Gauss Without Answers

№ Вопросы и задания Дисциплины
1. Doubling of beta HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) levels is seen in? Акушерство и
гинекология 2
a) 24 Hours
b) 48 Hours
c) 72 hours
d) 96 Hours
e) 120 Hours
2. What is the source of hyperandrogenism with a positive test with dexamethasone? Акушерство и
a) Ovaries
b) Adrenal glands
c) Pituitary adenoma
d) Pathology of the hypothalamus
e) Pathology of the thyroid gland
3. A healthy 23 year old G1P0 has an uncomplicated pregnancy to date. She is dissapointed because she is 41 weeks gestational age Акушерство и
by good dates and a 1st trimester USG and wants to have her baby. Pt reports good fetal movements, baby's kick count is abt. 8-10 гинекология 2
times/hr. On exam cervix is firm, posterior, 50% effaced and 1 cm dilated and vertex is at -1 stn. What will be the next advice for
the pt.
a) Admission and immidiate CS
b) Admission and Pitocin induction
c) Schedule a CS in one week if she has not undergone spontaneous labor in the mean time
d) She should continue to monitor kick count and return to you after a week to reassess the situation
e) Induction of labor
4. With A patient is presented to you post hysterectomy and the need of HRT (hormone replacement therapy) with osteoporosis, Акушерство и
what will be the choice of HRT for the patient? гинекология 2
a) Progestin
b) Estrogen
c) Estrogen + progestin
d) Testosterone
e) None
5. 37 weeks of pregnancy with good uterine contractions P/V ex-n shows cervix fully dilated for >2 hours, vertex at 1 station, severe Акушерство и
moulding present. Your management? гинекология 2
a) Wait for spontaneous delivery
b) Cesarean section
c) Forceps
d) Oxyticin drip
e) None
6. During the reproductive cycle which substance enhabces glandular secretion of the endometrium so that implantation can occur Акушерство и
a) FSH гинекология
b) LH
c) Estrogen
d) Progesterone
e) Testosterone
7. Patient 32 years old, in the delivery room gave birth to a live full-term baby, weight 3900 g, 53 cm length. At birth, the heart rate Акушерство и
is 120 per minute, the skin is pink, rhythmic breathing is 45 per minute, reflexes are lively, hypertonicity. Assess the condition of гинекология
the newborn according to the Apgar scale?
a) 2-3 points
b) 4-5 points
c) 5-7 points
d) 8-9 points
e) 9-10 points
8. To replenish the (СВV) circulating blood volume control is necessary: Акушерство и
гинекология
a) Heart rate
b) Blood pressure
c) Central venous pressure
d) Total peripheral resistance
e) Diuresis
9. A female patient with unexplained infertility is treated with menopausal gonadotropin and pure follicle stimulathing hormone to Акушерство и
induce follicular development. Several oocytes are aspirated from enlarged follicles and cultured in nutried medium until they гинекология 2
reach the normal second stage of meiotic arrest before they are fertilized. Fertilization is therefore carried out at which jf the
following stages of oocyte development
a) Prophase of the primareoocyte
b) Metaphase of the primary boocyte
c) Prophase of the Secondery oocyte
d) Metaphase of the Secondery oocyte
e) Prophase of the definitive oocyte
10. Primary treatment for hirsutism in PCOD?(Polycystic ovary disease or syndrome) Акушерство и
a) Minoxidil
b) Progesterone
c) GnRH analogue
d) Combined OCP
e) Depoprovera
11. Which type of anesthesia is recommended in labor in patients with moderate pregnancy induced hypertension? Акушерство и
a) Pudendal
b) Epidural
c) General
d) Paracervical
e) Infiltrative
12. A 27-year-old G2P1 woman at 40 weeks' gestation presents in labor. She has a history of an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal Акушерство и
delivery of a healthy child weighing 3.9 kg (8.6 lb). On examination her blood pressure is 123/89 mm Hg, pulse is 87/min, and гинекология
temperature is 36.7°C (98°F). The fetal heart rate ranges from 140 to 150/min with good beat-to-beat variability. Tocometry
detects regular contractions occurring every 8-10 minutes. The cervix is dilated at 4 cm and the vertex is at the -3 position.
Immediately after artificial rupture of membranes, fetal bradycardia of 65-75/min is noted for 2 minutes without recovery. Which
of the following is the next best step in mgt:
a) Increase rate of oxytocin infusion
b) Perform sterile vaginal examination
c) Perform immediate CS(ceserian section)
d) Perform mc roberts manouvre
e) Perform amnoitomy
13. What is the normal duration of magnesial therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension? Акушерство и
a) 12 hours after delivery
b) 18 hours after delivery
c) 20 hours after delivery
d) 24-48 hours after delivery
e) 48-56 hours after delivery
14. Clubbing of fimbrial end of fallopian tube is seen in HSG(hysterosalpingography), what could be possible pathology? Акушерство и
a) TB (tuberculosis)
b) Gonococcal
c) Hydrosalpinx
d) Mullarian anomaly
e) None
15. Contraindications for the internal rotation of the second leg of the fetus at birth is the first baby in twins: Акушерство и
a) Presence of uterine scar
b) Full dilation of the cervix
c) Amniotic membranes intact
d) Normal fetus
e) Fetal heartbeat clear and rhythmic
16. In a multi-pregnant woman with a 28-week gestation, pedal and abdominal edema were seen, blood pressure 160/100 mm Hg, Акушерство и
170/100 mm Hg. Protein in urine - 0.66 hl. Make a diagnosis: гинекология 2
a) Hypertension
b) Mild preeclampsia
c) Moderate preeclampsia
d) Severe preeclampsia
e) Exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis
17. A 24 yr old primi female at term, has been dilated to 9 cms for 3 hrs. The fetal vertex is at Right occipito posterior position and at Акушерство и
+1 station. There have been mild decelerations for the last 10 mins. Twenty mins back fetal scalp Ph was 7.27 and now it is 7.20. гинекология
Next line of management is:
a) wait and watch

b) repeat scalp ph after 15 mins
c) midforceps rotation
d) CS(ceserian section)
e) stimulate fetal scalp
18. Presence of convulsions characterizes which degree of pregnancy induced hypertension? Акушерство и
a) Pregestosis
b) Mild preeclampsia
c) Moderate preeclampsia
d) Severe preeclampsia
e) Eclampsia
19. What term of pregnancy is possible to conduct the prophylactic rotation of fetus on a head in breech presentations? Акушерство и
a) In 28-32 weeks
b) In 34-36 weeks
c) In 36-38 weeks;
d) In 32-38 weeks;
e) Without limitation of term.
20. A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in her right breast. The patient is postpartum Акушерство и
day 10 from an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery at 42 weeks. She reports no difficulty breast-feeding for the first гинекология
several days postpartum, but states that for the past week her daughter has had difficulty latching on. Three days ago, her right
nipple became dry and cracked, and since yesterday it has become increasingly swollen and painful. Her temperature is 38.3°C
(101°F). Her right nipple and areola are warm, swollen, red, and tender. There is no fluctuance or nduration,
and no pus can be expressed from the nipple.
a) Continue breast feeding from both the breasts

b) Breastfeed from unaffected breast only
c) Immediately start antibiotics and breastfeed only when antibiotics are discontinued.
d) Pump and discard breastmilk till infection is over and then continue breatfedding
e) Stop breastfeeding immediately.
21. Patient A., aged 24, was admitted with complaints of pain in the lower abdomen and bloody discharge from the genital tract with Акушерство и
a delay in menstruation for 2 weeks. BP 100/60 mm Hg, pulse 90 beats/min. On speculum examinations: cyanosis of the mucous гинекология
membrane of the cervix, bloody discharge, dark. PV: the uterus is slightly enlarged, mobile, on the right in the area of the
appendages there is a formation, painful, doughy consistency. The posterior fornix is flattened, painful. Your diagnosis:
a) Endometriosis
b) Incomplete abortion
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Uterine fibroids
e) DUB
22. A 27-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician with the complaint of pain and swelling in her left breast. She reports a fever of Акушерство и
around 38.3°C (101°F) for the past 2 days. She recently gave birth to a healthy baby girl and has been breastfeeding every 3-4 гинекология 2
hours. Examination reveals focal tenderness just medial to the nipple with surrounding warmth
and erythema. Her WBC count is 12,000/mm3 Which of the following is the best treatment:
a) Amoxicillin
b) Diclocloxacillin
c) Penicillin
d) Erythromycin
e) Levofloxacilin
23. You are called to a maternity ward to see a 23 year old primi patient who had delivered a 2.7 kg baby boy 2 days back.She had a Акушерство и
normal vaginal delivery and placenta delivered spontaneously. Now she complains of bloody vaginal discharge with no other гинекология 2
signs. O/E you notice a sweetish odour bloody discharge on the vaginal walls and introitus. Sterile pelvic examination shoes a soft
non tender uterus. Her P/R-78/min, B/P-110/76 mm of hg, temp-37*C, R/R-16/min. Her WBC count =10,000 with predominant
granulocytes. What is the most appropriate step:
a) Currettage
b) Oral antibiotics
c) Reassurance
d) Order urinalysis
e) Vaginal culture
24. What is contraindication for the external rotation of fetus in breech presentations? Акушерство и
a) Early gestosis;
b) Contracted pelvis i degree; гинекология 2
c) Kidney disease of pregnant woman;
d) Scar on the uterus;
e) All of the above
25. Sarita, a 30-year-old woman develops a deep vein thrombosis in her left calf on fourth postoperative day following cesarean Акушерство и
section done for fetal distress. The patient is started on heparin and is scheduled to begin a 6 weeks course of warfarin therapy. гинекология 2
The patient is a devoted mother who wants to breast feed her baby. What is the advice which is given to the patient:
a) Patient may continue breast feeding at her own risk.

b) Patient should breast feed her baby only if her INR is at <2.5
c) Patient can breast feed her baby after 6 weeks course of warfarin is over
d) Warfarin is not a contraindication for lactation.
e) Warfarin is absolutely contraindicated during lactation.
26. Changes in the pubic symphysis during physiological pregnancy do not exceed: Акушерство и
a) 0.1-0.3 cm
b) 0.4 - 0.6 cm
c) 0.7-0.9 cm
d) 1.0-1.2 cm
e) 1.3-1.5cm
27. What complications occur in the first stage of labor in breech presentation more frequent? Акушерство и
a) Preterm rupture of membrane
b) Preeclampsia
c) Bleeding
d) Arrested fetal shoulders
e) Strong uterine contractions
28. By the third Leopold’ maneuver in breech presentations is palpated: Акушерство и
a) The back of fetus
b) The breech of the fetus
c) Head of the fetus
d) Breech in uterine fundus
e) Arms of fetus
29. During pregnancy, the following hormones are produced in the fetoplacental system: Акушерство и
a. Estrogens, progesterone, placental lactogen, embryonic α-fetoprotein
b. Progesterone, placental lactogen, embryonic α-fetoprotein
c. Placental lactogen, embryonic α-fetoprotein
d. Embryonic α-fetoprotein, estrogens, androgens
e. Androgens, estrogens, progesterone
30. 29 Years old female presented with 7 weeks of pregnancy; she has complaint of vaginal spotting. USG(ultrasonography) shows Акушерство и
empty uterus, best treatment? гинекология 2
a) If sac >3.5 do medical management
b) Laparoscopy with salphingostomy
c) Laparoscopy with salphingectomy
d) Laparotomy
e) Culdotomy
31. What is the presentation when the fetal neck is extended and the back and occiput are in contact? Акушуерство и
a) Vertex anterior гинекология
b) Face
c) Vertex posterior
d) Brow
e) Sinciput
32. Clue cells are seen in? Акушерство и
a) Bacterial vaginosis
b) Candidiasis
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Gonococcal Infection
e) Syphilis
33. What is the presentation when the fetal head is partially deflexed and a large anterior fontanel is presenting? Акушерство и
a) Occipital гинекология
b) Face
c) Brow
d) Sinciput vertex
e) Vertex posterior
34. The morphological picture in atypical endometrial hyperplasia is most similar to: Акушерство и
a) With highly differentiated cancer
b) With glandular cystic hyperplasia
c) With endometrial polyp
d) With metroendometritis
e) With low-grade cancer
35. A lady approaches a physian for contraceptive advice. On examination, there were two symmetrical ulcers on vulva, which were Акушерство и
well defined with firm base. Which of the following is the most likely cause? гинекология 2
a) Chancre
b) Syphilis
c) Herpes
d) Malignancy
e) HPV(human papilloma virus)
36. Pregnant, 26 years old, was admitted to the maternity ward with a Diagnosis: Pregnancy 32 weeks. Pregnancy - 2, childbirth -1. Акушерство и
Complaints: edema, headache, dizziness, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, stomach pain and pain in the heart, contractions every гинекология
15 minutes, for 20-25 seconds, BP160 / 110, 150 | 100mm Hg and pulse 88 times per minute. Palpation determined: the back of
the fetus is determined on the right side and anteriorly. Bimanual examination: dilation of the cervix 3 cm. The fetal head is
presented. The sagittal suture of the fetal head is found on the right oblique size, a small fontanel on the right. Laboratory:
proteinuria more than 1 g / l in urine What is your therapeutic tactic? Choose delivery methods?
a) Immediate delivery by caesarean section

