ICF POST TEST 3 c.

Use plastic bra liners

d. Wash her nipples with water only
1.When teaching the mother of a child with
eczema, which of the following instructions 6. The midwife is discussing breastfeeding
should be included in the midwife’s teaching? with a postpartum client. Breastfeeding is
discouraged in the postpartum client with

a. Dress the infant warmly to prevent undue a. Diabetes

chilling c. Positive HIV
b. Cut the infant’s fingernails and toenails b. Hypertension
regularly d. Thyroid disease
c. Use bubble bath instead of soap for bathing
d.Wash the infant’s clothes with the mild 7. Refers to the inborn genetically transmitted
detergent and fabric softener capacity for development

2. At what age can most infants sit steadily a. Growth

unsupported? c. Learning
b. Maturation
d. Eugenics
a. 4 month
c. 6 months
8. Which of the following sign indicates that
b. 8 months
the child is ready for toilet training?
d. 12 months

a. Ability to sit and stand

3. These reflexes are stimulated by foreign
c. Desire to please parents
substance entering the upper or lower
b. Pleasure in imitating others
airways:
d. Achievement of impulse control

a. Sneezing and coughing c. Rooting and 9. Sub-specialty of obstetrics concerned with

grasping care of the mother and fetus during
b. Swallowing and gagging
pregnancy, labor and delivery especially
d. Startling and yawning
when the condition is pathologic:

4. During a home visit, a multipara asks the

a. Gynecology
midwife about breastfeeding. She tells the
c. Perinatology
midwife that with her last newborn, her
b. Genetics
nipples became cracked and sore. The
d. Pediatrics
midwife should instruct the client that:
10. An infant is usually expected to say “da-
a. The newborn’s mouth should cover the da” or “ma-ma” to refer to his parents at the
areola during the feeding age of:
b. Breast feeding every 4 to 5 hours should
decrease nipple soreness
a. 5 months
c. Nipples should be washed with a mild soap
c. 9 months
and rinsed thoroughly
b. 6 months
d. Using plastic nipple shields that fit over the
d. 15 months
nipples should alleviate the problem
11. Which of the following hospital practices
5. To prevent cracked nipples while she is
will greatly promote bonding between mother
breastfeeding, the mother should be taught to:
and child?

a. Apply lanolin prior to feedings

a. Breastfeeding
b. Nurse at least 20 minutes on each breast the
c. Flexible visiting hours
first day
b. Excellent nursery services c. conduction
12. Baby Sheila is two-days-old and is being b. Radiation
breast fed. The midwife finds that yesterday d. Convection
her stool was thick and tarry, today it is
thinner and greenish brown; she voided twice 17. Which body system grows more rapidly
since birth with some pink stains noted on during early childhood.
a. Spinal cord and brain
the diaper. The midwife knows that these
c. Testes and ovaries
findings indicate
b. Muscles and bones
d. Liver and intestines
a. marked dehydration
b. normal newborn elimination 18. The midwife teaches the client’s mother
c. inadequate initial nutrition about the normal reaction that the infant
d. a need for medical consultation might experience 12 to 24 hours after the DPT
immunization, which of the following
13. The midwife notes the following behaviors reactions would the midwife discuss?
in a six-hour-old, full-term newborn:
occasional tremors of extremities, straightens
a. Lethargy.
arms and hands outward and flexes knees
C. Mild fever.ICF POST TEST 3
when disturbed, toes fan out when heel is Page 4
stroked, and tries to walk when held upright. b. Diarrhea
The midwife knows that these findings d. Nasal Congestion
indicate:
19. Tense; bulging fontanels; high pitched cry;
a. signs of drug withdrawal absent Moro reflex:
b. abnormal uncoordinated movements
c. asymmetrical muscle tone a. Brain damage
d. expected neurologic development c. Erb’s palsy
b. Microcephaly
d. None of these
14. The first food to introduce an infant is
iron-fortified cereals, what is the 3rd food that 20. Tachypnea; flaring; grunting; see-saw
a midwife or the mother may introduce to the breathing:
child?
a. Hemolytic disease
a. Fruits c. Respiratory distress syndrome
c. Vegetables b. Pneumonia
b. Meat d. Primary complex
d. Egg Yolk

