10/04/2023

Evening

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Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-2

(Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry

having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct

answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out

of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks

for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be

rounded off to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A 2. Let the image of the point P(1, 2, 6) in the plane
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 passing through the points A(1, 2, 0) and B(1, 4, 1)
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices C(0, 5, 1) be Q(, , ). Then (2 + 2 + 2) is equal
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. to
Choose the correct answer: (1) 65 (2) 62

1. Let  be the mean and  be the standard deviation (3) 76 (4) 70

of the distribution Answer (1)
Sol. Plane passes through the points
xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
A(1, 2, 0), B(1, 4, 1) and C(0, 5, 1)
fi k+2 2k k2 – 1 k2 – 1 k2 + 1 k–3
i ˆj kˆ
Normal vector = 0 2 1 = iˆ(–1) – jˆ(1) + 2kˆ
where  fi = 62. If [x] denotes the greatest integer
–1 3 1
 x, then [2 + 2] is equal to

(1) 9 (2) 8 = <–1, –1, 2>

 –1(x – 1) –1 (y – 2) + 2z = 0
(3) 7 (4) 6
 x + y – 2z = 3 …(i)
Answer (2)
Now image of P(1, 2, 6) in (i)
Sol. xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
x – 1 y – 2 z – 6 –2(–9 – 3)
= = = =4
fi k+2 2k k2 – 1 k2 – 1 k2 + 1 k–3 1 1 –2 6
 x = 5, y = 6, z = –2
2k + 2k 2 – 2 + 3k 2 – 3 + 4k 2 + 4 + 5k – 15 9k 2 + 7k – 16
= =
62 62   = 5,  = 6,  = –2
 2 + 2 + 2 = 65
and  fi = 62  3k2 + 4k – 2 = 62
3. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave the
 3k2 + 4k – 64 = 0
remainder  when divided by 3 and  when divided
 (3k + 16) (k – 4) = 0 by 7. Then (2 + 2) is equal to

k = 4 (1) 20 (2) 13
(3) 5 (4) 10
156
 = Answer (3)
62
2
Sol. For  : (21 + 1)2022 + (2022)22
1 (2k ) + 4(k 2 – 1) + 9(k 2 – 1) + 16(k 2 + 1) + 25(k – 3)  156 
2 = –  divisible by 3
62  62 
= 3K1 + 1
29k 2 + 27k – 72
= – 2
62 For  : (21 + 1)2022 + (2023 – 1)22

500 = 7 + 1 + 7 + 1
=
62 = 7K2 + 2

500 So,  = 1,  = 2
 2 +  2 =  [2 + 2] = 8
62 2 + 2 = 5
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening
4. Eight persons are to be transported from city A to
city B in three cars of different makes. If each car
(( ) )
Sol. f t 2 + t 4 2t = 4t 2

can accommodate at most three persons, then the

number of ways, in which they can be transported,
( )
f t 2 + t 4 = 2t

is f ( x ) = −x
2 4
+ 2x
(1) 1120 (2) 3360
(3) 1680 (4) 560 Let x2 = u
Answer (2) f ( u ) = −u 2 + 2 u
Sol. Total ways = 8C3 × 5C3 × 2C2 × 3!
f ( x ) = −x2 + 2 x
= 3360
5. Let a = 2iˆ + 7 jˆ − kˆ, bˆ = 3iˆ + 5kˆ and c = iˆ – jˆ + 2kˆ.  2  4 
f   = − 2 + 2
 4  2
Let d be a vector which is perpendicular to both   4

a and b , and c · d = 12. Then −iˆ + ˆj − kˆ · c  d ( )( ) =

−4
+
is equal to 16
(1) 24 (2) 44  3 
=  1 −
(3) 42 (4) 48  16 
 
Answer (2)
  x 2 x  e 2 x 
Sol. d = (a  b ) 7. For , , ,   , if    e  +  x   loge x
 
iˆ ˆj kˆ
x x 
a  b = 2 7 −1 1 x 1 e  1
dx =  
e
−  
x
+ C, where e =  n! and
3 0 5 n =0

C is constant of integration, then  + 2 + 3 – 4 is

= iˆ(35) − 13 ˆj − 21kˆ equal to

d = (35iˆ − 13 ˆj − 21kˆ ) (1) 1 (2) 4

(3) –4 (4) –8
c  d = (35 + 13 − 42) = 12
Answer (2)
 =2
2x
x
iˆ ˆj kˆ Sol. Let   =t
e
c d = 2 1 −1 2
35 −13 −21 2 x ( ln x − 1) = ln t

 1 1
= 2(47iˆ + 91ˆj + 22kˆ )  2 ( ln x − 1) + 2 x  x  dx = t dt
 
( −iˆ + ˆj − kˆ )  (c  d ) = 2( −iˆ + ˆj − kˆ ) (47iˆ + 91ˆj + 22kˆ ) = 44
1
6. Let f be a continuous function satisfying ln x dx = dt
2t
t2  2 
 ( f ( x ) + x ) dx = 3t
4
2 3
, t  0. Then f   is  1 1 1  1
I =   t +   dt =   1 + 2  dt
0  4   t  2t 2  t 
equal to
1  1
= t − +C
2
(1)   1 −
2   3 
(2) −  1 + 2  t 
 
 16   16  2x 2x
1 x  1 e 
=   −   +C
 3  2 2  2 e  2 x 
(3)   1 −  (4) −  1 + 
 16   16    = 2,  = 2,  = 2,  = 2
Answer (3)   + 2 + 3  − 4 = 2 + 4 + 6 − 8 = 4
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

8. Let g ( x ) = f ( x ) + f (1 − x ) and f  ( x )  0, x  ( 0, 1) . Sol. ~  p  ( ~ ( p  q ) ) 

If g is decreasing in the interval (0, ) and
= ~p  ~ ( ~ p  q )
increasing in the interval (, 1), then tan–1(2) +
 1   + 1
tan−1   + tan−1  = ~p  ( p ~ q )
 is equal to
   