b) To postpone delivery until stabilization
c) Delivery through the natural birth canal
d) Delivery by caesarean section within 12 hours
e) Routine delivery by С-section
37. A 25- year-old female with history of multiple contacts presenting with growth of vulva, the probable diagnosis is: Акушерство и
a) Condyloma accuminata гинекология 2
b) Verucca plana
c) Verruca vulgaris
d) Condyloma lata
e) Herpes
38. During which cardinal movement of labor is the face linear of the fetal head is located in oblique diameter of the pelvic inlet? Акушерство и
a) Internal rotation
b) Extension
c) External rotation
d) Expulsion
e) Flexion
39. Fishy odor on whiff test is seen in? Акушерство и
a) Giardia
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Candidiasis
e) None
40. What is the general volume of infusion therapy in pregnancy induced hypertension? Акушерство и
a) 10- 15ml /kg
b) 15 – 20 ml/kg
c) 20 – 25 ml/kg
d) 30 – 35 ml/kg
e) 40 – 45 ml/kg
41. Which of the following is a sign of placental separation in stage 3 of labour? Акушерство и
a) Gushing of blood
b) Discoid Uterus
c) Filling of placenta in vagina
d) Increase in blood pressure
e) Abdominal cramps
42. Nongonococcal uretritis is caused by: Акушерство и
a) Chlamidia гинекология 2
b) LGV (lymphogranuloma venereum)
c) Syphilis
d) Gardnerella vaginalis
e) HIV
43. What is the first moment in the biomechanism of labor in the face presentation? Акушерство и
a) Fetal head flexion
b) Additional flexion of the fetal head
c) Internal rotation of the fetal head
d) Fetal head extension
e) External rotation of the fetal head and external rotation of the fetal body
44. What is the circumference of the large segment of the fetal head in the brow presentation? Акушерство и
a) 32 cm
b) 36 cm
c) 39-41 cm
d) 34 cm
e) 28 cm
45. A pregnant woman of 28 years, with a gestational age of 34 weeks for admission to the maternity hospital with complaints: Акушерство и
headache, dizziness and dizziness, impaired vision, nausea, vomiting, stomach pain and pain in the heart and swelling and гинекология 2
cramping abdominal pain. Pregnancy - 4, childbirth - 3, the second pregnancy with complications (hypertension during
childbirth), the last two years 3 - the pregnancy ended the termination of pregnancy, without complications. The obstetric status of
the contractions is every 4-5 minutes, for 30-35 seconds, the position of the fetus is longitudinal, cephalic presentation, fetal
heartbeat 165 times per minute. BP-170 / 110, 160 / 100 mm.Hg. and heart rate 86 times per minute.
Suddenly, convulsions started. What is the correct management?
a) connect ventilator
b) Give oxygen
c) Lay her on the side so that it does not fall
d) do indirect heart massage
e) Intravenously administer a dose of magnesium sulfate
46. MC tumor associated with delayed puberty Акушерство и
a) Astrocytoma гинекология 2
b) Prolactinoma
c) Craniopharingioma
d) Medulloblastoma
e) None of the above
47. Most common fractured bone during birth is? Акушерство и
a) Humerus
b) Scapula
c) Clavicle
d) Radius
e) Scalp
48. Treatment options for CIN III include all except Акушерство и
a) LLETZ (Large loop excision of the transformation zone) гинекология 2
b) Conization
c) Wertheims hysterectomy
d) Hysterectomy
e) Amputation
49. Cervical ectopic is confirmed by presence of Акушерство и
a. Bleeding painless
b. H/O villi inside cervical stroma
c. Gestation sac below internal os
d. Intractable bleeding following evacuation of products
e. All of the above
50. Which of the following has highest risk of progression to cancer Акушерство и
a. Squamosus intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HIV гинекология 2
b. Squamosus intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HPV 16
c. Low grade squamosus intraepithelial lesion
d. High grade squamosus intraepithelial neoplasia
e. None
51. Endometrial biopsy is done in Акушерство и
a. After menstruation гинекология 2
b. Premenstrual phase
c. Ovulation time
d. Any time
e. All of the above
52. When shoulder pain develops in a case of tubal pregnancy it indicates Акушерство и
a) Tubal mole гинекология 2
b) Development
c) Severe internal bleeding
d) Tubal abortion
e) None
53. Causes of primary amenorrhea are A/E Акушерство и
a) Rokitanskiy syndrome гинекология 2
b) Shehan syndrome
c) Kallman syndrome
d) Turner syndrome
e) PCOD
54. Drug is not given in PCOD (polycystic ovarian syndrome) Акушерство и
a) Tamoxifen
b) Clomiphene
c) Oral contraceptive
d) Metformin
e) None
55. A 37-year-old pregnant woman was brought from the village to the maternity hospital, 40 weeks gestation, gestational period, Акушерство и
labor, strong contractions, violent, painful, not convulsive, the uterus is elongated, its bottom is tilted away from the midline, гинекология 2
round ligaments tense, painful, the contraction ring is located high above the bottom, at the level of the navel, and the oblique,
uterus is the shape of an hourglass. The fetal heart rate is 160 beats per minute. What is your intended diagnosis?
a) Complete uterine rupture

b) Threatening uterine rupture
c) The onset of uterine rupture
d) Incomplete uterine rupture
e) Complete uterine rupture
56. Which is the following drug is not a 1st line treatment for an anovulatory abnormal uterine bleeding in a 13 year old Акушерство и
A. Progesterone гинекология
B. Estrogen + progesterone
C. Tranexamic acid
D. Mefenamic Acid
E. COP(cyclophosphamide)
57. In cystic glandular hyperplasia what is seen Акушерство и
a) Hypomenorrhea
b) Normal menstrual bleeding
c) Amenorrhea and bleeding
d) None
e) All of the above
58. A woman in labor was admitted to the obstetric hospital with a diagnosis of: - Birth I; - The second period of labor - premature Акушерство и
detachment of a normally located placenta; intrapartum fetal death. Your management: гинекология
a) Cesarean section
b) Fetal-destruction operation
c) Induction of labor
d) Fetal vacuum extraction
e) Delivery by obstetric forceps operation
59. Tell drug of choice for Chlamydia in pregnancy: Акушерство и
a) Doxycycline гинекология 2
b) Tetracycline
c) Erithromycin
d) Penicillin
e) Ceftriaxone
60. Salpingitis is best confirmed by: Акушерство и

a) Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy гинекология 2
b) X-ray
c) Hysterosalpingography
d) Sonosalpingography
e) USG (ultrasonography)
61. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical chlamydia trachomatis infection is: Акушерство и
a) Direct fluorescent antibody test гинекология 2
b) Enzyme immunoassay
c) Polymerase chain reaction
d) Culture on irradiated McConkey cells
e) ELISA(enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
62. The most common cause of tubal block is: Акушерство и

a) Gonorrhoea infection
b) Chlamadia
c) Tuberculosis
d) Herpes
e) None
63. To hypothalamic amenorrhea does not belong: Акушерство и
a) Psychogenic amenorrhea
b) Syndrome Shikhane
c) False pregnancy
d) Adipozogenital dystrophy
e) Syndrome kiary-frommel
64. Level 1 of hospital care for pregnant women according to New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification Акушерство и
a) Good tolerance of exercise without symptoms
b) Symptomatic with moderate exercise
c) Symptomatic with light exercise or ordinary activities
d) Symptomatic at rest
e) None
65. All of the following features are seen in shehans syndrome except Акушерство и
a) Hair loss
b) Lactation failure
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Increased BMR (Basal metabolic rate)
e) None
66. In premature menopause FSH levels are Акушерство и
a) 35 mlU/ml or more
b) 40 mlU/ml or more
c) 45 mlU/ml or more
d) 75 mlU/ml or more
e) 58 mlU/ml or more
67. Ferning of cervical mucus seen due to Акушерство и
a. High NaCl гинекология 2
b. Low NaCl
c. High mucoprotein
d. Low mucoprotein
e. None
68. A pregnant woman arrived at the hospital with complaints: for contractions every 5-6 minutes, 30 seconds each. Pregnancy -4, Акушерство и
childbirth 3. The size of pelvis is 24-26-28-18cm. The abdominal circumference is 100 cm, fundal height is 38 cm, the back of the гинекология2
fetus is determined from the left and anterior. PV: Opening of the uterine cervix up to 6 cm, soft. The fetal head is presented, a
large fontanel is determined - at the entrance to the small pelvis. The amniotic membrane is intact. What is your preliminary
diagnosis?
a) Occipital head presentation

b) Forehead presentation
c) Brow presentation
d) Face presentation
e) Occipito anterior presentation
69. A 25 years old female with a single child seek contraceptive advice. She gives H/O clear mucoid vaginal discharge. The cervix Акушерство и
appears inflamed on speculum examination. Her husband is working abroad and comes home once in 2 months. Which of the best гинекология
contraceptive advice?
a) OCP
b) IUCD
c) Condom
d) DMPA
e) None
70. A 27-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician with the complaint of pain and swelling in her left breast. She reports a fever of Акушерство и
around 38.3°C (101°F) for the past 2 days. She recently gave birth to a healthy baby girl and has been breastfeeding every 3-4 гинекология
hours. Examination reveals focal tenderness just medial to the nipple with surrounding warmth
and erythema. Her WBC count is 12,000/mm3. Which of the following is the best treatment?
a) Amoxicillin
b) Diclocloxacillin
c) Penicillin
d) Erythromycin
e) Levofloxacilin
71. What is the presentation when the fetal head is partially deflexed and a large anterior fontanel is presenting? Акушерство и
a) Occipital
b) Face
c) Brow
d) Vertex posterior
e) Sinciput vertex
72. A 24-year-old P2+0 woman presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in her right breast. The patient is Акушерство и
postpartum day 10 from an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery at 42 weeks. She reports no difficulty breast-feeding for гинекология 2
the first several days postpartum, but states that for the past week her daughter has had difficulty latching on. Three days ago, her
right nipple became dry and cracked, and since yesterday it has become increasingly swollen and painful. Her temperature is
38.3°C (101°F). Her right nipple and areola are warm, swollen, red, and tender. There is no fluctuance or induration, and no pus
can be expressed from the nipple.
a) Continue breast feeding from both the breasts

b) Breastfeed from unaffected breast only
c) Immediately start antibiotics and breastfeed only when antibiotics are discontinued.
d) Pump and discard breast milk till infection is over and then continue breastfeeding
e) Stop breastfeeding immediately
73. What factor can be negatively reflected on the gemodynamic parameters of puerperal woman at first hours of puerperium Акушерство и
a) Fatigue after the labor
b) Beginning of lactation
c) Contraction of uterus
d) Perineal ruptures
e) Stopping of functioning of utero-placental circle of blood circulation and related to it redistribution of blood
74. A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. The Акушерство и
prenatal course was significant for a positive group B Streptococcus culture performed at 35 weeks. Antenatal testing over the гинекология 2
past 2 weeks has been unremarkable. The patient is started on lactated Ringer's IV solution. Sterile vaginal examination shows
that the patient's cervix is long, thick, and closed. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed into the vagina, and electronic fetal heart
rate monitoring is continued. In approximately 60 minutes, the fetal heart rate falls to the 90s, as the tocodynamometer shows the
uterus to be contracting every 1 minute with essentially no rest in between contractions. Which of the following was most likely
the cause of the uterine hyperstimulation?
a) Infection
b) IV fluids
c) Postdates pregnancy
d) Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel
e) Vaginal examination
75. A 27-year-old primagravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with a gush of fluid and regular Акушерство и
contractions. Examination shows that she is grossly ruptured, contracting every 2 minutes, and that her cervix is dilated to 4 cm. гинекология 2
The fetal heart rate tracing is in the 140s and reactive. She is admitted to labor and delivery, and over the following 4 hours she
progresses to 9 cm dilation. Over the past hour, the fetal heart rate has increased from a baseline of 140 to a baseline of 160.
Furthermore, moderate to severe variable decelerations are seen with each contraction. The fetal heart rate does not respond to
scalp stimulation. The decision is made to proceed with cesarean delivery. Which of the following is the reason for the cesarean
delivery and the preoperative diagnosis?
a) Fetal acidemia
b) Fetal distress
c) Fetal hypoxic encephalopathy
d) Low neonatal APGAR scores
e) Non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
76. What is the third moment of biomehanizm of labor in breech presentation? Акушерство и
a) Flexion of head;
b) Internal rotation of breech;
c) Flexion of trunk;
d) Internal rotation of shoulders and external rotation of trunk;
e) Internal rotation of head
77. What is the reason of the early gash of amniotic fluid in breech presentation? Акушерство и
a) The large presenting part
b) Absence of the girdle of contact
c) Lost tonus of lower segment
d) The abnormal tonus of uterus
e) Arrested fetal shoulders
78. Which aid is given in the labor at frank breech presentation? Акушерство и
a) Caesarean section
b) Perineum protective maneuvers
c) Pinards maneuvers
d) Lovset maneuvers
e) Burns Marshall
79. What term of pregnancy is possible to conduct the prophylactic rotation of fetus on a head in breech presentations? Акушерство и
a) 28-32 weeks
b) 34-36 weeks
c) 36-38 weeks
d) in 32-38 weeks
e) without limitation of term
80. A 24 years old presents to you at 32 weeks of gestation with preterm prelabour rupture of membranes for ten days. She is Акушерство и
complaining of pain in lower abdomen, fever with rigors and chills and purulent vaginal discharge. What is her diagnosis гинекология 2
a) Pyrexia of unknown origin
b) Puerperial pyrexia
c) Preterm labour
d) Chorioamnionitis
e) Endometritis
81. Regarding hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, which of the following are false? Акушерство и
a) ‘Significant’ proteinuria is ≥0.3 g/24 h.
b) When blood pressure is >140/90 mmHg prior to 20 weeks, pregnancy-induced hypertension is the most common diagnosis.
c) Eclampsia may present in the absence of hypertension.
d) A urinary protein: creatinine ratio >10 mg/nmol is considered significant.
e) Pre-eclampsia is cured only by delivery.
82. In case of continuing seizures in newborn even after loading with full dose of Phenobarbitone 40 mg/kg in absence of ventilation Акушерство и
facility you should give гинекология 2
a) Lorazepam
b) Phenytoin
c) Diazepam
d) Magnesium sulphate
e) None
83. After reviewing the client’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would the nurse anticipate as a Акушерство и
potential problem in the neonate?
a) Hypoglycemia гинекология 2
b) Jitteriness
c) Respiratory depression
d) Tachycardia
e) Asphyxia
84. A patient with group AB blood whose husband has group O has just given birth. The major sign of ABO blood incompatibility in Акушерство и
the neonate is which complication or test result? гинекология 2
a) Negative Coombs test