15. The midwife is assessing the reflexes of a 21. Swelling; foul odor; purulent discharge:
newborn. The midwife assesses which of the
following reflexes by placing a finger in the a. Omphalagia
newborn’s mouth? c. Omphalitis
b. Omphalocele
d. Umbilical hernia
a. Moro reflex
c. Sucking reflex 22. Oriental eyes; flat occiput; mental
b. Rooting reflex retardation; simian crease:
d. Babinski reflex

16. When the newborn is place on a cold crib a. Cretinism

or wrapped in a cold blanket, cold stress can c. Down’s syndrome
b. Cystic fibrosis
occur due to heat loss by? d. Craniocynostosis
a. Evaporation
23. The age group most susceptible to child d. Desire to be independent
abuse is the:
a. Pre-school 31. The age of increased sexual curiosity is
c. Toddler the:
b. School a. Adolescent age
d. Infant c. Toddlerhood
b. Preschool
d. School
24. According to Erikson, the school child is
striving to attain:
32. At what stage of development does the
a. Trust vs. Mistrust
child recognize the parents?
c. Identity vs. role confusion
a. 4 months
b. Initiative vs. guilt
c. 8 months
d. Industry vs. inferiority
b. 6 months
d. 1 year
25. Measles vaccine is administered:
a. At 9 months
33. Minerals important in the development of
c. subcutaneously
the baby’s teeth:
b. To prevent rubeola
a. All of these
d. All of these
c. Fluoride & calcium
b. Zinc & potassium
26. The greatest fear of a toddler is:
d. Sodium & chloride
a. Stranger anxiety
b. DarkICF POST TEST 3
34. Colic is common to infants up to how many
c. Separation anxiety
months of age?
d. Displacement fear
a. 3-5
c. 5-7ICF POST TEST 3
27. When doing hair shampoo, the baby
Page 6
should be held using the technique called
b. 2-4
a. Football hold
d. 4-5
c. Cradle hold
b. Shoulder hold
35. The giving of supplementary foods for
d. Neck to Buttocks hold
infants could be started at what months?
a. 4 months
28. Which is the following is an expected
c. 3 months
activity of an 8 month old with a normal
b. 5 months
growth
d. 6 months
a. stand alone
c. eats alone
36. Which of the following disease caused by
b. sits alone
virus that attacks the motor cells of the spinal
d. crawl
cord?
a. Meningitis
c. Tetanus
b. Paralysis
d. Poliomyelitis
29. The reflex that is employed in an infant’s
search for food is:
a. Moro
c. Swallowing
37. The position of choice for a hydrocephalus
b. Sucking
infant after feeding is:
d. Rooting
a. Sitting
c. Side lying
30. The hallmark of adolescence is:
b. Face lying
a. Obesity
d. Back lying
c. Acne vulgaris
b. Fear of death
38. When the infant has diarrhea a cheap & c. 16 pounds
effective means of replacing the total lost b. 18 pounds
fluids & electrolytes is d. 24 pounds
by giving:
a. Oresol 46. Caput succedaneum usually disappears at
c. Tea least how many days after birth
b. Am a. a. 5-8
d. Milk c. 3-7
b. 2-3
39. Normally how many beats per minute is d. 7-9
the cardiac rate of boy Singson at birth?
a. 80-100 47. When assessing an infant, which of the
c. 100-120 would the midwife expect from a 4-month old
b. 120-160 baby
d. 140-160 a. Sit with support
c. finger to thumb grasp
40. Defined as the inflammation of the b. ability to reach toy
umbilical cord? d. says mama and dada
a. Gastritis
c. Stomatitis 48. A midwife is preparing to assess the apical
b. Colitis heart rate of a newborn infant in the newborn
d. Omphalitis nursery.
The midwife performs the procedure and
41. A five-day old infant with white, cheesy notes that the heart rate is normal if which of
patches on the tongue and buccal mucosa is the following is
probably infected noted?
with a. A heart rate of 90 beats/min ICF POST TEST
a. Staphylococcus 3
c. Streptococcus Page 8
b. E. Coli b. A heart rate of 180 beats/min
d. Candida albicans c. A heart rate of 140 beats/min
d. A heart rate of 190 beats/min
42. The milk production influence by which of
the following hormoneICF POST TEST 3 49. The midwife counsels a mother of a 9-
Page 7 month old child to make sure the floors are
a. Prolactin free of small object
c. Oxytocin when her child is crawling on the floor. The
b. Progesterone major rationale for this instruction is that:
d. Estrogen a. an 9-month old infant can easily pick up
small objects
43. By one year, these are expected of a child b. sharps objects can injure the fragile skin of
except: 8-month-old
a. Knows his name c. it is health hazard for babies to pick things
b. BW- 6 lbs, WT-18 lbs at 1 year up off the floor
c. Can stand alone and walk with help d. the infant could hide small objects, making
d. Number of teeth is 8-10 them difficult to locate