= ( ~ p  p )  ( ~ p ~ q )
5
(1)  (2)
4 = ~ p ~ q

3 3 = ~ (p  q)
(3) (4)
4 2
10. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse
Answer (1)
15x2 + 19y2 = 285. Then the common tangents are
Sol. g ( x ) = f ( x ) + f (1 − x )
inclined to the minor axis of the ellipse at the angle
g  ( x ) = f  ( x ) − f  (1 − x )  
(1) (2)
g  ( x ) = f  ( x ) + f  (1 − x )  0 3 4

 
g(x) is increasing (3) (4)
6 12
g(0) < g(1)
Answer (1)
f (0) − f (1)  f (1) − f (0)
Sol.
 f (0)  f (1)

g(x) = 0
 f ( x ) = f (1 − x )

x=1–x
1
x=
2
 1
g ( x ) is positive for x   0, 
 2
1  Let the equation of tangent of ellipse be
g ( x ) is negative for x   , 1
2 
y = mx  19m 2 + 15
1
 = If it is tangent to circle x2 + y2 = 16
2
 1   + 1 19m2 + 15
tan−1 ( 2 ) + tan−1   + tan−1   =4
    1 + m2
= tan−1 (1) + tan−1 ( 2 ) + tan−1 ( 3 )  19m 2 + 15 = 16 + 16m 2
=  3m 2 = 1
9. The statement ~  p  ( ~ ( p  q ) )  is equivalent to 1
m=
3
(1) ~ ( p  q ) (2) ( p  q )  (~ p)
 Angle made by tangent with minor axis i.e., with
(3) (~ ( p  q ))  q (4) ~ ( p  q )

y axis is
Answer (4) 3

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

    2 2  13. Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability of

11. Let S =  x   − ,  : 91–tan x + 9tan x = 10  and getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the
  2 2  
probability of getting odd numbers nine times. If the
x 1
 tan2   , then (  − 14 ) is equal to
2
= k
xs  3  6 probability of getting even numbers twice is ,
215
(1) 16 (2) 8 then k is equal to
(3) 64 (4) 32 (1) 60 (2) 15
Answer (4) (3) 90 (4) 30
2 2
Sol. 91− tan x
+ 9tan x
= 10 Answer (1)
2 Sol. P(getting odd 7 time) = P(getting odd 9 times)
Let 9tan x = y
7 n −7 9 n −9
n  1  1  1  1
9 C7     = nC9    
+ y = 10 2 2 2 2
y
n
C7 = nC9
 y 2 − 10 y + 9 = 0
 n = 16
 y = 1, y = 9
14 2
 1  1
9 tan2 x
= 1 OR 9 tan2 x
=9 P(2 times even) = 16C2    
2 2
 tan x = 0 OR tan x = ±1 15  4 60 k
= = =
 − 215 15
2 215
x=0 x= ,
4 4 k = 60


xs
x
 =  tan2 = tan2 0 + tan2
3

12
+ tan2

12 14. Let  2z − 3i
S = z = x + iy :
4z + 2i
is a real number . 
Then which of the following is NOT correct?
= 2(2 − 3)2
1
= 2(7 − 4 3) (1) y + x 2 + y 2  –
4
= 140 – 8 3  1
(2) ( x, y ) =  0, − 
1 1  2
 ( − 14)2 =  64  3 = 32
6 6 (3) x = 0
12. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the number  1  1 
(4) y   – , –   – , 
of elements in the relation  2  2 
R = {((a1, b1 ),(a2 , b2 )) ( A  B, A  B ) : a1 divides Answer (2)
b2 and a2 divides b1} is 2z − 3i
Sol. z = x + iy and is real number
(1) 36 (2) 24 4z + 2i
(3) 18 (4) 12 2 x + (2y − 3)i
 is real number.
Answer (1) 4 x + (4 y + 2)i
Sol. A = 2, 3, 4, B = 8, 9, 12 ( 2x + (2y − 3)i )( 4 x − (4y + 2)i )
 is real number
a1  A, b2  B (4 x )2 + (4 y + 2)2
a1 divides b2  −2 x(4 y + 2) + (2y − 3)4 x = 0

(a1, b2 )(2, 4),(2, 12), (3, 9), (3, 12), (4, 8),(4, 12)  x=0

a2  A, b1 B 1
Here x = 0 and y  but y  – is not acceptable
2
a2 divides b1
in this case
…. same as above… Denominator will be zero.
 Number of relations = 6 × 6 = 36 Hence, option (2) is correct.
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