b) Bleeding from the nose and ear
c) Jaundice after the first 24 hours of life
d) Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life
e) None
85. Patient V., 30 years old, was taken to the gynecological department with complaints of fever up to 380C, pain in the lower Акушерство и
abdomen, purulent discharge from the genital tract, general weakness, and malaise. She ill 2 days ago after a medical abortion in гинекология 2
the period of 8-9 weeks. Objectively: the pulse is 96 beats/min. BP 120/70 mm Hg, no peritoneal symptoms. On the speculum
examination: the cervix is normal, the discharge is purulent-sanitary. PV: the cervix is cylindrical, the external os is closed, the
uterus is larger than normal, tender, the appendages are not defined, painless. Make a diagnosis:
a) Metroendometritis
b) Salpingoophoritis
c) Parametritis
d) Pelvioperitonitis
e) Perimetritis speculum examinations
86. A 42-year-old patient was admitted with complaints of cramping pains in the lower abdomen, heavy menstruation. On the Акушерство и
speculum examination: the cervix is shortened, in the cervical canal - purple color. The bleeding is profuse. PV: the cervix is гинекология 2
shortened. The uterus is enlarged up to 8-9 weeks of pregnancy, with a smooth surface. A appendages without features. Your
diagnosis:
a) Cervical myoma
b) Abortion in progress
c) Cervical pregnancy
d) Cervical cancer
e) Uterine fibroids, submucosal node
87. What are the criteria for the cure of gonorrhea? Акушерство и
a) Negative smear taken during the next period
b) Negative result after treatment of the urethra and cervical canal with Lugol's solution
c) Negative result after intramuscular injection of 5OO million microns. bodies of gonovaccine
d) Negative result at control examinations within 3 months
e) Negative result after alimentary provocation
88. Specify the possible complications of acute salpingo-oophoritis: Акушерство и
a) Generalization of infection with the development of local or diffuse peritonitis
b) Abscess formation
c) The formation of chronic pelvic pain syndrome
d) Chronization of the process with the formation of hydrosalpinx
e) Menstrual irregularities
89. What drug is used to treat atrophic vaginitis: Акушерство и
a) Pharmatex
b) Polygynax
c) Vagotil
d) Terginan
e) Ovestin
90. Patient A., aged 24, was admitted with complaints of pain in the lower abdomen and bloody discharge from the genital tract with Акушерство и
a delay in menstruation for 2 weeks. BP 100/60 mm Hg, pulse 90 beats/min. On the speculum examination: cyanosis of the гинекология 2
mucous membrane of the cervix, bloody discharge, dark. PV: the uterus is slightly enlarged, mobile, on the right side of the
appendages there is a formation, painful, doughy mass. The posterior fornix is flattened, painful. Your diagnosis:
a) Endometriosis
b) Incomplete abortion
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Uterine fibroids
e) DUB (Dysfunctional uterine bleeding)
91. A 36-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe pain in the lower abdomen, fever up to 39.5 ° C. Акушерство и
Anamnesis: 8th day of the menstrual cycle. The IUD (Intrauterine contraceptive device) was delivered 3 days ago. Objectively: гинекология 2
pulse 120 in 1 minute, BP 110/70 mm Hg. The abdomen is swollen, sharply painful in all parts, the symptom of Shchetkin-
Blumberg is sharply positive. Bimanual examination: the uterus is enlarged, painful on palpation. The appendages are not
enlarged. Discharge - pus. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
a) Acute endometritis during the use of IUD

b) Acute bilateral salpingitis
c) Perforation of tubo-ovarian abscess
d) Uterine fibroids with necrosis of one of the nodes
e) Exacerbation of chronic endometritis
92. A 16-year-old girl has bloody discharge from the genital tract within 8 days after a 2-month delay of menstruation. Recto- Акушерство и
abdominal examination and ultrasound data, there is no pathology. What is the most appropriate diagnosis? гинекология 2
a) Ovarian tumor
b) Myoma of the uterus
c) Thrombocytopathy
d) Juvenile uterine bleeding
e) Endometrial polypoma
93. Delayed sexual development is when there are no secondary sexual characteristics: Акушерство и
a) 10 years, and menstruation by 15 g.
b) 12 years, and menstruation by 16.
c) 14 years, and menstruation by the age of 16.
d) 14 years, and menstruation by age 18.
e) 16 years, and menstruation by 19
94. Oligodysmenorrhea: Акушерство и
a) Infrequent and scanty menstruation
b) Infrequent and painful periods
c) Reduction of blood loss during menstruation
d) Intermenstrual scanty spotting
e) Painful periods
95. What is the most frequent causes of dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the puberty Акушерство и
a) Follicular atresia
b) Long-term persistence of the follicle
c) Short-term persistence of the follicle
d) Insufficiency of the corpus luteum
e) Persistence of the corpus luteum
96. What is the most effective method for early diagnosis of postmenopausal osteoporosis: Акушерство и
a) X-ray of the spine
b) Mono- and biphoton absorptiometry
c) Computed tomography
d) Radiography of the hand
e) Ultrasound of joints
97. What is the most effective treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis? Акушерство и
a) Diet therapy
b) Physiotherapy and exercise therapy
c) Hormone therapy
d) Vitamin therapy
e) Antibiotic therapy
98. What is the indication for the surgical treatment of uterine fibroids? Акушерство и
a) Uterine fibroids in postmenopausal women
b) Rapid tumor growth
c) Menstrual irregularities
d) Long-term existence of fibroids
e) Subserous uterine myoma
99. Which drugs are used to treat endometrial hyperplastic processes: Акушерство и
a) Estrogens;
b) Gestagens;
c) Androgens;
d) Thyroid stimulating hormones
e) Glucocorticoids;
100. Patient S., 28 years old, 35 gestational weeks came to the clinic with complaints of high body temperature (40.5 ° C), body aches, Акушерство и
1 sore throat, dry cough. From the anamnesis it was found that the disease began acutely, about 3 days ago, with a loss of smell. гинекология 2
Objectively: hard breathing is heard in all area of the lungs, no wheezing, heart sounds are muffled, the rhythm is correct, the
pulse is 110 beats per minute, the blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Tell the causative agent of the above-described disease.
a) Alphacoronavirus
b) Gammacoronavirus
c) Deltacoronavirus
d) Betacoronavirus
e) Omegacoronavirus

1. Residual chlorine can be determined by: Эпидемиология
A. Winkler,s method
B. Iodometric test
C. Mohr,s argentometric method
D. Orthotolidine test
2. Which Chloramine is formed, when the pH range is less than 4,4: Эпидемиология
A. Monochloramine
B. Dichloramine
C. Both trichloromine and dichloramine
D. Trichloromine
3. Disinsection is divided on: Эпидемиология
A. current and final
B. current, final and prophylactic
C. current and prophylactic
D. prophylactic and destructive
4. Autoclave method is the most common and reliable sterilization process used in the microbiology Эпидемиология
laboratory. Which of the following are the recommended heat temperature and time periods for the moist
heat sterilization method used in an autoclave?
a) 180 c for 5 minutes
b) 121 c for 15 minutes

c) 126 c for 3 minutes
d) 160 c for 45 minutes
5. Duration of isolation of patient with influenza complications? Эпидемиология
A. 4 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 17 days
6. The pathogen most commonly involved in community-acquired pneumonia is: Эпидемиология
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Gram-negative bacilli
C. Fungi
D. Legionella
7. Identify the temperature and time period commonly used for the hot air oven while sterilizing glassware in Эпидемиология
the laboratory
a) 180 degrees Celcius for 30 mins
b) 63 degrees Celcius for 30 mins
c) 121 degrees Celcius for 15 mins
d) 160 degrees Celcius for 45 mins
8. First link of epidemiological process: Эпидемиология

A. susceptible organism
B. causative agent of infectious disease
C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease
D. mechanism of transmission
9. Name the sterilization agent that is most frequently used in hospitals and clinical laboratories for the heat- Эпидемиология
labile liquid substances or antibiotics
a) Dry heat
b) Radiation
c) Filtration
d) Formaldehyde
10. How is the urgent prophylaxis of scarlet fever conducted? Эпидемиология
A. By vaccination
B. Isolation of children, who had contact with a patient
C. Using of vaccination
D. Disinfection
11. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but never have been Эпидемиология
vaccinated
A. Observations B. Vaccination
C. Use of immunoglobulin D. Use of antibiotics
12. How long has be the increasing of temperature for including the patient into the group of the fever? Эпидемиология
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. Week
D. Month
13. In epidemiology determining is: Эпидемиология
A. mechanism of transmission of causative agent B. biological properties of causative

agent
C. making of collective immunity to the causative agent
D. contagiousness of the infected person
14. A village has 100 under-five children. The coverage with measles vaccine in this age group is 60%. Эпидемиология
Following the occurrence of a measles case in a child after a visit outside, twenty-six children developed
measles. The secondary attack rate of measles is:
A. 50%
B. 66%
C. 40%
D. 25%
15. Treatment of dengue fever includes: Эпидемиология
A. Penicillin, and platelet replacement
B. Supportive care and platelet replacement
C. Supportive care, aspirin and platelet replacement

D. Penicillin, supportive care and platelet replacement
16. Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but never have been Эпидемиология
vaccinated
A. Observations
B. Vaccination
C. Use of immunoglobulin
D. Use of antibiotics
17. The animal linked to Ebola virus is the: Эпидемиология
A. Rabbit
B. Bat
C. Ferret
D. Guinea pig
18. Multicomponent parasite-genic system is: Эпидемиология
A. parasite – host
B. parasite – intermediate host – terminal host
C. an intermediate host terminal host
D. a parasite an intermediate host
19. Passive immunity can be only: Эпидемиология
A. artificial
B. natural
C. artificial and natural
D. innate
20. An epidemiologist was assigned to find out all the cases both new and old of T.B in a slum located near Эпидемиология
Islamabad during the year 2007. Which measure he to give Prevalence of tuberculosis would have used?
A. Tuberculin test
B. Sputum examination
C. Sputum culture
D. BCG scar mark
21. Ministry of health in collaboration with WHO has been working to eradicate polio from Pakistan since Эпидемиология
1992. But still a few cases of polio are identified each year and most of the time the reservoir, which
transmits polio to children is the:
A.Patient
B.Healthy carrier
C.Convalescent carrier
D.Animal source
22. Treatment of acute diarrhea includes: Эпидемиология
A. Oral rehydration and penicillin
B. Oral rehydration, zinc supplementation
C. Intravenous saline and penicillin

D. Oral rehydration, energy-rich food, and zinc supplementation
23. You must begin to treat patients with a plague: Эпидемиология
A. Immediately after hospitalization
B. Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C. After putting the final diagnosis
D. After laboratory and instrumental diagnostic
24. Prophylactic measures conduct: Эпидемиология
A. After single case of infectious diseases
B. Regardless of presence of case of infectious diseases
C. At the outbreak of infectious diseases
D. At noninfectious diseases
25. Quality of disinfectant is determined Эпидемиология
A. by the term of their fitness
B. by the concentration of remaining chlorine
C. multiplicity of quantity diminishing of viable microorganisms and speed of their death
D. by packing integrity, transparency, absence of colour and sediment|
26. Every year during the winter season the hospital admissions are more for pneumonia cases. This year also Эпидемиология
about 358 children with pneumonia were admitted in the Pediatric department of POF Hospital between
the months of Jan – Mar 2007. This increased frequency of respiratory
infections during winter months is an example of:

A. Epidemic trend
B. Cyclical trend
C. Seasonal trend
D. Secular trend
27. Reconvalences after malaria prescribed from clinic no earlier than: Эпидемиология
A. After 2 weeks to complete clinical recovery
B. After 2 weeks of the conclusion of a radical course of therapy
C. At the conclusion of a radical course of therapy with a negative result of analysis
D. After 3 weeks with a negative blood culture results
28. Rules of hospitalization of patients with malaria: Эпидемиология
A. In separate room
B. In the house for respiratory infections
C. In the Meltser's box
D. Patients are not hospitalized
29. Second link of epidemiological process: Эпидемиология
30. A patient came in emergency with signs of dehydration and severe diarrhea. An Intra venous infusion was Эпидемиология
given to correct electrolytes and fluid levels. He was discharged after 2 days. About 2 months later the
patient came back with signs of jaundice and K.K Hepatitis B surface antigen was positive He did not give
history of any event which could have led to this disease This hepatitis infection may be labeled as:
A. Sub clinical
B. Idiopathic
C. Opportunistic
D. Iatrogenic
31. Secondary forces of epidemiological process are: Эпидемиология
A. natural phenomena
B. natural phenomena
C. social phenomena
D. governmental politics
32. The most common cause of diarrhea globally is: Эпидемиология
A. E. coli
B. Compylobacter
C. Rotavirus
D. V. cholerae
33. The second most frequent infectious disease in the United States is: Эпидемиология
A. Influenza
B. Gonorrhea
C. Syphilis
D. Diarrhea
34. A new drug was introduced in some of patients to assess its usefulness compared with the old on Neither Эпидемиология
patients nor clinicians who evaluated patients for effect under consideration in this clinical trial knew
individual treatment assignments. This method of assignment is known as:
A. Stratification
B. Double blinding
C. Triple blinding
D. Randomization
35. The smoking history of pregnant women is taken in the antenatal period and correlated with the birth Эпидемиология
weight at the time of delivery. To find an association between them would be an example of:
A. Clinical trial
B. Cross sectional study
C. Retrospective study
D. Prospective study
36. Subjects for clinical supervision: Эпидемиология
A. Infectious patients at acute period of a disease
B. Health persons that were in contact with patient
C. Convalescents after an infectious disease

D. Workers of sphere of public food consumption
37. Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles Эпидемиология
A. Until clinical recovery
B. After rash starts disappearing
C. Before appearance of rash
D. 4 days from the beginning of rash
38. The duration of incubation period of plague is: Эпидемиология
A. 3 to 8 days; B. 2 to 12 days;
C. 2 to 10 days; D. 2 to 6 days;
39. The following methods of disinfection are distinguished: Эпидемиология
A. physical, biological, natural
B. biological, chemical, mechanical
C. physical, chemical, natural
D. physical, biological, chemical
40. The proportion of the global supply of water that is available for drinking, irrigation, and industrial Эпидемиология
purposes is:
A. <1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 50%
41. Diarrheal diseases are the ______ most common cause of death in low-income countries: Эпидемиология
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
42. A researcher wants to study natural history of silicosis in a population of industrial workers. Which design Эпидемиология
is most useful?
A. Cross sectional
B. Case report
C. Case control
D. Incidence
43. Third link of epidemiological process: Эпидемиология
44. The most important method of prevention of Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea Worm) infection is by: Эпидемиология
A. Washing the hands with soap before eating.

