water before putting on the sterile gloves

2. When opening a sterile pack, which action compromises the sterility of the contents?
A. Keeping the contents of the pack away from the table edge

B. Holding or moving the object below the waist

C. Opening the pack just before the procedure

D.Allowing movement around the sterile field that does not touch near the sterile field

3. A nurse is preparing to change a dressing using sterile gloves. It is most important to

remember which concept when putting them on?

A. Grab only the inside of the glove with the ungloved hand.
B. Grab only the cuffs of the gloves with the bare hand.
C. Wear a glove that is as tight as possible.
D. Keep the glove fingertips parallel to the body.

4. A teenager with spina bifida is to have a urinary catheter inserted. Which action is
most important before performing this procedure?

A. Washing the insertion area with soap and water before insertion of the catheter

B. Positioning the patient as comfortably as possible

 C. Asking the patient if he or she is allergic to eggs

D. Obtaining a nonlatex catheter for the procedure

5. A nurse is supervising a nursing student setting up for a sterile dressing change.

Which

action by the nursing student would require intervention from the nurse?

A. The first flap of the sterile package is opened away from the student’s body.
B. The glove for the dominant hand is pulled on first.
C. When pouring a solution on to the sterile field, the label of the solution bottle is facing the
floor.
D. The bottle of solution is kept above the student’s waist.

6. Sterilization of surgical instruments and surgical dressings is accomplished by using:

A. An autoclave.
B. Soap and water.
C. Ethylene oxide gas.
D. Chemicals such as alcohol.

7. A nurse has a cold and needs to change a dressing on a patient who is

immunocompromised. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?

A. Asking another nurse to change the dressing

B. Wearing a gown and mask when changing the dressing

C. Performing hand hygiene for a longer time before putting on sterile gloves

D. Asking the patient if it’s all right with him if he changes the dressing

8. In setting up a sterile field, which of the listed actions would require intervention?
 A. The bottle of solution is poured with the label facing up.

B. The sterile drape is allowed to unfold above the waist.

C. The first flap of the sterile package is opened toward the nurse.

D. The glove for the dominant hand is pulled on first.

9. When performing a sterile procedure at the bedside, the Nursing Assistant can help
by assisting the nurse to ______________ the patient.
A. Mechanics

B. Position

C. Application

D. Intervention

10.Place an S next to the procedures requiring sterile (aseptic) technique. (Select all
that apply.)
A. Urinary catheterization

B. Insertion of a feeding tube

C. Tracheal suctioning

D. Lumbar puncture

E. Insertion of a rectal suppository

F. Sitz bath

MODULE 11

1. What is included in the preparation for an assessment of the female genitalia?*

A.Having the patient empty the bladder

B. Explaining the exam thoroughly if it is the patient’s first exam

C. Laying the head of the table flat

D. Both A and B

2. When should gloves be changed or discarded?

A. After touching the genital skin

B. After completing the internal vaginal exam
C. After completing the rectal exam
D. All of the above

3. Which description is consistent with normal vaginal secretions?

A. Clear, thick, and with a fishy odor

B. Clear or cloudy, and odorless or with a slight odor
C. Yellow, thin, and with a strong odor
D. Green, thick, and with a foul odor

4. The following are true regarding Vaginal examination, EXCEPT:

A. Inspection of the cervix and vaginal walls

B. Palpation of the vagina and vaginal cervix by digital examination
C. Bimanual examination of the pelvic organs
D. Rectal examination

5. Screening for endometrial cancer consists of reinforcing the need to report:

A. Bloody stools
B. Painful bowel movements
C. Unexpected vaginal bleeding or spotting
D. Green or yellow vaginal discharge

6. The nurse is delegating to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) the perineal care of a
female patient

who is totally dependent and confined to bed. Which statement by the NAP requires
the nurse's follow-up?

a. "I'll ask for assistance if I need help positioning her."

b. "I'll see if she's up to the care right now."
c. "I'll let you know if I notice any signs of redness or discharge."
d. "I'll be sure to use hot, soapy water, since she has been incontinent."

7. The nurse is preparing to provide perineal care for a female patient who is on bed
rest. Which patient position should the nurse use for this care?

a. Supine
b. Prone
c. Side-lying
d. Dorsal recumbent

8. As the nurse is preparing to provide perineal care to a female patient with limited
mobility, the patient says, "I can do that myself." Which action would be the priority?

a. Provide all the necessary supplies and linen for this task.
b. Assess the patient's ability to perform proper perineal care.
c. Ensure that the patient has privacy while performing perineal care.
d. Document any complaints of irritation or pain in the perineal area.
9. How can the nurse promote infection control while providing perineal care for a
female patient who has a catheter?

a. By avoiding the application of tension on the catheter

b. By patting, not rubbing, the skin dry after thoroughly rinsing it
c. By cleansing the patient's labia from the pubic area toward the rectum
d. By using warm water to cleanse the patient's entire perineal area

10. The nurse is delegating a female patient's perineal care to nursing assistive
personnel (NAP).Which instruction would the nurse give to ensure the NAP's safety
while performing this care?

a. Wear sterile gloves.

b. Wear clean gloves.
c. Wear an isolation gown.
d. Use hot water.