15. If Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + … to n terms, then Sol. A(1, 2), B(4cos , 4 sin )

1
(S29 – S9 ) is equal to
60  12cos  + 2 12sin  + 4 
P ,   (h, k )
(1) 223 (2) 226  5 5 
(3) 220 (4) 227
2 2
Answer (1)  5h − 2   5k − 4 
  +  =1
Sol. S = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + ... + Tn  12   12 
S= 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + ... + Tn –1 + Tn
2 2 2
 2  4  12 
Tn = 4 + 7 + 10 + 13 + ... h −  + k −  =  
 5  5  5 
1( 2
Tn = 4 + 3n + 5n − 8 )
2 2 4
C , 
3 5 5 5
Tn = Sn = 2  n2 + 2  n
2 2
3 n(n + 1)(2n + 1) 5 n(n + 1) 3 6 3 5
= + AC =   +   =
2 6 2 2 5 5 5
S29 – S9
= 223 18. If the coefficients of x and x2 in (1 + x)p (1 – x)q are
60
4 and –5 respectively, then 2p + 3q is equal to
5! 6! 7!
1 
16. If A = 6! 7! 8! , then adj(adj(2 A)) is
5! 6! 7!  (1) 60
7! 8! 9!
(2) 69
equal to
(1) 220 (2) 2 8 (3) 66
12 16
(3) 2 (4) 2 (4) 63
Answer (4)
5! 6! 7! Answer (4)
1
Sol. | A | = 6! 7! 8!
5! 6! 7! Sol. (1 + x )p (1 − x )q
7! 8! 9!
1 6 42  p( p − 1) 2  q(q − 1) 2 
1 =  1 + px + x + ....  1 − qx + x + .... 
= 5!  6!  7! 1 7 56  2  2 
5! 6! 7!
1 8 72
 p( p − 1) q(q − 1) 
 |A|= 2 = 1 + ( p − q )x +  + − pq  x 2 + .....
 2 2 
( n −1)2
adj(adj(2 A)) = 2 A = 212 | A |4
p−q = 4  p = q +4 …(i)
= 212 · 24
p( p − 1) q(q − 1)
= 216 + − pq = − 5
2 2
17. Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on the
curve x2 + y2 = 16. If the centre of the locus of the (q + 4)(q + 3) q(q − 1)
point P, which divides the line segment AB in the + − (q + 4)q = − 5
2 2
ratio 3 : 2 is the point C (, ), then the length of the
line segment AC is  6 − q = −5
3 5 4 5
(1) (2)
5 5  q = 11
2 5 6 5
(3) (4)  p = 15
5 5
Answer (1) 2 p + 3q = 63
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening
19. If the points P and Q are respectively the SECTION - B
circumcenter and the orthocentre of a ABC, then Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
PA + PB + PC is equal to contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
(1) 2QP (2) 2PQ NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
(3) PQ (4) QP
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
Answer (3) e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
Sol. Let G be centroid the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer.
PQ = 3PG
21. Suppose a1, a2, 2, a3, a4 be in an arithmetico-
PA + PB + PC
Also PG = geometric progression. If the common ratio of the
3 corresponding geometric progression is 2 and the
 PA + PB + PC = 3PG = PQ sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetico-geometric
49
x 6−y z+8 progression is , then a4 is equal to ______.
20. Let the line = = intersect the lines 2
1 2 5
Answer (16)
x −5 y −7 z+2 x +3 3−y z−6
= = and = = at Sol. Here r = 2, let common difference = d
4 3 1 6 3 1
the points A and B respectively. Then the distance a2 = (a1 + d) × 2, 2 = (a1 + 2d) × 22 ...(i)
of the mid-point of the line segment AB from the a3 = (a1 + 3d) × 23, a4 = (a1 + 4d) × 24
plane 2 x − 2y + z = 14 is
49
(1) 3 a1 + a2 + 2 + a3 + a4 =
2
11
(2) 49
3 31a1 + 98d = ...(ii)
2
(3) 4
From (i) and (ii)
10
(4) 1
3 a1 = 0, d =
4
Answer (3)
a4 = 16(0 + 1) = 16


Sol. 22. In the figure, 1 + 2 = and 3(BE ) = 4( AB ). If
2
2
the area of CAB is 2 3 − 3 unit2, when is the
1
largest, then the perimeter (in unit) of CED is
equal to ________.
For point A, (, –2 + 6, 5 – 8)  (4t + 5, 3t + 7, t – 2)
 t = –1,  = 1
 A(1, 4, –3)
For point B, (, –2 + 6, 5 – 8)
 (6k – 3, –3k + 3, k + 6)  k = 1,  = 3
 B(3, 0, 7)
mid-point of AB = M(2, 2, 2)
 distance of M from the plane 2x – 2y + z – 14 = 0
is 4 Answer (6)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

Sol. 23. If the area of the region {(x, y) : |x2 – 2|  y  x} is A,

then 6 A + 16 2 is equal to ______.
Answer (27)

Sol.


1 + 2 =
2
Let AB = x, BD = y

 3BE = 4 AB

 3( y + DE ) = 4 x A=
1
2
(2
) 2
( )
(1 + 2)  1 − 1 2 − x 2 dx −  2 x 2 − 2 dx
4x
DE = −y 9 8 2
3 A= −
2 3
CAB = 2 3 − 3 6 A = 27 − 16 2

1  6 A + 16 2 = 27
 xy = 2 3 − 3 s
2 24. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing
 1 
 4x  through the points (1, 1) and  , 100  , intersect
 −y  10 
tan 2 = 
3  = 4 − (4 3 − 6)
positive x-axis and y-axis at the points A and B
x 3 x2
respectively. If PA : PB = 1 : k and y = y(x) is the
y 4 3 −6 solution of the differential equation
tan 1 = =
dy
x x2 k
e dx = kx +
, y (0) = k, then 4y(1) – 5loge3 is equal
tan 1  tan 2 = 1 2
to _______.
 4 4 3 −6 4 3 −6 Answer (*)
  −   =1
 3 x 2   x 2 

Sol.
4 3 −6 1
 = 3 or
2 3
x

2 4 3 −6 1
is maximum when =
1 x 2 3

 x = 3 − 3 and 2 = 60°

DE
 tan60 =  DE = x  3 = 3 3 − 3
CD
Equation of tangent at
CD
cos 60 =  CE = 2 x = 6 − 2 3 P(x, y) is :
CE
dy
Y −y = ( X − x)
 Perimeter of CED = CD + DE + CE = 6 dx
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

 dx  Sol. 5 –  + 2 + 3 = 0
Coordinate of A =  x − y , 0
 dy   – 2 = 8
x1 − 4 y1 − 3 z1 − 1 −(6)
 dy  = = =
Coordinate of B =  0, y − x −1
dx 
1 2 6