B. Proper sewage disposal.
C. Eating the properly cooked meat.
D. Purification of water
45. What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis (mumps)? Эпидемиология
A. 21days
B. First week of illness
C. First 10 days from the beginning of disease
D. First 9 days of disease.
46. What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever? Эпидемиология
A. 7 days from time of contact
B. 21 day
C. Till patient's rash is present
D. Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
47. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever? Эпидемиология
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. Until rash is present
D. Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
48. What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with chicken pox? Эпидемиология
A. 10 days from the beginning of illness
B. Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C. 5 days after appearance the last rash
D. Till the 21d day from the beginning of illness
49. What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella? Эпидемиология
A. 11 days
B. 21 day
C. 10 days
D. 5 days after isolation of the last child
50. What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of flu? Эпидемиология
A. Complete analysis of blood
B. X-ray of organs of thoraxic cavity
C. Biochemical blood test
D. Determination of viruses by the method of immunofluorescence
51. What laboratory and instrumental examination care needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral hepatitis. Эпидемиология
A. Complete analysis of blood
B. Ultrasound investigation of abdominal region
C. Determination of activity of aminotransferase
D. Determination of antigen of viruses

52. What laboratory methods should be taken to confirm meningitis? Эпидемиология
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Serologic detection
C. Urine examination
D. Stool test
53. What level is necessary to reduce the temperature of patient’s body with hyperthermia? Эпидемиология
A. 39 °C B. 38 °C
C. 37,5 °C D. 37 °C
54. What mechanism of transmission at rabies? Эпидемиология
A. Transmissive B. Fecal-oral
C. Droplet D. Contact-wound
55. What receptivity to rabies? Эпидемиология
A. 45 % B. 25 % C. 85 % D. 100 %
56. Koplik's spots are the diagnostic sign of one of the following diseases: Эпидемиология
A. Rubella
B. Whooping cough
C. Measles
D. Meningitis
57. Lower respiratory infections are the ______ most common cause of death in low-income countries: Эпидемиология
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
58. All the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination except: Эпидемиология
A. Measles
B. Malaria
C. Whooping cough
D. Tuberculosis.
59. After contact persons in the focus of salmonellosis conduct a medical supervision during: Эпидемиология
A. 5 days. B. 6 days.
C. 7 days. D. 14 days.
60. An epidemiologic analysis is: Эпидемиология
A. the preliminary stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
B. the final stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
C. the intermediate stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
D. the preliminary and intermediate stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
1. In a poor community, there is high prevalence of acute diarrhea cases. The best method for preventing this Общественное
health problem in the long run is: здравоохранение
a) Anti-diarrheal drugs.
b) Immunization against cholera and typhoid
c) Provision of sanitary latrine
d) Use of boiled water.
e) Living in fly proof zone
2. The subject of study in public health and health care is Общественное

A. the health of the individual здравоохранение
B. public health and factors affecting it

C. epidemiology of diseases
D. health of the working population
3. Socio-economic factors affecting health Общественное

A. living conditions здравоохранение
B. living and working conditions

C. conditions of life, work, social security living, working conditions,
D. social security, access to medical care
4. Main groups of indicators of public health are Общественное

здравоохранение
A. morbidity, mortality, disability indicators
B. indicators of disability, morbidity, physical development, demographic indicators

C. ratios, visibility, disability
D. demographic indicators, physical development, staffing
5. According to the WHO definition, health is Общественное

A. the state of optimal functioning of the organism, allowing it to perform its species-specific social
functions in the best way
B. a state of complete physical, spiritual and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease and
infirmity
C. the state of the body in which it functions optimally without signs of disease or any disorder
6. When conducting social-hygienic studies, the following methods Общественное
A. historical, geographical
B. statistical, historical, geographical
C. ethnic, statistical, correlation

D. economic, historical, statistical, sociological
7. Palliative care is a complex medical intervention: Общественное

A. for the provision of nursing care
B. rehabilitation
C. to get rid of the pain of terminally ill citizens
D. to provide medical and social assistance to terminally ill citizens.
8. Territorial polyclinics attached population assist: Общественное

A. high-tech
B. primary health care

C. specialized
D. antenatal clinic
9. The average duration of stay in hospital is determined by the formula: Общественное

A. number of bed-days spent by patients / number of beds deployed
B. number of bed-days spent by patients / number of patients discharged [discharged + dead]

C. number of beds / number of beds
D. number of patients eliminated / number of beds deployed
10. Power clinic is determined Общественное

A. population in the territory
B. number of visits per shift
C. the population in the therapeutic area
D. number of therapeutic sites
11. The ratio of the indicator "average bed occupancy" for general beds for the city is: Общественное
A. 290 days
B. 340 days
C. 365 days
D. 330 days
12. Medical activity is the activity directed on Общественное

A. increase in fertility
B. reduced mortality
C. maintain your health
D. combating abortion
13. Department of preventive medicine is included Общественное

A. hospital's;
B. polyclinics;
C. dispensary's;
D. maternity hospital;
14. Primary specialized medical assistance: Общественное

A. in polyclinics;
B.in day hospitals of the hospital;
C. in hospitals
D. in outpatient clinics
15. Specialized medical care is provided: Общественное
A. in polyclinics;
B. in day hospitals of polyclinics;
C. in hospitals
D. in outpatient clinics
16. Forms of medical care are not: Общественное

A. emergency medical assistance;
B. first aid;
C. planned medical care;
D. inpatient medical care.
17. The types of medical care does not apply: Общественное

A. primary health care;
B. specialized, including high-tech, medical care;
C. inpatient care;
D. emergency, including emergency specialized medical assistance;
18. Government spending on health care pays off through: Общественное

A. increase in the number of hospitalized
B. increase in life expectancy
C. restoration of working capacity

D. salary increase
19. A household survey of 10 families was conducted by students of 4th year MBBS, Wah Medical College In Общественное
the data they collected, the ages of heads of families were: 32, 34, 35, 36, 36, 42, 44, 46, 48, and 52. The здравоохранение
mean age of heads of families is
a) 36
b) 38.5
c) 40
d) 40.5
e) 42
20. To compare the death rate of Nepal with the death rate of Pakistan, the most appropriate measure is a Общественное
comparison between: здравоохранение
a) Age specific mortality rates
b) Crude death rates
c) Maternal mortality rates
d) Standardized mortality rates
e) Life expectancy
21. According to a study conducted by WHO the incidence of polio in Sindh province having a total population Общественное
of 20 million was 1 during the year 2007, which type of study was this: здравоохранение
a) Case report
b) Cross sectional
c) Case control
d) Cohort
22. The disability provides Общественное

A. attending physician
B. head of Department
C. the medical Commission of treatment-and-preventive institutions
D. chief specialist on examination of disability of the Ministry of health
23. A 55 years old hypertensive patient was admitted in the Medical Ward with cerebral strok. After treatment Общественное
he recovered but was unable to move his right lower lime He was advised physiotherapy. This type of
assistance is: здравоохранение
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
c) Rehabilitation
d) Disability limitation
24. The commission on social insurance organized: Общественное

A. as part of the state social insurance Fund
B. as part of trade Union bodies
C. in organizations, institutions, enterprises
D. as part of the administration of the district, city
25. Prevalence measures the burden of disease in a population inclusive of old & new cases. Prevalence of a Общественное
disease can be obtained from: здравоохранение
a) Quasi – experimental study
b) Cross – sectional study
c) Case – control study
d) Cohort study
e) Intervention study
26. In identifying cancer or suspicious, the doctor fills: Общественное

A. emergency notification of infectious disease
B. notification of the patient with the first established diagnosis of malignancy
C. certificate of disability
D. referral to hospital
27. In the structure of injuries and poisonings are the largest portion of: Общественное
A. injuries and poisoning due to production
B. injuries and poisoning at home
C. injuries and poisoning on the way to and from work
D. injuries and poisoning at work
28. The methods of study of morbidity does not include data obtained: Общественное
A. by turnover
B. for medical examinations
C. according to dispensary observation
D. causes of death
29. Include the age of the structural components of perinatal mortality: Общественное
A. stillbirth rate, early neonatal mortality
B. neonatal, post-neonatal mortality
C. infant mortality
D. post-neonatal mortality
30. In a universe comprising of 1500 children less than 5 years of age, 75 children with severe malnutrition Общественное
were found, If 75 new cases of severe malnutrition were registered over a period of one year, the здравоохранение
incidence rate for severe malnutrition during the same year is:
a) 50 / 1000
b) 53 / 1000
c) 55 / 1000
d) 60 / 100
e) 63 / 1000
31. What methods of observation are used to study, analyze and evaluate physical development? Общественное
A. Generalizing
B. Group
C. Individual
D. Collective
32. About 2500 deaths were reported in road side accidents during the year 2006 in Pakistan. If the total Общественное
number of deaths due to accidents is expressed against the mid-year population of Pakistan in year 2006 здравоохранение
this will give:
a) Crude death rate

b) Age specific death rate
c) Cause specific death rate
d) Case fatality rate
e) Proportional mortality rate
33. The frequency of all diseases recorded in a given year is: Общественное
A. Primary incidence
B. General incidence
C. The accumulated incidence
D. Soreness
34. The total incidence rates include: Общественное
A. Pathological lesion
B. Accumulated incidence
C. Prevalence
D. Health Index
35. To compare the death rate of India with the death rate of Pakistan, the most appropriate measure is a Общественное
comparison between: здравоохранение
a) Age specific mortality rates
b) Crude death rates
c) Maternal mortality rates
d) Standardized mortality rates
e) Life expectancy
36. The main medical causes of disability: Общественное

A. Circulatory system diseases
B. Neoplasms
C. Injuries, poisoning and other consequences of external causes
D. Respiratory diseases
37. The main legal causes of disability: Общественное
A. Disability since childhood
B. Injury
C. General disease
D. Labor injury
E. Occupational disease
38. Key indicators of disability: Общественное
A. The proportion of persons with disabilities since childhood
B. General disability
C. Primary disability
D. Secondary disability
39. Disability dates: Общественное
A. The first group - for 3 years
B. The first group - for 2 years
C. The second and third groups - for 1 year
D. In connection with the disaster at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant - for 5 years
40. Disability without specifying the period of re-examination established It is: Общественное
A. Women over 55
B. Men over 60
C. With anatomical defects
D. With persistent violations
41. An individual medical rehabilitation program determines: Общественное
A. The scope of rehabilitation measures
B. Methods of rehabilitation measures
C. Dates of rehabilitation measures
D. Rehabilitation groups
42. Professional section of an individual rehabilitation program A disabled person includes: Общественное
A. Career guidance здравоохранение
B. Professional education
C. Perfect mastery of the subject and situation
D. Adaptation at a specific workplace
43. A total of 10,000 Vietnam veterans, half of whom are known by combat records to have been in areas Общественное
where Agent Orange was used and half of whom are known to have been in areas where no Agent Orange здравоохранение
was used, are asked to give a history of cancer since discharge Which option explains the given example?
a) Case series report
b) Case-control study
c) Clinical trial
d) Cohort study
e) Case report
44. A total of 3500 patients with thyroid cancer are identified and surveyed by patient interviews regarding Общественное
past exposure to radiation. Which options explains the given example? здравоохранение
a) Case series report
b) Case-control study
c) Clinical trial
d) Cohort study
e) Case report
45. State sanitary and epidemiological regulation includes: Общественное

A. Development, examination, approval, publication, publication of a sanitary rules
B. The development of unified methodological approaches to research on scientific justification of
sanitary regulations
C. Terms of validity and termination of activity licenses
D. Monitoring the implementation of sanitary regulations
46. If the number of deaths from tuberculosis is expressed in relation to the total mid-year population, it is: Общественное
a) Case fatality rate
b) Age specific death rate
c) Proportionate mortality rate
d) Cause specific death rate
47. When a new treatment is developed that delays deaths but does not produce recovery from a chronic Общественное
disease, which of the following will occur. здравоохранение
a) Prevalence of the disease will decrease
b) Incidence of the disease will increase
c) Prevalence of the disease will increase
d) Incidence of the disease will decrease
48. Preventive sanitary supervision includes the following main elements: Общественное
A. Hygienic study and monitoring of the state of the air, land, soil
B. Ensuring compliance with sanitary standards in the production of food products
C. Coordination of allotment of land for construction
D. Approval of the construction project (reconstruction) of the facility
Admission to operation of the reconstructed facility
49. The main functions of bodies of state examination of working conditions: Общественное
A. Examination of the quality of certification of workplaces under the conditions labor
B. Education of high sanitary culture
C. Examination of working conditions in the design documentation for a new building, reconstruction
of industrial facilities
D. Examination of working conditions in the workplace analysis of working conditions in
organizations
50. At what levels of management, depending on the functions performed, Are the institutions of the sanitary- Общественное
epidemiological service of the Kyrgyz Republic divided? здравоохранение
A. The first level - district, city, zonal hygiene centers and epidemiology
B. The second level - the regional centers of hygiene, epidemiology and public health
C. The third level is the Republican Center for Hygiene, Epidemiology
D. The fourth level - the territorial center of hygiene and epidemiology
51. The structure of the zonal center of hygiene and epidemiology includes the following units: Общественное
A. Sanitary department
B. Department of Social and Hygienic Monitoring
C. Epidemiological department
D. Department of disinfection
52. Branches of sanitary-hygienic activity are: Общественное

A. Department of especially dangerous infections
B. Department of Food Hygiene
C. Department of Occupational Health
D. Department of hygiene
53. The trend in mortality from tuberculosis in England showed a steady fall in years 1855 – 1965 but Общественное
thereafter a gradual rise in the incidence of this disease was reported This type of time trend or fluctuation здравоохранение
in disease occurrence is termed as:
A. Epidemic trend
B. Cyclical trend
C. Seasonal trend
D. Secular trend
54. The health statistics department revealed that the sale of anti-Asthma drugs was more in those countries Общественное
where Asthma deaths were more This association may prove wrong when the individual based study здравоохранение
designs are conducted This association is an example of:
A. Ecological fallacy
B. Berkesonian bias
C. Indirect association
D. Temporal association
55. The indicator of surgical activity in a hospital is: Общественное

