TIẾNG ANH - BÀI 2- VONG 1 - PGD. Chọn hsg tỉnh

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PHÒNG GD&ĐT TĨNH GIA ĐỀ CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI

Năm học 2019 - 2020


Môn thi: Tiếng Anh – Bài số 2 (Vòng 1)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 6 trang
Part I. Listen to the weather forecast. Write the word to fill in the gap. Use NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (5 pts)
1. Welcome to the weather forecast. Now let’s see the weather is ……………….today.
2. In the north of the country it’s very …………………..………. There is a chance of
some rain too, so don’t leave home without your umbrella!
3. The temperature is a bit higher, at around …………….
4. In the west and middle of the country the ……….………….is dry, but cloudy.
5. The south of the ……………..………… has the best weather today.
Part II: You will hear a conversation between a boy, Tom, and a girl, Sophie, about a
TV quiz show. Listen and decide which of the following statements is True (T) or false
(F). 0 is an example. Write your answer in the Answer Sheets. (1.0 pt)
0. Both Tom and Sophie agree that the presenter of the quiz show is very funny.
6. Tom is keen on a number of programmes shown on Channel 5.
7. Tom has previously recommended this quiz show to a number of friends.
8. Sophie is worried about not being able to answer any of the questions.
9. Tom warns that the questions become more difficult throughout the quiz.
10. Tom and Sophie decide to organise a school quiz together.
Part III. Listen to five different people talking about their jobs. Answer the questions by
choosing A, B, or C. (5 pts)
1. Does speaker A enjoy his job?
A. Yes B. Sometimes C. No
2. When does speaker B work?
A. Weekdays B. Weekends and holidays C. Summer holidays
3. Does speaker C like his job?
A. Yes B. Sometimes C. No
4. What does speaker D say is the best thing about his job?
A. Visiting different places B. Meeting different people
C. The different weather
5. What does speaker E not like about her job?
A. The doctors B. The sick people C. The uniform
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)
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16.A. sculpture B. structure C. future D.culture
17.A. complex B. citadel C. cavern D. contestant
18. A. breathe B. ethane C. thank D. healthy
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (2 pts)
19. A.communicate B. generation C. historical D. environment
20. A. spectacular B. imperial C. recognition D. historical

SECTION C : VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. This ring is only made of plastic so it’s quite………….
A. valuable B. invaluable C. worthless D. priceless
22. He got an excellent grade in his examination…………..the fact that he had not
worked particularly hard.
A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although
23. The………………..between generations seems to be bigger and bigger than ever
A. blank B. distance C. gap D. space
24. The country now known as Myanmar……………Burma.
A. used to be called B. be called C. called D. has called
25. Laura is in the ……………of writing in her dairy every day.
A. habit B. custom C. practice D. generation
26.Does he tell you how he is getting………..his new colleagues?
A. on with B. on of C. away with D. out of
27. At Bat Trang village, they sell beautiful earthen wares at……………..prices.
A. cheap B. positive C. affordable D. favourite
28. I passed all my exams-I’m……………………..!
A. out of this world B. the sky’s the limit C. over the moon D. once in a blue moon
29. I don’t like to ask people for help but I wonder if you could……………..me a favour.
A. make B. find C. pick D. do
30. I wish I……………….all the natural and man-made wonders of Viet Nam.
A. visit B. will visit C. could visit D. am visiting
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form.(8 pts)
31. If you had sent the letter yesterday, I (receive) it today.
32. We don’t want to (pay) low wages.
33. I (not have) much time for entertainment these days.
34. I distinctly remember (pay) him. I gave him two dollars

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35. The plan (run) by the head engineer for a fornight before a new director was
appointed.
36. Here you are at last! I (wait) for you for twenty minutes.
37. Only yesterday I (realise) what was going on.
38. George as well as his sisters (not go) to the cinema very often.
Question III. Supply the correct form of the wordsgiven. (7 pts)
39.Most people agree that Christmas has become too……………(COMMERCE)
40. I admire her………………..beauty. She’s old but she’s still beautiful. (TIME)
41. These are the most………………..shoes I have ever worn. I like them very much.
(COMFORT)
42. Do you know that…………have to follow 15 stages to make a conical hat. (ART)
43. The conditions in the man’s prison were …………………..(HUMAN)
44. President Donald Trump never drinks wine and beer. For meals he is happy
with……………drinks like Coca Cola or Pepsi. (ALCOHOL)
45. You look rather _______ . Are you worried about something? (OCCUPY)

Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each
mistake, write it down and give your correction. (5pts)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. 0. traditional → traditionally
Achievement tests are designed to measure acquired skills and 1. _____________
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitly taught. The 2. _____________
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation 3. _____________
are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a 4. _____________
person’s ability to acquire new skills to knowledge. For example, 5. ____________
vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do 6. _____________
better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in 7. _____________
some sense achievement tests because they assume some sort of past 8. _____________
learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. The 9. _____________
difference between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and 10. ____________
intended use.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)


Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space (10pts)
The Internet is made …….(51) of millions of computers linked together around the
world in……….(52) a way that information can be sent from any computer to any other
24 hours a day.These……..(53) can be homes, schools, universities, government
departments, or businesses. The Internet is often described as a network of
networks………(54) all the smaller networks of organizations are linked together into
one giant network………(55) the Internet. All computers are pretty much equal once
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connected to the Internet, the………..(56) difference will be the speed of the
connection………….(57) is dependent on your Internet Service Provider and your own
modern.
…………..(58) are many things you can do and participate in once connected to
the Internet. They include using a range of services………..(59) communicate and share
information and things quickly and inexpensively with millions of people,……….(60)
young and old and from diverse cultures around the world.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. (10 pts)
Many visitors come to Tatterbridge to see the wonderful art (61)…….and museums, the
beautiful buildings and the fantastic parks. Few people go outside the city, and so they
miss out on (62)……….the scenery and the fascinating history of this beautiful area. This
brochure will tell you what you can see if you (63)………a short bus ride out of the city.
The beautiful village of Tatterbridge was (64)………to the children’s writer Jane
Potter, whose stories of Benjamin Bear (65)………loved by adults and children around
the world. Jane Potter’s home is now a museum and tea shop, and is well (66)……….. a
visit just for its wonderful gardens. It also has a gift shop where you can buy (67)
…….and books. Tatterbridge has a number of interesting shops (68)………..an excellent
cake shop, and “Wendy’s Giftshop” where you can find lots of unusual gifts made (69)
……hand by local artists. Lovers of Jane Potter’s books should also walk to the Green
Valley woods, which have no changed since Jane Porter (70)………..her stories there
one hundred years ago.
61. A. workshops B. galleries C. restaurants D. stations
62. A. understanding B. questioning C. welcoming D. experience
63. A. bring B. take C. drive D. sail
64. A. home B. school C. shop D. cottage
65. A. be B. have C. are D. been
66. A. excited B. worth C. value D. known
67. A. souvenirs B. materials C. costumes D. vegetables
68. A. purchasing B. advertising C. preserving D. including
69. A. at B. with C. by D. in
70. A. wrote B. designed C. moulded D. carved
III. READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS:
The radical change in the land's surface that results when rural areas are transformed
into cities is a significant cause of the rise in temperature in cities that is known as urban
heat island.
First, the tall buildings and the concrete and asphalt of the city absorb and store greater
quantities of solar radiation than do the vegetation and soil typical of rural areas.
In addtton, because the concrete and asphalt are impermeable, the runoff of water
fdowing a rain is rapid, resulting in a severe reduction in the evaporation rate. So heat

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that once would have been used convert liquid water to a gas goes instead to increase the
surface temperature further.
At night, although both city and countryside cool through radiation losses, the stone-
1ike surface of the city gradually releases the additional heat accumulated during the day,
keeping the urban air warmer than that of the outlying areas.
Part of the urban temperature rise must also be attributed to waste heat from such
sources as home heating and air conditioning, power generation, industry, and
transportation. Many studies have shown that the magnitude of human-made energy in
metropolitan areas is equal to a significant percentage of the energy received from the
Sun at the surface.
Investigations in Sheffield, England, and Berlin showed that the annual heat production
in these cities was equal to approximately one-third of that received from solar radiation.
Another study of the densely built-up Manhattan section of New York City revealed
that during the winter, the quantity of heat produced from combustion alone was two and
one-half times greater than the amount of solar energy reaching the ground. In summer,
the figure dropped to one-sixth.
It is interesting to note that during the summer there is a mutual reinforcement between
the higher nighttime temperatures of the city and the human-made heat that helped create
them. That is, the higher temperatures result in the increased use of air-conditioners,
which, in turn, use energy and further increase the amount of urban heat. During the
winter the nighttime warmth of urban areas, produced in large part by heavy energy
consumption, is beneficial because less energy needed to heat buildings.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The loss of farmland to urban development
B. The causes of increased heat in cities
C. Waste heat generated by home heating and air conditioning
D. How seasonal change affects the temperature of cities
72. All of the following contribute to the urban heat island effect EXCEPT......
A. absorption of heat from the Sun
B. storage of heat from the Sun
C. an increased rate of evaporation after a rainfall
D. the release of heat at night from city surfaces
73. The word "convert" in the passage is closest in meaning to......
A. reverse B. transform C. reduce D. compare
74. The word "that" in the passage refers to......
A. city B. heat C. day D. air
75. In which of the following locations would the rate of evaporation probably be
highest?
A. A rural area B. A small town C. A medium-sized city D. A big city
76. The word "magnitude' in the passage is closest in meaning to.....
A. calculation B. comprehension C. extent D. formation
77. The author mentions Manhattan to order to demonstrate that.....
A. heat in urban areas can be reduced
B. the conclusions of the investigation in Sheffield were wrong
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C. its heat production is smaller than that of Berlin
D. human-made heat can exceed the solar energy that reaches the ground inwinter
78. According to the passage, on important consequence of the use of air-conddroners at
night is......
A. greater energy costs B. higher levels of urban heat
C. senous problems with the energy supply D. less need for air conditioning in the
morning
79. The word "beneficial" in the passage is closest in meaning to......
A. predictable B. powerful C. hazardous D. advantageous
80. Which of the following is true about cities at night in the winter?
A. Solar energy has an increased impact on the urban heat island.
B. They tend to be colder than rural areas.
C. Less energy is required to heat buildings