N  ( x1, y1, z1) = (3, 4, − 1)
 dx dy 
 kx − ky dy y − x  B  (5, , )
 ( x, y ) =  , dx 
 k + 1 k + 1  1
  AN  BN = 3 2
  2

dy AN  BN = 6 2
 y (k + 1) = y − x
dx 6
 BN = 6 2
dy 6
ky = − x
dx BN = 2 3
dx dy 4 + ( − 4)2 + ( + 1)2 = 12
k =−
x y
( − 4)2 + ( + 1)2 = 8
k ln|x| + ln|y| = lnC
(2 + 4)2 + ( + 1)2 = 8
|x|k |y| = C …(1)
52 + 18 + 9 = 0
 Equation (1) passes through (1, 1) and
 1   = −3, −
3
 10 , 100  5
 
 = −3,  = 2
 C = 1 and k = 2
26. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be
1
 |y| = x–2  y = 2 formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal to ____.
x Answer (26664)
dy Sol. Sum of all unit place numbers
Now e dx = 2 x + 1 3! 3!
= 3!  2 + 3+
dy 2! 2!
= ln(2 x + 1)
dx = 24
Sum of all numbers = 1·24 + 10·24 + 100·24 +
1
y= (2x + 1)(ln | 2x + 1| −1) + C 1000·24
2
= 26664
 This passes through (0, 2)
 2x 
27. If the domain of the function f ( x ) = sec −1  
 C=
5  5x + 3 
2 is [, ) U (, ], then |3 + 10(+) + 21| is equal
 2y = (2x + 1)(ln|2x + 1| – 1) + 5 to ______.
2(y(1)) = 3(ln(3) – 1) + 5 Answer (24.00)
2x
2y(1) = 3ln(3) + 2 Sol.  1 OR  −1
5x + 3
No integral value is possible
−3 x − 3 7x + 3
25. Let the foot of perpendicular from the point A(4, 3, 0 0
1) on the plane P : x – y + 2z + 3 = 0 be N. If B(5, 5x + 3 5x + 3
x +1  −3 −3 
, ), ,   is a point on plane P such that the 0 x  , 
5x + 3  5 7 
area of the triangle ABN is 3 2, then 2 + 2 +   3
x   −1, − 
is equal to  5
Answer (07.00) 3 = –3, 10( + ) = –12, 21 = –9
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

28. Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a Solving (i), (ii) and (iii)
parallelogram ABCD be 2x – 3y = –23 and 5x + 4y
1 1 1
= 23. If the equation of its one diagonal AC is a= , b = and c =
4 2 4
3x + 7y = 23 and the distance of A from the other
diagonal is d, then 50d2 is equal to _______. x2 x 1
Hence the curve is y = + +
Answer (529) 4 2 4
Sol. AB  2 x − 3 y = −23 (,  + 1) lies on curve
BC  5 x + 4 y = 23
2  1
  +1= + +
AC  3 x + 7 y = 23 4 2 4

Solving the lines pairwise gives  ( – 3) ( + 1) = 0

A(–4, 5), B(–1, 7), C(3, 2)  =3

Point in first quadrant is (3, 4)

dy x 1
= + =2
dx x =3 2 2 x =3

−1
 Slope of normal =
2

1
Equation of normal y − 4 = − ( x − 3)
 AC and BD have same mid-point 2

 D is (0, 0) x-intercept = 11
Equation of BD is 7x + 4 = 0 30. Let S be the set of values of , for which the

7( −4) + 5 23 system of equations

d= =
72 + 12 50 6x – 3y + 3z = 42,
Hence, 50d2 = 232 = 529 2x + 6y + 4z = 1,
29. Let the quadratic curve passing through the point
(–1, 0) and touching the line y = x at (1, 1) be y = f(x). 3x + 2y + 3z =  has no solution. Then 12  |  |
Then the x-intercept of the normal to the curve at S

the point (,  + 1) in the first quadrant is _____. is equal to _______.

Answer (11) Answer (24)
Sol. Let the curve be y = ax2 + bx + c
Sol. For no solution
Passes through (–1, 0)
6  −3 3
 a–b+c=0 …(i)
2 6 4 =0
Passes through (1, 1)
3 2 3
 a+b+c=1 …(ii)
 93 – 7 – 2 = 0
Tangent to y = x at (1, 1)

dy  ( – 1) (3 + 1) (3 + 2) = 0
 =1
dx x =1
 1 2
 12  |  | = 12   1 + +  = 24
 2a + b = 1 …(iii) S  3 3
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

PHYSICS
34. The amplitude of magnetic field in an
SECTION - A
electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 6.0 × 10–7 T. The maximum value of electric field in
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices the electromagnetic wave is
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) 2 × 1015 Vm–1 (2) 180 Vm–1
Choose the correct answer: (3) 6.0 × 10–7 Vm–1 (4) 5 × 1014 Vm–1
31. The half life of a radioactive substance is T. The Answer (2)
7 Sol. E0 = cB0
time taken, for disintegrating th part of its original
8 = 3 × 108 × 6 × 10–7
mass will be:
= 180 Vm–1
(1) 2T (2) 3T
(3) T (4) 8T 35. Given below are two statements:
Answer (2) Statement I : Rotation of the earth shows effect on
Sol. t1/2 = T the value of acceleration due to gravity (g).