44. An abnormal condition of the baby: 50. After teaching a mother about the
a. Epstein pearls at the palate appropriate play for an 8-month old infant,
b. Caput succedaneum in the scalp the midwife is aware
c. White plaques over the tongue that the mother needs additional teaching
d. Erythema toxicum when the mother states that she will buy a:
45. An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth a. stuffed animal
would be expected to weigh how many c. hanging mobile
pounds at 1 year? b. bicycle
a. 14 pounds d. book with textures
 d. Wash perineum with water and pat it dry,
51. The most appropriate toys for 6-month replace with a dry one
old infants would be:
a. push-pull toys 57. A mother asks the midwife why the shape
c. soft stuffed animals of her newly born baby’s head is elongated
b. wooden blocks while her sister’s baby is not. The midwife
d. shape-matching toys
includes the following points when explaining
the reason to the mother except:
52. When discussing a 6-month-old infant
a. This is a reason why her baby must have a
motor skill development with the mother, the
neurologic examination to rule out brain
midwife should
damage
explain that by age 6 months, an infant MOST
b. It is called molding but not treatment is
likely will be able to
needed for it
a. walks with support
c. It is common among first born infants.
b. stand while holding unto furniture
d. Her sister’s baby maybe small or is not the
c. eats with a spoon
eldest
d. sit alone using the hands for support