A. The percentage of the number of patients operated on to the number of patients those who left the
surgical department
B. The percentage of the number of surgical operations performed to the number of patients
dropped out of the surgical department
C. The percentage of patients operated on to the number of patients those discharged from the
surgical department
D. The percentage of the number of surgical operations performed to the number of patients
discharged from the surgical department
56. The number of deaths due to diarrhoea, total cases of measles, total number of accidents and the total Общественное
number of drug addicts were to be reported by a researcher. The best title given to all of this data would здравоохранение
be:
A. Mortality data
B. Addiction rate
C. Case fatality rate
D. Health related data
57. The calculation of the hospital mortality rate is based on the following forms of accounting and reporting Общественное
documentation: здравоохранение
A. The statistical map of the retired from the hospital (f. No. 066 / y)
№ Задание
1 A 36-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology outpatient clinic with a

two-month history of stiff hands and wrists. She mentions that the pain is
particularly bad for the first few hours after waking up and is affecting her
work asa dentist. On examination, the wrists, metacarpophalangeal joints and
proximalinterphalangeal joints are swollen and warm. What is the most
likely diagnosis? B. Report of the medical institution for the year (f.№30 / y)
C. The journal of registration of admission of patients and refusals of hospitalization (f.
A. Rheumatoid arthritis D. The consolidated statement of the accounting of the movement of patients and b
stationary (f. No. 016 / y)
B. Osteoarthritis
58. 24-hour mortality in stationary conditions is defined as:
C. Septic arthritis
A. The percentage of the number of deaths in the hospital on the first day to the numb
D. Polymyalgia rheumatica
admitted to the hospital on the first day
E. Reactive arthritis B. The number of deaths in the hospital on the first day per 100 patients admitted to th
C. The ratio of the number of deaths in the hospital on the first day to the number of d
2 A 85-year-old male presents with tiredness, weakness and hospital per 1000 patients
deteriorating confusion. On examination he is pale and confused, has D. The number of deaths in the hospital on the first day from the time of admission to t
ataxia on standing with loss of vibration sensation and exaggerated people served by this institution
leg reflexes. A full blood count reveals a pancytopaenia. Select the
most appropriate treatment for the following cases with anaemia: 59. Information necessary for determining mortality rates in a hospital:
A. Parenteral Iron A. The number of patients at the beginning of the year

B. The number of patients at the end of the year
B. Vitamin B12 injection C. The number of patients leaving the hospital
D. The number of deaths in the hospital
C. Blood Transfusion
60 The indicator of daily mortality is determined by:
D. Folate tablets
A. The ratio of the number of deaths on the first day to the number received in hospital
E. Oral Iron B. The ratio of the number of those admitted to the hospital to the number of deaths in
C. The ratio of the number of those who left the hospital to the number of those who d
day
D. The ratio of the number of deaths on the first day to the number of those who left th
3 A 60-year-old woman presents with lethargy and dysphagia. Oral
examination showed a smooth tongue, angular stomatitis and
koilonychia. Her haemoglobin concentration is 8g/dL with an MCV
of 60fL (80-96). Choose the SINGLE most likely cause
A. hereditary spherocytosis
B. sickle cell anaemia
C. iron deficiency anaemia
D. malaria
1 The occurence of hyperthyroidism following Хирургия
administration of supplemental iodine to subject with
endemic iodine deficiency goitre is known as:
a. Jod-Basedow effect
b. Wolff-Chaikoff effect
c. Thyrotoxicosis factitia
d. De-Quervains thyroiditis
2 Which of the following most closely represents the Хирургия

lowest detection limit for third generation TSH assays?
a. 0.4 mIU/L
b. 0.04 mIU/L
c. 0.004 mIU/L
d. 0.0004 mIU/L
3 Recurrent laryngeal nerve is in close association with: Хирургия

a. Superior thyroid artery
b. Inferior thyroid artery

c. Middle thyroid vein
d. Superior thyroid vein
4 Normal thyroid weight varies …….. with dietary iodine Хирургия

content:
a. Directly proportional
b. Inversely
c. Inverse cubically
d. Not fixed
5 Average weight of thyroid gland where diet is rich in Хирургия

iodine is:
a. 10-12 gm
b. 14-16 gm
c. 18-20 gm
d. 28-30 gm
6 Protein bound iodine measures secretary function of Хирургия

thyroid in all of the following circumstances except:
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Following hemithyroidectomy
c. During ampicillin therapy
d. Asthamatics on ephedrine
7 Isthmus of thyroid gland overlies the: Хирургия

a. 1st tracheal cartilage
b. 1st and 2nd tracheal cartilage
c. 2nd and 3rd and 4th tracheal cartilage
d. 3rd and 4th tracheal cartilage
8 Scabard trachea is seen in: Хирургия

a. Thyroid cancer
b. Thyroiditis
c. Goitre
d. All of the above
9 A new born with a goiter large enough to cause Хирургия

dyspnoea is best treated with:
a. Sulfonamides
b. Tracheostomy
c. T3
d. Iodides
10 Which of the following factors contribute to the Хирургия

development of duodenal ulcer?
a. I-131
b. I-125
c. Tc-99
d. P-32
11 Incidence of Gallstone disease is increased in: Хирургия

a. Truncal vagotomy
b. Jejunal resection
c. Ileal resection
d. Right hemicolectomy
12 Ramu, a 40-years old male, a chronic smoker presents Хирургия

with claudication and a medial leg ulcer. For the past
following
procedures would not relieve his rest pain:

a. Lumbar sympathectomy
b. Omentoplasty
c. Conservative amputation
d. Femoropopliteal bypass
13 Which one is not true regarding Buerger’s disease? Хирургия

a. Men are usually involved
b. Occurs below 50 years of age
c. Smoking is predisposing factor
d. Veins and nerves are never involved
14 All of the following are the clinical feature of Хирургия

thromboangitis obliterans except:
a. Raynaud’s phenomenon
b. Claudication of extremities
c. Absence of popliteal pulse
d. Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis

15 Buerger’s disease is associated with: Хирургия
a. Smoking
b. Poor nutrition
c. Alcohol
d. Prolonged standing
16 Following are radiological evidence of Achalasia cardia Хирургия

except:
a. Smooth narrowing of esophagus
b. Dilated tortuous esophagus
c. Absence of air in the fundus
d. Exaggerated peristalsis
17 Bird’s beak appearance is seen in: Хирургия

a. Megacolon
b. Intussusception
c. Achalasia
d. Ulcerative colitis
18 Achalasia cardia is characterized by all except: Хирургия

a. Most common in women
b. Dysphagia is most common symptom
c. Premalignant condition
d. Parrot beak’s appearance
19 Management of an open wound seen 12 hours after the Хирургия

injury:
A. Suturing
B. Debridement and suture
C. Secondary suturing
D. Heal by granulation
20 A clean incised wound heals by: Хирургия
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Excessive scaring
D. None of the above
21 Drug used for intralesional injection keloid is: Хирургия

A. Prednisolone
B. Triamcinolone
C. Androgen
D. Hydrocortisone
22 Keloid scar is made up: Хирургия

A. Dense collagen
B. Loose fibrous tissue
C. Granulamatous tissue
D. Loose areolar tissue
23 What is true about keloids? Хирургия

A. It appears immediately after surgery
B. It appears a few days after surgery
C. It is limited in its distribution
D. It is common in old people
24 Emergency management for tension pneumothorax is: Хирургия

a. Thoracotomy
b. Insertion of a chest tube
c. Needle decompression
d. Tracheostomy
25 Blood supply to appendix. Хирургия

A. appendicular artery.
B. celiac artery
C. Mesenteric artery.
D. sigmoidal artery
26 MOST COMMON congenital heart disease. Хирургия
A.ASD
B.VSD
C.PDA
D.CORACTATION OF AORTA
27 Development of heart is completed by: Хирургия

A. 6 weeks
B. 10 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 24 weeks
28 Blalock-Taussig shunt refers to shunt between: Хирургия

A. Right subclavian to pulmonary artery
B. Left subclavian to pulmonary artery
C. Aorta to pulmonary artery
D. Internal mammary to pulmonary artery
29 For a child of transposition of great vessels to survive Хирургия

which of the following be present:
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. PDA
30 A patient operated for direct inguinal hernia developed Хирургия

anesthesia at the root of the penis and adjacent part of
the scrotum, the nerve likely to be injured is:
a. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve (supply dartos

muscle)
b. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
c. Iliohypogastric nerve.
d. Ilioinguinal nerve
31 Triangle of doom is related to: Хирургия

a. Laparoscopic Nissen’s fundoplication
b. Laparoscopic hernia surgery
c. Endoscopic thyroidectomy
d. Thoracoscopic thymectomy
32 Which of these would you like to do for a case of Хирургия

strangulated hernia?
a. X-ray
b. USG abdomen
c. Aspiration of contents of sac
d. Correction of hypovolemia and Prepare OT for urgent

surgery
33 In a case of strangulated hernia management is: Хирургия

a. USG-abdomen
b. X-ray abdomen
c. Aspirate contents
d. Immediate surgery & IV fluids
34 Extradural hemorrhage commonly occurs from tearing Хирургия

of:
a. Maxillary artery
b. Middle meningeal artery
c. Bridging veins
d. All of the above
35 During surgery of hernia, the sac of a strangulated Хирургия

inguinal hernia should be opened at the:
a. Neck
b. Body
c. Fundus
d. Deep ring
36 Treatment of strangulated hernia is: Хирургия

a. Observation
b. Immediate surgery
c. Manual reduction
d. Analgesics
37 Which is the 1st sign of strangulation of inguinal hernia? Хирургия

a. Tense
b. Tenderness
c. Irreducible
d. Redness
38 During laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair a tacker was Хирургия

accidently placed below and lateral to the iliopubic tract.
Postoperatively the patient complained of pain and
soreness
in the thigh. This is due to the involvement of:
a. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

b. Ilioinguinal nerve
c. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
d. Obturator nerve
39 Most common nerve injured during hernia surgery: Хирургия

a. Ilioinguinal nerve
b. Iliohypogastric nerve
c. Genitofemoral nerve
d. None
39 True about femoral hernia is: Хирургия

a. Occurs exclusively in females
b. Pregnancy is common cause
c. Doesn’t strangulate
d. In males associated with cryptorchidism
40 Which one of the following organisms produces signs and Хирургия

symptoms that mimic acute appendicitis
A.Enteropathic Escherichia coli
B.Enterobius vermicularis
C.Trichomonas hominis
D.Yersinia enterocolitica
41 Toxic megacolon is seen in Хирургия

A.Chronic non specific ulcerative colitis
B.Crohns disease
C.Colonic diverticulosis
D.Hamaratomatous polyp
42 Rotation of sigmoid volvulus occurs Хирургия

A.Clockwise
B.Anticlockwise
C.Initially clockwise later anticlockwise
D.Either clockwise or anticlockwise
43 The most useful intestigation for profuse lower Хирургия

gastrointestinal bleeding is
A.Proctosigmoidoscopy
B.Colonoscopy
C.Double contrast barium enema
D.Selective arteriolography
44 The fold of Treves is Хирургия

A.The fold of mucous membrane projecting into the
lumen of the rectum
B.The ileo-appendicular fold of peritoneum
C.The fold of mucous membrane around the papilla of

Vater
D.The fold of peritoneum over the inferior mesenteric

vein
45 Signe-de-Dance is Хирургия
A.Empty right iliac fossa in intussusception
B.Pincer shaped appearance in barium enema in

intussusception
C.Tenderness at the McBurneys Point
D.Passing of large quantities of urine in hydronephrosis
46 The term “Left sided appendicitis” as popularly called is Хирургия

nothing but
A.Diverticulitis
B.Ascending colitis
C.Descending colitis
D.Typhilitis
47 The diagnosis of congenital megacolon is confirmed by Хирургия

A.Clinical features
B.Barium enema
C.Rectal biopsy
D.Recto-sigmoidoscopy
48 All of the following extraintestinal manifestations of Хирургия

ulcerative colitis respond to colectomy except
A.Primary sclerosing cholangitis
B.Pyoderma gangrenosum
C.Episcleritis
D.Peripheral arthralgia
49 According to “rule of nines”, burns involving perineum Хирургия

are:
a. 1%
b. 9%
c. 18%
d. 27%
50 Surgical indications in inflammatory bowel diseases are Хирургия

A/E –
A. Obstruction
B. Perianal complication
C. Extraintestinal complication
D. Stricture
E. Malignancy
51 Malignant tracheoesophageal fistula best treated with: Хирургия
a. Radiotherapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. Stenting
d. Tube
e. Surgical correction
52 Most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula is: Хирургия

a. H-type
b. Lower end connected to trachea
c. Upper end connected to trachea
d. Both ends blind
53 Which one of the following life - threatening congenital Хирургия

anomalies in the newborn presents with
polyhydramnios, aspiration pneumonia, excessive
salivation and difficulty in passing a nasogastric tube?
a. Choanal atresia
b. Tracheo-esophageal fistula
c. Diaphragmatic hernia
d. Gastroschisis
54 A foreign body usually gets arrested in which part of Хирургия

esophagus?
a. Cardiac part of the esophagus
b. In the middle third of the esophagus
c. Below the cricopharynx

d. Above the cricopharynx
55 Which of the following is true about esophageal Хирургия

anatomy?
a. Cervical esophagus is posterior and little right to

trachea
b. Thoracic esophagus is crossed by aortic arch

posteriorly
c. Thoracic esophagus is crossed by left main bronchus

posteriorly
d. Lower esophagus before entering the diaphragm is

anterior and left sided
56 Gold standard diagnostic test in varicose veins is: Хирургия

a. Photoplethysmography
b. Duplex imaging
c. Ultrasonography
d. Radio-labeled fibrinogen study
57 Which one of the following reagents is not used as Хирургия

sclerosant in the treatment of bleeding varies?
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Ethanolamine oleate
c. Phenol
d. Sodium morrhuate
58 Ligation of which nerve will lead to parasthesia and pain Хирургия

on the dorsum of foot during venesections of great
saphenous
vein:
a. Sural nerve
b. Geniculate
c. Saphenous nerve
d. Deep peroneal nerve
59 Bisgard treatment is for: Хирургия

a. Arterial ulcer
b. Venous ulcer
c. TAO
d. Raynaud’s phenomenon
60 In ceap classification for chronic venous disorders, CO Хирургия

stands, CO (zero) for:
a. No signs of venous disease
b. Reticular veins
c. Varicose veins
d. Oedema
61 A patient presented with pulsating varicose veins of the Хирургия

lower limb. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome
b. Tricuspid regurgitation
c. DVT
d. Right ventricular failure
62 Allen’s test is used to diagnose: Хирургия

a. Thoracic outlet syndrome
b. Palmar arch insufficiency

c. Superior vena cava syndrome
d. Varicose veins
63 Butcher’s thigh is: Хирургия

a. Vastus lateral rupture
b. Subcutaneous lipodermatosclerosis
c. Bursa in adductor canal
d. Accidental injury to major vessels in thigh or groin
64 Blalock-Taussig shunt refers to shunt between: Хирургия