 N0  Statement II : The effect of rotation of the earth on

Remaining =   the value of 'g' at the equator is minimum and that
 8 
at the pole is maximum.
N0
= In the light of the above statements, choose the
( 2 )3 correct answer from the options given below
 3 half life (1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
 t = 3T (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
32. Two projectiles are projected at 30° and 60° with (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by the two projectiles (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
respectively is: Answer (4)
(1) 3 :1 (2) 1: 3 Sol. Rotation shows effect on acceleration due to gravity
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 3 (g).
Effect of rotation on g is maximum at equator and
Answer (4)
(u sin  )
minimum at pole.
(H1 )max
2 2 2 2
1 1  sin30   1  1 36. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
= 1
=  =  =
(u sin  )
Sol.
(H2 )max 2
2
2
2  sin60   3 3 Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
2
Assertion A : An electric fan continues to rotate for
33. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the
some time after the current is switched off.
following statement is NOT true?
(1) There is no heat supplied to the system Reason R: Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of
(2) There is no change in the internal energy motion.
(3) The temperature of the gas increases In the light of above statements, choose the most
(4) The change in the internal energy is equal to appropriate answer from the options given below.
the work done on the gas (1) A is correct but R is not correct
Answer (2)
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
Sol. If adiabatic process,
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
Q = 0, and U  0
explanation of A
U = –W
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
If gas is compressed
correct explanation of A
W < 0
Answer (3)
U > 0
T > 0 Sol. Fan continue to rotate due to inertia of motion.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

37. Young’s moduli of the material of wires A and B are 40. A massage signal of frequency 3 kHz is used to
in the ratio of 1 : 4, while its area of cross sections modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1.5 MHz. The
are in the ratio of 1 : 3. If the same amount of load bandwidth of the amplitude modulated wave is
is applied to both the wires, the amount of (1) 6 MHz (2) 6 kHz
elongation produced in the wires A and B will be in (3) 3 MHz (4) 3 kHz
the ratio of Answer (2)
[Assume length of wires A and B are same] Sol. Bandwidth = 2 × signal frequency
(1) 12 : 1 (2) 1 : 36 = 2 × 3 kHz
(3) 36 : 1 (4) 1 : 12 = 6 kHz
Answer (1) 41. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the
 FL  screen in a Young’s double slit experiment where
Sol. L =   phase difference between two waves of same
 AY 
amplitude are /3 and /2, respectively are
L1 F1  A  Y 
=   2  2  (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3
L2 F2  A1  Y1  (3) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
3  4 Answer (4)
= 1     
 1  1 
Sol. I = 4I0 cos2  
L1  2
= 12 : 1
L2  3
cos2    
38. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and then
I1
= 6 =  4 = 3
2
I2   1  
x distance with velocity v2 in the same direction. The cos2  
average velocity of the person is v, then the relation  
4 2
between v, v1 and v2 will be 42. The time period of a satellite, revolving above
v1 + v 2 earth’s surface at a height equal to R will be
(1) v =
2 (Given g = 2 m/s2, R = radius of earth)
1 1 1 (1) 2R (2) 8R
(2) = +
v v1 v 2 (3) 32R (4) 4R
(3) v = v1 + v2 Answer (3)
2 1 1
= +  GM 
(4) Sol. v =  
v v1 v 2  2R 
Answer (4) 2R 2R  2 4R 2
T= = =
x+x  2v v  GM gR  R
Sol. Vavg = = 1 2 
 x x   v1 + v 2  2R 2
 + 
 v1 v 2   T = 4 2R = 32R
39. For a periodic motion represented by the equation 43. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25 
y = sin t + cos t in the below circuit,
the amplitude of the motion is
(1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) 2 (4) 2
Answer (4)
Sol. Y = sint + cost
 
= 2 sin  t + 
 4
Amplitude = 2
Which of the following options is correct?

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening
I1 I2 When V0 = 0,
(1) =1 (2) =1
I2 I3   h 
=
I1 I3 e  e 
(3) =2 (4) =1
I2 I4 6.626  10−34  5  1014
 = h =
Answer (3) 1.6  10−19
 5  I1 6.626  5
Sol. I1 =   =2 =  10−1
 100  I2 1.6
 5  I2 6.626  5
I2 =   = =  2.07 eV
 200  I3 16
I3 = 0 46. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis
 5  I3 of a very long vertical copper tube. After some time
I4 =   =0 the magnet will
 200  I4
(1) move down with an acceleration equal to g
44. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied
electric field, the free electrons of the conductor (2) oscillate inside the tube
(1) Drift from higher potential to lower potential (3) move down with almost constant speed
(2) Move with the uniform velocity throughout from (4) move down with an acceleration greater than g
lower potential to higher potential Answer (3)
(3) Move in the straight line paths in the same Sol. Due to change in magnetic field eddy current is
direction generated and this will oppose the motion, so after
(4) Move in the curved paths from lower potential attaining some speed, magnet will move down with
to higher potential constant speed.
Answer (4) 47. The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d
Sol. Electron drifts from lower potential to higher and its capacitance is C1, when air is the medium
potential on curved path. between the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness
45. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a function 2d
and of the same area as plate is introduced
of the frequency () of the incident light for a metal 3
is shown in figure. The work function of the surface between the plates, the capacitance of the
is C
capacitor becomes C2. The ratio 2 is
C1
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
Answer (1)
Sol.