MODULE 12

1. Which of the following interventions of the nurse is considered priority in dealing

with sexuality problems and issues of the clients?*

A. Identifying the personal life experiences and feelings towards the client.
B. Becoming sensitive to the client’s feelings.
C. Focusing on the client’s emotional contents.
D. Portraying concern and sympathy with the client.

2. The Papanicolaou Test can detect the following, EXCEPT:

A. Pre-cancerous cell changes

B. The presence of HPV
C. The presence of genital warts
D. The presence of cancer

3. Sonia has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read
her chart while

the nurse was out of the room, Katrina asks what dysplasia means. Which definition
should the nurse provide?

A. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues
of their origin.

B. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ.

C. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second
type normally

isn’t found.

D. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.

4. A 25-year-old patient is inquiring about the methods or ways to detect cancer

earlier. The nurse least likely identify this method by stating:

A. Annual chest x-ray.

B. Annual Pap smear for sexually active women only.
C. Annual digital rectal examination for persons over age 40.
D. Yearly physical and blood examination

5. The nurse is counseling a mother who wants her teenage daughter to have a Pap
smear and pelvic examination. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
A. “If your daughter is over 18, she needs a pelvic examination and Pap smear.”
B. “A teenager does not need this examination unless she is sexually active.”
C. “Teach her to have her first examination by the age of 21 at the latest.”
D. “It is not needed unless you are worried about sexually transmitted diseases.”

6. When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that
the common interpretation is:

A. malignant
B. normal
C. probably normal
D. suspicious

7. When scheduling an annual pelvic examination and Pap test, the client asks if she
should abstain from intercourse before the test. Which is the nurse’s best response?
A. “Yes. Avoid having intercourse for 24 hours before the test.”

B. “Yes. Avoid having intercourse for 2 hours before the test.”

C. “No. Intercourse does not interfere with this test.”

D. “No. Intercourse can actually enhance the test results.”

8. The nurse is teaching high school girls about the female reproductive tract. Which
statements by the nurse are accurate, EXCEPT

A. The vagina has an acidic environment.

B. The cervix is where the Pap smear is taken from.
C. The ovum is fertilized in the uterus.
D. Ovaries produce sex steroid hormones.
E. The breasts contain fat tissue.
9. A client is in the clinic for an annual examination and questions the need for a pelvic
examination and Pap smear because she had a hysterectomy many years ago. Which
response by the nurse is most appropriate?
“
A.Do you still have your cervix?”

B.“Are you sexually active?”

C.“We can skip it if you like.”

D.“Let’s see what the doctor says.”

10. A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital
warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a
Papanicolaou (Pap smear annually

B. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem
within 7 to 10 days.

C. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used
every time they have sexual intercourse.

D. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be

transmitted during oral sex.

MODULE 13

1. A nurse teaches a woman who wishes to become pregnant that if she assesses for
spinnbarkeit she will be able to closely predict her time of ovulation. Which technique
should the client be taught to assess for spinnbarkeit?

A. Take her temperature each morning before rising.

B. Carefully feel her breasts for glandular development.

C. Monitor her nipples for signs of tingling and sensitivity.

D. Assess her vaginal discharge for elasticity and slipperiness.

2. In analyzing the need for teaching regarding sexual health in a client who is sexually
active, which of the following questions is the most important for a nurse to ask?

A. “How old are your children?”

B. “Did you have intercourse last evening?”

C. “With whom do you have intercourse?”

D. “Do you use vaginal lubricant?”

3. A client’s basal body temperature (BBT) chart for one full month is shown below.
Based on the temperatures shown, what can the nurse conclude?

A. It is likely that she has not ovulated.

B. The client’s fertile period is between 12 and 18 days.

C. The client’s period is abnormally long.

D. It is likely that her progesterone levels rose on day 15.

4. A nurse is educating a client who has been diagnosed with infertility on how to
complete a basal body temperature chart to determine her ovulation pattern. The client
states, “I really don’t want to take my temperature every day. Is there any other way to
find out if and when I ovulate?”