A. Right subclavian to pulmonary artery
B. Left subclavian to pulmonary artery
C. Aorta to pulmonary artery
D. Internal mammary to pulmonary artery
65 Complications of hemithyroidectomy include all of the Хирургия

following except?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Wound hematoma
c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
d. External branch of superior laryngeal nerve palsy
66 Most dangerous complication in a patient who had Хирургия

undergone thyroid surgery and develop hematoma at
the operative site:
a. Respiratory obstruction
b. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
c. Dysphagia
d. Shock
67 A patient undergoes thyroid surgery, following which he Хирургия

develops perioral tingling. Blood calcium is 8.9 meq/L.
Next step is:
a. Vitamin D orally
b. Oral calcium and vitamin D
c. Intravenous calcium gluconate and serial monitoring
d. Wait for calcium to decrease to <7.0 before talking

further
action
68 Size compatibility is not a problem in transplant Хирургия
of:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Intestine
D. Heart
69 In transplant matching AB blood group donor Хирургия

can donate organ to which blood group
recipient:
A. AB
B. A
C. B
D. Any of the above
70 Avascular bone necrosis is a complication of: Хирургия

A. Cyclosporin
B. Prednisolone
C. Azalhioprine
71 Cyclosporine induced immunosuppression is Хирургия

through action on:
A. IL2
B. Gamma interferon
C. Tumour necrosis factor
72 Which of the following tumors is most radioresistant Хирургия

A. Seminoma
B. Hepatoma
C. Melanoma
D. Small cell lung cancer
73 Maximum tolerable radiotherapy dose of Хирургия

spinal cord is
A. 20 Gy
B. 30 Gy
C. 50 Gy
D. 75 Gy
74 60Gy dose be usually delivered in: Хирургия

A. 10 fractions
B. 15 fractions
C. 30 fractions
D. 60 fractions
75 Drugs that act on all phases of cell cycle are all Хирургия
except:
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Bleomycin
C. Nitrosoureas
D. Doxorubicin
76 Cyclophosphamide is: Хирургия
A. Antimetabolite
B. Alkylating agent
C. Alkaloid
D. Antibiotic
77 Cancers marginally responsive to chemotherapy Хирургия

are all except:
A. Renal carcinoma
B. Thyroid carcinoma
C. Ovarian carcinoma
D. Malignant melanoma
78 Cancers curable with chemotherapy are all Хирургия

except:
A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Wilms’ tumor
C. Hepatoma
D. Choriocarcinoma
79 Which of the following is a biological modifier Хирургия

helpful in cancer therapy:
A. EGF receptor antagonist
B. CDK inhibitor
C. Metalloproteinase inhibitor
D. Each of the above
80 Normal portal vein pressure is Хирургия

A.<3 mm Hg
B.3-5 mm Hg
C.5-10 mm Hg
D.10-12 mm Hg
81 Anemia is greater in which of the following gastric Хирургия

resection
A.Billorth II
B.Billorth I
C.Both of the above are equal
D.Neither of the above
82 The operation of choice in congenital pyloric stenosis is Хирургия

A.Pyloroplasty
B.Pyloromyotomy
C.Gastro-jejunostomy
D.Gastro-duodenostomy
83 Which is true of Ulcerative colitis Хирургия

A.Sting sign of kantor positive
B.Skip lesions are seen

C.Rectum is always involved
D.Fistulas are common
84 .Which is true regarding Hirschsprungs disease Хирургия

A.More in females
b.more in males
C.Regular dilatation is effective
D.Rectal biopsy diagnostic
85 Sulfonamide useful in treating ulcerative colitis is Хирургия

A.Sulfadiazine
B.Sulfasalazine
C.Sulfamethoxazole
D.Sulfadimidine
86 Investigation of choice in peptic ulcer perforation is Хирургия

A.USG
B.X-ray abdomen
C.Paracentasis
D.CT scan
87 .The operation wherein the stump of the stomach is Хирургия

directly anastomosed to the stump of the duodenum is
called
A.Polya gastrectomy
B.Hoffmeister gastrectomy
C.Billroth I
D.Billroth II gastrectomy
88 .The earliest symptom in primary biliary cirrhosis is Хирургия

A.Jaundice
B.Pruritus
C.Melanosis
D.Vomiting
89 A person who had undergone gastrojejunotomy Хирургия

suddenly develops severe diarrhoea.Which should be
suspected
A.Gastric carcinoma
B.Tb abdomen
C.Gastrojejunocolic fistula
D.Gastric amoebiasis
90 .About 6-8 hours after peptic perforation the Хирургия

disappearance of abdominal wall rigidity is due to
A.Cessation of acid secretion in the stomach
B.Revival from initial shock
C.Dilution of acid in the peritoneal cavity
D.Fatigue of reflex arc
91 What complication commonly occurs in anterior Хирургия

duodenal ulcer
A.Bleeding
B.Penetration
C.Perforation
D.Stricture formation
92 Small intestine is sutured by Хирургия

A.Non-absorbable in 2 layers
B.Absorbable in 2 layers
C.Inner absorbable and outer non absorbable
D.Inter non absorbable and outer absorbable
93 What is common in both acute and chronic pancreatitis? Хирургия

A.Pseudocyst
B.Abscess formation
C.DIC
D.Pancreatic head mass
94 Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis Хирургия

A.Gall stones
B.Tropical pancreatitis
C.Pancreas divisium
D.Alcohol
95 Most common complication of acute and chronic Хирургия

pancreatitis is
A.Portal vein thrombosis
B.Pancreatic abscess
C.Pseudocyst
D.Pancreatic head mass
96 In acute pancreatitis,surgery is indicated in which one of Хирургия

the following conditions
A.Acute fluid collection
B.Acute pseudocyst
C.Sterile pancreatic necrosis
D.Infected pancreatic necrosis
97 Multiple liver secondaries are most common in Хирургия

A.Head of pancreas
B.Stomach
C.Gall bladder
D.Periampullary
98 Tenesmus occurs in lesions of Хирургия

A.Ileum
B.Right side of colon
C.Descending colon
D.Sigmoid colon
99 .For bleeding varices of the oesophagus the common Хирургия

operation is
A.Portocaval shunt
B.Gastrectomy
C.Splenectomy
D.All of the above
100 Generalised diffuse peritonitis has been compared to Хирургия

second and third degree burns of
A.13%
B.30%
C.45%
D.60%
№ Вопросы и задания Дисцип
лины
1. The infant can sit without support, roll over and crawl, but cannot stand on his own. He responds to his own name. Propedeutics of
Give the most likely age for this baby. childhood diseases 1
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 15 months
e) 4 months
2. The child can walk well holding on to furniture, but wobbles slightly when walking alone. She uses a gentle claw grip Propedeutics of
to pick up the marble, and can release the cube into the cup after being shown to do so. The chief tries to build a two- childhood diseases 1
dice tower with mixed success. Give the most likely age for this baby.
a) 2 months
b) 4 months
c) 6 months
d) 9 months
e) 12 months
3. Define the diseases which usually appear in the neonatal period. Propedeutics of
childhood diseases 1
a) Embriopathy
b) Chronic somatic diseases
c) Acute children infections
d) Food poisoning
e) All answers are correct
4. Identify the earliest sign of rickets in children. Propedeutics of

a) Craniotabes
b) Rickety rosary
c) Bow legs
d) Harrison's groove
e) Square head
5. A child's growth velocity is normal but bone developments is not according to the chronological age. Determine the Propedeutics of
diagnosis of the child. childhood diseases 1
a) Genetic disease
b) Dwarfism
c) Constitutional delay
d) Family short stature
e) Chromosomal disease
6. Indicate the signs of hypertonic biliary dyskinesia in duodenal probing in children. Propedeutics of
a) Decreased portion B
b) Increased portion A
c) Increased portion B
d) Increased portion C
e) Decreased portion C
7. Determine the signs of Cretinism in children. Propedeutics of
a) Disproportionate dwarfism
b) Short stature with long trunk
c) Short stature with short trunk
d) Long stature with long trunk
e) Long stature with short trunk
8. Describe the laboratory signs that indicate pyuria in children. Propedeutics of
a) leukocytes 20 in vision, E/Coli more than 100 thousand \ ml
b) leukocytes entirely, bacteria entirely

c) erythrocytes entirely
d) leukocytes 5-7 in n \ vision
e) E/Coli less than 100 thousand \ ml
9. Choose what is the auscultatory data in the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis: Propedeutics of
a) Continued inspiration
b) Weakening of breathing
c) Dry rales and moist diffuse rales
d) Crepitus
e) Local moist rales
10. Specify the main radiological signs useful in the diagnosis of acute bronchitis. Propedeutics of
a) Perivascular and peribronchial infiltration
b) Extra clear lung field
c) Hyperinflation
d) Random scattered patches of consolidation
e) Local infiltration of lung tissue
11. Specify what is the most typical sign of tricuspid insufficiency: Propedeutics of
a) Systolic murmur
b) Diastolic murmur
c) Loud heart sounds
d) Pulsation of the neck veins and liver
e) Peripheral edema
12. Indicate what is the normal ratio of Respiration: HR from birth to 1 month of life: Propedeutics of
a) 1:3
b) 1:4
c) 1:5
d) 1:2
e) 1:6
13. A patient with acquired heart failure has a diastolic pressure of 0 mm Hg. What kind of heart failure does the child Propedeutics of
have? childhood diseases 1
a) Rheumatic heart disease

b) Aortic stenosis
c) Mitral regurgitation
d) Mitral stenosis
e) Aortic insufficiency
14. Describe the percussion data in obstructive bronchitis in children. Propedeutics of
a) Local dullness
b) Box sound
c) Pulmonary sound
d) Dull sound
e) Crepitation
15. Choose the correct option, Crepitus is a symptom of: Propedeutics of

A. Major pneumonia
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Dry pleurisy
D. Chronic bronchitis
E. Emphysema
16. A district pediatrician examined a 9-year-old child who was troubled by a wet cough and shortness of breath during Propedeutics of
physical exertion. The child has been sick for 6 years: frequent respiratory diseases, 1-2 times a year - pneumonia. childhood diseases 2
After analyzing the anamnesis and clinical examination, a chronic lung disease was diagnosed. What is the most
characteristic symptom of this disease?
a) Shortness of breath
b) Perioral cyanosis
c) Pale skin
d) Persistent cough
e) Subfebrile temperature
17. A child is 3 months old. He is hospitalized to determine the cause of the heart murmur. Complaints of parents: low Propedeutics of
weight gain, bouts of shortness of breath and cyanosis, which are aggravated by physical exertion. Systolic murmur in childhood diseases 2
the 3rd intercostal space on the left, systolic murmur under the 2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum, right
ventricular hypertrophy. What diagnosis should be suspected?
a) Tetralogy of Fallot
b) Infective endocarditis
c) Ventricular septal defect
d) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
e) Atrial septal defect
18. The boy is 3 years old. Complaints: shortness of breath, fatigue, frequent episodes of respiratory diseases in history. Propedeutics of
The boundaries of relative dullness of the heart are expanded to the left, increased heart sound II in the II intercostal childhood diseases 2
space on the left, hard systole-diastolic murmur in the II intercostal space on the left and above the clavicle (“machine
noise”), which is carried out along the interscapular space. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Patent ductus arteriosus

b) Aortic stenosis
c) Atrial septal defect
d) Ventricular septal defect
e) Isolated pulmonary stenosis
19. Complaints in the pathology of the nervous system are: Propedeutics of
a) Cough with copious sputum, headaches, runny nose
b) Headaches, sore throat, changes in muscle tone
c) Headaches, runny nose, cough with copious sputum
d) Headaches, impaired consciousness, changes in muscle tone
e) Cough with copious sputum, changes in muscle tone, runny nose
20. The palm-oral reflex (Babkin) persists until the age of: Neonatology with
clinical genetics
a) 12 months
b) 1 month
c) 6 months
d) 3 months
e) 8 months
21. Primitive reflexes of newborns are: Neonatology with
clinical genetics
a) Sucking reflex and rooting reflex
b) Babinsky reflex and tendon reflex
c) Palm-oral reflex and corneal reflex
d) Moro reflex and conjunctival reflex
e) Sucking reflex and conjunctival reflex
22. Feature of the skin in children is: Propedeutics of
a) Good basement membrane development
b) Low water content and poor blood supply
c) Elastic fibers are poorly developed
d) Collagen fibers are thick
e) Good water content and poor blood supply
23. The secondary elements of the skin in children include: Propedeutics of
A) Papule, Vesicula, Bulla childhood diseases 1
B) Lichenification, Scale, Urtica
C) Macula, Hyperpigmentation, Depigmentation
D) Papule, Scale, Urtica
E) Crusta, Hyperpigmentation, Depigmentation
24. Irregularly shaped hemorrhages larger than 5 mm in children is called: Propedeutics of
a) Purpura
b) Petechiae
c) Ekhymosis
d) Gematoma
e) Bleeding
25. A whitish-yellow benign superficial horny cyst on the forehead, eyelids and face of an infant is called: Neonatology with
clinical genetics
a) Lanugo
b) Papule
c) Vesicula
d) Milia
e) Macula
26. Put your preliminary diagnosis of the child. The newborn has no signs of breathing, he Immature child is cyanotic, Neonatology with
does not respond to irritation, the pulse is about 90 beats per 1 minute, the limbs hang down. clinical genetics
a) Severe asphyxia
b) Immature child
c) Moderate asphyxia
d) Dead born
e) Prematurity of 1 degree
27. Specify the time of disappearance of cephalohematoma in newborns. Neonatology with
clinical genetics
a) 3-5 months
b) 2-5 weeks
c) 3-5 weeks
d) 5-7 weeks
e) 1-2 weeks
28. Define the most causative agents of acute non-obstructive pyelonephritis in children. Child diseases 2
(faculty pediatrics 1)
a) E. Coli
b) Staphylococcus
c) streptococcus
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) Rotovirus
29. Choose the most characteristic dyspeptic syndrome in gastroduodenitis in children. Child diseases 2
a) decreased appetite, nausea, vomiting
b) vomiting, with an admixture of bile, belching, heartburn
c) vomiting, belching, decreased appetite
d) decreased appetite, diarrhea
е) nausea, vomiting, constipation
30. Perform secondary prevention of Acute rheumatic fever in children. Child diseases 2
a) bicillin
b) penicillin
c) azithromycin
d) ceftriaxone
e) amikacin
31. A girl, 12 years, complains of paroxysmal pain in the right upper quadrant, which increases during exercise, after Child diseases 2
eating fatty foods, nausea, loss of appetite, headache, fatigue. Sick for 5 years. These objective examination: skin pale (faculty pediatrics 1)
tongue with yellow-gray stratification. Abdomen soft, painful in the right upper quadrant, positive symptoms Ortner,
Murphy, Kera, the liver acts from the edge of costal arch to 2 cm edge sharp.The tendency to constipation.These
ultrasound: thickened wall and sealed intrahepatic bile ducts and gall bladder. What is the main diagnosis you set
sick?
a) Acute cholecystitis
b) Chronic cholecystitis
c) Chronic cholecystocholangitis
d) Biliary dyskinesia hypokinetic by type
e) Biliary dyskinesia hypertensive type
32. The child, 2 months, was born in October, weighing 3000 g, is on the breastfed. Now the weight is 4400 grams, Child diseases 2
neuro-psychological development age. During the inspection, clean skin, pink; organs and systems - no change. What (faculty pediatrics 1)
is the prevention of rickets be assigned to the child?
a) Vitamin D 500 IU per day
b) Vitamin D to 2000 IU per day
c) Ascorbic acid 30 mg 3 times a day