(1) 2.98 eV (2) 2.07 eV

 A
(3) 1.36 eV (4) 18.6 eV C1 =  0 
 d 
Answer (2)
hc
Sol. eV0 = −

hc    h   
V0 = − = −
e  e  e  e 

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

0 A k 0 A In the light of the above statements, choose the


Ceq =
( d 3 ) ( 2d 3 ) correct answer from the options give below.
0 A k 0 A (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
+
d 3 ( 2d 3 ) (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
9k 0 A
Ceq = as k →  (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
( 6 + 3k ) d
Answer (4)
90 A  3 A  Sol. For diamagnetic substance (–1 < x < 0)
C2 = Ceq = = 0 
6   d 
 k + 3d
and diamagnetic is repelled by the magnetic field
  SECTION - B
C Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
 2 =3
C1 contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
48. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
system will be, truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
(1) 11RT (2) 8RT
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
(3) 4RT (4) 16RT the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer (1) 51. A point object, ‘O’ is placed in front of two thin
1 + n2CV2T
Sol. Internal energy = n1CVT symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L1 and L2 with
focal length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The
 5R  3R
= 2 T + 4  2 T distance between two lenses is 10 cm and the
 2  object is placed 6 cm away from lens L1 as shown
= 11RT in the figure. The distance between the object and
49. In an experiment with vernier callipers of least count the image formed by the system of two lenses is
0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined together the zero ________ cm
of vernier scale lies right to the zero of the main
scale and 6th division of vernier scale coincides with
the main scale division, While measuring the
diameter of a spherical bob, the zero of vernier
scale lies in between 3.2 cm and 3.3 cm marks and
4th division of vernier scale coincides with the main
scale division. The diameter of bob is measured as
(1) 3.22 cm (2) 3.18 cm Answer (34)
(3) 3.26 cm (4) 3.25 cm Sol.
Answer (2)
Sol. L.C. = 0.1 mm
For 6th division = 0.6 mm
Reading = 3.20 + 0.04 – 0.06
= 3.20 – 0.02 = 3.18 cm
50. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: For diamagnetic substance For L1 For L2
–1  x  0 , where x is the magnetic susceptibility. 1 1 1
+ = u = – 18 cm
Statement II: Diamagnetic substance when placed v 6 24
in an external magnetic field, tend to move from 1 1 1 1 1 1
= – + =
stronger to weaker part of the field. v 24 6 v 18 9
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

1– 4 1 1 1 2k e 2  9  109  2  10–8  1.6  10–19

= = – v= =
24 v 9 18 m 9  10–31
1  –3  2 –1
= = = 1.6  4  1013 = 4  2  106 m/s
v  24  18
1 1 = 8 × 106 m/s
v = – 8 cm = 54. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a long
v 18
solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and carries
v = 18 cm
a sinusoidally varying current of amplitude 2.5 A and
Distance between object and distance = 16 + 18
angular frequency 700 rad s –1. The central axes of the
34 cm loop and solenoid coincide. The amplitude of the emf
52. A force of –P kˆ acts on the origin of the coordinate induced in the loop is x × 10–4 V. The value of x is
________.
system. The torque about the point (2, –3) is

( ) a x 22
P aiˆ + bjˆ , The ratio of is . The value of x is (Take,  = )
b 2 7
Answer (3) Answer (44)

Sol. F = – pkˆ Sol.

r = (0 – 2)iˆ + (0 + 3) jˆ = –2iˆ + 3 jˆ

( ) ( )
r  F =   –2iˆ + 3 jˆ  – pkˆ

 = –2pjˆ – 3piˆ = p ( aiˆ + bjˆ )

B = (0ni) = 0 × 5000 × 2.5 sin(700t)
 a = –3 B = 12500 × 2.5 sin(700t)
b = –2  = (2 × 2) × 10–4 × 12500 0sin(700t)
a 3  = 5 0 sin(700t)
 =  so x = 3
b  2 
d 22
53. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical = ind = 3500   4  10–7 cos(700t )
dt 7
wire having uniform linear charge density 2 × 10–8
= 44 × 10–4 cos (700t)
C m–1 in circular path under the influence of
attractive electrostatic field as shown in the figure. 55. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400
The velocity of electron with which it is revolving is kg (600 kg – Passengers + 800 kg - elevator), which
________ × 106 m s–1. Given mass of electron = 9 is moving up with a uniform speed of 3 m s–1 and
× 10–31 kg the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N, then the
maximum power used by the motor is _______
kW (g = 10 m/s2)
Answer (48)

Sol.

Answer (8)
 2k  
Sol. E =  
 r  Fnet = 14000 + 2000
 mv 2  = 16000 N
Force = 
 r 
  p = 16000 × 3
= 48000 W
2k e mv 2
 = = 48 kW
r r
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

56. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series

then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will be

_____ Å.

Answer (3668)
Answer (2)
−13.6 z 2
Sol. E = Lyman series Sol.
1

 hc 
1 =  
 E  0i 4 10−7  14
B= =
4R 4  2.2  10−2
−13.6 z2
Similarly for Balmer series, E = 22 14
4 =   103  10−7
7 22
hc  hc 
2 = =  = 2 × 10–4 T
 −13.6 z   E 
2
  59. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the
 4 
tube by a piston having area of cross section
1  E2  1 2.0 cm2. The area of cross section at the outlet
 = = is 10 mm2. If the piston is pushed at a speed of
2  E1  4
4 cm s–1, the speed of outgoing fluid is ___ cm s–1
 2 = 4

  = 4 × 917

= 3668 Å Answer (80)

57. A rectangular parallelopiped is measured as Sol. A1V1 = A2V2
1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. If its specific resistance is
3 × l0–7 m, then the resistance between its two  AV  2  10−4  4
 V2 =  1 1  =
opposite rectangular faces will be _____ × 10–7 .  A2  10  10−6

Answer (3) = 80 cm/s

60. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a
Sol.
horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic
motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14 s. The
maximum force exerted by spring on block is ___ N
Answer (20)
l = 1 cm = 0.01 m Sol. F = ma
A = 100 × 1 = 100 cm2 amax = 2A
= 0.01 m2 2
T= = 3.14

l 3  10−7  0.1
R= = = 3  10−7 
A 0.1   = 2 rad/sec

58. A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is bent into amax = 4 × 1

a semicircular arc of radius 2.2 cm as shown in the
= 4 m/s2
figure. The magnetic field produced by the current
at the centre (O) of the arc is ____ × 10–4 T  F = 5 × 4 = 20 N

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A (C) Mn3+ = 4s03d4
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 0 = 3(–.40) + 1(.60)
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices = –1.20 + 0.60
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. = –.60
Choose the correct answer: (D) Fe3+ = 4s03d5
61. Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding because 0 = 3(–.40) + 2(.60)

(1) Blood absorbs FeCl3 and forms a complex. = –1.20 + 1.20 = 0

(2) Cl– ions cause coagulation of blood. 63. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction
is
(3) Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively
charged sol.
(4) FeCl3 reacts with the constituents of blood
which is a positively charged sol.
Answer (3)
Sol. Blood is negatively charged sol and Fe 3+ Ions will
(1)
coagulate blood.
62. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Complex Crystal Field splitting
(2)
energy (0)