A. “There are a number of other ways to determine ovulation, but they all require you to be
examined by an obstetrician every month.
B. “A test you can do at home requires you to spit on a microscopic slide and then look at the
slide under a microscope.
C. “You can test your vaginal discharge each day to determine when you should have
intercourse because the hormone progesterone is elevated.
D. “Although there are some tests that you can perform at home, they all cost well over a
hundred dollars to purchase

5. A couple seeking contraception and infection-prevention counseling state, “We

know that the best way for us to prevent both pregnancy and infection is to use
condoms plus spermicide every time we have sex.” Which of the following is the best
response by the nurse?

A. “That is correct. It is best to use a condom with spermicide during every sexual contact.”
B. “That is true, except if you have intercourse twice in one evening. Then you do not have to
apply more spermicide.

C. “That is not true. It has been shown that condoms alone are very effective and that
spermicide can increase the transmission of some viruses.”

D. “That is not necessarily true. Spermicide has been shown to cause cancer in men and
women who use it fequently.

6. The nurse is teaching an uncircumcised male to use a condom. Which of the

following information should be included in the teaching plan?
A. Apply mineral oil to the tip and shaft of the condom-covered penis.
B. Pull back the foreskin before applying the condom.
C. Create a reservoir at the tip of the condom after putting it on.
D. Wait five minutes after ejaculating before removing the condom

7. The nurse is teaching a young woman how to use the female condom. Which of the
following should be included in the teaching plan?

A. Reuse female condoms no more than five times.

B. Refrain from using lubricant because the condom may slip out of the vagina.

C. Wear both female and male condoms together to maximize effectiveness.

D. Remove the condom by twisting the outer ring and pulling gently.

8. A woman has a history of toxic shock syndrome. Which of the following forms of
birth control should she be taught to avoid?

A. Diaphragm.

C. Birth control pills (estrogen-progestin combination).

D. Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate).

9. During a counseling session on natural family planning techniques, how should the
nurse explain the consistency of cervical mucus at the time of ovulation?

A. It becomes thin and elastic.

B. It becomes opaque and acidic.

C. It contains numerous leukocytes to prevent vaginal infections.

D. It decreases in quantity in response to body temperature changes.

10. A client is being taught about the care and use of the diaphragm. Which of the
following comments by the woman shows that she understands the teaching that was
provided

A. “I should regularly put the diaphragm up to the light and look at it carefully.”

B. “This is one method that can be used during menstruation.”

C. “I can leave the diaphragm in place for a day or two.”

D. “The diaphragm should be well powdered before I put it back in the case.”

MODULE 15

MODULE 16

1.Which of the following represents the correct order of the stages of labor?

A. Latent phase; active phase; transitional phase; second stage

B. Acceleration phase; active phase; second stage; deceleration phase

C. First stage, latent phase, active phase, phase of linear slope

D. Latency, active labor, second stage, transitional phase

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the latent phase of labor?

A. It may normally last more than 16 h in a nullipara

B. Considerable fetal descent usually occurs

C. It may be lengthened by analgesic use

D. It is a period of considerable cervical ripening

3. A fetal head that is floating above the inlet during early labor:

A. Is always associated with a deflexed attitude

B. Is associated with an increased risk of Cesarean delivery

C Signifies a malposition
D Only occurs in cases of android pelvic architecture

4. A nullipara has a normal first stage. At full cervical dilation, the head is at station 0
and the position is left occiput transverse. Two hours later the station is between + 2
and + 3. She has had no anesthesia. Which of the following is correct?

A. There is a deep transverse arrest

B. Descent is normal and no intervention is necessary

C. The use of forceps or a vacuum extractor is necessary if delivery does not occur within 30
min
D. Descent is protracted

5. During the latent phase of labor:

A. The fetal head normally rotates internally

B. The cervix dilates at ≤ 5 cm/h

C. Uterine contractions occur irregularly

D. All of the above

6. During most of the active phase:

A. Fetal descent occurs

B. Uterine contractility diminishes

C. Cervical dilation occurs linearly

D. The cervix remains very posterior

7. Which of the following is generally true of multiparas?

A. Labor is longer than in nulliparas

B. Labor begins with the fetal head at a higher station than in nulliparas

C. Prolonged latent phase is diagnosed after 20 h of labor

D. Labor begins with a less mature cervix than in nulliparas

8. 8am CTG result

A. Early Deceleration

B. Late Deceleration

C. Variable Deceleration

D. Normal CTG result

9. 12pm CTG result

A. Early Deceleration
B. Late Deceleration
C. Variable Deceleration
D. Normal CTG result 1

10. 4pm CTG result

A. Early Deceleration

B. Late Deceleration

C. Variable Deceleration

D. Normal CTG result