d) Calcium gluconate 400-500 mg per day
e) Vitamin D 500 IU per day3.
34. A 1.5-year-old child was admitted to the hospital on the 3rd day of the disease. He became acutely ill, the temperature Child diseases 2
was 39.2 C, weakness, coughing, refusal to eat, shortness of breath appeared from the 3rd day, cough intensified. (faculty pediatrics 1)
Upon admission: adynamic, pale, cyanosis of the nasolabial triangle, temperature - 38.5 C, respiratory rate - 52 per
minute. Above the lungs - shortening of the sound in the right scapular region. On the R-gram: homogeneous
infiltration of segments 8-10 on the right. Make a diagnosis.
a) Obstructive bronchitis
b) Bronchitis
c) Interstitial pneumonia
d) Bronchiolitis
e) Segmental pneumonia
35. A 14-year-old male patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the Child diseases 2
abdomen and inability to digest. Upper endoscopy reveals diffuse inflammation of the stomach lining. What is the (faculty pediatrics 1)
MOST likely associated infection?
a) Streptococcus
b) Helicobacter pylori
c) Clostridium difficile
d) Lactobacillus
e) Enterobacter
36. A 16-year-old girls presents to the emergency department with complaints of pain in her abdomen that started an hour Child diseases 2
after eating lunch. Which of the following is the diagnostic modality of choice in this patient? (faculty pediatrics 1)
a) CT scan with contrast

b) CT scan without contrast
c) Ultrasound
d) Nuclear medicine scan
e) X-ray
37. A 13-year-old male presents with a history of productive cough and low grade fever. He was previously healthy and Child diseases 2
does not suffer from any chronic ailments. He is diagnosed with tracheobronchitis. What is the next step in (faculty pediatrics 1)
management?
a) Supportive care only

b) Inhaled steroids
c) Inhaled bronchodilators
d) Oral third generation cephalosporins
e) Oral neuraminidase inhibitors
38. Which of the following features will allow a baby with transposition of the great vessels to remain alive at birth? Child diseases 2
a) Patent ductus arteriosus
b) Mitral valve stenosis
c) Pulmonary atresia
d) An arteriovenous malformation in the lungs allowing for shunting
e) Surfactant administration at birth
39. Which of the following conditions is characterised by fever with or without abdominal pain, loin pain together with a Child diseases 2
significant growth of bacteria (usually a single organism) on urine culture? (faculty pediatrics 1)
a) Acute pyelonephritis
b) Acute cystitis
c) Chronic kidney disease
d) Vesicoureteral reflux
e) Renal stones
40. Find the probable diagnosis. 11-year-old girl during a month is complaining of pain in the upper abdomen. They Child diseases 2
appears at any time of the day: morning on an empty stomach, at night, after 1-1.5 hours after eating. Gregersen test is (faculty pediatrics 1)
positive. He is emotionally labile. Temperature is normal. There is a tendency to constipation. The father of a boy
also has frequent abdominal pain.
a) Gallstone disease
b) Biliary dyskinesia
c) Ulcerative colitis
d) Appendicitis
e) Peptic ulcer
41. Describe the CHD patient ductus arteriosus.The neonate was born in term. Clinically it is observed tachycardia, Child diseases 2
arrhythmia, respiratory problems, shortness of breath, continuous machine-like murmur. Patent ductus arteriosus is (faculty pediatrics 1)
diagnosed clinically.
a) Cyanotic heart defect with right-to-left shunt

b) Acquired heart disease
c) Acyanotic heart defect with left-to-right shunt
d) Acyanotic heart defect without shunt
e) Complication of the congenital heart disease
42. Put the diagnosis. Child is 2 years. He is Ill at the first time. Sick 2 days: t° - 37.4°C, dry cough, RR 60 per min, Child diseases 2
expiratory dyspnea. There is box sound over lungs. Auscultation reveals hard breathing, crepitation and dry whistling. (faculty pediatrics 1)
a) Bronchiolitis
b) Congenital stridor
c) Acute obstructive bronchitis
d) Pneumonia
e) Acute bronchitis
43. Indicate the best method for estimating the amount of proteinuria in a 2-year-old child with nephrotic syndrome. Child diseases 2
a) Dipstick testing
b) 24 hr urine protein
c) Spot urine sample for protein/creatinine ratio
d) Microalbuminuria
e) Spot urine sample for creatinine ratio
44. In what cases is it permissible to treat of acute pneumonia in children at home? Child diseases 2
a) Uncomplicated form in a child under 1 year of age
b) Pneumonia complicated by cardiovascular syndrome
c) Uncomplicated form of pneumonia in a 4-year-old child
d) Pneumonia in a child from a socially disadvantaged family
e) Protracted course of pneumonia with atelectasis of one segment in a 7-year-old child
45. Specify the time of disappearance of cephalohematoma in newborns. Neonatology with
clinical genetics
a) 3-5 months
b) 2-5 weeks
c) 3-5 weeks
d) 5-7 weeks
e) 1-2 weeks
46. Specify the the risk factors for pediatric acute kidney injury. Child diseases 2
a) Critically ill patients, nephrotoxin use, comorbid conditions (faculty pediatrics 1)
b) All children < 5 years, fever, comorbid conditions
c) Critically ill adolescents, fever, comorbid conditions
d) Critically ill patients > 5 years, hypertension, fever
e) All children < 5 years, comorbid conditions, hypertension
47. A mother notices a lump on her 5-year-old son’s neck. He complains about pain in the region and difficulty IMCI and MHS
swallowing. Appetite and intake are normal. On examination, he is afebrile with a 3 × 3-cm area of mild erythema,
fluctu ance, and tenderness of the central anterior neck. The mass moves superiorly when he opens his mouth. His
oropharynx is clear. Which of the following symptoms was most likely present during the preceding week?
a) Diarrhea
b) Abdominal pain
c) Dizziness
d) Measles
e) Cough
48. A 3-year-old boy is admitted to the emergency room with indrawing of the lower part of the chest, asthmatic IMCI and MHS
breathing, unproductive cough, fever up to 39C, weakness. The MOST likely IMCI indicator of difficulty breathing
and coughing is:
a) Unproductive cough
b) Asthmoid breathing
c) Indrawing of the lower part of the chest
d) Increasing the temperature to 39c
e) Weakness
49. A boy is 20 months old. He has had fever for 5 days, cough for 3 days; he is able to drink, does not have convulsions, IMCI and MHS
and is not lethargic or unconscious. His breathing rate is 51 per minute, there is no chest indrawing or stridor or
wheeze. The boy does not have diarrhoea, but has generalized rash and a runny nose. There is no clouding of the
cornea or mouth ulcers. The boy should be classified as having:
a) No pneumonia: cough or cold
b) Uncomplicated malaria
c) Pneumonia, measles
d) Measles, severe pneumonia or very severe disease
e) Measles with eye or mouth complications, very severe febrile disease
50. When taken, a 3-year-old child has a cough and a temperature of 37.4°C for two days. MOST likely IMCI IMCI and MHS
classification:
a) Pneumonia
b) Severe pneumonia or very severe illness
c) Stridor
d) No pneumonia, cough or cold
e) Asthmoid breathing
51. Identify the treatment of chronic severe forms of autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura in children. Child diseases 2
(hospital pediatrics)
a) Prednisolone
b) IG I/V
c) Antibiotics
d) Rituximab
e) Vitamins
52 Identify the most common ethiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in children. Child diseases 2
a) Pneumonia
b) Sepsis
c) Otitis
d) Influenza
e) Hemolytic anemia
53 Specify the time of blood glucose assessment In children with ketoacidosis. Child diseases 2
a) 30 min
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hours
d) 3 hours
e) 5 hours
54 A 11-year-old boy has a history of allergic reaction to penicillin in the form of urticaria. Intramuscular administration Pediatrics 3
of ceftriaxone after 30 minutes there was weakness, headache, palpitations, a feeling of horror. administration of the
drug hyperemia 10 cm AD-80/40 mm Hg, heart rate-120. Determine the diagnosis.
a) Vegetative-vascular dystonic
b) Anaphylactic shock
c) Anaphylactoid shock
d) Hemorrhage in the brain
e) Contact dermatitis
55 A child was taken to a hospital with focal changes in the skin folds. The child was anxious during examination, Pediatrics 3
examination revealed dry skin with solitary papulous elements and ill-defined lichenification zones. Skin
eruption was accompanied by strong itch. The child usually feels better in summer, his condition is getting worse in
winter. The child has been artificially fed since he was 2 months old. He has a history of exudative diathesis.
Grandmother by his mother's side has bronchial asthma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Urticaria
b) Contact dermatitis
c) Atopic dermatitis
d) Seborrheal eczema
e) Strophulus
56 A 7 month old infant is evaluated for gastrointestinal bleeding and easy bruising. Physical examination shows Child diseases 2
shortened forearms, bruising and petechiae Her сomplete blood count (CBC) is normal with the exception of a (hospital pediatrics)
platelet count of 13,000/mm3. Based on these findings what management do you offer to the family?
a) Gene testing to confirm the diagnosis

b) Supportive care with platelet transfusions
c) Referral for bone marrow transplantation
d) Splenectomy
e) Supportive care for red blood cell transfusion
57 Determine the resulted symptoms is the criterion of acute glomerulonephritis, nephritic syndrome. Child diseases 2
a) Hematuria
b) Leucocyturia
c) Bacteruria
d) Anasarca
e) Proteinuria more than 3 g per day
58 A child with Thalassemia major has a history of treatment for cardiac arrhythmia due to iron overload. Now the child Child diseases 2
came for regular transfusion and while transfusion the child became anxious and developed complaints of backpain. (hospital pediatrics)
What is the next management ?
a) ECG
b) Stop transfusion and look for clerical errors
c) Continue transfusion while monitoring for vitals
d) Check for reddish discolouration of urine
e) СТ
59 2-years-old child presents with short stature and café-au lait spots. Bone marrow aspiration yields a little material and Child diseases 2
mostly containing fat. What is your diagnosis? (hospital pediatrics)
a) Fanconi anemia
b) Dyskeratosis congenita
c) Tuberous sclerosis
d) Osteogenesis imperfect
e) Sickle cell anemia
60 Two weeks after a viral syndrome, a 2-year-old child develops bruising and generalized petechiae, more prominent Child diseases 2
over the legs. No hepatosplenomegaly or lymph node enlargement is noted. The examination is otherwise (hospital pediatrics)
unremarkable. Laboratory testing shows the patient to have a normal hemoglobin, hematocrit, and white blood cell
(WBC) count and differential. The platelet count is 15,000/μL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Von Willebrand disease (vWD)
b) Acute leukemia
c) Idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
d) Aplastic anemia
e) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
61 An 11-month-old African American boy has a hematocrit of 24% on a screening laboratory done at his well-child Child diseases 2
check-up. Further testing demonstrates: hemoglobin 7.8 g/dL; hematocrit 22.9%; leukocyte count 12,200/μL with (hospital pediatrics)
39% neutrophils, 6% bands, 55% lymphocytes; hypochromia on smear; free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP) 114
μg/dL; lead level 6 μg/dL whole blood; platelet count 175,000/μL; reticulocyte count 0.2%; sickle-cell preparation
negative; stool guaiac negative; and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 64 fL. Which of the following is the most
appropriate recommendation?
a) Blood transfusion
b) Oral ferrous sulfate
c) Intramuscular iron dextran
d) An iron-fortified cereal
e) Calcium EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra-acetate)
62 Determine the type of bleeding characteristic of hemophilia A and B. Child diseases 2

a) Hematoma
b) Petechial-spotted
c) Mixed bruising-hematoma
d) Loculo-vasculitic
e) Angiomatous
63 Determine the type of bleeding characteristic of thrombocytopenia. Child diseases 2

a) Hematoma (hospital pediatrics)
b) Petechial-ecchymatous
e) Angiomatous
64 A healthy 1-year-old child comes to your office for a routine checkup and for immunizations. His parents have no Child diseases 2
complaints or concerns. The next day, the CBC you performed as customary screening for anemia returns with the (hospital pediatrics)
percentage of eosinophils on the differential to be 30%. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
a) Bacterial infections
b) Chronic allergic rhinitis
c) Fungal infections
d) Helminth infestation
e) Tuberculosis
65 A 10-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital because of bleeding. Pertinent laboratory findings include a platelet Child diseases 2
count of 50,000/μL, prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds (control 11.5 seconds), activated partial thromboplastin (hospital pediatrics)
time (aPTT) of 51 seconds (control 36 seconds), thrombin time (TT) of 13.7 seconds (control 10.5 seconds), and
factor VIII level of 14% (normal 38%-178%). Which of the following is the most likely cause of his bleeding?
a) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

b) Vitamin K deficiency
c) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
d) Hemophilia A
e) Hemophilia B
66 Specify the type of bleeding typical for hemorrhagic vasculitis. Child diseases 2
a) Hematoma
b) Petechial-spotted
e) Angiomatous
67 Specify the change, which depend on aplastic anemia and hemorrhagic syndrome in children. Child diseases 2
a) Decrease of RBC
b) Decrease of leukocytes
c) Decrease of platelets
d) Decrease of eosinophils
e) Decrease of Hb
68 Find the difference between aplastic anemia and acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Child diseases 2
(hospital pediatrics )
a) Absence of hemorrhagic rash
b) Absence of bleedings
c) Absence of fever
d) Absence of pаllor
e) Absence of increase lymph nodes
69 Select the disease, for which 50% of sick children are characterized by congenital bone anomalies. Child diseases 2
a) Diamond-Blackfan anemia
b) Fanconi anemia
c) Autoimmune aplastic anemia
d) transient erythroblastopenia
e) Congenital dyskeratosis
70 Treatment of moderate autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura without bleeding Child diseases 2