A. [Ti(H2O)6]2+ I. –1.2

B.  V (H2O)6 
2+ II. –0.6

C. Mn (H2O)6  III. 0

3+ (3)

D. Fe (H2O)6 
3+ IV. –0.8

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(4)
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. (A) Ti2+ : 4s0 3d 2
Sol.
0 = 2(–.40) = – .80
(B) V2+ : 4s03d3
0 = 3(–.40) OCH3 is ortho/para directing, major product will be

= – 1.2 0 obtained from para attack.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

64. In the reaction given below (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
The product ‘X’ is : explanation of A
Answer (1)
(1) Sol. Physical properties of isotopes of hydrogen are
different.
Mass of D is 100% more than mass of H and mass
(2) of T is 200% more than mass of H
67. The decreasing order of hydride affinity for following
carbocations is:
(3)
(A) (B)

(4)
(C) (D)

Answer (3) Choose the correct answer from the options given
Sol. Amide ⎯⎯⎯→ Amine
LiAlH4 below:
(1) C, A, D, B (2) C, A, B, D
Ketone ⎯⎯⎯→
LiAlH4
Alcohol
(3) A, C, D, B (4) A, C, B, D
Double Bond ⎯⎯⎯→ No effect
LiAlH4
Answer (2)

65. Number of water molecules in washing soda and Sol. Least stable carbocation will have highest hydride
affinity.
soda ash respectively are :
Stability of carbocation:
(1) 1 and 10 (2) 10 and 1
D>B>A>C
(3) 10 and 0 (4) 1 and 0
Hydride affinity order:
Answer (3)
C>A>B>D
Sol. Na2CO3.10H2O is washing soda
68. The correct order of the number of unpaired
Na2CO3 is soda ash electrons in the given complexes is
66. Given below are two statements: one is labelled (A) [Fe(CN)6]3–
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as (B) [FeF6]3–
Reason R.
(C) [CoF6]3–
Assertion A : Physical properties of isotopes of (D) [Cr(oxalate)3]3–
hydrogen are different. (E) [Ni(CO)4]
Reason R : Mass difference between isotopes of Choose the correct answer from the options given
hydrogen is very large. below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) E < A < D < C < B (2) E < A < B < D < C
correct answer from the options given below: (3) A < E, C < B < D (4) A < E < D < C < B

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening
Answer (1) Sol. IE2 is always greater than IE1 because on removal
Sol. of e–, size decreases and effective nuclear charge
A [Fe(CN)6]3– 1 increases.

B [FeF6]3– 5 71. Given below are two statements: one is labelled

C [CoF6]3– 4 as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

D [Cr(ox)3]3– 3 Reason R.

E [Ni(CO)4] 0 Assertion A: 3.1500 g of hydrated oxalic acid

No. of unpaired electrons order: dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will
E<A<D<C<B result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
69. The reaction used for preparation of soap from fat Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is
is : 126 g mol–1.
(1) an addition reaction
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) reduction reaction
correct answer from the options given below:
(3) alkaline hydrolysis reaction
(4) an oxidation reaction (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
Answer (3) explanation of A
Sol. (2) A is true but R is false

(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(4) A is false but R is true

Answer (3)

Sol. H2C2O4  2H2O  126 gm mole–1

Reference: NCERT Class-XII Pg-458
70. Given below are two statements: one is labelled  3.15 
 126 
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Molarity (M) =   = 0.10
Reason R. .250

Assertion A : The energy required to form Mg2+ 72. Buna-S can be represented as:
from Mg is much higher than that required to
produce Mg+
(1)
Reason R : Mg2+ is small ion and carry more charge
than Mg+
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2)
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(3)
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4)
explanation of A
Answer (4) Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

Sol. BUNA-S is polymer of 75. Match List-I with List-II.

(i) Buta-1,3-diene List-I List-II
(ii) Styrene A. 16 g of CH4 (g) I Weighs 28g
It’s correct structure is represented in option-2.
B. 1 g of H2(g) II 60.2 × 1023 electrons
73. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from
C. 1 mole of N2 (g) III Weighs 32 g
the following is:
D. 0.5 mol of IV Occupies 11.4 L
(1) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by
SO2(g) volume at STP
hydrolysis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH.
below:
(3) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkene.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) Ozonolysis of alkene
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (4)
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Sol. Reductive ozonolysis of alkenes will lead to
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
formation of aldehyde or ketones, oxidative
Answer (2)
ozonolysis of alkenes will lead to formation of
16
carboxylic acids or ketones. Sol. (A) Moles of CH4 = =1
16
So, alcohol is not formed by ozonolysis of alkenes.
Molecules = 6.02 × 1023
74. The correct order for acidity of the following
Electrons = 10 × 6.02 × 1023
hydroxyl compound is
= 60.2 × 1023
(A) CH3OH
1
(B) (CH3)3COH (B) Moles of H2 = = 0.5 mole
2
(C) 1
Volume at STP   22.8 = 11.4 lit.
2
(C) 1 mole N2 = 28 gm
(D)
1
(D) 0.5 mole SO2 =  64 = 32 gm
2
(E) 76. Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides
is given below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) C > E > D > B > A
(2) E > D > C > B > A
(3) D > E > C > A > B
(4) E > C > D > A > B
Answer (4)
Sol. NO2 group will increase the acidity, OCH3 group at
para position will decrease the acidity, phenol is
more acidic than methanol.
So, Acidic strength E > C > D > A > B

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening
For the given diagram, the correct statement is- 80. In Carius tube, an organic compound ‘X’ is treated
(1) At 600 ºC, CO cannot reduce FeO with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid ‘Y’.