53. A mother asked the midwife why her 58.An infant’s mother says, “The soft spot near
baby’s urine looks like water. The midwife the front of his head is still big. When will it
tells the mother that: close?” the midwife’s correct response would
a. She must bring her baby to the clinic for be at:
examination as this is unusual a. 2 to 4 months
b. Newborn urine should be yellowish in color c. 5 to 5 months
like the adultICF POST TEST 3 b. 9 to 12 months
c. Her baby’s urine is to dilute so she must add d. 12 to 18 months
more milk to the formula
d. Newborn kidneys are immature causing
urine to be diluted
59. The mother asks about dental care for her
54. Neonatal tetanus continues to kill infants. child. She says that she helps brush the child’s
The main cause is: teeth daily.
a. Failure of the midwife to wash her hands Which of the following responses by the
before and after delivery of the baby’s body midwife would be most appropriate?
b. Failure of the mother to have regular a. “Since you help brush her teeth, there’s no
prenatal check up need to see a dentist now”
c. Unhygienic practices when cutting cord b. “You should have begun dental
d. Inability in the health worker to provide appointments last year, but it’s not too late”
education among mothers c. “Your child doesn’t need to see the dentist
until she starts school”
55. Overt sign of kwashiorkor includes the d. “A dental checkup is a good idea, even if no
following except noticeable problems are present”
a. Loss of muscular tissue
c. Liver enlargement 60. Which of the following reflexes of the
c. Edema newborn is stimulated if you ask the mother
d. Emaciated with old man face
to nudge the newborn towards her breast
56. The midwife teaches the new mother that once that the baby shows signs of readiness to
to avoid diaper rash among babies it is feed?
important to: a. Sucking reflex
a. Dry perineum with used diaper and apply c. Crawling Reflex
powder b. Swallowing Reflex
b. Removed the soiled diaper then pat the d. Rooting Reflex
perineum dry and replace with a new one
c. Remove the diaper and replace with a new
one
61. Sleep pattern of newborns is one of the 67. The major energy source for heat
greatest challenges for new parents. As a production in the neonate is:
midwife, you know a. Norepinephrine secretion
that have to inform the parents that a c. Steroid secretion
newborn usually sleeps for how many hours b. Subcutaneous fat
in a day? d. Brown fat
a. 15 hours
c. 18 hours 68. An infant who is classified as SGA is one
b. 16 hours whose intrauterine growth occurred at:
d. 14 hours a. A retarded rate
c. A mature rate
62. Which of the following toys is best to offer b. An accelerated rate
a 5-month old infant? d. A normal rate
a. Rattle
c. Colored Blocks 69. Pre-term, post-term, SGA & LGA neonates
b. Sorters are all susceptible to which of the following
d. Push-Pull toys neonatal complications?
a. Hyperglycemia
63. The following are developmental c. Hypoglycemia
milestones for a 10-month infant, except? b. Hypermagnesaemia
a. Able to use pincer grasp d. Hypercalcemia
c. Loves to play peek-a-boo
b. Can say bye-bye 70. A two-month old infant is brought to the
d. Walks with support clinic for the first immunization against DPT.
The midwife should administer the vaccine via
64. When is the infant physiologically ready what route?
for supplemental feeding? a. Oral.
a. 4 months c. Intramuscular
c. 6 months b. Subcutaneous
b. 9 months d. Intradermal
d. 2 years’ old
71. Which pulse is best assessing a neonate?
65. The midwife collects the following data a. Carotid
while assessing the skin of a six-hour-old c. Popliteal
newborn: color pink with bluish hands and b. Brachial
feet, some pale yellow papules with red base d. Apical
over trunk, small white spots on the nose, and
a red area at the nape of the neck. The 72. In teaching parents’ guidelines about
midwife’s next action would be to infant development, you teach them that
a. document findings as within normal range infants are able to hold their heads in a
b. isolate infant pending diagnosis midline position at the age of:
c. request a dermatology consultation a. 6 weeks
d. document as indicators of malnutrition c. 9 weeks
b. 24 weeks
d. 12 weeks
66. You are preparing to administer a
prophylactic agent for opthalmia neonatorum. 73. The midwife understands that high oxygen
Opthalmia neonatorum occurs as a concentrations for preterm infants must be
carefully monitored to prevent the
consequence of contact with which of the
development of:
following?
a. Cataracts
a. Monilia
c. Opthalmia neonatorum
c. Gonococcus
b. Strabismus
b. Streptococcus
d. Retinopathy of prematurity
d. Syphilis
74. An infant is born with an APGAR SCORE of a. it indicates presence of fluid in the lungs,
3 at 1 minute. The midwife is aware that this which can aggravate pneumonia.
score necessitates: b. it indicates narrowing of the air passages,
which means obstruction
a. Oxygen & mask
c. absent or diminished breath sounds indicate
b. Immediate resuscitation
that air is not entering that part of the lungs.
c. Additional warning measures
d. excess mucus maybe present in the lungs of
d. Stimulation of the soles of the feet
the child, which should be suctioned right
away
75. When making an midwife stump usually
old infant with bronchiolitis, the midwife
81. Vaccines that needs only 1 dose to provide
would, except:
immunity:
a. A decreased heart rate c. Increased breath
a. Anti-tetanus
sounds
c. Oral polio
b. Prolonged expiratory phase
b. Measles
d. Intercostal & sub costal retraction
d. BCG
76. After birth, the midwife stump usually
dries and pulls off within:
82. The hormone in the baby that stimulates
a. 1-2 days
the production of milk in the breast care:
c. 3-7 days
a. Estrogen
b. 2-3 weeks
c. Progesterone
d. 4-6 weeks
b. Oxytocin
d. Testosterone
77. The LEAST important APGAR score is:
a. Heart rate
83. Which of the following contents of
c. Color
breastmilk support the brain & nerve
b. Muscle tone
development?
d. Respiratory effort
a. Calcium
c. Fats
78. Which of the following statement is not
b. Carbohydrates
true about the composition of breast milk?
d. TaurineICF POST TEST 3
a. Enough vitamin making vitamin
Page 14
supplementation and fruit juices unnecessary
b. More amount of salt, calcium and
84. The last solid food given to infant is:
phosphates
a. Lugaw
c. More lactose than most other milk
c. Meat
d. It has the right amount of the most suitable
b. Cereal
protein and fat
d. Fish
79. To determine the effectiveness of health
85. The bone which is usually affected in caput
teaching, the midwife should evaluate:
succedaneum is:
a. if the client can provide correct answer
a. Frontal
correct answers when asked about the
c. Occipital
content
b. Temporal
b. if the client asked questions for further
d. Parietal
clarifications
c. if there are other areas in client’s K-S-A that
86. Which of the following months the baby
needs improvement
can drink from cup & eat well with his fingers?
d. if there is a change in the client’s behavior
a. 9-12
c. 5-5
80. While auscultating the 2-year-old child
b. 4-5
with history of pneumonia, the midwife did
d. 7-8
not hear breath sound on the left lower side
of the child’s lung. This is an indicative of: 87. An infant enjoys being held & holding him
develops his sense of:
a. Independence 95. How many teeth does a 36-month old
c. Love toddler have?
b. Security a. 8
d. Trust c. 20
b. 32
88. Breast milk is best for babies because it d. 16
contains protein that is easily digestive, two
proteins is known 96. Excessive salivation; choking; coughing;
as: material polyhydramnios:
a. Thiamine a. Intestinal obstruction
c. Casein c. Esophageal atresia
b. Albumin b. Brain injury
d. Lactalbumin d. Primary complex