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)


Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. She is very talented but she doesn’t play the piano professionally
Talented______________________________________________________.
82. They tried hard so that they would pass the exam.
With _______________________________________________________.
83. I think you should tell the police about the accident
If I _________________________________________________.
84.David has good relationship with most of his colleagues.
David gets_________________________________________________.
85. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous star attended.
 Had it___________________________________________________.
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first
one, using the words given. You MUST use between TWO and FIVE words. (5 pts)
86. They were so excited that they couldn’t sit still (EXCITEMENT)
 Such___________________that they couldn’t sit still
87. They arrived at their destination alive and kicking (SOUND)
 They arrived at their destination _________________
88. He likes people to call him “ Professor”. (ADDRESSED)
 He_________________________as “Professor”
89. We have expected we could try some local specialities in Sa Pa (HAS)
It__________________we could try some local specialities in Sa Pa
90. They listened eagerly and attentively to the President’s speech. (EARS)
 They____________________ to the President’s speech.
Question III: Write a paragraph around 120 words about three advantages of the
Internet.

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……………….. THE END ……………….

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KÌ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP
TẠO HUYỆN TĨNH GIA TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2019-2020
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 9- THCS
ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

SECTION A – LISTENING (15 pts)


Part I.Listen to the weather forecast. Write the word to fill in the gap. Use NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (5 pts)
1. like 2. windy and cold 3. 13o 4. weather 5. country
Part II: You will hear a conversation between a boy, Tom, and a girl, Sophie, about a
TV quiz show. Listen and decide which of the following statements is True (T) or false
(F). 0 is an example. Write your answer in the Answer Sheets. (1.0 pt)
6.T 7.T 8.F 9.T 10.F

Part III. Listen to five different people talking about their jobs. Answer the questions by
choosing A, B, or C. (5 pts)
11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)
16. c 17. b 18.a
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (2 pts)
19.b 20.c
SECTION C : VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21. c 22. c 23.c 24.a 25.a 26. a 27.c 28. c 29.d 30.c
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form.(8 pts)
31. would receive 32. be paid 33. am not having 34. paying
35. had been run 36. have been waiting 37. did I realise 38. doesn’t go
Question III. Supply the correct form of the wordsgiven. (7 pts)
39. commercialized 40. Timeless 41. Comfortable 42. artisans
43. inhumane 44. non-alcoholic 45. preoccupied
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each
mistake, write it down and give your correction. (5pts)
46: Line 3: few- a few
47: Line: 4: and – to
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48: Line: 6. vocation → vocational
49: Line : 7. like → as
50: Line : 9: certainly→ certain
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use
only ONE word in each space (10pts)
51. up 52. such 53. computers 54. because/since/as 55.called
56. only/unique 57. which/ that 58. There 59 . to 60.both
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or
phrase for each space. (10 pts)
61.B 62.D 63.B 64.A 65.C 66.B 67.A 68.D 69.C 70.A
PART A. READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS TO THE
QUESTIONS.

71. B 72.C 73.B 74.D 75.A 76.C 77.D 78.B 79.D 80.C
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the
same as the sentence printed above it. (5 pts)

81. Talented as/though she is/ may be/might be, she doesn’t play the piano professionally
82. With a view to passing the exam, they tried hard
83. If I were you, I would tell the police about the accident
84. David gets on well with most of his colleagues
85. Had it not been for (the attendance of) a famous film star, the party would not have
been successful
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first
one, using the words given. You MUST use between TWO and FIVE words. (5 pts)
86. Such was their excitement that they couldn’t sit still
87. They arrived at their destination safe and sound
88. He likes being/ to be addressed as “Professor”
89. It has been expected that we could try some local specialities in Sa Pa
90. They were all ears to listen to the President’s speech.
Question III. Write a paragraph around 120 words about three advantages of the Internet.
- Good sourse of information
- An effective means of communication
- A wonderful of entertainment

……………….. THE END ……………….

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