(2) At 600 ºC, CO can reduce ZnO The solution of BaCl2 is added to ‘Y’ to form a
precipitate ‘Z’. ‘Z’ is used for the quantitative
(3) At 600 ºC, C can reduce ZnO
estimation of an extra element. ‘X’ could be
(4) At 600 ºC, C can reduce FeO
(1) Cytosine (2) A nucleotide
Answer (4)
(3) Methionine (4) Chloroxylenol
Sol. Element below in Ellingham diagram can reduce
Answer (3)
oxide of element above it.
Sol. Z is BaSO4
C can reduce FeO at 600 ºC.
Y is H2SO4
77. The correct relationships between unit cell edge
It is clear that “X” must contain sulphur. Methionine
length ‘a’ and radius of sphere ‘r’ for face-centred
is C5H11NO2S.
and body-centred cubic structures respectively are:
SECTION - B
(1) 2 2r = a and 3r = 4a Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

(2) r = 2 2a and 4r = 3a contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five

questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
(3) r = 2 2a and 3r = 4a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
(4) 2 2r = a and 4r = 3a
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
Answer (4) e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
Sol. For FCC: a 2 = 4r the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer.
a = 2 2r
81. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between
For BCC : a 3 = 4r the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete
78. The correct order of metallic character is hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF4 is ______.

(1) K > Be > Ca (2) Be > Ca > K Answer (2)

(3) Ca > K > Be (4) K > Ca > Be Sol. Hydrolysis of XeF4 will give XeO3

Answer (4) XeO3 : Xe(+6)

Sol. K is an alkali metal. XeF4 : Xe(+4)

difference = 2
For alkaline earth metals, metallic character
increases down the group. 82.

79. The delicate balance of CO2 and O2 is NOT

disturbed by
(1) Respiration
(2) Burning of coal The electron in the nth orbit of Li2+ is excited to
(3) Deforestation (n + 1) orbit using the radiation of energy
(4) Burning of petroleum 1.47 × 10– 17J (as shown in the diagram). The value
Answer (1) of n is _______.
Given : RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J
Sol. Burning of coal; deforestation and burning of
petroleum will lead to disturbance of CO2 and O2. Answer (1)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening

 1 1  2x = 270
Sol. 1.47  10−17 = 2.18  10−18  (9)  2 − 
 (n) (n + 1)2  x = 135

1 1 135
0.749 = − Fraction of A(g) decomposed = = 0.3
n 2
(n + 1)2 450

3 x=3
n=1 If we take 0.749 0.75 =
4 86. The number of endothermic process/es from the
83. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is following is _______.
4.90 BM. This metal ion has _______ number of
A. I2 (g) → 2I(g)
unpaired electrons.
B. HCl(g) → H(g) + Cl(g)
Answer (4)
C. H2O(l) → H2O(g)
Sol.  = 4.90
D. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
4.90 = (n)(n + 2) E. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
24 = (n) (n + 2) Answer (4)
n=4 Sol. (D) C ( s ) + O2 ( g) ⎯⎯→ CO2 ( g)
84. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate
Above reaction is combustion of Carbon and
anion involves a gain of _______ electrons.
hence exothermic
Answer (3)
(E) Dissolution of Ammonium chloride in water is
−
Sol. MnO ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ MnO2
4
alkaline
medium endothermic process.
+7 +4

87. The specific conductance of 0.0025 M acetic acid

MnO−4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
strongly alkaline
medium
→ MnO24−
+7 +6 is 5 × 10–5 S cm–1 at a certain temperature. The

85. A(g) 2B(g) + C(g) dissociation constant of acetic acid is _____ ×10–7.
(Nearest integer)
For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is
Consider limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH
450 mm Hg and the pressure at time t is 720 mm
as 400 S cm2 mol–1
Hg at a constant temperature T and constant
Answer (66)
volume V. The fraction of A(g) decomposed under
these conditions is x × 10–1. The value of x is
Sol. m =
k  1000
=
(
5  10–5  103 ) ( ) = 20
(nearest integer) M (
2.5  10–3 )
Answer (3) 20 1
= =
Sol.
400 20

C 2
( 2.5  10 )  201  201 
–3

ka = =
(1–  )  19 
 20 
 
(450 – x) + (2x) + (x) = 720 = 65.789 × 10–7
450 + 2x = 720  66 × 10–7

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Evening
88. The number of incorrect statement/s from the
Sol.
following is ________.

A. The successive half lives of zero order

reactions decreases with time.

B. A substance appearing as reactant in the

chemical equation may not affect the rate of
reaction

C. Order and molecularity of a chemical reaction

can be a fractional number

D. The rate constant units of zero and second

order reaction are mol L–1 s–1 and mol–1 L s–1
respectively

Answer (1)

C0 C C
t= C0 t = 4k0 C0 t = 8k0 C0
Sol. A. C0 ⎯⎯⎯
2k → ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→
2 4 8
The number of molecules having only 2 lone pair of
Successive half lives of zero order reactions electrons = 3
decreases with time Which are H2O; N2 and CO

Note: successive half lives of first order Note:-

reactions remains same XeF4 have 2 lps on central atom, but we are asked
about lone pair in molecule
 A is correct
Official answer is given as 4
(B) B is correct
90. An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm 3 contains
(C) Molecularity cannot be fractional 0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the

Order can be fractional solution at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of
the protein is ________ g mol–1.
 C is incorrect
Given : R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1
(D) Unit of k : Answer (40535)
Zero order = mol lit–1 sec–1 Sol.  = CRT

(1.29  10 ) = (MW0.63
Second order = mol–1 lit sec–1 –3
 ( 0.083 )  300
D is correct
)( 0.3)
89. The number of molecules from the following which 0.63  0.083  300
MW =
contain only two lone pair of electrons is _______ ( 0.3 )  (1.29  10 –3 )
H2O, N2, CO, XeF4, NH3, NO, CO2, F2 = 40534.88

Answer (3)  40535 (Nearest integer)

❑ ❑ ❑

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