a) Do not treat
b) Ig I/V
c) Prednisolone
d) Erythrocytes
e) Rituximab
71 Differential sign between thrombocytopenic purpura and leukemia Child diseases 2
a) Petechiae
b) Ecchymosis
c) Bleeding
d) Bone pain
e) Bone pain, Pallor
72 An otherwise healthy 7-year-old child is brought to you to be evaluated because he is the shortest child in his class. Child diseases 2
Careful measurements of his upper and lower body segments demonstrate normal body proportions for his age. (hospital pediatrics)
Which of the following disorders of growth should remain in your differential?
a) Achondroplasia
b) Morquio disease
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Growth hormone deficiency
e) Marfan syndrome
73 The state laboratory calls your office telling you that a newborn infant, now 8 days old, has an elevated thyroid Child diseases 2
stimulating hormone (TSH) and low thyroxin (T4) on his newborn screen. If this condition is left untreated, the infant (hospital pediatrics)
is likely to demonstrate which of the following in the first few months of life?
a) Hyperreflexia
b) Hyperirritability
c) Diarrhea
d) Prolonged jaundice
e) Hyperphagia
74 A small-for-gestational-age infant is born at 30 weeks’ gestation. At 1 hour of age, his serum glucose is noted to be Child diseases 2
20 mg/dL (normally greater than 40 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypoglycemia (hospital pediatrics)
in this infant?
a) Inadequate stores of nutrients

b) Adrenal immaturity
c) Pituitary immaturity
d) Insulin excess
e) Glucagon deficiency
75 A 13-year-old girl has diffuse toxic goiter of the 2nd degree, hyperthyroidism of moderate severity, endocrine Child diseases 2
ophthalmopathy of the 2nd degree. Appointed Mercazolil 10 mg 3 times a day. Thyrotoxicosis is subcompensated, (hospital pediatrics)
eye symptoms persist. Your tactics:
a) add prednisolone at a dose of 1 mg/kg/day to treatment
b) continue mercazolil monotherapy
c) add anaprilin to treatment
d) add prednisolone at a dose of 10-20 mg / day to the treatment
e) add prednisolone at a dose of 90 mg/day to treatment
76 A newborn boy has lethargy, thirst, muscular hypotension, vomiting "fountain", diarrhea, signs of dehydration. On Child diseases 2
examination, there is hyperpigmentation of the rim of the lips, nipples, and scrotum. On examination: hyponatremia, (hospital pediatrics)
hyperkalemia, high pointed P wave on ECG. Your presumptive diagnosis:
a) salt-wasting form of adrenogenital syndrome
b) vegetovascular dystonia
c) cerebral-pituitary dwarfism
d) intestinal infection
e) pyloric stenosis
77 A 7 year old male presents to physician with the chief complaint of dark "cola colored" urine, facial puffiness and Pediatrics 3
abdominal pain for the past 2 days. 14 days ago he had a sore throat and fever. He has had abdominal pain. His urine
is dark. Urine analysis shows an increased specific gravity, rbcs are too numerous to count. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
a) Glomerulonephritis. Nephritic Syndrome

b) Glomerulonephritis. Nephrotic Syndrome
c) Acute heart failure
d) Acute infection of urinary tract
e) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
78 Systemic forms of JRA usually are characterized by: Pediatrics 3
a) Meningitis
b) Polyserositis
c) Nephritic syndrome
d) Abdominal syndrome
e) Pneumonia
79 Indicate the hypercatabolic forms of AKI (acute kidney injury). Pediatrics 3
a) Medicinal
b) Postrenal
c) Crash syndrome
d) Prerenalnaya
e) Hepato-renal syndrome
80 Identify the skin condition often mimics atopic dermatitis and must be ruled out in the differential diagnosis. Pediatrics 3
a) Erythema annulare centrifugum
b) Fixed drug eruptions
c) Psoriasis
d) Rosacea
e) Vitiligo
81 Find out the following is the only treatment that can modify the course of allergic rhinitis. Pediatrics 3
a) Topic nasal steroid
b) Inhaled steroid with spacer chamber
c) Empiric antibiotic therapy
d) Allergen-specific immunotherapy
e) Omalizumab
82 A 16-years old boy is looking for you help as he suffers from urticaria since more than a years. He reports that the Pediatrics 3
wheals and flares are persisting long. Marking the lesions with a pen, in fact the wheals do not move within 24 hours.
The most likely diagnosis in this patient is
a) Cold urticaria
b) Delayed pressure urticaria
c) Urticarial vasculitis
d) Contact urticaria
e) Cholinergic urticaria
83 A 9 month old boy is brought to the clinic because he has had temperatures up to 104°F. He has been fussy, had been Pediatrics 3
eating less, and his mother explains that the fever began 5 days ago. The child does not have any close sick contacts.
His temperature is currently 103.5°F. A physical exam reveals the following findings: cracked fissured lips, redness
of oral mucousa, redness of conjunctiva, enlarged cervical lymph node. There is also a maculopapular rash over the
trunk and dorsal edema of the hands. The patient's hematocrit is 32%, leukocyte count is 15,000/mm³, and platelet
count is 560,000/mm³. What is the likely cause of the fever in this patient?
a) Kawasaki disease
b) Infectious mononucleosis
c) Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis
d) Giant cell
e) Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
84 1 year old child after contact with cat has a frequent paroxysmal, irritative, nonproductive cough. The child has short Pediatrics 3
breathing, he tries to breathe more deeply and the expiratory phase becomes prolonged and is accompanied by an
audible wheezing. His lips are cyanotic, cyanosis observed in the nail beds and skin, especially around the mouth. The
child is restless and anxious. Sweating is prominent as the attack progresses. In history: allergy on food products. Put
your diagnosis.
a) Acute pneumonia
b) Respiratory virus infection
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Obstructive bronchitis
e) Bronhiolitis
85 A child is 12 months. He is ill ARI. On the second day it was marked the emergence of a barking cough, hoarse Pediatrics 3
voice, strdor, breath difficulties, shortness of breath, cyanosis. In what department is hospitalized child?
a) Pulmonary
b) Infectious
c) Junior childhood
d) Otolaryngology
e) Intensive care unit
86 Child 7 yrs old was entered to the hospital with complaints of weakness, decline of appetite, shortness of breath. Pediatrics 3
Clinically it was revealed cardiomegaly, weakness of heart tones, arrhythmias, soft systolic murmur on the apex.
Acute nonrheumatic carditis was diagnosed. The forecast during acute nonrheumatic carditis
a) Recovering
b) Death till 6 years
c) Death till 3 years
d) Death till 1 year
e) The illness during all life
87 Boy 7 yrs old had acute nonrheumatic carditis 1,3 year ago. Mother interrupted therapy after 1 month of treatmen Pediatrics 3
Clinically it is observed periodic cardialgias, weak heart tones, tachyarrhythmia, functional systolic murmur.
Subacute nonrheumatic carditis is diagnosed. Preparation of choise is:
a) Aspirin
b) Prednisolone
c) Digoxin
d) Delagil
e) Indometacin
88 Identify the following diagnoses is most probable. A boy 12 years old admitted to the hospital with intermittent high Pediatrics 3
fever, allergic rash, pain and swelling in the knee and ankle joints, increase of peripheral lymph nodes, liver and
spleen. In blood test - leukocytes 27x109/l, ESR - 65mm/hour, increased immunoglobulin M and G.
a) Sepsis
b) Systemic lupus erythematosus
c) Systemic juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
d) Rheumatc fever
e) Leukemia
89 Spirometry is a helpful objective measure of airflow limitation; it depends on patient’s ability to properly perform a Pediatrics 3
full, forceful, and prolonged expiratory maneuver. Spirometry usually feasible in children.
a) ≥4 yr of age
b) ≥6 yr of age
c) ≥8 yr of age
d) ≥10 yr of age
e) ≥12 yr of age
90 Indicate the necessary time for diagnosing Asthmatic status in children with an intractable attack of bronchial asthma. Pediatrics 3
a) 2 hours
b) 4 hours
c) 6 hours or more
d) more than a day
e) more than 48 hours
91 A 3-year-old boy is admitted to the emergency room with indrawing of the lower part of the chest, asthmatic Pediatrics 3
breathing, unproductive cough, fever up to 39C, weakness. The MOST likely IMCI indicator of difficulty breathing
and coughing is:
a) unproductive cough
b) Asthmoid breathing
c) Indrawing of the lower part of the chest
d) Increasing the temperature to 39C
e) Weakness
92 The polycystic kidney disease was diagnosed at the boy of 3 years old. Mother complaints that the boy has growth Pediatrics 3
retardation, poor appetite, vomiting. Skin is pale, turgor of soft tissues is reduced, heart rate - 120 per minute, harsh
breathing at auscultation, abdomen is enlarged, soft. Biochemical tests – urea – 14 mmol/l, creatinine – 0,130 mmol/l,
protein – 58 g/l. Which condition has been developed?
a) Chronic kidney disease

b) Encephalopathy
c) Interstitial nephritis
d) Pyelonephritis
e) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
93 A 11-year-old boy has a history of allergic reaction to penicillin in the form of urticaria. Intramuscular administration Pediatrics 3
of ceftriaxone after 30 minutes there was weakness, headache, palpitations, a feeling of horror. administration of the
drug hyperemia 10 cm AD-80/40 mm Hg, heart rate-120. Determine the diagnosis.
a) Vegetative-vascular dystonic
b) Anaphylactic shock
c) Anaphylactoid shock
d) Hemorrhage in the brain
e) Contact dermatitis
94 Juvenile idiopathic arthritis has many subtypes. Arthritis must be present to make a diagnosis of any subtype; Pediatrics 3
involved joints not oftenly have the following signs.
a) Swelling
b) Warm
c) Erythema
d) Limitation of movement
e) Pain on movement
95 A 9-month-old boy is brought by his parents to OPD with complaints of recurrent sinusitis and pharyngitis. Throat Pediatrics 3
swab sample revealed the presence of streptococcus pneumonoiae. Lab studies show serum levels of
immunoglobulins which are extremely low but T-cell levels are normal. Which conditions is specifically associated in
this case?
a) Severe combined immunodeficiency
b) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c) Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy
d) Chronic granulomatous disease
e) Job’s syndrome
96 Decreased functional activity of the lymphoid system (secondary immunodeficiency) can occur due to the action of Pediatrics 3
many external factors, in addition to:
a) Starvation, malnutrition
b) Deficiency of vitamins in food
c) Deficiency of animal fats in the diet
d) The effect of ionizing radiation on the body
e) Prolonged stress
97 A 3-year-old child was admitted to the clinic with complaints of fever up to 39 degrees, abdominal pain, nausea, Pediatrics 3
vomiting, diarrhea, polymorphic erythematous-swollen spots on the skin with blisters on the background of bright
erythema, places with erosions that opened
a) Enterovirus infection
b) Stephen-Johnson syndrome
c) Exudative erythema multiforme
d) The Arthus Phenomenon
e) Anaphylactic shock
98 Rheumatoid factor (RF)–positive polyarthritis usually accounts for < 10% of all juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) Pediatrics 3
cases. The articular manifestation pattern ischaracterized by involvement of ≥5 joints in both upper and lower
extremities. Of the following, the least effective drug to induce remission for this subtype of JIA is
a) NSAIDs
b) methotrexate
c) TNF-α antagonists
d) IL-1 inhibitors
e) IL-6 inhibitors
99 Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease characterized by multisystem inflammation Pediatrics 3
and the presence of circulating autoantibodies directed against self-antigens. It occurs in both children and adults. All
the following are features of childhood SLE except
a) It is has a more severe course

b) There is more widespread organ involvement
c) It usually presents before 5 year of age
d) Fever, fatigue, hematologic abnormalities, and arthritis are common clinical manifestations
e) Although renal disease is asymptomatic, it is oftenly present as nephrotic syndrome in adolescent age group
100 Diastolic dysfunction and normal systolic function are recognized features of Pediatrics 3
a) Dilated cardiomyopathy
b) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c) Left ventricular noncompaction
d) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
e) Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

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№ Вопросы и задания Дисциплины

a) wait and watch

a) Continue breast feeding from both the breasts

a) Patient may continue breast feeding at her own risk.

a) Immediate delivery by caesarean section

Suddenly, convulsions started. What is the correct management?

a) Complete uterine rupture

60. Salpingitis is best confirmed by: Акушерство и

62. The most common cause of tubal block is: Акушерство и

a) Occipital head presentation

a) Continue breast feeding from both the breasts

b) Perineum protective maneuvers

a) Pyrexia of unknown origin

a) Negative Coombs test

a) Acute endometritis during the use of IUD

№ Вопросы и задания Дисциплины

C. Mohr,s argentometric method

C. Both trichloromine and dichloramine

3. Disinsection is divided on: Эпидемиология

A. current and final

B. current, final and prophylactic

C. current and prophylactic

D. prophylactic and destructive

a) 180 c for 5 minutes

b) 121 c for 15 minutes

d) 160 c for 45 minutes

5. Duration of isolation of patient with influenza complications? Эпидемиология

6. The pathogen most commonly involved in community-acquired pneumonia is: Эпидемиология

a) 180 degrees Celcius for 30 mins

b) 63 degrees Celcius for 30 mins

c) 121 degrees Celcius for 15 mins

d) 160 degrees Celcius for 45 mins

8. First link of epidemiological process: Эпидемиология

B. causative agent of infectious disease

C. source of causative agent of the infectious disease

10. How is the urgent prophylaxis of scarlet fever conducted? Эпидемиология

B. Isolation of children, who had contact with a patient

C. Use of immunoglobulin D. Use of antibiotics

13. In epidemiology determining is: Эпидемиология

A. mechanism of transmission of causative agent B. biological properties of causative

C. making of collective immunity to the causative agent

D. contagiousness of the infected person

15. Treatment of dengue fever includes: Эпидемиология

A. Penicillin, and platelet replacement

B. Supportive care and platelet replacement

C. Supportive care, aspirin and platelet replacement

17. The animal linked to Ebola virus is the: Эпидемиология

18. Multicomponent parasite-genic system is: Эпидемиология

B. parasite – intermediate host – terminal host

C. an intermediate host terminal host

D. a parasite an intermediate host

19. Passive immunity can be only: Эпидемиология

C. artificial and natural

D. BCG scar mark

22. Treatment of acute diarrhea includes: Эпидемиология

A. Oral rehydration and penicillin

B. Oral rehydration, zinc supplementation

C. Intravenous saline and penicillin

23. You must begin to treat patients with a plague: Эпидемиология

A. Immediately after hospitalization