89. A baby when placed her head in a prone 97. A school child with tea-colored urine,
position usually: edema of the lids, oliguria, fever and
a. Crawl her feet hypertension is likely to have which
c. Lift her head condition?
b. Lags her head a. Glomerulonephritis
d. Turn to sides c. Rheumatic fever
b. Meningitis
d. Urinary tract infection

90. During phototherapy, the midwife’s most

important responsibility is:
a. Cover eyes & genital
c. Keep on NPO 98. How many minutes from the boiling point
b. Turn every 2 hours should the midwife boil the equipment she
d. Measure intake & output used during immunization?
a. 40
91. The presence of excessive drooling of the c. 10
saliva in the newborn is indicative of: b. 20
a. Brain damage d. 30
c. Intestinal obstruction
b. Normal 99. On measurements, the newborn chest
d. Congenital esophageal atresiaI circumference measures 32 cm its head is 38
cm. The midwife concludes that her findings:
92. The correct hold for feeding is the:
a. The difference of the chest and head
a. Shoulder hold
circumference is not normal
c. Football hold
b. Are within the normal range and she should
b. Cradle hold
document her findings in the chart
d. None of these
c. Are normal and six weeks’ time, the head
and chest measurement will be equal
93. Criteria for toy selection include the
d. A little above normal and she should wait
following, the most IMPORTANT of which is:
for a week to take another measurement.
a. Attractiveness
c. Safety
100. Estimation of the gestational age of the
b. Suitability
newborn is based on the following except:
d. Price
a. Vital sign
c. Sole creases
94. The first milk teeth to erupt is the:
b. Breast nodules
a. Lateral incisors
d. Testes in scrotum
c. Lower central incisors
b. Upper lateral incisors
d. First molar